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Applied Microbiology Practice Exam - 1617 Verified Questions

Page 1


Applied Microbiology Practice Exam

Course Introduction

Applied Microbiology explores the practical uses of microbial organisms in various sectors, including industry, medicine, agriculture, and environmental management. The course covers fundamental concepts of microbial growth, metabolism, and genetics, alongside techniques for cultivating and manipulating microorganisms. Students will examine how microbes are harnessed in biotechnology applications such as fermentation, waste treatment, food production, and the development of antibiotics and vaccines. Emphasis is placed on laboratory skills, problem-solving, and the ethical considerations of microbial applications in real-world contexts.

Recommended Textbook

Microbiology 2nd Edition by Dave Wessner

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24 Chapters

1617 Verified Questions

1617 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Microbial World

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65 Verified Questions

65 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these are key factors in explaining the discrepancy between death rates in the world versus sub-Saharn Africa in the 21 century? (Select all that apply)

A)Global unavailability of effective antibiotics

B)Poverty of nations in sub-Saharan Africa

C)Political instability

D)Lack of sanitation

E)Global unavailability of vaccines for endemic diseases

Answer: B,C,D

Q2) What percent of the dry weight of the cell is composed of DNA?

A)2 - 5

B)12 -15

C)25 - 30

D)35 -40

E)50 - 55

Answer: A

Q3) The three domains of life are ________,________,and ________.

Answer: Bacteria,Archaea,Eukarya.

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Bacteria

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Sample Questions

Q1) _______ motility is used by myxobacteria and some cyanobacteria for smooth movement across a solid surface.

Answer: Gliding

Q2) Which is the major component of the cell wall of microbes in the Bacteria domain?

A)cellulose

B)chitin

C)protein

D)polysaccharide

E)peptidoglycan

Answer: E

Q3) Which of these gene products appears to confer a survival advantage on bacteria living in a competitive environment?

A)TonB dependent receptors

B)TonB

C)Flagellin

D)ExbB

E)ExbD

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes

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70 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) In which organismal comparison might you best investigate intracellular signaling mechanisms?

A)a comparison of the growth of Saccharomyces and Chlamydomonas

B)a comparison of the growth of Saccharomyces and Dictyostelium

C)a comparison of the growth of Dictyostelium and Chlamydomonas

D)a comparison of the growth of Physarum and Dictyostelium

E)a comparison of the growth of Chlamydomonas and Physarum

Answer: C

Q2) Given the impermanence of the Paramecium bursaria/Zoochlorella endosymbiosis,choose the organelle whose evolution may have followed the cellular acquisition of chloroplasts and mitochondria:

A)rough endoplasmic reticulum

B)Golgi apparatus

C)Lysosome

D)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

E)Nucleolus

Answer: C

Q3) Most cell walls of algae are composed of ___.

Answer: cellulose

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Archaea

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the minimum salt requirement of a halophile?

A)10 mM

B)100 mM

C)250 mM

D)750 mM

E)1.5 M

Q2) How do the Bacteria and Archaea differ in the way the flagellum proteins are handled?

A)Archaea proteins are assembled inside the cell for transport out of the cell.

B)Archaea proteins are excreted to the outside of the cell for self-assembly.

C)Archaea proteins are added to the growing flagellum shaft at the base.

D)Archaea proteins are transported through the hollow flagellum tube for assembly at the end of the flagellum.

E)Archaea proteins are enclosed within a membrane and moved to the outside of the cell.

Q3) One characterized halophilic archaeal species has an unusual cellular morphology in which cells are flat and square.

A)True

B)False

Q4) All known methanogens are found in the domain ___.

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Viruses

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Sample Questions

Q1) How do prions cause disease?

A)By corrupting mRNA expression in the cell.

B)By corrupting DNA replication in the cell.

C)By preventing translation from occurring in the cell.

D)By causing naturally occurring proteins in the cell to change shape.

E)By preventing proper RNA transcription termination.

Q2) Small infectious RNA molecules that are able to cause disease in plants are called ________.

Q3) What is the most common way for non-enveloped viruses to enter animal cells?

A)The virion fuses itself to the cell membrane.

B)The virion directly injects its nucleic acid.

C)Endocytosis of the virion.

D)Through lysis of the cell.

E)Via a hole in the cell membrane.

Q4) Filtration of a bacteriophage preparation replicated in E.coli will effectively separate viable cells from phage particles.

A)True

B)False

Q5) A bacterial strain that contains a phage genome integrated into its chromosome is called a _________.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms

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Sample Questions

Q1) You grow Lactobacillus,an aerotolerant anaerobe,for twelve hours in two identical glucose-conntaining flasks under aerobic conditions (Flask A)and anaerobic conditions (Flask B).Select the correct statements.(Select all that apply)

A)Flask A will grow faster

B)Flask B will have a higher pH

C)Flask A will produce more ATP

D)Flask B will have a higher biomass

E)None is a correct statement

Q2) You are using triple sugar iron agar to differentiate intestinal bacteria.You believe you have isolated Salmonella.What appearance would you see in the culture tube?

A)Red slant,red butt

B)Yellow slant,red butt

C)Red slant,yellow butt

D)Yellow slant,yellow butt

E)Red slant,yellow butt with black H S production

Q3) Nucleic acids strongly absorb _____________ radiation of 260 nm.

Q4) The use of a good antiseptic,such as Betadine,results in sterilization.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression

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Sample Questions

Q1) Replication of the bacterial chromosome begins at how many locations?

A)one

B)two

C)three

D)four

E)five

Q2) What are micro RNAs?

A)mRNAs that encode for regulatory proteins

B)small regulatory RNAs

C)tRNAs

D)rRNAs

E)small mRNAs

Q3) The Shine-Dalgarno sequence on a mRNA is recognized by the __________ of the 30S ribosome.

Q4) A gene can best be described as a segment of DNA that:

A)encodes for a protein.

B)encodes for a protein or functional RNA.

C)is transcribed as well as the associated regulatory regions.

D)encodes for a protein as well as the associated regulatory regions.

E)is transcribed.

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies

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Sample Questions

Q1) HIV enters the cell through a/an _________ mechanism.

A)phagocytic

B)receptor-mediated endocytotic

C)membrane fusion

D)acid-dependent endosomal

E)receptor-independent endocytotic

Q2) Bacteriophage lambda enters the lytic phase of its life cycle when

A)high levels of cI and high levels of cro proteins are present in bacterial cells

B)low levels of cI and high levels of cro proteins are present in bacterial cells

C)high levels of cI and low levels of cro proteins are present in bacterial cells

D)low levels of cI and low levels of cro proteins are present in bacterial cells

E)none of these conditions lead to lysis

Q3) Most enveloped viruses exit their host cell through a process called __________.

Q4) The information presented in section 8.4 suuports the theory that retroviruses produce RNA-dependent DNA polymerase after infection of a host cell.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The process of molecular cloning was mainly brought about through the discovery of these.

A)bacteriophages

B)transposons

C)transformations

D)restriction enzymes

E)conjugation events

Q2) The sucrose resistance phenotype,employed to distinguish single and double crossover events when non-homologous recombination is taking place,would not be detectible if a recipient cell were:

A)unable to hydrolyse sucrose

B)unable to hydrolyse lactose

C)unable to hydrolyse fructose

D)unable to polymerize fructose

E)unable to polymerize sucrose

Q3) In order for a plasmid to replicate once it enters a cell,it must contain an ______ of replication that is recognized by the cell.

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11

Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics

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66 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Sanger method of sequencing uses ALL of the following EXCEPT:

A)dideoxynucleotides.

B)DNA polymerase.

C)a short oligo primer.

D)deoxynucleotides

E)restriction enzymes.

Q2) The Illumina sequencing method is not completely described.Given what you read about it in the text,and given that the method relies upon sequential additions of a single nucleotide,where might you expect the fluorescent removable tag to reside?

A)on a 3' OH-blocker

B)on a 5' phosphate-group

C)on a 2' OH-blocker

D)on the organic base

E)none is a logical position

Q3) The complete complement of proteins in the cell that results from the translation of all the mRNA transcripts is called the ____________.

Q4) The Sanger method of sequencing used special nucleotides that are called ________ nucleotides.

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression

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Sample Questions

Q1) Tryptophan has the molecular property of:

A)being able to bind directly to DNA

B)acting as an activator

C)acting as an inducer

D)acting as a repressor

E)acting as a co-repressor

Q2) Which factors are required and sufficient for nitrogen fixation in E.coli?

A)RNA polymerase,sigma-70,ATP

B)RNA polymerase,sigma-35,ATP

C)RNA polymerase,sigma-54,ATP

D)RNA polymerase,sigma-32,ATP

E)Additional proteins are required

Q3) RNA transcriptional control that is achieved through mRNA secondary structure modification relies upon: (Select all that apply)

A)competition between different regions able to form stem-loop structures

B)abundance of key codons within leader sequences upstram of operon genes

C)single stranded RNA's ability to form hairpin structures

D)Shine Dalgarno sequence sequestration

E)None is a correct choice

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology

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66 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) You aim to isolate insulin from a recombinant E.coli strain.During which phase of growth should its production be induced?

A)lag

B)log

C)stationary

D)death

E)all phases are equivalent

Q2) Microbes used for the production of amino acids are regulatory mutants for overproduction of the amino acid.The regulatory mutants are selected for by growing the microbe in the presence what material?

A)an antibiotic

B)a mutagen

C)an amino acid analog

D)the amino acid of interest

E)an excess of glucose

Q3) The bacterium Bacillus megaterium naturally accumulates the storage granule poly- -hydroxybutyrate.This storage product is used to make _________.

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Chapter 13: Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) (Glutamic acid + NH )is converted to glutamine G ' = +14.2 kJ/mole.Coupling this reaction with ATP hydrolysis yields an overall free energy value of:

A)16.3 kJ/mole

B)-16.3 kJ/mole

C)44.7 kJ/mole

D)-44.7 kJ/mole

E)-314 kJ/mole

Q2) How would the "dark reactions" of photosynthesis best be described?

A)energy generating reactions

B)carbon dioxide fixing reactions

C)glycolytic reactions

D)reducing power generating reactions

E)part of photosystem II

Q3) During the respiratory process,as electrons are passed through the electron transport chain,a ________ ________ force is generated across a biological membrane to drive the synthesis of ATP by a membrane associated ATP synthase.

Q4) Most cells prefer to assimilate nitrogen as ammonia.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles

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Sample Questions

Q1) The burning of fossil fuels has contributed to an increase in the atmospheric gas

Q2) Elemental movement between reservoirs is termed:

A)flux

B)source

C)sink

D)oxidation

E)reduction

Q3) Which carbon reservoir is most actively cycled?

A)the atmosphere

B)ocean waters

C)underground limestone

D)forest mulch

E)ocean sediments

Q4) Which of these best describes nitrification?

A)chemoorganotrophic

B)chemolithoautotrophic

C)photolithoautotrophic

D)photoorgano heterotrophic

E)photlithoautotrophic

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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems

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Sample Questions

Q1) FISH is a fluorescent microscopic technique used to differentiate microbes using this fluorescently labeled material.

A)antibody

B)antigen

C)protein

D)DNA probe

E)lipid

Q2) All of the following but one are xenobiotics that frequently contaminate our terrestrial environments.Which one does NOT represent a xenobiotic?

A)polychlorinated biphenyls

B)polycyclic aromatics

C)lignin

D)trichloroethylene

E)nitroaromatics

Q3) Deep subsurface environment are considered to be void of microbial life.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The use of living organisms to clean up chemically contaminated soils is called

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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water

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Sample Questions

Q1) At an aw of 0.93,which of these microbes might cause food spoilage? (Select all that apply)

A)Staphylococcus aureus

B)E)coli

C)Xerophilic molds

D)Osmophilic microbes

E)Pseudomonas

Q2) Which one of the following foods is not a fermented milk product?

A)Swiss cheese

B)Kefir

C)Butter

D)Butter milk

E)Yogurt

Q3) Vinegar production occurs through the oxidation of ethanol by

A)lactic acid bacteria.

B)the yeast Saccharomyces.

C)various molds.

D)acetic acid bacteria.

E)sulfate-reducing bacteria.,

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which microbe has the greatest potential to colonize the stomach?

A)Shigella

B)Helicobacter

C)Pathogenic E.coli

D)Lactobacillus

E)Bifidobacterium

Q2) The hydrogen and carbon dioxide produced in the gut of the lower termite are used to produce __________ by symbiotic microbes.

A)methane

B)lactate

C)fatty acids

D)amino acids

E)glucose

Q3) Amino acids for anabolic requirements are obtained by ruminants through: (Select all that apply)

A)ingestion of plant proteins

B)ingestion of animal proteins

C)digestion of microbial proteins

D)digestion of microbially-converted nitrogenous wastes

E)kidney reabsorption of urea

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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) What does a high case-to-infection ratio (CI)indicate?

A)That the disease is usually fatal.

B)That most people infected by the pathogen will develop the disease.

C)That most people infected by the pathogen will not develop the disease.

D)That the disease is usually very mild.

E)That the pathogen is transmitted by an aerosol route.

Q2) Pathogenic E.coli strain O157:H7 evolved from a non-pathogenic strain as a result of this genetic change.

A)A mutation in a virulence gene.

B)A mutation that resulted in antibiotic resistance.

C)The acquisition of virulence genes from Shigella.

D)The use of antibiotic supplements in animal feeds.

E)A mutation that resulted in increased capsule production.

Q3) Which of these would need to occur for a disease to be considered communicable?

A)A susceptible host encounters an infectious agent.

B)An infectious agent colonizes a host.

C)An infectious agent colonizes a host and can be transmitted to another host.

D)An infectious agent causes damage to the host.

E)An infectious agent causes damage to the host and can be transmitted to another host.

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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion

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Sample Questions

Q1) The invertebrate immune response involves ALL of the following EXCEPT:

A)phagocytic amoebocytes.

B)antimicrobial peptides.

C)antibody producing B-cells.

D)opsonization of microbes by lectins.

E)melanin encapsulation of microbes.

Q2) Which of these would induce the liver to produce C-reactive protein?.

A)A Gram positive bacterial infection.

B)Inflammation.

C)Complement activation.

D)Phagocytosis.

E)The presence of mannose.

Q3) A patient produces cilia which are non-motile.Which infections might she be more susceptible to? (Select all that apply)

A)respiratory

B)skin

C)digestive

D)reproductive

E)eye

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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity

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Sample Questions

Q1) TH2 cells play an important role in the humoral immunity response.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which antibody is involved in the initiation of anaphylactic or allergic reactions?

A)IgA

B)IgD

C)IgE

D)IgG

E)IgM

Q3) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the primary immune response?

A)The response only involves T cells.

B)Only a few cells can initially recognize the specific antigen.

C)The response is slow and may take several weeks to develop.

D)Clonal expansion of B cells and T cells occur after antigen exposure.

E)Memory cells produced during this response can last for years.

Q4) The main effector function of activated CD4 T cells is the secretion of cytokines.

A)True

B)False

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22

Chapter 21: Virulence Factors and Pathogenic Mechanisms of

Bacterial Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these virulence factors is NOT possessed by the pathogen Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A)Fimbriae for attachment.

B)Secretory IgA protease.

C)Production of urease.

D)Endotoxin.

E)The ability to change surface pilin antigens.

Q2) Which of these are associated with Type III secretion systems?

A)Gram positive bacteria

B)Gram negative bacteria

C)Staphylococcus aureus

D)Streptococcus pyogenes

E)pathogenic fungi

Q3) What is the most common cause of pharyngitis and tonsillitis in children?

A)Staphylococcus aureus

B)Corynebacterium tuberculosis

C)Mycoplasma pneumoniae

D)Streptococcus pyogenes

E)Streptococcus pneumoniae

Q4) Exotoxins that act specifically on the intestine are called

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Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) What produces the sneezing associated with a rhinovirus infection?

A)A toxin produced by the virus.

B)The destruction of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea.

C)The host inflammatory response.

D)A secondary respiratory infection.

E)Macrophage activation.

Q2) The likely direct ancestor of SARS-CoV is now believed to be:

A)A reassorted civet SLCoV

B)A recombined civet SLCoV

C)A reassorted bat SLCoV

D)A recombined bat SLCoV

E)A bat SLCoV arising through antigenic drift

Q3) Overexpression of which gene occurs with mourse mammary tumor virus expression:

A)myc

B)src

C)Wnt-1

D)E-6

E)E-7

Q4) The transmission of a virus from mother to fetus is referred to as ___________ transmission.

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A predator likely to be affected by saxitoxin in the wild is:

A)Alexandrium minutum

B)Acartia tonsa

C)Amanita phalloides

D)Amanita muscaria

E)Trypanosoma brucei

Q2) Plasmodium falciparum uses this protein to steal nutrients from host cells:

A)HC toxin

B) -amanitin

C)PfNT1

D)Saxitoxin

E)None is a correct choice

Q3) Most of the clinical symptoms observed in an individual with malaria result from this activity.

A)Sporozoite infection of the liver.

B)Sporozoite infection of muscle.

C)Lysis of red blood cells by merozoites.

D)Lysis of red blood cells by sporozoites.

E)Parasite infection of the brain cells.

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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) The reason for the severe side effects seen with the first pertussis vaccine was:

A)incorrect strains of B.pertussis were used

B)too much adjuvant was added

C)incorrect types of adjuvant were added

D)the virus was a live attenuated vaccine,and it replicated within the host

E)the microbial preparation was poorly prepared

Q2) Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs listed below does not target nucleic acid synthesis?

A)sulfonamides

B)quinolones

C)tetracylcines

D)rifamycins

E)trimethoprim

Q3) The mode of action of quinolones is to inhibit:

A)protein synthesis.

B)DNA synthesis

C)cell wall synthesis.

D)amino acid transport.

E)transcription.

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