Applied Microbiology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the practical applications of microorganisms in various fields such as medicine, agriculture, industry, and environmental management. The course examines the roles that bacteria, fungi, viruses, and other microbes play in biotechnology, fermentation, bioremediation, and the production of pharmaceuticals and food products. Students learn about techniques in microbial cultivation, identification, and genetic manipulation, as well as the ethical and safety considerations associated with the use of microorganisms. The course emphasizes real-world case studies and emerging technologies, equipping students with the knowledge to apply microbiological principles to solve contemporary problems.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology The Human Experience Preliminary Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of Rosalind Franklin's accomplishments?
A) generating the X-ray diffraction pattern of the structure of DNA
B) researching the structure of RNA
C) determining the form of tobacco mosaic virus's RNA chromosome
D) receiving a Nobel Prize
Answer: D
Q2) The first vaccination was done to prevent
A) AIDS.
B) smallpox.
C) tuberculosis.
D) anthrax.
Answer: B
Q3) The discovery of ________ first stimulated the funding of millions of dollars into medical research.
A) penicillin
B) the structure of DNA
C) DNA sequencing
D) vaccines
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Q1) Describe how bacterial adhesins affect the preferred entry portal of pathogens.
Answer: To initiate a productive infection,bacteria must attach to host cells.Attachment is mediated by bacterial adhesins binding to host receptors.Different portals of entry contain different kinds of host cells with different receptors.The adhesins may only allow attachment to cells in certain portals.
Q2) Which of the following might be an effective means of limiting a disease spread via an oral route?
A) not sharing needles
B) wearing condoms during sexual activity
C) checking for and removing ticks after outdoor activity
D) washing hands before eating
Answer: D
Q3) Describe how a pathogen could use an exit portal different from the portal it used to enter the host.
Answer: Possible answers include the following: diarrhea-causing bacteria and viruses can enter via the oral route but leave via defecation;HIV can enter via the urogenital route and leave via the parental route in a needle (or vice versa-enter via a needle and exit via urogenital).
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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Q1) Oil immersion is used in which type of microscopy and on which objective?
A) bright-field microscopy,40X
B) bright-field microscopy,100x
C) darkfield microscopy,40x
D) darkfield microscopy,100x
Answer: B
Q2) The size at which objects become visible depends on the resolution of the observer's eye.Typically eagles can resolve objects much smaller or farther away than humans can.Please explain why.
Answer: Resolution is achieved by focusing an image on the photoreceptors in the retina of the eye.The retina of eagles has more tightly packed photoreceptors compared to humans.So an eagle's eye can resolve objects smaller or farther away than the human eye can.
Q3) Which microscope technique is best used for visualizing the surface structures of cells and viruses?
A) phase-contrast
B) bright-field
C) scanning electron
D) darkfield
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Q1) What does amphipathic mean?
Q2) There is no net movement of water into or out of cells when the cells are in which type of environment?
A) isotonic
B) hypertonic
C) hyperosmotic
D) hypotonic
Q3) An exergonic reaction may still be slow if
A) the activation energy is high.
B) an enzyme is present.
C) product concentrations are low.
D) reactant concentrations are high.
Q4) Molecules that are soluble in water are ________ and molecules that are insoluble in water are ________.
A) endergonic;exergonic
B) nonpolar;polar
C) hydrophobic;hydrophilic
D) hydrophilic;hydrophobic
Q5) What is osmosis and why is it important for cells to maintain osmotic balance?
Q6) What is a condensation reaction?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) Which of the following is FALSE of teichoic acids?
A) They reinforce the cell wall.
B) They may help pathogens attach to host cells.
C) They are recognized by the host immune system.
D) They repel the Gram stain.
Q2) Explain how bacterial cells can divide so rapidly,some in as little as ten minutes between generations.
Q3) What evidence would suggest that a newly discovered eukaryotic organelle was formed via endosymbiosis?
Q4) Describe the two types of energy cells used to move molecules across membranes against their concentration gradients.
Q5) While most wild E.coli usually have flagella,many lab strains have lost their flagella.What is a likely cause of this loss?
A) reductive evolution due to an increased need for chemotaxis
B) reductive evolution due to an unchanging environment
C) reductive evolution due to an increased need for magnetotaxis
D) reductive evolution due to a decreased need for magnetotaxis
Q6) The bacterial nucleoid contains loops of DNA that emanate from a central point called the ________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) Most bacteria in nature grow at a very slow rate,a situation that can be mimicked using a ________.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a toxic by-product of oxygen metabolism?
A) superoxide
B) hydroxide radicals
C) hydrogen peroxide
D) dihydrogen oxide
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a bacterial organism that can form a biofilm?
A) All bacterial organisms can form biofilms.
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Escherichia coli
D) Bacillus anthracis
Q4) Which of the following can be most efficiently used to measure bacterial growth in real time?
A) FACS
B) spectrophotometer
C) Petroff-Hauser counting chamber
D) fluorescent microscope
Q5) How is it possible for a strict anaerobic bacteria to cause a disease in humans?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Q1) Yeast ferment hexose sugars into two molecules of ethanol and two molecules of CO .This reaction is used in bread making-the CO causes the dough to rise.Explain why this reaction is so sensitive to temperature,slowing down considerably at lower temperatures.
Q2) During photosynthesis,ATP is produced via A) oxidation of glucose.
B) transfer of a phosphate from NADPH onto ADP.
C) ATP synthase powered by a pmf.
D) ATP synthase powered directly by light.
Q3) Compare and contrast ATP production in chloroplasts and mitochondria.How are they similar and how do they differ?
Q4) An organism gains energy using H as an electron donor and sulfate as an electron acceptor.This organism is categorized as an A) aerobic lithotroph.
B) anaerobic lithotroph.
C) aerobic organotroph.
D) anaerobic organotroph.
Q5) Compare and contrast anaerobic respiration and fermentation.How are they similar and how do they differ?
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Q1) Proteins that assist the folding of newly formed proteins are known as ________.
Q2) Which of the following is true of plasmids?
A) They can be the entire genome.
B) They are common in eukaryotic cells.
C) They are usually linear.
D) They may contain antibiotic resistance genes.
Q3) Recombinant human insulin is safely produced in bacteria.Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps needed to produce such a transgenic bacterium?
A) transform bacteria,ligate,hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid
B) hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid,ligate,transform bacteria
C) hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid,transform bacteria,ligate
D) ligate,hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid,transform bacteria
Q4) What enzyme is used to produce cDNA?
A) DNA polymerase III
B) DNA ligase
C) RNA polymerase
D) reverse transcriptase
Q5) An enzyme that cuts the DNA phosphodiester backbone at a particular DNA sequence is called a ________.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) Genes for transfer RNA can be predicted through A) amino acid sequence similarity.
B) protein function prediction.
C) gene function prediction.
D) conservation over vast phylogenetic distances.
Q2) Which of the following can result in degenerative evolution?
A) natural selection
B) endosymbiosis
C) fitness reduction
D) parasitism
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a good scenario for a molecular clock?
A) The gene used has the same function across all species being compared.
B) The generation time is the same for all species being compared.
C) The average mutation rate is constant among species.
D) The gene used is nonessential.
Q4) Describe how gene duplication leads to paralogs.
Q5) A ________ relationship develops between endosymbionts and their hosts.
Q6) Ancient ________ give evidence to the fact that all life originated from microorganisms.
Q7) Explain how natural selection quickly leads to antibiotic resistance.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) An environmental sample from the ocean contains phototrophic bacteria that produce oxygen.How would you classify these bacteria?
A) Information about the cell wall would be required to determine whether these bacteria are Gram positive or Gram negative.
B) These bacteria must be cyanobacteria based on their production of oxygen.
C) It is highly probable that these bacteria are Gram-negative bacteria based on their presence in a marine environment.
D) These bacteria must be chlamydia found within unicellular organisms.
Q2) A black Labrador puppy goes swimming in a nutrient-rich pond one summer afternoon.Within hours the puppy begins vomiting and showing signs of damage to his nervous system.The puppy's owner takes him to a local veterinarian and is told the puppy also has liver damage.Upon questioning,the owner recalls the pond water the puppy went swimming in was green and cloudy.The veterinarian suspects the puppy was exposed to
A) elementary bodies produced by a Chlamydia species.
B) toxins produced by a spirochete.
C) reticulate bodies produced by a Chlamydia species.
D) toxins produced by a cyanobacteria.
Q3) Describe the two developmental stages of the Chlamydias.
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic shared by mites,ticks,and lice?
A) Mites,ticks,and lice are all insects.
B) Mites,ticks,and lice are all vectors for serious disease agents.
C) Mites,ticks,and lice are all ectoparasites.
D) Mites,ticks,and lice all deposit eggs within the skin.
Q2) Blood and fecal samples are collected from a man with dysentery to determine the causative agent and appropriate treatment.Which of the following would most clearly indicate amebic infection?
A) immunological tests indicating the presence of Shigella
B) a Wheatley's trichrome stain indicating a protozoa with ingested red blood cells
C) a Gram stain indicating the presence of Gram-negative bacteria
D) an endospore stain indicating the presence of endospores
Q3) Arthropods that attach to the surface of a human or other vertebrate are referred to as ________.
Q4) Lobed amebas and filamentous amebas are differentiated by the form of their ________.
Q5) Describe the shared evolutionary event that led to chloroplasts in both algae and plants.
Q6) Describe two positive impacts fungi have on our environment.
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Q1) An infectious particle with an RNA genome and no capsid is known as a ________.
Q2) Why have the majority of viruses evolved to bind to a host surface receptor that serves an essential function in the host cell?
Q3) Which of the following stages of the influenza infection cycle is inhibited by Tamiflu?
A) the coating of the capsid envelope
B) the assembly of the capsid
C) the cleaving of the host receptor and release of the virus by budding
D) the packaging of viral genome segments and exit from the nucleus
Q4) Influenza contains a ________ genome.
Q5) You are attempting to propagate bacteriophage of Bacillus cereus using a liquid batch culture.A growing culture of B.cereus is inoculated with your bacteriophage.Immediately after inoculation,you take a sample but are unable to detect any bacteriophage.What is happening?
Q6) Lentiviruses like HIV can be used positively for ________.
Q7) ________ is an example of a virus with a large double-stranded DNA viral genome.
Q8) Explain how antigenic drift requires individuals to get a flu vaccine yearly.
Q9) A phage genome integrated into the DNA of the bacterial host cell is known as a
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) In which of the following mechanisms of microbial control might some pathogens still survive?
A) sanitization
B) antisepsis
C) disinfection
D) sterilization
Q2) The presence of ________,such as blood,can require longer exposure times to a chemical in order to achieve true disinfection.
Q3) Fungal cells grown in the presence of fluconazole have
A) impaired cell division.
B) mutations in DNA.
C) defective cell walls.
D) defective cell membranes.
Q4) Neuraminidase inhibitors that target viral release can be used to treat infections with ________.
Q5) Which antibiotic inhibits the formation of the peptide side chain of NAM?
A) vancomycin
B) cycloserine
C) bacitracin
D) cephalexin
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Q1) Which of the following changes in human behavior has NOT altered the composition of the microbiota?
A) decreased antibiotic usage
B) increased cesarean deliveries
C) living in smaller families
D) use of antibacterial soaps
Q2) Endothelial cells are known for using ________ to carry cell components from one side of the cell to the other.
A) protein secretion
B) active vesicle transport
C) cytokine production
D) ATP synthesis
Q3) ________ are organisms that cause disease in an immunocompromised host only.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an accurate description for epithelial cells?
A) interconnected
B) symmetrical
C) held together by tight junctions
D) glycoprotein-covered
Q5) Sequestered body sites tend to be ________.
Q6) Fecal transplants can be used to treat ulcerative colitis caused by ________. Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a physical barrier to infection?
A) skin
B) lungs
C) defensins
D) mucosal membranes
Q2) A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg.The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding.Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?
A) skin normal flora
B) lysozyme
C) Langerhans cells
D) acidic skin secretions
Q3) A series of 20 serum proteins that attack bacterial invaders is called
A) phagocytosis.
B) opsonization.
C) a complement.
D) an interferon.
Q4) Compare and contrast the innate and adaptive immune responses.
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Q5) Movement of neutrophils out of blood vessels and into infected tissue is called
Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) What is the function of class II MHC molecules?
A) Class II MHC is used to present intracellular antigen to CD8 cells.
B) Class II MHC is used to present intracellular antigen to CD4 cells.
C) Class II MHC is used to present extracellular antigen to CD8 cells.
D) Class II MHC is used to present extracellular antigen to CD4 cells.
Q2) What is the function of an antigen-presenting cell (APC)?
A) An APC presents antigen to macrophages to stimulate the synthesis of antibodies.
B) An APC presents antigen to B cells to stimulate the formation of memory B cells.
C) An APC presents antigen to memory T cells to stimulate the synthesis of cytokines.
D) An APC presents antigen to helper T cells to activate the T cells during a cellular response.
Q3) How do the structure and function of the F(ab)and Fc regions of an antibody differ?
Q4) Cytotoxic T cells display the surface antigen ________.
Q5) Rank the following macromolecules in terms of their antigenicity and explain your ranking: carbohydrates,proteins,lipids,and nucleic acids.
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) All of the following regarding immunoprecipitation are correct EXCEPT
A) it is observed both in vitro and in vivo.
B) too many antigens cause the test not to work.
C) too many antibody molecules cause the test not to work.
D) equivalence is the point at which there are roughly the same number of antigenic and antigen-binding sites.
Q2) Type II hypersensitivities differ from type III sensitivities in that only type II involves A) surface antigens.
B) soluble antigens.
C) antibodies.
D) histamine.
Q3) Sensitivity differs from specificity in that sensitivity
A) measures how selective an antibody is.
B) occurs when antibodies bind dissimilar antigens.
C) reflects how few antigen or antibody molecules a test can detect.
D) is not important when conducting a serological test.
Q4) Injecting an antigen such as a weakened or killed pathogen is called ________ immunization,while ________ immunization is a type of immunotherapy.
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Alpha toxin secreted by Staphylococcus aureus is a
A) hyaluronidase.
B) leucocidin.
C) kinase.
D) hemolysin.
Q2) Biofilm infections are important clinically because
A) WBC easily penetrate biofilms.
B) bacteria in biofilms are more susceptible to antimicrobial compounds.
C) bacteria in biofilms can persist against host defenses.
D) bacteria in biofilms do not grown on medical devices.
Q3) The purpose of the Tat protein in an HIV infection is to
A) down regulate CD4 and MHC class 1 expression.
B) inhibit virus assembly.
C) accelerate HIV transcription by the host cell.
D) protect the cell from being killed by CD8 cytotoxic cells.
Q4) Genomic islands have all of the following features EXCEPT
A) they are flanked by phage or plasmid genes.
B) the ratio of GC/AT nucleases.
C) they do not need toxins or secretion systems.
D) they encode clusters of genes that contribute to the fitness of the organism.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) A sight-threatening inflammation of the cornea is referred to as ________.
Q2) Necrotizing fasciitis is often caused by ________.
Q3) Which of the following are INCORRECTLY matched?
A) varicella zosters-chicken pox
B) HHV6-roseola
C) poxvirus-fever blisters
D) parvovirus-fifth disease
Q4) Compare and contrast the virulence factors associated with Staphylococcus and Streptococcus.Which of these agents is the most difficult to treat? Explain your answer.
Q5) All of the following are classified as dermatophytic fungi EXCEPT
A) Malassezia.
B) Epidermophyton.
C) Trichophyton.
D) Microsporum.
Q6) Keratitis is inflammation of the A) lens.
B) retina.
C) cornea.
D) sclera.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Engaging in recreational or occupational activities that expose an individual to fungal spores in moist soils along the Mississippi or Ohio River valleys increases the risk of developing ________.
Q2) Which of the following infections would affect the upper respiratory tract but NOT the lower respiratory tract?
A) the common cold
B) pneumonia
C) tuberculosis
D) bronchitis
Q3) Croup is most frequently seen in
A) the elderly.
B) middle-aged adults.
C) adolescents.
D) young children.
Q4) Of the viral respiratory diseases below,which is LEAST likely to present with a fever?
A) the common cold
B) croup
C) influenza
D) respiratory syncytial disease
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) Why does dissemination of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)often lead to hepatomegaly and splenomegaly?
A) EBV produces abnormal blood cells that are removed by the liver and spleen.
B) Latent EBV within the liver and spleen causes enlargement of these organs.
C) The cells infected by EBV are only found in the liver and spleen.
D) EBV-infected B cells travel throughout the body and then reside within the liver and spleen.
Q2) What causes symptoms of malaria to occur every 48-72 hours?
A) The life span of sporozoites is approximately 48-72 hours.
B) The liver releases merozoites every 48-72 hours.
C) Sporozoites are converted into merozoites during a 48-72-hour cycle.
D) Release of merozoites and red cell debris is synchronized.
Q3) Bacterial endocarditis that has a slow onset and presents with vague symptoms such as fatigue,intermittent fevers,and headaches is called ________.
Q4) When traveling to tropical and subtropical areas where Aedes aegypti mosquitoes are endemic,U.S.citizens could receive a vaccine to prevent ________.
Q5) Drugs used to treat the major systemic bacterial diseases fall into the category of ________.
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following organisms might someday be prevented from causing infections by a vaccine?
A) E.coli
B) Shigella
C) Salmonella
D) Listeria
Q2) Which is NOT a common cause of periodontal disease?
A) Aggregatibacter
B) Porphyromonas
C) Bacteroides
D) Lactobacillus
Q3) Adult infection with ________ can sometimes lead to meningitis.
A) rotavirus
B) mumps virus
C) hepatitis A
D) hepatitis D
Q4) What is the likely cause of the condition suffered by the individual who said the sentence below? Explain the mistake.
"I went on a cruise last week and was so sick with the stomach flu!"
Q5) The part of a tooth protruding outward from the gum is called the ________.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) Trichomoniasis is caused by a A) protozoan.
B) bacteria.
C) virus.
D) eukaryote.
Q2) There are two types of urinary tract infections: bladder infections,or ________,and kidney infections,or ________.
Q3) Which of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE?
A) It is transmitted by direct contact.
B) It is caused by papillomaviruses.
C) It is always precancerous.
D) It is treated by removing them.
Q4) Reoccurring UTIs can be a result of all of the following EXCEPT
A) birth control pills.
B) biofilm formation.
C) improper clearance after antibiotic treatment.
D) reintroduction of the organism.
Q5) Nearly 70% of patients seen in STI clinics are men.Offer a reason why men are more likely to seek treatment than women.Why is it important that women seek treatment for STIs?
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT that
A) it is also known as "sleeping sickness."
B) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts.
C) it is transmitted by the tsetse fly.
D) death occurs without proper treatment.
Q2) Which of the following protozoan(s)use antigenic switching to avoid the host immune system?
A) T.gondii
B) T.brucei
C) T.cruzi
D) T.brucei and T.cruzi
Q3) List and describe the defensive mechanisms that are in place to protect the central nervous system.
Q4) Motor neurons send
A) information from the CNS to the periphery.
B) information from the periphery to the CNS.
C) information in both directions.
D) information.
Q5) Explain the transmission,etiologies,and diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
Q6) A small proteinaceous infectious particle is known as a ________.
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) CASE HISTORY
A four-year-old boy,Evan,was admitted to the hospital to evaluate and treat persistent pain in the rectal area.His problem began about one week earlier with ill-defined pain in the same region.He had a white blood cell count of 24,900 with 87% granulocytes (neutrophils).An abdominal computed tomography scan revealed an abscess (walled-off region of infectious bacteria)next to his rectum.A needle aspiration of the abscess drained 20 milliliters of yellowish,foul-smelling fluid.The specimen was plated on blood agar under aerobic conditions,but the culture was negative despite evidence of bacteria in the abscess drainage.(Blood agar is a rich medium containing 5% sheep red blood cells. )
Which statement regarding specimen collection is FALSE?
A) Specimen collection procedures are generally divided into those for sterile and nonsterile body sites.
B) Internal abscesses should be collected under conditions that allow the survival of anaerobic pathogens.
C) Samples from both sterile and nonsterile body sites should be plated on selective media.
D) Sterile body site samples are easily contaminated by normal flora in the collection process.
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) List the characteristics that would make a bioweapon effective in terms of bio-warfare or inflicting as many casualties as possible.
Q2) An infectious agent with a high mortality rate that is highly contagious and lacks a vaccine and effective treatment is known as a ______.
Q3) You turn on a television and catch the end of an interview with a young patient who developed a life-threatening MRSA infection after a routine surgery to remove his appendix.What is the term for this type of surgical wound infection,and how common are these infections?
Q4) An investigator is collecting data identifying the time of year and locations of measles outbreaks within the United States over a ten-year period from 2000 to 2010.This investigator is most likely involved in
A) descriptive epidemiology.
B) cohort studies.
C) analytical epidemiology.
D) experimental studies.
Q5) What type of disease is reported by syndromic surveillance,and how does this type of surveillance fit into tracking global outbreaks of disease?
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Page 29
Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
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62 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using organisms such as bacteria to neutralize pollutants from a contaminated site is referred to as ________.
Q2) Bacteria,such as Listeria monocytogenes,that are able to grow at refrigeration temperatures are referred to as ________.
Q3) CASE HISTORY
In 1994,the city of Phoenix,Arizona,faced challenges to its water supply.In a desert,water is scarce,and quality is hard to maintain.The city's water department needed to decrease its wastewater's organic nitrogen content,which threatened the river downstream.A study proposed the construction of a wetland environment to receive the treated effluent from the Phoenix sewage plant.Over the next ten years,the city constructed a series of experimental wetlands,leading to the large-scale tres rios-constructed Wetlands Project.By 2010,the constructed wetland encompassed 800 acres and filtered 170 million gallons per day.Besides controlling nitrogen and organic content,the wetland restores groundwater,offers a carbon offset (net CO removed from the atmosphere),and generates a wildlife-rich recreational area.The tres rios wetland now attracts beavers,bald eagles,and bobcats,as well as many human visitors. Why might many different configurations of wetland have been constructed in order to achieve the desired microbial community and effect?
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