CRIS 305 Quiz Crises of Suicidality https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cris-305-quiz-crises-of-suicidality/ CRIS 305 Quiz Crises of Suicidality 1. Seung-Hui Cho’s egoistic murder/suicidal rampage at Virginia Tech is characteristically marked with unendurable psyche ache. 2. Sometimes crisis workers are devastated and vulnerable to permanent emotional wounds whenever they wrongly believe that they could have or should have prevented a suicide or homicide. The procedures that appropriately counters the guilt, grief, and loss and help crisis workers begin to heal and return to their own previous level of equilibrium and normalcy are: 3. The impact of having failed to save a person who was a client, or the victim of the client, can be overwhelming and can cause the crisis worker to experience what is called: 4. Almost all suicidal persons reveal: 5. Whenever a suicidal person, who is not previously known by the crisis worker, is emotionally overwhelmed and immobile, one effective way to break through that immobility is to: 6. All of the following statements about statistics on suicide are true, except: 7. Each suicide is idiosyncratic, and there are no absolute or universal characteristics which portray all suicides. 8. People with strong death wishes are invariably: 9. Discussing suicide with a client will usually cause the person to move toward doing it. 10. One of the very first things the CIT officer does to get Deborah off the bridge is to simply tell her in a kind but authoritative voice to climb down. 11. Many times the suicidal person is also homicidal. 12. There is essentially no difference country by country in the number of people per capita that commit suicide. 13. Considering the myth that when a person has attempted suicide and pulls out of it the danger is over, a crisis worker should remember that if such a client seemed unusually serene and nonlethal toward self: 14. IS PATH WARM is: 15. Which one of the following is not listed as a myth about suicide? 16. Which one of the following indicators should not be considered high-risk in terms of suicide potential? 17. A postvention method of helping people to either gain a better understanding of why a suicide happened or to feel less guilt and responsibility for the deceased’s death is: 18. Which of the following is not a category of assessment dynamics which is of concern to workers who deal with suicidal clients? 19. On a worldwide basis, about a million people kill themselves each year. 20. In an assisted suicide, someone else provides the means (lethal agent) but the person who is dying administers it. In euthanasia:
PSYC 575 Quiz Human Memory https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-575-quiz-human-memory/ PSYC 575 Quiz: Human Memory: Retention and Retrieval, Problem Solving, and Expertise Covers the Learn material from Module 5: Week 5 — Module 6: Week 6. 1. Neuroimaging studies suggest that implicit memories are stored in the: 2. Huntington’s disease is characterized by: 3. In a typical interference experiment, which group performs the POOREST? 4. In Reder and Ross’s (1983) experiment, they found that, in the plausible retrieval condition, participants’ response times: 5. The hippocampus: 6. Knowing what a chair is would be considered an example of _____ memory. 7. Wixted, Mickes, and Fisher (2018) argue that care should be taken to preserve memories, just as major precautions need to be taken not to contaminate: 8. Procedural memory is another type of _____ memory. 9. New explicit memories are: 10. Godden and Baddeley (1975) found that participants recalled: 11. Time needed to recognize a concept will increase if the number of its associated items increases. This is the: 12. Some adults who remember instances of sexual abuse from their childhood may be mistaken about the accuracy of their memory. This is known as: 13. Wickelgren’s measure of memory strength is known as: 14. When solving a problem, the problem solver is engaged in a: 15. How did Sarah, Premack’s chimpanzee, perform on analogy-solving tasks? 16. The BEST explanation for incubation effects relates them to: 17. Novel tool building is an instance of: 18. Humans tend to select the operator that MOST reduces the difference between the current state and the goal. This is referred to as: 19. Which of the following is NOT a way to acquire new problem-solving operators? 20. The Tower of Hanoi problem is solved by adopting a _____ strategy. 21. According to Daw and colleagues (2005), one basis for learning operators involves the _____, where simple associations are gradually reinforced. 22. refers to an action that will transform the problem state into another problem state. 23. According to Halford (1992), what is the hallmark of human cognition? 24. People have trouble solving a problem at points where the correct solution involves increasing the difference between the current state and the: 25. When Gick and Holyoak (1980) read participants the story about the general and the dictator, and then gave them Duncker’s (1945) ray problem, what did they find was essential for participants to achieve success? 26. What kind of problem did Whitaker, Vendetti, Wendelken, and Bunge (2018) ask their research participants when presenting them with visual stimuli such as “dress is to closet as milk carton is to what”? 27. Private human tutoring is: 28. Experts seem to display a special enhanced memory for: 29. Performance of a cognitive skill improves as a power function of: 30. In the _____ stage of skill acquisition, connections among the elements required for successful performance are strengthened. 31. By providing feedback on learning, intelligent tutors: 32. Chris can type quickly, without looking at the keyboard. He is in the _____ stage. 33. Neil is an expert in physics. When solving problems, Neil can apply approaches successful in:
34. According to the _____, the transfer of skills will span domains that have no content in common. 35. According to Hayes (1985), no one reaches genius level without at least _____ years of practice. 36. Which area of the brain is involved in representing a problem internally? 37. The process by which people switch from explicit use of declarative knowledge to direct application of procedural knowledge that enables them to perform a task without thinking about it is known as: 38. After Chris learns the locations of the keyboard keys, he learns to use the Shift and Control keys. He is in the _____ stage. 39. According to the _____, studying esoteric subjects serves to discipline the mind. 40. The process of converting declarative knowledge into procedural knowledge is called:
PSYC 575 Quiz Perception https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-575-quiz-perception/ PSYC 575 Quiz: Perception, Attention & Performance, and Mental Imagery 1. According to _____, psychologists should NOT try to analyze the working of the mind. 2. Billy and Mac were in a car accident. Oddly, Billy suffered damage to Broca’s area, while Mac suffered damage to Wernicke’s area. As a result: 3. relies on the fact that there is more oxygenated hemoglobin in regions of greater neural activity. 4. Cells of the nervous system communicate by releasing chemicals called: 5. Cognitive science does NOT integrate research efforts from which field? 6. Transcranial magnetic stimulation is used to: 7. The text recommends the PQ4R study technique for better retention of material, where the acronym PQ4R means: 8. An axon’s _____ of firing determine(s) how it will affect nearby cells to which it synapses. 9. _____ records the electrical potentials that are present on the scalp. 10. Brodmann (1909/1960) identified _____ distinct regions of the human cortex based on differences in the cell types in various regions. 11. When we listen to a foreign language, the flow of speech sounds like a continuous stream. This illustrates: 12. The optic chiasma is a point where the: 13. According to _____, patterns are recognized by the combination of their elemental features. 14. Some sounds are produced by closing the lips, while other sounds are produced by pressing the tongue against the teeth. These are differences in the: 15. Segments of the primary visual cortex, hypercolumns, represent: 16. The analysis by synthesis theory of categorical perception of speech asserts that: 17. The fovea is a spot in the retina where: 18. The notion of template matching in pattern recognition can be likened to: 19. Voice-onset time refers to: 20. With regards to speech perception, the McGurk effect illustrates: 21. Studies of visual neglect provide evidence for: 22. Which statement concerning divided-attention (e.g., shadowing) experiments is NOT true? 23. The points at which it is no longer possible to continue processing all information in parallel are referred to as: 24. Patients with parietal lobe injury generally have difficulty disengaging attention from visual information: 25. When visual stimuli are presented off the foveal fixation point, subjects: 26. In studies of dichotic listening, psychologists have found that the subjects could: 27. Danny is replicating the attenuation theory in the laboratory. If this theory is to be proven correct, what part of the brain should show an enhancement in processing after stimulus onset? 28. What is the term used by cognitive psychologists studying perception to describe the difficulty of how the brain puts together various features in the visual field? 29. Taylor has misplaced her keys and is finding it problematic to look for them in areas she has already searched. What is this difficulty in returning her attention to already searched areas known as? 30. Some evidence for object-based attention involves the phenomenon of: 31. Kozhevnikov, Blazhenkova, and Becker (2010) found that students specializing in science tend to score _____ on object visualization and _____ on spatial visualization. 32. Roland and Friberg’s study showed that: 33. When Stevens and Coupe (1978) presented congruent or incongruent maps to people and asked them to make judgments about the location of cities, they found that:
34. Which brain structure has been strongly implicated in the ability to navigate through the environment using a map? 35. A mental experience that does NOT have any functional role in information processing is referred to as a(n): 36. Santa presented an array of three words arranged in a spatial configuration and then tested subjects with either a spatial configuration or a linear arrangement of the words. The results showed that: 37. What area of Kitty’s brain is stimulated as she tries to recognize the faces of her childhood friends? 38. Santa presented an array of three geometric objects and then tested subjects with either the same configuration or a linear rearrangement of the objects. The results showed that: 39. When asked to estimate the size of two animals, subjects generally: 40. With regard to navigation, cognitive psychologists differentiate between representing space as we see it (_____ representation) and representing space free of any particular viewpoint (_____ representation).
PSYC 575 Quiz Reasoning https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-575-quiz-reasoning/ PSYC 575 Quiz: Reasoning, Decision Making, and Language Structure & Comprehension 1. Which region of Anne’s brain will be activated as she sees some inconsistent evidence of a research study she participated in? 2. If you eat uncooked food, then you will become sick. 3. Craig and Delia are married. Delia is the mother of Jane. That Delia is older than Jane is a(n) _____ inference. 4. What type of reasoning processes are slow and deliberate and make heavy demands on working memory? 5. People show high levels of logical reasoning with: 6. reasoning is concerned with conclusions that probabilistically follow from the premises. 7. Based on what you know of the atmosphere hypothesis and given the following premises, which conclusion should participants select? 8. Training in logic _____ in better performance on the original Wason card- selection task. 9. When judging meaningful content, _____ regions of the brain are active. 10. Based on what you know of the atmosphere hypothesis and given the following premises, which conclusion should participants select? 11. Greene et al. (2001) found that the _____ is activated when one considers an impersonal dilemma. 12. Which statement is NOT true of Gluck and Bower’s (1988) study on Bayesian behavior? 13. The medial portion of the anterior prefrontal region is important to: 14. Evidence suggests that individuals rely on: 15. You are the mayor of a city. You have received word of an imminent attack that has the potential to destroy the entire town. Your best architect builds a shelter, but he cannot gather enough supplies. He tells you that the shelter cannot accommodate 600 of the town’s 800 citizens. However, if you allow all 800 citizens into the shelter, there is a one-fourth probability that nobody will die, but a three-fourths probability that the supplies will run out and everyone will die. You decide to hold an emergency town meeting to have the townspeople vote on what to do. Based on what you know about framing effects, how should they vote? 16. You are the mayor of a city. You have received word of an imminent attack that has the potential to destroy the entire town. Your best architect builds a shelter, but he cannot gather enough supplies. He tells you that the shelter can safely accommodate 200 of the town’s 800 citizens. If you allow all 800 citizens into the shelter, there is a one-fourth probability that all will be saved, but a three-fourths probability that the supplies will run out and no one will be saved. You decide to hold an emergency town meeting to have the townspeople vote on what to do. Based on what you know about framing effects, how will they vote? 17. _____ have the dopamine reward system described in the text. 18. In the Iowa gambling task, participants with ventromedial prefrontal cortex damage: 19. The probability of a reward is represented in the activity of the: 20. A(n) _____ probability is the probability that a hypothesis is true before consideration of the evidence. 21. When speakers correct themselves, they tend to correct: 22. The application of linguistic knowledge in speaking or listening is referred to as linguistic: 23. ambiguities arise when an entire phase or sentence has two or more meanings. 24. The sentence “He is very interested in cranes” is an example of a _____ ambiguity. 25. Wernicke’s area is located in the _____ region of the brain. 26. All the possible sentences in any language are constructed from a _____ number of components. 27. Broca’s area is located in the _____ region of the brain.
28. Children might use the word dog to refer to any furry four-legged animal. This is an example of: 29. By the age of 5.5, Kanzi’s comprehension of spoken English was equivalent to that of a _____year-old human. 30. How many hours may a 6-year-old have spent in the language-acquisition process? 31. The meaning of a sentence is defined in terms of the _____ structure. 32. Given “The splinter was removed quickly. Shelly’s mom used new tweezers,” the sentence “Shelly’s mom removed the splinter” is an example of a(n): 33. The sentence “The bass is a dull gray” is an example of a _____ ambiguity. 34. According to the principle of immediacy of interpretation, we immediately interpret _____ as we encounter them. 35. The _____ is an indicant of difficulty in syntactic processing as recorded in event-related potentials (ERPs) from the brain. 36. A participant reads “Lena clapped the kitten to Vick.” The researcher should expect to see _____ recorded in event-related potentials (ERPs) from the brain. 37. Individuals often need extra time at a _____ boundary to complete semantic processing. 38. A participant reads “Lena gave the kitten Vick.” The researcher should expect to see _____ recorded in event-related potentials (ERPs) from the brain. 39. Loftus and Zanni (1975) had participants watch a film of an automobile accident. They found that participants were more likely to report a broken headlight when asked: 40. Which of the following is NOT a base for resolving the reference of pronouns, as noted by Just and Carpenter (1987)?
PSYC 575 Quiz Representation of Knowledge https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-575-quiz-representation-of-knowledge/ PSYC 575 Quiz: Representation of Knowledge and Human Memory: Encoding & Storage 1. When Shepard compared subjects’ memory for sentences versus memory for pictures, he found that the subjects: 2. What regions of Andy’s brain are activated as Andy processes verbal and visual information? 3. Exemplar theories hold that we store: 4. Suppose you went to a university workshop on how to apply for financial aid and were given a short set of explicit instructions at the end. After handing out aid forms, the instructor then asked you to report how much of the verbatim instructions you recall. Which statement indicates what you probably would recall from the instructions? 5. Which statement is NOT true of propositions? 6. Although an ostrich cannot fly, we still recognize it as a bird. This illustrates the fact that schemas: 7. Suppose you were shown a picture from the scene of an accident you had witnessed several days earlier. Your memory for the scene would probably: 8. Which concept is NOT an example of a schema? 9. When subjects were asked to recall pictures where the vertical orientation was reversed, they: 10. Mirror neurons in a monkey become active: 11. Which statement is evidence for propositional representations in complex sentences? 12. emphasizes the contribution of motor action and how it connects us to the environment. 13. The major portion of memory for events probably works by: 14. In Wanner’s study of warned subjects versus unwarned subjects, the: 15. Scripts are schemas that encode: 16. Prototype theories hold that we store: 17. The _____ prefrontal region is involved in processing visual information. 18. Converting the syllable DAX to Dad is an example of: 19. Which statement is FALSE? 20. You are invited to a wedding. Script theory predicts that you will: 21. When studying for your cognitive psychology test, you go over an important term in your notes and make up an example for that term. Which concept BEST explains why making up the examples will help you remember the terms? 22. Evidence for the role of the brain in working memory comes from studies that show: 23. What determines the amount of material remembered? 24. In Atkinson and Shiffrin’s view of memory: 25. Chris and Danielle are participating in a memory study. Both are given identical word lists and are asked to count the number of vowels in each word. However, only Chris is told that there will be a memory test later. When the memory test is given, who will perform better? 26. Which was NOT an assumption of the classical short-term memory theory espoused by Atkinson and Shiffrin? 27. In Baddeley’s theory of working memory, which systems are “slaves” of the central executive system? 28. If you were asked to recall a five-item list of two-syllable words and then a five-item list of fivesyllable words, what would be the likely outcome? 29. The notion of long-term potentiation (LTP) is that: 30. Kris wants to score well on an upcoming exam. What should Kris’s study strategy be to achieve high scores? 31. The _____ structures of the brain are involved in the retrieval of memories. 32. _____ refer(s) to a mnemonic technique that relies on spatial relationships. 33. In Goldman-Rakic’s work with monkeys, she suggests that:
34. Conway et al. studied memory for Margaret Thatcher’s resignation as prime minister of the United Kingdom. They found that: 35. Which of the following cognitive psychologists gave the theory of short-term memory its most systematic development? 36. Participants in the Meyer and Schvaneveldt study were faster at making judgments about negative word pairs, such as: 37. What is the role of the central executive in working memory? 38. The _____ structures of the brain are involved in the permanent storage of memories. 39. Which is NOT a component of Baddeley’s working memory model? 40. Imagine meeting someone at a party who you really want to see again. You get his phone number, but with no paper and pencil to write it down, you convert it to the abbreviation CALL HIM. The strength of the memory trace will be much stronger because you have used:
PSYC 775 Quiz 2 Developing in Teaching https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-775-quiz-2-developing-in-teaching/ PSYC 775 Quiz 2: Developing in Teaching Psychology Covers the Learn material from Modules 5-8: Weeks 5-8 1. Katsopolis uses rubrics to grade his students’ essay tests. He is using the _______ method of grading. 2. According to your textbook, if you want students to study the widest range of course content, you should allow them to choose a subset of items to answer on an essay test. 3. According to information in your textbook, what is the correct ordering of the following written assignments from longest to shortest length requirement? 4. According to your textbook authors, you should always print exams on colored paper. 5. According to your textbook, when considering the timing for your tests, you should allow students ______ minute(s) to answer for each multiple-choice item. 6. According to your textbook, a _______ is a tool that can be used to analyze how well a test covers course concepts and at what cognitive skill level. 7. According to your textbook, assessment is similar to _______ feedback and evaluation is similar to _______ feedback. 8. According to your textbook, you should avoid the tendency to place the correct answer to multiple-choice questions in the: 9. According to Greenberg’s (2015) study, students’ use of a rubric when completing an assignment resulted in which of the following: 10. What does your textbook recommend regarding the use of implausible or ridiculous answer choices for multiple-choice questions? 11. The federal law that protects the privacy of a student’s educational records is referred to as: 12. According to your textbook, which of the following was NOT discussed as a way to increase the intrinsic value of your course: 13. According to your textbook, which of the following practices is LEAST likely to motivate students in an online course? 14. According to your textbook, the process of creating emotional connections with students is referred to as: 15. Which of the following would be the LEAST effective way to foster inclusiveness in your classroom? 16. According to your textbook, if you personally disagree with a theory in your field, ethically you should: 17. According to your textbook, the ethical principle of Effective Pedagogy means that: 18. Which of the following methods to increase attendance would your textbook authors be LEAST likely to suggest: 19. According to your textbook, it is considered ethical for you to completely omit from your course any information/theories that you do not personally agree with. 20. The take-home message from Bailey et al.’s (2016) study is that when professors adhere to policies, students may have a _______ emotional reaction while also perceiving policy adherence as _______. 21. According to your textbook, all of the following would be effective ways to prevent classroom incivilities EXCEPT: 22. According to your textbook, students who frequently disagree with everything you say in class are always high-achieving students. 23. According to your textbook, most research shows that the majority of students report participating in some form of academic dishonesty in the past.
24. When a student writes a paper for one class, (s)he is free to submit that paper in future courses for credit without prior approval since it is the student’s own work. 25. Eric really needs to pass the last test of the semester, so he tells his professor that he will give him $100 to assign a passing grade. Eric has participated in: 26. According to your textbook, most students would prefer that their professor ignore instances of classroom incivilities. 27. Results obtained by Weger (2018) suggested that active empathic listening was negatively related to _______. 28. According to results obtained by Landau et al. (2002), students improved their ability to detect plagiarism in all of the following conditions EXCEPT: 29. According to research cited by Weger (2018), active empathic listening is made up of three components. Which of the following is NOT one of these components? 30. According to your textbook authors, if you catch a student cheating on a test, you should still allow them to finish the test. 31. Which of the following would be the LEAST effective way to collect formative feedback from students? 32. Your textbook states that most psychology faculty are expected to engage in at least two of three academic activities. Which of the following is NOT included in this list of activities: 33. According to your textbook, adding technology to your classroom always increases student learning. 34. Which of the following is NOT a recommended best practice when creating presentation slides? 35. Boudreaux gives rambling answers to student questions, requests that his students e-mail him rather than visit office hours, meticulously plans lectures, and is overly permissive with students. According to your textbook, these behaviors most likely indicate that Prof. Boudreaux has 36. According to your textbook, the interrater reliability of students’ evaluations of their professors is generally poor in large classes. 37. According to your textbook, you should limit the amount of technology you use in the classroom. 38. According to your textbook, most universities will require you to conduct and publish research as a faculty member. 39. According to your textbook, to combat the myth that all students are lazy, you should: 40. According to your textbook, all of the following are benefits of clicker systems EXCEPT:
PSYC 775 Quiz 1 Introduction https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-775-quiz-1-introduction/ PSYC 775 Quiz: Introduction to Teaching Psychology Covers the Learn material from Modules 1-4: Weeks 1-4 1. According to the list of Principles of Effective Teaching in your textbook, to maintain boundaries the contact between students and faculty should be limited and engaged in only when necessary. 2. According to your textbook, enrollment in online education has: 3. According to results obtained by Keeley et al. (2016), the teacher behavior rated as MOST important by participants (i.e., excellent teachers) was: 4. According to results obtained by Carraway & Burris (2016), which of the following was NOT one of the themes that emerged from their analysis of teaching philosophies? 5. When Caroline does not perform well on a test, she becomes overly upset with herself. She believes she just isn’t smart enough and never will be. Caroline demonstrates a(n) _______ orientation. 6. According to results obtained by Keeley et al. (2016), excellent teachers equally value all aspects of excellent teaching. 7. According to your textbook, if you are typically a more reserved person it is better to force yourself to be humorous and entertaining in class rather than be your authentic self. 8. According to the list of Principles of Effective Teaching in your textbook, it is best to have _______ expectations of _______ students. 9. According to your textbook, the vast majority of students will graduate college within 4 years. 10. According to Keeley et al. (2016), one difference in the value placed on aspects of teaching between cultures is that students from Eastern cultures prefer: 11. According to Richmond et al. (2019), a learner-centered syllabus would: 12. According to your textbook, educational researchers generally prefer using a _______ grading system. 13. According to your textbook, dressing professionally on the first day of class is especially important for all of the following groups EXCEPT: 14. According to your textbook, the ________ purpose of the syllabus means that it can be used to present the organization of your course. 15. According to your textbook, which of the following is NOT one of the “golden rules of grading?” 16. According to your textbook, grades that are assigned using a planned distribution are called _______. 17. According to your textbook, existing grading systems need to be significantly adapted for online courses. 18. The textbook authors recommend that you wait to start teaching course content until the second class meeting. 19. According to your textbook, the syllabus for an online course should be very detailed. 20. The textbook authors recommend that the instructor take charge of creating student groups for assigned group work. 21. In a _______ classroom, lectures are presented online to be viewed before students come to class. 22. As discussed by James et al. (2015), _______ questions are narrow in scope with an anticipated response. 23. According to your textbook, which of the following would be the LEAST effective way to reengage students during a lecture? 24. According to your textbook, the ideal amount of time you should wait for a response after asking a question to the class is:
25. According to your textbook, the goal of the _______ lecturing style is to engage and motivate the audience. 26. According to your textbook, when scanning the room during a lecture it is better to look only at those students who are also looking back at you with interest. 27. According to James et al. (2015), when Jesus used narratives/analogies, He often began with the familiar before introducing an unexpected contrast or contradiction. 28. According to James et al. (2015), which of the following was NOT discussed as a teaching method used by Jesus? 29. According to James et al. (2015), Jesus’ use of timing in His teachings was notable in that He would often create cognitive or physical dissonance before delivering His message. 30. According to James et al. (2015), of all the teaching methods documented in the gospels, Jesus most often used: 31. According to your textbook, to increase the success of student work groups during class, you should do all of the following while your students are working EXCEPT: 32. Which of the following was the MOST frequently used teaching strategy in Tomcho et al.’s (2008) review? 33. Which of the following was the LEAST frequently used teaching strategy in Tomcho et al.’s (2008) review? 34. According to your textbook, engagement is measured by a student’s attitude about a course. 35. According to van Gelder (2005), which of the following is NOT true of belief preservation? 36. According to van Gelder (2005), which of the following is true about critical thinking: 37. According to your textbook, a _______ exercise is a version of small-group work that requires each member of a group to gather and present information needed by the whole group to reach a goal. 38. When assigning student presentations, your textbook recommends providing students with a rubric to help guide their work. 39. Buffay requires her students to engage in a community service opportunity that relates to course content. She is using _______ in her course. 40. According to van Gelder (2005), the best way for students to improve critical thinking skills is to:
PSYC 810 Quiz 8 Validation https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-810-quiz-8-validation/ PSYC 810 Quiz 8: Validation, Evaluation and Conclusion 1. Covers the Textbook material from Module 8: Week 8. 2. Which of the following does Denzin (2001) identify as a standard for judging the quality of a humanistic biography? 3. Creswell and Poth’s criteria for an ethnographic study includes all of the following except: 4. Turning Asmussen and Creswell’s (1995) case study to an ethnography would involve: 5. How do Creswell and Poth describe the presence of the researcher in grounded theory reports? 6. Turning Asmussen and Creswell’s (1995) case study to a narrative study would involve which of the following? 7. In regard to phenomenology, Polkinghorne (1989) poses which question that researchers might ask themselves? 8. Creswell and Poth suggest that turning Asmussen and Creswell’s (1995) case study to an ethnography would depend on which of the following types of data collection? 9. Linda asks for recommendations to ensure intercoder agreement for her study. Based on Creswell and Poth’s recommendation, what would you suggest as her first procedure? 10. Which of the following approaches typically involves studying one or two individuals? 11. Of the five approaches, which are the least structured? 12. Assume you are conducting a case study, which of the following questions might you ask based on Creswell and Poth’s criteria? 13. Intercoder agreement checks could seek agreement on which of the following? 14. Which of the following validation strategies uses multiple and different sources? 15. According to Creswell and Poth, the three components of qualitative research are: 16. In a narrative study, which of the following could be used to organize personal, social, and interactional components of a story? 17. Which of the following validation strategies might you use to apply the researcher’s lens? 18. To establish the trustworthiness of a study, Lincoln and Guba (1985) used which of the following terms? 19. Maggie wants to collaborate with participants as a validation strategy. How might she involve participants in a way that best embodies this strategy? 20. The phenomenological report is written to convey: 21. Charmaz (2014) suggests that grounded theorists ask themselves which of the following questions? 22. Turning Asmussen and Creswell’s (1995) case study to a grounded theory would involve: 23. Creswell and Poth’s guiding aspects for a good narrative study asks whether the study: 24. Creswell and Poth include each of the following validation strategies EXCEPT: 25. Creswell and Poth recommends presenting a grounded theory that includes: 26. Turning Asmussen and Creswell (1995) to an ethnography might ask:
PSYC 810 Quiz 7 Writing a Qualitative Study https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-810-quiz-7-writing-a-qualitative-study/ PSYC 810 Quiz 7: Writing a Qualitative Study Covers the Textbook material from Module 7: Week 7 1. Weis and Fine (2000) posit that responsible writing considers which of the following questions? 2. When a biographer begins with a key event in the life of a participant, and then works forward and backward from and to the event, which of the following methods are they using? 3. Which of the following purposes does a logic diagram involve? 4. Which type of quote did Richardson (1990) assert is difficult to use? 5. For reporting a phenomenological study, Moustakas (1994) recommends including: 6. Yin’s (2014) possible structures for composing a case study report include which of the following? 7. Jane has conducted a grounded theory study of the process for making medical decisions about cancer treatment. What is the best end point of her report? 8. A “key event,” described by Denzin (2001) as an interactional moment and experience that marks people’s lives, is called a(an): 9. Tropes are an ethnographic writing structure. 10. If you have to use a paragraph-long quotation, Creswell and Poth recommend that you: 11. A funnel approach is a phenomenological writing structure. 12. Case study reports involve a standard format. 13. Creswell and Poth recommend using which of the following strategies when writing qualitative research regardless of approach? 14. Tierney (1995) identifies which of the following potential audiences: 15. Elizabeth conducted a qualitative study about children who were adopted from India. To address reflexivity, she included a section about her experience adopting a child. Which of the following elements are most important to include in her statement? 16. The progressive-regressive method involves: 17. Reflexivity relates to: 18. Writing reflects the writer’s own interpretation. 19. For which term does Creswell and Poth give the following description: “A good literary study in which the writing becomes ‘real’ and ‘alive,’ writing that transports the reader directly into the world of the study”? 20. Which of the following does a confessional tale accomplish? 21. According to Creswell and Poth, how might writing affect the participants: 22. You have read a qualitative study about disadvantaged children living in a township in South Africa. Which of the following aspects of reflexivity should the author consider most? 23. Examples of rhetorical devices that ethnographers may embed in their studies include: 24. Qualitative authors should claim universal knowledge. 25. According to Creswell and Poth, which of the following narrative elements did Chan (2010) use?
PSYC 645 Treatment Evaluation Powerpoint https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-645-treatment-evaluation-powerpoint/ PSYC 645 Treatment Evaluation Presentation Assignment The student will create a 5–7-minute PowerPoint or Prezi presentation that summarizes and evaluates at least 3 different types of intervention strategies for 1 of the disorders of childhood or adolescence discussed in the course’s required textbooks. Additionally, students will discuss at least 1 biblicallybased intervention. The student must integrate course content, current research, and Scripture into his/her presentation, utilizing the textbook, at least 1 scriptural citation, and at least 3 additional peerreviewed, primary, scholarly sources. The presentation will be graded based on its content, narration, aesthetics, and adherence to current APA formatting guidelines.
PSYC 645 Quiz Eating Disorders https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-645-quiz-eating-disorders/ PSYC 645 Quiz: Eating Disorders 1. One of the main goals of cognitive behavioral therapy for eating disorders (CBT-E) is to 2. Characteristics of avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder include all of the following EXCEPT: 3. The most successful intervention programs for adolescents with eating disorders: 4. It is not unusual for a child to be first diagnosed with anorexia nervosa at age 12 and then bulimia nervosa at age 18. This is known as: 5. Children growing up in third world countries are less likely to develop eating disorders. One of the factors related to this decreased risk is a result of which of the following? 6. Which of the following sociocultural factors is the best predictor for development of an eating disorder? 7. Who of the following is most likely to experience body dissatisfaction? 8. Which of the following is an example of a common compensatory behavior observed with a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa? 9. The best age at which to focus preventative measures for eating disorders is 10. For the last 6 months, about twice a week, David binge-eats an excessive amount of food right before going to bed even though he is not hungry. When eating, David experiences a feeling of lack of control over what he is doing, and then he feels guilty and embarrassed about what he has done. David doesn’t engage in any compensatory behaviors and he doesn’t experience much concern about his body weight or shape. The best diagnosis for David is: 11. Renee has been restricting her food consumption for over 10 years and was recently hospitalized for the third time in 6 months for severe dehydration and related heart conditions. Given this pattern Renee is at higher than average risk for which of the following? 12. Insa was diagnosed with anorexia nervosa when she was 13 years old. Based on this diagnosis, Insa is at higher risk for which of the following as an older adolescent? 13. According to Sherwood and Neumark-Sztainer (2001), the media’s influence on body image is: 14. Child factors associated with the development of eating disorders include which of the following? 15. Brooke has been involved in ballet since she was 4 years old, has always earned straight As at school, plays two musical instruments in a competitive youth orchestra, and recently graduated 1st in her class at Harvard. Despite these accomplishments Brooke continues to push herself to set higher goals for herself and fears possible failure in these goals. Brooke’s pattern of behaviors may put her at risk for the development of an eating disorder related to which of the following? 16. The emergence of eating disorders…. 17. Though not official diagnostic criteria of the eating disorders, which of the following symptoms often are present in people diagnosed with eating disorders? 18. According to recent studies the strongest predictor for body dissatisfaction for 4th – 6th grade children is 19. Which of the following statements best captures the current view on the role of families in the development of eating disorders? 20. Kylie has 35 dolls—all blond and thin. She looks at her own thighs that touch at the top and then marvels at the thigh gap on the dolls. Kylie thinks, “I bet if I stop eating cupcakes, I’ll look as good in high heels as my doll does in hers.” This is an example of which of the following? 21. In-patient treatment for anorexia nervosa typically focuses initially on which of the following? 22. Why are group interventions for eating disorders sometimes ineffective? 23. The authors of the text would most likely agree with which of the following statements regarding the development of body image? 24. One’s perception of his/her physical appearance is referred to as ___________; while one’s degree of pleasure (or displeasure) with his/her physical appearance is referred to as
25. One of the primary differences between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is:
PSYC 645 Quiz 7 Internalizing Disorders https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-645-quiz-7-internalizing-disorders/ PSYC 645 Quiz 7: Internalizing Disorders Covers the Learn material from Module 7: Week 7 1. Schwiesow, a clinical psychologist, is utilizing cognitive- behavioral therapy with a young client diagnosed with OCD. As a part of this therapy, she is encouraging her patient to spend time in a bathroom without washing her hands. This is most likely which part of CBT? 2. In order to better understand the prevalence of anxiety disorders, researchers should consider which of the following factors? 3. Six-year-old Hayley is afraid of being alone at night, doesn’t like to be separated from her parents for long periods of time, hates thunder storms, and is afraid of witches who are “out to get her.” What should Hayley’s parents know about Hayley’s fears? 4. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the use of medication to treat anxiety disorders? 5. One of the concerns associated with treating a child with frequent somatic symptoms that are psychologically based is that over time the child may 6. A child who experiences hypervigilance with a tendency to associate normal body sensations to something dangerous might be described as exhibiting which of the following? 7. A child who is afraid of dogs, goes out of their way to avoid dogs in the neighborhood, and avoids looking at pictures of dogs in books may be developing which of the following? 8. Isabella thinks a lot about what would happen to her if her parents were to die in a car accident. This is an example of what type of anxiety? 9. Young Angela frequently thinks about her baby brother’s well being and believes she see him falling down the basement stairs which causes her to feel very anxious. Angela’s anxiety could be described as which of the following? 10. Pedro is being taught to think about his panic attacks as temporary and events over which he has control. This is an example of which therapeutic technique? 11. Symptom dimensions associated with OCD include all of the following EXCEPT: 12. One of the important tasks of assessment and diagnosis of an anxiety disorder is to determine whether symptoms reflect which type of adjustment? 13. The tripartite model of anxiety and depression includes all of the following concepts EXCEPT: 14. Tyler reports to the school psychologist that he has visions that he is a super power who spends his evenings protecting his pack from alien invaders. This symptom is referred to as 15. Children who were exposed to maternal depression before the age of 12 have been shown to be at greater risk of developing depression in adolescence. This is based on a series of events related to self-worth, family environment and stressful events and is known as the _____ model of depression. 16. Suicidality is an overarching term that includes all of the following EXCEPT: 17. Research would support the fact that children who are diagnosed with a mood disorder are: 18. The “window of opportunity” for adolescents who are at risk for developing substance use and abuse as a result of major depression indicates that: 19. When considering a diagnosis of a depressive disorder, clinicians must consider all EXCEPT which of the following dimensions related to symptoms? 20. Williams is lecturing to his psychology class about bipolar disorder in children. Which of these points is he most likely to include in his lecture? 21. Mendez treats children with mood disorders. If she wants to choose the most effective treatment, she is likely to use which type of treatment? 22. Which of the following is the correct progression from least to most severe with respect to symptoms and impairment?
23. Which of the following disorders has been replaced by persistent depressive disorder? 24. Which of the following trajectories has been found to more common in girls? 25. Aedan is a 9-year-old who displays frequent temper tantrums lasting up to two hours, results in him breaking his toys, and frequently prevents him from going to school. Which of the following statements is most likely true about Aedan?