Advanced Computer Security Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Advanced Computer Security delves into the comprehensive study of modern security threats, vulnerabilities, and defense mechanisms in computer systems and networks. The course explores advanced cryptographic protocols, intrusion detection methods, secure software engineering practices, and the analysis of complex attack vectors such as malware, ransomware, and zero-day exploits. Emphasis is placed on risk assessment, threat modeling, digital forensics, and the implementation of robust security architectures for cloud, IoT, and distributed environments. Through case studies and hands-on labs, students develop critical skills for designing, evaluating, and deploying advanced security solutions in real-world scenarios.
Recommended Textbook
Computer Security Principles and Practice 2nd Edition by William Stallings
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Chapter 1: Computer Systems Overview
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Q1) ________ assures that a system performs its intended function in an unimpaired manner,free from deliberate or inadvertent unauthorized manipulation of the system.
A)System Integrity
B)Availability
C)Data Integrity
D)Confidentiality
Answer: A
Q2) Release of message contents and traffic analysis are two types of _________ attacks.
Answer: passive
Q3) The more critical a component or service,the higher the level of availability required.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A(n)_________ is any means taken to deal with a security attack.
Answer: countermeasure
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3
Chapter 2: Cryptographic Tools
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Q1) Triple DES takes a plaintext block of 64 bits and a key of 56 bits to produce a ciphertext block of 64 bits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) T F 4.The secret key is input to the encryption algorithm.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) There are two general approaches to attacking a symmetric encryption scheme: cryptanalytic attacks and __________ attacks.
Answer: brute-force
Q4) A __________ stream is one that is unpredictable without knowledge of the input key and which has an apparently random character.
Answer: pseudorandom
Q5) The __________ is a pair of keys that have been selected so that if one is used for encryption,the other is used for decryption.
Answer: public and private key
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Chapter 3: User Authentication
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Q1) A __________ strategy is one in which the system periodically runs its own password cracker to find guessable passwords.
A)user education
B)reactive password checking
C)proactive password checking
D)computer-generated password
Answer: B
Q2) Voice pattern,handwriting characteristics,and typing rhythm are examples of __________ biometrics.
Answer: dynamic
Q3) A __________ is an individual to whom a debit card is issued.
Answer: cardholder
Q4) Presenting or generating authentication information that corroborates the binding between the entity and the identifier is the ___________.
A)identification step
B)authentication step
C)verification step
D)corroboration step
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Access Control
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Q1) A __________ access control scheme is one in which an entity may be granted access rights that permit the entity,by its own volition,to enable another entity to access some resource.
Q2) _________ is the granting of a right or permission to a system entity to access a system resource.
A)Authorization
B)Authentication
C)Control
D)Monitoring
Q3) A(n)__________ is a resource to which access is controlled.
A)object
B)owner
C)world
D)subject
Q4) An auditing function monitors and keeps a record of user accesses to system resources.
A)True
B)False
Q5) X.800 defines __________ as the prevention of unauthorized use of a resource, including the prevention of use of a resource in an unauthorized manner.
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Chapter 5: Database Security
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Q1) A __________ database is one that provides data of a statistical nature such as counts and averages.
Q2) A _________ is defined to be a portion of a row used to uniquely identify a row in a table.
A)foreign key B)query
C)primary key D)data perturbation
Q3) Random-sample query is a simple output perturbation technique.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The database management system operates on the assumption that the computer system has authenticated each user.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _________ is a model for enabling ubiquitous,convenient,on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction.
Q6) The __________ is a human entity that presents requests (queries)to the system.
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Chapter 6: Malicious Software
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Q1) A Trojan horse is an apparently useful program containing hidden code that, when invoked,performs some harmful function.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sometimes known as a "logic bomb",the __________ is the event or condition that determines when the payload is activated or delivered.
Q3) Keyware captures keystrokes on a compromised system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A bot propagates itself and activates itself,whereas a worm is initially controlled from some central facility.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Unsolicited bulk e-mail is referred to as __________.
A)spam
B)propagating
C)phishing
D)crimeware
Q6) During the __________ phase the virus is activated to perform the function for which it was intended.
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Chapter 7: Denial-Of-Service Attacks
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Q1) A _____ is an action that prevents or impairs the authorized use of networks,systems,or applications by exhausting resources such as central processing units,memory,bandwidth,and disk space.
Q2) Flooding attacks take a variety of forms based on which network protocol is being used to implement the attack.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bots starting from a given HTTP link and then following all links on the provided Web site in a recursive way is called _______.
A)trailing
B)spidering
C)spoofing
D)crowding
Q4) Given sufficiently privileged access to the network handling code on a computer system,it is difficult to create packets with a forged source address.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A _______ flood refers to an attack that bombards Web servers with HTTP requests.
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Chapter 8: Intrusion Detection
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Q1) The _________ detection approach involves defining thresholds,independent of user,for the frequency of occurrence of various events.
Q2) The primary purpose of an IDS is to detect intrusions,log suspicious events,and send alerts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _________ are cooperative ventures that collect information about system vulnerabilities and disseminate it to systems mangers.
Q4) The three classes of intruders are masquerader,clandestine user and _________.
Q5) A common location for a NIDS sensor is just inside the external firewall.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A ________ is a legitimate user who accesses data,programs,or resources for which such access is not authorized,or who is authorized for such access but misuses his or her privileges.
Q7) Anomaly detection is effective against misfeasors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Firewalls and Intrusion Prevention Systems
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Q1) The _________ defines the transport protocol.
A)destination IP address
B)source IP address
C)interface
D)IP protocol field
Q2) Typical for SOHO applications,a __________ is a single router between internal and external networks with stateless or full packet filtering.
A)single bastion T
B)double bastion inline
C)screening router
D)host-resident firewall
Q3) The __________ protocol is an example of a circuit-level gateway implementation that is conceptually a "shim-layer" between the application layer and the transport layer and does not provide network-layer gateway services.
Q4) Unlike a firewall,an IPS does not block traffic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A ___________ makes use of both signature and anomaly detection techniques to identify attacks.
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Chapter 10: Buffer Overflow
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Q1) The _________ aims to provide useful information to people who perform penetration testing,IDS signature development,and exploit research.
A)Metasploit Project
B)Manhattan Project
C)Levy Project
D)RAD Project
Q2) The attacker can specify the return address used to enter code as a location somewhere in the run of NOPs,which is called a NOP ______.
Q3) Memory is requested from the ______ by programs for use in dynamic data structures,such as linked lists of records.
A)shell
B)heap
C)address space
D)ROM
Q4) A successful buffer overflow attack results in the loss of the function or service the attacked program provided.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ______ defenses aim to harden programs to resist attacks in new programs.
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Chapter 11: Software Security
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Q1) UNIX related systems provide the chroot system function to limit a program's view of the file system to just one carefully configured section that is known as a ________.
Q2) _________ is a program flaw that occurs when program input data can accidentally or deliberately influence the flow of execution of the program.
A)PHP attack
B)Format string injection attack
C)XSS<sup> </sup><sup> </sup>attack
D)Injection attack
Q3) "Failure to Preserve SQL Query Structure" is in the __________ CWE/SANS software error category.
Q4) Program input data may be broadly classified as textual or ______.
Q5) Blocking assignment of form field values to global variables is one of the defenses available to prevent a __________ attack.
A)PHP remote code injection
B)mail injection
C)command injection
D)SQL injection
Q6) _________ attacks are most commonly seen in scripted Web applications.
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Chapter 12: Operating System Security
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Q1) Backup and archive processes are often linked and managed together.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The range of logging data acquired should be determined _______.
A)during security testing
B)as a final step
C)after monitoring average data flow volume
D)during the system planning stage
Q3) Unix and Linux systems grant access permissions for each resource using the ______ command.
Q4) The purpose of the system does not need to be taken into consideration during the system security planning process.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ applications is a control that limits the programs that can execute on the system to just those in an explicit list.
A)Virtualizing
B)White listing
C)Logging
D)Patching
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Chapter 13: Trusted Computing and Multilevel Security
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Q1) Functionality is the security features provided by a product.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An object is said to have a security ________ of a given level.
Q3) A multilevel secure system for confidentiality must enforce:
A)no read up
B)ss-property
C)no write down
D)all of the above
Q4) The __________ service is responsible for booting the entire operating system in stages and assuring that each portion of the OS,as it is loaded,is a version that is approved for use.
Q5) The ________ access mode allows the subject neither read nor write access to the object but may invoke the object for execution.
Q6) The __________ is a controlling element in the hardware and operating system of a computer that regulates the access of subjects to objects on the basis of security parameters of the subject and object.
Q7) A subject is said to have a security _________ of a given level.
Q8) "No read up" is also referred to as the _________ property.
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Chapter 14: It Security Management and Risk Assessment
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Q1) A(n)_________ is anything that has value to the organization.
Q2) The advantages of the _________ risk assessment approach are that it provides the most detailed examination of the security risks of an organization's IT system and produces strong justification for expenditure on the controls proposed.
Q3) The assignment of responsibilities relating to the management of IT security and the organizational infrastructure is not addressed in a corporate security policy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ specification indicates the impact on the organization should the particular threat in question actually eventuate.
A)Risk
B)Consequence
C)Threat
D)Likelihood
Q5) IT security needs to be a key part of an organization's overall management plan.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: It Security Controls, plans, and Procedures
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Q1) _______ controls are pervasive,generic,underlying technical IT security capabilities that are interrelated with,and used by,many other controls.
A)Preventative
B)Supportive
C)Operational
D)Detection and recovery
Q2) Controls may vary in size and complexity in relation to the organization employing them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The IT security management process ends with the implementation of controls and the training of personnel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Controls can be classified as belonging to one of the following classes: management controls,operational controls,technical controls,detection and recovery controls,preventative controls,and _______ controls.
Q5) ________ controls involve the correct use of hardware and software security capabilities in systems.
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Chapter 16: Physical and Infrastructure Security
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Q1) Power utility problems can be grouped into three categories: undervoltage,overvoltage,and ________.
Q2) Physical access control should address not just computers and other IS equipment but also locations of wiring used to connect systems,equipment and distribution systems,telephone and communications lines,backup media,and documents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n)________ is a battery backup unit that can maintain power to processors,monitors,and other equipment and can also function as a surge protector,power noise filter,and an automatic shutdown device.
Q4) The ______ is an optional key that may be present on any PIV card,does not require PIN entry,and whose purpose is to authenticate the card and therefore its possessor.
A)VIS
B)BIO
C)CHUID
D)CAK
Q5) _______ threats encompass threats related to electrical power and electromagnetic emission.
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Chapter 17: Human Resources Security
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Q1) A _______ is a characteristic of a piece of technology that can be exploited to perpetrate a security incident.
Q2) A capability set up for the purpose of assisting in responding to computer security-related incidents that involve sites within a defined constituency is called a
A)CIRT
B)CIRC
C)CSIRT
D)all of the above
Q3) Employees cannot be expected to follow policies and procedures of which they are unaware.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Many companies incorporate specific e-mail and Internet use policies into the organization's security policy document.
A)True
B)False
Q5) After security basics and literacy,training becomes focused on providing the knowledge,skills,and abilities specific to an individual's _______ relative to IT systems.
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Chapter 18: Security Auditing
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Q1) With _________ the linking to shared library routines is deferred until load time so that if changes are made any program that references the library is unaffected.
A)statically linked shared libraries
B)dynamically linked shared libraries
C)system linked shared libraries
D)all of the above
Q2) ______ is the identification of data that exceed a particular baseline value.
A)Anomaly detection
B)Real-time analysis
C)Thresholding
D)All of the above
Q3) ______ is detection of events within a given set of parameters,such as within a given time period or outside a given time period.
Q4) Security auditing can:
A)provide data that can be used to define anomalous behavior
B)maintain a record useful in computer forensics
C)generate data that can be used in after-the-fact analysis of an attack
D)all of the above
Q5) ______ is the process of defining normal versus unusual events and patterns.
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Chapter 19: Legal and Ethical Aspects
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Q1) Computer technology has involved the creation of new types of entities for which no agreed ethical rules have previously been formed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ___________ Act places restrictions on online organizations in the collection of data from children under the age of 13.
Q3) Concerns about the extent to which personal privacy has been and may be compromised have led to a variety of legal and technical approaches to reinforcing privacy rights.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The first comprehensive privacy legislation adopted in the United States was the Privacy Act of 1974.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Any intangible asset that consists of human knowledge and ideas is _______.
A)cyber property
B)personal property
C)intellectual property
D)real property
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Chapter 20: Symmetric Encryption and Message
Confidentiality
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Q1) An encryption scheme is _________ if the cost of breaking the cipher exceeds the value of the encrypted information and/or the time required to break the cipher exceeds the useful lifetime of the information.
Q2) For stream-oriented transmission over noisy channel you would typically use _______ mode.
A)ECB
B)CTR
C)OFB
D)CBC
Q3) _________ is the original message or data that is fed into the algorithm as input.
A)Plaintext
B)Encryption algorithm
C)Decryption algorithm
D)Ciphertext
Q4) For symmetric encryption to work the two parties to an exchange must share the same _____,which must be protected from access by others.
Q5) All encryption algorithms are based on two general principles: substitution and
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Chapter 21: Public-Key Cryptography and Message
Authentication
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Q1) Timing attacks are only applicable to RSA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ___________ was the first published public-key algorithm.
A)NIST
B)Diffie-Hellman
C)RC4
D)RSA
Q3) The National Institute of Standards and Technology has published Federal Information Processing Standard FIPS PUB 186,known as the __________.
A)XOR
B)MD5
C)MAC
D)DSS
Q4) "Must support hash value lengths of 224,256,384,and 512 bits" and "algorithm must process small blocks at a time instead of requiring the entire message to be buffered in memory before processing it" are requirements for ________.
Q5) One of the first public-key schemes,_______,was developed in 1977 by Ron Rivest,Adi Shamir,and Len Adleman.
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Chapter 22: Internet Security Protocols and Standards
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Q1) If encryption is used alone,_______ is used to convert the ciphertext to ASCII format.
Q2) IPsec provides two main functions: a combined authentication/encryption function called ___________ and a key exchange function.
Q3) IP-level security encompasses three functional areas: authentication,confidentiality,and _________.
Q4) The recipient of a message can decrypt the signature using DSS and the sender's public DSS key.
A)True
B)False
Q5) IPsec can assure that _________.
A)a router advertisement comes from an authorized router
B)a routing update is not forged
C)a redirect message comes from the router to which the initial packet was sent
D)all of the above
Q6) The most complex part of SSL is the __________.
A)TLS
B)message header
C)payload
D)handshake protocol
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Chapter 23: Internet Authentication Applications
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Q1) In Kerberos,the ___________ decrypts the ticket and authenticator,verifies the request,and creates ticket for requested server.
Q2) A _______ is a generic term used to denote any method for storing certificates and CRLs so that they can be retrieved by end entities.
A)RA
B)registration
C)repository
D)CA
Q3) ______ is the set of hardware,software,people,policies,and procedures needed to create,manage,store,distribute,and revoke digital certificates based on asymmetric cryptography.
Q4) Because serial numbers are unique within a CA,the serial number is sufficient to identify the certificate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Kerberos does not support interrealm authentication.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In a generic identity management architecture a ________ is an identity holder.
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Chapter 24: Wireless Network Security
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Q1) The wireless environment consists of three components that provide point of attack: the wireless client,the transmission medium,and the _________.
Q2) At the top level of the group key hierarchy is the ___________.
Q3) The MPDU exchange for distributing pairwise keys is known as the _______.
A)pseudorandom function
B)cryptographic function
C)nonce
D)4-way handshake
Q4) A(n)__________ is any entity that has station functionality and provides access to the distribution system via the wireless medium for associated stations.
A)ESS
B)access point
C)distribution system
D)MPDU
Q5) There are two types of keys: ________ used for communication between a STA and an AP and group keys used for multicast communication.
Q6) The lowest layer of the IEEE 802 reference model is the __________ layer.
Q7) The fields preceding the MSDU field are referred to as the _________.
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