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Anatomy and Physiology Laboratory Final Test Solutions - 1044 Verified Questions

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Anatomy and Physiology Laboratory

Final Test Solutions

Course Introduction

The Anatomy and Physiology Laboratory offers students hands-on experience in exploring the structure and function of the human body. Through practical exercises, dissections, microscope work, and physiological experiments, students observe and analyze major body systems, including the musculoskeletal, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and endocrine systems. This laboratory component reinforces theoretical concepts learned in lectures by allowing students to identify anatomical structures, investigate physiological processes, and apply scientific methods to real-life biological questions. Emphasis is placed on developing essential laboratory skills, teamwork, and critical thinking for a comprehensive understanding of human biology.

Recommended Textbook

Laboratory Manual for Human Anatomy and Physiology Main Version 4th Edition by Terry R. Martin

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63 Chapters

1044 Verified Questions

1044 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Scientific Method and Measurements

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Sample Questions

Q1) When plotting data on a graph, drawing the line of best fit involves placing all of the data points on the line.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) In the metric system, 1 cm is equal to ________ mm.

A)100

B)1,000

C)0.1

D)10

E)0.01

Answer: D

Q3) The difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable is that the dependent variable

A)can be changed.

B)is derived from the experimental results.

C)is determined before the experiment is conducted.

D)is equivalent to the hypothesis.

E)is equivalent to the observations.

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Body Organization, Membranes, and Terminology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A ________ plane (section)divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.

A)sagittal

B)transverse

C)horizontal

D)coronal

E)paramedian

Answer: D

Q2) The eye is further from the midline of the body than the nose; therefore, the eye is ________ to the nose.

A)medial

B)proximal

C)lateral

D)distal

E)caudal

Answer: C

Q3) In directional terminology, the opposite of posterior is anterior.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) There is a ________ difference between a pH of 5 and a pH of 6.

A)10x

B)2x

C)5x

D)100x

E)50x

Answer: A

Q2) Acids have a pH of <7.0, and they contain a higher concentration of H+ ions than OHions.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) The smallest unit of any element is a(n)________.

A)molecule

B)compound

C)macromolecule

D)atom

E)electron

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Care and Use of the Microscope

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following parts of the microscope concentrates the light onto the microscopic slide?

A)Iris diaphragm lever

B)Substage illuminator

C)Fine adjustment knob

D)Condenser

E)Objective lens

Q2) What is the typical magnification provided by the eyepiece (ocular)lens system?

A)100x

B)10x

C)4x

D)1,000x

E)0x (the eyepiece lens system does not provide any magnification)

Q3) The magnification of a specimen viewed with a 10x eyepiece and a 40x high-power objective lens is ________.

A)50x

B)40x

C)10x

D)400x

E)500x

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Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) The best way to observe cheek cells is under a dissecting microscope; they are too large to view under a compound light microscope.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The nucleolus is the site of DNA replication.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The plasma membrane of a cell can also be called the cell membrane.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The cytosol and cytoplasmic organelles are components of the ________.

A)cytoskeleton

B)cytoplasm

C)mitochondria

D)nucleus

E)plasma membrane

Q5) The nuclear envelope is a double-layered membrane, like the plasma membrane.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Movements Through Membranes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following transport processes requires the energy of ATP to move substances across the plasma membrane?

A)Diffusion

B)Osmosis

C)Facilitated diffusion

D)Active transport

E)Filtration

Q2) Which of the passive transport processes requires hydrostatic pressure to transport molecules across membranes in the body?

A)Osmosis

B)Filtration

C)Facilitated diffusion

D)Pinocytosis

E)Diffusion

Q3) When conducting the eggshell membrane experiment, what is vinegar used for?

A)To remove the shell

B)To turn the albumin white

C)To solidify the yolk

D)To make the shell turn a pinkish color

E)To separate the egg shell from the rest of the egg

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Chapter 7: Cell Cycle

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Sample Questions

Q1) During which phase of the cell cycle is the DNA duplicated?

A)The S phase of interphase

B)Cytokinesis

C)The G phase of interphase

D)Prophase

E)The G phase of interphase

Q2) During which phase of the cell cycle do the chromosomes line up along the midline of the cell, and become attached to the spindle fibers?

A)Telophase

B)Prophase

C)Anaphase

D)Interphase

E)Metaphase

Q3) Which of the following events occurs during the G phase of the cell cycle?

A)Completion of cell growth and production of enzymes

B)DNA replication

C)Synthesis of substances and materials that will be needed in the S phase

D)Separation of sister chromatids, and migration toward opposite sides of the dividing cell

E)Dispersal of the nucleolus and nuclear envelope

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Chapter 8: Epithelial Tissues

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Sample Questions

Q1) A group of cells that are alike in function and appearance is called a tissue.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The thinnest type of epithelial tissue in the body, which allows rapid diffusion of substances through the cells, is simple cuboidal epithelium.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which type of epithelial tissue is composed of only one layer of cells, but appears layered, because some of the cells do not reach the free surface?

A)Transitional

B)Stratified squamous

C)Simple columnar

D)Stratified cuboidal

E)Pseudostratified columnar

Q4) The histological sections used to make the slides we observe in the lab are usually about 10-15 cell layers thick.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Connective Tissues

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of connective tissue insulates the body from heat loss, protects certain organs from injury, and stores energy in the form of fat?

A)Areolar connective tissue

B)Reticular connective tissue

C)Dense regular connective tissue

D)Fibrocartilage

E)Adipose tissue

Q2) All of the following are dense connective tissues except

A)elastic connective tissue.

B)dense irregular connective tissue.

C)reticular connective tissue.

D)dense regular connective tissue.

E)All of these are types of dense connective tissue.

Q3) All of the following are true about areolar connective tissue except

A)it consists of cells in a fluid-gel matrix.

B)it sustains tissue tension.

C)it holds tissue fluids.

D)it binds organs loosely together.

E)All of these are true of areolar connective tissue.

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Muscle and Nervous Tissues

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type(s)of muscle tissue is/are striated?

A)Skeletal only

B)Smooth only

C)Skeletal and cardiac

D)Skeletal and smooth

E)Cardiac only

Q2) Muscle cells are also called muscle fibers.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Neuroglia are the supporting cells for neurons.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Both neurons and neuroglia are able to generate and conduct nerve impulses. A)True

B)False

Q5) Nerve cells are also called neuroglia.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Integumentary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of merocrine sweat glands?

A)They are also called eccrine sweat glands.

B)Their ducts open into hair follicles.

C)They cool the body through evaporation in response to stress and exercise.

D)They excrete water, salt, and nitrogen wastes from the body.

E)All of these are true of merocrine sweat glands.

Q2) The reticular region of the dermis consists of ________ tissue.

A)areolar connective

B)dense regular connective

C)dense irregular connective

D)adipose

E)stratified squamous epithelial

Q3) Apocrine sweat glands have an insignificant role in thermoregulation.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Sweat glands are also called sudoriferous glands.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Bone Structure and Classification

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Sample Questions

Q1) Concentric, interstitial, and circumferential lamellae all consist of ________.

A)spongy bone

B)hematopoietic cells

C)yellow bone marrow

D)layers of matrix

E)trabeculae

Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the structure of long bones?

A)Long bones contain an epiphysis at both ends.

B)The diaphysis and surfaces of the epiphyses consist of compact bone.

C)The periosteum surrounds the entire bone, even where there is articular cartilage.

D)Spongy bone makes up the internal portions of the epiphyses.

E)All of the following are true of the structure of a long bone.

Q3) What is the function of osteoclasts in bone tissue?

A)They form blood cells.

B)They dissolve bone to release calcium salts into the blood.

C)They are the stem cells of bone tissue.

D)They are isolated within the bone matrix, and they function in bone homeostasis.

E)They form bone by depositing bone matrix.

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Chapter 13: Organization of the Skeleton

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most adults have 206 bones, but the number at birth is close to 275.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The axial skeleton contains more bones than the appendicular skeleton.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The distal end of the humerus articulates with the A)carpals.

B)radius and ulna.

C)tibia and fibula.

D)tarsals.

E)phalanges.

Q4) Which category of bone markings consists of bone parts that serve as attachment sites for tendons and ligaments?

A)Openings

B)Articulations

C)Depressions

D)Condyles

E)Projections

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Chapter 14: Skull

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following bones contains the cribriform plate, which is involved in olfaction (smell), and the perpendicular plate, which forms the majority of the nasal septum?

A)Ethmoid bone

B)Vomer bone

C)Sphenoid bone

D)Nasal bone

E)Inferior nasal concha

Q2) Which of the following  bones does not articulate with any other bone, but is attached to muscles of the tongue and larynx?

A)Sphenoid bone

B)Palatine bone

C)Vomer bone

D)Stapes

E)Hyoid bone

Q3) The skull consists of 8 cranial bones and 14 facial bones.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 15: Vertebral Column and Thoracic Cage

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ________ vertebrae have the largest vertebral foramina, while the ________ vertebrae have the largest size.

A)cervical; lumbar

B)thoracic; lumbar

C)lumbar; cervical

D)cervical; thoracic

E)thoracic; cervical

Q2) On the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae, which structures are thin plates that form the posterior portion of the vertebral foramen?

A)Laminae

B)Transverse processes

C)Pedicles

D)Spinous processes

E)Facets

Q3) The two vertebrae that articulate to allow pivoting of the head are atlas and axis.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 16: Pectoral Girdle and Upper Limb

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the most distal part of the ulna?

A)Olecranon process

B)Coronoid process

C)Radial notch

D)Trochlear notch

E)Head

Q2) The carpals are not included in the anatomical description of the hand.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the ulnar notch?

A)It articulates with the head of the ulna.

B)It is found on the radius.

C)It is closer to the humerus than to the wrist.

D)It is a curved shallow depression.

E)All of these are true of the ulnar notch.

Q4) When the olecranon fossa of the humerus articulates with the olecranon process of the ulna, it allows a person to straighten the arm at the elbow.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle and Lower Limb

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following structures is NOT found on the femur?

A)Fovea capitis

B)Linea aspera

C)Gluteal tuberosity

D)Lesser trochanter

E)Obturator foramen

Q2) Which of the following structures is formed by parts of the ilium, ischium, and pubis?

A)Obturator foramen

B)Acetabulum

C)Pubic arch

D)Greater sciatic notch

E)Iliac fossa

Q3) The area that the baby's head passes through during the birth process is the ________.

A)acetabulum

B)pubic symphysis

C)median sacral crest

D)obturator foramen

E)pelvic inlet

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Chapter 18: Fetal Skeleton

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Sample Questions

Q1) The relatively small size of the face in the fetal skull is due to all of the following except

A)the small size of the maxillae and their sinuses.

B)the undersized mandible.

C)the lack of tooth eruptions in the maxillae and mandible.

D)the small size of the nasal cavities.

E)all of these are reasons why the face is small in a fetal skull.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the fontanels?

A)They are sometimes called "soft spots."

B)They are areas of incomplete ossification in the skull of an infant.

C)They occur between the flat bones of the skull, the vertebrae, and the long bones of the upper and lower limbs.

D)They allow for cranial compression during childbirth, and rapid brain development after birth.

E)All of these are true of the fontanels.

Q3) Most bones of the skeleton develop by endochondral ossification.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 19: Joint Structure and Movements

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Sample Questions

Q1) An intervertebral disc is composed of fibrocartilage, and is slightly moveable; this type of joint is classified as a A)syndesmosis.

B)symphysis.

C)gomphosis.

D)synchondrosis.

E)suture.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a structural classification of joints?

A)Cartilaginous joint

B)Diarthrotic joint

C)Synovial joint

D)Fibrous joint

E)All of these are structural classifications of joints.

Q3) Which of the following joints contain(s)exactly 3 bones?

A)Shoulder and elbow

B)Hip and knee

C)Knee only

D)Shoulder only

E)Elbow and knee

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Skeletal Muscle Structure and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the role of tropomyosin in a sarcomere?

A)It is the main protein component of thin myofilaments.

B)It blocks the active sites on actin filaments in relaxed muscle fibers.

C)It is the main component of elastic filaments.

D)It is the main protein component in thick myofilaments.

E)It binds to calcium to initiate muscle contraction.

Q2) Which of the following organelles stores calcium in skeletal muscle fibers for contraction?

A)Mitochondria

B)Transverse tubules

C)Sarcolemma

D)Sarcoplasm

E)Sarcoplasmic reticulum

Q3) The connective tissue layer that surrounds each bundle of muscle fibers is called the A)endomysium.

B)fascicle.

C)perimysium.

D)fascia.

E)epimysium.

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Electromyography: Biopac Exercise

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Sample Questions

Q1) Electromyography is a recording of voltage on the skin surface, which is derived from the contraction of skeletal muscles under the skin.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of muscle fatigue?

A)It involves a decrease in the force of muscle contraction, even when the muscle is still under stimulation.

B)It may be caused by conduction failure, due to accumulation of K ions in the transverse tubules of skeletal muscle fibers

C)It usually occurs when a muscle is being stimulated during very light work or exercise.

D)It may be caused by decreased responsiveness of a muscle fiber to low pH, resulting from a build-up of lactic acid

E)All of these are true of muscle fatigue.

Q3) When a motor neuron of a particular motor unit is activated, all of the muscle fibers it innervates are stimulated to contract simultaneously.

A)True

B)False

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Muscles of the Head and Neck

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following muscle groups contains some muscles that are innervated by the ansa cervicalis?

A)Muscles of mastication

B)Muscles of facial expression

C)Muscles that move the hyoid bone and larynx

D)Muscles that move the head and neck

E)All of these muscle groups contain some muscles that are innervated by the ansa cervicalis.

Q2) Which of the following muscles elevates the hyoid bone during the swallowing process?

A)Omohyoid

B)Thyrohyoid

C)Mylohyoid

D)Sternohyoid

E)Sternothyroid

Q3) All of the muscles that move the hyoid bone and larynx are innervated by the facial nerve.

A)True

B)False

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Muscles of the Chest, Shoulder, and Upper

Limb

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following muscles that move(s)the pectoral girdle retract(s)and elevate(s)the scapula?

A)Levator scapulae

B)Trapezius

C)Serratus anterior

D)Rhomboid major and minor

E)Pectoralis minor

Q2) Most of the muscles that move the forearm and hand are innervated by the ________ nerve(s).

A)ulnar

B)musculocutaneous

C)axillary

D)suprascapular

E)median and radial

Q3) Which of the following muscles is NOT a flexor of the elbow?

A)Biceps brachii

B)Brachioradialis

C)Brachialis

D)Triceps brachii

E)All of these are flexors of the elbow.

25

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Chapter

Wall, and Pelvic Floor

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the pelvic floor muscles inserts only on the coccyx?

A)Ischiocavernosus

B)Coccygeus

C)Levator ani

D)Bulbospongiosus

E)Superficial transverse perineal muscle

Q2) Which of the following muscles is NOT a muscle of the abdominal wall?

A)Rectus abdominis

B)External oblique

C)Transversus abdominis

D)Internal intercostal

E)All of these are muscles of the abdominal wall.

Q3) The anterior portion of the perineum is called the

A)anal triangle.

B)genital opening.

C)urogenital triangle.

D)external anal sphincter.

E)pelvic diaphragm.

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Chapter 25: Muscles of the Hip and Lower Limb

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Q1) Thigh muscles that attach to the medial side of the pelvis ________ the thigh at the hip joint.

A)flex

B)adduct

C)extend

D)abduct

E)abduct and rotate

Q2) The gluteus maximus, medius, and minimus muscles all have the same action (extension of the thigh at the hip).

A)True

B)False

Q3) The quadriceps femoris group of muscles is innervated by the ________ nerve.

A)common fibular

B)tibial

C)superior gluteal

D)obturator

E)femoral

Q4) Compared to the forearm, the leg has a greater number of muscles.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 26: Surface Anatomy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The transverse arch is a

A)bony feature of the torso.

B)soft tissue feature of the lower limb.

C)soft tissue feature of the upper limb.

D)soft tissue feature of the torso.

E)bony feature of the lower limb.

Q2) The xiphoid process is a

A)bony feature of the torso.

B)soft tissue feature of the head.

C)bony feature of the upper limb.

D)soft tissue feature of the lower limb.

E)soft tissue feature of the torso.

Q3) The deltoid can be seen on both the anterior and posterior views of the trunk (torso). A)True

B)False

Q4) Soft tissue features do not include bone or cartilage.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 27: Nervous Tissue and Nerves

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Sample Questions

Q1) The rarest structural type of neuron is a bipolar neuron.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Nodes of Ranvier are found only on

A)myelinated axons.

B)dendrites.

C)astrocytes.

D)Nissl bodies.

E)unmyelinated axons.

Q3) Which of the following is true of interneurons?

A)They are only found in the peripheral nervous system.

B)They are also called efferent neurons.

C)They often connect sensory neurons to motor neurons.

D)They are directly connected to sensory receptors.

E)None of the choices is true of interneurons.

Q4) All structural types of neurons contain only one axon.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 28: Meninges, Spinal Cord, and Spinal Nerves

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Q1) The anterior ramus of each spinal nerve sends out communicating rami that connect to

A)the brain.

B)the meninges.

C)a sympathetic trunk ganglion.

D)the vertebrae.

E)the skin and muscles of the back.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the epidural space?

A)It lies between the vertebrae and the dura mater.

B)It contains connective tissue and blood vessels.

C)It contains cerebrospinal fluid.

D)It is the site for epidural injections of anesthetics.

E)All of these are true of the epidural space.

Q3) The lumbar plexus is considered to be the most complex of the nerve plexuses.

A)True

B)False

Q4) On the dermatome map, the sacral nerves generally innervate the genital, buttock, anal, and posterior lower limb regions.

A)True

B)False

Page 30

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Chapter 29: Reflex Arc and Somatic Reflexes

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Q1) Reflexes involving skeletal muscles are called ________ reflexes.

A)autonomic

B)spinal

C)somatic

D)skeletal

E)subconscious

Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the Babinski reflex?

A)It is a normal response in infants.

B)It is an abnormal response that occurs in some adults in the calcaneal reflex.

C)It involves dorsiflexion of the great toe and spreading of the toes.

D)In an adult, it may indicate damage to the corticospinal tracts of the central nervous system.

E)All of these are true of the Babinski reflex.

Q3) The stretch reflex tests that you demonstrated in this lab require input from the brain in order to work properly.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A reflex arc is the simplest kind of neural pathway in the nervous system.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 30: Brain and Cranial Nerves

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Q1) The cerebral cortex is the part of the brain used for conscious awareness and decision making.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A shallow groove on the surface of the brain is called a

A)fissure.

B)canal.

C)gyrus.

D)aperture.

E)sulcus.

Q3) The sensation of dental pain is derived from the ________ nerve.

A)hypoglossal

B)vagus

C)glossopharyngeal

D)accessory

E)trigeminal

Q4) Among the pairs of cranial nerves, 3 are sensory, 4 are mixed, and 5 are primarily motor.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 31: Reaction Time: Biopac Exercise

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Q1) In the statistical calculations in this experiment, the square root of the variance is called the

A)deviation from the mean. B)mean.

C)standard deviation.

D)median.

E)sum.

Q2) The response to laying one's hand on a hot stove is an example of a A)stretch

B)cranial

C)voluntary

D)monosynaptic

E)withdrawal

Q3) In the statistical calculations in this experiment, the average reaction time for all subjects in each condition is called the group A)variance. B)median.

C)standard deviation. D)mean. E)mode.

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Chapter 32: Electroencephalography I: Biopac Exercise

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Q1) The most important ions used in action potentials of neurons are Na and K ions.

A)True

B)False

Q2) How is desynchronization of the alpha waves observed in the EEG, when a person with eyes closed suddenly opens them?

A)The amplitude of the alpha wave increases.

B)The frequency of the alpha wave increases.

C)The amplitude of the alpha wave decreases.

D)The frequency of the alpha wave decreases.

E)The alpha waves stop, as shown by an amplitude and a frequency of 0.

Q3) Many neurons firing in synchrony results in a brain wave with high amplitude.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following is NOT a bodily function controlled by nerve impulses?

A)Generation of thought processes

B)Muscle contraction

C)Problem solving and other higher mental functions

D)Responses to various stimuli

E)All of these are functions controlled by nerve impulses.

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Chapter 33: Dissection of the Sheep Brain

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Q1) Which portion of the brainstem continues directly into the spinal cord?

A)Medulla oblongata

B)Cerebral peduncle

C)Midbrain

D)Corpora quadrigemina

E)Pons

Q2) The brains of mammals have many common structural features.

A)True

B)False

Q3) On a median section of a sheep brain, the hypothalamus lies ________ to the thalamus.

A)superior

B)posterior

C)inferior

D)lateral

E)anterior

Q4) The corpus callosum is a transverse band of white matter that runs between the cerebral hemispheres.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 34: General Senses

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Q1) A special sense is one that has A)no receptors.

B)receptors that are confined to the head.

C)receptors that respond to several types of stimuli.

D)receptors only found in humans.

E)unencapsulated receptors.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of Meissner's corpuscles?

A)They are also called tactile corpuscles.

B)They are numerous in the hands, feet, joints, and external genital organs.

C)They are most abundant in the hypodermis.

D)They are stimulated by light touch.

E)All of these are true of Meissner's corpuscles.

Q3) General senses are senses that have sensory receptors distributed widely in the skin, joints, muscles, and organs.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The form in which receptors send sensory information to the brain is called perception.

A)True

B)False

Page 36

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Chapter 35: Smell and Taste

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Q1) Alkaloids produce the ________ taste sensation.

A)sour

B)sweet

C)umami

D)salty

E)bitter

Q2) Umami taste receptors are sensitive to

A)sodium or potassium salts.

B)sugars.

C)aspartic acid, glutamic acid, and MSG.

D)acids.

E)alkaloids and spoiled foods.

Q3) What type of cells are olfactory receptor cells?

A)Squamous epithelial cells

B)Columnar epithelial cells

C)Bipolar neurons

D)Cuboidal epithelial cells

E)Multipolar neurons

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Chapter 36: Eye Structure

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Q1) The area in which the nerve fibers of the retina leave the eye to become the optic nerve is called the

A)ora serrata.

B)ciliary process.

C)macula lutea.

D)trochlea.

E)optic disc.

Q2) Which of the following structures secrete(s)an oily lubricant for the surface of the eye?

A)Ciliary body

B)Lacrimal glands

C)Conjunctiva

D)Pigmented epithelium

E)Tarsal glands

Q3) The aqueous humor occupies and flows through the anterior and posterior chambers and the pupil.

A)True

B)False

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38

Chapter 37: Visual Tests and Demonstrations

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Q1) During accommodation, it is normal for the eyes to diverge, to obtain a thorough view of the close object.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of colorblindness?

A)It is a hereditary trait carried on the X chromosome.

B)Protanopia involves a lack of or a decrease in sensitivity to the blue-sensitive cones.

C)Males and females can be colorblind, but the condition is more common in males.

D)Deuteranopia involves a lack of or a decreased sensitivity to green-sensitive cones.

E)All of these are true of colorblindness.

Q3) As people age, the lenses of the eye thicken and lose elasticity, a condition called A)hyperopia.

B)emmetropia.

C)myopia.

D)hypoopia.

E)presbyopia.

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Chapter 38: Ear and Hearing

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Q1) Which of the following structures is NOT part of the external ear?

A)Auricle

B)Pinna

C)External acoustic meatus

D)Tympanic cavity

E)All of these structures are parts of the external ear.

Q2) Which membrane separates the cochlear duct from the scala tympani, and provides a surface on which the spiral organ rests?

A)Vestibular membrane

B)Tectorial membrane

C)Cochlear membrane

D)Basilar membrane

E)Tympanic membrane

Q3) Which of the following structures of the ear function(s)as (an)organ(s)in the sense of equilibrium?

A)Vestibule and semicircular ducts

B)Cochlea

C)Eustachian tube

D)Pinna

E)Bony labyrinth

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Chapter 39: Ear and Equilibrium

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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the sense of static equilibrium?

A)It helps to keep the head in balance when a person is not moving.

B)It is also called gravitational equilibrium.

C)The sense organs are found within the vestibule.

D)It helps a person maintain balance during angular acceleration.

E)All of these are true of the sense of static equilibrium.

Q2) Both the crista ampullaris and the macula contain otoliths.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The organs of static and dynamic equilibrium both contain hair cells, with stereocilia embedded in a gelatinous mass.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The crista ampullaris projects into the lumen of the bony labyrinth of the semicircular canal.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The inner ear houses the organs of both static and dynamic equilibrium.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 40: Endocrine Structure and Function

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Q1) Which of the following endocrine glands is composed of 2 different regions, one consisting of glandular epithelial tissue, and the other consisting of nervous tissue?

A)The pineal gland

B)The thymus gland

C)The parathyroid gland

D)The pituitary gland

E)The thyroid gland

Q2) Exocrine glands secrete substances directly into the interstitial fluids of the body.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The theca folliculi, which surrounds mature follicles in the ovary, produces androgens (male sex hormones).

A)True

B)False

Q4) In the regulation of body processes, the effects or hormones last longer than those of neurotransmitters.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 41: Diabetic Physiology

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Q1) What is the function of pancreatic polypeptide?

A)To promote somatostatin secretion

B)To increase the blood glucose level

C)To inhibit secretion of insulin and glucagon

D)To decrease the blood glucose level

E)To inhibit somatostatin and digestive enzyme secretion

Q2) What is secreted by the pancreatic acini?

A)Digestive hormones

B)Insulin and glucagon

C)Somatostatin

D)Digestive enzymes

E)Hydrochloric acid

Q3) Normal or even higher than normal levels of insulin can be found in a person with type 2 diabetes mellitus.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Diabetes insipidus is a form of diabetes mellitus.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 42: Blood Cells

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Q1) Sometimes the granules in the cytoplasm of neutrophils are so large, that the nucleus is almost hidden from view.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If your differential white blood cell count showed that you had 10% lymphocytes, what could you conclude?

A)That you have a deficiency of lymphocytes, or that another type of white blood cell is elevated

B)That you most likely have a parasitic worm infection

C)That your lymphocytes are in the normal range

D)That you have an excess of lymphocytes

E)That you most likely have tuberculosis

Q3) Besides bacterial infections, stress can be a cause of elevated neutrophils in the blood.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Blood is a type of connective tissue.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 43: Blood Testing

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Sample Questions

Q1) The primary determinating factor for total blood cholesterol level is A)heredity.

B)obesity.

C)lack of exercise.

D)a high cholesterol diet.

E)All of these factors contribute equally to the total blood cholesterol level.

Q2) Which of the following is not true of cholesterol?

A)For the best health, it is recommended that the LDL and HDL levels in the blood should be as low as possible.

B)A cholesterol level of greater than 200 mg/dl is associated with an increase in the likelihood of developing cardiovascular disease.

C)LDLs are molecules that transport cholesterol to the tissues for use by the cells.

D)HDLs are molecules that are transported to the liver for decomposition and removal from the body.

E)All of these are true of cholesterol.

Q3) On the average, males have a slightly higher hematocrit than females.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 44: Blood Typing

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Q1) There are many different antigens found on red blood cell membranes, but only antigens A and B, and the Rh antigens are likely to cause agglutination reactions when transplanted into a person that lacks them.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If you mixed a person's red blood cells with anti-B antibodies, and the red blood cells agglutinated, what could you conclude?

A)That the person's red blood cell membranes contain antigen B

B)That the person has type B blood

C)That the person has type AB blood

D)That the person's red blood cell membranes contain antigen A

E)That the person's blood is Rh+

Q3) A harmful reaction may occur in some cases, even when using the universal donor blood type for a transfusion.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Type B blood contains antigen B and anti-B antibodies.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 45: Heart Structure

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Q1) Ridges of heart muscle located within the right atrium and the auricles are called the A)pectinate muscles.

B)interatrial sulci.

C)atrioventricular orifices.

D)trabeculae carneae.

E)papillary muscles.

Q2) When dissecting the sheep heart, it can be seen that the wall thickness of the pulmonary trunk and aorta is much greater than that of the superior and inferior venae cavae.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is not true of the pulmonary trunk?

A)It splits to become the right and left pulmonary arteries.

B)It emerges from the right ventricle of the heart.

C)It transports oxygen-rich blood.

D)It transports blood away from the heart.

E)All of these are true of the pulmonary trunk.

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Chapter 46: Cardiac Cycle

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Q1) Which of the following events is not observed in the ECG, because it is hidden in the QRS complex?

A)Atrial depolarization

B)Ventricular repolarization

C)Atrial systole

D)Atrial repolarization

E)Ventricular depolarization

Q2) During the cardiac cycle, the semilunar valves close during ventricular diastole.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The first and second heart sounds are derived from the opening of the heart valves.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In the cardiac cycle, the atria relax while the ventricles are contracting.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 47: Electrocardiography: Biopac Exercise

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Q1) During the cardiac cycle, which mechanical event immediately follows atrial repolarization?

A)Atrial systole

B)Ventricular diastole

C)Ventricular systole

D)Atrial diastole

E)Diastole of all four heart chambers

Q2) There is a short period of time in the cardiac cycle, in which all four heart chambers are in diastole.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The largest deflection from the isoelectric line in the ECG is found in the A)P wave.

B)T wave.

C)T-P segment.

D)QRS complex.

E)P-R interval.

Q4) Typically, ventricular diastole has a longer duration than ventricular systole.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 48: Blood Vessel Structure, Arteries, and Veins

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Q1) Which of the following arteries connects the popliteal artery to the dorsalis pedis artery?

A)Femoral artery

B)Posterior tibial artery

C)Patellar artery

D)Crural artery

E)Anterior tibial artery

Q2) Which of the following arteries is unpaired (a single vessel)?

A)Common carotid

B)Brachiocephalic

C)Renal

D)Common iliac

E)Internal iliac

Q3) All of the following are true of the differences between arteries and veins except A)veins have one-way valves, but arteries do not.

B)arteries have a thicker tunica media than veins.

C)veins collapse when empty, but arteries remain rounded.

D)veins have a thicker tunica externa than arteries.

E)All of these are true of the differences between arteries and veins.

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Page 50

Chapter 49: Pulse Rate and Blood Pressure

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Q1) What is the most significant factor in determining the peripheral resistance in a blood vessel?

A)Hematocrit

B)Blood vessel diameter

C)Blood viscosity

D)Blood vessel length

E)All of these factors contribute equally to the peripheral resistance in a blood vessel.

Q2) When measuring blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer, the pressure at which the first loud tapping sound is heard is recorded as the ________ pressure.

A)systolic

B)mean arterial

C)coronary

D)diastolic

E)pulse

Q3) The thumb should not be used to take the radial pulse, because a person may feel a pulse from an artery in the thumb instead.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 50: Lymphatic System

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Q1) The thymus is responsible for the maturation of B-lymphocytes.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is/are not considered to be (an)organ(s)of the lymphatic system?

A)Spleen

B)Thymus

C)Lymph nodes

D)Tonsils

E)All of these are considered to be organs of the lymphatic system.

Q3) When blood plasma filters out of capillaries to become interstitial fluid, most of the ________ are left behind in the capillaries.

A)plasma proteins

B)lipids

C)carbohydrates

D)nutrients

E)oxygen molecules

Q4) The adenoids are also called the pharyngeal tonsils.

A)True

B)False

Page 52

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Chapter 51: Respiratory Organs

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Q1) External respiration is the same as pulmonary ventilation.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In the bronchial tree, the lobar bronchi branch directly into A)terminal bronchioles.

B)secondary bronchi.

C)primary bronchi.

D)bronchioles.

E)segmental bronchi.

Q3) The largest cartilage of the larynx is the A)cricoid cartilage.

B)corniculate cartilage.

C)epiglottic cartilage.

D)arytenoid cartilage.

E)thyroid cartilage.

Q4) Blood vessels, nerves and a main bronchus all enter each lung at the hilum.

A)True

B)False

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Page 53

Chapter 52: Breathing and Respiratory Volumes

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Q1) The ________ can be calculated by multiplying breathing rate by tidal volume.

A)alveolar ventilation rate

B)anatomic dead space

C)inspiratory reserve volume

D)minute respiratory volume

E)inspiratory capacity

Q2) Which of the following is not a muscle of forced expiration?

A)Interosseous portion of the internal intercostals

B)Rectus abdominis

C)Pectoralis minor

D)External oblique

E)All of these are muscles of forced expiration.

Q3) Which of the following respiratory volumes and capacities can not be measured with a spirometer?

A)Vital capacity

B)Expiratory reserve volume

C)Residual volume

D)Tidal volume

E)All of these can be measured with a spirometer.

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Chapter 53: Spirometry: Biopac Exercise

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Q1) Which of the following respiratory volumes and capacities has the lowest volume?

A)Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

B)Residual volume (RV)

C)Tidal volume (TV)

D)Functional residual capacity (FRC)

E)Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

Q2) Expiratory capacity (EC)is the sum of ________ and ________.

A)expiratory reserve volume (ERV); residual volume (RV)

B)tidal volume (TV); expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

C)inspiratory reserve volume (IRV); expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

D)tidal volume (TV); inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

E)tidal volume (TV); residual volume (RV)

Q3) The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a tidal expiration is called the

A)expiratory reserve volume (ERV).

B)residual volume (RV).

C)vital capacity (VC).

D)anatomic dead space.

E)functional residual capacity (FRC).

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Chapter 54: Control of Breathing

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Q1) Which of the following is not true of respiratory alkalosis?

A)It exists when the blood pH is >7.45.

B)It can result from an increase in the CO level in the blood.

C)It can result in death, if the blood pH reaches 8.0 or above.

D)It causes vasoconstriction of the cerebral blood vessels, which decreases oxygen delivery to the brain.

E)All of these are true of respiratory alkalosis.

Q2) During normal, quiet breathing, inspirations last longer than expirations.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is the result of the inflation reflex?

A)An increase in the duration of inspirations

B)An increase in the duration of expirations

C)A decrease in the duration of inspirations

D)A decrease in the duration of expirations

E)An increase in the duration of inspirations and a decrease in the duration of expirations

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Chapter 55: Digestive Organs

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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the anatomy of the stomach?

A)The muscularis contains three layers, whereas most tubular digestive organs contain two.

B)The greater curvature is on the lateral and inferior surfaces of the stomach.

C)The pyloric sphincter regulates the flow of chyme from the stomach into the duodenum.

D)The cardia is the region that lies superior to the opening of the esophagus into the stomach.

E)All of these are true of the stomach.

Q2) The stomach absorbs a significant amount of digested food.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is the function of the uvula?

A)To prevent food from entering the larynx and trachea during swallowing

B)To separate the hard palate from the soft palate

C)To prevent food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing

D)To prevent infection from entering the lungs

E)To connect the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity

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Chapter 56: Action of a Digestive Enzyme

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Q1) Enzymes can be proteins, lipids, or carbohydrates.

A)True

B)False

Q2) When an enzyme catalyzes a chemical reaction, it is consumed in the process, so it cannot be used repeatedly.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Salivary amylase is deactivated by ________ in the stomach.

A)pepsinogen

B)bile

C)bicarbonate ions

D)lipase

E)hydrochloric acid

Q4) In the amylase activity experiment, Benedict's solution tests for the presence of A)triglycerides.

B)amino acids.

C)protein.

D)maltose.

E)starch.

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Chapter 57: Metabolism

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Q1) In general, a person of higher weight consumes more energy (kcal/min)than a person of lower weight, when performing the same type of exercise at the same rate.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Anabolic reactions release energy, while catabolic reactions use energy. A)True

B)False

Q3) A direct calorimeter measures heat produced in units of A)kcal/L of oxygen.

B)kcal/g of body weight.

C)kcal/min.

D)kcal/L of carbon dioxide.

E)kcal/body weight/hour.

Q4) Urea is derived from the breakdown of A)glycerol.

B)amino acids. C)pyruvate.

D)fatty acids.

E)glucose.

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Chapter 58: Urinary Organs

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Q1) From your observations of kidney slides, it can be seen that all of the renal corpuscles are located in the renal cortex.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Within the kidney, several nephrons merge and empty their forming urine into a common

A)minor calyx.

B)distal convoluted tubule.

C)nephron loop.

D)collecting duct.

E)renal pelvis.

Q3) Which of the following is not a function of the kidney?

A)Regulation of blood pressure

B)Regulation of blood pH

C)Regulation of water and electrolyte concentrations in the blood

D)Secretion of renin and erythropoietin

E)All of these are functions of the kidney.

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Chapter 59: Urinalysis

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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the sediments found in urine samples?

A)Normal sediments include mucus, particular crystals, and various cells.

B)Sediments are examined under a microscope.

C)Many types are casts are normal sediments found in the urine.

D)The presence of epithelial cells that line the urinary tract in urine sediment indicates a urinary tract infection.

E)All of these are true of the sediments found in urine samples.

Q2) Temperature has no effect on the specific gravity of a urine sample.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is not one of the processes of urine formation?

A)Micturition

B)Tubular secretion

C)Glomerular filtration

D)Tubular reabsorption

E)All of these are processes of urine formation.

Q4) Glucosuria can have either a pathological or a nonpathological cause.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 60: Male Reproductive System

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46675

Sample Questions

Q1) As spermatogenic cells mature, they migrate from the outer edge of the seminiferous tubule toward the lumen.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The spermatic cord contains all of the following except A)lymphatic vessels.

B)blood vessels.

C)the ejaculatory duct.

D)the ductus deferens.

E)nerves.

Q3) Which male reproductive organ is responsible for the maturation and storage of sperm?

A)The prostate gland

B)The epididymis

C)The corpus spongiosum

D)The testis

E)The seminal vesicle

Q4) A portion of the ductus deferens is located within the scrotum.

A)True

B)False

Page 62

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Chapter 61: Female Reproductive System

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46676

Sample Questions

Q1) Which cells of the ovary convert androgens to estrogens, under the control of follicle stimulating hormone?

A)Theca folliculi cells

B)Granulosa cells

C)Primary oocytes

D)Simple squamous epithelial cells

E)Secondary oocytes

Q2) Areolar glands of the breast produce milk.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The fornices are thin folds of mucosa that partly close the vaginal orifice.

A)True

B)False

Q4) On a microscopic slide of the ovarian cortex, we are likely to see follicles in different stages of development (primordial follicles, primary follicles, secondary follicles, and mature follicles).

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 62: Meiosis, Fertilization, and Early Development

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46677

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not true of the process of meiosis?

A)It can also be called oogenesis in the female and spermatogenesis in the male.

B)Meiosis begins with a diploid parent cell that contains 46 chromosomes.

C)Meiosis ends with the production of diploid gametes that contain 23 chromosomes.

D)Meiosis consists of a double division.

E)All of these are true of meiosis.

Q2) Which extraembryonic membrane encloses the embryo and contains protective fluid that cushions the embryo (and fetus)?

A)Allantois

B)Chorion

C)Ectoderm

D)Amnion

E)Yolk sac

Q3) During which phase of meiosis do synapsis and crossing over occur?

A)Prophase I

B)Metaphase I

C)Telophase II

D)Prophase II

E)Anaphase I

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Page 64

Chapter 63: Genetics

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46678

Sample Questions

Q1) If a husband and wife are both carriers of albinism, which is a recessive trait with two alleles, what is the probability that each of their children will be albino?

A)0%

B)25%

C)50%

D)75%

E)100%

Q2) What do the traits of tongue roller, freckles, and dimples have in common?

A)They all have multiple alleles.

B)They are all recessive traits.

C)They are all inherited by codominance.

D)They are all dominant traits.

E)They are all inherited by incomplete dominance.

Q3) Inheritance of the ABO blood group is an example of

A)complete dominance only.

B)incomplete dominance only.

C)sex-linked inheritance only.

D)incomplete dominance and sex-linked inheritance.

E)codominance and multiple alleles.

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