HIWD 341 Quiz 3 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hiwd-341-quiz-3/ HIWD 341 Quiz 3 Rise of Europe Covers the Learn material from Module 3: Week 3. 1. The traditional crack troops of the Ottomans, the Janissaries, were hunted down and eliminated in what 1826 event? 2. Tunisia’s great state-builder of the 19th Century was: 3. Ottoman Capitulations were: 4. When did construction on the Suez Canal begin? 5. The Ottoman Constitution, the first non-European constitution in the Eastern Hemisphere, was first established in ________ and restored in 6. Great Britain became the dominant European colonial power in India after which war? 7. How did the Ottomans view Protestants and their Reformation? 8. Lord Byron celebrated the cause of independence for what Balkan country? 9. TheTanzimat reforms in 19th century Ottoman Empire is an example of: 10. Who became the principle antagonist of the Ottomans in the 18th century? 11. The experience of Jawhariyyeh related in the book indicates that Ottoman Jerusalem in the 19th Century was: 12. What group led the charge for independence in Algeria in the mid-20th Century? 13. Who wrote the Book of Reform? 14. After the fall of the Safavid Empire, what to European countries fought for control of Persia in what became known as the “Great Game”? 15. Nationalism needs what three conditions present in order to become a movement? 16. Networks of like-minded people for reconstructing the morals of Islamic Law to deal with the modern world are known as: 17. Gelvin denes ___________ as the contemporary world economy and the world system of nationstates in which every functioning society has to operate. 18. As the original Rome lay in the hands of the pope and the 2nd Rome (Constantinople) had been conquered by the Ottomans, what city had become known as the 3rd Rome? 19. What new military corps adopted Western forms of drill and armaments and eventually replaced the Janissaries? 20. France used Algeria as a place to dump ____________ in the 19th century? Set 2 1. Ijtihad means: 2. Who wrote the Book of Reform? 3. What new military corps adopted Western forms of drill and armaments and eventually replaced the Janissaries? 4. Networks of like-minded people for reconstructing the morals of Islamic Law to deal with the modern world are known as: 5. As the original Rome lay in the hands of the pope and the 2nd Rome (Constantinople) had been conquered by the Ottomans, what city had become known as the 3rd Rome? 6. France used Algeria as a place to dump ____________ in the 19th century? 7. Nationalism needs what three conditions present in order to become a movement? 8. When did construction on the Suez Canal begin? 9. By 1908 the British controlled all but what percentage of Egyptian government posts? 10. TheTanzimat reforms in 19th century Ottoman Empire is an example of:
11. Where did Europeans turn for cotton once the North cut off its trade with the South during the American Civil War? 12. Great Britain became the dominant European colonial power in India after which war? 13. Mehmet Ali came to power in Egypt following what invasion? 14. Tunisia’s great state-builder of the 19th Century was: 15. Gelvin defines ___________ as the contemporary world economy and the world system of nation-states in which every functioning society has to operate. 16. Mehmet Ali cultivated what cash crop in Egypt in an attempt to bring it into the world economy? 17. Who became the principle antagonist of the Ottomans in the 18th century? 18. The experience of Jawhariyyeh related in the book indicates that Ottoman Jerusalem in the 19th Century was: 19. After the fall of the Safavid Empire, what to European countries fought for control of Persia in what became known as the “Great Game”? 20. Lord Byron celebrated the cause of independence for what Balkan country?
HIWD 341 Quiz 2 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hiwd-341-quiz-2/ HIWD 341 Quiz 2 Gunpowder Empires Covers the Learn material from Module 2: Week 2. 1. What are the three major and largest groups of Shi’ites? 2. Shari’a Law comes from the word Shari’a, meaning: 3. Devshirme were: 4. The word Qur’an means: 5. What does the Quran indicate is the status of women in terms of economic and legal standing? 6. A Gazi warrior is what kind of warrior? 7. While decline had begun in the eleventh century, the end of the Golden Age is generally agreed to be: 8. All the exemplary actions and behaviors of the Prophet, passed down by customs and traditions in Islam are known collectively as: 9. Who sacked Baghdad and killed hundreds of thousands and the last Abbasid Caliph in 1258? 10. Which Mughal (Mogul) Emperor used gunpowder effectively and remained undefeated in battle? 11. The highest form of Muslim art is: 12. Symbolic of European love for the Turks’ introduction of coffee into Europe, which composer wrote the “Coffee Cantata”? 13. In the Seventh century, the majority of the subjects of the new Arab Empire were: 14. The Safavid Empire called the imported slaves from the conquered Christian kingdoms of Georgia, Armenia and Circassia: 15. The Translation movement associated with the Golden Age was largely a continuation of work being done by: 16. Muslim tradition tells us that the Qur’an was first collected in written form by: 17. What were the names of the two Ottoman crack units that assisted them in creating their empire? 18. What European discovery bypassed the Ottoman and Safavid Empires and monopolized longdistance sea trade? 19. All of India was brought under the control of the Mughals (Moguls) by what year? 20. The Ottomans used gunpowder to devastating effect at what siege? Set 2 1. The fall of Constantinople brought about what significant historical shift? 2. A Gazi warrior is what kind of warrior? 3. Symbolic of European love for the Turks’ introduction of coffee into Europe, which composer wrote the “Coffee Cantata”? 4. All the exemplary actions and behaviors of the Prophet, passed down by customs and traditions in Islam are known collectively as: 5. Who said: “To know Isfahan is to know half the world”? 6. During the Golden Age Societal Advancements were made by: 7. The Ottomans used gunpowder to devastating effect at what siege? 8. Capturing what Christian city in 1453 meant that the Ottomans had achieved what Islamic dream? 9. While the Umayyad dynasty was replaced with the Abbasid in the eastern part of the Caliphate, Umayyad rule continued in: 10. The Safavid Empire called the imported slaves from the conquered Christian kingdoms of Georgia, Armenia and Circassia:
11. What are the three major and largest groups of Shi’ites? 12. The Translation movement associated with the Golden Age was largely a continuation of work being done by: 13. While decline had begun in the eleventh century, the end of the Golden Age is generally agreed to be: 14. All of India was brought under the control of the Mughals (Moguls) by what year? 15. Due to their amazing conquests and vast treasuries of tribute and plunder, what three Ottoman Sultans set an almost impossible example for later rulers to follow? 16. What does the Quran indicate is the status of women in terms of economic and legal standing? 17. What does the command iqra mean? 18. A Hadith is: 19. The advent of the Golden Age of Islamic Civilization is most often associated with: 20. What central Islamic concept is tied to the word “tawhid”?
HIWD 341 Quiz 1 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hiwd-341-quiz-1/ HIWD 341 Quiz 1 Introduction to Islam Covers the Learn material from Module 1: Week 1. 1. The Egyptian President forced out by the army after the March 2011 Arab uprisings was: 2. The Parameters of this course run from ________ to _________: 3. In Muhammad’s mi’raj (ascent into heaven), he reportedly saw and climbed a ladder reaching up into heaven. This story is similar and may have been based on the experiences of which early Hebrew leader? 4. The Islamic faith is stuck doing what two things? 5. The three events that took place at the dawn of the early modern era and redefined the Modern Middle East were: 6. The Gunpowder Empires helped Islam climb out of the ____________ 7. The Middle East in Late Antiquity was dominated by which two empires? 8. The major or primary message of the Quran may best be summarized as: 9. What two characteristics distinguish modern history? 10. The Mongol invasions, through the subsequent ____________, expose the Middle East to Far Eastern cultures and motifs like never before. 11. Gelvin sees the Islamic Modern Era to encompass what era? 12. The sira, or biography of Muhammad, was written by: 13. The ancient empires are characterized as what? 14. Which pillar of Islam is obligatory only if one has the ability to do it? 15. Iraq was the wealthiest province in what ancient empire? 16. Muslims regard Mohammad as: 17. Professor Samuel P. Huntington’s thesis that Islamic civilization is stuck in unchanging values found in the Quran is called: 18. Which invading group had arguably the most lasting impact on Islam and the Middle East? 19. All of the following areas were conquered early on by Islam EXCEPT: 20. Known as 1 AH, in what year does Islamic history and their calendar begin? Set 2 1. The Gunpowder Empires helped Islam climb out of the 2. Known as 1 AH, in what year does Islamic history and their calendar begin? 3. Shicis (Shia) are Muslims who follow the teachings of the descendants of: 4. Muslims regard Mohammad as: 5. The three events that took place at the dawn of the early modern era and redefined the Modern Middle East were: 6. Professor Samuel P. Huntington’s thesis that Islamic civilization is stuck in unchanging values found in the Quran is called: 7. Which ruler interpreting his dream of a tree that sprouted from his naval became destined to found the Ottoman Empire? 8. Gelvin sees the Islamic Modern Era to encompass what era? 9. The sira, or biography of Muhammad, was written by: 10. The Egyptian President forced out by the army after the March 2011 Arab uprisings was: 11. Which pillar of Islam is obligatory only if one has the ability to do it? 12. Which invading group had arguably the most lasting impact on Islam and the Middle East? 13. In Muhammad’s mi’raj (ascent into heaven), he reportedly saw and climbed a ladder reaching up into heaven. This story is similar and may have been based on the experiences of which early
Hebrew leader? 14. The ancient empires are characterized as what? 15. The Mongol invasions, through the subsequent ____________, expose the Middle East to Far Eastern cultures and motifs like never before. 16. What two characteristics distinguish modern history? 17. The major or primary message of the Quran may best be summarized as: 18. The Parameters of this course run from ________ to _________: 19. All of the following areas were conquered early on by Islam EXCEPT: 20. The Islamic faith is stuck doing what two things?
OTCL 505 Quiz Final https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/otcl-505-quiz-final/ OTCL 505 Quiz: Final Module 5: Week 5 – Module 8: Week 8
1. Match the following: perfect, imperfect, infinitive construct, participle 2. Translate the following: 3. Translate the following: 4. Translate the following: 5. Translate the following: 6. Translate the following: 7. Translate the following: 8. Translate the following: 9. Translate the following:
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63. The niphal stem expresses causative passive action. 64. What is the person, gender, and number for ? 65. When attached to nouns, pronominal suffixes indicate possession. 66. Hebrew verbal stems indicate type of action and voice. 67. Which of the following sentences is true:
ENVR 350 Research Paper Final https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/envr-350-research-paper-final/ ENVR 350 Research Paper Final The student will write an 8–10-page research-based paper in current APA format that focuses on 1 of the topics provided by the instructor. The paper must include at least 6 scholarly sources in addition to the course textbooks and the Bible.
ENVR 350 Quiz Business vs. Environment https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/envr-350-quiz-business-vs-environment/ ENVR 350 Quiz: Business vs. Environment Conclusions and Solutions Module 8: Week 8 1. Immediately after it was proposed, environmentalists thought that Clinton’s Northwest Forest Plan was insufficiently protective. 2. One of the ways that opponents of the status quo have tried to circumvent the arduous process of changing policy in Congress is by attaching riders to appropriations and omnibus budget bills. 3. In 1998, the spotted owl population was declining at a rate of _________ annually. 4. According to our discussion of Adler’s (2013) “Conservative Principles for Environmental Reform,”, conservatives must have a negative and un-principled vision of environmental protection 5. The Oregon Endangered Species Task Force, in 1973, arrived at a minimum habit recommendation of _________ acres per nest for northern spotted owls. 6. Advocates in environmental policy contests are almost always deeply divided over ______, and how those _______ translate into political choices depends heavily on the way a problem is defined in terms of science, economics, and risk. (Please note: both blanks are same word) 7. In the late 1980s, the U.S. Fish & Wildlife Service initially determined that, although declining in number, the spotted owl was not endangered. 8. On July 1, 1993, President Bill Clinton unveiled his Northwest Forest Plan, which allowed annual timber harvests of _______ billion board feet from old-growth forests on 24.5 million acres of federal lands, down from a high of 5 billion board feet per year in 1987 and 1988. 9. Talented leaders can greatly increase the likelihood of policy change by facilitating coalitionbuilding, brokering compromises that defuse apparently intractable conflicts, and shepherding solutions through the decision-making process. 10. Jonathan Adler, in the 2013 paper we discussed in this module, argues that the conventional environmental paradigm, which emphasizes prescriptive regulation and centralization of regulatory authority in the hands of the federal government, is in desperate need of overhaul. 11. In December 1993, about four dozen scientists provided strong evidence that the survival rate of adult female spotted owls had declined _________ per year between 1985 and 1993. 12. In the early 1990s, job-loss estimates due to protection of the northern spotted owl ranged anywhere from 13,000 to 102,757. 13. According to Jonathan Adler (2013), a prime example of the myth of “federal government as environmental savior” involves the infamous fire on the Cuyahoga River in 1969. 14. Even though Americans claim to value the natural environment, most appear unwilling to relinquish their energy-conserving lifestyles. 15. Even if advocates succeed in building a supportive coalition for an environmental policy proposal, _______________ majorities large enough to enact policy change do not simply arise spontaneously in response. 16. Immediately after it was proposed, timber advocates believed that Clinton’s Northwest Forest Plan was overly protective. 17. Despite the dramatic reduction in logging of its habitat, spotted owl populations continued, in the late 1990s, to decline at rates faster than originally forecast in Clinton’s Northwest Forest Plan. 18. When the spotted owl controversy erupted in the late 1980s, nearly ______ of the remaining oldgrowth forest was on federal land because of historically aggressive logging practices on private land. 19. For environmentalists, it is easy to craft approaches that are palatable to mainstream interests without alienating the true believers that form the activist core.
20. It is not surprising that environmentalists and cornucopians find themselves so frequently making their cases before a judge because the courts have always been the forum for resolving intractable value conflicts. 21. A review of the spotted owl’s status completed in 2004 reported that between 1998 and 2003, owl numbers declined at a rate of 7.5% per year in the state of Washington. 22. Shortly into the new Congressional Session of 1995, Sen. Larry Craig (R-Idaho) introduced a bill to slow down logging in areas where trees had been damaged by fire or insects but still retained some commercial value. 23. One of the features of the American environmental policymaking process is the remarkable ease with which the status quo is overturned. 24. S. federal law requires the Forest Service and Bureau of Land Management to harvest trees at a sustainable pace – that is, by the time the last tree of the virgin forest is cut, the first tree of the regrown forest should be big enough to harvest. 25. In addition to its owl protection measures, the Northwest Forest Plan provided over five years to assist workers and families in Oregon, Washington, and northern California. 26. The U.S. Forest Service was created solely for the purpose of conserving natural resources for future generations. 27. According to Jonathan Adler (2013), when property rights are well-defined and secure, the tragedy of the commons is less likely to occur because each owner is motivated to practice good stewardship of the resource, thereby benefiting themselves and the entire community over the long haul. 28. As judges began imposing injunctions in response to environmentalists’ lawsuits, timber harvests on federal lands in Washington and Oregon dropped by more than ________ between 1987 and 1992. 29. By 1992, the spotted owl controversy had become sufficiently visible to be a campaign issue in the presidential race, and the election of _______________ buoyed environmentalists hoping to gain permanent protection for the old-growth forests. 30. Under President Obama, the Fish & Wildlife Service dramatically expanded the amount of critical habitat for the spotted owl to _____________ acres across Washington, Oregon, and northern California.
ENVR 320 Quiz Energy Waste https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/envr-320-quiz-energy-waste/ ENVR 320 Quiz: Energy, Waste, Economics, Urbanization, Environmental Policy, Sustainability Module 5: Week 5 to Module 8: Week 8 1. In Grand theories, the concepts and proposals are written at a concrete and detailed level. Every grand theory includes detailed information regarding the phenomenon, including a description, why it happens, and how it happens. 2. Forming the question is typically the first step in the Evidence-Based Practice process. Well-built clinical questions should be the starting point of developing a search strategy and therefore, should use the process of PICO or PICOT to construct clinical questions. 3. Lean and Six Sigma methods may be incorporated into the “Do Phase” in the quality improvement model. Lean is a method for organizing and reducing waste. Six Sigma is a tool focusing on reduction of defects. 4. The six domains from the Institute of Medicine publication and the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) to ensure effective and efficient use of public funds for quality care include all of the following except: 5. The acronym “SMART” stands for Specific – Meaningful – Actionable– Realistic – Timeless 6. In an internet search for reputable evidence, all of the following are recommended except: 7. The Model for Quality Improvement is sometimes called the PDSA Model. In the “Do PHASE” of the model, the team designs and formalizes the QI Project. 8. High-Reliability Organizations (HROs) are organizations that value leadership’s commitment to achieving 25% or less patient harm. 9. With regards to evidence-based tools for overcoming barriers, gaps, and unintended consequences in healthcare policy, the three major areas in the standards that form the framework for Joint Commission accreditation are patient-focused functions, organizational functions, and structures and functions. 10. All of the following are true regarding evidence for implementation of best practice except:
ENVR 350 Quiz 2 Pollution https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/envr-350-quiz-2-pollution/ ENVR 350 Quiz 2: Pollution – Clean Air and Water Module 2: Week 2 1. Congress’ principal goal in passing the Clean Water Act was to reduce discharge from 2. Agriculture is currently the 2nd most important source of lake pollution. 3. The Bush team, in the late 1980s, selected a system of allowance trading combined with a nationwide cap on total sulfur dioxide (SO2) emissions. 4. The Environmental Protection Agency was established by which U.S. President? 5. The key water quality provisions of the Clean Water Act fall into ______ main categories. 6. The Clean Water Act was originally designed to eliminate all discharges of pollutants into the nation’s waterways by 1985. 7. Sulfur dioxide is released into the environment through industrial activity only. 8. The approach of the National Ambient Air Quality Standards is a classic example of flexible but difficult to administer standards. 9. Ozone absorbs certain frequencies of harmful infrared radiation (IR-B) emitted by the sun, blanketing the planet in a protective shield. 10. The first national celebration of Earth Day was the brainchild of which public figure? 11. Scientists estimated that in 1980 the U.S. emitted about ________ tons of nitrogen oxides (NOx) into the environment. 12. Under the Clean Water Act, ___________ determine the water quality standards needed to support the designated uses of its various waterways. 13. The Clean Air Act regulates at the source of pollution only (i.e. smokestack), and not at the point of impact (i.e. where we breathe). 14. Acid rain pioneers, like Robert Angus Smith & Eville Gorham, were largely ignored by the general public and scientific community. 15. The Clean Water Act focuses primarily on the discharge of pollutants into waterways, while largely ignoring hydrological changes to waterways, such as dams and water withdrawals. 16. Many factories, commercial facilities, and sewage treatment works are known as point 17. Between 1980 and 2016, concentrations of carbon monoxide decreased __________ in the U.S. 18. The Clean Water Act of 1972 was enacted before the Clean Air Act. 19. Healthy lakes normally have a pH of around ________ or above. 20. By 1970, the American public perceived pollution as more important than race, crime, and poverty. 21. Which standards, according to the National Ambient Air Quality Standards, are designed to protect human health? 22. In 1999, EPA reported emissions of over ________ pounds of hazardous air pollutants. 23. The main precursor of acid rain is: 24. The __________ Protocol is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer. 25. The New Source Performance Standards assume that new and existing stationary sources will be treated ____________ under the Clean Air Act. 26. Which of the following is the primary source of water pollution to the nation’s streams and rivers? 27. Scientists estimated that in 1980 the U.S. emitted about ________ tons of sulfur dioxide 28. Like the Clean Air Act, the Clean Water Act singles out existing industrial point sources for tighter effluent limitations. 29. What percentage of Americans in 1970 thought that the problem of air pollution was at least somewhat serious in their part of the country?
ENVR 350 Quiz 1 Introduction https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/envr-350-quiz-1-introduction/ ENVR 350 Quiz: Introduction to Environmental Science and Policy Module 1: Week 1 1. A federal agency must prepare an EIS if it is considering a major action that might have significant environmental impacts. 2. A classic solution to the tragedy of the commons is the creation or recognition of ________________ in the environmental resource. 3. When Donald Trump took his oath of office in January 2017, about how many decades had passed since the last significant amendments to major federal environmental legislation? 4. The Endangered Species Act focuses primarily on sources of pollution, threats to human health, and risk levels. 5. The idea that the burdens of environmental harms and regulations should be distributed evenly amongst individuals and social groups is reflective of which of the following general frameworks for evaluating environmental decisions? 6. Christians should care about protecting the environment because, as God’s children created in His image, they are called to be stewards of His creation. 7. If an Environmental Assessment (EA) suggests that no Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is necessary, then a federal agency will issue a 8. The tragedy of the commons refers to depletion of common resources without regard to future replenishment. 9. The idea that humans have a right to environmental protection is reflective of which of the following general frameworks for evaluating environmental decisions? 10. One example of a cognitive bias is that people tend to be overly pessimistic with regard to the overcoming of environmental problems. 11. Less than 500 NEPA lawsuits have been filed since its enactment in 1969. 12. Which of the following was the first significant court decision to interpret NEPA? 13. Although less visible than legislators, agencies play a critical role in environmental policy making because they implement the laws passed by Congress. 14. Aldo Leopold: 15. Which of the following is not one of the primary focuses of the Clean Air Act? 16. A crisis or focusing event, such as a chemical accident or the release of a major scientific report, never creates a chance for action or evidence of the need for major policy change. 17. While adjudication concerns prospective decisions affecting a class of people, rulemaking is more often retrospective and covers a broad range of agency actions. 18. It is possible that increases in the earth’s temperature will lead to greater cloud formation and act as a negative feedback to warming. 19. Environmental science is broader than environmental policy and is served by both environmental law & policy. 20. The Endangered Species Act is the strongest legal protection of biodiversity in the world. 21. The most common way to internalize costs is indirectly, through: 22. Congressional action in environmental protection has stemmed primarily from its __________ powers. 23. Noah is not a good example of an environmental steward. 24. Which of the following cases established that landowners must be fairly compensated when they have been deprived of all economically viable use of their private property as a result of some environmental regulation? 25. A federal agency must issue a Record of Decision at least _________ days after a Final EIS has been issued.