Advanced Pathophysiology Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Pathophysiology is an in-depth exploration of the complex physiological processes that underlie human disease. This course emphasizes the molecular, cellular, and systemic mechanisms by which normal physiology is disrupted in a variety of disease states. Students will analyze and interpret contemporary research findings, integrating knowledge of genetics, immunology, and organ system function to understand the pathogenesis of acute and chronic illnesses. Through case studies and evidence-based discussions, learners will develop a comprehensive framework for clinical reasoning and application in advanced practice roles.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Barbara Gould
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28 Chapters
1172 Verified Questions
1172 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions distinguishes double blind studies used in health research?
A)Neither the members of the control group or the experimental group nor the person administering the treatment know who is receiving the experimental therapy.
B)Both groups of research subjects and the person administering the treatment know who is receiving the experimental therapy.
C)The research subjects do not know,but the person administering the treatment knows who is receiving placebo or standard therapy.
D)Only members of the control group know they are receiving standard therapy.
Answer: A
Q2) When a group of cells in the body dies,the change is called:
A)ischemia
B)gangrene
C)hypoxia
D)necrosis
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Inflammation and Healing
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62 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A burn area in which the epidermis and part of the dermis is destroyed is classified as:
A)full-thickness
B)deep partial-thickness
C)superficial partial-thickness
D)first-degree
Answer: B
Q2) Systemic effects of severe inflammation include:
A)erythema and warmth
B)loss of movement at the affected joint
C)fatigue,anorexia,and mild fever
D)abscess formation
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following promotes rapid healing?
A)closely approximated edges of a wound
B)presence of foreign material
C)exposure to radiation
D)vasoconstriction in the involved area
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Immunity and Abnormal Responses
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Incompatible blood transfusions result in:
A)hemolysis of erythrocytes
B)a type I immune response
C)deposits in multiple organs
D)immune deficiency
Answer: A
Q2) CD4-positive helper T-cells function by:
A)direct cytotoxic action
B)facilitating all immune system activity
C)production of immunoglobulins
D)inactivating allergens
Answer: B
Q3) Which statement is TRUE regarding infants born to HIV infected mothers?
A)Infants usually test negative for HIV after birth.
B)There is little risk of infected mothers passing the virus to their infants during delivery.
C)Breast milk does not contain HIV or antibodies.
D)Infants test positive for HIV due to presence of maternal antibodies.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of the bacterial capsule:
A)promotes attachment of the bacteria to tissue
B)protects the microbe from phagocytosis
C)increases the release of toxins and enzymes
D)prevents replication of the bacterium
Q2) All of the following are mechanisms of antiviral drug action EXCEPT:
A)interference with attachment to host cell
B)block assembly of viral particles
C)interference with mitosis
D)shedding of protein coat
Q3) The structure of a virus includes:
A)a cell wall and membrane
B)metabolic enzymes for replication
C)a protein coat and either DNA or RNA
D)a slime capsule and cilia
Q4) Which of the following statements applies to Chlamydia?
A)The microbe exists as a chain of cells.
B)It causes a common STD.
C)It possesses many flagellae.
D)It is excreted in feces.
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Chapter 5: Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A classification process that applies to a specific malignant tumor and describes the extent of the disease at a given time is called:
A)seeding
B)mutation
C)staging
D)grading
Q2) Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?
A)The ovaries are inaccessible for examination.
B)Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed.
C)The same tumor markers are present with many types of cancer.
D)No effective treatment is available.
Q3) Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by:
A)promoting the immune response and removal of abnormal tumor cells
B)blocking hormonal stimulation of tumor cells
C)reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells
D)transporting radioisotopes into the tumor
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Chapter 6: Fluid, Electrolyte and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a common cause of hyponatremia?
A)loss of the thirst mechanism
B)excessive sweating
C)excessive aldosterone secretion
D)prolonged period of rapid,deep respirations
Q2) Which of the following is essential in order to maintain serum pH within normal range?
A)Carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion must be present in equal quantities.
B)All excess carbonic acid must be excreted by the kidneys.
C)The concentration of bicarbonate ion must remain constant.
D)The ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate ion must be 1:20.
Q3) Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone:
A)increased movement of calcium ions into the bones
B)increased activation of vitamin D
C)increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract
D)decreased reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys
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8
Chapter 7: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements apply to the sex chromosomes?
A)They are identified as XY in the female.
B)They are numbered pair 23 in the karyotype.
C)They contain the same genes as in the other pairs of chromosomes.
D)They are found only in the cells in the gonads,the ovaries and testes.
Q2) A spontaneous alteration in genetic material that may result from exposure to harmful substances is termed:
A)autosome
B)genotype
C)meiosis
D)mutation
E)allele
Q3) The most invasive prenatal screening test for fetal abnormalities is:
A)ultrasonography
B)amniocentesis
C)X-ray
D)blood tests
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9
Chapter 8: Diseases Associated With Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following comprise typical early signs of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?
1)presence of rheumatoid factor in the blood
2)high fever and skin rash
3)swollen painful knees,wrists,and elbows
4)deformity of the hands and feet
A)1,3
B)1,4
C)2,3
D)2,4
Q2) Bulimia nervosa is characterized by:
A)a refusal to eat
B)extreme weight loss
C)alternating binge-eating and purging
D)chronic diarrhea
Q3) Infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the presence of:
A)sore throat,fever,and lymphadenopathy
B)abnormal lymphocytes and positive antibody test
C)the causative bacteria in the saliva
D)extreme fatigue and malaise
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Potential Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term primigravida refers to:
A)length of time since the first day of the last menstrual period
B)a woman who is pregnant for the first time
C)estimated date of delivery
D)withdrawal of a small amount of amnionic fluid
Q2) During which time period do teratogens cause major developmental damage to organs?
A)first week following fertilization
B)first 2 months
C)any time up to 6 months
D)during labor and delivery
Q3) Gestational diabetes in the mother usually results in:
A)normal maternal blood glucose levels until the last month of pregnancy
B)no further indication of diabetes mellitus following delivery
C)delivery of a high birth-weight infant
D)no additional complications for the infant or mother
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Chapter 10: Aging and Disease Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a major factor leading to increased occurrence of cancer in the elderly?
A)widespread vascular degeneration
B)cumulative exposure to carcinogens
C)hereditary factors
D)increased immune surveillance
Q2) The term given to the change that occurs in women at around age 50 with the cessation of the menstrual cycle is:
A)menopause
B)dysmenorrhea
C)amenorrhea
D)menarche
Q3) Vision in the elderly may be impaired when the lens of the eye becomes larger and less elastic,resulting in:
A)presbyopia
B)cataracts
C)glaucoma
D)damage to the retina
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12
Chapter 11: Effects of Immobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paralysis of the lower part of the body is called:
A)hemiplegia
B)paraplegia
C)quadriplegia
D)None of the above are correct.
Q2) Bladder infections are more likely to develop in immobilized patients because of:
A)stasis of urine in the urinary system
B)development of hypocalcemia with immobility
C)fluid overload in the system
D)lack of neurologic control of the bladder
Q3) The major problem associated with immobility and the gastrointestinal tract is:
A)constipation
B)diarrhea
C)nausea
D)increased rate of peristalsis
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13
Chapter 12: The Influence of Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basic physiologic response to stress is the same in all individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which of the following situations would the stress response be used to prevent blood pressure from dropping too low?
A)increasing anger during an argument
B)writing a final examination
C)fear about a medical diagnosis
D)internal hemorrhage from injuries in a car accident
Q3) Severe,prolonged stress may cause acute renal failure or stress ulcers to develop due to:
A)a deficit of glucose and oxygen in the body
B)development of decompensated acidosis
C)prolonged vasoconstriction and ischemia
D)the supply of hormones has been exhausted
Q4) During the stress response,glucocorticoids assist in:
A)increasing blood glucose levels and stabilizing blood pressure
B)depressing and calming cerebral function
C)stimulating increased secretion of aldosterone and insulin
D)preventing excessive secretion of epinephrine
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Chapter 13: Pain
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an ________ headache.
A)tension
B)sinus
C)migraine
D)intracranial
Q2) The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by:
A)nociceptors
B)myelinated A delta fibers
C)unmyelinated C fibers
D)any sensory fiber with a low pain threshold
Q3) What is a common analgesic administered to control a moderate level of pain?
A)meperidine
B)acetaminophen
C)codeine
D)ibuprofen
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15
Chapter 14: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Withdrawal from any drug is best accomplished:
A)with medical support
B)with legally prescribed drugs
C)following intensive counselling
D)using CNS stimulants
Q2) Which of the following is a synthetic opioid that prevents withdrawal symptoms and improves function?
A)Antabuse
B)methadone
C)cocaine
D)diazepam
Q3) Chemical dependency has been associated with all the following EXCEPT:
A)hereditary factors
B)disease requiring certain prescription drugs
C)easy access to many kinds of drugs
D)increased acceptance of alcohol or marijuana to cope with stress
E)increased work productivity
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Chapter 15: Environmental Hazards
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the correct effects of exposure of the ears to very cold temperatures:
A)loss of sensation
B)lethargy and confusion
C)vascular occlusions
D)a,b
E)a,c
Q2) Which of the following is likely to result from lead poisoning?
A)damage to the brain and peripheral nerves
B)inflammation and fibrosis in the lungs
C)various cancers
D)displacement of oxygen from hemoglobin
Q3) Which of the following is considered carcinogenic?
A)lead
B)carbon monoxide
C)inhaled particulates
D)mercury
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Selected Therapies
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the correct abbreviation for "three times daily"?
A)tid
B)q3h
C)qid
D)prn
Q2) What are the first priorities in the assessment of a patient in an emergency situation?
A)presence of bleeding and checking blood pressure
B)level of consciousness and respiratory function
C)to call 911 for an ambulance
D)appearance of the patient and cause of the problem
Q3) A drug is taken with a meal when it:
A)needs to be absorbed quickly
B)irritates the stomach
C)interacts with certain foods
D)is intended to delay digestion
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Chapter 17: Blood and Lymphatic Disorders
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Petechiae and purpura are common signs of:
A)excessive hemolysis
B)leucopenia
C)increased bleeding tendencies
D)hemoglobin deficit
Q2) What is the cause of oral ulcerations and delayed healing occurring with any severe anemia?
A)lack of folic acid for DNA synthesis
B)frequent microinfarcts in the tissues
C)deficit of oxygen for epithelial cell mitosis
D)elevated bilirubin levels in blood and body fluids
Q3) In individuals with pernicious anemia,antibodies form to:
A)vitamin B
B)intrinsic factor or parietal cells
C)mucus-producing glands
D)hydrochloric acid
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Chapter 18: Cardiovascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement applies to paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?
A)It indicates decreased CO diffusion in the lungs.
B)It indicates swelling in the bronchioles and bronchi.
C)It is caused by increased blood in the lungs when lying in a supine position.
D)It results from pleural effusion.
Q2) Modifiable factor that increase the risk for atherosclerosis include:
A)sedentary life style
B)female more than 40 years of age
C)exclusion of saturated fats from the diet
D)familial hypercholesterolemia
Q3) Which of the following actions causes the atrioventricular valves to close?
A)increased intraventricular pressure
B)depolarization at the AV node
C)ventricular relaxation and backflow of blood
D)contraction of the atria
Q4) Varicose ulcers may develop and be slow to heal because:
A)leg muscles are painful,restricting movement
B)edema reduces arterial blood supply to the area
C)emboli form in damaged veins leading to local ischemia
D)valves in veins restrict blood flow
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Chapter 19: Respiratory Disorders
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103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are significant signs of bronchiectasis?
A)persistent nonproductive cough,dyspnea,and fatigue
B)persistent purulent nasal discharge,fever,and cough
C)chronic cough producing large quantities of purulent sputum
D)wheezing and stridor
Q2) How is oxygen toxicity manifested?
A)a decreased response to increased CO levels in the blood
B)decreased pulmonary compliance with diffuse atelectasis
C)depression of bone marrow activity
D)damage to both peripheral and central chemoreceptors
Q3) Which statement does NOT apply to emphysema?
A)The surface area available for gas exchange is greatly reduced.
B)A genetic defect may lead to breakdown of elastic fibers.
C)The ventilation/perfusion ratio remains constant.
D)Expiration is impaired.
Q4) Cigarette smoking predisposes to malignant neoplasms because smoking:
A)causes metaplasia and dysplasia in the epithelium
B)promotes malignant changes in all types of benign tumors in the lungs
C)causes paraneoplastic syndrome
D)increases exposure to carbon monoxide in the lungs
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Chapter 20: Digestive System Disorders
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110 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following gastric resection,the onset of nausea,cramps,and dizziness immediately after meals indicates:
A)a large volume of chyme has entered the intestines,causing distention
B)severe hypoglycemia has developed
C)the pylorus is restricting the flow of chyme
D)bile and pancreatic secretions are irritating the small intestine
Q2) To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?
A)lungs
B)stomach
C)liver
D)spleen
Q3) An alkaline environment is required in the duodenum to:
A)activate pepsinogen
B)activate intestinal and pancreatic enzymes
C)activate bile salts
D)produce mucus
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Chapter 21: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The micturition reflex is initiated by:
A)sympathetic nerves in the sacral spinal cord
B)relaxation of the internal sphincter of the bladder
C)increased pressure distending the bladder
D)contraction of the bladder
Q2) Autoregulation in the kidneys refers to:
A)control of blood flow by the sympathetic nervous system
B)the secretion of renin and activation of angiotensin
C)local minor reflex adjustments in the arterioles to maintain normal blood flow
D)the control of systemic blood pressure by the kidneys
Q3) Which of the following describes the normal flow of urine?
A)collecting duct to the renal pelvis to the ureter to the bladder
B)renal pelvis to the urethra to the bladder to the ureter
C)ureter to the renal pelvis to the urethra to the bladder
D)collecting duct to the ureter to the urethra
Q4) Which of the following indicate a decreased GFR?
A)increased serum urea and decreased serum bicarbonate
B)urine with low specific gravity and dark color
C)albuminuria and hematuria
D)hyponatremia and hypokalemia
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Acute Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why may secondary damage occur shortly after a spinal cord injury?
A)presence of unstable fractures or dislocations of vertebrae
B)catecholamine release in the area causing local vasoconstriction
C)decreased or labile systemic blood pressure
D)a,b
E)a,b,c
Q2) Following a head injury,what is the most likely cause of secondary damage to the brain?
A)hematoma or infection
B)laceration by foreign objects
C)hypoxia or acidosis
D)tearing of blood vessels as the brain rotates across the inside of the skull
Q3) Which statement best describes herniation resulting from increased intracranial pressure?
A)movement of brain tissue into ventricles
B)movement of brain stem upward
C)pushing of excess CSF and blood down around the spinal cord
D)displacement of brain tissue downward toward the spinal cord
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Chapter 23: Chronic Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement does NOT apply to status epilepticus?
A)Seizures are recurrent or continuous without full recovery between episodes.
B)Severe hypoxia and acidosis develop.
C)This condition occurs only in idiopathic seizures.
D)If the episode persists,there may be additional brain damage.
Q2) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by:
A)inheritance of an autosomal dominant trait
B)infection in the brain by HIV
C)an autoimmune reaction that damages nerve receptors
D)infection in the brain by a prion
Q3) All of the following may precipitate a seizure EXCEPT:
A)hypoglycemia
B)severe acidosis
C)brain abscess
D)high fever in young child
Q4) Which of the following are common early manifestations of Parkinson's disease?
A)tremors at rest in the hands and difficulty initiating voluntary movements
B)extreme weakness in the legs and spastic movements in the arms
C)visual deficits and speech impairment
D)loss of facial expressions and altered posture and gait
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Disorders of the Eye and Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the basic pathologic change with macular degeneration?
A)increased amount of aqueous humor in the eye
B)movement of vitreous humor between the retina and the choroid
C)degeneration of the retinal cells in the fovea centralis
D)damage to the optic nerve and meninges
Q2) Loss of vision can occur when:
A)excessive intraocular pressure develops
B)the cornea is scarred
C)either of the preceding occurs
Q3) The area providing the greatest visual acuity is the:
A)macula lutea
B)fovea centralis
C)optic disc
D)lens
Q4) Severe pain develops with narrow-angle glaucoma when the:
A)pupils are constricted
B)pupils are dilated
C)lens changes shape
D)excess vitreous humor forms
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the statement that applies to Type I diabetes mellitus.
A)Onset often occurs during childhood.
B)Relative insufficiency of insulin or insulin resistance develops.
C)It can be treated by diet,weight control and exercise,or oral hypoglycemics.
D)Complications rarely occur.
Q2) Which of the following may occur with a pituitary adenoma?
A)low blood pressure and bradycardia
B)headache and seizures
C)vomiting and diarrhea
D)loss of vision in one eye
Q3) Trophic hormones include:
A)insulin
B)glucagon
C)triiodothyronine
D)adrenocorticotropic hormone
Q4) Which of the following often causes hyperparathyroidism?
A)a malignant tumor in the parathyroid glands
B)end-stage renal failure
C)osteoporosis
D)radiation involving the thyroid gland and neck area
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Chapter 26: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the fracture healing process,the hematoma:
A)is broken down and absorbed immediately
B)provides the base for bone cells to produce new bone
C)is the structure into which granulation tissue grows
D)produces fibroblasts to lay down new cartilage
Q2) Which of the following distinguishes septic arthritis?
A)multiple joints that are swollen,red,and painful at one time
B)presence of mild fever,fatigue,and leukocytosis
C)purulent synovial fluid present in a single,swollen joint
D)presence of many antibodies in the blood
Q3) What is the chemical transmitter released at the neuromuscular junction?
A)norepinephrine
B)GABA
C)serotonin
D)acetylcholine
Q4) How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?
A)relatively normal
B)enlarged,firm,crepitus with movement
C)deformed,pale and nodular
D)red,warm,swollen,and tender to touch
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systemic effects of acute necrotizing fasciitis include:
A)low-grade fever and malaise
B)toxic shock and disorientation
C)mild nausea and vomiting
D)headache and difficulty breathing
Q2) What condition does human papillomavirus cause?
A)shingles
B)acute necrotizing fasciitis
C)plantar warts
D)herpes zoster
Q3) Which of the following apply to actinic keratosis?
A)They predispose to malignant melanoma.
B)They arise on skin exposed to ultraviolet radiation.
C)They occur primarily on dark-skinned persons.
D)They are malignant and invasive.
Q4) Choose the correct match of the skin condition and its usual location:
A)scabies-fingers,wrists,waist
B)impetigo-legs,feet
C)pediculosis humanus corporis-scalp
D)seborrheic keratosis-feet ,hands
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the common first site for metastasis from prostatic cancer?
A)bone
B)lungs
C)liver
D)testes
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of leukorrhea during the reproductive years?
A)it is clear or whitish
B)it has a pH of 4 to 5
C)it does not contain any cells
D)it contains mucus
Q3) What is a useful serum marker during treatment for prostatic cancer?
A)human chorionic gonadotropin
B)alpha-fetoprotein
C)prostate-specific antigen
D)luteinizing hormone
Q4) Benign prostatic hypertrophy usually progresses to prostatic cancer.
A)true
B)false
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