HLTH 505 Quiz Ripples https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-505-quiz-ripples/ HLTH 505 Quiz Ripples Covers the Learn material from Module 7: Week 7. 1. What is the most common biological pollutant in indoor air, provoking severe allergic reactions among some individuals? 2. The 3-way catalytic converters used to reduce emissions in most new model cars remove which pollutants? 3. Why is radon gas in homes considered a problem? 4. Which of the following is NOT an auto-associated pollutant? 5. How many picocuries of radon per liter of air does the EPA regard as the “action level” at or above which abatement action should be initiated? 6. Which of the following pollutants is most damaging to human health? 7. If you notice a yellowish-brown haze in the air over your city, what criteria air pollutant is present? 8. What is generally considered to be the pH value of natural, unpolluted precipitation? 9. What pollutant is significantly reduced through the use of “scrubbers”? 10. Which of the following is the most frequent cause of “sick building syndrome”? 11. What is the most abundant pollutant found in urban air? 12. What is “photochemical smog”? 13. Which of the following explains why the Midwest is not suffering as severe damage from acid rain as are the northeastern states? 14. Which of the following statements about hazardous air pollutants (i.e. “air toxics”) is false? 15. Which of the following statements in reference to air pollution and health is false? 16. If a person living in a mobile home complains of eye irritation, headache, nausea, dizziness, respiratory problems, extreme tiredness, or a rash, it is quite possible that the cause is exposure to what common indoor air pollutant? 17. Which of the following could be a source of formaldehyde exposure inside homes? 18. “Emissions trading” represents a novel market-based approach to controlling air pollution, originally conceived as a way of reducing what environmental problem 19. In what way might acid rain pose a human health threat? 20. When is “ozone season”—the period when this gas is most likely to reach health- threatening levels? 21. Which regulated air pollutant has been the most difficult to control and is most often the cause of a community’s inability to meet national ambient air quality standards? 22. Which criteria air pollutant is associated primarily with coal-burning? 23. Which of the following presents the greatest airborne health threat to passengers or crew on commercial airliners? 24. What pollution control strategy has actually worsened the acid rain problem? 25. What pollutant enters homes from the soil under houses and can accumulate to concentrations which EPA estimates may be responsible for 10% of all U.S. lung cancer deaths? 26. Which of the following is a hazardous air pollutant as opposed to a criteria pollutant? 27. Which of the following statements about radon contamination in homes is false? 28. The average pH of rainfall in the eastern U.S. is currently in the range of: 29. Which of the following activities is the single most significant cause of recreational noise-induced hearing loss? 30. What minimum level of noise exposure, if experienced on a regular basis, could lead to permanent impairment of hearing ability?
31. Which of the following could trigger the onset of the condition known as “temporary threshold shift”? 32. What is the unit for measuring intensity of sound (i.e. loudness of a noise)? 33. Anatomically, what impact does noise have on the ear, resulting in hearing loss? 34. Which of the following statements about noise is false? 35. What symptom is experienced by sufferers of tinnitus? 36. Which of the following constitutes the single largest use of water in the typical American home? 37. Approximately what proportion of all the water on earth is found in the form of freshwater available for human consumption and use 38. What activity constitutes the single largest use of water in the United States? 39. Why is the Ogallala Aquifer the focus of much concern? 40. Why is desalination of seawater not more widely practiced as a means of augmenting water supplies? 41. What is the #1 contributor to groundwater contamination in the United States today? 42. What is the name given to the type of geological formation in which groundwater occurs? 43. Which of the following statements about groundwater is false? 44. Of all available freshwater, which of the following constitutes the greatest amount? 45. Which of the following statements about water conservation is false?
HLTH 505 Quiz Weather https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-505-quiz-weather/ HLTH 505 Quiz: Weather Covers the Learn material from Module 6: Week 6. 1. If atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide increase as scientists predict, which of the following consequences could result? 2. In what way is the existence of the ozone layer beneficial to living things? 3. What country is the world’s largest emitter of carbon dioxide? 4. The Montreal Protocol is a treaty that represents a significant act of international cooperation to deal with what important environmental problem? 5. Atmospheric sulfate injection and other artificial attempts to cool the surface of the Earth by blocking some of the incoming sunlight are referred to as: 6. Which of the following statements about wind energy is false? 7. What is the main advantage of geothermal over solar and wind power? 8. At present, what percentage of total world energy use is provided by fossil fuels? 9. Food security is comprised of four components. Which of the following is not a component of food security? 10. Which of the chemicals listed below has the highest Global Warming Potential? 11. What crop offers great potential for biodiesel production in tropical countries? 12. Infectious diseases that spread from animals to humans are referred to as: 13. Which of the following statements about rooftop PV systems is false? 14. What phenomenon does the Keeling Curve diagram? 15. The vast majority of disasters over the past 20 years have been related to: 16. The fundamental concept behind the CDC’s BRACE framework is: 17. Which country made history when it supplied its entire energy needs for one 24-hour period with wind turbines? 18. At present, what is the most widely used biofuel in the U.S.? 19. Which of these is not a carbon dioxide sink? 20. Which of the following is NOT the more energy-efficient choice?
HLTH 505 Quiz Disasters https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-505-quiz-disasters/ HLTH 505 Quiz: Disasters Covers the Learn material from Module 5: Week 5. 1. A type of allergic reaction known as “Chinese restaurant syndrome” is experienced by many consumers who eat foods containing the food additive: 2. What substances are prohibited by the Delaney Clause? 3. Which of the following foodborne diseases is particularly worrisome to public health officials because the pathogen involved is capable of growing quite well at temperatures considerably lower than those within the “Danger Zone”? 4. Food Defect Action Levels are aimed at regulating what type of substances in food? 5. Which foodborne disease has the most rapid time of onset following consumption of the tainted food item, with symptoms generally appearing 2– 7 hours after eating? 6. What is the most likely way in which the American consumer is currently being exposed to potentially dangerous pesticide residues? 7. What synthetic food additive has virtually eliminated goiter as a health problem in the U.S.? 8. Sneezing on foods during preparation or handling foods when an open cut or skin eruption is present is a likely way of inoculating foods with the pathogen responsible for which foodborne disease? 9. Chronic arthritis may develop as a lasting after-effect of which foodborne illness? 10. Outbreaks of bacterial food poisoning are most often associated with eating: 11. Strained relations between the European Union and the United States are a result of the EU’s ban on imports of what American food product? 12. What provision in the 1996 Food Quality Protection Act addressed an important issue not covered by previous legislation? 13. What substances comprise the GRAS List? 14. Why were health officials against the use of subtherapeutic doses of antibiotics such as penicillin and tetracycline in livestock feed and trough water? 15. The incidence of both tapeworm and roundworm infections in the U.S. has been increasing as a result of the growing popularity of which ethnic specialty? 16. For the average American, which of the following represents the single largest source of exposure to ionizing radiation on a yearly basis? 17. What is the purpose of nuclear fuel reprocessing? 18. Responsibility for regulating the disposal of high-level radioactive wastes rests with: 19. Which type of skin cancer has the highest fatality rate? 20. In which state were extensive characterization studies undertaken to determine its suitability as the nation’s first permanent high-level radioactive waste repository? 21. The sharp increase in skin cancer rates during the past few decades in the 22. S. has largely been attributed to excess exposure to: 23. Which stage of the nuclear fuel cycle results in radioactive exposure to the largest number of people? 24. What is the minimum SPF sunscreen rating that is effective for preventing skin damage? 25. What is the lowest level of whole-body radiation exposure at which visible symptoms of radiation sickness will soon become apparent (i.e., what is the point at which exposure is regarded as “high-level”)? 26. The “half-life” of a radioactive isotope refers to: 27. Which of the following parts of the body is most vulnerable to the damaging effects of microwaves? 28. Which of the following statements in reference to health effects of radiation is false?
29. What kind of radwaste is managed at the Waste Isolation Pilot Plant (WIPP) in New Mexico? 30. What constitutes the most serious type of accident which could occur at a nuclear power plant? 31. What disease is most frequently associated with low-level exposure to ionizing radiation?
HLTH 505 Quiz Toxins https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-505-quiz-toxins/ HLTH 505 Quiz: Toxins Covers the Learn material from Module 4: Week 4. 1. Which two of the following toxic substances are capable of crossing the placental barrier and causing severe fetal damage in humans? 2. Which of the following statements about LD50 is false? 3. Which of the following is the leading source of dioxin emissions in the U.S.? 4. What is considered to represent the single most frequent cause of lead poisoning among American children? 5. What danger is associated with drinking, as opposed to inhaling, asbestos? 6. “Minamata Disease” killed or seriously disabled hundreds of Japanese who had inadvertently eaten fish contaminated with: 7. Which of the following organisms is most acutely sensitive to the toxic effects of dioxin? 8. Which of the following toxic substances has been found as a contaminant in farmed salmon? 9. Mesothelioma, a cancer of the lung or stomach lining, is known as a “marker disease” because its only known cause is exposure to what toxic substance? 10. For which toxic substances do researchers say there is no safe level—no threshold below which exposure will result in no adverse health impact? 11. What was the toxic contaminant in Agent Orange which allegedly caused a variety of ailments among Vietnamese civilians and American servicemen exposed to the chemical during the Vietnam War? 12. Which of the following is a major threat posed by TCDD and related chemicals? 13. Where do PCBs, dioxins, or any of the chlorinated hydrocarbons concentrate in living tissues?
14. Human poisonings due to mercury exposure most commonly result in what kind of health damage? 15. PCBs, which biomagnify as they move up the food chain, are most commonly taken up by humans when they eat certain kinds of: 16. Which of these pests is a problem because its bite results in a painful ulceration which may take months to heal and leaves a large, permanent, ugly scar? 17. Which of the following is no longer an effective method for controlling malaria? 18. In which of the following groups of organisms would you expect to see the greatest effects of pesticide biomagnification? 19. For what accomplishment did Paul Muller receive a Nobel Prize in 1948? 20. What was the major reason EPA gave for banning the use of most chlorinated hydrocarbon insecticides? 21. What is meant by the term “integrated pest management”? 22. Minamata Disease, reproductive failure among peregrine falcons and eagles exposed to DDT, and the death of western grebes at Clear Lake, CA, are all examples of: 23. When did DDT first come into widespread use? 24. What characteristic of botanical insecticides such as pyrethrum and rotenone makes them useful? 25. What is the basic cause of the phenomenon known as “secondary pest outbreak”? 26. Which of the following pesticidal groups is most acutely toxic to the pesticide applicator? 27. What characteristic of the organophosphate insecticides makes them more environmentally acceptable than the chlorinated hydrocarbons?
28. An example of a persistent, broad-spectrum insecticide is: 29. The mosquito-borne illness of greatest concern in the United States today is: 30. Lyme disease is a newly recognized ailment transmitted by the bite of which of these pests?
HLTH 505 Quiz Urbanization and Disease https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-505-quiz-urbanization-and-disease/ HLTH 505 Quiz: Urbanization and Disease 1. What is currently the most common route of entry for exotic pests introduced into the United States? 2. What is the single leading cause of deforestation in the world today? 3. Which of the following is a species in danger of extinction due to introduction of an exotic species into its natural habitat: 4. The main strategy currently advocated by the Natural Resources Conservation Service for reducing soil erosion is: 5. What activity is regulated under the CITES agreement? 6. What is the major “energy crisis” among the poor in developing countries? 7. Which of the following statements about erosion control is false? 8. In which region has cattle ranching been the single most important cause of deforestation? 9. What is meant by “T-value”? 10. Which of the following is the leading cause of species loss at the present time? 11. Which of the following statements about wetlands is false? 12. What are aflatoxins? 13. Which of the following substances acts as a mutagen, a teratogen, and a carcinogen? 14. Which of the following types of cancer is sometimes associated with a prior viral infection? 15. Which of these teratogenic substances is the cause of approximately 5% of all deaths among newborns in the U.S., most of them resulting from low birth weight caused by a reduction in blood oxygen levels? 16. The standard procedure for testing the health effects of new chemicals is to administer very large doses of the substance in question to laboratory animals and to observe any adverse effects which might develop. Why are such large doses used? 17. Regular consumption of which of the following foods is believed capable of reducing an individual’s chances of developing cancer? 18. In reference to cancer prevention, which of the following statements is false? 19. The death rate due to which of the following type of cancer has declined dramatically over the past 50 years because of improved diagnostic procedures? 20. The fact that asbestos workers who smoke are 60 times more likely to develop lung cancer than are their nonsmoking colleagues is an example of: 21. Which of the following statements about cancer is false? 22. What is the cause of Down syndrome? 23. Pregnant women whose diet is deficient in folic acid are at heightened risk of bearing a child with what type of birth defect? 24. Thalidomide, methyl mercury, Dilantin, Accutane, DES, and cytomegalovirus all share what characteristic? 25. According to the American Cancer Society, the only cancers for which death rates have been rising in recent years are: 26. During which of the following stages of fetal development is exposure to a teratogenic agent likely to be the most damaging? 27. Which of the following statements about lung cancer is true? 28. What is the leading cause of cancer deaths for men? 29. What is a proto-oncogene? 30. Which of the following diseases is caused by a point mutation?
HLTH 505 Quiz Fateful Triangle https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-505-quiz-fateful-triangle/ HLTH 505 Quiz: Fateful Triangle Covers the Learn material from Module 2: Week 2. 1. In developing countries numerous cases of childhood blindness could be prevented each year simply by adding what micronutrient to children’s diets? 2. Iodine deficiency (IDD) contributes to the following except 3. Which of the following is a protein-deficiency disease common among impoverished children in developing countries, characterized by discoloration of the hair, white patches on the skin, and a protruding abdomen due to the accumulation of fluids? 4. Golden Rice, a genetically modified grain, is fortified with which nutrient in order to combat vitamin A deficiency in developing countries? 5. Why have many farmers opted to plant genetically modified Roundup-Ready corn and soybeans rather than conventional varieties? 6. Which of the following offers the greatest future possibilities for expanding world fish consumption? 7. Most of the gains in world food supply since 1950 were achieved by: 8. Which country leads the world in aquaculture production? 9. Worldwide, a dietary deficiency of what important nutrient is the single most important cause of preventable brain damage and mental retardation? 10. What is meant by the “Green Revolution”? 11. Which of the following statements about the current state of world fisheries is false? 12. Which of the following statements regarding food production trends is false? 13. If a severely malnourished child is diagnosed as suffering from marasmus, this indicates that the victim’s diet is deficient in: 14. Which of the following statements about malnutrition is false? 15. Which of the following is most directly to blame for the fact that approximately 800 million people in the world today are malnourished?
HLTH 505 Quiz 1 Man and Environment https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-505-quiz-1-man-and-environment/ HLTH 505 Quiz: Man and the Environment Covers the Learn material from Module 1: Week 1. 1. In which biome are the greatest number of plant and animal species found? 2. What do zebra mussels, Asian carp, gypsy moths, and water hyacinths have in common? 3. Which biome today is experiencing more rapid destruction and degradation than any other? 4. Which of the following statements about secondary consumers is false? 5. In which of the following biomes is annual precipitation lowest? 6. Reduction of competition for food and living space among species inhabiting the same geographical area is accomplished by: 7. In the biotic community of a tropical rain forest, which of the following could be considered an “ecological dominant”? 8. What trophic level is represented by a spider? 9. Which of the following statements about ecological succession is false? 10. In 1840 Justus Liebig made a valuable contribution to science by demonstrating that: 11. In reference to ranges of tolerance for limiting factors, which of the following population groups is most sensitive to adverse environmental conditions? 12. Which of the following elements is characterized by a gaseous biogeochemical cycle? 13. What is the major way in which atmospheric nitrogen is converted to a form usable by living organisms? 14. Which of the following statements is false? 15. Approximately how much food energy is lost with each transfer up a food chain? 16. The percentage of the world’s people now living in urban areas is approximately: 17. Which area of the world currently has the longest doubling time? 18. In what way does the population profile of a typical less-developed country differ sharply from that of a highly industrialized nation? 19. The limit at which a given environment can support a population is referred to as that environment’s: 20. What is the current annual growth rate for world population? 21. Which of the following assumptions has been incorporated into all five of the United Nations’ population projections for the world of the future? 22. Among the world’s industrialized nations, which has the highest population growth rate? 23. Zero Population Growth (ZPG) has been attained by several nations in which of the following regions of the world? 24. Which of the following set of circumstances was largely responsible for the population explosion in the developing world during the 1960s and 1970s? 25. What is a major difference between family planning programs in the U.S. as compared with those in developing countries? 26. Why is it difficult to convince many couples in the developing world to limit their number of children to 2? 27. What is the most widely practiced method of birth control in the U.S. today among women age 15-44 who are currently using contraception? 28. Which of the following actions would likely have the greatest impact in motivating couples in high-growth societies to have smaller families? 29. After what age does a woman’s ability to conceive begin to decline? 30. Which of the following risks is highest among women who become pregnant after age 35?
HSCO 511 Quiz Group Work https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hsco-511-quiz-group-work/ HSCO 511 Quiz: Group Work, Change, and Conflict 1. Which of the following is NOT a recommended leadership technique for handling a talkative member? 2. Which of the following is NOT recommended as a way to handle a member’s emotional reaction to an exercise? 3. Which conflict management strategy reflects low concern for both self and other according to the dual concern model? 4. When introducing an exercise, leaders should clearly present the directions for all of the following reasons EXCEPT to 5. Many 12-step programs build into their change program by requiring long-term members to assist newcomers. 6. According to Russel’s research, cited in Forsyth, individuals perceive their environment mainly based on two dimensions, i.e. 7. Which is FALSE about leading the middle stage of a group? 8. Spinning-off is appropriate for the following reasons, EXCEPT 9. Most of the time allotted to an exercise should be spent 10. Having members position themselves somewhere between two walls in the room that represents their level of comfort in the group is an example of conducting a exercise. 11. According to Jacobs et , which of the following is FALSE about the focus on process in a therapy group? 12. If a group discussion lacks intimacy, equilibrium theory predicts that participants will 13. Which therapeutic factor is most closely associated with one group member giving feedback to another member? 14. Which of the following is NOT an important consideration when using touching exercises? 15. All of the following represent common mistakes made in middle stage sessions EXCEPT 16. Balance theory predicts that hostility is greatest when group members who dislike each other also disagree with each other. Tension is greatest when group members 17. If a group member breaches confidentiality, it is recommend that the leader does which of the following first? 18. The MOST important aspect of a group exercise is 19. Jacobs et suggest all of the following to deepen the focus of the group and the level of commitment of members, EXCEPT 20. Personal space zones are smaller 21. A mixed-motive situation occurs when 22. All of the following is true about distracting members EXCEPT 23. Although all of the following are important, but which is the MAIN focus of the closing stage of the group? 24. These are reasons for using exercises in a group, EXCEPT: 25. A good reason for leader to participate in an exercise is: 26. Psychotherapy groups stress dealing with issues that occur within the group itself, rather than reviewing what the members are experiencing outside of the group or what they experienced in the past. This focus is usually referred to as a(n) 27. The following are all important for effectively closing a session, EXCEPT to 28. In the working stage, it is important for leaders to 29. Studies of the impact of noise on people indicate that 30. These are characteristics of most support groups, EXCEPT: 31. Basic causes of group conflict discussed by Forsyth include the following, EXCEPT: 32. A group leader may ask a member to leave a group for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
33. Group members are most likely to misinterpret behaviors during a conflict. 34. Which of the following is true regarding apportioning time to members? 35. When a member shares a deep personal concern in a non-therapy group, the leader should FIRST 36. When a member begins crying during a session, the leader should 37. A member who says to another “Don’t worry, everything will be ok, you just have to make the best of things” is a 38. Which of the following is true regarding feedback during the closing stage of a group? 39. Which is NOT true about the closing phase of a session? 40. Which of the following is true regarding holding the focus when processing a group exercise?
HSCO 511 Quiz Group Dynamics https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hsco-511-quiz-group-dynamics/ HSCO 511 Quiz: Group Dynamics and Development 1. norms articulate what people should avoid doing; norms articulate what people typically do. 2. All of the following are appropriate ways to begin a session EXCEPT: 3. Which of the following is NOT one of Jacobs et al.’s perspectives on the relationship between content and process in a group meeting? 4. Coworkers, sports teams, and study groups are while audiences, bystanders and crowds are . 5. When a group is formally organized in a hierarchical structure, 6. Which of the following is NOT identified by Jacobs et al. as a potential problem for a group? 7. Which of the following is FALSE about the purpose of a group? 8. Which of the following statement is true? 9. Roland decides that he wants to do more for the group. He starts helping other members by taking on some of their work and organizing fund raisers. Donald is providing 10. To become effective, Jacobs et al. recommend that new group leaders 11. Which of the following is NOT a common group planning mistake? 12. An interactionist approach to roles argues they are 13. Goal-focused team work is cohesion whereas liking for a group is 14. According to Jacobs et al., which of the following can be a MISTAKE with regard to group rules? 15. Which of the following is FALSE regarding ethical group practices? The leader should 16. Which of the following is NOT essential to pre-group planning? 17. For groups with a culturally diverse membership, this stage may last longer because members may be uncomfortable with one another? 18. Which of the following does NOT characterize an advantage of group work? 19. During what stage do members share what they’ve learned and how they have changed as a result of group membership? 20. In a social skills group for adolescents, the leader uses exercises to help members learn skills to improve peer relationships. Which leadership style is being utilized? 21. Experts who study group development generally believe that 22. Which exercise is NOT appropriate to use in the first session of a group? 23. If the leader sees that a change of purpose is needed, he or she should 24. If there are group members who are not clear about the group’s purpose, the following is recommended, EXCEPT 25. To set a positive tone in the first session of the group, the leader should 26. Social comparison theory argues people join groups because of 27. Which of the following is task-focused rather than relationship-focused? 28. Which of the following qualities is typically found in a social (or secondary) group? 29. During the beginning stage of a counseling group, when a member brings up a topic unrelated to the purpose of the group, the leader should 30. According to Jacobs et al., the single most important therapeutic force of a group is the 31. All of the following activities would be appropriate for the first group session EXCEPT 32. Which of the following is NOT associated with “second session let down?” 33. Which of the following is TRUE about member screening? 34. Which one illustrates the multilevel nature of cohesion? 35. Group formation is influenced significantly by all these factors EXCEPT 36. Most roles fit into one of two broad categories: roles and 37. Cohesion enhances group performance when 38. Explaining how the group will be conducted and the role of the group leader will accomplish the following, EXCEPT
39. In a therapy group, members expect everyone to communicate and share their thoughts and feelings. All members agree on informal rules regarding who should talk and for how long. This group has high levels of compatibility 40. Which is a characteristic of norms?
HSCO 511 Quiz Leadership https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hsco-511-quiz-leadership/ HSCO 511 Quiz: Leadership, Effectiveness, and Decision Making 1. Steiner found that group productivity depends mainly on 2. Forsyth suggests that social loafing can be avoided if 3. Group polarization is the 4. Which of the following is NOT recommended when several group members are nodding their heads? 5. In group counseling, to _____________ is to restate a comment made by a member, conveying that you understand the content and feeling the member is trying to express. 6. Studies of personality and leadership suggest that leaders tend to be 7. Which is true? 8. In which of the following situations would it be appropriate for the leader to use the technique of cutting of? 9. Which of the following is NOT a base of power identified by French and Raven? 10. An inspirational approach to leading others that involves elevating followers’ motivation, confidence, and satisfaction is 11. When determining whether to hold the group’s focus on a topic, group leaders should NOT consider 12. The life cycle theory articulated by Hersey and Blanchard suggests that effective leaders emphasize 13. Near the end of a session, a member wants to share something deep and personal. 14. The leader should 15. The phrase “romance of teams” means: 16. All of the following are true with regard to dyads EXCEPT 17. Jacobs et al. do NOT advise shifting the focus 18. According to the implicit leadership theory 19. Which is FALSE according to Forsyth? 20. Which of the following is true regarding dyads? The leader should 21. All of the following reasons to cut of a member EXCEPT if the member 22. The “O” in the ODDI decision process model stands for teams set goals, strategize, identify and solve problems, coordinate, and make decisions. 23. Clarifying rambling or confusing comments made by a member can be done using each of the following techniques EXCEPT 24. The following are recommended ways of drawing out, EXCEPT 25. The cohesiveness of a team is indicated by the following, EXCEPT: 26. When setting up a round, the leader needs to do each of the following EXCEPT 27. Which of the following should NOT be used to deepen the focus of a session? 28. According to Jacobs et al., silence from a member may indicate all of the following EXCEPT that the member 29. According to Forsyth, obedience was high in the Milgram experiment because of the 30. The leader may use his or her eyes to do each of the following EXCEPT 31. According to Forsyth, negotiation, collaboration, inspiration, and instruction are all examples of 32. A charismatic leader uses what type of power? 33. According to Forsyth, leadership is best defined as 34. When co-leaders difer in their approach and are pulling the group in opposite directions, they may benefit from using which model of co- leadership? 35. Which conceptual distinction is most relevant to understanding social facilitation? 36. After a group member has been talking for some time, the leader asks members to pair up with a partner and discuss their thoughts and feelings about what the member has shared. In this
instance, the leader 37. A leader who says, “On a scale from 1 to 10 with one being very uncomfortable and 10 being very comfortable, how are you feeling about being in this group?” is initiating a 38. The tendency for individuals to become less productive as group size increases is known as 39. According to Forsyth, teams are 40. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of groupthink?
CSTU 220 Quiz Migration https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cstu-220-quiz-migration/ CSTU 220 Quiz: Migration 1. Approximately how many African Americans fled the South for the North and the West between 1915 and 1930? 2. Approximately how many African Americans received commissions in the U.S. Army during the First World War? 3. During World War I, who served as a special assistant to the secretary of war, advising on matters related to African Americans? 4. A crucial difference between Marcus Garvey’s UNIA and both the NAACP and the socialist movement was that the UNIA 5. Describe the economic and cultural impacts of the Great Migration and the First World War on African-American communities. What new opportunities opened to black Americans during this time, and which ones remained closed to them? 6. Which black leader called for a Pan-African Congress to meet in Paris in 1919 and draw attention to the plight of African peoples? 7. The ubiquity of race riots led the summer of which year to be known as the “Red Summer”? 8. The failure of which crop contributed greatly to Afro-Caribbean migration into the United States in the early twentieth century? 9. Approximately how many African Americans fled the South for the North and the West between 1915 and 1930? 10. Briefly describe (in 2-3 sentences) the ways in which African American churches in the North shaped the Great Migration.
CSTU 220 Quiz Literature https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cstu-220-quiz-literature/ CSTU 220 Quiz: African American Literature 1. As a group, the writers of the Harlem Renaissance believed that 2. As a poet, Countee Cullen 3. Identify three important writers from the Harlem Renaissance and describe the general characteristics of their works. Address the following questions: Were they artistic innovators or did they favor working within existing traditions? Which segment of African-American society did they represent in their works? How were their works influenced by contemporary works in other genres? (Write one paragraph for each writer discussed.) 4. Which of the following statements about Black Swan Records is LEAST accurate? 5. Which of the following statements about Zora Neale Hurston is true? 6. Which Howard University professor and editor of the anthology The New Negro emerged as the architect of the Harlem Renaissance in 1924? 7. Who led Club Chef in the 1910s, helped to develop the New York style of jazz, and played a crucial role in introducing jazz to Europe during World War I? 8. Who popularized the genre of gospel music through compositions such as “Precious Lord, Take My Hand”? 9. Which swing musician’s orchestra, which included such important figures as Sy Oliver, played in an unusual two-beat rhythm and cultivated an influential brand of physical spectacle and showmanship? 10. William H. Johnson’s work in the late 1930s could best be described as
CSTU 220 Quiz From Slavery https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cstu-220-quiz-from-slavery/ CSTU 220 Quiz: From Slavery to Freedom 1. Which of the following statements about the Southern Homestead Act of 1866 is MOST accurate? 2. During Reconstruction, black churchgoers and ministers generally 3. How many black men served in the House of Representatives between 1869 and 1901? 4. Identify the ways in which former slaves defined their freedom following the Civil War and Emancipation. Topics to consider include religion, church participation, education, kinship networks, land ownership and politics. 5. Which of the following statements about the education of freedpeople in the Reconstruction era is LEAST accurate? 6. Which of the following statements BEST captures attitudes toward the education of freed people during Reconstruction? 7. Economically, most freed people in agricultural regions associated freedom primarily with 8. Which constitutional amendment ostensibly guaranteed black men throughout the nation the right to vote on an equal basis with white men? 9. After gaining their freedom, black families preferred that female members 10. Discuss the development of sharecropping. How did it emerge as a compromise between the needs of landowners and the wishes of freed people? By settling for sharecropping, did blacks sacrifice the reality of economic advancement for the illusion of autonomy?
CSTU 220 Quiz African American Music https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cstu-220-quiz-african-american-music/ CSTU 220 Quiz: African American Music 1. Explain the significance of music in the African American experience. Discuss at least two African American musicians who shaped African American culture, and explain the role they played in both his/her musical genre and in the overall cultural impact on African American experience. 2. Which of the following statements about the Jubilee Singers of Fisk University is LEAST accurate? 3. What was the earliest form of African American music? 4. Name one African American Jazz musician and name one song he/she wrote or performed. 5. Which choice below represents one of America’s first rockers. Many consider him to be the true father of Rock music and his performances included his signature duck walk. 6. Who is known as the Father of Gospel Music? 7. Which legendary gospel singer once commented “Somebody singing blues is crying out of a pit. I’m singing out of the joy of my salvation.” 8. True or False: Minstrel shows introduced white audiences to several musical instruments with African origins such as the banjo and “bones.” 9. Who is known as the Father of the Blues, mostly for popularizing the genre 10. Which of the following answers is incorrect regarding the development of Hip Hop music?