Advanced Respiratory Care Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Advanced Respiratory Care is a comprehensive course designed for students pursuing expertise in the diagnosis, treatment, and management of complex respiratory disorders. The curriculum covers advanced airway management, mechanical ventilation strategies, pulmonary diagnostics, pharmacological interventions, and critical care protocols. Students will engage with evidence-based practices, case studies, and hands-on simulations to develop proficiency in treating acute and chronic respiratory conditions across diverse patient populations. Emphasis is placed on interdisciplinary collaboration, advanced assessment techniques, and integration of emerging technologies to optimize patient outcomes in various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Wilkins Clinical Assessment in Respiratory Care 7th Edition by Al Heuer PhD
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21 Chapters
773 Verified Questions
773 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Preparing for the Patient Encounter
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Sample Questions
Q1) One effective teaching tool is the teach-back method.This is:
A)A technique where the teacher explains the procedure to the learner and has the learner repeat the information in his or her own words.
B)A technique where the teacher explains the procedure to the learner and then has the learner explain it to family members after the teacher has left the room.
C)A technique where the teacher gives the equipment to the learner and has the learner experiment with it until he or she can use it correctly.
D)None of the above.
Answer: A
Q2) What is the appropriate distance for the personal space?
A)0 to 18 inches
B)18 inches to 4 feet
C)4 to 12 feet
D)6 to 15 feet
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: The Medical History and the Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) What pulmonary disorder is associated with visiting or living in Ohio, Maryland, and the central Mississippi Valley?
A)Blastomycosis
B)Histoplasmosis
C)Coccidioidomycosis
D)Silicosis
Answer: B
Q2) A good interview should contain all of the following elements except:
A)The interviewer should dress and act professionally.
B)The interviewer should project a sense of undivided interest.
C)The interviewer should use a formal speaking style.
D)The interviewer should respect the patient's beliefs and attitudes.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following formulas should be used to calculate the pack-year history of cigarette consumption?
A)Packs per day times Years smoked
B)Packs per day minus Years smoked
C)Packs per day plus Years smoked
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cardiopulmonary Symptoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of early morning headache may be caused by which of the following conditions?
A)Hypoglycemia
B)Anoxia
C)Hypoxemia
D)Hypercapnia
Answer: D
Q2) Excessive sputum production is associated with all the following conditions except:
A)Allergies.
B)Cigarette smoking.
C)Airway infection.
D)Pleural infection.
Answer: D
Q3) Chest pain is the cardinal symptom of which of the following diseases?
A)Heart disease
B)Pleural disease
C)Chest wall disease
D)Neuromuscular disease
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following arteries is most appropriate for measuring the pulse of a patient with very low blood pressure?
A)Radial artery
B)Popliteal artery
C)Brachial artery
D)Femoral artery
Q2) Which of the following breathing patterns describes Kussmaul breathing?
A)Normal
B)Shallow
C)Fast and shallow
D)Fast and deep
Q3) If dehydration is suspected in a patient, which of the following parameters should be monitored often?
A)Height
B)Weight
C)Fluid intake and output
D)Blood pressure
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6
Chapter 5: Fundamentals of Physical Examination
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76 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms describes the sinking inward of the skin overlying the rib cage with each inspiratory effort?
A)Ataxia
B)Bulging
C)Retractions
D)Mydriasis
Q2) Which of the following clinical conditions is associated with central cyanosis?
A)Hypercarbia
B)Renal failure
C)Poor circulation
D)Respiratory failure
Q3) A respiratory therapist (RT) examining a patient notes that on assessment of chest expansion with palpation, the right lower chest is found to lag behind the left lower chest.With which of the following problems is this finding consistent?
A)COPD
B)Right lower lobe pneumonia
C)Left lower lobe pneumonia
D)Severe asthma
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7
Chapter 6: Neurologic Assessment
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common cause of a nerve root pathologic condition due to compression?
A)Herniated vertebral disc
B)Spinal tumor
C)Spinal cord injury
D)Infection
Q2) Which of the following diseases is characterized by abnormal deep tendon reflexes due to abnormalities of the neuromuscular junction?
A)Syphilis
B)Myasthenia gravis
C)Cerebritis
D)Multiple sclerosis
Q3) Injury to the cervical spine roots C3 to C5 is associated with which of the following abnormalities?
A)Absence of deep tendon reflexes
B)Babinski sign
C)Paralysis of the diaphragm
D)Doll's-eye maneuver
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8
Chapter 7: Clinical Laboratory Studies
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56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What disease is associated with elevations in sodium and chloride in sweat?
A)Pneumonia
B)Emphysema
C)Renal disease
D)Cystic fibrosis
Q2) Which of the following terms describes the change in white blood cell count that often occurs in patients with tuberculosis?
A)Lymphocytosis
B)Monocytosis
C)Eosinophilia
D)Basophilia
Q3) Elevation of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels in the blood suggests what type of problem?
A)Renal failure
B)Liver failure
C)Heart disease
D)Gallbladder disease
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Chapter 8: Interpretation of Blood Gases
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a decrease in tissue oxygenation called?
A)Hypoxia
B)Hypoxemia
C)Hypercapnia
D)Acidosis
Q2) Before an arterial blood gas (ABG) value is obtained, the patient's clotting parameters should be evaluated because:
A)they may affect the patient's PaO .
B)if reduced, they may hinder filling of the syringe with blood during the draw.
C)bleeding time may be prolonged if they are abnormal.
D)they may affect the accuracy of the sample pH.
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding oxygen-carrying capacity?
A)It is normal.
B)It is increased.
C)It is decreased.
D)Cannot be determined with the given data.
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Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal minute ventilation of an average person at rest?
A)<5 L/min
B)5 to 10 L/min
C)5 to 15 L/min
D)>15 L/min
Q2) The closed-system helium dilution method is used to measure:
A)TLC.
B)FVC.
C)FRC.
D)TV.
Q3) The FEV measurement is an indicator of flow in which airways?
A)Large
B)Medium
C)Small
D)Medium and small
Q4) The body plethysmograph uses which of the following gas laws?
A)Boyle's law
B)Charles' law
C)Gay-Lussac's law
D)Combined gas law
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Chapter 10: Chest Imaging
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following views provides less cardiac magnification and a sharper view of the left lower lobe?
A)PA view
B)AP view
C)Left lateral view
D)Lateral decubitus view
Q2) Which of the following terms defines high-density tissues on the x-ray film?
A)Radiolucent
B)Radiopaque
C)Radiographic
D)Tomographic
Q3) Which of the following forms of radiologic assessment is most useful for studying the distribution of ventilation and perfusion and the effects that diseases may have on these two important functions?
A)MRI
B)CT scanning
C)Lung scanning
D)Pulmonary angiography
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12
Chapter 11: Interpretation of Electrocardiogram Tracings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which chamber normally has the largest muscle mass?
A)Left atrium
B)Left ventricle
C)Right atrium
D)Right ventricle
Q2) What is the normal range for the PR interval?
A)0.05 to 0.1 second
B)0.12 to 0.2 second
C)0.2 to 0.35 second
D)0.25 to 0.5 second
Q3) At what speed does the paper travel through the ECG machine?
A)25 mm/sec
B)30 mm/sec
C)40 mm/sec
D)50 mm/sec
Q4) What problem is indicated by elevation of the ST segment?
A)Heart block
B)Myocardial ischemia
C)Elevation of serum potassium
D)Depletion of serum potassium
13
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Chapter 12: Neonatal and Pediatric Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it so important to quickly identify a low blood glucose level in a newborn?
A)Because of worry about impaired pulmonary function
B)Because it is detrimental to brain development
C)Because it results in rapid renal deterioration
D)Because it can result in blindness through retinal detachment
Q2) Which of the following are typical causes of tachypnea in the newborn?
1)Hypothermia
2)Hypoxemia
3)Respiratory acidosis
4)Pain
A)2, 3, 4
B)2, 4
C)1, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) What effect does abdominal distention have on respiration?
A)Impedes diaphragm movement
B)Decreases the work of breathing
C)Does not have any impact on respiration
D)Improves expiration and lung stabilization
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Older Patient Assessment
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Age is the major risk factor for developing which of the following eye disorders?
A)Cataract
B)Glaucoma
C)Vascular disorders
D)Diabetic retinopathy
Q2) How much does the incidence of congestive heart failure (CHF) increase with each decade of life between 45 and 75 years?
A)Doubles
B)Triples
C)Quadruples
D)Quintuples
Q3) An elderly patient who gains more than how many pound(s) in a week may be suffering from CHF?
A)1 lb
B)3 lb
C)5 lb
D)7 lb
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Chapter 14: Respiratory Monitoring in Critical Care
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51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When carbon dioxide elimination is monitored, the highest levels are obtained at the:
A)end of inhalation.
B)end of exhalation.
C)middle of inhalation.
D)middle of exhalation.
Q2) Volutrauma is most likely to develop in:
A)the larger airways.
B)dependent lung regions.
C)nondependent lung regions.
D)small airways.
Q3) On the oxygen dissociation curve (ODC), the P-50 refers to the:
A)partial pressure of oxygen when the hemoglobin is 50% saturated.
B)hemoglobin saturation when the fraction of inspired oxygen is 50%.
C)partial pressure of oxygen when the fraction of inspired oxygen is 50%.
D)hemoglobin saturation when the partial pressure of oxygen is 50 mm Hg.
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Chapter 15: Vascular Pressure Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) What will the MAP be if the systolic blood pressure is 140 mm Hg and the diastolic blood pressure is 80 mm Hg?
A)60 mm Hg
B)100 mm Hg
C)110 mm Hg
D)120 mm Hg
Q2) Monitoring of the CVP is indicated when there is a need to assess:
A)the circulating blood volume.
B)the degree of venous return.
C)the right ventricular function.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Both the CVP and the pulmonary artery wedge pressure waveforms have three waves for each cycle, namely:
A)waves a, c, and v.
B)waves q, r, and s.
C)waves p, t, and u.
D)none of the above.
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Chapter 16: Cardiac Output Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect does an increase in intrathoracic pressure have on venous return?
A)No effect
B)A dampening effect
C)An enhancing effect
D)An unknown effect
Q2) To obtain the coronary perfusion pressure, what two values are needed?
A)Afterload and preload
B)Ejection fraction and heart rate
C)Mean arterial pressure and afterload
D)Diastolic blood pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
Q3) The greatest determinant of peripheral resistance to blood flow is:
A)the radius of the vessels.
B)the viscosity of the blood.
C)the compliance of the vessels.
D)the distance of the vessels from the heart.
Q4) Which of the following best describes preload?
A)The filling volume of the left ventricle.
B)The stretch on the ventricular muscle fibers before contraction.
C)The difference between the end-systolic and end-diastolic volumes.
D)The volume of blood deposited from the right atrium into the right ventricle.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Bronchoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following would prevent a physician from performing bronchoscopy for a patient except for a/an ______________________.
A)PaO of 45 mm Hg
B)international normalized ratio (INR) of 4.5
C)PaCO of 38 mm Hg
D)current heart rate of 120 beats/min and rhythm of atrial fibrillation.
Q2) What is the most common sign of xylocaine overdose during bronchoscopy?
A)Tachycardia
B)Bradycardia
C)Seizures
D)Apnea
Q3) What is the maximum depth that the standard adult bronchoscope can visualize in some patients?
A)Third-level bronchi
B)Fourth-level bronchi
C)Fifth-level bronchi
D)Sixth-level bronchi
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19
Chapter 18: Nutrition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may be more difficult with a high-carbohydrate diet?
A)Oxygenation
B)Cellular gas exchange
C)Oxygen transport
D)Weaning from mechanical ventilation
Q2) Which of the following is not associated with a high-fat diet?
A)Increased risk of heart disease
B)Decreased tissue oxygenation
C)Decreased DLCO
D)Increased carbon dioxide production
Q3) Which of the following might indicate poor nutritional status?
A)Low BMI
B)Positive nitrogen balance
C)Positive response to skin antigen testing
D)High serum albumin level
Q4) How does the cachectic patient appear physically?
A)Central obesity only
B)Very thin and malnourished
C)Edematous around the face
D)Very short of breath
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Chapter 19: Sleep and Breathing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What stage of sleep is characterized by large eye rolls and low-amplitude waves on EEG recordings?
A)REM
B)NREM stage 1
C)NREM stage 2
D)NREM stage 3
Q2) A patient has an apnea-hypopnea index (AHI) of 15.What would this be considered?
A)Normal
B)Mild sleep apnea
C)Moderate sleep apnea
D)Severe sleep apnea
Q3) Which of the following are considered symptoms of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?
1)Morning headaches
2)Memory loss
3)Hyperactive behavior
4)Difficulty swallowing
A)1, 2, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 20: Home Care Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which of the following conditions (which is the third most common cause of death in the United States) are both mortality rates and prevalence rates increasing?
A)Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B)Asthma
C)Pneumonia
D)Heart failure
Q2) In which of the following skills is it most important for a home care respiratory therapist (RT) to be proficient?
A)Decision making.
B)Time management.
C)Patient assessment.
D)Communication and teaching skills.
Q3) Which of the following should be identified by an RT during the initial home care interview of the patient and caregivers?
A)Patient smoking history
B)Current list of medications
C)Pulmonary risk factors
D)All of the above
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22
Chapter 21: Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to experts, obtaining a good _____________ from a patient can give you a reasonable chance of correctly identifying a patient's problem before you do a single test.
A)arterial blood gas (ABG) results
B)chief complaint
C)medical history
D)appearance
Q2) Which of the following data do not constitute part of the objective information section in the SOAP charting method?
A)Vital signs
B)Review of systems
C)Review of clinical laboratory data
D)Review of pulmonary function test results
Q3) Which of the following organizations influences what needs to be documented in a patient's medical record?
A)The Joint Commission
B)Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
C)Financial intermediaries
D)All of the above
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