Liberty Study Guide and Answers 5

AVIA 105 Quizzes https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/avia-105-quizzes/ AVIA 105 Quiz Foundation of Flight 1. According to Wilbur Wright, which man not only thought, but acted; and in so doing probably made the greatest contribution to the solution of the flying problem that has ever been made by any one man?

2. On what date did the Wright Brothers first succeed at a sustained, controlled, heavier than air flight?

3. In what city was the Wright Brothers bicycle shop located?

4. Which of the following was NOT recognized by Wilbur Wright as an initial challenge to sustained, controlled, heavier than air flight?

5. Unwilling to unveil their technology without the protection of a patent and a contract for the sale of airplanes, the Wright brothers did not make public flights until 1908, at which point they emerged as the first great international heroes of the century.

AVIA 105 Quiz: Introduction to Flying Part 1 1. Who was the first pilot license issued to?

2. The first transcontinental air mail route connect which two coastal cities?

3. Employees of which federal agency went on strike in 1981, with 11,000 employees being subsequently terminated by President Ronald Reagan?

4. Which type of NOTAMs are issued by the National Flight Data Center and contain information that is regulatory in nature pertaining to flight including, but not limited to, changes to charts, procedures, and airspace usage?

5. The first schedule airline flight connected which two cities?

6. Which piece of legislation established a new independent body that assumed the roles of the CAA and transferred the rule making authority of the CAB to the newly created Federal Aviation Agency (FAA).

7. Which division of the FAA promotes safe air transportation by setting the standards for certification and oversight of airmen, air operators, air agencies, and designees?

8. Which of the following resources is considered the official guide to basic flight information and ATC procedures for the aviation community flying in the national airspace system of the United States?

9. What was the name of the union decertified by President Reagan in 1981?

10. In addition to accident investigation and the enforcement of aviation regulations, the FSDO is also responsible for the certification and surveillance of air carriers, air operators, flight schools/training centers, and airmen including pilots and flight instructors.

AVIA 105 Quiz Introduction to Flying, Part 2 1. Explain two benefits of Part 61 flight training. Do not just list the benefits. Be sure to thoroughly explain the benefits.

2. To obtain a free practical test for an FAA certificate, the applicant will want to schedule the practical test with: 3. A current commercial pilot must possess a current ______class medical certificate.

4. The minimum age to obtain a restricted ATP is: 5. Large and small aircraft are categorized according to maximum certificated takeoff weight. What weight divides these two categories?

6. If flight training under Part 61, earning the private pilot certificate requires at least ______ hours of pilot time.

7. Under which regulation does the FAA have oversight of aircraft facilities, and training curriculum?

8. A flight school providing flight training under which regulation is subject to more FAA oversight?

9. The sport pilot certificate does not list aircraft category and class ratings.

10. Commercial pilots without an instrument rating are restricted to daytime flight within 25 NM when flying for hire.

AVIA 105 Quiz Airport Operations, Part 1 1. Which is a recording of the local weather conditions and other pertinent non-control information broadcast on a local frequency in a looped format?

2. Consider the image. What does the perpendicular line consisting of one solid line and one dashed line represent?

3. Consider the image. Where are you located on the aireld?

4. Which category of airports are designated by the FAA to relieve congestion at Commercial Service Airports and to provide improved general aviation access to the overall community?

5. To ensure safety in the airport traffic pattern, aircraft entry should be at a _____ degree angle.

6. The enhanced taxiway centerline marking begins _____ feet prior to the runway holding position marking.

7. Taxiway direction signs have a ________ background and ________ characters.

8. Consider the image. If ground control directs a pilot to utilize W6, which direction will the aircraft turn?

9. When the tower is closed or you are operating at a nontowered airport, you may taxi past a runway holding position sign only when the runway is clear of aircraft, and there are no aircraft on final approach 10. As pilot in command (PIC), you are required to accept and comply with a LAHSO clearance.

AVIA 105 Quiz Airport Operations, Part 2 1. For runways equipped with in-pavement runway centerline lights, the runway centerline lights are white until the last _______ feet of the runway. The white lights begin to alternate with red for the next ______ feet. For the remaining 1,000 feet of the runway, all 2. Consider the image. What does the “7” signify?

3. The synchronized white strobe lights flashing on both sides of the landing threshold are known as: 4. With a tri-color VASI, on-glidepath is signified by which color?

5. If a pilot on final approach sees all white on the PAPI, what must the pilot do?

6. VASI and PAPI installations normally indicate a ___ degree glidepath to pilots.

7. What is the phonetic spelling of “T”?

8. Taxiway edge lights are omni-directional.

9. Pilot-controlled lighting allows pilots to activate aireld lighting by keying the microphone on the appropriate frequency.

10. The wind sock is a good source of information since it not only indicates wind direction but allows the pilot to estimate the wind velocity and/or gust factor.

AVIA 104 Quiz Restricted ATP 1. May Liberty University online students obtain the R-ATP if flight training is completed at one of the approved Flight Training Affiliates?

2. The R-ATP requires academic coursework in all the following topics EXCEPT: 3. The Training Course Outline is considered an overview document that details the form, methodology, and content of a course of training and is submitted to the FAA for the issuance of a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate and ratings?

4. The ATP CTP applies to applicants for an ATP certificate with airplane category multiengine class rating or an ATP certificate issued concurrently with an airplane type rating, and is intended to

prepare the applicant to operate safely in those operations which require an ATP certificate by rule.

5. Students may, at their discretion, transfer to another R-ATP institution having partially completed the Instrument, for example, and continue where Instrument training where they left off at the previous institution.

GOVT 404 Quizzes https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-404-quizzes/ GOVT 404 Quiz Mutual Assent to Contract 1. The Electronics Barn publishes an advertisement in the local newspaper. This week’s advertisement includes an advertisement for a television for just $115. The television advertised is actually worth $1,150, and the price in the advertisement was the result of an employee who “thought it would be funny” to run the advertisement “as a joke.”

2. An auction for the sale of goods, without reserve, constitutes what?

3. Xavier is considering hiring Zoe to repair the cracked, leaking foundation of Xavier’s commercial warehouse property. During a meeting, the two agree on the timing, price, and scope of work that would be performed, but they agree that “We won’t have a binding deal until we have put this agreement in writing and we have both signed it.” Xavier asks his lawyer to draft the agreement. However, the lawyer is busy, and does not produce a writing promptly. Under time pressure to get the work started, Xavier tells Zoe to go ahead and start the excavation work, and he assures her that he’ll pay her for the work. Zoe starts working on the excavation.

4. True or False: When applying the “Battle of the Forms” provision of the Uniform Commercial Code, it is never important whether the parties are merchants as defined under the Uniform Commercial Code, since the Uniform Commercial Code applies to all contracts for the sale of goods, even contracts not involving merchants.

5. Which of the following is the best definition of an option?

6. Alexis and Rollie enter into an option contract. The option allows Alexis until Friday, February 17, at 5:00 p.m. to respond to Rollie’s offer to sell Alexis 500 shares of his stock in Rollie Corporation for $35,000. Alexis meets with family members to discuss the investment opportunity. After getting wise counsel on whether she should buy the stock at that price, she decided to exercise her option and buy the stock. On February 16, she writes a letter to Rollie, indicating her willingness to pay $35,000 for the stock, and encloses a check in the amount of $35,000. She puts the letter and check in a properly addressed, postage-paid, envelope, and places the envelope in the mail on Thursday, February 16. Rollie receives the envelope on Saturday, February 18. Choose the best answer.

7. On February 11, Lawrence sends a letter via first-class mail to Protein Source, Inc., offering to buy 225 bags of animal feed from Protein Source, Inc., at a total price of $1,000. Protein Source, Inc., responds by mailing a letter, via first-class mail, on February 12, indicating that Protein Source, Inc., is not interested in selling animal feed at the price offered by Lawrence. The letter is received by Lawrence on February 14.

8. Danielle is the office manager for an insurance brokerage. The company’s parking lot needs to be sealed and repainted. She calls Jasper, who owns an asphalt sealing and painting company, and says, “Hi, can you tell me what you usually charge to seal and paint parking lots?” Jasper responds with the amount, per square foot, that his company charges for painting and sealing.

Does Jasper’s response constitute an offer?

9. Which of the following is not a necessary element for a rm offer under the Uniform Commercial Code?

10. Driveaway is a used-car dealership. It publishes an offer in the local newspaper that promises that Driveaway will sell a 2013 pickup truck, valued at $28,000, for $20,000, to the “first customer who walks through our door on Monday morning with $20,000 in cash!” The ad runs in the Friday edition of the newspaper. If Driveaway wants to revoke its offer, what should it do?

11. Three identical, adjacent, undeveloped residential real estate parcels are for sale in a new housing development. Lots 1 and 2 are owned by Pender. Lot 3 is owned by Cathleen. Pender and Cathleen are at a community event together. Brice is a real estate investor who happens to meet Pender and Cathleen at the event. He offers to purchase Lot 3 from Cathleen, who says his offer is too low for her to consider. Pender, however, tells Brice that he accepts Brice’s offer.

12. True or false: A contract must identify the terms of the agreement with enough detail so that a court will have a reasonable basis for determining if a breach of contract has occurred and, if it has, what remedy is appropriate.

13. If an offeror and offeree enter into a valid option contract, the offeree will retain the power of acceptance during the option period, unless: 14. Randy makes an offer to Ellen that requires acceptance by performance. When is Ellen’s acceptance effective?

15. Elise, a human resources manager for a company, interviews Gretchen, a prospective employee, on Monday. The evening after the interview, Elise calls Gretchen and offers her a position with the company, describing the position, salary, and benefits. During the telephone conversation, Gretchen asks Elise where her office would be located in the company’s office suite, if she decided to accept the offer. Elise tells Gretchen that she is no longer interested in hiring Gretchen, and hangs up. Choose the best answer: 16. On Monday, Rex makes an offer to Dante by email. The email says the offer will expire Friday at 5:00 p.m. Choose the best answer: 17. Rudolph and Bonita meet to discuss a contract for Rudolph to design a new living room in Bonita’s home. Rudolph looks at the house, sketches out some ideas, and says he will provide her with detailed design plans if Bonita will pay him $3,500 once the plans are complete. Bonita, intending to make a contract, shakes Rudolph’s hand and indicates that she “can’t wait” to see his designs. Choose the best answer: 18. Zolton is a human resources manager at a medical device manufacturing company. He interviews Trenton for a position as a salesperson. He offers to hire Trenton for a 6-month contract term that will pay him a base salary plus a bonus in the amount of 1.5% of Trenton’s total monthly sales, payable at the end of each three- month period that Trenton is employed.

Trenton responds by saying, “I’d just need those bonuses to be paid monthly, instead of every three months—but otherwise that sounds good to me.”

19. Manufacturer offers to pay Consultant a single payment in exchange for manufacturing-process consulting services. Manufacturer and Consultant negotiate back and forth over the course of a week, without either party accepting the other’s final offer. When the offeree responds to the offeror’s last offer by beginning performance, what rule dictates what the terms of the contract are?

20. Renata writes an offer to sell real estate to Max. She puts the offer in an envelope and mails it to Max’s office. Max opens the envelope, reads the letter, and decides that he will accept the offer.

He then exclaims, there, alone in his office: “I’m going to buy Renata’s property! Yes!” Next, he writes out a note on Renata’s letter, as follows: “I accept.” He then signs his name below his note. Last, Max puts the letter in an envelope and mails it back to Renata, who receives it two days later. When was Max’s acceptance effective?

21. Which of the following events does not terminate an offeree’s power of acceptance?

22. A retailer of home-cleaning products instructs its salespeople to make sales of its product by visiting residences of prospective customers during the day. One salesperson visits a prospective purchaser’s residence, finds nobody answering the door, and leaves a box of assorted cleaning products at the door together with a note that says: “Please make payment in the amount of $350 within 10 days. If you do not return the products within 24 hours you will be deemed to have agreed to purchase them.” If 24 hours expire and the customer has not returned the box of cleaning products, does the customer’s silence alone constitute acceptance of the offer to purchase the cleaning products? Explain your answer.

GOVT 404 Quiz Contract Defenses Assent-Based Defenses 1. Richard owns a 30-acre parcel of real property valued at $200,000. Richard suffers from a mental health condition that sometimes impairs his volitional capacity but not his cognitive capacity. On one occasion, when suffering an episode of this sort, he sells the property to Watson for $125,000. Prior to closing, Richard seeks to avoid his contractual obligation to sell

the property to Watson. Which of the following facts would Watson be most likely to assert in his argument that the contract is not voidable?

2. Ellis is a salesperson for a farm equipment dealer. He’s worked for the employer Plow-Share LLC for three years and has been very successful. His manager, Davis, tells Ellis that he’d like to give him a promotion to regional sales manager and include a 10% raise as part of the deal. Ellis has been thinking about going to work for another farm equipment dealer, Green Tractor Innovations (GTI), and he has had some preliminary discussions with GTI about taking a job with them. During the negotiations with Plow-Share, Ellis tells Davis, “I’ll sign a one-year agreement with Plow-Share LLC if you’ll give me a 30% raise and a company car. If not, I’m going to work for GTI, and I think you’ll regret letting me get away to a competitor.” If Ellis’s comments convince Davis to agree to a 30% raise, does Davis have a likely basis for avoiding the contract?

3. Lawrence contracts with Arnold to sell Lawrence’s classic automobile to Arnold for $40,000.

Arnold pays a $10,000 down payment, and agrees to pay the $30,000 balance at the time he take possession of the car. However, Arnold learns, after paying the down payment to Lawrence, that the Lawrence falsely represented that he owned the car, when, in fact, Lawrence does not own the car. Assume Arnold is only interested in getting his $10,000 and having no further dealings with Lawrence or the car he offered to sell Arnold. Explain what you think the best argument is for Arnold, and be sure to include the legal theories and rules that justify your position.

4. Bobbie is 17 years old. He looks considerably older than his age; in fact, most people would guess that Bobbie is about 25. Bobbie also has a maturity that is unusual for someone his age.

Further, he has been running a small but successful Internet branding and advertising business from his bedroom for the past two years, so he has also developed more business sense than most of his peers. Bobbie approaches a small-business owner, Ian, who has owned restaurants for 25 years, about providing Internet marketing services for Ian’s three restaurants for the next 12 months. After contracting with Bobbie, Ian learns Bobbie’s age. Ian feels embarrassed that he’s just contracted for an important business matter with a teenager. Choose the best answer: 5. The case of Wood v. Boynton involved the sale of a stone for a small sum. The stone turned out to be a diamond. The seller raised the defense of ________________, and this defense ____________, because the seller knew that there was uncertainty about the quality of the stone.

6. Which of the following is not a required element of the defense of unilateral mistake?

7. Del offers to sell his 100-acre parcel to Jim for $1,000,000. Jim thinks the price is high, but speculates that a new housing complex might be developed on the parcel adjacent to Del’s parcel. If that happens, Del’s parcel will be sought after for development purposes. Jim, predicting that the adjacent parcel will be developed, decides to buy Del’s parcel for $1,000,000 despite the high price. After signing the contract, Jim learns that there are no plans by any developers to develop the adjacent parcel in the foreseeable future. Jim wants to avoid his contractual obligation to buy the parcel using the doctrine of unilateral mistake. Will the circumstances constitute a mistake?

8. In order for a fraudulent assertion to induce a party to agree to the terms of a contract, the assertion must 9. Bobbie is 17 years old. He looks considerably older than his age; in fact, most people would guess that Bobbie is about 25. Bobbie also has a maturity that is unusual for someone his age.

Further, he has been running a small but successful Internet branding and advertising business from his bedroom for the past two years, so he has also developed more business sense than most of his peers. Bobbie approaches a small-business owner, Ian, who has owned restaurants for 25 years, about providing Internet marketing services for Ian’s three restaurants for the next 12 months. After contracting with Bobbie, Ian learns Bobbie’s age. Ian feels embarrassed that he’s just contracted for an important business matter with a teenager. Choose the best answer: 10. Which answer most completely describes the defenses that are available to a contracting party when the basis for the defense is action taken by a third party rather than action taken by the other party to the contract?

11. If a defendant raises and proves an affirmative defense, what is the consequence?

12. Which of the following is not a name sometimes used to refer to the legal concept of unjust enrichment?

13. Which of the following would not constitute an improper threat for duress?

14. When a contract is voidable but the party entitled to raise a defense chooses not to raise the defense and instead performs the contract, the party who elects not to raise the defense is said to have _______________ the contract.

15. Dominic is the owner of a car dealership. He attends a party in honor of the 50th wedding anniversary of a local businessperson and his spouse—an event attended by several other local businesspeople. Dominic, who does not drink alcohol, is offered a beverage called a “Long Island iced tea.” Dominic accepts the beverage, thinking it is simply iced tea, and not realizing that it is actually a mixed alcoholic drink. During the course of the evening he consumes several of the beverages and becomes intoxicated. While intoxicated, he speaks with Lindsey, who has been looking at a sports car at Dominic’s dealership. Dominic agrees to sell the car to Lindsey for a price that is one half of the car’s market value. The next day, Dominic seeks to avoid the transaction. Choose the best answer: 16. True or False: A party may be able to successfully raise more than one defense.

17. True or False: If a contractual defense makes a contract voidable, the party who can claim the defense has a right to elect to raise the defense or to waive it.

18. The difference between assertions that are fraudulent and assertions that are material is that: 19. Hudson lives in his three-bedroom home for eight years and then decides to sell it. During the time he has lived in the home he has never had any trouble with the roof and has never known it to leak. He sells the house himself, placing a “for sale” sign in the yard and offering the home for sale online. One prospective buyer, Danielle, walks through the house with Hudson and asks him some questions, including the question “Does the roof leak?” Hudson answers, “No, the roof does not leak, not even a little bit.” Satised with Hudson’s answer, Danielle agrees to purchase the house from Hudson at his asking price. Prior to the closing, she learns that the roof does leak, but that the leaking is visible only from inside the attic during a heavy rainfall. Can Danielle use the doctrine of misrepresentation to avoid the contract?

20. André agrees to excavate a basement on Lex’s new residential construction project. André agrees to do the work for a low price, based on his belief that the soil at the excavation site is mostly sand. He brings his excavation equipment to the job site and begins to dig into the soil to create a basement. However, instead of the soil being primarily soft sand (which is easy to excavate), the soil turns out to be primarily rock (which is time-consuming and expensive to excavate). Which fact, if added to this hypothetical, would most likely ensure that André bears the risk of his mistake?

21. Mindy is selling her storage business. She has owned the business for 18 years. In the last three years the business became unprofitable. The losses incurred by the business are reflected in its quarterly financial records and other records. The worst loss the business incurred was in the most recent business quarter. Mindy places all of the financial records in a le folder marked “financial reports” and presents them together with six other folders marked “employees,” “vendors,” “storage contracts,” “collections,” “state and local,” and “miscellaneous,” respectively.

The largest folder is the “miscellaneous” folder, containing about 150 pages of documents. Mindy slips the most recent quarterly financial record into the middle of the documents contained in the “miscellaneous” folder before making all of the folders available to a prospective buyer. If the buyer claims Mindy did not disclose the most recent losses in the sale of the storage business, what is the buyer’s most likely description of Mindy’s misrepresentation?

22. What answer below best summarizes all the elements that must be established for a party to successfully assert the defense of duress?

GOVT 404 Quiz Bases for Enforcing Promises 1. Banker promises to Customer that the Bank will make a loan to the Customer’s son if the Customer promises that the Customer will pay any balance on the loan to the Bank immediately if the son fails to repay the loan. Customer agrees. Later the Customer’s son refuses to repay

the loan. Customer argues that his promise to the Banker is unenforceable. Choose the best answer: 2. Homeowner enters into a contract with Flooring Company to replenish Homeowner’s hardwood floors on October 15 and 16. The contract price is $4,000, payable after the completion of the work. Flooring Company fails to do any of the work, and Homeowner pays Flooring Company nothing. Homeowner has to pay $4,400 to another flooring contractor to replenish his floors.

Which of the following correctly describes Homeowner’s “expectation interest”?

3. Which of the following can serve as consideration?

4. Lisa runs a professional house painting company. She sends one of her painting crews to the Hudson residence to paint the interior of the home. The crew misreads the house numbers, and instead of painting the Hudsons’ house, they start painting the Brodys’ house, three houses down the street. The Brody family home could use a fresh coat of paint, so although they notice the painting crew starting work on their house, they let the crew paint the exterior of their house without objecting. When Lisa sends a bill to Mr. and Mrs. Brody, they refuse to pay it, arguing that they never promised to pay for the painting services. What is Lisa’s best argument?

5. True or False: If a contract is made under circumstances in which one party clearly gets a better deal than the other, the deal is unfair, and there will be no consideration.

6. True or false: An agreement modifying a contract governed by the UCC does not require any consideration to be binding, but must be made in good faith.

7. Which case provides an example of a court applying the pre- existing duty rule?

8. True or false: A gift promise is generally unenforceable, unless the promisee reasonably and justifiably relies upon it.

9. True or False: The reliance doctrine only enforces promises that a promisor should reasonably expect to induce reliance by a promisee.

10. Which statement most accurately describes the difference between the expectation interest and reliance interest in contract damages?

11. Baxter has been an employee of Shipping Company for seven years. His manager notices that he has been working late, making sure that the company trucks are properly cleaned out, stored, and locked up in the company garage at the end of each workday. The manager tells Baxter that he appreciates his hard work, that Baxter should not feel obligated to stay late to lock up the equipment anymore, and that Baxter can expect a $250 bonus in his next paycheck because of his past efforts. Is the manager’s statement enforceable based on the theory of consideration?

12. AlphaCo and BetaCo enter into a contract for AlphaCo to sell 20 computers to BetaCo. BetaCo agrees to pay AlphaCo $14,000 for the 20 computers. After the contract is signed by the parties, BetaCo asks AlphaCo if it would be willing to provide 21 computers, instead of 20, at no additional cost. AlphaCo agrees to deliver 21 computers. Choose the best answer: 13. Which of the following contracts is subject to the Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods (CISG)?

14. AlphaCo and BetaCo enter into a contract for AlphaCo to provide computer and printer repair services at BetaCo’s oces. The contract is scheduled to begin January 15 and end June 15.

BetaCo agrees to pay AlphaCo $18,000 for these six months of service. After the contract is signed by the parties, BetaCo asks AlphaCo if it would be willing to provide cleaning services until June 30 at no additional cost. AlphaCo agrees to work until June 30. Choose the best answer: 15. Bookstore, Inc., an independent bookstore, is looking for a new location. It agrees to buy a small house from Jones for $165,000 if the municipal zoning board will approve Bookstore, Inc.’s request for a variance from the local zoning ordinance, which currently only allows houses in this part of town to be used as residences. The contract between Bookstore, Inc. and Jones is 16. Which of the following is a gift promise, unenforceable under the “bargained-for-exchange” theory of consideration?

17. Hawke wears a gold medallion, passed down from his grandfather, at all times. He is distraught one day when he returns home from work and realizes that the medallion apparently detached from its chain and fell to the ground at some point during the day. He posts signs in the office building where he works and in the adjacent parking garage, offering a $300 reward to anyone

who finds the medallion and returns it to him. Rhonda, one of Hawke’s co- workers, finds the medallion in an once stairwell, recognizes it as Hawke’s, and returns it to him, not knowing that Hawke has offered a reward for its return. Choose the best answer: 18. An agreement reached concerning some details of a transaction, but leaving other details to be determined later, is called what?

19. Which of the following is a false statement regarding consideration?

20. Bob is a personal athletic trainer. He is speaking with his friend Jonnie while riding the bus to work. During the bus ride, the two discuss Bob providing Jonnie with personal training sessions, and Bob says he would be happy to give Jonnie some instruction. The next week, Bob provides two personal training sessions to Jonnie. One week later, Jonnie promises to pay Bob for the sessions. However, Jonnie does not pay for them. Which of the following arguments has the potential to be a successful argument for recovery by Bob against Jonnie?

21. Angus is a drywall contractor. He learns that his neighbor, Bonnie, had some water damage and has been talking to Drywall Solutions, another drywall contractor, to complete the repairs. Angus tells Bonnie that she does not need to hire a drywall contractor and that he will perform the work at no cost if Bonnie will supply the drywall materials. Bonnie calls Drywall Solutions, which had offered to do the work for $3,000, and tells them not to come. Angus subsequently refuses to do the work. Bonnie has to pay a third drywall contractor $4,000 to complete the job. What argument should Bonnie make to recover from Angus?

22. Isobel contracts with Lance for Lance to market Isobel’s new line of athletic headwear to sporting-goods retailers. She agrees to pay Lance $10 per hour for his work and 1% of any sales he generates. After three months, Isobel is concerned that Lance is only working 20–30 hours per week and generating very few sales. She learns that Lance is facing competition from several new companies, all marketing products similar to Isobel’s line of athletic headwear. In light of the increased competition, the two agree that Lance should receive 3% of any sales he generates. Choose the best answer:

PADM 475 Midterm and Final https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/padm-475-midterm-and-final/ PADM 475 Midterm and Final Essays You will submit 2 essays in this course: a Midterm and a Final. The prompt you must answer for the Midterm and Final are provided below.

INSTRUCTIONS: Your essays should include the following: Ideas, arguments and discussion shows consistency and logical connection between content and commentary.

The development of ideas, arguments, and discussion shows logical connection. Language used is sufficient to say exactly what is intended and is easy to understand – concise.

A sufficient number of public administration concepts are used to analyze the situation discussed.

A variety of pertinent scholarly references were sought and obtained in preparing the paper.

The main points are stated clearly and follow a logical sequence.

Proper spelling, grammar, syntax and punctuation is used.

Essays use Times New Roman, 12-point font, 1-inch margins from left to right and top to bottom, and double spacing.

Current APA formatting is used.

Essay: Midterm Assignment Prompt: “It is believed that there are two functions of government: Politics and administration. Politics has to do with the policies or expression of state will. Administration has to do with the execution of these policies.” Critically evaluate this statement in light of modern public administration.

Essay: Final Assignment Prompt: How can bureaucrats and bureaucracies be held accountable? By whom and by what means can they be held accountable? Describe the steps and the measures that can be taken to increase bureaucratic accountability. How do the judicial, the executive, and the legislative branches of government hold bureaucrats and bureaucracies accountable?

CHMN 301 Quiz https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/chmn-301-quiz/ CHMN 301 Quiz Foundations of NextGen Ministry 1. Criteria for Evaluation of Curriculum should include the following except: 2. The purpose of teaching the Gospel is to make an impact and change lives.

3. In your lesson aims, you want your student to do all of the following except: 4. In ministering to youth with disabilities, educate the group on disabilities.

5. For a teen to be a World Christian, it means they become selfish with their time, money, service, and prayer.

6. In ministering to youth with more involved disabilities, it is a good idea to have a buddy system.

7. Rules for your mission trip should include which of the following: 8. The #1 priority for your missions trip is the safety and security of your team members.

9. Try to position yourself as a go-between for warring parents.

10. It’s normal for members of blended families to feel like they’re between two opposing forces.

11. In ministering to youth with disabilities, you should be aware of all physical barriers and work to remove them.

12. What is defined as the “what” of your curriculum?

13. Identify ways to connect with youth who have anger issues by stating true or false: You should teach students how to deal with anger from the Bible.

14. The reason we teach youth the Bible is because Christ commanded it.

15. The early church practiced teaching the Scriptures in all of the ways except: 16. Teenagers appear to be _________.

17. Identify ways to connect with youth who have anger issues by stating true or false: You should model Christ-like acceptance.

18. Goal #1 of motivating youth toward world missions is to produce “World Christians”.

19. The following is one of the 7 questions you should walk a student through in making a decision: Are there any promptings from your conscience?

20. The quality, without any consideration for the quantity of your food, can make or break the spirit of your missions trip.

21. The following is one of the 7 questions you should walk a student through in making a decision: What would be the most spiritually advantageous decision?

22. Identify ways to connect with youth who have anger issues by stating true or false: You should let them know when their parents are being unreasonable and are to blame in the situation.

23. Doing a mission trip with students accomplishes all of the following except: 24. Identify ways to connect with youth who have anger issues by stating true or false: You should help teenagers identify the cause of their anger.

25. The following is one of the 7 questions you should walk a student through in making a decision: What are other people saying, especially your friends who you are best friends with?

26. The following is one of the 7 questions you should walk a student through in making a decision: Once you’ve made the decision, can you make it work?

27. The Bible was written to make you a smarter sinner.

28. Identify ways to connect with youth who have anger issues by stating true or false: The best way to teach them about anger is to control your own anger.

29. One of the problems with being a teacher of the Bible according to James 3:1 is you are held to higher standard.

30. The following is one of the 7 questions you should walk a student through in making a decision: Is there any admonition from the Scriptures?

31. In ministering to youth with disabilities, realize that they are different and should be treated differently.

32. Teenagers are beginning to ____.

33. Goal #3 of motivating youth toward world missions is to produce World- Changers.

34. Which one of these is not an extrinsic distraction in teaching?

35. Allow youth with disabilities to fully participate in activities as long as they can adjust themselves to the activity without causing disruption to your activity plans.

36. The example of church leaders and pastors can play a huge role in youth and missions by devising programs, policies, and procedures that make it difficult for people to go on mission trips.

37. Identify ways to connect with youth who have anger issues by stating true or false: You should expect them to sabotage the relationship.

38. Which one of these is not an intrinsic distraction in teaching?

39. Students of Scripture most often study the content and methodology of the Gospels.

40. Adventures in Missions provides the following except: 41. What is defined as the “when” and “how often” of your curriculum?

42. Identify ways to connect with youth who have anger issues by stating true or false: You should build dependence upon yourself as the leader.

43. Teenagers are ____________ about a world of peace, the church, and the family.

44. Goal #2 of motivating youth toward world missions is to produce leaders.

45. Teenagers can be _________.

46. Teenagers have difficulty making ___________.

47. Identify ways to connect with youth who have anger issues by stating true or false: Your goal should be helping teenagers move towards forgiveness.

48. Teenagers are ______________.

49. The following is one of the 7 questions you should walk a student through in making a decision: Are there any negative or harmful/reversible consequences?

50. The following is one of the 7 questions you should walk a student through in making a decision: Do circumstances line up with what your best friends say?

YOUT 201 Cultural Observation Project https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/yout-201-cultural-observation-project/ YOUT 201 Cultural Observation Project Assignments This project is completed in two parts: the Cultural Observation Project Location Abstract Assignment (minimum of at least 50 words) and the Cultural Observation Project Assessment Paper Assignment (minimum of at least 4 pages), based on an observation as defined in the Location Abstract, each in a separate module. The in person observation must be at least 1 hour and 15 minutes in length.

YOUT 201 Ministry Interview Project https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/yout-201-ministry-interview-project/ YOUT 201 Ministry Interview Project Assignments This project is completed in two parts: the Ministry Interview Project Interview Abstract Assignment (minimum of at least 50 words) and the Ministry Interview Project Strategy Paper Assignment (minimum of at least 4 pages), based on two interviews as defined in the Interview Abstract, each in a separate module. The interviews may be done via a phone call, a video chat, or in person.

CEFS 502 Quiz 7 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cefs-502-quiz-7/ CEFS 502 Quiz 7 Late Adulthood 1. In late adulthood, ______ is required and entails the integration of selection, optimization, and compensation.

2. The absence of disease or disability does not encompass all dimensions of good health. The ______ defines good health as “a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being.”

3. In the United States, women over age 80 are the largest and oldest population within the late adulthood population.

4. Most counseling techniques, aids, and programs are designed for use with younger groups, covering a much shorter individual lifespan than that of the older adult.

5. How people function in the present is usually ______ how they performed in the past.

6. When counselor and client are able to closely match client’s activities with ______, the client’s life satisfaction most likely will improve.

7. involves identifying opportunities or domains of activity that are of greatest value or importance.

8. In recent years, studies have shown a significant decrease in the number of individuals in late adulthood that are staying healthier longer and are functioning well at more advanced ages.

9. Individuals, during their late adulthood, find that their goals ______, and they invest more energy into personal goal pursuits as competing roles and their demands decline.

10. is the capacity for new growth and can be strengthened through training.

11. Severe, progressive memory and intellectual decline is universally experienced toward the end of late adulthood.

12. Individuals in late adulthood who are more ______ in their goal striving focus on intimacy, affiliation, and contribution to the moral community.

13. Senility refers to loss of mental and emotional abilities, helplessness, confusion, and disorientation. It is also called dementia.

14. is the innate capacity of the individual, the relevant environmental characteristics, and the interaction between them.

15. An important way to help individuals in late adulthood manage anxiety about crises like COVID19 is to 16. Intraindividual difference refers to the ways that individuals differ from one another.

17. In the process of accepting one’s life, older adults who integrate their goals and their goal-related activities, typically experience a sense of 18. comprises all the mental and physical capabilities that a person can draw on, and includes their ability to think, see, hear, and remember.

19. Individuals currently in late adulthood experience a higher prevalence of depression and other mental disorders when compared to other cohorts.

20. Clear communication with individuals in late adulthood must be prioritized. Which of the following is one of Giordano’s (2000) principles for communicating with elderly clients while preserving their self-esteem?

CEFS 502 Quiz 6 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cefs-502-quiz-6/ CEFS 502 Quiz 6 Early and Middle Adulthood 1. ______ is a decline in the functioning of organs and systems that is influenced by genetics.

2. Studies indicate that children raised in households with cohabitating adults are more likely than children in two-parent, married households to 3. In early adulthood, many individuals are still in the ______ stage of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development.

4. According to Levinson, the ages of 17 to 45 encompass early adulthood, which he divides into the ______ phase and the culminating phase.

5. Schaie and Willis’s Stage Theory of Cognition places individuals in early adulthood in the stages of 6. According to Schaie and Willis’s theory of cognition, in early emerging adulthood, people typically switch their focus from acquisition of knowledge to 7. Lower-income individuals with limited education often do not have good health mainly due to their living conditions and habits.

8. The ______ stage of Schaie and Willis’s Stage Theory of Cognition occurs when a family is established, and the needs of spouse and offspring must be met.

9. Erikson argued that maintaining a firm sense of identity is a prerequisite to having successful intimate relationships.

10. In early adulthood, death rates due to disease are low, but the rate of violence-related deaths is high.

11. The center of Levinson’s theory is ______, which is described as the underlying pattern of a person’s life at any particular time.

12. describes the concern for establishing and guiding the next generation that many people experience in middle adulthood.

13. The social ladder takes into account a person’s place in multiple dimensions of socioeconomic status.

14. Selective optimization processes can enable the resilient middle-age adult to draw on social and psychological resources to compensate for biological decline.

15. Raul’s elderly mother requires significant care, but is reticient to relocate to a care facility. Her in home caregiver consistently calls Raul with urgent questions and updates while he is at work, as a salesperson. In the past week, Raul has lost two major clients because of their perceived lack of focus from Raul. Raul is experiencing 16. Which of the following is likely to exacerbate secondary aging?

17. Tamara has been an administrative assistant for five years. Despite exceling in her role and taking on the duties usually reserved for an executive assistant, Tamara has been repeatedly denied promotions and is seldom recognized for her efforts. Tamara, a Black trans woman, suspects that ______ may at play.

18. may be manifested by not acknowledging any positive contributions people make or are making in their place of employment or membership associations.

19. Counselors should enroll in ethnic studies courses so that they can master cultural responsiveness.

20. The anxieties of middle adulthood result largely from ______.

CEFS 502 Quiz 4 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cefs-502-quiz-4/ CEFS 502 Quiz 4 Middle Childhood 1. Specialized antibullying interventions in schools should focus primarily on fostering a positive ______.

2. Children who use ______ to achieve dominance are generally more liked by their peers.

3. When children living in poverty compare themselves to their middle school classmates, they become very susceptible to developing ______, which can trigger a downward spiral.

4. involves the child realizing that just because the shape or form of an object changes, does not mean the object appears or disappears.

5. Children develop conceptual skills such as conservation, classification, and computational skills during adolescence.

6. parents are highly demanding and use a high level of control in handling their children. They usually show little affection toward their children and have closed communication between one another.

7. Between the ages of ______, primary and secondary sex characteristics are forming.

8. Children as young as age 8 have been reported taking part in unhealthy dieting and eating behaviors.

9. Many of the changes occurring during middle childhood develop within the ______, which is the brain center responsible for attention, working memory, behavioral monitoring, self-regulation, reasoning, information processing, goal-setting, and inhibition.

10. Especially during traumatic events like the COVID-19 pandemic, counselors should share their anxiety with children in order to normalize these fears.

11. During the ______ stage of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, the social orientation or focus is on law and order.

12. Cognitive development is unlikely to be affected by a child’s socioeconomic status.

13. ______ can lead to academic anxiety and low intrinsic motivation.

14. Research suggests that bullying never occurs in intraracial environments.

15. How well children succeed at learning social rules and self-presentational strategies has a large impact on the development of 16. ______ equips children with the skills needed to practice self-monitoring or self-instruction techniques.

17. During middle childhood, thought processes develop into what Piaget classified as the ______ stage.

18. Addressing the psychological barriers to physical activity may be paramount in successful therapeutic treatment of obesity in children and adolescents.

19. ______ in children is now the number one health concern among parents in the United States.

20. Middle school children typically develop friendships with children who share similar interests and

CEFS 502 Quiz 2 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cefs-502-quiz-2/ 1. The ______ is one of the first visible structures in the developing fetus, and at birth it is developing neural paths for thriving babies.

2. The risk of miscarriage approaches 40% during the first trimester of pregnancy.

3. occurs when one or more of the essential nutrients is missing or when nutrients that are needed for healthy development are present in the expectant mother but in the wrong proportions.

4. When counseling a woman during pregnancy, one of the highlights of helping the mother to seek out prenatal care involves discussing breast feeding and umbilical cord options.

5. Which part of the brain controls motor movement coordination, balance, equilibrium, and muscle tone?

6. Certain medications have been found to cross the placenta and enter the baby’s bloodstream.

7. When counseling women during pregnancy, which of the following is an example of helping to understand “the story” of the pregnancy?

8. Hearing is the first sense that develops in a baby and is controlled by the part of the brain known as the 9. Risks associated with ______ during pregnancy include vaginal bleeding, miscarriage, low birth weight, and fetal injury.

10. It is not uncommon for a child encountering death to show disinterest.

11. Which of the following terms refers to the ability to observe and understand emotional cues of others and then use those cues to guide one’s behavior?

12. During the first few months of life, the sensory system seems to function at a higher level than the motor system.

13. Children with ______ are passive, need time to adjust to new situations, and withdraw or negatively react to new situations.

14. Children who are identified as ______ are fearful to explore the environment, which may lead to feelings of incompetence.

15. Studies show that securely attached children are likely to demonstrate ______.

16. The ______ reflex occurs in response to a loud noise or when a person nearby makes a sudden movement.

17. Which of the following has been found to be an effective sleep management technique?

18. Attachment parenting practices are associated with lower intelligence and poor academic performance.

19. Breast-fed babies have lower incidences of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) in the first year of life.

20. ______ refers to a child’s ability to recognize, express, and regulate his or her feelings.

CEFS 502 Quiz 1 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cefs-502-quiz-1/ CEFS 502 Quiz Foundations and Theories of Human Development 1. The ______ system consists of a group of organs that work together to perform certain tasks.

2. Which of the following ages corresponds to the developmental period of middle adulthood?

3. Which of the following areas of counselor education programs include study of theories of family and individuals as related to the transition across the lifespan?

4. Human growth and development is both multidimensional and 5. Baltes and Smith (2003) examine three influences on human development, including normative age-graded influence, normative history-graded influences, and 6. In the psychological component of the biopsychosocial model, issues such as ______ and ______ may result in physical and mental health problems during human development.

7. The ______ system aspect of the biopsychosocial model of development considers various factors such as socioeconomic status, family structure, and religion, as they contribute to healthy or unhealthy development.

8. Understanding the processes of human development in clients includes gaining a clear concept of which of the following?

9. studied the cognitive development of children as they think about the physical world.

10. Which of the following is a required or expected responsibility of counseling professionals in helping their clients through the therapeutic relationship?

11. The belief that human development is the result of interactions between people and their social environment most closely coincides with ______’s theory of development, indicating that development is inseparable from social and cultural life.

12. Which stage of cognitive development is marked by a child’s ability to employ logic, only with tangible objects and problems?

13. Which of the following is a strength of survey research?

14. Bandura’s model expanded the classical behavioral theory to include cognitive elements.

15. emphasized the importance of observational learning, but ______ suggested that behavior is the result of consequences experienced.

16. Erikson theorized that humans pass through eight stages of development, with each one presenting the individual with a unique developmental task or crisis.

17. ’s ______ model argued that behavior followed by a rewarding stimulus would be more likely to recur and endure than that followed by a punishing consequence.

18. A natural experiment is not considered a true experiment because the researcher is not able to manipulate or control the variables.

19. Piaget described the process of a person’s cognitive development through six distinct stages.

20. According to the psychosocial theory of development, during this stage the positive outcomes foster purpose and direction while negative outcomes encourage inhibition.

Set 2 1. is defined as the orderly and sequential changes that occur in an organism over time, from the beginning until the end of life.

2. the premier accreditation body of counselor education programs, requires their accredited programs to include at least one course in human growth and development.

3. believed the skill of listening requires role-taking important for both moral and psychological growth between the counselor and the client.

4. Human development is both multidimensional and multidirectional.

5. studied the cognitive development of children as they think about the physical world.

6. Which of the following ages corresponds to the developmental period of middle adulthood?