Advanced Networking
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Advanced Networking delves into the design, implementation, and management of complex network architectures. The course covers topics such as advanced routing and switching, network security, quality of service (QoS), network virtualization, and cloud networking. Students explore modern protocols, emerging technologies like Software
Defined Networking (SDN) and Internet of Things (IoT) integration, and advanced troubleshooting techniques. Through hands-on labs and real-world case studies, learners gain practical skills necessary to optimize, secure, and maintain large-scale enterprise and service provider networks.
Recommended Textbook
Data and Computer Communications 10th Edition by William Stallings
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Chapter 1: Data Communications, data Networks,
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Q1) Convergence refers to the merger of previously distinct telephony and information technologies and markets.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Using fixed length packets and sometimes referred to as cell relay,________ is a culmination of developments in circuit switching and packet switching.It is so efficient that it can offer a constant data rate channel even though it is using a packet switching technique.
Answer: asynchronous transfer mode (ATM)
Q3) There are several fundamental differences between data processing and data communications.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) There are no fundamental differences among data,voice,and video communications.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Protocol Architecture, tcpip, and
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Q1) FTP provides a basic electronic mail transport facility.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Traffic that can adjust to changes in delay and throughput across an internet and still meet the needs of its applications is ________ traffic.
Answer: elastic
Q3) TCP numbers the segments that it sends to a particular destination port sequentially.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Each application on a computer has an address that is unique within that computer known as ________ or ports that allow the transport layer to support multiple applications at each computer.
Answer: Service Access Points (SAPs)
Q5) The two commonly used transport level protocols used as part of the TCP/IP protocol suite are TCP and ________.
Answer: User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
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Chapter 3: Data Transmission
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Q1) The rate in bits per second at which data can be communicated is the ________.
A)analog transmission
B)data rate
C)digital transmission
D)channel capacity
Answer: B
Q2) The designer of a communications facility must deal with four factors: the data rate that is used for digital information,the amount of noise and other impairments,the level of error rate that is acceptable and the ________ of the signal.
Answer: bandwidth
Q3) A reduction in strength is ________.
A)delay distortion
B)attenuation
C)pulsing
D)interlacing
Answer: B
Q4) Thermal noise is also referred to as ________ noise.
Answer: white
Q5) To achieve greater distances in digital transmissions ________ are used.
Answer: repeaters
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Chapter 4: Transmission Media
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Q1) Requiring line of site transmission and fewer amplifiers or repeaters than coaxial cable over the same distance,________ is used in long haul telecommunications.
A)terrestrial microwave
B)twisted pair
C)UTP
D)optical fiber
Q2) The characteristics and quality of a data transmission are determined both by the characteristics of the medium and the characteristics of the signal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Microwave is used in cellular systems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ________ frequency band is used for satellite communication,radar,terrestrial microwave links,and wireless local loop.
Q5) In a data transmission system the ________ medium is the physical path between transmitter and receiver.
Q6) A thin,flexible medium capable of guiding an optical ray is an ________.
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Chapter 5: Signal Encoding Techniques
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Q1) A popular analog signaling technique that is used in the asymmetric digital subscriber line is ________ modulation.
Q2) The process of converting analog data into digital data is known as ________.
Q3) The simplest form of digital encoding of ________ is to assign one voltage level to binary- one and another to binary-zero.
A)digital data
B)carrier data
C)AM data
D)analog data
Q4) In the ________ scheme,a binary 0 is represented by no line signal and a binary 1 is represented by a positive or negative pulse.The binary 1 pulses must alternate in polarity.
Q5) In general,the equipment for encoding digital data into a digital signal is more complex and expensive than digital to analog modulation equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q6) All modulation techniques involve operation on one or more of the three fundamental frequency domain parameters: amplitude,phase and _____.
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Chapter 6: Error Detection and Correction
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Q1) Error correction works by adding ________ to the transmitted message.
A)decoding
B)clarification
C)error burst
D)redundancy
Q2) Burst errors can be caused by impulse noise.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The use of coding allows a reduction,referred to as the ________,and defined as the reduction in decibels to achieve a specified BER of an error correcting coded system compared to an uncoded system using the same modulation.
A)code rate
B)fixed coding
C)coding gain
D)block code
Q4) The data,plus preamble,postamble and control information are called a ________.
Q5) In an ??????__________ ,there is a cluster of bits in which a number of errors occur,although not necessarily all of the bits in the cluster suffer an error.
Q6) The ratio of redundant bits to data bits is called the ________ of the code.
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Chapter 7: Data Link Control Protocols
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Q1) An error detecting code calculated from the remaining bits of the frame, exclusive of flags,is the ________.
Q2) Transmission time is not proportional to the length of the frame.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Synchronization and interfacing techniques are sufficient by themselves. A)True B)False
Q4) Containing virtually all of the features found in other data link control protocols,________ is a widely used data link control protocol.
Q5) The beginning and end of each frame must be recognizable for effective communication between two directly connected transmitting-receiving stations. A)True
B)False
Q6) If two stations exchange data each needs to maintain two windows,one for transmit and one for receive,and each side needs to send the data and acknowledgments to the other.To provide efficient support for this requirement a feature known as ________ is typically provided.
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Chapter 8: Multiplexing
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Q1) ADSL uses ________ multiplexing to exploit the capacity of twisted pair.
A)synchronous time division
B)statistical time division
C)time division
D)frequency division
Q2) In TDD,data are transmitted in both directions at the same time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Synchronous time division multiplexing can be used with ________ signals.
A)analog
B)digital signals or analog signals carrying digital data
C)digital
D)digital signals carrying digital data
Q4) The higher the data rate,the least cost-effective the transmission facility.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Multiplexing allows several transmission sources to share a larger transmission capacity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Wan Technology and Protocols
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Q1) In a ________ network,data entering the network from a station are routed to the destination by being switched from node to node.
A)communications
B)ATM
C)switched communication
D)packet switching
Q2) Flexibility,resource sharing,robustness,and responsiveness are all advantages of ________ switching.
Q3) Dynamic use of bandwidth is utilized with ________.
A)virtual circuit packet switching and circuit switching
B)datagram packet switching and virtual circuit packet switching
C)circuit switching and datagram packet switching
D)space division switching and circuit switching
Q4) X.25 is the standard protocol used for traditional ________ networks.
A)packet switching
B)circuit switching
C)subscriber loop
D)virtual
Q5) ________ switching is used in public telephone networks.
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Chapter 10: Cellular Wireless Networks
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Q1) First generation cellular networks made use of ________ multiplexing.
Q2) First generation cellular networks ________.
A)were FDDI
B)were digital
C)were analog
D)were based on code division multiple access
Q3) In a mobile environment one of the two antennas is moving relative to the other,therefore the relative location of various obstacles moves also,so as not to hinder transmission.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the most widely used models to develop guidelines for cell size was developed by ________.
A)Bellman-Ford
B)Jacobson
C)Dijkstra
D)Okumura/Hata
Q5) The most widely used second generation CDMA scheme is IS-95.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Local Area Network Overview
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Q1) The ________ topologies are passive sections of cable to which stations are attached.
A)tree and ring
B)tree and bus
C)star and tree
D)bus and ring
Q2) Each station attaches to the network at a repeater in the star topology and can transmit data onto the network through the repeater.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ________ topology is a special case of the tree topology,with only one trunk and no branches.
Q4) LDPC codes exhibit performance in terms of bit error probability that is very close to the ________ limit and can be efficiently implemented for high-speed use.
Q5) A transmission of a frame by any one station in a bus or tree topology can be heard by other stations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Ethernet
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Q1) One of the rules for CSMA/CD states,"after transmitting the jamming signal,wait a random amount of time,then attempt to transmit again".This random amount of time is referred to as the ________.
A)precursor
B)backlog
C)carrier time
D)backoff
Q2) IEEE802.3b defines the operation of VLAN bridges and switches.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The principle driving requirement for ________ is the increase in Internet and intranet traffic.
A)10 Gigabit Ethernet
B)100BASE-LX
C)10BASE-T
D)10BASE-5
Q4) Because it does not transmit a continuous signal between packets,making it useful in battery-powered applications,________ is designed to produce a 100- Mbps data rate over lower quality Category 3 cable.
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Chapter 13: Wireless Lans
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Q1) The ________ module includes either bridge or router functionality to link the wireless LAN to the backbone.
Q2) In most cases,spread spectrum LANs operate in the ________ microwave bands so that no Federal Communications Commission licensing is required for their use in the United States.
Q3) In a MIMO scheme the transmitter employs just a single antenna.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Currently wireless LAN products fall into three categories: spread spectrum LANs,OFDM LANs and ________ LANs.
Q5) The most prominent specification for wireless LANs was developed by the IEEE 802.3 working group.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The three MAC frame types are control frames,data frames,and ________ frames.
Q7) The principal technologies used for wireless LANs are spread spectrum, narrowband microwave,and ________.
Q8) Currently the most popular type of wireless LAN uses ________ techniques.
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Chapter 14: The Internet Protocol
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Q1) The ________ is a means of uniquely identifying an end-system-originated datagram.
A)protocol layer number
B)source address
C)Data Unit Identifier
D)protocol identifier
Q2) A next generation IP,known as ________,provides longer address fields and more functionality than the current IP.
A)IPv6
B)IPv5
C)IPv3
D)IPv4
Q3) A Class C network is defined as few networks,each with many hosts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A static table is more flexible than a dynamic table in responding to both error and congestion conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) IPv6 allows three types of addresses: unicast,anycast,and ________.
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Chapter 15: Transport Protocols
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Q1) "Abort connection when no segments are received" is the ________ Transport Protocol Timer.
A)2MSL
B)Keepalive
C)Retransmission
D)Persist
Q2) Multiple users employing the same transport protocol and distinguished by port numbers or service access points is ________.
A)multiplexing
B)sequencing
C)flowing
D)full duplex
Q3) To begin a connection establishment a TS user is in a ________ state.
A)CLOSED
B)LISTEN
C)OPEN
D)ESTAB
Q4) In addition to data each transmitted segment includes in its header three fields related to flow control: acknowledgment number,window,and ________.
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Chapter 16: Advanced Data Communications Topics
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Q1) With the exception of the repeat-accumulate code,the LDCP code is systematic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _________ modulation is the simplest form of modulation.
Q3) With a nonsystematic code it is more difficult to determine a technique for generating a codeword from a block of data bits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An LDPC construction technique that results in a systematic code is called a__________ code.
A) Tanner
B) irregular LDPC
C) regular LDPC
D) repeat-accumulate
Q5) (A)Process received bits to compute the syndrome code in exactly the same fashion as the encoder processes the data bits to produce the check code; (B)if the syndrome bits are all zero,no error has been detected; and (C)if the syndrome is nonzero,perform additional processing on the syndrome for error correction,-- is the procedure for the decoding of a _________ code.
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Chapter 17: Wireless Transmission Techniques
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Q1) For the IEEE 802.11a LAN standard,the OFDM scheme consists of a set of ______ subcarriers with a base frequency of 0.3125 MHz.
Q2) FFT is a family of algorithms that form a special case of the __________ ,which refers to any algorithm that generates a quantized Fourier transform of a time-domain function.
A)DFT
B)IFT
C)IFFT
D)QPSK
Q3) SC-FDMA performs a _______ prior to the IFFT operation,which spreads the data symbols over all the subcarriers carrying information and produces a virtual single-carrier structure.
Q4) Like OFDM,_______ employs multiple closely spaced subcarriers,but the subcarriers are divided into groups of subcarriers.
A)CDMA
B)IFFT
C)QPSK
D)OFDMA
Q5) The ________ reverses the FFT operation.
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Chapter 19: Routing
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Q1) For internal ________ operation a routing decision is made at the time the virtual circuit is established.
Q2) With ________,a packet is sent by a source node to every one of its neighbors.At each node,an incoming packet is retransmitted on all outgoing links except for the link on which it arrived.
Q3) For ________,a single,permanent route is configured for each source-destination pair of nodes in the network.The routes only change when there is a change in the topology of the network.
Q4) The simplest criterion in the selection of a route is to choose the _______.
A)network resources
B)maximum hop route
C)minimum hop route
D)maximum nodes available
Q5) One of the easiest design aspects of switched data networks is routing.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The term ________ refers to which node or nodes in the network are responsible for the routing decision.
Q7) A generalization of the minimum-hop criterion is ________ routing.
Page 20
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Chapter 20: Congestion Control
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Q1) _________ schemes are common for end-to-end flow control,in which a destination system uses credit to prevent the source from overflowing the destination buffers.
A)Rate based
B)Backward
C)Binary
D)Credit based
Q2) A token bucket traffic specification consists of two parameters: a token replenishment rate and a _________ .
Q3) The TCP congestion control measure techniques fall into two categories: retransmission timer management and ________ management.
Q4) ________ algorithm addresses RTT variance estimation.
Q5) A ________ fills at a constant rate up to the capacity of the bucket and empties at a rate dictated by the input data stream while the bucket is not empty.
A)leaky bucket
B)choke packet
C)slow start
D)token bucket
Q6) The ________ scheme provides the input parameters to a policing function.
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Chapter 21: Internetwork Operation
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Q1) A(n)________ is a sequence of packets traversing a network that share a set of header field values.
A)flow
B)action set
C)API
D)SDN data plane
Q2) In ordinary ________ transmission over an internet,in which each datagram has a unique destination network,the task of each router is to forward the datagram along the shortest path from that router to the destination network.
A)multicast
B)multimedia
C)unicast
D)teleconferencing
Q3) ______ is a separate routing protocol,independent of any existing unicast routing protocol,and is designed to extract needed routing information from any unicast routing protocol and may work across multiple ASs with a number of different unicast routing protocols.
Q4) IGMP,defined in RFC ______ ,is used by hosts and routers to exchange multicast group membership information over a LAN.
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Chapter 22: Internetwork Quality of Service
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Q1) The ________ provides a framework for the development of protocols such as RSVP to handle multimedia/multicast traffic and provides guidance to router vendors on the development of efficient techniques for handling a varied load.
Q2) Packets are labeled for service handling by means of the 6-bit DS field in the IPv4 header or the IPv6 header.The value of the DS field,referred to as the ________,is the label used to classify packets for differentiated services.
A)DS boundary node
B)classifier
C)marking
D)DS codepoint
Q3) ________ traffic is the traditional type of traffic supported on TCP/IP-based internets and can adjust to changes in delay and throughput across an internet and still meet the needs of its applications.
Q4) Integrated services are provided on the basis of a 6-bit label in the IP header,which classifies traffic in terms of the type of service to be given by routers for that traffic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Multiprotocol Label Switching
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Q1) A routing algorithm develops information that can be used in determining how to handle packets with different service needs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For each forwarding equivalence class a specific path through the network of LSRs is defined.This is called a ________ path.
Q3) MPLS delivers the quality of service required to support real-time voice and video but does not deliver SLAs that guarantee bandwidth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _______ are constructed based on link level addresses.
A)CEs
B)L2VPNs
C)L3VPNs
D)CR-LDPs
Q5) The components that work together to implement MPLS-TE are: information distribution,path calculation,path setup and ________.
Q6) The MPLS architecture supports two routing options: hop-by-hop and ________.
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Chapter 24: Electronic Mail, dns, and Http
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Q1) RFC 824 is the format for use in constructing messages for transmission via SMTP.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ takes messages from the outgoing mail queue and transmits them to the proper destination host via SMTP transactions over one or more TCP connections to port 25 on the target hosts.
Q3) _______ is an extension to the RFC 822 framework that is intended to address some of the problems and limitations of the use of SMTP and RFC 822 for electronic mail.
Q4) DNS is based on a hierarchical database containing _________ that include the name,IP address,and other information about hosts.
Q5) The _______ is a directory lookup service that provides a mapping between the name of a host on the Internet and its numerical address.
A)MHS
B)MUA
C)ADMD
D)DNS
Q6) The Internet mail architecture is currently defined in RFC _______ .
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Chapter 25: Internet Multimedia Support
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Q1) ________ is the maximum variation in delay experienced by packets in a single session.
Q2) The __________ protocol is used only for the transmission of user data,typically in multicast fashion among all participants in a session.
Q3) _____ real-time applications can tolerate the loss of some portion of the communicated data.
Q4) The term _______ refers to software operating on a PC that implements VoIP.
Q5) A user agent server issues SIP requests.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _________ is a desirable property for real-time communication.
A)Low overhead in header bits per packet
B)Modest buffer requirements within the network
C)Low jitter
D)All of the above
Q7) The requirements of real-time traffic differ from those of high-speed but non-real-time traffic.
A)True
B)False
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