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Course Introduction
Advanced Molecular Genetics delves deeply into the mechanisms governing the expression, regulation, and inheritance of genetic material at the molecular level. The course explores advanced topics such as genome organization, DNA replication and repair, transcriptional and post-transcriptional regulation, epigenetics, and the molecular basis of genetic diseases. Techniques including CRISPR/Cas9 gene editing, next-generation sequencing, and functional genomics are examined, alongside current applications in medical and agricultural biotechnology. Emphasis is placed on critical analysis of primary scientific literature and the development of experimental strategies to investigate complex genetic questions.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Biology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark
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Q1) Membrane-bound organelles in eukaryotes that are specialized for energy production are called .
A)nuclei
B)lysosomes
C)Golgi complexes
D)mitochondria
Answer: D
Q2) Membrane bound structures involved in digestion are called . A)mitochondria
B)nuclei
C)Golgi complexes
D)lysosomes
Answer: D
Q3) A lipid bilayer surrounds the . A)nucleus
B)cell
C)mitochondria
D)all of the above
Answer: D
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Q1) Humans have chromosomes in the gametes.
A)2
B)12
C)24
D)48
Answer: C
Q2) Sex-linked genes only affect male carriers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Gametes are and somatic cells are .
A)diploid;haploid
B)haploid;diploid
C)haploid;haploid
D)diploid;diploid
Answer: B
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Q1) Given the following sequence,which of the following is the complementary DNA strand?
5'-CCTAGAAACTG-3'
A)5'-CCTAGAAACTG-3'
B)5'-GGATCTTTGAC-5'
C)3'-GGATCTTTGAC-5'
D)3'-CAGTTTCTAGG-3'
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following are found in DNA except .
A)guanine
B)thymine
C)uracil
D)adenine
Answer: C
Q3) How many hydrogen bonds form between adenine and thymine?

Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following sequences would have the highest melting temperature relative to the others listed?
A)5'-ATATATAT-3'
B)5'-GAGAGAGA-3'
C)5'-GCGCGCGC-3'
D)5'-AAAAAAAA-3'
Q2) All of the following describe Z-DNA except .
A)left-handed helix
B)12 base pairs per turn
C)acid conditions
D)GC- or GT-rich tracts
Q3) DNA wrapped around histones are called .
A)chromatids
B)nucleosomes
C)heterochromatin
D)300 nm fibers
Q4) The most common form of DNA is A-DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which type of hybridization technique would you use to detect the presence of a specific transcript within a culture of bacterial cells grown under specific growth conditions.
A)Eastern blot
B)Western blot
C)Northern blot
D)Southern blot
Q2) At which wavelength do the bases of DNA and RNA nucleotides absorb the most light?
A)200 nm
B)260 nm
C)280 nm
D)300 nm
Q3) Which statement is not true regarding peptide nucleic acids?
A)Peptide nucleic acids are not degraded by nucleases or proteases.
B)Peptide nucleic acids consist of a polypeptide backbone to which nucleic acid bases are attached as side chains.
C)Peptide nucleic acids are able to bind to complementary strands of DNA or RNA.
D)Peptide nucleic acid penetrates cells easily,and therefore has importance in medicine.
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Q1) Messenger RNA from eukaryotic cells can be specifically amplified using A)Standard PCR
B)RT-PCR
C)Differential display PCR
D)RACE
Q2) The enzyme that converts RNA back into a DNA copy called complementary DNA cDNA)is called .
A)DNA polymerase
B)RNA polymerase
C)cDNA polymerase
D)Reverse transcriptase
Q3) Why is Escherichia coli DNA polymerase not very useful for PCR?
A)E.coli DNA polymerase cannot proofread during replication.
B)E.coli DNA polymerase only amplifies circular DNA.
C)E.coli DNA polymerase is heat labile.
D)E.coli DNA polymerase is too slow.
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Q1) The enzyme that links the ends of two DNA molecules is called .
A)reverse transcriptase
B)DNA polymerase
C)DNA ligase
D)DNA helicase
Q2) Which of the following cloning vectors carries the largest insert relative to the others in the answer choices?
A)BACs
B)cosmids
C)PACs
D)plasmids
Q3) Cells methylate their own DNA to .
A)mark the DNA for degradation
B)prevent replication
C)protect the DNA from the cell's own restriction enzymes
D)stabilize the DNA double helix
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Q1) Dideoxy nucleotides are missing a 3' hydroxyl.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which method is most useful for sequencing short DNA regions from multiple individuals?
A)dideoxy sequencing
B)pyrosequencing
C)primer walking
D)SMRT sequencing
Q3) Which sequencing method would work best for determining the sequence of a single DNA molecule?
A)pyrosequencing
B)third generation sequencing
C)second generation sequencing
D)chain termination sequencing
Q4) When DNA polymerase inserts a dideoxy nucleotide, .
A)chain elongation continues until the end of the template
B)energy is produced during the reaction
C)chain elongation is terminated
D)a primer is formed for the next round of sequencing
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Q1) Escherichia coli have approximately genes.
A)1,000
B)4,000
C)10,000
D)25,000
Q2) The exon trapping method for determining eukaryotic coding sequences relies on A)flanking splice recognition sites,which are used during RNA processing
B)complementary DNA that is produced prior to exon trapping
C)both the promoter and polyA)tail recognition sequences
D)the presences of restriction enzyme recognition sequences
Q3) Correlating individual genotypes with drug treatment is called . A)genomics
B)pharmacogenetics
C)pharming
D)pharmacogenomics
Q4) The genomes of some plants and a few protozoa have more genes than humans.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) DNA is duplicated during mitosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Replication is initiated at .
A)telomeres
B)centromeres
C)the origins are replication
D)the start of every gene
Q3) Replication always proceeds relative to the new strand.
A)unidirectional from the origin
B)left to right
C)3' to 5'
D)5' to 3'
Q4) In replication, is responsible for opening up and unwinding the DNA at
A)DNA polymerase
B)ligase
C)helicase
D)primase
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Q1) The eukaryotic promoter recognized by RNA polymerase II contains three regions.Which of the following is not part of the trio?
A)TATA box
B)upstream elements
C)initiator box
D)Enhancer
Q2) Transcribe the following sequence of DNA located on the coding strand: 5'-ACGGTACATT-3'
A)5'-ACGGUACAUU-3'
B)3'-ACGGUACAUU-5'
C)5'-UGCCAUGUAA-3'
D)3'-UGCCAUGUAA-5'
Q3) Large ribosomal RNAs are transcribed by .
A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)None of the above
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Q1) Self-splicing introns,ribosomes,and RNase P are examples of .
A)ribozymes
B)proteins
C)RNA processing enzymes
D)structural RNAs
Q2) Some pre-rRNAs are processed to generate mature rRNA and tRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) RNA processing includes .
A)base modification
B)intron removal and exon splicing
C)addition of extra bases
D)all of the above
Q4) Which modified nucleotide base is part of the 5' cap on eukaryotic mRNAs?
A)cytosine
B)guanine
C)adenine
D)uracil
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Q1) A triplet of three nucleotides found on the DNA or mRNA that codes for one amino acid is called a/an .
A)anticodon
B)codon
C)trio
D)peptide
Q2) The type of covalent bond that forms between adjacent protein monomers is called a .
A)beta-linkage
B)phosphodiester bond
C)peptide bond
D)glycosidic bond
Q3) Translation occurs in the of eukaryotes.
A)cytoplasm
B)nucleus
C)lysosomes
D)Golgi complexes
Q4) The anticodon of the tRNA is complementary to the codon on mRNA.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Dissociation refers to the loss of structure of proteins.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Q2) In the tertiary structure of proteins,the amino acids are found in the proteins and away from water.
A)polar
B)hydrophilic
C)hydrophobic
D)charged
Q3) Denaturation destroys the primary structure of proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Polar amino acids are hydrophilic and would be located on the exterior of proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The primary antibody in a Western blot .
A)binds to the nitrocellulose membrane
B)is conjugated to a detection system
C)is used to block non-specific binding of the secondary antibody
D)binds to the specific protein
Q2) All of the following are appropriate methods for investigating protein-protein interactions except .
A)mass spectrometry
B)two hybrid analysis
C)electrophoretic mobility shift assays
D)co-immunoprecipitation
Q3) Why might proteins be tagged?
A)purification
B)identification
C)anchoring
D)all of the above
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Q1) All of the following are examples of transcriptional regulation in prokaryotes except
A)binding of a repressor to an operator
B)premature termination of RNA polymerase during transcription elongation
C)binding of cAMP-CRP complex to the lac operon of Escherichia coli
D)over-riding termination by anti-terminator proteins
Q2) Some nucleotides are involved in transcriptional regulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Gratuitous inducers .
A)are metabolized like the natural inducer
B)are not broken down
C)are nutrient sources
D)are competitive inhibitors
Q4) Alternative sigma factors exist for all of the following except .
A)heat shock
B)nitrogen control
C)flagellar motion
D)exponential phase
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Q1) Specific transcription factors .
A)modulate gene expression in response to a specific stimulus
B)are not able to enter the nucleus of eukaryotes and instead help regulate gene expression at the post-transcriptional level
C)bind to target mRNAs prior to translation
D)prevent RNA polymerase II from binding to the DNA
Q2) Euchromatin .
A)is only found in prokaryotes
B)does not allow gene expression to occur
C)is densely packed chromatin
D)is loosely packed chromatin
Q3) In eukaryotes,negative regulation occurs by .
A)obstructing RNA polymerase II
B)interfering with activators
C)interfering with repressors
D)binding of repressors to operators
Q4) Simple repressors are common in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Attenuation of RNA involves the formation of alternate stem-loop structures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) RISC proteins recognize small RNA fragments called .
A)Slicer
B)Dicer
C)siRNA
D)miRNA
Q3) Proteins that prevent translation of mRNA are called .
A)nucleases
B)translational repressors
C)proteases
D)mRNA silencers
Q4) The blocking of translation of an mRNA by miRNA occurs because the miRNA
A)binds to the 3'-UTR of the mRNA and prevents translation
B)targets the mRNA for degradation by Slicer
C)binds to the 5'-UTR to prevent the ribosome from binding
D)folds into alternative stem-loop structure and protects the mRNA from nuclease cleavage
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Q1) Deletion analysis allows a researcher to examine the effects of regulatory proteins on gene expression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Primer extension is used to .
A)determine the transcriptional start site
B)locate the binding of RNA polymerase
C)determine the interaction of RNA and proteins
D)generate primers for PCR
Q3) Where might green fluorescent protein be found?
A)fireflies
B)jellyfish
C)bacteria
D)algae
Q4) DNA microarrays are appropriate for investigating the expression of one or a few genes.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The Ti-plasmid was used as the platform for genetically engineering plants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Transferable plasmids use as a form of replication during transfer.
A)bidirectional replication
B)rolling circle replication
C)conservative
D)none of the above
Q3) The Ti-plasmid is found in .
A)Escherichia coli
B)yeast
C)Agrobacterium tumefaciens
D)plants
Q4) Plasmids in the same family are incompatible because .
A)they are transferable
B)they produce toxins
C)they carry genes for antibiotic resistance
D)they have similar DNA sequences in the replication genes
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Q1) Bacteriophage infect .
A)other viruses
B)only bacteria
C)animals
D)all cell types
Q2) Which enzyme is required for RNA viruses to replicate their genomes?
A)reverse transcriptase
B)RNA replicase
C)DNA polymerase
D)host RNA polymerase
Q3) All viruses are .
A)parasitic
B)saprophytic
C)enveloped
D)bacteriophages
Q4) The early genes of viruses are transcribed by .
A)host RNA polymerase
B)viral RNA polymerase
C)DNA polymerase
D)rolling circle replication

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Q1) Internal resolution sites of complex transposons are recognized by .
A)Dicer
B)cointegrase
C)recombinase
D)resolvase
Q2) The of Tn21 family of transposons acts as a gene acquisition and expression and has been implicated in the spread of antibiotic resistance.
A)IRS
B)integron
C)replicon
D)inverted repeats
Q3) Reverse transcsriptase is needed for .
A)the movement of retrotransposons
B)the integration of RNA transposons
C)the transcription of RNA transposons
D)the excision of retrotransposons
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Q1) In some repair mechanisms,the parental DNA strand is used as a guide for repairing mistakes made in the newly synthesized DNA strand.The cell is able to distinguish the parental strand from the new strand because immediately following replication,the DNA is .
A)fully methylated
B)still single-stranded
C)hemi-methylated
D)non-methylated
Q2) A mutation has no effect on phenotype.
A)frameshift
B)deletion
C)silent
D)nonsense
Q3) Spontaneous mutations occur .
A)from errors in replication
B)when organisms grow at high temperatures
C)in the presence of mutagens
D)from ultraviolet radiation
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Q1) Homologous recombination is .
A)the exchange of DNA between similar sequences
B)the exchange of DNA between dissimilar sequences
C)the formation of a heteroduplex
D)the removal of a holiday junction
Q2) Xis protein .
A)is involved in X-inactivation in female animals
B)helps recombine homologous sequences
C)is used to excise previously recombined DNA segments
D)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following proteins is required for lambda integration in the genome of Escherichia coli?
A)transposase
B)resolvase
C)Int protein
D)Xis protein
Q4) Site specific recombination only occurs for homologous sequences.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In order for cells to take up naked DNA,they must be .
A)dead
B)actively replicating
C)competent
D)weak
Q2) A sex pilus forms during .
A)transduction
B)conjugation
C)transformation
D)transfection
Q3) DNA transfer that occurs via a virus is called .
A)transfection
B)conjugation
C)transduction
D)transformation
Q4) The F-plasmid .
A)is transferable
B)non-transferable
C)is involved in transduction
D)always results in Hfr strain formation
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Q1) Which of the following helps support the RNA World hypothesis?
A)ribozymes
B)catalytic RNAs
C)genetic information encoded on RNA
D)all of the above
Q2) Recent evolutionary changes are easier to identify from .
A)DNA with slow mutation rates
B)DNA with high mutation rates
C)ribosomal RNA sequences
D)Y chromosomes
Q3) Gene duplication generates new genes with novel roles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The African Eve hypothesis is based on .
A)Y chromosome analysis
B)identification of junk DNA sequences
C)mitochondrial DNA sequences
D)ribosomal RNA sequencing
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