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Applied Forensic Science delves into the practical application of scientific principles and techniques to the investigation of crime. This course covers areas such as forensic biology, chemistry, toxicology, trace evidence analysis, and crime scene investigation, emphasizing the processes involved in collecting, preserving, and analyzing physical evidence. Students will gain hands-on experience with industry-standard methodologies, including fingerprint analysis, DNA profiling, forensic entomology, and digital forensics. The course also examines the legal and ethical considerations associated with forensic work and prepares students to present scientific findings effectively in a court of law.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic Science An Introduction 2nd Edition by Saferstein Richard
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Q1) Who established the comparison microscope as the indispensable tool of the modern firearms examiner?
A) Goddard
B) Lattes
C) Galton
D) Gross
E) Osborn
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following can be rightfully cited as an explanation for the rapid growth of crime labs during the last 25 years?
A) advent of DNA profiling
B) increase in drug-related arrests
C) staggering increase in crime rates in the United States
D) Supreme Court decisions in the 1960s
E) all of the above
Answer: E
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following items may be placed in an airtight container except:
A) explosive residues
B) hairs and fibers
C) bloodstained clothing
D) charred debris recovered from a fire
E) glass
Answer: C
Q2) Estimations of the postmortem interval (PMI) using entomological evidence must take into account:
A) the species of insect present.
B) geographical location of the decedent's body.
C) the location's climate over time.
D) weather conditions.
E) all of the above
Answer: E
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physical evidence is considered to have ________ as that of eyewitness (testimonial) evidence.
A) greater value
B) the same value
C) less value
Answer: A
Q2) The examination of a paint chip found on a hit-and-run victim's garment side-by-side with paint removed from a vehicle suspected of being involved in the incident is an example of:
A) classification.
B) individualization.
C) comparison.
D) identification.
E) taxonomy.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) In reference to the diagram above, what is the correct sequence of impacts?
A) A first
B) B first
C) A and B simultaneously
D) sequence impossible to determine
E) There are more than two impacts.
Q2) Which is NOT an intensive property of matter?
A) refractive index
B) temperature
C) weight
D) density
E) specific heat
Q3) The refractive index of a medium is determined by the ratio of:
A) velocity of light in a vacuum to frequency of light in a medium
B) frequency of light in a vacuum to frequency of light in a medium
C) angle of refraction to angle of incidence
D) velocity of light in a vacuum to velocity of light in a medium
E) density of light in the medium to density of light in a vacuum
Q4) Contract the differences between a solid, a liquid and a gas.
Q5) Explain the difference between elements and compounds. Cite one example of each.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Barbiturates act to:
A) suppress central nervous system functions.
B) produce sleep.
C) promote relaxation.
D) create a feeling of well-being.
E) all of the above
Q2) Which physical symptom is part of the abstinence syndrome?
A) hallucinations
B) body chills
C) stomach cramps and vomiting
D) convulsions
E) all of the above
Q3) Which hallucinogen can be synthesized by a simple chemical process and is often manufactured in clandestine laboratories?
A) mescaline
B) LSD
C) PCP
D) cocaine
E) marijuana
Q4) Explain the difference between a qualitative and quantitative test.
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the period of absorption, the concentration of alcohol in arterial blood is ________ the concentration of alcohol in venous blood.
A) greater than
B) the same as
C) less than
Q2) Of the following, which is an acid drug?
A) PCP
B) cocaine
C) methamphetamine
D) methadone
E) aspirin
Q3) In which instrument is alcohol NOT oxidized to acetic acid as part of the operation of the equipment?
A) fuel cell (Alco-Sensor IV)
B) infrared breath testing instrument (BAC Data Master)
C) Breathalyzer
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) List and describe the most commonly employed field sobriety tests.
Q5) Explain how alcohol is released by the lungs.
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to examine an opaque object with a compound microscope, one must:
A) use reflected illumination.
B) light the object from beneath the stage.
C) use transmitted illumination.
D) use infrared analysis.
E) stain the object before viewing it.
Q2) Bruno Richard Hauptmann was convicted of the kidnap and murder of the Lindbergh child in part on the basis of optical examination of:
A) GSR (gunshot residue).
B) hair.
C) wood.
D) soil.
E) fibers.
Q3) Depth of Focus
Q4) The image produced by an SEM is initially displayed on:
A) an X-ray film.
B) a sheet of photographic paper.
C) a cathode ray tube.
D) an x-ray analyzer.
E) photographic paper.

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Sample Questions
Q1) EMIT is NOT a(n):
A) popular test in toxicology laboratories.
B) screening test for suspected marijuana smoking.
C) speedy test to detect methadone in urine.
D) highly specific process to identify drugs in blood.
E) immunological assay technique that utilizes antibodies.
Q2) Diagram and describe the antibody antigen reaction.
Q3) The amount of acid phosphatase in seminal fluid is ________ the amount of acid phosphatase in blood.
A) less than B) the same as C) greater than
Q4) The sensitivity of the Takayama and Teichmann crystal tests for the identification of bloodstains is ________ the sensitivity of the Kastle-Meyer color test for bloodstain identification.
A) less than B) greater than C) the same as
Q5) List and describe the presumptive tests used to determine if a stain is blood.
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Q6) Describe how blood and semen are to be properly preserved.
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Q1) Small amounts of blood are best submitted to a crime laboratory:
A) after drying and rehydrating
B) after removal from surface of deposition and rehydration
C) immediately while still wet
D) after dried
E) in a druggists fold
Q2) Radioactive probes are used:
A) to visualize RFLPs.
B) as molecular scissors.
C) to hold DNA in helical shape.
D) as primers for DNA polymerase.
E) as restriction enzymes.
Q3) In which hereditary disease does abnormal hemoglobin differ from normal hemoglobin by only a single amino acid?
A) phenylketonuria
B) cystic fibrosis
C) sickle-cell anemia
D) hemophilia
E) albinism
Q4) Diagram the complementary strand for the following DNA segment ATAGCCGTA.
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Q1) The removal of an object or surface that was located between the origin of blood and the target surface during the bloodstain deposition leaves behind:
A) a void.
B) expirated blood.
C) an unidentifiable pattern.
D) a transfer pattern.
E) blowback spatter.
Q2) Describe the methods used to document bloodstain evidence at a crime scene.
Q3) In the grid method of bloodstain documentation, a grid of squares of known dimensions is created over an entire pattern in order to:
A) prevent contamination of the bloodstains.
B) collect bloodstains for delivery to the laboratory.
C) show the relative sizes of bloodstains in photographs.
D) all of the above.
E) none of the above.
Q4) Diagram and describe the three types of impact spatter and how these patterns can be used at a crime scene.
Q5) Using the following diagrams, calculate the angle of impact of each individual bloodstain.
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Q1) The rate of human hair growth per month is:
A) 1 inch.
B) 1 dm.
C) 1 cm.
D) 1 mL.
E) so variable as to be forensically worthless.
Q2) Which feature of hair is MOST important in making a species identification?
A) scale pattern
B) follicle shape
C) bulb size
D) color
E) shaft length
Q3) The stages of hair growth include all of the following except:
A) catagenic.
B) telogenic.
C) analgesic.
D) anagenic .
E) all above are stages of hair growth
Q4) Describe the correlation between hair analysis and DNA typing.
Q5) List and explain the three phases of hair growth.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which coat represents the "eye appeal"?
A)electrocoat primer
B)primer surface
C)basecoat
D)clearcoat
Q2) Briefly describe what an isotope is.
Q3) Which is NOT part of the composition of paint?
A) binder
B) pigment
C) solvent
D) adhesive
E) none of the above
Q4) Describe the proper collection and preservation techniques for soil evidence.
Q5) In order to compare soil specimens, some forensic laboratories rely on:
A) GRIM 3 results.
B) the density-gradient tube technique.
C) the 3 R rule.
D) a reference collection.
E) refractive index studies.
Q6) List and explain the important forensic properties of soil.
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Q1) The decomposition of organic matter by heat describes:
A) convection.
B) radiation.
C) ignition temperate.
D) pyrolysis.
E) combustion.
Q2) Telltale signs of arson include:
A) separate points of origin.
B) "streamers" connecting burned areas.
C) the presence of accelerant containers.
D) trails of burn patterns.
E) all of the above
Q3) The likelihood that spontaneous combustion will occur in improperly ventilated containers of highly unsaturated oils is ________ the likelihood that such combustion will occur with hydrocarbon lubricating oils.
A) greater than
B) the same as
C) less than
Q4) Describe how an investigator would collect and preserve evidence at a scene of a suspected arson fire.
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Q1) What is NOT true about taggants?
A) They can help the bomb-scene investigator recover useful evidence.
B) They are widely used to help trace an explosive to its last legal possessor.
C) They are color-coded chips that can survive explosions.
D) They carry information regarding where, when and for whom an explosive was manufactured.
E) They are magnetic sensitive and fluorescent.
Q2) Which is NOT a high explosive?
A) dynamite
B) RDX
C) black powder
D) tetryl
E) TNT
Q3) Which is a homemade explosive that has been used by terrorist organizations in the Middle East?
A) PETN
B) RDX
C) TATP
D) TNT
E) tetryl
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Q1) It is estimated that there are as many as ________ ridge characteristics in an average complete fingerprint.
A) 300
B) 100
C) 200
D) 150
E) 50
Q2) Under which circumstances have two people been found to have identical fingerprints?
A) Siamese twins
B) identical twins
C) fraternal twins
D) members of the same immediate family
E) none to date
Q3) List and diagram the three major fingerprint patterns.
Q4) List and diagram the most common ridge characteristics found in a fingerprint.
Q5) List and explain the steps in developing and preserving a latent print with a fingerprint powder.
Q6) What techniques are best used on latent prints found on porous surfaces? What about non-porous surfaces?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two elements detected on the hands of an individual who has recently fired a weapon are:
A) barium and antimony.
B) zinc and copper.
C) antimony and iron.
D) iron and lead.
E) barium and nitrates.
Q2) Describe the various techniques that are used to rifle a barrel.
Q3) A wear pattern, cut, gouge, or other damage pattern can impart ___________ characteristics to a shoe.
A) class
B) non-comparative
C) wear
D) individual
E) generic
Q4) Generally, the gauge of a shotgun is ________ to the diameter of its barrel.
A) directly related
B) indirectly related
C) not related
Q5) List common field reagents used to enhance bloody fingerprints.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When dictating to a person in order to obtain samples of handwriting, one should not:
A) allow the suspect to view the questioned document before dictating it.
B) use a pen similar to that of the questioned document.
C) use similar or the same letter and word grouping as used in the questioned document
D) dictate the contents of the text at least three times.
E) use paper similar to that of the questioned document.
Q2) List and describe some of the techniques that document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.
Q3) If an investigator is to prepare standards from a suspect typewriter, the following procedure is recommended:
A) Partial copies of the suspect text are to be typed in light, medium, and heavy touches.
B) Each character should be typed without the ribbon.
C) Prepare at least one copy of the text in full word-for-word order.
D) Examine the type impressions left on the ribbon.
E) All of the above are recommended procedures.
Q4) What is a questioned document?
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Q1) A device that permits only requested traffic to enter a computer system is known as a(n) :
A) internet cache
B) network traffic manager
C) firewall
D) central processing unit (CPU)
E) cookie
Q2) The ___________ is a complex network of wires that carry data from one hardware device to another.
A) network
B) central processing unit (CPU)
C) operating system
D) motherboard
E) hard disc drive
Q3) Which of the following is NOT considered a type of software?
A) Linux
B) Unix
C) Firefox
D) Random Access Memory
E) Excel
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