https://quizplus.com/study-set/1219
Anatomy and Positioning for Radiologic Technologists
Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of human anatomy with a focus on its relevance to diagnostic imaging. Students will study the structure and function of major body systems, emphasizing anatomical relationships and landmarks crucial for accurate radiographic positioning. Key topics include skeletal, muscular, and organ systems, as well as techniques for achieving optimal images while minimizing patient discomfort and exposure. The course integrates theoretical knowledge with practical instruction on standard radiographic positions, use of imaging equipment, patient safety, and techniques for special populations, preparing students for clinical competency in radiologic technology.
Recommended Textbook merrills atlas of radiographic positioning and procedures 13th edition 3 volume set by bruce long
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34 Chapters
1670 Verified Questions
1670 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Preliminary Steps in Radiography
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33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Voluntary motion resulting from lack of control can be caused by:
1)fear.
2)age (child).
3)tremors.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
Q2) If a bone is projected longer or shorter than it actually is on the radiographic image, it is known as:
A) angulation.
B) distortion.
C) geometry.
D) anatomic position.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Compensating Filters
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which projection would two double-wedge filters be used?
A) AP shoulder
B) Lateral hip
C) AP spine for scoliosis
D) Lateral spine for scoliosis
Answer: D
Q2) A special-design Ferlic filter would provide an even image density for which of the following projections?
1)AP thoracic spine
2)Lateral C7-T1 (swimmer's method)
3)Lateral hip (Danelius-Miller method)
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning
Terminology
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101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms are used both as an x-ray projection and a body position?
1)Axial
2)Oblique
3)Lateral
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following terms are used to describe "body positions"?
1)Upright
2)Axial
3)Prone
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the central ray directed for a lateral projection of the humerus?
A) Elbow joint
B) Shoulder joint
C) Glenoid cavity
D) Midpoint of the humerus
Q2) At the lateral (thumb) side of the hand, the digit is called the _____ digit.
A) lateral
B) first
C) medial
D) fifth
Q3) The first bone located on the proximal row and lateral side of the wrist is called the: A) trapezoid.
B) trapezium.
C) lunate.
D) scaphoid.
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6
Chapter 5: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following projections clearly demonstrates the glenoid cavity?
A) AP
B) PA oblique (scapular Y)
C) AP oblique (Grashey)
D) Transthoracic lateral (Lawrence)
Q2) How should the central ray be angled for the AP projection (Pearson method) of the AC joints?
A) 0 degrees
B) 5 degrees cephalad
C) 7 degrees cephalad
D) 5 to 7 degrees cephalad
Q3) The small, synovial fluid-filled sacs, which relieve pressure and reduce friction in joint tissues, are called:
A) bursae.
B) ligaments.
C) tendons.
D) cartilage.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the essential method of demonstrating the patella in the tangential projection?
A) Merchant
B) Settegast
C) Hughston
D) Kuchendorf
Q2) Which anatomic part must be identified on lateral radiographs of the knee in order to identify over- or under-rotation?
A) Adductor tubercle
B) Lateral condyle
C) Medial condyle
D) An open patellofemoral joint space
Q3) How many metatarsal bones are in the foot?
A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Seven
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Chapter 7: Pelvis and Upper Femora
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much is the central ray angled for the AP oblique projection (Judet method) of the acetabulum?
A) 0 degrees
B) 10 degrees
C) 12 degrees
D) 15 degrees
Q2) Which of the following describes the position of the IR for the axiolateral projection of the hip (Danelius-Miller)?
1)Parallel with the long axis of the femoral neck
2)Its upper border in the crease above the iliac crest
3)Perpendicular to the long axis of the femur
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The ilia articulate with the sacrum posteriorly at the:
A) hip joint.
B) pubic symphysis.
C) sacroiliac joint.
D) lumbar-5 and sacral-1 area.
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Chapter 8: Vertebral Column
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Sample Questions
Q1) The zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine form an angle of how many degrees with the midsagittal plane?
A) 45
B) 90
C) 15 to 20
D) 70 to 75
Q2) Where is the central ray positioned for a lateral sacrum?
A) At the level of the ASIS and 3 \(1 / 2\) inches posterior
B) At the level of the ASIS and 4 inches posterior
C) 3 \(1 / 2\) inches inferior to the iliac crest
D) 4 inches inferior to the iliac crest
Q3) Where should the superior edge of the IR/collimated field be placed for an AP projection of the thoracic vertebrae?
A) 1 inch above the shoulders
B) 1 \(1 / 2\) to 2 inches above the shoulders
C) 1 \(1 / 2\) to 2 inches below the shoulders
D) At the level of the shoulders
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Chapter 9: Bony Thorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the top of the IR positioned for an AP oblique projection of the ribs?
A) At the level of T1
B) 1 inch above the upper border of the shoulder
C) 1 \(1 / 2\) inches above the upper border of the shoulder
D) 2 inches above the upper border of the shoulder
Q2) Which of the following is the essential projection and body position for demonstration of the sternum?
A) AP, supine
B) PA, prone
C) PA oblique, LAO
D) PA oblique, RAO
Q3) How much should the body be rotated for a PA oblique projection of the sternum?
A) 10 degrees
B) 20 degrees
C) 5 to 10 degrees
D) 15 to 20 degrees
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Chapter 10: Thoracic Viscera
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Sample Questions
Q1) When fluid replaces air in the lung interstitium and alveoli, the patient is said to have:
A) pulmonary edema.
B) pneumonia.
C) pleural effusion.
D) pneumothorax.
Q2) Which positioning maneuver moves the scapulae out of the lateral aspects of the lungs?
A) Placing the backs of the hands low on the hips
B) Rolling the shoulders forward
C) Depressing the shoulders to lie in the same transverse plane
D) Placing the patient in an upright position
Q3) Which of the following would not be included in the mediastinum?
1)Thymus
2)Larynx
3)Diaphragm
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Long Bone Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which long bone measurement technique requires a special single, long image receptor and uses a long SID?
A) Scanogram
B) Orthoroentgenography
C) Teleoroentgenography
D) Direct digital radiography
Q2) What patient positions may be used for a long bone measurement?
1)Standing
2)Prone
3)Supine
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Which long bone measurement technique requires three separate image receptors?
A) Scanogram
B) Orthoroentgenography
C) Teleoroentgenography
D) Direct digital radiography
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Contrast Arthrography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is administered during arthrography before the injection of contrast?
A) Conscious sedation
B) Sterile saline
C) Local anesthetic
D) General anesthetic
Q2) Which of the following joints are most commonly examined by contrast arthrography?
1)Knee
2)Hip
3)Shoulder
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Trauma Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a trauma patient loses consciousness during an imaging procedure, the imaging professional should:
A) assess the patient's airway.
B) check the patient's pulse.
C) notify the ED physician immediately.
D) check the patient's pupil responses.
Q2) Signs of shock include all of the following except:
A) cool, clammy skin.
B) diaphoresis.
C) excessive thirst.
D) vomiting.
Q3) Which imaging modality has replaced conventional trauma skull radiography in most Level I trauma centers?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Nuclear medicine
D) Angiography
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Chapter 14: Mouth and Salivary Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does the submandibular duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
Q2) The hard palate is formed by the:
A) ethmoid and vomer.
B) ethmoid and palatine bone.
C) maxillae and vomer.
D) maxillae and palatine bone.
Q3) Where does the parotid duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
Q4) Which salivary glands are the largest?
A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular and sublingual are equal in size.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Anterior Part of Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following serves as a passage for both food and air?
A) Pharynx
B) Larynx
C) Trachea
D) Bronchus
Q2) Which is the most common imaging modality for examination of the soft palate, pharynx, and larynx?
A) Computed radiography
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
Q3) The roof of the posterior wall of the nasopharynx contains a mass of lymphoid tissue known as the:
A) thymus gland.
B) thyroid gland.
C) pharyngeal tonsil.
D) epiglottis.
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17
Chapter 16: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the respiration phase for an AP abdominal image obtained with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position?
A) Suspended
B) Inspiration
C) Expiration
D) Variable, depending on the patient status
Q2) The inner portion of the sac that covers the abdominal organs is termed the:
A) parietal peritoneum.
B) visceral peritoneum.
C) parietal pleura.
D) visceral pleura.
Q3) Where is the center of the IR positioned for an AP abdominal image performed with the patient in the upright position?
A) L3
B) Lower rib margin
C) Iliac crests
D) 2 inches above the iliac crests
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Chapter 17: Digestive System: Alimentary Canal
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the IR centered for images of the small intestine that are taken within 30 minutes of drinking the barium?
A) Level of the iliac crests
B) 1 inch above the iliac crests
C) 2 inches above the iliac crests
D) At the costal margin/L3
Q2) The folds of the thick inner lining of the stomach are termed the:
A) rugae.
B) serous.
C) mucous layer.
D) submucous layer.
Q3) Which of the following contrast media are used for examinations of the gastrointestinal tract?
1)Air
2)Barium sulfate
3)Water-soluble iodinated solution
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 18: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) After the needle enters the skin during venipuncture, the angle of the needle is reduced how many degrees to the long axis of the vessel?
A) 5 degrees
B) 10 degrees
C) 15 degrees
D) 20 degrees
Q2) The mucosal folds on the inside of the urinary bladder are called: A) serosa.
B) omenta.
C) rugae.
D) pleura.
Q3) Nearly all life-threatening reactions to contrast media occur immediately or within _____ minutes of the injection.
A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition of an undescended testis is termed:
A) ectopic testicle.
B) cryptorchidism.
C) testicular torsion.
D) cryptoscrotalism.
Q2) Measurement of the fetal head and pelvic outlet can be performed using which of the following?
1)Sonography
2)Hysterosalpingography
3)Pelvimetry (Colcher-Sussman method)
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Which examination is performed 3 months after insertion of an IUD to determine effective uterine tube occlusion?
A) Hysterosalpingogram
B) Pelvic pneumography
C) Vaginography
D) Pelvic sonogram
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Chapter 20: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The OML forms an angle of how many degrees from the plane of the image receptor for an open-mouth parietoacanthial (Waters method) projection?
A) 25 degrees
B) 37 degrees
C) 45 degrees
D) 35 to 40 degrees
Q2) The parietoacanthial projection of the facial bones is commonly called the _____ method.
A) Towne
B) Waters
C) Caldwell
D) Rhese
Q3) Which line is placed perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor for the AP axial projection of the zygomatic arches?
A) Orbitomeatal line
B) Mentomeatal line
C) Acanthiomeatal line
D) Infraorbitomeatal line
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Chapter 21: Mammography
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the craniocaudal projection of the breast, the IR holder should be raised to the level of the:
A) nipple.
B) axillary tail.
C) pectoral muscle.
D) inframammary fold.
Q2) Which of the following terms is also referred to as 3D breast imaging?
A) Digital breast tomosynthesis (DBT)
B) Breast MRI
C) Full-field digital mammography
D) Breast sonography
Q3) The mean glandular dose for a typical two-projection mammogram done using a screen/IR is _____ mrad.
A) 100
B) 320
C) 400
D) 450
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following imaging modalities may be used for image-guided interventional pain management except:
A) fluoroscopy.
B) CT.
C) ultrasound.
D) MRI.
Q2) How many pairs of spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord?
A) 14
B) 24
C) 29
D) 31
Q3) The largest part of the brain is the:
A) cerebellum.
B) cerebrum.
C) brainstem.
D) medulla oblongata.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscular wall of the heart is called the:
A) myocardium.
B) epicardium.
C) endocardium.
D) pericardium.
Q2) Blood is supplied to the myocardium by the: A) atria.
B) right ventricle.
C) left ventricle.
D) coronary arteries.
Q3) The therapeutic radiologic procedure designed to dilate or reopen stenotic or occluded areas within a vessel is termed:
A) "gamma knife" therapy.
B) percutaneous transluminal angioplasty.
C) interventional radiology.
D) transcatheter embolization.
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Chapter 24: Pediatric Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which types of fractures have high specificity for nonaccidental trauma to a child?
1)Spiral fractures
2)Scapular fractures
3)Posterior rib fractures
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) When performing limb radiography on a pediatric patient, what may not be required to evaluate for fracture?
A) Images showing the relative position of the two ends of the bone
B) The contralateral side
C) Use of large focal spot
D) Soft tissue
Q3) Which sinuses are usually aerated at birth?
A) Maxillary only
B) Maxillary and frontal only
C) Maxillary, ethmoid, and sphenoid
D) All paranasal sinuses are aerated at birth, if normal
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Geriatric Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aging and disease are considered synonymous.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dementia is a natural part of the aging process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Traditional positioning for a chest radiograph may be difficult for the elderly patient. An alternative would be to:
A) position the patient for an AP.
B) have a CT scan for the chest.
C) wrap his or her arms around the chest stand.
D) leave arms down at the side of the body.
Q4) The aging experience is individual and is affected by: 1)attitude.
2)lifestyle choices.
3)heredity.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Mobile Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following attire is worn by the radiographer when entering a strict isolation room for a mobile radiography examination?
1)Mask
2)Gown
3)Gloves
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) According to federal regulations, the source-to-skin (SSD) distance during mobile radiography may not be less than _____ inches.
A) 10
B) 12
C) 15
D) 24
Q3) Mobile radiographic units can have direct digital capability with wired to the unit or wireless.
A)True
B)False
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Surgical Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who would be included as nonsterile team members?
1)Anesthesia provider
2)Physician assistant
3)Radiographer
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) The sterile field is the:
A) whole surgical room.
B) area around the surgeon.
C) area prepared for the patient.
D) surgical incision.
Q3) Less frequently used x-ray equipment in the OR should be cleaned:
A) every 3 days.
B) at least once a week.
C) every 2 weeks.
D) once a month.
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Chapter 29: Computed Tomography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that affect image quality in CT consist of:
1)spatial resolution.
2)noise.
3)contrast media.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) CT is able to differentiate between tissues with similar densities compared with conventional radiography because of:
A) digital magnification.
B) the use of a computer for data processing.
C) improved contrast resolution.
D) axial slices.
Q3) Fourth-generation CT scanners use the following configuration:
A) translate tube and rotating detectors.
B) rotating tube and detectors.
C) only rotating detectors.
D) only rotating tube.
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Page 30
Chapter 30: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Standard pulse sequences show blood flow with a _____ signal compared with surrounding tissues.
A) strong
B) low
C) bright
D) T2
Q2) Spin-spin relaxation (T2) is the release of energy by excited nuclei:
A) as a result of interaction among themselves.
B) to their general environment.
C) according to their precessional frequency.
D) in relation to their resonant frequency.
Q3) The wobbling motion of the proton when it is placed in a strong magnetic field is called:
A) frequency.
B) precession.
C) resonance.
D) a signal.
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Ultrasound
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Sample Questions
Q1) A normal liver scan should have a _____ echo pattern.
A) hyperechoic
B) hypoechoic
C) homogeneous
D) heterogeneous
Q2) The velocity of an ultrasound beam is:
A) constant in speed.
B) constant for all solids.
C) determined by the density of material.
D) proportional to frequency cubed.
Q3) The principle on which the ultrasound transducer operates is the _____ effect.
A) photoelectric
B) crystalline
C) piezoelectric
D) transducer
Q4) Ultrasonic sound waves are:
A) poorly transmitted by liquids.
B) poorly transmitted by solids.
C) reflected at tissue interfaces.
D) constant in speed.
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Chapter 32: Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common radionuclide used in nuclear medicine is:
A) technetium (99mTc).
B) iodine (123I).
C) thallium (201Tl).
D) xenon (133Xe).
Q2) Unwanted photons or "noise" are reduced by using a:
A) pulse height analyzer.
B) collimator.
C) Geiger counter.
D) scintillator.
Q3) One desirable characteristic of a radiopharmaceutical is:
A) long physical half-life in days.
B) millisecond effective half-life.
C) easily absorbed in surrounding tissues.
D) primary photon energy between 100 and 140 keV.
Q4) Collimators are used in nuclear medicine to:
A) cone down the beam.
B) limit patient dose from the radiation.
C) maintain signal strength.
D) keep scattered rays from entering the camera.
Page 33
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Chapter 33: Bone Densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The measurement of bone density uses two different beam energies, allowing the separation of soft tissue and bone due to:
A) filtration differences in the beam.
B) mass attenuation coefficient differences.
C) BMD population calculations.
D) the two-dimensional area.
Q2) Patient positioning should be exactly the same for all scans because:
A) the images need to look the same over time.
B) the results will be more precise, reflecting a true biologic change.
C) that will allow scans from different manufacturers to be comparable.
D) radiologists want the same positioning to read the images.
Q3) The Z-score is used to determine:
A) the reference population.
B) fracture risk for the patient.
C) if the measured BMD is reasonable.
D) patient age and bone loss.
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34
Chapter 34: Radiation Oncology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24128
Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment that is designed to deliver radiation to the exact target volume is called:
A) fractionation.
B) differentiation.
C) palliation.
D) conformal radiation.
Q2) Intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) uses:
A) radioactive isotopes.
B) multileaf collimators.
C) cerrobend blocks.
D) permanent implants.
Q3) Gamma knife is primarily used to treat small benign or malignant lesions located in the:
A) abdomen.
B) breast.
C) brain.
D) prostate.
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