PSYC 815 Quiz Bivariate and Multivariate https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-815-quiz-bivariate-and-multivariate/ PSYC 815 Quiz: Bivariate and Multivariate Correlation/Multiple Regression Covers the Textbook material from Module 8: Week 8. 1. The three predictor (or independent) variables are operationally defined as scores on the Indentifying Own Emotions, Expressing Emotions Adaptively, and Managing Others’ Emotions scales of the Emotional Judgment Inventory (EJI) How do you interpret the scores on the scales? 2. The dependent (outcome) variable counselor self-efficacy is operationally defined by scores on the Counseling Self-Estimate Inventory (COSE). How do you interpret the scores on the scale? 3. What was the Actual Power and the Total sample size needed from the a priori power analysis using G*Power? 4. Does the a priori power analysis suggest that we should proceed with the study? 5. What was the highest Mahalanobis value and what was the Χ2 critical value for 3 df at the .001 probability level using the Chi Square Distribution at DanielSoper.com? 6. Is there a problem with multivariate outliers? 7. Identify the bivariate correlations (in Correlations Table) of the 3 predictors correlations to the dependent variable. 8. Do the bivariate correlations to the dependent variable suggest that there may be a worthwhile multiple regression model? 9. Identify the bivariate correlations (in Correlations Table) between the predictor variables. 10. Do the bivariate correlations between the predictor variables suggest that there may be redundancy among the predictor variables? 11. Identify the tolerance values to check for multicollinearity in the Coefficients table of Model 3. 12. Do we have a problem with multicollinearity that shows that the predictors are measuring the same thing? 13. Looking at the histogram of standardized residuals was the assumption of normality met? 14. Looking at the P-P plot of standardized residuals was the assumption of normality met? 15. When looking at a scatter plot of residuals, if you can visualize a band surrounding the scatter plot of residuals approximating the form of a rectangle, then the underlying assumptions of normality, linearity, and homoscedasticity are likely all met. Specifically, looking at the scatter plot of residuals for linearity, what was the finding? 16. What was the finding relative to homoscedasticity assessing the residual scatter plot? 17. Review the results of the sequential MRA and start with the Model Summary table using α = .05. The omnibus null hypothesis is stated as: YCounSelfEfff (Xidslf, Xexpres, Xmngothr) = 0, which is saying that the predictors will not significantly predict the dependent variable of counseling self-efficacy. In Model 1, only assess whether Identifying Own Emotions predicts counseling selfefficacy. What was the multiple correlation (R), coefficient of determination (R2)? 18. In Model 1, the R Square Change only relates to the addition of the one variable Indentifying Own Emotions so R2 will be the same as R Square Change. Was the R Square Change significant? 19. In Model 2, the second variable of Expressing Emotions Adaptively is added to Identifying Own Emotions predicting counseling self-efficacy. What was the multiple correlation (R), coefficient of determination (R2)? 20. The R Square Change in Model 2 only relates to the Expressing Emotions Adaptively variable that was added to the model. Was the R Square Change significant for the addition of Expressing Emotions Adaptively? 21. In Model 3, the third variable of Managing Others’ Emotions is added to Expressing Emotions Adaptively and Identifying Own Emotions predicting counseling self-efficacy. What was the
multiple correlation (R), coefficient of determination (R2)? 22. The R Square Change in Model 3 only relates to the Managing Others’ Emotions variable that was added to the model. Was the R Square Change significant for the addition of Managing Others’ Emotions? 23. The ANOVA table shows that the Model 1, Model 2, and Model 3 are all significant. Is it accurate to say that the reason that Model 3 is significant is because of the predictors of Identifying Own Emotions and Expressing Emotions Adaptively are significant with little to no help from Managing Others’ Emotions? 24. The Coefficients table provides information about testing the significance of each predictor variable by itself to counseling self-efficacy using t-tests. Was Identifying Own Emotions significant in predicting counseling self-efficacy as indicated in Model 3? 25. Was Expressing Emotions Adaptively significant in predicting counseling self- efficacy as indicated in Model 3?
PSYC 815 Quiz Basic Statistics https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-815-quiz-basic-statistics/ PSYC 815 Quiz: Basic Statistics and Research Design Covers the Textbook material from Module 1: Week 1. 1. An alternative hypothesis must include the anticipated direction of variance. 2. An a priori power analysis is important for which of the following reasons… 3. A researcher wants to determine if the sample mean score of a group of 40 children is significantly higher or lower than the mean of a standardized test of reading when both the population mean and standard deviation are known. 4. A researcher wants to determine if Republicans and Democrats differ in their attitudes about the war in Iraq. He identifies a set of 7 Republican students and matches each student with a Democrat on the basis of age, family income and race. The researcher then asks each student to complete a questionnaire, where higher scores represent a “pro-war” attitude. What is the appropriate test for this data? 5. When a researcher wants to determine if the dependent measure scores of a sample of participants significantly increases from pretest to posttest, what statistic would he use? 6. Degree to which a scale informs you of the construct being measured is called__________; Discrepancy between what we’re measuring and the actual value of what we are measuring. 7. If a researcher wants to determine if one sample mean significantly differs from a population mean and she uses the standard deviation of the sample to estimate the standard deviation of the population, what statistic would she use? 8. “Any measurable characteristic of a population” defines which one of the following terms. 9. A researcher predicts that practice improves children’ s accuracy on a fine motor skills game (high score indicates high accuracy). He tests the children before and after 15 minutes of practice. What is the appropriate analysis of the following data? 10. What is the independent variable in this research problem? 11. What is the dependent variable in this research problem? 12. Is there a significant difference in group means on the BDI scores across the two groups using an alpha level of .05? 13. A good hypothesis should predict the following: 14. If a researcher rejects the null hypothesis and in actual truth the null is true which one of the following is the best answer? 15. If you were most concerned about avoiding making a Type I error you would choose an α = .10? 16. In addition to stating the results of the hypothesis tested, it is also important to report other information. Which one of the following choices is the best answer? 17. The alternative hypothesis is the hypothesis that is tested statistically. 18. The hypothesis testing process is the most widely used statistical tool in scientific research. 19. The variables stated in an alternative hypothesis reflect the changes in an outcome (dependent variable) that can be attributed to a cause (independent variable). 20. Using an alpha criterion of α = .01, which symbolic statement below indicates that we failed to reject the null hypothesis at the .01 level of significance? 21. Researchers tested the null hypothesis related to the above stated alternative hypothesis by comparing the means of student achievement across the two chemistry curriculum conditions. The significant probability finding was p = .006 related to the difference between means and the alpha criterion is α = .05. Is it correct to say, we conclude that there is a significant difference in student chemistry achievement means among high school chemistry students across the two chemistry curriculum conditions, p < .05?
22. Which one of the following represents the way to state the narrative alternative hypothesis symbolically? The μ1 refers to the population mean that is being estimated on science achievement of the students in the condition of the standard chemistry curriculum that is augmented with intelligent computer-based chemistry tutors and μ2 refers to the population mean that is being estimated on science achievement of the students in the condition of the standard chemistry curriculum only. 23. Which one of the following items best describes the independent variable in the alternative hypothesis stated above? 24. What one of the following items best describes the dependent variable in the alternative hypothesis stated above? 25. Which term below best describes the stated alternative hypothesis?
PSYC 815 Quiz ANOVA Applications https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-815-quiz-anova-applications/ PSYC 815 Quiz: ANOVA Applications Covers the Textbook material from Module 3: Week 3. 1. Which one answer below best describes when a one-way analysis of variance is used in a statistical analysis? 2. A multivariate ANOVA has: 3. Which of the following data diagnostics statistics measures whether there is equality of variances and error variance across groups? 4. A researcher uses five effect sizes from previous studies similar to the one the researcher wants to conduct to identify an a prior effect size to use in an a prior power analysis. The research calculated an average effect size of the five similar studies and all five studies used different sample sizes. Which one of the following description best reflects what the researcher used in the calculation of the five studies’ effect sizes with different sample sizes? 5. Which one of the following is not true about the post hoc power value called Observed Power on the IBM SPSS ANOVA results output. 6. One can compare the post hoc power to the a priori power and assess how close the predicted power is to the actual study power. 7. A confidence interval provides information about the probability that a given interval will encircle the true difference between the population means at a probability level that is determined by the study alpha level. 8. What is the independent variable in this research problem? 9. What is the dependent variable in this research problem? 10. What is the operational definition of the independent variable? 11. What is the operational definition of the dependent variable? 12. Follow the steps in chapter 7 to conduct an a priori power analysis using G*Power for this research problem using f = .60, α = .05, Power = .80, and the number of groups is 3. According to the G*Power analysis, what total sample size is needed to achieve an acceptable power value of equal to or greater than .80? 13. After assessing for univariate outliers (Hint: Do not split file) for the total COSE scores, what was the highest positive and highest negative z-scores? 14. Using the criterion in the book to consider if a z-score represents a significant univariate outlier, are there any univariate outliers among the total COSE raw scores? 15. Please assess the skewness of the total COSE scores for the three age group categories. Which answer below best reflects the zskewness values (rounded 3 decimal places) for the age group categories of 20-30 years old, 31-40 years old, and 41 + years old? 16. Are the skewness values problematic suggesting that we have not met the normality assumption using the criterion identified in the book? 17. Considering the alpha criterion we are using for this example, α = .05, which statement below best reflects the Shapiro-Wilk findings? 18. What are the means (rounded 2 places) of the participants’ COSE scores for each of the three age group categories? 19. Considering the alpha criterion we are using for this example, α = .05, which statement below best reflects the Levene test finding? 20. The omnibus null hypothesis is μ20-30 yrs. = μ31-40 yrs = μ41+ yrs. The one-way ANOVA analyzes if there are significant differences among the means on the COSE scores of the three age groups. Which one of the following reflects the symbolic results of testing the omnibus null hypothesis?
21. There are no significant differences among the means on the COSE scores across the three groups. 22. The magnitude of treatment effect associated with the one-way ANOVA is on the output as partial eta squared and it is η2 = .186. One way to interpret this post hoc effect size is to say that 18.60% of the variance in COSE scores can be attributed to the age groups. Another way to interpret the η2 = .186 is to use Cohen’s convention for eta squared. Which one of the following is the correct interpretation from Cohen’ convention? 23. The Tukey HSD post hoc analysis looks for differences in all possible pairs of means. Refer to the results in the Multiple Comparisons table and the means in the Descriptive Statistics table. Remember that the Multiple Comparison table indicates significance and the Descriptive table tells you lower and higher means by groups. What answer below best reflects the findings. 24. What are the values on the Shapiro-Wilk statistic output for the age group categories of 20-30 years old, 31-40 years old, and 41 + years old? 25. What is the value on the Levene test statistic output across the age group categories?
PSYC 815 Quiz ANCOVA https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-815-quiz-ancova/ PSYC 815 Quiz: ANCOVA Covers the Textbook material from Module 6: Week 6 1. What is an ANCOVA? 2. One of the primary purposes of an ANCOVA is: 3. Which of the following is an assumption of ANCOVA? 4. What does an analyses of covariance explore? 5. What should an ANCOVA do to the error variance? 6. The primary goal of analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) is to: 7. One of the benefits of the ANCOVA is that the covariate can be used to measure/control for an extraneous variable. 8. The ANCOVA is able to adjust the means of the dependent variables to what they would be if all participants scored equally on the covariate. 9. The ANCOVA by nature always indicates causation. 10. An ANCOVA requires….
HLTH 509 Discussion Social Determinants https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-509-discussion-social-determinants/ HLTH 509 Discussion Thread: Social Determinants of Health 1. Marmot uses the more European term “health inequalities,” while most American authorities prefer “health disparities” when referring to the significant differences in health status between different social groups. Discuss three reasons for these inequalities/disparities and what can be done to address them. 2. According to a recent US Census Bureau report, over 1 in 5 American children live in poverty, and the rate is increasing. Discuss factors contributing to childhood poverty in America. Who is responsible? Offer realistic suggestions to turn this problem around. 3. The poorest countries typically have the worst health. Explain the apparent paradox that China exhibits by having relatively good health despite the low incomes of its people. By comparison, Russia is more typical in having lower payments and relatively poorer health. 4. The gospel of Mark records a story of Jesus’ disciples criticizing a woman for what they claimed was a misuse of resources (Mark 14:1–10). In his rebuke to them, Jesus said, “The poor you will always have with you, but you will not always have me (14:7).” Propose a solution to the age-old problem of balancing the internal administrative needs of the church with its obligation to help those in need. How much should the church help the poor in society?
HLTH 509 Discussion More Money https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-509-discussion-more-money/ HLTH 509 Discussion: More Money but Poorer Health 1. Describe the 2 reasons Schroeder gives to explain why the US ranks poorly on many health measures despite spending more money than other countries on health care. What other single factor would you suggest that might also contribute to this paradox? 2. In what ways is the problem of obesity in America like the now decreasing problem of tobacco use? In what ways is it different? 3. The pie chart illustrating the 5 proportional categories contributing to premature death in the US is based on total US population mortality. How might these percentages change if the chart were to be redrawn to reflect populations living in poverty in inner cities? People living in poverty in rural areas? Suggest new percentages for each and explain why you think as you do. 4. Social determinants of health are relatively new considerations as predictors of premature death, yet a growing body of research indicates their contribution is strong. Name a social determinant and describe a possible role for the Church in ameliorating it.
HLTH 509 Quiz 4 Preceed-Procede https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-509-quiz-4-preceed-procede/ HLTH 509 Quiz 4: Preceed-Procede, Combining Theories, Measurement and Evaluation Covers the Textbook material from Module 7: Week 7 – Module 8: Week 8. 1. In Phase 4 of the PPM, identified enabling factors will most often be changed through changes in policy, regulation, and organizational structures. These enabling factors typically involve which of the following categories: 2. What concepts are associated with the PROCEED phase? 3. Which phase of the PPM requires an identification of all enabling, reinforcing and predisposing factors? 4. Epidemiological diagnosis is not always required to measure health outcomes. 5. Collectively, predisposing, reinforcing, and enabling factors (the “PRE”) account for public health challenges that are best addressed by behavioral theory. 6. Which of the following definitions describes a reinforcing factor? 7. The “thread” that holds any health promotion program together is evaluation. 8. It is categorically correct to decide upon a theory and then engage in program planning. 9. During which phase does a public health professional choose and apply a theory? 10. PROCEED stands for Policy, Regulatory, and Organizational Constructs in Educational and Environmental Development. 11. If a practitioner’s objective is to reduce teen pregnancy by 15% in their community, which of the following could be a sub-objective? 12. Community involvement is an important for only certain steps in the PPM. 13. Which of the following constructs falls under the individual level of influence? 14. The three planning components of the logic model are: inputs, activities, and throughputs. 15. Which of the following statements best describes the intervention mapping approach? 16. Which of the following is not a theoretical construct that falls under the community level of influence? 17. It is important to provide assessment information about the problem from all social ecological levels before planning the intervention. 18. The first step in Intervention Mapping is to select the theory that will guide the intervention. 19. Which of the following is not a commonly used method in intervention mapping? 20. Scenario: Using needs assessment data from local church members of several denominations, you have identified obesity and diabetes as key concerns. You have created a coalition of pastors and lay members who represent the participating churches. Together you have established goals and objectives for in-church educational interventions. Now it’s time to select a theory or theoretical constructs to guide the intervention. Which of the following theories would be least likely to serve your purposes? 21. Which of the following is not a planning element of a logic model? 22. Use of single theories or theoretical constructs to guide community health interventions is easier and more effective than using multiple theories or constructs. 23. Cues to action and self-efficacy are two theoretical constructs that are commonly used at the community level of the social ecological framework. 24. Intervention mapping specifies that change must occur at three or more of the following four levels to be lasting: 1) interpersonal, 2) organizational, 3) community and 4) policy. 25. Identify the “target” of the following objective: “getting a mammogram in the next 6 months at the women’s health clinic.” 26. Index items are typically heterogeneous and not necessarily correlated with each other. 27. There are several aspects of constructs that will affect the way in which they can be measured. Which statement is not true?
28. Measuring a rural vs. urban community is what type of variable? 29. A theoretical definition of a construct is simply the way in which a particular construct will be measured in a study. 30. Which is NOT one of the ways you can evaluate the reliability of a measure? 31. Fahrenheit and Celsius measures are considered interval measurements. 32. Construct validity refers to 33. Karl Pearson is credited with founding the study of measurement of individuals and is referred to as the father of 34. Likert’s technique is probably the most common form of scale measurement used in the social sciences today 35. Qualitative variables often involve an ordering of values which represent differing amounts, frequencies or degrees. 36. Sex, Race/Ethnicity, Marital Status, HIV Status are types of _____ measurements. 37. The categories for nominal measurements must be mutually exclusive and exhaustive. 38. Both summative and formative evaluations are appropriate at all stages of program development. 39. The SMART objectives include all the following EXCEPT: 40. Which of the following is not a step to effective evaluation? 41. Henry L. Gantt developed a pictorial system for planning and task allocation. 42. The S in SMART (objective) stands for “Specific.” 43. You utilize SMART in creating: 44. The research methodology tailored for the evaluation of a specific program can easily be applied for the evaluation of another program. 45. When monitoring a study over time, you are performing what kind of evaluation? 46. Program Evaluation is a program activity, not scientific research. 47. Moderating and mediating variables affect other variables in the same way. 48. Cost-benefit analysis measures: 49. Impact evaluation and outcome evaluation are synonymous. 50. Formative research occurs:
HLTH 509 Quiz 3 Applied Ecological https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-509-quiz-3-applied-ecological/ HLTH 509 Quiz 3: Applied Ecological Approaches and Research Covers the Textbook material from Module 5: Week 5 – Module 6: Week 6. 1. Structural Model of Behavior emphasizes environmental influences of behavior: availability, physical structures, social structures, and media. 2. The logic behind structural interventions is that the physical, legal, economic, and regulatory “structures” within an individual’s environment can be altered to support the adoption and maintenance of health protective behaviors. 3. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the differences between the ecological approach and the medical approach? 4. Which of the following is not a system level that Bronfenbrenner described in the Model of Human Development? 5. A microsystem is: 6. In the Behavioral Ecological Model, ________ are defined as social contingencies of reinforcement that affect large segments of a population or subpopulation. 7. What is the best known ecological model? 8. Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of environmental factors that are critical in shaping health behaviors, according to the structural model of health behavior? 9. Some environments foster risk behaviors. 10. Unfortunately large scale intervention trials sometimes fail to demonstrate the study’s intended health promotion and this failure acts purely as a waste of funds and time. 11. The basic premise of ecological thinking is that health behavior, and the determinants of these behaviors are inter-related. 12. When any given part of the environment becomes a target for change, the term used is structural intervention. 13. The meso level of network organization includes large-scale networks and complex networks. 14. Evidence suggests that social networks may have profound effects on a range of health-related attitudes, behaviors, and disease outcomes. 15. In which type of analytical technique does the research start with selecting a set of nodes that is then considered as a study population, then measures the tie between these nodes? 16. Social networks are usually very stable over time, with little or no change in member numbers or roles, making the introduction of new health information difficult. 17. In general, the more you have in common with members of a social network (e.g., age, political persuasion, religiosity, ethnicity, education), the more likely a health message coming from you will be accepted by them. This is an example of network 18. Personal traits of some members of social networks predispose them to serve as superdiffusers of new ideas. Three traits are considered vital to the spread of an innovation within and between networks. Which of the following is not one of these key traits? 19. The major components of social network theory include nodes or actors and ties that connect the nodes where they form a network. 20. Scenario: You are a state health department officer working with various social networks (e.g., churches, worksites, schoolsites) to promote personal wellness. With help from community members, you identify superdiffusers in each of the target social networks. Which of the following key roles must the superdiffusers do to ensure success of the promotion? 21. According to social network theory, to serve as an effective conduit for social and behavioral change, actors must 22. Transitivity describes the temporary mental state of people who fail at developing lasting nodal connections, resulting in weak social networks.
23. An individual actor in the periphery of a social system, even if respected by others, will not be able to bridge the brokerage between peripheral networks. 24. According to the concept of transitivity, a tie (connection) between some members of a social network… 25. Social systems and networks must be traditional (i.e., physical contact and connections occur in person) to be effective in transmitting health information; virtual systems and networks (i.e., social media) are to fragile to be an effective change agent for health. 26. What is the correct order of discrete stages of behavior change, according to the Diffusion Theory? 27. The social system is a key “last-step” in health promotion planning. 28. Which statement is not true regarding the innovation? 29. According to Diffusion Theory, the more _______________ change agents are with the target population, the more effective they are likely to be in promoting the adoption of an innovation. 30. What are some elements of diffusion theory? 31. All of the following are true of laggards in relation to the adoption of innovations EXCEPT 32. People are more likely to adopt an innovation if they observe others having adopted the innovation and experiencing a positive outcome as a result. 33. The key implication of Diffusion Theory is that “opinion leaders” tend to be highly influential with respect to the adoption of innovations. 34. Diffusion Theory works best when the innovation or behavior does not require daily repetition. 35. Diffusion Theory describes twelve key characteristics of a successful innovation. Which one of the following characteristics is commonly considered by users prior to their adoption of the innovation? 36. Opinion leaders tend to be early adopters and are often the first to adopt an innovation. 37. Diffusion Theory works best in 38. Which is true about program implementation in health promotion? 39. A certain amount and type of adaptation to a program is always harmful and should be avoided at all costs. 40. What is one of the “Top Ten dissemination mistakes?” 41. is defined as the intentional spreading of information for a specific purpose. 42. Once health knowledge is generated from randomized control trials, it is effectively applied to public health problems evenly throughout the industries. 43. Organizations like some people can be deemed early adopters. 44. Core implementation components include all except: 45. Which is NOT one of the four steps of the Public Health Model? 46. Fidelity to a program can enhance adoption and community ownership more so than adaptation. 47. Pre-service and in-service training are not considered as efficient ways to provide knowledge of background information, theory, philosophy, and values. 48. Most researchers feel that their work is done once they have published findings in a scholarly journal. 49. Identify the organization characteristic that is most related to adopting a new program? 50. Which of the following is true about the “black box” in public health?
HLTH 509 Quiz 2 Stage Models https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-509-quiz-2-stage-models/ HLTH 509 Quiz 2: Stage Models and Social Cognitive Theory Covers the Learn material from Module 1: Week 1 – Module 4: Week 4. 1. The Transtheoretical Model of Change is often represented as a spiral staircase because: 2. Based on the following scenario, which TMC stage should Betty be classified in? Betty smokes daily and would like to finally quit smoking. However, Betty has tried to quit smoking several times before but consistently relapses into her old smoking habits. 3. Which of the following processes of change are matched to the Preparation to Action stage? 4. The precaution adoption process model is similar to TMC, and it keeps its all of original stages. 5. Long-term maintenance of a health-protective behavior has the least health protective value. 6. In which stage of the TMC does the construct known as decisional balance belong? 7. Relapse itself is less important within the TMC, than what stage the individual relapses to. 8. The Precaution Adoption Process Model (PAPM) uses stages to describe HOW people change and posits that interventions can look at processes of change whereas the Transtheoretical Model of Change (TMC) suggests the use of stages and perceived susceptibility as a primary factor in health related behavior. 9. Stage theories are differentiated from value expectancy theories in that they describe how people change behaviors. 10. What two components make up self-efficacy? 11. People never relapse or backslide when a health prevention strategy is based upon the Transtheoretical Model of Change. 12. Correctly order the stages of the TMC. Identify which stage a person who has no intention of changing their behavior may be categorized. 13. Content knowledge is the more advanced type of knowledge which involves how to do a specific health behavior. 14. Self-efficacy is not task-specific. 15. Social Cognitive Theory asserts that goals are best achieved by breaking Long-term goals down into shorter sub-goals. 16. Social Cognitive Theory, originally Social Learning Theory, was originally developed to explain health behavior. 17. Which choices lead to greater self-efficacy? 18. What is collective self-efficacy? 19. In Level 3 of the Threefold Stepwise Implementation Model, people hold a universal perception that they are unable to change their health behaviors. 20. Which is the single most important aspect of SCT as applied to health promotion? 21. Reciprocal triadic causation involves which of the following pathways? 22. Verbal persuasion will be more effective when self-efficacy is low. 23. The elegance of SCT in the context of the new public health lies in its inherent assumption that nearly all human behavior is influenced by the immediate social environment in which the behavior occurs. 24. A key assumption of Social Cognitive Theory is that the social environment influences the behavior in which it occurs. 25. Which of the following is not an element of social marketing? 26. Fear used in a persuasive message targeting highly educated individuals generally results in low reception, but high yielding. 27. Social marketing targets the social determinants of behavior only, not the physical determinants. 28. In the ELM, Peripheral-Route and Central-Route processing can function at the same time and may uniquely contribute to attitude formation.
29. Message tailoring is different than message targeting in that tailoring operates at the group level whereas message targeting operates at the individual level. 30. Health communication is defined as any mass media campaign. 31. Which choice is the Reception-Yielding model chain of responses? 32. Cultural competency is: 33. In the Elaboration Likelihood Model, Central-Route processing occurs when people are focused on superficial or surface features of the health communication. 34. Which of the following statements is not a characteristic of social marketing? 35. Social marketing should only be targeted at those individuals whose health behavior is the focus. 36. Social Marketing should always be classified as a theory. 37. The Stages of Change model can be applied to which 2 P’s of Social Marketing? 38. Research reveals a strong positive association between church attendance and reduced mortality. 39. Which of the following verses explicitly declares God’s interest in his children experiencing physical as well as spiritual health? 40. In which of the following early civilizations was faith and health comingled, either as overt activities or as explanations for health and healing? 41. Moses is recognized by modern medical historians as the “first public health officer.” 42. All of the following early civilizations used magic spells and potions in their approach to health care except 43. In the writings of which of the following early civilizations is the earliest true public health code found? 44. The Hebrews were unique among the ancient civilizations to emphasize prevention over treatment for health-related behaviors. 45. All of the following theoretical constructs have been proposed by recent researchers to explain the association between religious activity and health except 46. Church attendance is a useful measure for research in the relationship between religion and health. 47. Research shows that people who attend religious services frequently are likely to have all of the following health outcomes except 48. All of the following modern public health practices were included by Moses in the book of Leviticus except 49. Though not a textbook of medicine, the Bible provides guidance for healthy living by all of the following ways except 50. Imhotep is recognized by modern medical historians as the “first physician.”
HLTH 509 Quiz 1 Health Promotion https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-509-quiz-1-health-promotion/ HLTH 509 Quiz: Health Promotion, Value Expectancy and Perceived Threat Covers the Textbook material from Module 1: Week 1 – Module 2: Week 2. 1. Generally, which of the following factors can contribute to community capacity: 2. The definition of health, as defined by the World Health Organization, is merely the absence of disease. 3. Despite being a world “super-power,” the United States ranks poorly – compared to other industrialized nations – on multiple health indicators. Which statement best explains why this is true. 4. Illness behavior is most often associated with which level of prevention? 5. Public health seeks to shift the mean of the Rose Curve to the left. 6. Secondary prevention in public health targets people who can treat the disease and/or people who have the disease with the goal of mitigating the disease’s effects. 7. Advocacy as a health promotion strategy is mainly focused on lobbying for universal health care. 8. What caused the shift from infectious diseases to chronic diseases from the 1800s to now? 9. The United States spends considerably more on health care costs than other industrialized countries. 10. Currently, public health in the United States is more focused on infectious diseases than chronic diseases. 11. The “Rose Curve” has multiple implications for public health. Identify which statement below is incorrect regarding the Rose Curve: 12. The theory of the solution asserts that 13. A countywide smoking ordinance which restricts smoking in restaurants and bars would be considered a ______ factor to changing smoking-related behavior. 14. You identify a behavior that is non-volitional. Which type of intervention are you more likely to focus on to change that behavior? 15. Theory only serves to assess hypothesized mediators. 16. Based on your understanding of this chapter, which health behavior would you consider to be “complex”? 17. Regarding condom use, women’s control over the situation with her male partner would best be described as: 18. Which of the statements below is the least accurate regarding “theory”? 19. Proximal influences are synonymous with distal influences. 20. Distal influences demonstrate an immediate and noticeable influence on health behaviors. 21. Theory allows for more successful and effective health interventions. 22. Health policies serve as a proximal influence on health behavior. 23. A behavior that is more frequent and repetitive is more difficult to adhere to over time. 24. Which health behavior is frequent and repetitive, therefore potentially harder to change/adhere to? 25. Measures of intent include: 26. The two independent constructs that precede intent in the theory of reasoned action are subjective norms and cognitive dissonance. 27. IMB in IMB Model stands for: 28. Formation of intent is the last step in the theory before the actual behavior. 29. Inhibiting factors are always internal to the person. 30. According to the Theory of Planned Behavior, the perception of control is based on an intersection of factors internal to the person making the decision and their cognitive evaluation of those internal factors.
31. Facilitating and inhibiting factors in the TPB are based on only on individual perceptions. 32. External factors that serve to facilitate a given behavior or those that act to inhibit a given behavior are based on personal perceptions. 33. Neither the Theory of Reasoned Action nor the Theory of Planned Behavior is qualified as ValueExpectancy models. 34. Which statement best describes theory of reasoned action? 35. An important focus of the Theory of Reasoned Action is generating intent. 36. The Theory of Reasoned Action includes a focus on perceptions about: 37. Unlike the health belief model, the theory of reasoned action, and the theory of planned behavior, the information-motivation-behavioral skills model is a relatively old modeling tool in the behavioral sciences. 38. Value-expectancy models represent a class of theories that, at their core, assume people will change a behavior it they anticipate the personal benefits derived from the outcome will outweigh any costs incurred through enacting the behavior. Choose the theories or models that are not an example of value-expectancy models. 39. A positive net gain in the mental math equation can be achieved by: 40. Even though the Health Belief Model is a relatively simple tool that can easily be applied to health promotion practice, it is often applied incorrectly. What are the problems that HBM have? 41. Perceived threat is moderated by a host of modifying factors such as age, race, SES, and knowledge pertaining to disease in question. 42. What are the two constructs that have an independent influence on health behavior? 43. Protection motivation theory describes coping appraisal is essentially people deciding if the costs for engaging in a health behavior outweigh the benefits. 44. The basic premise of both PMT and EPPM is when individuals are faced with a scary stimuli 45. The Health Belief Model posits that cues to action may be events, symptoms experienced physically by the person, or reminders provided by a credible source. 46. Response efficacy and self-efficacy are both part of the threat appraisal process. 47. When combining the constructs “perceived severity” and “perceived susceptibility,” you get the level of perceived threat imposed. 48. Health Belief Model is logical, well-articulated, and simple model that the primary construct is indeed predicated on the basis that behavior change will occur only when sufficient benefits remain after subtracting the costs incurred by the performing the behavior. There are two constructs that have independent influences on health behavior. What are those two? 49. The health belief model was initially used to identify determinants of being screened for HIV. 50. Reactance and denial are two types of danger control responses.
BIOL 103 Quiz Scientific Method https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/biol-103-quiz-scientific-method/ BIOL 103 Quiz: The Scientific Method 1. Which of the following statements about glove use is true? 2. Which of the following is a hypothesis studied in the first activity? 3. The primary danger in performing science laboratory experiments in a home setting is that 4. What is the ideal number of variables for the experimenter to alter at one time? 5. In your second experiment, which has to be a controlled variable according to the instructions? 6. Which is a dependent variable in these experiments? 7. When running an experiment, which variables represent the unknowns we are trying to measure? 8. According to the instructions, the temperature of the water in your second experiment can not be 9. Which variable was not a controlled variable in the first activity? 10. A factor that is intentionally changed by the experimenter is called the
BIOL 103 Quiz Respiration https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/biol-103-quiz-respiration/ BIOL 103 Quiz: Respiration 1. Which of the following is not a component part of aerobic cellular respiration? 2. The respirometer containing beads 3. KOH 4. The respirometer showing the greatest amount of change during the incubation period was the one containing 5. In cellular respiration, glucose and oxygen are used to generate 6. Parafilm helps to 7. Which of the following, by itself, generates the greatest number of ATPs? 8. In this experiment, oxygen consumption was measured by a change in 9. The main form of energy used in cells is 10. Energy for seed germination arises from
BIOL 103 Quiz Photosynthesis https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/biol-103-quiz-photosynthesis/ BIOL 103 Quiz Photosynthesis 1. Plant pigments are carried up into chromatography paper by 2. What are two forms of useful energy that are produced by the flow of electrons in a membrane? 3. Which phrase below best describes the form your data takes in the experiment outlined in Activity 1 of this lab? 4. In a leaf disc assay, disc float in solution because 5. The greater the time elapsed during the assay 6. Plants convert the energy of sunlight into a chemically usable form. They do this using a process called 7. In higher plants, photosynthesis occurs within cellular organelles called 8. Which treatment (syringes) had the least number of floating disks after 35 minutes? 9. Which of the following hypotheses was supported by the Leaf Disk Assay experiment? 10. Which of the following experimental conditions yielded the greatest number of floating leaf discs?