SOWK 410 Time Management Quiz https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/sowk-410-time-management-quiz/ SOWK 410 Quiz: Time Management and Ethical Dilemmas 1. A father who becomes depressed and possibly suicidal is an example of a stress-related problem. 2. What is the first task you need to do to figure out where your time goes: 3. is the last phase in the General Adaptation Syndrome. 4. Hypotheses are used by the social worker to 5. is the comprehensive process by which external pressures affect individuals emotionally and ph ysically and produce some internal tension. 6. is/are the cement that holds together all forms of social life. 7. According to the text, imagery relaxation and deep breathing relaxation are forms of: 8. NASW’s is devoted to raising funds and providing support for political candidates who are sy mpathetic to social work issues. 9. Principle 4 of Loewenberg and Dolgoff’s “Ethical Principles Screen” is: 10. Which of the following areas of behavior are listed in the NASW Code of Ethics standard of the “Social workers’ ethical responsibilities as professionals”: 11. All of the following are true regarding supervision and consultation except: 12. falls under both the “Social workers’ ethical responsibilities to clients” standard as well as the 13. “Social workers’ ethical responsibilities as professionals” standard of the NASW Code of Ethics. 14. The National Association of Social Workers’ Code of Ethics standard of “Social workers’ ethical responsibilities to clients” includes which of the following subcategories: 15. The National Association of Social Workers’ Code of Ethics standard of “Social workers’ ethical responsibilities to colleagues” includes which of the following subcategories: 16. When faced with an ethical dilemma, the step after recognizing the problem is:
SOWK 410 Understanding Organizations Quiz https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/sowk-410-understanding-organizations-quiz/ SOWK 410 Quiz: Understanding Organizations and Using Supervision 1. power provides the capability of dispensing punishments in order to influence others’ behavior. 2. Power based on established authority or expertise in a particular domain is entitled 3. is a “sin of service” defined by Albrecht as occurring when the main intent is to get the job done as fast as possible and to treat each customer identically. 4. In managed care, is the provision of fixed payments made on a per-member per-month ba sis regardless of the use of services. 5. power is held because of one’s ability to provide positive reinforcement to others. 6. The game that supervisors and supervisees play when one person in the supervisory relationship withhold s information from the other is called: 7. means assigning responsibility or authority to others. 8. The game that supervisors and supervisees play where both parties are afraid to give any negative or constructive feedback is called: 9. The game that supervisors and supervisees play when either the supervisor or the worker consistently reveals how he knows much more than the other is called: 10. The game that supervisors and supervisees play when the employee dependently leans on the supervisor for almost everything is called:
SOWK 410 Decision Making Quiz https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/sowk-410-decision-making-quiz/ SOWK 410 Quiz: Decision Making and Implementing Organizational Change 1. “Identify possible macro approaches to use, roughly estimate their potential effectiveness, and select the most appropriate one” is a substep of Step of PREPARE. 2. A time-limited, planned undertaking with specified goals and activities to accomplish 3. a designated purpose is a(n): 4. What substep of Step 7 in PREPARE is the transitional stage between deciding to pursue a macro change effort and actually doing it? 5. The first step in the assessment of organizational change potential (PREPARE) is: 6. Of the four critical elements required in macro change, the person who believes some change within the agency is needed is the: 7. Substep 3 of Step 1 in PREPARE is: 8. Which of the following is (are) accurate regarding macro practice? 9. All of the following are true regarding projects except: 10. To track the various phases of the development of the Sexual Harassment Awareness Program for Employees (described in the text), the group utilized a: 11. Preparing an agency for the change process includes all of the following tasks except: 12. The second step in the process for initiating and implementing macro change is to: 13. Regarding communication within organizations, which of the following is most accurate? 14. According to a recent study, between and percent of social workers have experienced unwanted sexual advances. 15. is the cementing of the change into the structure of the overall service provision system. 16. When approaching a target system with a macro change proposal, in the stage there is some conflict and decision-makers must decide whether to go with the proposal or not.
SOWK 410 Using Micro Quiz https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/sowk-410-using-micro-quiz/ SOWK 410 Quiz: Using Micro and Group Skills for Change 1. means translating into words what you think the other person is feeling. 2. our supervisor asks you to work late this evening. You have special plans that you fee l you cannot disrupt. You reply to your supervisor “Okay.” This is an example of a(n) 3. involves briefly covering the main points of a discussion or series of communications 4. n the text, lip reading is also referred to as: 5. refers to not only being in tune with how other people feel, but also conveying to people both verbally an d nonverbally that you understand how they feel. 6. means seeking meaning beyond that of clarification 7. When working with people with mobility disabilities: 8. conflict is created to reach goals that cannot be attained directly. 9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of effective teams? 10. Use of self was discussed in the text as involving all of the following skills except: 11. conflict is directed at people or concerns other than the real party or source of conflict. 12. Parents Anonymous and Alcoholics Anonymous are examples of: 13. Which motion would be appropriate when the group has begun discussing an item not on the agenda? 14. In Johnson’s personal styles for addressing conflict, the is one who is an aggressor moving boldly into conflict. 15. All of the following are positive aspects of conflict except:
SOWK 410 Macro Practice Quiz https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/sowk-410-macro-practice-quiz/ SOWK 410 Quiz: Macro Practice in Communities and Advocacy 1. In which of the following problem-solving steps would you see answers to questions such as “How serio us is the problem?” and “What efforts have already been made to deal with the problem?” 2. In the community asset mapping method to community change, all of the following were listed as categories except: 3. Social involves efforts by groups of individuals to create change in an organization or community and need no t necessarily involve confrontation and conflict. 4. In which of the following problem-solving steps would you see answers to questions such as “How serio us is the problem?” and “What efforts have already been made to deal with the problem?” 5. In the community asset mapping method to community change, all of the following were listed as categories except: 6. involves efforts by groups of individuals to create change in an organization or community and need no t necessarily involve confrontation and conflict. 7. assets in a community are the physical structures such as a community center or public areas such as a community swimming pool. 8. In an assessment of possible tactics to employ in a macro change effort, which of the following alternatives carries the greatest risk: 9. The sixth step in IMAGINE is: 10. According to the text, which of the following is not a way in which social workers may view the community? 11. Working on behalf of groups of people who lack the ability to defend or help themselves is: 12. Regarding Alinsky’s principles of social action today, all of the following were cited in the text except: 13. The population group with the highest risk of males becoming a homicide victim is 14. requires that organizations and agencies abide by policies, procedures, regulations, and other rul es before they deprive someone of liberty, property, or life. refers to groups that experience serious limitations because others in power exploit them. 14. The suicide rate is highest of all U.S. ethnic groups. 15. Political pressure is not likely to be effective in which of the following situations: 16. assumes that power resides in people, and we should seek it through such things as refusing to label clients, avoiding paternalistic treatment of clients, and trusting clients to make appropriate decisions.
SOWK 410 Macro Introduction Quiz https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/sowk-410-macro-introduction-quiz/ SOWK 410 Quiz: Macro Introduction and Neighborhoods 1. are nonmetropolitan communities with a population of 15,000 20,000 and are legally organized entities, usually with their own police department and several other city departments. 2. A form of social and economic injustice in which realtors tamper with the natural buying and selling trends in a community or neighborhood is titled: 3. is a concept for understanding communities defined as the struggle within a community by various groups, all seeking to have their interests and needs met ahead o f any others. 4. is a concept for understanding communities defined as the replacement of the original occupants or residents of a community or neighborhood by new groups. 5. A community with a single large employer who owns much of the available housing stock is a(n) 6. The perspective states that a community can be viewed with all the associated charact eristics such as boundaries. 7. The reputational approach is used when one is trying to determine who has the in the community 8. A(n) is an intermediary who acts to settle disputes and/or resolve disagreements. 9. In the 1880s, places where ministers, students, or humanitarians lived and interacted with poor slum dwellers with the goal of improving community residents’ lives and conditions were called: 10. “Six local church congregations work together to provide a community meal on separate days during the week” is an example provided in the text for: 11. Policy that involves the actions of government that have a direct impact on the welfare of people by providing services and income is 12. The act of treating people differently because they belong to a particular group rather than on the ir own merit is called: 13. The system involves larger numbers of clients, families, or groups of clients with similar characteris tics or qualifications for receiving resources or services, or an agency or community that will be the beneficiary of the macro intervention process. 14. The final step in the defined planned change process is: 15. The following are included in the Triple A approach to critical thinking except:
PRTH 173 Quiz Final https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/prth-173-quiz-final/ PRTH 173 Quiz Final 1. Duvall teaches us that the Old Testament poetic material is structured in units of two or three lines and that this structuring is called ___. 2. Duvall states that “the Old Testament law as part of the Mosaic covenant is no longer applicable over us [Christians] as law.” 3. Giese states that proverbs are “salty” because they are drawn from everyday life. 4. Duvall comments that the imperative of the wisdom literature is ___. 5. Duvall states that the traditional approach to interpreting the Old Testament law which emphasizes the distinction between moral, civil and ceremonial laws is falling out of favor with many Christians. 6. Fee indicates that we abuse wisdom literature when we misunderstand wisdom terms and categories as well as wisdom styles and literary modes. 7. The proverbs gives one guidance for life situations that are normally true. 8. The key term concerning covenant is ____. 9. Which one of the following books of the Old Testament is not prophetic in nature? 10. Duvall mentions that when reading Old Testament poetry it is better to train your eye to read 11. Fee intimates that proverbs are written to be memorable not to be taken as theoretically accurate. 12. Daniel Estes suggests that the primary role of the entire book of Proverbs may have been to educate youth. 13. Ryken says that the most basic the most basic of all poetic principles is that poets think and write in images. 14. Ryken states that proverbs are rare outside of Scripture. 15. The prophets proclaimed social injustice to be as serious a sin as idolatry. 16. Fee states that only certain aspects of the Old Testament law apply to Christians. Those laws have been renewed in the New Covenant. Those renewed laws are ___ 17. Fee informs us that the Old Testament has two basic kinds of law. Which one refers to “case law?” 18. Fee indicates that the largest category of Psalms is that of ___. 19. Duvall advises that the outlining of the prophetic books is normally ___. 20. Giese & Sandy indicate that a biblical covenant is a “personal union pledged by symbol and or oath.” 21. For Giese, praise is primarily a reciting of the attributes of God and of the acts of God, and then praising God for both. 22. ___ psalms harness our anger and help us express it to God by using the same sorts of obvious, purposeful exaggeration known to us form other types of psalms. 23. Giese says that the book of Lamentations is a communal lament. 24. Theologically the prophets proclaim their message from the context of the Mosaic covenant, primarily as defined in Deuteronomy. 25. Fee states that the psalms ___.
PRTH 173 Quiz Acts https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/prth-173-quiz-acts/ PRTH 173 Quiz: Acts and Revelation 1. Read Revelation with 2. Try to discover the message to the ____________ readers 3. Don’t try to discover a strict chronological map of __________ events. 4. Take Revelation seriously, but don’t always take it _____________5. Pay attention when John ___________ an image 6. Look to the Old Testament and ___________ context when interpreting images and symbols 7. Above all, focus on the _________ idea and don’t press all the details 8. Look for what Luke _______________ to communicate to his readers 9. Look for positive and negative examples in the ________________ of the story 10. Read individual passages in light of the _____________ story of Acts and the rest of the New Testament. 11. Look to other parts of Acts to ______________ what is normative. 12. Look for ___________ patterns and themes 13. What are the two broad divisions in the book of Acts. Note the divisions and the chapters involved 14. Did you read the Duvall chapters on Acts and Revelation? 15. Write a 250 word essay about Acts 6:1 covering the following aspects:
PRTH 173 Quiz Old Testament Prophets https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/prth-173-quiz-old-testament-prophets/ PRTH 173 Quiz Old Testament Prophets 1. Only a small percentage of Old Testament prophecy deals with events that are still future to us. 2. The books of prophecy use many figures of speech to make a point. 3. The prophets addressed the nation of Israel concerning: 4. The prophets paint a dark picture and offer little hope to God’s people. 5. In many cases, the final outcome of a prophecy is dependent on the response of people to a prophetic word. 6. The Old Testament prophets spoke of events that had not yet happened. When the When interpreting prophecy, it is more important to understand the theological principles than it is to try to understand a future time schedule of events. 7. The books of prophecy are often anthologies (collections) of messages that the prophets delivered. They are often not in chronological or thematic order. 8. Some genres of English literature are similar to the genre of prophetic literature. 9. The prophets will slide back and forth between events that will happen in their lifetime, and events that will in the life of Christ, and events that are still in the future. 10. When interpreting prophecy, it is more important to understand the theological principles than it is to try to understand a future time schedule of events.
PLST 206 Quiz Legal Relationships https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/plst-206-quiz-legal-relationships/ PLST 206 Quiz: Legal Relationships and the Business of Law Covers the Textbook material from Module 4: Week 4 — Module 5: Week 5. 1. Which of the following is a reason that a fee petition will be reduced by a court? 2. If you are traveling for client A and do work on the plane for client B, how should you bill your time? 3. The rules prohibiting lawyers from engaging in business transactions with clients: 4. The rules prohibiting fee splitting are based on which of the following ethical principles: 5. Informed consent: 6. The changes in the ethics rules about advertising were brought about because: 7. Recent changes in comments to the ethics rules on conflicts: 8. Which of the following is a concurrent conflict that often prohibits the lawyer from representing both parties? 9. Which of the following is the most likely to violate the ethics rules on advertising? 10. Flat fees are typically used in what kind of legal matters? 11. A lawyer cannot take a case where he/she is likely to be a witness if: 12. The program of Interest on Lawyers’ Trust Accounts: 13. Several studies about lawyer advertising have been done. Which of the following is NOT one of the findings? 14. When a rm conducts a conflicts check and discovers a potential conflict, what course of action should it take? 15. What proportion of rms offer alternative forms of billing? 16. As a result of changes in the ethics rules, 17. Solicitation is defined as: 18. The following restrictions are placed on legal fees by ethics rules: 19. The principles of vicarious disqualication are based on: 20. Unbundling legal services means: 21. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic ethical duties about client property? 22. Law firms should do which of the following to guard against billing abuses? 23. Which of the following is a proper role for the paralegal in the matter of a client’s fee? 24. Third-party payment of legal fees is allowed in which of the following cases: 25. Under lawyer advertising rules, which is the following is mostly likely to violate ethics rules?
PLST 206 Quiz Competencies https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/plst-206-quiz-competencies/ PLST 206 Quiz: Competencies and Challenges Covers the Textbook material from Module 6: Week 6 — Module 7: Week 7. 1. What is most accurate statement about the paralegal’s ethical duty if a person is not represented by counsel? 2. The federal rule that allows for sanctions for unwarranted claims and discovery abuse is: 3. A third-party claim is: 4. In what ways does law school education differ from paralegal education? 5. Bribery: 6. Which of the following is NOT one of the designations for voluntary certification by a national paralegal association? 7. Ethics rules about witnesses: 8. About how many paralegal programs are approved by the ABA? 9. A gag order is: 10. “Skills” needed to work competently usually refers to: 11. Malicious prosecution is: 12. Destruction of evidence in a case can result in: 13. Subornation of perjury is: 14. Which of the following is a typical rule to stop discovery abuse? 15. Which group of people involved in a lawsuit is a paralegal prohibited from communicating with? 16. What is most likely to happen if a paralegal is negligent? 17. Under the usual rules about lawyer-juror communication, when is it most likely that a lawyer can have ex parte communications with jurors? 18. The best denition of “diligence” is: 19. Which of the following is NOT a remedy for discovery abuse or ling unwarranted claims? 20. What is the exception to the ethics rule against making unmeritorious claims and defenses? 21. The rules on trial publicity are based on a balance between: 22. Under the federal rule adopted to alleviate unnecessary delays in civil litigation, lawyers who violate the rules are usually: 23. ABA Guidelines for the Utilization of Paralegal Services: 24. A typical malpractice scenario is: 25. Which of the following statements about lawyers and substance abuse is true?
PADM 462 Quiz Final https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/padm-462-quiz-final/ PADM 462 Quiz: Final Covers the Learn material from Module 5: Week 5 — Module 8: Week 8. 1. How do partisan politics influence the public budgeting process and the implementation of a public budget? 2. Accountability is increasingly a focal point in public administration. Why are public agencies subjected to greater accountability than the private and non-pro[t sectors? Is this emphasis on budget accountability constructive or more of an unnecessary nuisance? Discuss some of the ways localities as well as the state and federal government attempt to demonstrate accountability. 3. Liquidity is measured by dividing the following 4. The formula debt-to-asset ratio= total liabilities in a ratio analysis measures 5. On way states may choose to balance their budget is by 6. The following are examples of mandatory spending except 7. In order, identify the five budgetary decision clusters 8. A(n) ________________ statement is a profit-and-loss statement. 9. The primary source of local tax revenue is 10. States are facing challenges in part because of a sluggish economy and because of future liability. An example of a future liability for a state or locality is 11. One different between federal budgeting and local budgeting is that the local budgeting process tends to be more 12. Municipal bonds are issued by states and localities to do which of the following 13. The federal budget reflects the partisan conflict over the appropriate size of government. If you are a liberal, you may want to __________________ taxes to pay for social welfare programs. If you are a conservative, you may want to ____________________programs to balance the budget and restrain the size of government. 14. and _________________ are the two major types of municipal bonds used by government entities. 15. _____________ is an example of a current asset 16. A large share of both municipal and county budgets is devoted to: 17. ___________________fund capital projects 18. The _______branch of government sets the agenda and established priorities to which the __________________branch of government must react. 19. The federal budget is potentially a means of controlling the economy. ________________ policy focuses on taxing and spending and is controlled by 20. Using this type of analysis, allows for an enhanced understanding of the liquidity and financial solvency of an entity. 21. A _______________ is the summary of the financial balances held by an organization at a specific time. 22. Solvency is 23. The formula working capital=current assets -current liabilities 24. Budgeting for performance in a governmental entity is: 25. Ethics in public budgeting represent a _________________ code of conduct while morals represent _______beliefs 26. What is the difference between the national debt and the federal de[cit? 27. ____________ are tangible items bought with revenues. 28. In a state or local government, the budget for which of the following most likely occurs first? 29. GASB provides government entities with
30. What kind of capital projects receive priority? 31. A ______________statement of financial position for a time- assets, liabilities, and net assets. 32. This state is the only one that does not require a balanced budget 33. is when the quantity of money seeking to purchase services and good increases faster than quantity of goods offered 34. In a state or local government, the budget for which of the following most likely occurs first? 35. ____________ are tangible items bought with revenues. 36. The following are examples of mandatory spending except 37. _____________ is an example of a current asset 38. The primary source of local tax revenue is 39. One different between federal budgeting and local budgeting is that the local budgeting process tends to be more 40. This state is the only one that does not require a balanced budget 41. and _________________ are the two major types of municipal bonds used by government entities. 42. Budgeting for performance in a governmental entity is:
PADM 462 Quiz Midterm https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/padm-462-quiz-midterm/ PADM 462 Quiz: Midterm Covers the Learn material from Module 1: Week 1 – Module 4: Week 4 1. A________________________ is a listing of categories of all transactions in a financial system. 2. The following are examples of mandatory spending except 3. _____________________expenditures refer to expensive and long-lasting goods. 4. The _______branch of government sets the agenda and established priorities to which the __________________branch of government must react. 5. The largest expenditure for the state of Virginia is 6. Mandatory spending is also known as __________________ . 7. Mandatory spending comprises roughly around _______% of the federal budget. Discretionary spending is ________% of the federal budget. 8. AMTRAK is an example of a __________________________. 9. Virginia’s budget begins on _____________. 10. Zero-based budgeting: 11. In ____________________ budgeting, there is a focus on effectiveness and efficiency. 12. This decision-making cluster deals with questions of whether balance should be achieved by increasing revenues, decreasing expenditures, or both 13. summarize and understand complex governmental budgets by stating how governments use their resources over time. 14. ______________budgets are funded through borrowing rather than tax revenues. 15. _________________funds are used for every day expenses. 16. This level of government is not required to balance its budget every year. 17. This budget format is the oldest used by states and cities 18. Which of the following best defines ‘Revenue’ as a budgetary term? 19. Which of the following is not a function of budgeting? 20. _____________________expenditures refer to expensive and long-lasting goods. 21. _____________budgets establish a budget for day to day expenditures. 22. The _______ orientation or perspective views the budget strictly as a technical document. 23. The actors involved in budgeting have _________________ motivations and goals. 24. What is ‘Rescission’? 25. What is meant by ‘Sequestration?’ 26. Which of the following is not true relative ‘Incremental Budgeting?’ 27. The scope of the US Budget consists of two types of spending: discretionary and mandatory. Within which category of spending do most entitlement programs fall? 28. Which of the following best identifies the nature of the federal budget as a system or process? 29. The US budget consists of two different types of funds, or accounts. Which of the follow does not represent one of these accounts? 30. What does the congressional budget resolution consist of? 31. Which of the following is not an example of an entitlement program? 32. What is meant by PAYGO, or Pay-As-You-Go? 33. As part of the federal budget process, Congress is authorized to establish budget authority and outlays. What is meant by these terms? 34. What is a regular appropriations bill? 35. The federal budget is first submitted by the President of the United States, and not Congress. When must the President submit his budget by law? 36. Which of the following is not a purpose for the Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974?
37. Congressional structures that provide or mandate budget authority are 38. Reconciliation is also referred to as 39. True of False: More than half of the U.S. Budget consists of entitlements and mandatory spending. 40. What is the purpose of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB)? 41. Explain how the federal budget reflects conflicting commitments. 42. Why is the Federal budgeting process political? Set 2 1. expenditures refer to expensive and long- lasting goods. 2. A________________________ is a listing of categories of all transactions in a financial system. 3. Virginia’s budget begins on _____________. 4. AMTRAK is an example of a __________________________. 5. The _______branch of government sets the agenda and established priorities to which the __________________branch of government must react. 6. This agency prepares the state of Virginia’s budget 7. Mandatory spending is also known as __________________ . 8. Mandatory spending comprises roughly around _______% of the federal budget. Discretionary spending is ________% of the federal budget. 9. A continuing resolution is necessary when: 10. expenditures refer to expensive and long- lasting goods. 11. A Fund is 12. The _______ orientation or perspective views the budget strictly as a technical document. 13. budgeting focuses on developing measurements to evaluate if inputs produced desired outcomes rather than just increasing spending. 14. This legislation represents a significant constraint on public budgets 15. This level of government is not required to balance its budget every year. 16. One of the advantages of __________ budgeting is the need for a minimal amount of staff in order to create and track a budget 17. _________________funds are used for every day expenses. 18. In ____________________ budgeting, there is a focus on effectiveness and efficiency. 19. budgets establish a budget for day to day expenditures. 20. The actors involved in budgeting have _________________ motivations and goals. 21. A __________________ can provide a uniform definition for all possible financial transactions. 22. Which of the following best defines ‘Revenue’ as a budgetary term? 23. Zero-based budgeting: 24. What is meant by PAYGO, or Pay-As-You-Go? 25. What is the purpose of the Congressional Budget Office (CBO)? 26. A GSE is A Government Sponsored Enterprise typically excluded from the budget. Which of the following is not a GSE? 27. Which of the following was not established through the Budget and Accounting Act of 1921? 28. Congressional structures that provide or mandate budget authority are 29. Which of the following best identifies the nature of the federal budget as a system or process? 30. What is meant by ‘Sequestration?’ 31. Which of the following is not a purpose for the Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974? 32. True of False: More than half of the U.S. Budget consists of entitlements and mandatory spending. 33. What is the purpose of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB)? 34. Which of the following is not true relative ‘Incremental Budgeting?’ 35. Which of the following is not an example of an entitlement program? 36. Which of the following indicates the existence of a budget deficit
37. As part of the federal budget process, Congress is authorized to establish budget authority and outlays. What is meant by these terms? 38. What is the difference between debt and deficits? 39. Reconciliation is also referred to as 40. The US budget consists of two different types of funds, or accounts. Which of the follow does not represent one of these accounts? 41. Explain how the federal budget reflects conflicting commitments. 42. Why is the Federal budgeting process political?
PADM 462 Quiz 2 Politics https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/padm-462-quiz-2-politics/ PADM 462 Quiz: Politics of the Budgetary Process 1. How do tax breaks constitute a missed opportunity? 2. What according to the text, are considerations necessary in determining the mix of revenue a state or locality will adopt? 3. The __________is a measure of good and services purchased during a given time and provides a means of gauging inflation. 4. transfers take money from one appropriation account or fund for a designated purpose and spend it in another fund or appropriation account. 5. A ________refers to how inflation affects government spending power. 6. At the state and local level, this branch of government tends to be stronger in the budget process 7. The budget process is important because 8. dollars reflect the value of money on the date used. 9. More than other characteristics of the public budget, the budget process represents 10. A balance budget is a requirement of the _________ level of government 11. States and localities in the United States have similar budget processes 12. Why would a budget analyst adjust for inflation? 13. The purpose of preparing decision packages is 14. Refer to Table 7.1 on page 49 of Chen et al., assuming sales and gross receipts for 1993 begins on B4 what would be the formula for calculating constant 2012 dollars compared to 2009 15. One of the biggest fights for power in the public budget process is between___________ and 16. is a decline in purchasing power of money over time. 17. A powerful tool for executives at the state level, governors, is 18. mandates represent a challenge for both state and local governments 19. Why is the requested amount in a cost estimate not necessarily the amount requested? 20. Refer to Figure 7.2-on page 50 of Chen et al., the graph reveals that revenue generated by a locality are keeping pace with inflation and revenue generated by user fees does not need to be increased. 21. ________________ dollars are also known as real dollars. 22. Refer to Table 7.2 on page 51 of Chen et al., what is the base year?
PADM 462 Quiz 1 What is Budget https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/padm-462-quiz-1-what-is-budget/ PADM 462 Quiz: What is a Public Budget? Covers the Learn material from Module 1: Week 1. 1. budgeting focuses on developing measurements to evaluate if inputs produced desired outcomes rather than just increasing spending. 2. budgets are funded through borrowing rather than tax revenues. 3. A budget is a plan of action expressed in… 4. The actors involved in budgeting have _________________ motivations and goals. 5. A __________________ can provide a uniform definition for all possible financial transactions. 6. In ____________________ budgeting, there is a focus on effectiveness and efficiency. 7. This decision-making cluster deals with questions of whether balance should be achieved by increasing revenues, decreasing expenditures, or both 8. One of the advantages of __________ budgeting is the need for a minimal amount of staff in order to create and track a budget 9. Zero-based budgeting: 10. budgets establish a budget for day to day expenditures. 11. summarize and understand complex governmental budgets by stating how governments use their resources over time. 12. This legislation represents a significant constraint on public budgets 13. Which of the following best defines ‘Revenue’ as a budgetary term? 14. expenditures refer to expensive and long- lasting goods. 15. This budget format is the oldest used by states and cities 16. The _______ orientation or perspective views the budget strictly as a technical document. 17. Which of the following is not a function of budgeting? 18. funds are used for every day expenses. 19. This level of government is not required to balance its budget every year. 20. A Fund is 21. How are public budgets different than private budgets? 22. Why is the public budgeting process a craft according to Chen et al?
WRSP 501 Quiz God’s Kingdom https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/wrsp-501-quiz-gods-kingdom/ WRSP 501 Quiz: God’s Kingdom and Worship History Covers the Learn material from Module 1: Week 1 — Module 4: Week 4. 1. God makes a unilateral covenant to preserve his creation with the: 2. The tower of Babel is a symbol of human attempts to create a perfect world by our own efforts. 3. According to Mathena, man’s greatest failure is his failure to: 4. Apocalypse means: 5. The partial kingdom is a shadow of the perfect kingdom that God will establish. 6. Studying worship history is: 7. The printing press aided in the common man receiving access to the Bible. 8. God’s covenant with Abraham demonstrates the: 9. The Holy Spirit has been given for the purpose of helping believers share the good news of Christ. 10. The Garden of Eden demonstrates the: 11. It can be assumed that the closer we get to the worship practices of those men who were eyewitnesses to Christ’s earthly ministry, the closer we can get to what real New Testament worship was like. 12. John Calvin advocated for congregations to sing only Psalms. 13. In the middle ages, the congregation did not participate in the worship service. 14. God spoke to the people of Israel and Judah through prophets, which demonstrates the: 15. In the middle ages, worship services were conducted in Latin. 16. Jesus introduces the kingdom of God in order to: 17. According to Roberts, the Bible consists of: 18. The name “Protestant” comes from the word “Protest”. 19. According to Mathena and Genesis 1:26, humans are designed to: 20. The purpose of redemption is relationship. 21. The continual disobedience of Israel represents the: 22. In 2 Chronicles 20, Jehoshaphat’s primary weapon for battle was: 23. According to Mathena, the Hebrew people believed that _________ gave meaning to their present and hope for their future. 24. The kingdom of God is defined as God’s people in God’s place under God’s rule and blessing. 25. Jesus was created by God the Father. 26. In the Early Church, services took place in a same weekly location. 27. God commands the Israelites to obey his law through the: 28. We have been ____________ to worship. 29. The Holy Spirit: 30. In the partial kingdom, God redeems the Israelites after they receive the ten commandments. 31. Every individual part of the tabernacle reveals a different facet of Christ’s character as it relates to the worship of the Father. Jesus, as the mercy seat represents: 32. The word “alleluia” means: 33. According to Mathena, our earthly bodies are: 34. According to Roberts, Adam and Eve eating from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil was a sin of law-making. 35. The Early Church incorporated scripture readings and spontaneous prayers into their services. 36. After the Israelites break their covenant, God makes a new covenant which leads to a changed heart and complete forgiveness, called the: 37. It is important to study the worship practices of the early church during the first centuries because of:
38. According to Mathena, a historical perspective is critical to: 39. According to Mathena, our God is a God who acts: 40. Early Christian worship modeled what believers had experienced in Jewish synagogues. 41. The ___________ were one of the first people groups to record their history. 42. Jesus is the: 43. Every individual part of the tabernacle reveals a different facet of Christ’s character as it relates to the worship of the Father. Jesus, as the laver represents: 44. Martin Luther advocated that only professional choirs should sing during services. 45. The delay in Christ’s return to allow for more people to hear the good news represents the: 46. The promises of the kingdom will all be completely fulfilled in the proclaimed kingdom. 47. God promises to raise up a great nation and give them a land to live in through the: 48. The New Testament leads us to expect a new physical temple will be built to fulfill the Old Testament promises. 49. Christians are to worship god with: 50. In the middle ages, priests taught that salvation was by grace alone.