Advanced Systems Analysis
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Systems Analysis delves into the systematic study and evaluation of complex organizational systems through sophisticated analytical methods and modeling techniques. This course expands upon foundational systems analysis concepts, emphasizing contemporary tools for requirements gathering, process modeling, and system design. Students explore methodologies such as object-oriented analysis, agile approaches, and risk assessment, applying them to real-world case studies and project scenarios. The curriculum also covers the integration of emerging technologies and the management of system development life cycles, preparing students to design and implement effective, scalable, and secure information systems in dynamic business environments.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Systems Analysis and Design 7th Edition by
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Page 2
Jeffrey A. Hoffer
Chapter 1: The Systems Development Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Extreme Programming is an example of Rapid Application Development (RAD).
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Systems development methodologies and techniques based on objects rather than data or processes best defines:
A)objects
B)participatory design
C)object-oriented analysis and design
D)entity analysis and design
Answer: C
Q3) Iterative development focuses on the frequent production of working versions of a system that have a subset of the total number of required features.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) ________ is an approach to develop information systems that promises better and cheaper systems as well as rapid deployment.
Answer: Rapid Application Development
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Chapter 2: The Origins of Software
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Q1) IBM captured a large share of the ERP market through its own financial systems and through the acquisition of other ERP vendors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) ________ is the software reuse approach that mandates reuse and measures its effectiveness,as well as mandates that assets be designed for reuse as they are being designed for specific applications.
Answer: Designed reuse
Q3) Another method for organizations to obtain applications is to rent them or license them from third-party providers who run the applications at remote sites.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) ________ is the software reuse step that involves making the reusable asset understandable to developers who want to use it in their systems.
Answer: Recontextualization
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Chapter 3: Managing the Information Systems Project
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Q1) If an activity's optimistic time is 4 days,its realistic time is 10 days,and its pessimistic time is 25 days,then its estimated time would be 11.5 days.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) In OOSAD,each project iteration has all of the following except:
A)planning
B)project closedown
C)analysis
D)implementation
Answer: B
Q3) Realistic time is:
A)the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed
B)the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed
C)the planner's "best guess" of the amount of time the activity actually will require for completion
D)the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Identifying and Selecting Systems Development Projects
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Q1) This approach begins by conducting an extensive analysis of the organization's mission,objectives,and strategy and determining the information requirements needed to meet each objective:
A)foundation planning
B)democratic planning
C)top-down planning
D)bottom-up planning
Q2) A low-cost producer competitive strategy reflects competing in an industry on the basis of product or service cost to the consumer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is the amount and type of resources the project requires and their availability.
Q4) The second activity in the ISP process is:
A)describe the target situation,trends,and constraints
B)describe the current situation
C)develop a transition strategy and plans
D)develop the logical design
Q5) Define and briefly discuss information systems planning.
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Chapter 5: Initiating and Planning Systems Development Projects
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Q1) Fulfillment feasibility is the process of assessing the development organization's ability to construct a proposed system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As a rule of thumb estimate,what percentage of the entire development effort should be devoted to the project initiation and planning process?
A)between 10 and 20 percent
B)less than 5 percent
C)less than 10 percent
D)between 20 and 30 percent
Q3) The major outcomes and deliverables from project initiation and planning are the Baseline Project Plan and the Project Scope Statement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Project planning focuses on defining clear,discrete activities and the work needed to complete each task.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Determining System Requirements
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Q1) Which of the following is a traditional method of collecting systems requirements?
A)Group support systems
B)Group interviews
C)Joint Application Design
D)Rapid Application Development
Q2) The skills of a systems analyst are often central to many BPR efforts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Briefly identify the traditional methods for determining requirements.
Q4) BPR efforts often result in the development of information system maintenance requests or requests for system replacement.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ and ________ techniques were developed to keep the analysis effort to a minimum yet still effective.
Q6) General types of deliverables associated with requirements determination are information collected from ________,________,________,________.
Q7) An ________ is the way a system actually works.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Structuring System Process Requirements
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Q1) If a data flow appears on the context diagram and is also represented at level-0,this would be referred to as:
A)leveling
B)flow conservation
C)balancing
D)matching
Q2) Removing any rules with impossible actions to make which of the following simple as possible?
A)activity diagram
B)decision table
C)structure chart
D)hierarchical chart
Q3) ________ is the extent to which information contained on one level of a set of nested data flow diagrams is also included on other levels.
Q4) Because data flow names represent a specific set of data,another data flow that has even one more or one less piece of data must be given a different unique name.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Structuring System Data Requirements
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Q1) The primary deliverable from the conceptual data modeling step within the analysis phase is an entity-relationship diagram.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some systems developers believe that a data model is the most important part of the statement of information system requirements because:
A)the characteristics of data captured during data modeling are crucial in the design of databases,programs,computer screens,and printed reports
B)data rather than processes are the most complex aspects of many modern information systems and thus require a central role in structuring system requirements
C)the characteristics about data are reasonably permanent
D)all of the above
Q3) Universal data models and industry-specific data models are two types of packaged conceptual data models.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An ________ is a single occurrence of an entity type.
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Chapter 9: Designing Databases
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Q1) A relation that contains a minimum amount of redundancy and allows users to insert,modify,and delete rows without errors or inconsistencies is a(n):
A)independent relation
B)simple relation
C)unnormalized relation
D)well-structured relation
Q2) An attribute can be functionally dependent on more than attribute.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Using relational notation,an attribute of a relation that is the primary key of another relation is indicated by:
A)an underline
B)a circle
C)a dashed underline
D)italics
Q4) ________ is a single attribute name that is used for two or more different attributes.
Q5) Define each of the following terms: relation,functional dependency,foreign key,and normalization.
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Chapter 10: Designing Forms and Reports
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Q1) In the case of designing forms and reports,the major deliverables are:
A)the design specifications
B)an updated baseline project plan and updated statement of work
C)entity-relationship diagrams
D)the implemented forms and reports
Q2) A ________ is a business document that contains only predefined data;it is a passive document used only for reading or viewing.
Q3) When displaying tables and lists,you should right-justify numeric data and align columns by decimal points or other delimiters.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In general,highlighting:
A)should not be used to warn users of errors in data entry or processing
B)should not be used to provide warnings to users regarding possible problems such as unusual data values
C)should not be used in tandem
D)should be used sparingly to draw the user to or away from certain information and to group together related information
Q5) Identify nine common errors that occur when designing the layout of Web pages.
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Chapter 11: Designing Interfaces and Dialogues
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Q1) All dialogue design rules are mitigated by the:
A)feedback guideline
B)consistency guideline
C)ease guideline
D)control guideline
Q2) ________ is a human-computer interaction method where symbols are used to represent commands or functions.
Q3) The common property of windows and forms in a graphical user interface environment that requires users to resolve the request for information before proceeding is:
A)maximize
B)movable
C)modality
D)system menu
Q4) Identify four sources of data errors.
Q5) One guideline for menu design is making sure that command verbs clearly and specifically describe operations.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly identify and define the five most widely used interaction methods.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Designing Distributed and Internet Systems
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Q1) A method that helps you to better understand how a system fits within existing business activities and data best defines:
A)system granularity
B)context development
C)integration depth
D)organizational breadth
Q2) In a client-based LAN,the file server acts as a shared data storage device,provides additional resources,supports collaborative applications,and provides access to shared data.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe six approaches to designing server architectures.
Q4) A file server architecture is most appropriate for applications that are relatively small in size with little or no concurrent data access by multiple users.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ is a communications protocol for exchanging information on the Internet.
Q6) Identify three reasons for creating a three-tiered client/server architecture.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: System Implementation
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Q1) A master test plan is developed during design.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Testing each module alone in an attempt to discover any errors that may exist in the module's code is referred to as:
A)unit testing
B)system testing
C)stub testing
D)singular testing
Q3) ________ refers to user testing of a completed information system using simulated data.
Q4) Installation is the organizational process of changing over from the current information system to a new one.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Unit testing does not require automated code execution.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly identify the four types of installation.
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Q7) ________,________,________,and ________ are the four approaches to installation.
Chapter 14: Maintaining Information Systems
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Q1) ________ refers to changes made to a system to evolve its functionality to changing business needs or technologies.
Q2) ________ are software modules that have been tested,documented,and approved to be included in the most recently created version of a system.
Q3) The ease with which software can be understood,corrected,adapted,and enhanced best describes:
A)maintenance
B)maintainability
C)adaptability
D)comfort level
Q4) The number of customers for a given system influences most of the costs associated with maintaining a system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Adaptive maintenance is a significant part of an organization's maintenance effort.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The SDLC design phase equates to the maintenance process of ________.
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Chapter 15: Object-Oriented Analysis and Design: Use
Cases
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Q1) The fish and black levels are sometimes referred to as the ________ level.
Q2) Rolling back a transaction to its original starting place is an example of a ________.
Q3) A use case is considered successful if it functioned correctly and achieved its
Q4) Both the ________ and ________ levels provide a summary of the use case goals.
Q5) A use case is a depiction of a system's behavior or functionality under various conditions as the system responds to requests from users. A)True B)False
Q6) An ________ is an association between two use cases where one use case uses the functionality contained in the other.
Q7) The least amount promised to a stakeholder by a use case is called the minimal guarantee.
A)True B)False
Q8) There are 4 different levels of detail. A)True B)False Page 17
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Chapter 16: Object-Oriented Analysis and Design: Activity
Diagrams
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Q1) An activity diagram cannot be used to show the logic of a use case.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss when it is appropriate to use activity diagrams in a project.
Q3) An activity diagram shows the conditional logic for the sequence of system activities needed to accomplish a business process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An activity diagram clearly shows parallel and alternative behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n)________ clearly shows parallel and alternative behaviors.
Q6) In an activity diagram,the fast lane represents the organizational unit responsible for a certain action.
A)True B)False
Q7) An activity diagram should only be used when it adds value to the project. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Object-Oriented Analysis and Design: Sequence Diagrams
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Q1) What is meant by activation? How is it shown on a sequence diagram?
Q2) Which of the following represent dynamic models of interactions between objects?
A)use cases
B)class diagrams
C)state diagrams
D)sequence diagrams
Q3) A simple message is a message in which the sender does not have to wait for the recipient to handle the message.
A)True
B)False
Q4) On a sequence diagram,a synchronous message is shown as a half arrowhead.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sequence diagrams represent dynamic models of interactions between objects. A)True
B)False
Q6) Define sequence diagram.
Q7) Sequence is a type of interaction diagrams. A)True
B)False Page 20
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Chapter 18: Business Process Modeling
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Q1) In business process modeling,a decision point is called a(n):
A)activity
B)gateway
C)terminal
D)loop
Q2) A business process can only come from certain business functions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An event is a trigger that starts a process in business process modeling.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In business process modeling,a way to encapsulate a process is called a(n):
A)swimlane
B)fastlane
C)lane
D)none of the above
Q5) Business Process Modeling Notation is much more simple than data flow diagrams.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Gateways are typically ________.
Page 22
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Chapter 19: Objected-Oriented Analysis and Design: Object
Modeling-Class Diagrams
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Q1) An aggregation expresses a Part-of relationship between a component object and an aggregate object.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Multiplicity indicates how many objects participate in a given relationship.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following encompasses an object's properties and the values those properties have?
A)behavior
B)class
C)state
D)encapsulation
Q4) Which of the following represents how an object acts and reacts?
A)behavior
B)class
C)state
D)encapsulation
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Q5) ________ is a part-of relationship between a component object and an aggregate object.