Applied Immunology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Applied Immunology explores the principles and practical applications of immunological concepts in real-world contexts, including human health, disease prevention, and therapeutic interventions. The course covers the immune systems structure and function, mechanisms of immune response, immunopathology, and the development of vaccines and immunotherapies. Students will examine case studies and current research, gaining insight into diagnostic techniques, emerging technologies, and the role of immunology in addressing contemporary medical challenges such as infectious diseases, allergies, cancer, and autoimmune disorders.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Immunology and Serology A Laboratory Perspective 4th Edition by Christine Dorresteyn
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25 Chapters
784 Verified Questions
784 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Immunity and the Immune System
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A white blood cell that is 16 to 18 micrometers in diameter,has a horseshoe-shaped nucleus,and is capable of phagocytosis is a:
A) neutrophil.
B) eosinophil.
C) basophil.
D) monocyte.
Answer: D
Q2) T cells are mainly concentrated in which region of the lymph nodes?
A) Primary follicles
B) Secondary follicles
C) Paracortex
D) Medulla
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of natural immunity?
A) It involves memory.
B) T lymphocytes play a major role.
C) It involves specificity.
D) Mechanisms are always present and fully functional.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Nature of Antigens and the Major
Histocompatibility Complex
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of MHC class II molecules include which of the following?
A) Interact with CD8+ T cells
B) Have an alpha chain and beta-2 microglobulin
C) Have alpha and beta chains of approximately equal size
D) Combine with antigen made inside the cell
Answer: C
Q2) A processed antigen first encounters and binds to class I MHC molecules in the:
A) nucleus.
B) endoplasmic reticulum.
C) endosomal compartment.
D) membrane surface.
Answer: B
Q3) Antigens found in different species that trigger a similar antibody response are called:
A) heterophile antigens.
B) haptens.
C) alloantigens.
D) autoantigens.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Innate Immunity
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be measured as an indicator of inflammation?
A) Body temperature
B) Number of circulating leukocytes
C) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
D) All of these
Answer: D
Q2) Patients with chronic granulomatous disease have neutrophils that cannot kill bacteria because they:
A) cannot phagocytize bacteria.
B) do not have granules containing antibacterial enzymes.
C) cannot produce superoxide.
D) cannot migrate to the site of infection.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following occurs during the oxidative burst?
A) A decrease in oxygen consumption
B) Pseudopodia extending around a particle
C) The release of granules from a cell
D) Increased release of carbon dioxide
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Adaptive Immunity
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) T cells differ from B cells in which of the following ways?
A) T cells express surface immunoglobulin.
B) B cells express CD19 but not CD3.
C) T cells express CD19, CD3, and CD4.
D) B cells express surface immunoglobulin and CD3.
Q2) Cytotoxic T cells are the primary immune response against which type of pathogen?
A) Viruses
B) Parasites
C) Bacteria
D) Fungi
Q3) A critical receptor involved in the second signal for T-dependent B-cell activation is:
A) CD3.
B) CD19.
C) CD40.
D) surface IgM.
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6
Chapter 5: Antibody Structure and Function
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about coding for antibody molecules is true?
A) Heavy chains are coded for on chromosome 2.
B) V, D, and J code for heavy chain variable regions.
C) DNA molecules coding for light chains are rearranged first.
D) V and D code for light chain variable regions.
Q2) The idiotype of an antibody is located on which region?
A) CH
B) CL
C) VH + VL
D) Fc
Q3) What products are the result of papain being used to cleave antibody molecules?
A) Two Fab fragments and one Fc portion
B) Two L chains and two H chains
C) VL, CL, VH, and CH
D) One F(ab)<sub>2</sub> and Fc' portions
Q4) Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen?
A) Fab
B) CL
C) CH
D) Hinge region
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cytokines
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A protein released from a virally infected cell that protects other cells from viral invasion best describes:
A) IL-3.
B) interferon-alpha.
C) TNF.
D) IL-4.
Q2) Which of the following cytokines is produced by Th1 cells and is suppressive for Th2 lymphocytes?
A) IL-2
B) IL-4
C) TGF-beta
D) IFN-gamma
Q3) Identify the cytokine that is produced by Th2 cells and inhibits Th1.
A) IL-10
B) IL-5
C) IL-3
D) IFN-gamma
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Chapter 7: Complement System
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The C3 convertase of the alternative pathway of complement activation is:
A) C3bBbP.
B) C3bB.
C) C4b2a3b.
D) C4b2a.
Q2) Which of the following has perforin-like activity?
A) IgG
B) IFN-gamma
C) C5b6789
D) C3b
Q3) Which factor is unique to the lectin pathway?
A) Factor B
B) C1q
C) Mannose-binding protein
D) Factor I
Q4) The C5 convertase of the classical pathway of complement activation is:
A) C3bBbP.
B) C3bBb3bP.
C) C4b2a3b.
D) C4b2a.
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Chapter 8: Safety and Quality Management
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A blood spill occurs in the immunology laboratory.What should you do?
A) Call housekeeping to wash the area.
B) Make a 1:10 solution of bleach and wash the area.
C) Wipe up the spill with paper towels.
D) Wipe the area with concentrated bleach.
Q2) A coworker says she has an allergy to latex.As her supervisor,what should you advise her to do?
A) Wear latex gloves but wash her hands often to stop the allergy.
B) Wear gloves made of an alternative material.
C) Do not wear gloves.
D) Wash the latex gloves before using.
Q3) What are the three variables monitored in a quality control program?
A) Accuracy, precision, and reliability
B) Turnaround time, reliability, and reproducibility
C) Reagent purity, specimen collection, and cost impact
D) Avoiding trends, turnaround time, and cost impact
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Chapter 9: Principles of Serological Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When 0.5 mL of serum is added to 1.5 mL of diluent,what dilution does this represent?
A) 1:3
B) 1:4
C) 1:5
D) 3:1
Q2) If there will be an unavoidable 4-hour delay before a serum sample can be tested,the sample should be:
A) kept at room temperature.
B) refrigerated between 2°C and 8°C.
C) frozen at -20°C.
D) discarded and a new sample collected when it can be tested immediately.
Q3) If 0.9 mL of saline is added to 0.1 mL of serum,what does the 0.9 mL represent?
A) The final dilution
B) The diluent
C) The solute
D) The total solution
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11
Chapter 10: Precipitation and Agglutination Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The end-point radial immunodiffusion assay:
A) is read after antigen-antibody equivalence is reached.
B) is the most rapid immunodiffusion method.
C) requires only a negative control for interpretation.
D) can be converted to a kinetic method by application of electrical current.
Q2) In immunofixation electrophoresis,antibody is:
A) distributed uniformly throughout the gel.
B) applied on the top surface of the gel.
C) added to troughs cut into the gel.
D) driven through the gel by application of electrical current.
Q3) If a serum sample does not cause agglutination when mixed with a particular antigen,then you should:
A) report that the patient does not have antibody against that antigen.
B) test a more diluted sample to overcome possible prozone effects.
C) increase the particle surface charge by altering the pH.
D) decrease the viscosity of the sample.
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Chapter 11: Labeled Immunoassays
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assay poses the greatest risk of exposure to biohazards?
A) Radioimmunoassay
B) Enzyme immunoassay
C) Fluorescence polarization
D) Chemiluminescent immunoassays
Q2) Which statement about noncompetitive enzyme immunoassays is true?
A) Binding sites for patient antigen are limited.
B) Washing in between steps is not necessary.
C) All patient antigen is allowed to react with binding sites.
D) Color is indirectly proportional to the concentration.
Q3) An immunoassay is performed in the following manner to look for an antigen (Ag)in the patient serum: Patient serum + labeled Ag + known antibody (Ab)are added together and incubated.Unbound material is washed off.The amount of labeled Ag is then measured.What assay is performed?
A) Homogeneous
B) Competitive
C) Capture
D) ELISA
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13
Chapter 12: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques
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33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What process confers specificity in molecular biology methods?
A) Amplification
B) Polymorphism
C) Strand cleavage
D) Hybridization
Q2) In DNA sequencing,what is the purpose of the dideoxynucleotide bases?
A) To enhance synthesis of DNA
B) To stop growth of a DNA chain at a certain point
C) To make certain that only one strand of DNA is amplified
D) To create restriction fragment length polymorphisms
Q3) Select the reaction characterized by amplification of a specific region of a DNA strand through denaturing and annealing.
A) Signal amplification
B) Polymerase chain reaction
C) Solution hybridization
D) Ligase chain reaction
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Chapter 13: Flow Cytometry and Laboratory Automation
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lowest measurable amount of an analyte is called:
A) accuracy.
B) precision.
C) analytic sensitivity.
D) analytic specificity.
Q2) What is a disadvantage of automated testing in a clinical immunology laboratory?
A) Decreases potential for manual errors
B) Increases dependence on a single machine
C) Cannot be used within the preanalytical stage of testing
D) Cannot perform combined chemistry and immunoassay testing on a single platform
Q3) In flow cytometry,it is possible to detect the expression of 10 different cell membrane proteins simultaneously by:
A) using 10 different lasers that produce light at different wavelengths.
B) measuring the amount of light scattered at 10 different angles.
C) staining the cells with 10 different labeled probes that fluoresce at different wavelengths.
D) measuring mass as well as fluorescent intensity.
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15
Chapter 14: Hypersensitivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the hypersensitivity responses have which of the following in common?
A) Involvement of antibody
B) Asymptomatic sensitization phase
C) Release of histamine
D) Activation of macrophage against a pathogen.
Q2) Type I hypersensitivity can be treated by injecting a specific recombinant humanized IgG called omalizumab.This antibody:
A) binds allergens, preventing them from binding patient IgE.
B) occupies Fc receptors on mast cells, preventing binding by patient IgE.
C) binds to a heavy-chain domain on patient IgE, preventing the IgE from binding to mast cells.
D) inhibits Th2 cells that would otherwise promote excess IgE production.
Q3) T cell-dependent hypersensitivity occurs:
A) 24 to 72 hours after exposure to the antigen.
B) immediately after exposure to the antigen.
C) 5 to 7 days after contact with antigen.
D) 1 to 4 hours after contact with antigen.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Autoimmunity
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35 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Central tolerance,in which lymphocytes learn to distinguish between self-antigens and foreign antigens,takes place in the thymus and:
A) spleen.
B) lymph nodes.
C) bone marrow.
D) liver.
Q2) A 35-year-old female experiences difficulty in walking,and her hands and feet are numb from time to time.Suspecting a disease involving the central nervous system,her physician orders magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).The MRI reveals lesions on the myelin sheath.What is the most likely disease?
A) Goodpasture's syndrome
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Graves disease
D) Multiple sclerosis
Q3) A speckled nuclear pattern in an antinuclear antibody test indicates:
A) anti-RNA antibody.
B) antibody to DNA-histone complex.
C) anticentromere antibody.
D) antibody to an extractable nuclear antigen.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Transplantation Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose a mother and her child possess the following HLA haplotypes:?Mother: ?A28 B17 Cw4 Dw3?A30 B21 Cw2 Dw10?Child: ?A3 B8 Cw6 Dw7?A28 B17 Cw4 Dw3 Paternity testing was performed.Three potential fathers were HLA typed and found to contain the following haplotypes:?Father 1: ?A30 B21 Cw2 Dw10?A1 B2 Cw5 Dw9?Father 2: ?A3 B8 Cw6 Dw7?A8 B9 Cw1 Dw8?Father 3: ?A3 B8 Cw5 Dw4?A2 B1 Cw6 Dw7??Which of the following statements is true?
A) The true father may be Father 1 only.
B) The true father may be Father 2 only.
C) The true father may be Father 1 or Father 2.
D) The true father may be Father 2 or Father 3.
Q2) Four candidate bone-marrow donors were tested for compatibility with a patient in need of a transplant.HLA typing was performed,and the serologic types and alleles of the patient and four potential donors are shown in the table.On the basis of these findings,which donor would be the best match for the patient?
A) Donor 1
B) Donor 2
C) Donor 3
D) Donor 4
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Chapter 17: Tumor Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A proto-oncogene is a normal gene that has a positive influence on cell proliferation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cancer antigen 125
A)Hepatocellular carcinoma
B)Ovarian cancer
C)Colorectal, breast, or lung cancer
D)Breast cancer only
E)Pancreatic and gastrointestinal cancers
Q3) HER-2
A)Hepatocellular carcinoma
B)Ovarian cancer
C)Colorectal, breast, or lung cancer
D)Breast cancer only
E)Pancreatic and gastrointestinal cancers
Q4) An example of a tumor-specific antigen is the BCR/ABL protein for chronic myelogenous leukemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Immunoproliferative Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cytogenetic abnormality is associated with an excellent prognosis in children with B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)?
A) t(12:21)(p13;q22)
B) t(14:18)(p13;q22)
C) t(9;22)
D) Hypodiploidy
Q2) Which marker is highly specific for hairy-cell leukemia?
A) CD19
B) CD20
C) CD25
D) CD103
Q3) Malignant plasma cells exhibiting CD38,CD56,and CD138 are found in:
A) Waldenström macroglobulinemia.
B) chronic myeloid leukemia.
C) multiple myeloma.
D) monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance.
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Chapter 19: Immunodeficiency Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-month-old boy is seen by a specialist because of hypocalcemia,viral pneumonia,a history significant for recurrent diarrhea,and oral candidiasis.An x-ray reveals the lack of a thymic shadow.A likely diagnosis for this boy is:
A) DiGeorge anomaly.
B) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome.
C) ataxia telangiectasia.
D) bare lymphocyte syndrome.
Q2) A 6-month-old baby has suffered from recurrent bacterial infections.Flow cytometry results indicate a lack of B cells but the presence of normally functioning T cells.Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Severe combined immunodeficiency
B) Common variable hypogammaglobulinemia
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) Bruton's tyrosine kinase deficiency
Q3) Delayed-type hypersensitivity skin tests are used to screen for:
A) humoral immunodeficiencies.
B) cell-mediated immunodeficiencies.
C) phagocyte immunodeficiencies.
D) complement deficiencies.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Serological and Molecular Detection of Bacterial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The advantage of molecular assays in bacterial diagnosis is:
A) many methods approved by the Food and Drug Administration are available.
B) the instrumentation is not expensive.
C) the reagents and disposables are not expensive.
D) the methods are very sensitive.
Q2) Stevens-Johnson syndrome,in which the top layer of the skin dies and sheds,is caused by:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
C) Rickettsia rickettsii.
D) Helicobacter pylori.
Q3) What is the main reason testing for cold agglutinins is no longer recommended to diagnose infection with Mycoplasma pneumonia?
A) It is difficult to perform.
B) False positives may be caused by certain viruses.
C) Very few people develop anti-I antibodies.
D) It requires expensive instrumentation.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Spirochete Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is suspected of having latent syphilis.Which set of test results for RPR,TP-PA,and CSF-VDRL best confirms this diagnosis?
A) RPR = reactive 1:8; TP-PA = reactive; VDRL = reactive 1:4
B) RPR = nonreactive; TP-PA = reactive; VDRL = nonreactive
C) RPR = nonreactive; TP-PA = nonreactive; VDRL = nonreactive
D) RPR = reactive 1:2; TP-PA = nonreactive; VDRL = nonreactive
Q2) The RPR and VDRL are similar in which of the following ways?
A) Both are read macroscopically.
B) Both are flocculation reactions.
C) Both are specific assays for syphilis.
D) Both are antigen detection assays.
Q3) Which of the following is a cause of a biological false-positive in the nontreponemal assays for syphilis?
A) Prozone
B) Reagents too cold
C) Sera dried on card
D) Autoimmune disease
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Chapter 22: Serological and Molecular Diagnosis of Parasitic
and Fungal
Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What approach can be used to decrease the chance of a false-positive result when performing latex agglutination to identify Cryptococcus infections?
A) Mixing the specimen with India ink
B) Pretreating the specimen with heat and pronase
C) Freezing the specimen
D) Waiting for the patient to be symptomatic before testing
Q2) Suppose a parasite invades a patient and causes disease.The patient develops immunity and is ultimately cured.This outcome is considered what type of host-parasite interaction?
A) Symbiosis
B) Commensalism
C) Sterilizing immunity
D) Concomitant immunity
Q3) A complement fixation test for Histoplasma antibodies shows a 1:32 titer.This means the patient is negative for Histoplasma infection.
A)True
B)False
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Serology and Molecular Detection of Viral Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human T-cell lymphotropic virus type I preferentially infects:
A) B lymphocytes.
B) CD4 T lymphocytes.
C) CD8 T lymphocytes.
D) macrophages.
Q2) What is the most common routine diagnostic test for rubella virus infection in a young adult?
A) Antigen detection
B) Antibody detection
C) Viral culture
D) Polymerase chain reaction
Q3) A physician wants to know if his patient,who currently has a rash and fever,has an active rubeola virus infection.IgG against rubeola virus is detected.IgM against rubeola virus is not detected.What do these results mean?
A) The patient has a current measles infection.
B) The patient has a current chickenpox infection.
C) The patient has never had either measles or chickenpox.
D) The patient has had a previous exposure to measles, either through natural infection or vaccination.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Laboratory Diagnosis of HIV Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which HIV group is responsible for a majority of the HIV infections worldwide?
A) Group M
B) Group O
C) Group N
D) Group P
Q2) In the Western blot test for HIV antibody,a positive test result is indicated by the bands p24 and p55.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which antigen can be routinely detected in the blood of a person who has recently been infected with HIV?
A) p14
B) p19
C) p23
D) p24
Q4) CD4 T cells play a central role in the immune response system by regulating the activities of B and T lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Immunization and Vaccines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is alum incorporated into many of the vaccines used today?
A) It induces the release of proinflammatory cytokines at the injection site.
B) It reduces the chance for hypersensitivity to occur after exposure to the vaccine.
C) It reduces interference by maternal antibodies.
D) It allows for the combination of multiple vaccines into a single injection.
Q2) A patient with leukemia is scheduled for a bone marrow transplant.Which type of immunity is provided via this procedure?
A) Passive immunity
B) Active immunity
C) Adoptive immunity
D) Active disease
Q3) Active immunity
A) Immunization with a specific antigen
B) Transfer of antibodies from immunized host to nonimmune host
C) Transfer of cells, usually lymphocytes, from an immune host to a nonimmune host
Q4) Passive immunity involves the activation of IgD.
A)True
B)False
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