Applied Microbiology
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Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the practical applications of microorganisms in various industries, including food and beverage production, pharmaceuticals, agriculture, and environmental management. The course covers the fundamentals of microbial physiology, genetics, and ecology, emphasizing the manipulation and optimization of microbes for commercial and industrial processes. Students will learn about fermentation technology, bioremediation techniques, production of antibiotics, biofuels, and enzymes, as well as the role of microbiology in public health and safety. Case studies highlight real-world applications and the ethical, regulatory, and safety considerations involved in employing microorganisms for societal benefit.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations10th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about pasteurization is false
A)It originally involved heating a substance to 56°C in the absence of oxygen for 30 minutes.
B)It kills unwanted organisms.
C)Pasteurization was orginally developed as a method to keep milk from spoiling.
D)It was developed by Pasteur.
Answer: C
Q2) Over 100 microbial genomes have been sequenced.Beyond yielding insight into microbial genetics,these sequencing projects have been important because:
A)they allow insights into microbial pathogenicity.
B)knowing how many chromosomes a microbe has lets us know if it causes disease.
C)without the sequence of the genome we cannot tell what the organism uses as its genetic material.
D)it demonstrates that microorganisms do not cause infectious diseases.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Microbiome
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Sample Questions
Q1) A course of antibiotics can disturb gut microflora for what period of time
A)2 hours
B)2 minutes
C)2 days
D)2 weeks
E)2 years
Answer: E
Q2) Which disease may be linked to endotoxin release and ensuing inflammation
A)epilepsy
B)autism
C)altered growth rate
D)obesity
E)all are caused by inflammatory disturbances
Answer: B
Q3) Age but not sex affects the gut microbiome.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Food consists of molecules with lots of energy stored in their chemical bonds.What is true about how microorganisms use nutrients
A)When microorganisms break the chemical bonds in nutrients,they release energy.
B)It takes microorganisms more energy to break the bonds in nutrients than are released.
C)All energy that microorganisms receive from nutrients comes from anabolism.
D)Microorganisms break down hydrogen bonds to release electrons as energy.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched
A)Protein-amino acids
B)Nucleic acids-nucleotides
C)Polysaccharides - simple sugars
D)Fats-aldehyde
Answer: D
Q3) Disaccharides,such as sucrose and lactose,are formed from:
A)two monosaccharides connected by a glycosidic bond.
B)chains of two amino acids.
C)long chain of carbon atoms and a carboxyl group at one end of chain.
D)three fatty acids combined with glycerol.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about resolution is true
A)Resolution refers to the ability of a lens to distinguish adjacent objects.
B)With regard to light,resolution means the same thing as wavelength.
C)Resolution refers to a microscope's ability to magnify objects.
D)Resolution is equal to the distance between two adjacent crests of a wave.
Q2) Atomic force microscope:
A)allows 3 dimensional imaging and measurement of structures as small as nucleotides in DNA
B)is not yet capable of measuring small forces
C)involves ultraviolet light exciting molecules so that they release light of a longer wavelength
D)has a special condenser and objective lens
Q3) The lens closest to the slide during a microscopic examination is the _____.
A)ocular
B)objective
C)condenser
D)compound
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6
Chapter 5: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial ribosomes:
A)have a sedimentation rate of 70S
B)are made up of 30S and 40S subunits
C)have a sedimentation rate of 80S
D)are made up of 50S and 30S subunits
Q2) Bacilli produce fewer arrangements than cocci because _____.
A)cocci are smaller than bacilli
B)bacilli only reproduce asexually
C)bacilli divide along several different planes while cocci divide along a single plane
D)cocci divide along several different planes while bacilli divide along a single plane
Q3) Osmosis most directly involves:
A)water moving down a concentration gradient
B)organic molecules crossing a membrane
C)energy being expended to import large molecules into the cell
D)sugars and salts moving down their concentration gradient
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Chapter 6: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Q1) Animals (humans for example)are:
A)photoautotrophs
B)photheterotrophs
C)chemoautotrophs
D)chemoheterotrophs
Q2) Photoautotrophs obtain energy from:
A)light and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source
B)organic molecules and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source
C)inorganic substances and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source
D)light and use organic substances as a carbon source
Q3) The end product of glycolysis is:
A)fructose-1,6-diphosphate
B)1,3 diphosphoglyceric acid
C)phosphoenolpyruvic acid
D)pyruvic acid
Q4) Factors that affect the rate of enzyme catalyzed reactions include:
A)temperature
B)pH
C)concentration of enzyme
D)all of these
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Chapter 7: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonculturable organisms:
A)are rare.
B)can be identified based on their DNA.
C)can only be seen on selective agar plates.
D)have defined generation times.
Q2) A decrease in the amount of nitrogen to a culture of Clostridium botulinum would induce _____.
A)activation
B)germination
C)sporulation
D)outgrowth
Q3) Bacterial growth in colonies on agar plates _____.
A)have all phases of growth occurring simultaneously somewhere in the colony
B)most growth occurs at the center of the colony
C)involves budding of small new colonies from the surface of an existing colony
D)have lag phase cells in the center of the colony,surrounded by a ring of cells in exponential phase
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) An mRNA molecule contains three nucleotide (triplet)units called _____.
A)amino acids
B)bases
C)codons
D)anticodons
Q2) Bacterial chromosomes:
A)must be present for a bacteria to stay alive and reproduce
B)are small segments of DNA that have the ability to move from one position to another
C)contain genetic information that is helpful but not necessary for survival
D)are always circular and only one is present in each bacteria
Q3) Pyrimidine dimers are a type of mutation most commonly caused by:
A)alkylating agents
B)deaminating agents
C)ultraviolet light
D)acridine
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following processes increases variation seen in bacteria
A)Transformation
B)Conjugation
C)Transduction
D)All of these
Q2) Gene amplification:
A)allows transposition of genes from one location on a chromosome to another
B)occurs when recombinant plasmids are induced to reproduce within cells at a rapid rate
C)allows material from one strain to recombine with that from another strain
D)complicate our ability to increase antibiotic production
Q3) Restriction enzymes come from _____.
A)fungal cells
B)viruses
C)bacterial cells
D)animal cells
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Chapter 10: An Introduction to Taxonomy: The Bacteria
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Q1) In the name Escherichia coli,Escherichia refers to the ________ of the bacteria.
A)class
B)phylum
C)species
D)genus
Q2) All of the following are considered eukaryotes except:
A)Archea
B)Fungi
C)Protozoa
D)Humans
Q3) A eukaryotic,multicellular organism that has no cell wall would be classified as a/an: A)moneran
B)animal
C)fungus
D)protist
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Chapter 11: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)is caused by a retrovirus.Which of the following best represents the genetic information flow used by retroviruses
A)DNA --> mRNA --> protein
B)DNA --> protein
C)RNA --> DNA --> mRNA --> protein
D)RNA --> protein
Q2) Much of the information about how viruses work has been gleaned from studying T-even phages that infect:
A)bacteria
B)human cells
C)mammalian cells
D)plant cells
Q3) A rare form of cancer that has become common among men with AIDS is:
A)Kaposi's sarcoma
B)Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
C)Tuberculosis
D)Burkitt's lymphoma
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13
Chapter 12: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) Which of the following statements about Fungi is true
A)sexual stages have all been observed
B)are the biggest organisms on earth
C)live in the intestine or circulatory system of hosts
D)are all multicellular
Q2) Tapeworms consist of a head end and a long chain of hermaphroditic segments,each of which is called a ________.
A)scolex
B)proglottid
C)sporocyst
D)cysticercus
Q3) A tapeworm's hydatid cyst:
A)contains only one cysticercus or bladder worm
B)migrates to the host's digestive gland
C)can enlarge and develop many tapeworm heads
D)develops into mature flukes
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14
Chapter 13: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Q1) When food is salted,water diffuses ________microorganisms,causing them to ____ and die.
A)into; shrink
B)into; explode
C)out of; shrink
D)out of; explode
Q2) Microwave radiation:
A)damages DNA by ionizing radiation.
B)destroys bacterial endospores.
C)produces peroxides,which oxidize molecules.
D)when tuned to energy levels of water releases the energy as heat.
Q3) All of the following are examples of heavy metals used as antimicrobial agents
EXCEPT:
A)iodine
B)merthiolate
C)selenium sulfate
D)copper sulfate
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15
Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mechanisms of bacterial resistance to antimicrobial agents include all of the following except:
A)alteration of ribosomes
B)alteration of an enzyme
C)development of enzymes
D)alteration of normal microflora
Q2) Which of the following directly pertain to inhibition of cellular protein synthesis by antimicrobial agents
A)cellular cytoplasm is lost
B)binding and inhibition of RNA polymerase
C)imitation or molecular mimicry of normal molecules
D)interferes with accurate translation of mRNA message
Q3) Which one of the following antimicrobial agents is an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis
A)Tetracycline
B)Carbapenems
C)Chloramphenicol
D)Erythromycin
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16
Chapter 15: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leukocidin:
A)is an altered toxin that retains its antigenicity
B)is an endotoxin
C)is insoluble in host tissues
D)destroys or damages neutrophils
Q2) Which of the following statements about host-microbes is true
A)A host is any organism that harbors no other organism.
B)Infestation refers to the presence of larger parasites.
C)In mutualism neither of the two species benefits from the relationship.
D)Virulence is defined as the capacity to produce disease.
Q3) Factors that improve the chances of a pathogen's ability to invade a host and cause infection are known as:
A)contagious factors
B)non-communicable factors
C)viral factors
D)virulence factors
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Chapter 16: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) Patients in a hospital setting are typically more susceptible to infections than individuals in the general population and are considered to be _____.
A)compromised
B)vertical
C)horizontal
D)nosocomial
Q2) An index case:
A)refers to the first case where an infectious disease kills a susceptible host
B)is necessary for a common source outbreak
C)defines a propagated epidemic
D)refers to the first case of an infectious disease outbreak to be identified
Q3) An infectious disease in which transmission can occur during the incubation period of disease is considered to be:
A)chronic
B)acute
C)carrier
D)communicable
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Chapter 17: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) Which of the following is not a chemical barrier
A)Mucous membrane
B)Saliva
C)Gastric juice
D)Complement
Q2) Exogenous and endogenous __________ are fever causing substances.
A)prostraglandins
B)pyrogens
C)cytokines
D)bradykines
Q3) Cytokines:
A)are soluble proteins
B)function in host defenses such as macrophage chemotaxis
C)include interferons
D)all of these
Q4) Blood contains cells including all of the following except:
A)red blood cells
B)plasma
C)platelets
D)lymphocytes
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Chapter 18: Basic Principles of Adaptive Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Antigens that have the capacity to activate huge s of immune T cells non-specifically resulting in a large immune response that results in diseases are
A)self antigens
B)non-self antigens
C)superantigens
D)antitoxins
Q2) Both humoral and cellular immunity share the following attributes except:
A)distinguishes self from non-self
B)specificity
C)memory
D)first-line of defense
Q3) Privileged sites:
A)have M cells interspersed between epithelial cells
B)include the uterus,anterior chamber of the eye and testes
C)have especially strong immune responses against viruses
D)are not accessible to most pathogens
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Immune Disorders
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Q1) HIV has an affinity for cells that bear the _______ antigen(s)on their surface.
A)CD4
B)HLA-B27
C)CD8
D)two of these
Q2) All of the following are associated with Type IV hypersensitivity except:
A)antigen presenting cells
B)plasma cells
C)sensitized TH1 cells
D)granulomatous lesions
Q3) Which of the following statements related to serum sickness is false
A)Serum sickness was initially associated with injections of anti-toxin for diphtheria.
B)The patient's immune system makes antibody against horse proteins.
C)Glomerulus function is impaired due to immune complexes.
D)Most patients die rather quickly from the condition.
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21
Chapter 20: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Which statement about skin is incorrect
A)largest single organ of the body
B)dead epithelial cells function as a barrier for infections
C)normal microflora are very sensitive to the skin's antimicrobial substance
D)consists of a thin epidermis and a thicker underlying dermis layer
Q2) Bacterial infections of the eye include all of the following except:
A)onchocerciasis
B)ophthalmia neonatorum
C)conjunctivitis
D)trachoma
Q3) What are the means by which asymptomatic Staphylococcus carriers (like hospital personnel)spread this bacterium
A)via the skin
B)by nasal dropets
C)fomites
D)all of these
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22
Chapter 21: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Non-specific vaginitis is characterized by _____.
A)Gardnerella
B)Bacteroides and Peptostreptococcus
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)two of these
Q2) Nosocomial UTIs are a significant problem for patients who have indwelling catheters; the etiology /ies most likely would be:
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis
B)Proteus vulgaris
C)Escherichia coli
D)all of these
Q3) Herpes infection symptoms are most successfully managed with daily doses of _____.
A)penicillin
B)interferon
C)AZT
D)acyclovir
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Chapter 22: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Legionellosis is controlled by:
A)vaccine administration
B)limited exposure to infected patients
C)regular disinfection of aerosolized water sources
D)prophylactic antibiotic treatment
Q2) Acute epiglottitis is invariably caused by:
A)a virus
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)Corynebacterium pseudoinfluenzae
D)Haemophilus influenzae type B
Q3) The following statements about tuberculosis are all true except:
A)Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare causes TB in AIDS patients
B)the pathogens have long generation time (12-18 hours)
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the most common causative agent
D)the pathogens are very sensitive to drying and die quickly in the environment
Q4) The paroxysmal stage of whooping cough is characterized by _____.
A)mild,dry,persistent cough
B)a migraine headache
C)violent coughing
D)pseudomembrane forming in throat
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Staphylococcus food poisoning is caused by:
A)enterotoxins
B)exotoxins
C)toxins that cause neural stimulation of the vomiting center of the brain
D)all of these choices
Q2) Which of the following microbes causes enteritis that is sometimes is misdiagnosed as appendicitis because the symptoms are very similar
A)Yersinia enterocolitica
B)Salmonella enteritidis
C)Yersinia pestis
D)Campylobacter jejuni
Q3) In areas of good sanitation,shigellosis is usually spread by _____.
A)poor handwashing
B)contaminated water
C)domestic animals
D)all of these choices
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25
Chapter 24: Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, and Systemic Diseases
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Q1) Which infection is seen in individuals with extreme stress,poor sanitation,and nutritional deficiencies,transmitted by body lice and had an impact on both World War I and II
A)Rickettsialpox
B)Dengue fever
C)Smallpox
D)Shinbone fever
Q2) Which of the following diseases was first seen in New York City about 60 years ago,associated with the mites of house mice and often misdiagnosed as chickenpox
A)Ehrlichiosis
B)Turkeypox
C)Rickettsialpox
D)Shingles
Q3) Which infection refers to inflammation of the lining and valves of the heart
A)septicemia
B)rheumatic fever
C)endocarditis
D)puerperal fever
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Chapter 25: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) While over 90% of populations that live in closed environments (such as military bases,dormitories and day-care centers are carriers)only 1 of 1000 carriers will have meningitis.This statement refers to _____.
A)Neisseria meningitidis
B)Haemophilus influenzae type B
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae
D)Haemophilus influenzae type F
Q2) Botulism includes _____.
A)food poisoning
B)infant botulism
C)wound botulism
D)all of these choices
Q3) All of the following are associated with prions except:
A)Chagas' disease
B)Kuru
C)Scrapie
D)Mad cow disease
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The sulfur cycle is of special importance to:
A)terrestrial life
B)pseudomonas
C)proteolytic bacteria
D)aquatic life
Q2) Which is a primary symbiotic nitrogen fixer
A)Azotobacter
B)Rhizobium
C)Cyanobacteria
D)Clostridium
Q3) Which would not be the habitat for terrestrial species of some microorganisms
A)desert
B)tundra
C)tropical rain forest
D)freshwater lake
Q4) Phytoplankton include:
A)cyanobacterteria
B)diatoms
C)dinoflagellates
D)all of these choices
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Chapter 27: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) All of the following are true about microorganisms in food EXCEPT:
A)freezing kills most microbes that contaminate food
B)many microbes find the high osmotic pressure in jam inhospitable
C)scallops rarely transmit disease because only muscular portions are eaten
D)chicken eggs are porous allowing the entry of bacteria as well as fungi
Q2) Which of the following food and microbiology characteristic is incorrectly matched
A)soy sauce - Aspergillus oryzae
B)miso-fermented paste of soybeans
C)sauerkraut - Acetobacter aceti
D)fermenting meats,like salami - Lactobacillus and Pediococcus
Q3) Lyophilization involves:
A)irradiating foods
B)drying foods
C)freezing foods
D)two of these choices
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