SMGT 410 Sponsorship Package https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/smgt-410-sponsorship-package/ SMGT 410 Sponsorship Package Assignment The student will create a sponsorship package for a new potential league sponsor. The proposal will include information regarding league inventory, target markets, product positioning, activation strategies, competition considerations, and outcome objectives. This assignment must follow current APA format and must be 4–8 pages. The title page, abstract page, and reference page do not count towards the page total.
SMGT 410 Quiz 2 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/smgt-410-quiz-2/ SMGT 410 Test 2 / Quiz 2 1. Of all the elements of the marketing mix, place decisions are typically the easiest to change. 2. According to many of the sport marketing experts cited in the text, U.S. sport leagues would be wise to reduce efforts to globalize and instead to concentrate more on their domestic product. 3. This occurs when a company capitalizes on the goodwill of an event by using tactics to imply an official association with that sport event. 4. More often than not, consumers balance product and promotion in their minds as they consider purchasing a sport product. 5. When the marketing function areas within a sport organization are performed by too few employees, what is the typical result? 6. Which of the following would be afforded copyright protection? 7. What term describes a word, name, symbol, or device used by a person, generally a manufacturer or merchant, to identify and distinguish its goods from those manufactured and sold by others and to indicate the source of the goods? 8. Which of the following would not be considered an organizational goal that addresses specific sport marketing objectives? 9. Patents protect original works of authorship. 10. Which of the following would not be considered part of an effective marketing control system? 11. Running an advertisement about the new stadium where the Newark, Delaware, minor league baseball team would play in is an example of mixing 12. What term describes the reproduction, counterfeiting, or imitating of a registered mark, without the consent of the mark’s owner, in an attempt to sell or advertise goods or services that are likely to cause confusion or deceive consumers? 13. What is one way that many sport properties are growing their market by extending their distribution? 14. Which of the following terms is defined as the acquisition of rights to affiliate or directly associate with a product or event for the purpose of deriving benefits related to that affiliation or association? 15. A study conducted by the NBA found that social media were far more effective in selling tickets than a targeted e-mail approach. 16. In the past few years, sponsors have been eager to engage with a sport team’s fan base through social media 17. Which of the following should be taken into consideration when determining where to build a facility? 18. What sport event frame is represented by a branded tailgating zone with games, big screen TVs, and food, located in the parking lot outside a college football stadium? 19. An in-kind sponsor trades a product for sponsorship opportunities. 20. A major league baseball team’s decision to raise season-ticket prices after a poor 2013 season and not re-sign its star free agent is an example of mixing 21. What type of promotion is a sign on the side of a bus that tells about season tickets for the upcoming NFL football season? 22. Which of the following is a sport marketing prediction for the year 2020 made by the textbook authors? 23. The impact of signage is typically measured using: 24. Share-optimized content refers to 25. When a trademark infringement claim is made, the plaintiff might sue for reasons including abandonment, fair use, and the trademark becoming generic.
26. The marketing activities or leveraging that a company conducts to promote and execute its sponsorship is called 27. When sport marketers examine the drawing radius for events at their venue, distance from the venue is no longer the only key variable. Which of the following is not a critical factor in determining how far consumers will drive to attend a sporting event? 28. The sport marketing concept of moving consumers from a state of nonawareness all the way to a heavy user is known as 29. Which of the following is not an example of how the Americans with Disabilities Acts has affected sport venues? 30. Which of the following is not a space where teams are growing their social media audience? 31. A company enters into a naming sponsorship agreement with a sport property because the property has its games televised. What benefit is the company seeking? 32. Personal selling and special benefits are the most effective promotions in reaching and maintaining the heavy user. 33. Basing the value of a sponsorship on the number of people who will see an impression is known as exposure measurement. 34. A good strategic sport marketing plan is essentially an organization’s budget and simply determines how resources will be allocated. 35. Which of the following is not one of the components that make up intellectual property law? 36. Explain the reasons for the explosive growth in sport sponsorship over the last three decades. 37. Explain several reasons why team sport marketers must be strategic and cautious when using sales promotions to sell more tickets. 38. List many of the common objectives that businesses have when they engage in a sport sponsorship.
SMGT 312 Quiz 8 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/smgt-312-quiz-8/ SMGT 312 Quiz 8 1. The softball players for the Saints Prison Ministry 2. An athlete or coach can’t effectively witness or influence others for Christ if they are unsuccessful on the fields or courts. 3. According to Johnson and Smith, if one thinks of competition as a paradox to Christ, then God’s word tells them in competition how to 4. According to Kretschmann and Benz’s study, Christian athletes view the morality of competition as 5. Sportsmanship is often overridden by a desire to win 6. While competing in sports, Christian athletes can strongly influence 7. Gamesmanship 8. According to the readings, which two of the four generic Christian perspectives on competition are most compatible with sport ministry? 9. Sportsmanship has a clear definition across sports, cultures, and situations 10. In a healthy Christian view of competition, officials are 11. Ministry opportunities are any occasion to inspire someone to begin or build their own relationship with God. 12. All of the following are examples of quantitative data collection EXCEPT _______________. 13. All of the following are examples of qualitative data collection EXCEPT _______________. 14. Credibility refers to leaders that are trustworthy, honest, competent and inspiring. 15. Ministry opportunities from a particular program should never be compared to that same program a year ago.
SMGT 312 Quiz 6 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/smgt-312-quiz-6/ 1. Helping ministry team members be effective is an example of 2. A property survey 3. Which of the following is not a method of transferring risk? 4. Which is the place to start when staffing a sport ministry event? 5. Trusting people with responsibility and authority to get the job done their way is an example of 6. Helping grow people in their role to become more than they thought they could be is an example of 7. According to data cited in the reading, the average number of people a child molester has victimized before getting caught is 8. Formal job descriptions and explanation of duties for each position are useful in personnel management 9. Most perpetrators of child molestation are community outsiders not well known by the victim or the victim’s parents. 10. Child molesters and predators generally 11. The site or space being physically accessible at all times is an example of _____________. 12. Examples of thinking outside the box for organizations would be_____________. 13. Planning involves setting goals for your sports ministry and the stakeholders by specifying activities to achieve such goals. 14. The creation of certain sports had everything to do with the available facilities (ie. basketball). 15. Liability in the use of a facility is not an issue for private churches and organizations.
SMGT 312 Quiz 5 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/smgt-312-quiz-5/ 1. Activity programming for this group should be less high impact and less competitive while being more social and participatory 2. Programming for this group should include close supervision and constant coaching 3. The number of potential participants should play no role in deciding what type of programming to provide. 4. Sports activities, participation, and games that aren’t intentionally designed to focus on the gospel are 5. The Salvation Army UK Sports Ministries 6. In youth sports ministry it is possible to intentionally include the gospel message in drills that teach the skills of sports like basketball and soccer. 7. Membership surveys should ideally 8. At this age people need to develop motor skills 9. At this age people decide whether or not to pursue a lifetime of wellness 10. Sport ministry/program providers should focus on providing an abundance of what they, themselves like 11. Brand identity is always strong for organizations. 12. Cool Spring Recreation started their reformation by asking which question first? 13. Which of the following is NOT how primary research helps collect information? 14. The “4-Ps” in marketing are: Product, Price, Place, Promotion. 15. A brand includes which of the following?
SMGT 312 Quiz 4 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/smgt-312-quiz-4/ 1. If a sport ministry is established as a non-profit, tax exempt organization 2. When developing a Sport Ministry effort or organization, what comes first? 3. Answers the questions “who? what? And how?” 4. Having well defined mission and vision statements is a key to successful fundraising 5. Objectives that are created with the SMART principle in mind are difficult to measure 6. Which of the following is an element of the acronym S.M.A.R.T. that describes solid principles for setting goals? 7. Which of the following is NOT a part of strategic planning? 8. Answers the question “what needs to happen for the vision to be realized?” 9. A broad, general statement about who you hope to reach and what you hope to accomplish is a: 10. Which organization has the vision of “Christ followers on every team, in every sport, in every nation”? 11. The recruitment process for volunteer coaches should begin ____________ days prior to the start of the season. 12. The development triangle includes which of the following? 13. According to researchers, what percentage of Christians in the US think they are plateaued or declining in their spiritual growth? 14. The mission statement expresses what a sport ministry program would like to achieve within the next 3-5 years. 15. A better way to recruit coaches is by inviting not begging. Set 2 1. Which of the following is an element of the acronym S.M.A.R.T. that describes solid principles for setting goals 2. Which organization has the vision of “Christ followers on every team, in every sport, in every nation? 3. If a sport ministry is established as a non-profit, tax exempt organization 4. A broad, general statement about who you hope to reach and what you hope to accomplish is a: 5. Which of the following is NOT an important characteristic of an effective mission statement? 6. Which of the following is an element of the acronym S.M.A.R.T. that describes solid principles for setting goals? 7. Having well defined mission and vision statements is a key to successful fundraising 8. Answers the question “what needs to happen for the vision to be realized?” 9. Which organization has the vision “to see the world impacted for Jesus Christ through the influence of coaches and athletes”? 10. When developing a Sport Ministry effort or organization, what comes first? 11. The recruitment process for volunteer coaches should begin ____________ days prior to the start of the season. 12. A better way to recruit coaches is by inviting not begging. 13. The mission statement expresses what a sport ministry program would like to achieve within the next 3-5 years. 14. The development triangle includes which of the following? 15. According to researchers, what percentage of Christians in the US think they are plateaued or declining in their spiritual growth?
SMGT 312 Quiz 3 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/smgt-312-quiz-3/ 1. Which of the following would not be an effective example of a sport ministry concept? 2. Who said, “Sport has the power to unite people in a way little else can. It breaks down the racial barriers, it laughs in the face of all kinds of discrimination. Sport speaks to people in a language they can understand”? 3. “Purpose” answers 4. Simple observation may be the most helpful tool of the recreation and sport minister while assessing needs 5. For a sport ministry operating within a church, the strategic plan should be independent of the church’s mission. 6. When developing a sport ministry in a church setting it is import to keep the church body informed regarding 7. Which of the following is NOT a need that can be addressed by a recreation or sport ministry program? 8. A person described by a point in the upper left/northwest quadrant of the McCown Sport in Ministry map is characterized as 9. On the spiritual pilgrimage continuum as a person moves through the stages: no awareness, initial awareness, deeper awareness, realization, point of Salvation, discipleship and multiplication; at which stage is sport ministry effective? 10. Making sure that the gospel is presented at every opportunity is an example of 11. Which of the following is NOT a strategy to help effectively engage those in your sport ministry? 12. In order to successfully begin developing leaders, which of the following does the author suggest as step one? 13. Burnout is not a common occurrence in the workplace. 14. In the SWOT analysis, the ‘O’ represents which of the following? 15. Allowing your people to have clear expectations is one benefit of an evaluation of your current system. Set 2 1. Simple observation may be the most helpful tool of the recreation and sport minister while assessing needs 2. For a sport ministry operating within a church, the strategic plan should be independent of the church’s mission. 3. The McCown Sport in Ministry map 4. The McCown Sport in Ministry map consists of 5. A person described by a point in the upper left/northwest quadrant of the McCown Sport in Ministry 6. FIFA (the international federation for soccer) has more member nations than the United Nations. 7. When developing a sport ministry in a church setting it is import to keep the church body informed regarding 8. Which of the following is NOT a need that can be addressed by a recreation or sport ministry program? 9. On the spiritual pilgrimage continuum as a person moves through the stages: no awareness, initial awareness, deeper awareness, realization, point of Salvation, discipleship and multiplication; at which stage is sport ministry effective? 10. Which of the following is NOT a potential problem with survey data? 11. Which of the following is NOT a strategy to help effectively engage those in your sport ministry? 12. In order to successfully begin developing leaders, which of the following does the author suggest as step one?
13. Allowing your people to have clear expectations is one benefit of an evaluation of your current system. 14. Burnout is not a common occurrence in the workplace. 15. In the SWOT analysis, the ‘O’ represents which of the following?
SMGT 312 Quiz 2 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/smgt-312-quiz-2/ 1. Muscular Christianity was originally associated with which historic English era? 2. The Puritan mindset is most representative of 3. Which of the following was NOT true about sport in Roman times? 4. The early American colonists adopted King James’ view as put forth in the 1618 Book of Sports 5. Which of these philosophies is closest to the view of the Christian church during the Middle Ages? 6. The YMCA and modern ideas of muscular Christianity were developed in this era. 7. Which of these philosophies is closest to our view in this class? 8. There were no athletic contests for Greek women during the early Christian church era 9. In this era recreation for its own sake was frowned upon by churches 10. Sports were central to the Greek culture of the early Christian era 11. According to the author in chapter 3, we were created for which of the following? 12. According to the author, steps are a form of an agenda, and steps may not work for evangelism and sports ministry every time. 13. The challenge that faith communities often encounter can come in the form of loving people with an agenda. 14. Which of the following are practical tips for evangelism and sports ministry as stated by the author? 15. Evangelism in its most basic form is learning to love your ____________.
SMGT 312 Quiz 1 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/smgt-312-quiz-1/ 1. The word in the Great Commission that is focused on in the beginning of Chapter 1 is 2. This principle refers to human gifts and abilities that are God given 3. That while the Bible does not promote or indicate that the church should have a sports ministry, it does not denigrate, deny or state that a church should not have a sports ministry, is an example of the principle of 4. The apostle who went to where the people were and referred to sports several times in Scripture is: 5. In 1 Corinthians 9:1 when the apostle Paul said “Am I not free?” he was demonstrating the principle of 6. Which of the following are given as motivation for people to engage in sport? 7. Which organization is directly affiliated with a professional soccer team? 8. On the spiritual pilgrimage continuum as a person moves through the stages: no awareness, initial awareness, deeper awareness, realization, point of Salvation, discipleship and multiplication; at which stage is sport ministry effective? 9. That God is multi-faceted and creative in His ways best demonstrates the principle of 10. Which organization has been a leader in sport ministry for more than 50 years? 11. Which of the following is NOT a Foundational Building Block? 12. When it comes to different approaches for different programs, which of the following should be evaluated? 13. Which of the following is NOT a Supportive Building Block? 14. The current average Sunday attendance of the St. John’s Lutheran Church is ____________. 15. In the strategic planning process, goals and long-term objectives are established for a _________ time frame.
SMGT 305 Midterm https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/smgt-305-midterm/ SMGT 305 Midterm Assignment The midterm will be utilized to measure the student’s ability to recall, analyze, and apply the concepts covered in the first four Modules: Weeks of the course. The student must answer 4 essay questions. Further, short essay answers must be at least 200 words and long enough to adequately answer the question presented. Bullet point answers are not permitted. Each essay answer must cite 2 resources that have not yet been used in the course. The midterm’s answers must be submitted in a Word document.
ECON 350 Essay Assignments https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/econ-350-essay-assignments/ ECON 350 Essay Assignments *Includes 4 essay assignments The student will complete 4 short essays that are based off of questions pertaining to a Christian worldview. Each essay must be at least 300 words in length and include a citation from the Bible in addition to 1 citation from The Wall Street Journal, The Economist, or Fortune Magazine.
HLTH 501 Quiz Study Designs https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-501-quiz-study-designs/ HLTH 501 Quiz: From Study Designs to Descriptive Statistics 1. The most appropriate study design depends, among other things, on the distribution of 2. An investigator wants to assess whether hypertension is a risk factor for coronary heart disease. Electronic medical records at a local hospital will be used to identify 100 patients with coronary heart disease. Fifty patients who are similar but free of coronary heart disease will also be selected. Each participant’s medical record will be analyzed for smoking history. The type of study proposed is a Cohort Study. 3. Five hundred people are enrolled in a 10-year cohort study. At the start of the study, 50 have diagnosed CVD. Over the course of the study, 40 people who were free of CVD at baseline develop CVD. The prevalence of CVD at 10 years is 10% 4. 1,000 people are enrolled in a 10-year cohort study. At the start of the study, 100 have diagnosed CVD. Over the course of the study, 80 people who were free of CVD at baseline develop CVD. What is the cumulative incidence at 10 years? 5. The mean is the best measure of typical value (central tendency) when they are outliers present in the data. 6. Biostatistics is integral to the field of epidemiology, which is defined as study of health and illness in human populations, patterns of health or disease, and the factors that influence these patterns. 7. Risk difference may sometimes be referred to as excess risk. 8. The measure of uncertainty in a biostatistician’s calculation of a particular outcome that may result from using a subset of the population to estimate the actual likelihood of the event occurring in the population as a whole is referred to by what statistical term? 9. The following data were collected as part of a study of tea consumption among undergraduate students in England. The following reflect cups per day consumed: 10. Calculate the point prevalence for Alzheimer’s disease among individuals 65 years of age or older in a county that has 200,000 individuals who are 65 years of age or older, if 22,223 individuals who are 65 years of age or older have the disease. 11. A study that is conducted at a single point in time is known as: 12. In a study, some patients were not followed for a total of 10 years. Some suffered events (i.e., developed coronary artery disease during follow-up), whereas others dropped out of the study. The following table displays the total number of person-years of follow-up in each group. 13. The applicability of the research results to a specific population obtained from a biostatistics study is best determined by which of the following? 14. The median of a group of individuals’ BMIs whose BMIs are 20.47, 21.92, 23.32, 23.41, 25.7, and 30.1 is approximately 24.15. 15. The best numerical summaries for dichotomous, ordinal, and categorical variables are relative frequencies. 16. Assume a new measure of Intelligence Quotient (or IQ) has been developed. The mean IQ for the population is 100 and the standard deviation is 15. The standard deviation indicates the average distance an individual data value is from the mean is about 15 IQ points. 17. Calculate the mean blood glucose level for a study measuring the blood glucose levels of 10 individuals whose blood glucose readings were as follows: 88, 97, 101, 104, 104, 107, 109, 117, 121, and 147. 18. In a study measuring the frequency of pain scores of patients on a scale from 1 to 10 for a specific type of pain relief therapy, the pain score variable would best be described as which type of variable? 19. The best measure of central tendency for systolic blood pressure readings obtained from a population of 7 individuals whose systolic blood pressure readings were 101, 104, 108, 109, 111,
112, and 160 is the mean. 20. Incidence of disease is the proportion of individuals with the condition (disease) at a single point in time 21. The following data were collected as part of a study of coffee consumption among graduate students. The following reflect cups per day consumed: 3, 4, 6, 8 ,2, 1, 0, and 2. The standard deviation is approximately 4. 22. Which study type is usually conducted at a point in time? 23. In a study, some patients were not followed for a total of 10 years. Some suffered events (i.e., developed coronary artery disease during follow-up), whereas others dropped out of the study. The following table displays the total number of person-years of follow-up in each group. 24. A subset of the population of interest is often referred to by what statistical term? 25. A nested case-control study is a specific type of case-control study that is usually designed from a cohort study. 26. A fungal meningitis outbreak has been traced back to a particular compound pharmacy selling a specific injectable drug that is suspected to have been contaminated. In the past 4 weeks 15,051 patients were given the medication, and of those patients 72 individuals contracted fungal meningitis. What is the cumulative incidence for meningitis among those individuals who the medication was administered to? 27. Which type of study design can assess temporal relationship? 28. Understanding biostatistical principles is critical to public health education. 29. Confounding is the major issue in clinical trials. 30. Two types of medical devices used for knee replacement are being studied to see if the type of knee replacement used affects the rate of infection for a specific bacterial infection. The infection rate for a specific bacterial infection after surgery for device A is 0.0043. The rate for the same bacterial infection is 0.0121 for device B. How does the risk of developing the bacterial infection in individuals using device B compare to the risk of developing the bacterial infection in individuals using device A? 31. Odds ratio can be used to approximate the relative risk when the disease under study is rare. 32. What is the ideal study design from a statistical point of view? 33. Two thousand are enrolled in a 20-year cohort study. At the start of the study, No one was diagnosed with cardiovascular disease. Over the course of the study, 100 people who were free of cardiovascular disease at baseline develop cardiovascular disease. The prevalence of cardiovascular disease at baseline is 0. 34. A clinical trial is an observational study design. 35. An investigator reviewed the medical records of 200 children seen for care at Boston Medical Center in the past year who were between the ages 8 and 12 and identified 40 children with asthma. He also identified 40 children of the same ages who were free of asthma. Each child and their family were interviewed to assess whether there might be an association between certain environmental factors such as exposure to second-hand smoke. This study is an example of a: 36. Misclassification bias often occurs in case-control studies. 37. A design that is a very detailed report of the specific features of a particular participant or case is known as? 38. Which of the following types of graphics would be most useful in demonstrating the frequency of a given outcome as it relates to an ordinal variable? 39. Calculate the lower quartile of the data set for the blood glucose levels of 10 individuals whose blood glucose readings were as follows: 88, 97, 101, 104, 104, 107, 109, 117, 121, and 147. 40. The population attributable risk is usually expressed as a percentage and ranges from 0% to 100%. 41. The proportion of the sample with disease is computed by taking the ratio of the number with disease to the total sample size. 42. Clinical trials are regulated in the United States by the Environmental Protection Agency. 43. The term clinical means that the study involves people.
44. The following data were collected as part of a study of tea consumption among undergraduate students in England. The following reflect cups per day consumed: 45. Among individuals who eat a healthy diet and exercise frequently the point prevalence of hypertension is 0.09. Individuals subject to poverty, making it more difficult for them to eat a healthy diet and exercise frequently, have a 0.31 point prevalence for hypertension. What is the risk difference between the two groups? 46. The Cumulative incidence is computed as the number of persons who develop a disease during a specified period over the number of persons examined at baseline 47. An active-control trial is the best option for researchers hoping to test a newly devised therapy for a life-threatening illness among individuals with the illness, when a previously devised treatment is available for the illness. 48. Race is an example of which type of variable? 49. The following data were collected as part of a study of tea consumption among undergraduate students in England. The following reflect cups per day consumed: 50. Confounding is usually a major issue in cohort studies.
HLTH 640 Quiz 4 Nutrition Life-cycle https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-640-quiz-4-nutrition-life-cycle/ HLTH 640 Quiz 4: Nutrition Through the Life-cycle Module 7: Week 7 – Module 8: Week 8. 1. During the third trimester of her pregnancy, Annette began to experience constipation. In which of the following options would she find relief? 2. During pregnancy, the caffeine a mother consumes from coffee, soft drinks, and energy drinks is 3. Maternal blood vessels exchange nutrients and oxygen with the fetal vessels, and the fetal vessels deliver waste products for the maternal blood for 4. Cow’s milk should not be given before age 1, as it is too high in protein and some minerals and too low in fat. 5. Proper nutrition and a healthy lifestyle ________ pregnancy help prevent birth defects and may reduce future health risks in both mother and child. 6. In infants, hot dog rounds, salt, sugar, and butter should be 7. Proper nutrition positively influences the metabolic programming during pregnancy and may help limit future chronic disease in the child and adult. 8. The timing of the types of foods which an infant receives should be determined by 9. The organ through which oxygen, nutrients, and waste products are exchanged is the 10. Who among the following pregnant women is likely to have an infant who has a low-birthweight baby? Maria who is 11. Morning sickness and cravings are common during the third trimester. 12. Which of the following types of seafood need to be avoided by pregnant women? 13. Children 14. Babies who are born earlier than 37 weeks are likely to have 15. Most food allergies are caused by eggs, cow’s milk, peanuts, soy, wheat, tree nuts, and 16. Which of the following teas should not be consumed by pregnant women? 17. Pregnant women need to avoid cigarette smoking and secondhand smoke, alcohol, illicit drugs, and botanicals. 18. A balanced diet supplies all nutrients for pregnant women except for 19. Folic acid is an important nutrient for pregnant women, and if this nutrient is underconsumed, it can result in permanent side effects in the infant. 20. Pregnant women should ________ raw or undercooked animal foods and unpasteurized milk. 21. During the third trimester, a woman who began her pregnancy at a healthy weight needs an additional 450 kilocalories daily. 22. The Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children is a government funded program that provides food assistance for nutritionally at-risk mothers during pregnancy and for at-risk children through the first ________ years of life. 23. Women who begin their pregnancy at a healthy weight should gain from ________ pounds during pregnancy. 24. Pregnant women who conceive at a healthy weight should consume an additional ________ kilocalories daily during the second trimester. 25. Toxins and insufficient nutrient intake during critical periods may cause reversible damage to the embryo or fetus. 26. Maternal and fetal blood supplies do not mix during a healthy pregnancy. 27. During the third trimester, a woman who began her pregnancy at a healthy weight needs an additional ________ kilocalories daily. 28. Conception is easier for women at a ________ weight.
29. Caffeine has been shown to be harmful to the fetus, and should be avoided by all pregnant women. 30. Marijuana, cocaine, and other illegal drugs can 31. During the first year of life, infants need to be given foods depending on their 32. Pregnant women who have preexisting medical conditions such as diabetes need to 33. Babies who fall asleep with a bottle are at risk for developing 34. Maternal nutrition, exposure to environmental toxins, drugs, stress during specific times of development can lead to functional tissue changes, and ultimately predispose an individual to disease later in life. 35. A child’s home environment exerts ________ influence over health behaviors. 36. More children are obese than ever before. 37. Participation in federal school meal programs may curb hunger and improve diet quality among poor children. 38. Ashley refuses anything but macaroni and cheese. This is called 39. Lean meats, enriched grains, and legumes on a regular basis may improve ________ stores in teens. 40. Increasing enriched grains, lean meats, and legumes may result in adequate iron intake. 41. The later the intervention with eating disordered teens, the better. 42. Overconsumption of kilocalories, inadequate physical activity, genetics, the home and community environment, and media and advertising contribute to this increasing problem of obesity. 43. Children who participate in the National School Lunch Program have ________ diet quality lunch meals as compared to those who bring lunch from home. 44. Calcium, vitamin D, and iron are key nutrients during 45. Among toddlers, milk, water, and diluted 100-percent juice are better beverage choices than sugary drinks. 46. Children who have school breakfast 47. Early assessment and intervention, including changes in diet and exercise, can prevent or reverse obesity, and may prevent the onset of type 2 diabetes. 48. Eating breakfast improves childrens’ energy levels, nutrient intake, and mental performance throughout the day. 49. Who needs to modify social, cultural, economic, and environmental influences to support healthy eating and adequate physical activity? 50. Skipping meals, choosing unhealthy foods, and excessive dieting are common among teens. 51. Hot dogs, nuts and seeds, chunks of meat, whole grapes, hard candy, popcorn, chunks of peanut butter, raw vegetables, raisins, and chewing gum 52. Children living in poverty consume lower-quality diets and are more likely to be 53. Adolescents require a balanced diet to meet their ________ nutrient needs, compared to young children. 54. Children with weak family bonds are more likely to skip meals, and choose unhealthy foods, compared to children whose families have strong bonds. 55. On a daily basis, toddlers should avoid soda and other sugary beverages and they should consume 56. When a childis asked to “clean” his plate, even if she is full, 57. During adolescence, rapid bone growth calls for adequate calcium and vitamin ________ intake. 58. Compared to overweight individuals, obese individuals have a higher risk for hypertension and high cholesterol, but there are no psychosocial disadvantages of obesity. 59. Prediabetes, type 2 diabetes, hypertension are increasing among children and teenagers. 60. Social, cultural, economic, and environmental influences can also be modified by parents to support healthy eating and adequate physical activity. 61. Obesity in children is increasing. 62. A growth spurt and the onset of puberty are characteristics of 63. Obese children are likely to ________ during adulthood.
64. During ________, calcium, vitamin D, and iron are particularly important nutrients during this period to ensure adequate bone and muscle growth and support increased blood volume. 65. The best fluid for toddlers to drink is 66. Among teens, overconsumption of soda may interfere with calcium intake if it displaces dairy products in the diet. 67. If a child’s parents and caregivers do not eat fruits and vegetables, the child is not likely to learn to enjoy them. 68. A diet high in saturated fat and low in antioxidants and fiber can ________ the aging process. 69. Nearly half of Americans age 65 and older report having been diagnosed with 70. It is better for older adults to walk alone so that they can control the pace. 71. Among older adults, stomach emptying may slow, and this may reduce hunger and thus food and nutrient intake. 72. The plant-based diet that helps reduce hypertension is the 73. Poor nutrition and a sedentary lifestyle are ________ older Americans’ risk for chronic disease and premature death. 74. Metabolism slows with age, so older adults need ________kilocalories than their younger counterparts. 75. Obesity, diabetes, hypertension, high cholesterol, heart disease, stroke, and cancer are linked to 76. Poor older Americans are less likely than middle-class Americans to 77. The number one physical activity among older Americans is 78. Who among the following has the lowest muscle mass? Mary who is 79. The Food and Drug Administration monitors supplements and botanicals so rigorously that there is no need for persons to consult a health care provider before self-prescribing them. 80. Green, leafy vegetables; blueberries, cherries, and raspberries may decrease the risk of cataracts. 81. Grandma Moses lives alone in rural Florida, has arthritis, is often depressed and lives alone since her husband died ten years ago. She never learned to drive. Which program would you recommend for her? 82. For older adults, a protein-rich diet should include lean meats, seafood, poultry, eggs, legumes, seeds, nuts, and soy products. 83. There is no cure for osteoporosis, but medications and a balanced diet, dietary supplements as necessary, and regular weight- bearing exercise can slow bone loss. 84. Who among the following have the lowest bone density? Mary who is 85. The best dietary strategy for aging adults to prevent chronic diseases is to consume a varied, nutrient- and phytochemical- dense, heart-healthy diet. 86. Older adults are at increased risk of 87. Physiological effects of aging include reduced muscle mass, increased body fat; a decrease in immune function; declining sensory abilities; and________ digestion. 88. Alicia’s mother and grandmother have both been diagnosed with osteoporosis, so Alicia needs to eat more sodium-rich foods, begin a swimming program. 89. Depression, social isolation and grief may lead to ________ appetites among older adults. 90. Among older adults, butter or olive oil, cheese, nuts, fresh herbs, mustard, hot pepper, spices, or lemon or lime juice can be added to improve the diminished sense of 91. The 85-and-older population is 92. Older adults should ensure that they get an adequate intake of high-quality lean protein, complex carbohydrates, and unsaturated fat; and that they consume enough fluid, vitamins D and B12, iron, calcium, zinc; and they also need to decrease ________ intake 93. Slowed peristalsis can lead to constipation, gas, and bloating. 94. Lifespan is the maximum age to which members of a species can live, and longevity is the duration of an individual’s life. 95. Brain function may slow because of an age-related decline in the levels of neurotransmitters and in blood 96. Disabilities such as trouble with mobility, vision, or hearing are
97. Older adults do not need to read the labels of over-the-counter medications because only prescribed medications interact with food. 98. Among older adults, social isolation, solitary eating, and depression are linked to 99. Most older do not meet national physical activity guidelines. 100. Sarcopenia is age-related progressive loss of muscle mass, muscle strength, and function.