HIWD 370 Quiz Rise of Islam https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hiwd-370-quiz-rise-of-islam/ HIWD 370 Quiz 3: Rise of Islam and Civilizations in Africa Covers the Textbook material from Module 3: Week 3. 1. The _____ Pillars of Islam outline the basic obligations of all believers. 2. The Ka’aba 3. According to Islamic belief 4. A primary contribution of Arab scholarship was the 5. Muhammad was born into an elite family of scholars and poets. 6. Like the Seljuk Turks, the Mongols were Muslims. 7. In addition to being Islam’s sacred book, the Koran 8. Ibn Sina used the work of ____ to support his own belief in natural laws. 9. In general terms, it can be said that Islamic society 10. Caliph (or khalifa) literally means 11. In 1291, ____, the last stronghold of the crusaders, fell to Muslim forces. 12. The caliphate that is often described as the Abbasid “Golden Age” was the reign of 13. The poet who wrote the Rubaiyat was 14. The crusades made Christian Europeans a major force in the Middle East until the beginning of the eighteenth century. 15. The diwan was a 16. Until the 1950s, the prevailing view among Western historians was that Africa was a continent without a history. 17. What was the ancient African kingdom that claimed to be descended from the Arabian kingdom of Saba (or Sheba)? 18. What is the earliest form of surviving architecture found in Africa? 19. The southern African state of Zimbabwe 20. The Khoi people of southern Africa were 21. In the states of West Africa, the focal point of the major towns was the 22. Swahili civilization was based on a mixture of native African and ____ cultures. 23. The northern area of Africa, from the Atlantic to the Indian Oceans, is composed of the greatest desert on Earth, the 24. Slavery in Africa 25. If one traveled south from the grasslands of central Africa, one would reach 26. The Epic of Son-Jara tells the story of the founder and ruler of 27. Prior to the arrival of Islam, most African religions were monotheistic. 28. A(n) ____ settlement was established on the island of Madagascar in the early first millennium C.E. 29. The original reason for the rise of the kingdom of Ghana was 30. The Garamantes
HIWD 370 Quiz Ancient China https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hiwd-370-quiz-ancient-china/ HIWD 370 Quiz 2: Ancient China and the Americas Covers the Textbook material from Module 2: Week 2. 1. What was true of the Shang government? 2. Most of the currently standing Great Wall of China – which appears in popular photos — was 3. What is true of Daoism? 4. The eastern frontier of China remained the great fault line of Asian conflict for over two thousand years. 5. Which statement about the “five relationships” is FALSE? 6. Iron making developed in China much later than in the Middle East. 7. The terra-cotta figures near the Qin First Emperor’s burial mound demonstrate the 8. In the Book of Mencius, human nature is portrayed as fundamentally 9. What was the greatest factor leading to the fall of the Qin dynasty? 10. The legendary “three sovereigns” of prehistoric China were 11. How might a peasant come to own a small plot of farmland? 12. The Shang Dynasty is especially useful for historians because it 13. The first emperor of the Qin Dynasty ascended to the throne at age thirteen. 14. What is the evidence that the social classes were becoming increasingly differentiated during the Shang Dynasty? 15. What was one of the major preoccupations of Chinese philosophers of the late Zhou dynasty? 16. Mayan civilization 17. Aztec rulers claimed that they were descendents of the gods. 18. Archeologists call the region in which the first New World civilizations began 19. Classical Mayan civilization was centered on modern-day Mexico. 20. Where did the Maya civilization develop? 21. Cacao beans were used as currency by Maya people. 22. Aztec writing 23. An extensive urban community was created at Chaco Canyon by the 24. The ancient Aztec capital 25. What caused the disappearance of Chimor? 26. Aztec religion 27. In Aztec society, once a young man of noble status reached adulthood, he would 28. The Inka king who began the conquests that led to the creation of their empire was 29. The chinampas 30. The Inka had no writing system, but kept records using a system of knotted strings called quipu.
HIWD 370 Quiz Early Humans https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hiwd-370-quiz-early-humans/ HIWD 370 Quiz: Early Humans and Ancient India Covers the Textbook material from Module 1: Week 1. 1. What did Mesopotamians believe about the forces that controlled the world? 2. Without ____, the emergence of Mesopotamian civilization might not have been possible. 3. Among the early Indo-European peoples were the 4. What happened during the reign of Akhenaten? 5. What was one of the most significant contributions to history made by the ancient Phoenicians? 6. Who did the Israelites believe were the true religious teachers, sent by God? 7. Unlike Mesopotamia’s rivers, the flooding of Egypt’s Nile was gradual and usually predictable, and the river was seen as life-enhancing rather than life-threatening. 8. The Epic of Gilgamesh was 9. Which people created the first Mesopotamian civilization? 10. King Solomon is associated with all of the following EXCEPT 11. What did the Phoenicians do once they gained their political independence from the Hittites and Egyptians? 12. Egyptian hieroglyphs 13. Which statement about the pyramids is FALSE? 14. Hammurabi took all of the following actions EXCEPT 15. In addition to Mesopotamia and Egypt, other nearby areas in which significant human advances were made included 16. In comparison to Hinduism, Buddhism was much less egalitarian. 17. Why did the jati class system survive for so many centuries? 18. According to the Arthasastra, 19. What did Mahavira, founder of Jainism, preach to his followers? 20. Which of the following was a set of commentaries on the Vedas that emphasized spiritual meditation? 21. The Ramayana 22. “The Rule of the Fishes” refers to the 23. Which of these items was NOT exported by India? 24. The two major cities of the Harappan civilization were 25. People in India belonged to a class not as individuals but as members of a kinship group known as the 26. Which statement about the relationship between the Indus River and Aryan cultures is correct? 27. The transition the Aryans made from pastoral to primarily agricultural pursuits was aided by the introduction of which of the following? 28. What was true of marriage in ancient India? 29. How many social classes existed in India? 30. The Indian priestly caste was known as the
BMAL 602 Nonprofit Analysis Project https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/bmal-602-nonprofit-analysis-project/ Nonprofit Analysis Project Assignment This project starts with the student reading about a Christian worldview and reflecting upon it in a short essay. Then, the student will select 10 different nonprofit organizations to review. After narrowing the reviewed 10 down to 1 particular organization, the student will do an in-depth evaluation and assessment, providing a list of well-supported recommendations. This will culminate in a professional letter to the assessed organization with the recommendations.
BMAL 602 Quiz 4 Fundraising https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/bmal-602-quiz-4-fundraising/ BMAL 602 Quiz 4 Fundraising and Income Strategies 1. This can be compared to a video that shows the flow of revenues and expenses of an organization, and the resulting changes in net assets over a period of time, generally a fiscal year. 2. The __________ shows how every category of expense is allocated by a nonprofit. 3. refers to the methods and systems by which financial transactions are recorded, either by hand or on a computer. 4. Brandy’s organization has leased its office space. This type of budget item would be considered a(n): 5. How do nonprofit organizations measure their success? 6. Assessing ___________ requires evaluating whether the organization is financially strong or in jeopardy and looking at the liabilities as well as the revenue and expenses shown on the statement of activities. 7. This provides a snapshot of the organization at a point in time, usually the end of a fiscal year. 8. The principal of how an asset’s value declines over time is called: 9. Robert made a large financial gift to the hospice that provided his wife with end-of-life care in gratitude for their service. Robert would be classified as a _______ type of donor. 10. Two terms used to describe long-term and broad-based fundraising are: 11. The concept of __________ states that individuals are driven by their nature to help others and improve the human condition. 12. A business-supply company made a gift to a location nonprofit organization of free office supplies for one year. This type of gift is referred to as: 13. Although philanthropy in some form is common around the world, organized fundraising and philanthropy on a massive scale are still primarily a(n) ___________ phenomenon. 14. This is a statement in an individual’s will or living trust dictating that on his or her death, some amount or portion of his or her estate is to be given to a charitable organization. 15. These types of foundations support their own programs and generally do not make grants to other organizations. 16. According to Dunlop, these are gifts that individual donors make to meet some nonrecurring need of the organization. 17. This is a contract that permits a for-profit company to use the nonprofit’s name or logo on its products in return for a royalty payment to the nonprofit. 18. This is an arrangement under which the company contributes either a fixed amount for each sale of a product or a specified percentage of its sales of a product to the nonprofit, usually in connection with a short-term promotion. 19. This is income from payment for goods or services that the nonprofit has provided. 20. The watershed event for nonprofit–corporate partnerships came in 1983, when __________ supported renovation of the Statue of Liberty by offering to contribute a penny to the campaign each time a consumer used his or her credit card from this company. 21. In _____________ nonprofits provide services and resources that corporations need for their business operations, but they also provide opportunities for companies to achieve a social benefit with resources that are outside their philanthropic or marketing budgets. 22. ties the nonprofit’s income directly to the number or amount of total sales made by the corporate partner and thus represents a true partnership in which the interests of both partners are aligned. 23. A financial corporate gift to a nonprofit organization made solely for the purpose of corporate social responsibility is making what type of a donation? 24. Corporate sponsorships offer nonprofits the benefits of added revenue and ________ through the company’s promotion of the relationship.
25. According to Young, a business venture is worth pursuing if:
BMAL 602 Quiz 3 Management https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/bmal-602-quiz-3-management/ BMAL 602 Quiz 3 Management and Leadership in the Nonprofit 1. According to Collins, this type of leadership exists when the leader has the power to simply make decisions. 2. A board of directors is interviewing individuals for a CEO position of a nonprofit organization. The directors want to ensure the person they hire has the personality that matches the organization’s mission. The board members want to ensure: 3. The type of leader that listens, empathizes with others, and focuses on relationships is a: 4. Nonprofit CEOs spend the majority of the time on the external activity of: 5. The responsibility mostly concerned with day-to-day operations, and with making things work, is called: 6. An organizational leader who changes his leadership styles based on the particular circumstances of a situation is practicing: 7. One of the benefits of strategic planning is that it helps build wide consensus and common understanding about mission, vision, values, goals, and strategies. That benefit is sacrificed if: 8. Staff and volunteers are what part of a nonprofit’s capacity? 9. The vision statement is: 10. This identifies the characteristics, values, perceptions, expectations, and concerns of stakeholders, including clients or customers, donors, and relevant government officials. 11. Marty is holding a meeting with his staff and volunteers to solicit their ideas for organizational improvement. Marty is applying which type of capacity as described by Letts? 12. This is a technique used by business firms to determine it their various programs, products, and services are in line with their strategies and goals. 13. Yankey and Willen would describe decreased government funding as a(an) _______ driver of collaboration. 14. Each of the terms below refers to a type of nonprofit-corporation relationship except 15. Forrer states a key characteristic of collaborations is that they: 16. The C.O.R.E Continuum identifies relationships that affect organizations’: 17. As the economy improves, probably returning ultimately to a higher level of prosperity, pressures for nonprofits to collaborate and merge: 18. A proposed merger of two nonprofit organizations failed because senior leadership focused on self-interests. This proposed merger failed due to: 19. La Piana Consulting defines a relationship between a nonprofit organizations and a public corporation that is simple and not permanent as a(an): 20. Which assessment tool is meant to determine an organization’s success in accomplishing its mission, or program effectiveness? 21. One disadvantage of SROI is that: 22. Nonprofit managers should be committed to performance measurement but: 23. The CEO of a nonprofit organization is conducting a study comparing the costs of conducting a fundraising program to the amount of funds raised. The CEO is conducting a(an): 24. Many nonprofits have voluntarily adopted _____________ provisions as a way to assure their donors that they are operating with high integrity, transparency, and sound governance. 25. This concept was developed as a way for businesses to obtain a balanced perspective on performance by combining financial data with other considerations.
BMAL 602 Quiz 2 Board and Governance https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/bmal-602-quiz-2-board-and-governance/ BMAL 602 Quiz 2 Board and Governance 1. scientists study nonprofits organizations from the perspective of power relationships between citizens and government. 2. Max Weber’s idea of bureaucracy as an ideal model for managing organizations is known as: 3. refers to the tendency of organizations to mimic each other, specifically in models to be adopted. 4. Nonprofits are driven by: 5. An approach taken by some sociologists to explain the birth and death of organizations, which analyzes organizations in terms of population density, is: 6. The type of market failure in which a breakdown in the ideal or typical relationship between a buyer and seller occurs is called: 7. The CEO of a nonprofit organization is preparing a data information system to monitor if organizational donations are meeting an organizational goal. The CEO is controlling his organization’s performance through the use of: 8. The ___________ is a guide for actions taken by nonprofit organizations and the principal standard against which performance should be measured. 9. This theory attributes the existence of nonprofit organizations to the vision and initiative of individuals who have created and built them. 10. This theory explains the behavior of organizations in terms of their dependence on external constituencies. 11. One significant risk of resource dependency is actions taken by the nonprofit to alter its goals and activities to satisfy the contributor of funds. This is also called: 12. Mary went grocery shopping for food to feed her family.Mary is buying: 13. Great companies that produce excellent results have: 14. In 2005, who assembled a panel of experts to identify those practices that lead to effective governance in an organization? 15. In Carver’s policy governance model, he argues that the board should lead the organization by focusing its attention on establishing: 16. Establishing the organization mission is the responsibility of its: 17. No subject commands more ink, or more lung power, than the role of the board in: 18. A nonprofit board of directors has hired a consultant to help the directors think of new and creative ways to improve organizational performance. According to Chait, the board is operating in what type of mode? 19. Who did Herman and Heimovics find is actually seen as responsible for the organization’s success or failure? 20. Elected boards are most common in: 21. George retired from a local law firm and then volunteered to oversee a nonprofit’s legal records. George is performing the duties of a: 22. A nonprofit organization’s finance committee is listening to the advice of a financial expert on how they should manage the organization’s investments. The board is practicing which duty? 23. Chait, Ryan, and Taylor call for the board and the CEO to focus their attention on: 24. A nonprofit board of directors is establishing ground rules that inform members what type of fundraising efforts would not be allowed. The board is setting a policy that Carver would refer to as: 25. Which type of board–CEO model suggests an organization’s strategic plan is simply a paperwork project?
BMAL 602 Quiz 1 Overview https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/bmal-602-quiz-1-overview/ BMAL 602 Quiz 1 Overview of Nonprofit Sector 1. Which decade marked a turning point in public policy, with government outsourcing more of the delivery and management of social and human services to nonprofits, which resulted in the increased need for professional management in nonprofit organizations and an increased number of students interested in working for nonprofit organizations? 2. The University of Georgia, Institute for Nonprofit Organizations offers graduate school coursework through the departments of social work, political science, and management. This is an example of studying the field of nonprofit management applying a(an): 3. The complexity of the nonprofit manager’s job and the multiple pressures inherent in the job frequently result in: 4. Concomitant with the increase in nonprofit management literature in the 1990s and 2000s, what also grew rapidly? 5. According to Frumkin, the “expressive” purpose of nonprofits is to: 6. Throughout most of the history of management as a recognized discipline, most theorists have: 7. One overarching force that has driven the nonprofit management revolution of recent decades has been: 8. There has been a shift in thinking about nonprofits that emphasizes: 9. Capital markets would provide nonprofit organizations funding based on: 10. Nonprofit management literature is drawn from which of the three areas? 11. Individuals who believe that nonprofit organizations should apply business methods of management perceive nonprofit organizations as: 12. Those who view nonprofit organizations primarily as social institutions portray nonprofit managers as: 13. According to Sabeti a critical mass of organizations is occurring within the public, nonprofit, and private sectors creating a: 14. Another name for social welfare organizations is: 15. A nonprofit that qualifies under Section 501 (c)(3) cannot support candidates for public office and must limit its expenditures on: 16. Organizations that are exempt under Section 501 (c)(4), whose purpose is to work for social change are referred to by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) as: 17. The legal foundations of America’s nonprofit sector are drawn from: 18. Unlike public charities, private foundations are not permitted to engage in: 19. What is defined as giving intended to meet current individual human needs or to alleviate current human suffering? 20. The number of nonprofits operating in the United States today is approximately: 21. If measured by total revenue, the number of employees, and its share of total wages and salaries, which subsector of charitable nonprofits is the largest nonprofit sector? 22. Almost __________ of the revenue of charitable nonprofits comes from government grants and payments for services under programs such as Medicare and Medicaid. 23. Nonprofit organizations interested in achieving both social and economic value are referred to as: 24. The two extreme spectrums that define a social enterprise are purely philanthropic and: 25. In 2009, the nonprofit sector employed what percentage of the total workforce?
INTL 500 Essay Globalization https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/intl-500-essay-globalization/ Essay: Globalization and Humanitarian International Development Assignment Students will write on themes related to globalization and humanitarian international development.
INTL 500 Essay International Relations https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/intl-500-essay-international-relations/ The student will write a 5–7-page research-based paper in current APA format that focuses on the topic relevant to the course readings for the Module in which it is located and all previous learning. The paper must include at least 5-7 references in addition to the course textbooks, presentations, and the Bible. Essay: International Relations Theories Assignment Students will learn key theories and to what extent they are applicable to real world events.
BMAL 501 Summation Paper https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/bmal-501-summation-paper/ The Summation Paper Assignment tests the student’s ability to look at three groups; leadership, management, and followership, and how these three groups’ have affected their place of employment, or have been affected in one of their previous places of employment. The paper must be 1100-1300 words, include at least 3 scholarly/peer-reviewed journal articles and 1 reference from course textbooks, and be written in current APA format.
BMAL 501 Powerpoint https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/bmal-501-powerpoint/ Students will choose three important concepts learned from the textbook readings, presentations, websites and articles readings. The student will make two PowerPoint presentations, one from the Satterlee text and one from the Dees text. Students must complete 10-15 slides, including a title page and reference list, based on at least 3 peer-reviewed sources in addition to the text. The student must use current APA format.
BMAL 501 Literature Review https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/bmal-501-literature-review/ The student will complete a Literature Review in 2 stages: Literature Review: Annotated Bibliography and Outline Assignment The student will submit an Annotated Bibliography of at least 10 references (in current APA format, with a cover page and abstract) that he or she plans on using for the research. Each reference must include a summary, analysis, determination of how the article will be utilized in the literature review, and an assessment. The student will also submit a detailed outline of at least 2 pages in current APA format. Literature Review: Final Submission Assignment The student will research and write a Literature Review in current APA format that focuses on a topic relevant to the contemporary issues and practices of leadership and management. The paper must be 1800-2100 words and include at least 10 references in addition to the course textbooks and the Bible.
BMAL 501 Quiz 2 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/bmal-501-quiz-2/ BMAL 501 Quiz 2: Communications and Models 1. Personal territory that ranges from 2 to 4 feet is 2. The volume, rate of speech, pitch, pauses, and silences used in speaking to convey a message are referred to as 3. Personal territory that ranges from 12 to 25 feet is considered 4. When silence is interpreted to mean agreement is referred to as 5. Visual communication is the primary method of conveying messages because of the ability for quick delivery and feedback. 6. A positive aspect of teams is 7. involves responding to subordinates with positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, punishment, or extinction. 8. Collaboration can occur by 9. The ____ stage of Tuckman’s Team Development process represents a time of change in which close relationships form an interdependence between members of the group. 10. In Skinner’s Behavior Modification theory, rewards could either be monetary or non-monetary but not both. 11. The ____ is responsible for conducting EEOC enforcement litigation under the Title VII of the Civil Rights act of 1964. 12. Which of the following is NOT an example of valuing diversity in the workplace? 13. _____ interview questions focus on hypothetical situations 14. During the stage of implementing a human-resource strategy, an organization’s HR managers seek to promote a divers, and high-performing workforce. 15. A hostile work environment exists when an employee experiences workplace harassment that includes an offensive, intimidating, or jovial atmosphere, created by an individual in the workplace. 16. When determining what type of transportation to use, managers need to consider 17. Operations Management must consider the ______ utilization of resources 18. According to a review on projects, _____ were considered successful. 19. A manager who assist with the collection of information and analysis would have a 20. Providing the customer with the highest quality regardless of cost, in a timely manner with the shortest possible lead times is one of the desired outcomes of the TPS system. 21. Match the following Internal Recruiting Employee Compensation Steady-state Career Path Strategic Human Resource Planning Job Specification Strategic Alignment On-the-job Training Situational Interview Questions Off-the-job Training Accountability 22. From your reading in I Timothy and II Timothy, where are the components of the communication process (sender, encoding, message, decoding, receiver, feedback loop and noise) noted ? Give specific examples from the Scripture of each of the components. Support your answer with examples from specific verses.
BMAL 501 Quiz 1 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/bmal-501-quiz-1/ BMAL 501 Quiz 1 1. The ability to persist in the face of adversity is referred to as the dimension of emotional intelligence. 2. A _____ manager is responsible for oversight of the resources within one specialized department in the organization. 3. A _____ answers the question, “What is our reason for being?” 4. A manager taking corrective actions when the organization experiences unexpected disturbances is performing within the ______ of managerial roles. 5. Due in large part to globalization and the growth of social media, the organizational environments in which management must operate is not much different than it has been in previous years. 6. Fredrick Taylor used _____ to develop the most efficient way to complete a task 7. According to Fayol, authority was based on a manager’s position in the organization, as well as his or her intelligence, , and moral fortitude. 8. The essence of Deming’s quality improvement model is: 9. In the check phase of Deming’s quality improvement model 10. According to Fiedler, the effectiveness of a leader is determined by the degree of match between a dominant trait of the leader and the favorableness of the situation for the leader. 11. Bring in outside assessors, evaluating the team, performing risk analysis and implementing an early warning system are all steps that a _____ manager would need to take. 12. In a highly centralized organization 13. Internal controls 14. Which of the following is NOT a step in the basic planning process? 15. Concerning effective planning, it can be said that failing to organize is planning to fail. 16. A common trait of the transformational leader is 17. Which of the following characterizes a manager? 18. People-oriented leaders 19. ____ power is found inherent to a position. 20. The transactional leadership method proves to be the more dynamic approach to leadership with a focus on individuals within the organization. 21. Match the following Managerial roles Transformational Leader Transactional Leader Interpersonal Total Responsibility Management Referent power Managers Autocratic Manager Leadership Organizational Management 22. Detail the organizational environment in which Peter operated in Acts and I Peter. What were some of the specific internal factors he had to consider? Note the specific internal factor along with your example from scripture.
MSCI 530 Quiz 8 Nucleic acid https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/msci-530-quiz-8-nucleic-acid/ MSCI 530 Quiz 8: Nucleic acid, and Integration of Metabolism 1. A patient with a deficiency of ALA synthase will express significantly low levels of these proteins except; 2. This membrane protein found in enterocytes is involved in the conversion of ferrous iron to ferric iron; 3. A patients liver biopsy shows increased deposition of hemosiderin and ferritin which conrm a diagnosis of hemochromatosis. Which of these is least likely to be the casue of this condition? 4. A 25 year old student in your A/P class complains of fatigue and excessive sleepiness following a heavy menstrual period. She says her family doctor diagnosed her with iron-deficiency anemia and prescribed iron tablets for her. Which of these formulations of iron is most bioavailable (best absorbed)? 5. The reaction catalyzed by ALA synthase in erythrocytes uses these as its substrates; 6. A 25 year old Liberty University student presents to the ER with complaints of recurrent episode of anxiety, paranoia, confusion and abdominal pain. She has not experienced any rashes or photosensitivity but said she noticed that her urine color was port- wine after she took a barbiturate her family doctor prescribed. She is diagnosed with Acute intermittent Porphyria caused by a deficiency of; 7. Which of these nuclear bases is not a pyrimidine? 8. Which of these nucleoside triphosphates is not correctly paired with the metabolic process it is directly involved in? 9. The end product of purine catabolism in humans is; 10. Which of these amino acids is not required for the synthesis of purines? 11. Which of these enzymes involved in purine metabolism do you suspect will have a diminished activity in a patient with molybdenum deficiency? 12. Which of these conditions is least likely to lead to the development of hyperuricemia and Gout? 13. WHat will be the best way to manage a case of megaloblastic anemia with orotic aciduria? 14. The hormone that majorly mediates the fat mobilization, hyperglycemia and negative nitrogen balance seen in hypercatabolic states is; 15. Which of these secretions of adipocytes signals energy sufficiency, decreases apetite and promotes lipolysis? 16. Which of these explains why brain cells do not oxidize fatty acids for their energy supply? 17. At rest, a patient’s respiratory quotient(RQ) was calculated as 0.71 but when he started exercising, the value rose to 1.0. An RQ of 1.0 indicates that the patient’s energy supply; 18. The condition that results from insufficient dietary protein intake and worsened by ample dietary carbohydrates and characterized by flaky paint dermatitis, edema and growth failure is: 19. Which of these is not a possible cause of a microcytic anemia? 20. Which of these features is not consistent with a diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia?
MSCI 530 Quiz 7 Amino acids https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/msci-530-quiz-7-amino-acids/ MSCI 530 Quiz 7: Amino acids and Vitamins Metabolism 1. The type of atrophic gastritis that is characterized by megaloblastic anemia, histamine-fast achlorhydria and antibodies against the intrinsic factor is; 2. This cause of Vitamin B12 deficiency leads to an early onset of symptoms in affected patients; 3. During a neonatal genetic screening, Betty’s baby is found to have phenylketonuria. The defective enzyme in this disease is most likely? 4. A patient with Vitamin B 12 deficiency due to decreased intrinsic factor production will get the least benet from this form of treatment; 5. Which of these is least likely to result in hyperhomocysteinemia? 6. Which of these amino acids is considered conditionally essential because its levels are dependent on dietary intake of methionine? 7. Which of these amino acids is considered as strictly ketogenic and cannot be used in gluconeogenesis? 8. Tyrosine is a precursor for these hormones except; 9. Which of these is a branched-chain amino acid? 10. Tryptophan is a precursor for the synthesis of; 11. Maple syrup urine disease results from the deficiency of this enzymes that is involved in the metabolism of Isoleucine; 12. This activity of this enzyme will not likely be affected by a deficiency of dihydrobiopterin reductase; 13. Which of these hormones is not inactivated by monoamine oxidase? 14. In patients with with pyridoxine-responsive epilepsy, PLP is deficient due to its sequestration by; 15. In phenylketonuria, phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency leads to the increased urinary excretion of this metabolite; 16. Aminopterin is used as an anti-cancer drug to reduce the rate of cell proliferation by inhibiting this enzyme; 17. Which of these conditions is least likely to impair the activity of methionine synthase? 18. A deficiency of these vitamins can result in hyperhomocysteinemia except; 19. Which of these does not serve as a one-carbon donor to FH4? 20. The deficiency of Vitamin B12 often results in a folate trap in the the form of N5-methyl-FH4 (a functional folate deficiency) due to;
MSCI 530 Quiz 6 Steroids https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/msci-530-quiz-6-steroids/ MSCI 530 Quiz 6: Steroids/Nitrogen Metabolism 1. Abetalipoproteinemia is a disorder of lipoprotein metabolism that results from a defect in this protein; 2. In evaluating a diabetic patient who is taking Rosuvastatin to prevent atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease, which of these effects do you suspect will be most prominent; 3. Hypocholesterolemia will not impair the synthesis of this lipid soluble hormone; 4. In a patient who is taking a bile acid sequestrant to control his hyperlipidemia, which of these enzymes do you suspect will exhibit a significantly increased activity? 5. The intermediates of endogenous cholesterol synthesis can also be used in the biosynthesis of these larger molecules except; 6. In periods of starvation, human have the ability to metabolize cholesterol to CO2 and water for ATP generation. 7. The most cholesterol-rich organ in the human body is the; 8. The esterication of cholesterol molecules associated with HDL is mediated by; 9. Dietary alpha-tocopherol is transported to the liver by: 10. In steroidogenic tissues, cholesteryl esters in HDL is cleared by; 11. The conversion of mature chylomicrons to chylomicron remnants is mediated by this protein; 12. Which of these proteins is involved in the transfer of cholesterol from HDL to IDL; 13. Which of these genes is defective in a patient with Tangier disease? 14. Which of these conditions is least likely to result in vitamin D deficiency? 15. Which of these is not a major nitrogenous compound that is excreted in the urine? 16. The site of urea synthesis in humans is the; 17. The generation of ammonium ions from amino acids is catalyzed by these enzymes except; 18. Ammonia that enters the urea cycle for excretion comes from two sources – glutamine and ______? 19. This enzyme is present in the kidneys and is highly active in chronic metabolic acidosis. It produces of ammonia which is used to remove H+ as ammonium ions in the urine? 20. Which of these amino acids becomes dietarily essential in patients with carbamoyl phosphate synthase deficiency?
MSCI 530 Quiz 5 Lipid Metabolism https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/msci-530-quiz-5-lipid-metabolism/ MSCI 530 Quiz 5: Lipid Metabolism 1. The hydrophilic domain of glycerophospholipids consist of phosphodiester bridges that link the hydrophobic domain to the hydroxyl group of one of these except; 2. These phospholipids are asymmetrically concentrated in the inner membrae leaet except; 3. Phospholipids in bile help to solubilize cholesterol and minimize the precipitation of cholesterol and gallstone formation. 4. These enzymes are anchored to the plasma membrane by means of a glycosylphosphatidyl inositol except; 5. The surfactant produced by Type II pneumocytes is largely composed of this phospholipid; 6. Which of these phospholipids is wrongly paired with the enzyme/physiologic process it activates; 7. Which of these phospholipid metabolites serves as an extracellular signaling molecule? 8. This amino acid is used in the biosynthesis of ceramide; 9. Which of these is used in the trapping of choline by non-hepatic cells for endogenous phosphatidylcholine synthesis? 10. A deficiency of sphingomyleinase results in this disease; 11. Eicosanoids are primarily synthesized endogenously from; 12. Which of structures secretes prostaglandins into the semen? 13. Which of these eicosanoids is not described as a slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis? 14. Which of these prostaglandins can be employed in the treatment of erectile dysfunction due to its vasodilatory effects? 15. Which of these is not described as a proteoglycan? 16. The accumulation of this proteoglycan is characteristic of Maroteaux-Lamy disease; 17. In Hunter disease (MPS II), the synthesis/activity of this enzyme is decient; 18. The accumulation of ganglioside GM2 in neural tissues due to the deficiency of hexosaminidase A is characteristic of this disease; 19. Which is not a physiologic function of proteoglycans in human metabolism