Liberty Study Guide Homeworksimple 44

COSC 622 Quiz Chapter Six Overview https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cosc-622-quiz-chapter-six-overview/ COSC 622 Quiz: Chapter Six Overview 1. Which of the following is not one of Gresham and Davis’s identified six major objectives for the problem identification interview?

2. All of the following are suggested practice for interviewing a child in early childhood EXCEPT: 3. Clinical interviewing should be viewed as the gold standard of assessment.

4. Developmental history may include: 5. Adolescents are typically in what stage of Piaget’s theory of development?

6. It is common for pre-school aged children to experience identity versus inferiority.

7. All of the following are contexts that may influence the quality of a clinical interview EXCEPT: 8. All of the following choices are factors that may influence the interview method EXCEPT: 9. It has been proven that structured interviews are more beneficial than unstructured interviews.

10. Jean Piaget’s stages of child development include all the following EXCEPT:

COSC 622 Quiz Reliability and Validity https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cosc-622-quiz-reliability-and-validity/ COSC 622 Quiz: Reliability and Validity 1. A researcher wants to measure internal consistency in a test that measures two different constructs (self-esteem and depression) without subdividing the items into the two construct groupings. Which of the following would be the best method to use in measuring internal consistency?

2. A researcher wants to measure content-sampling error with a Likert scale test. Which of the following methods would be best?

3. If the reliability coefficient of a test is determined to be .27, what percentage is attributed to random chance or error?

4. You are reading about reliability of a test in the test manual and notice that the researchers report using a Spearman-Brown coefficient. You can infer that internal consistency reliability was measured using: 5. A researcher wants to measure content-sampling error and has two versions of an achievement test available. What measure of estimating reliability would be best in this situation?

6. The test manual reports a reliability coefficient (r) of .92, which means: 7. A researcher is concerned with measuring internal consistency reliability and has decided to use the Kuder- Richardson Formulas with a Likert scale test; this is a problem because the: 8. The SEM for an achievement test is 2.45. Johnny scores 100 and we assume that 68% of the time his true score falls between + 1 SEM; this means the confidence interval would be between: 9. You are attempting to account for a time sampling error and decide to administer the test a second time. In discussing reliability, you report this as what method of estimating reliability?

10. Jose has developed a test that has poor reliability; he can seek to increase reliability by: 11. Comparing pre and post-test scores of two groups – one group that experienced an intervention and one group that did not – is an example of: 12. To evaluate a content validity evidence, test developers may use: 13. Exploratory factor analysis can be used to: 14. _______________ are concepts, ideas, or hypotheses that cannot be directly measured or observed.

15. When discussing the relationship between reliability and validity, which of the following is true?

16. The _______________ is characterized by assessing both convergent and discriminant validity evidence and displaying data on a table of correlations.

17. The goal of factor analysis is to: 18. The tripartite view of validity includes content validity, criterion validity, and: 19. What information is included on a Multitrait-Multimethod Matrix?

20. is calculated by correlating test scores with the scores of tests or measures that assess the same construct.

COSC 622 Quiz Statistical Concepts https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cosc-622-quiz-statistical-concepts/ COSC 622 Quiz: Statistical Concepts 1. A group of researchers is attempting to design an instrument that will measure self-esteem. The researchers have an extensive list of traits that may contribute to this construct. Which analysis may assist the research team in narrowing the list of traits into a few dimensions?

2. A student conducting a research study was told by her professor to use a scatterplot in conjunction with calculating the correlation coefficient. She discovered that the data points clustered along a straight line; this means that: 3. A researcher is looking for a specific study report, in which he/she knows the kurtosis value. He reads the following kurtosis values in various reports. Which one supports a mesokurtic distribution?

4. A researcher determines that there is a positive correlation between sleep and test scores; this means that as the amount of sleep is increased, then test scores will: 5. If the researcher knows that the mean is 60 and the standard deviation is 6, then the majority of the scores falling between +1 or -1 standard deviation of the mean fall between: 6. In studying the correlation between the number of hours studied and scores on the comprehensive exam, the researcher found a correlation of .30. According to Cohen’s guidelines, what would this mean regarding the strength of the relationship?

7. The teacher grades the papers and determines the following set of scores: 90, 85, 87, 85, 92, 90, 83, 85, and 98. What is the mode?

8. When looking at a list of students’ test scores, the teacher notices that one test score is significantly lower than the majority of the scores. This is known as a/an: 9. In comparing Spearman’s Rho to a Phi Coefficient, one would generally prefer to use Spearman’s Rho when correlating: 10. The teacher has a small class with only 7 students. The teacher grades their homework and reports scores of: 10, 7, 8, 12, 9, 11, and 13. What is the median?

11. One reason for choosing either norm-referenced or criterion-referenced interpretation involves: 12. A T score has a fixed mean of __________ and a fixed standard deviation of __________.

13. The group scores to which each individual is compared are referred to as: 14. Aptitude, intelligence, and achievement tests are all examples of: 15. Percentile scores: 16. Z scores, T scores, and deviation IQs are examples of: 17. Grade equivalents are useful because they: 18. A type of standard score with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15 is: 19. A raw score can be transformed into any type of standard score by first: 20. Denise took an aptitude test that was first taken by a large group of male engineers, on whom the test was standardized. Denise is a nurse. What might be a concern when interpreting her test scores?

COSC 622 Quiz Assessment in Counseling https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cosc-622-quiz-assessment-in-counseling/ COSC 622 Quiz: Assessment in Counseling 1. The primary purpose of _______________ is to gather background information about the client relevant to the reason for assessment.

2. is a quick process, usually involving a single procedure or instrument.

3. The first major personality assessment was also developed for use during: 4. is an assessment method that involves watching and recording the behavior of an individual in a particular environment.

5. Which statement is correct?

6. One of the first scales to differentiate between children who could or could not function in a regular classroom was developed by: 7. The first group intelligence test used in the United States military service was the: 8. Which of the following statements is the most accurate?

9. A client is assessed to determine a course of outcome that would improve his or her concerns or problems. In this situation, the purpose for assessment is: 10. Identify the correct order of the steps of the assessment process: 11. Karen is a mental health counseling student who is working on a research project with one of her professors. As part of this research, she is required to interview prospective participants. Karen has a list of fifteen specific questions that she must ask in the same order with each participant.

What type of interview is Karen most likely using?

12. When a test accurately measures what it is intended to measure it is said to have sound: 13. Which of the following is true about an unstructured interview?

14. Tests that are non-evaluative are most likely to measure an individual’s: 15. A/An _______________ contains selected-response items, each of which contains a single correct or best answer.

16. Which of the following is NOT an important guideline for a successful interview?

17. Evadne, a teacher at an elementary school, is completing a rating scale for one her students.

The teacher has often complained about the student to the school counselor, leaving a bad impression about the student on the school counselor. Which of the following rating scale errors is most likely to occur?

18. Sue, a school counselor, is observing a student’s behavior in the classroom. She is monitoring how often the student gets out of his seat while working on a class activity. In order to record this behavior, Sue makes a check mark on a tally sheet to count how many times the student got out of his seat. Which observation recording method is Sue using?

19. Which of the following is the most frequent type of interview used by practicing counselors?

20. A test that measures and individual’s verbal ability, abstract reasoning, and memory would be best described as a(n):

EDUC 730 Technology Integration Learning Plan https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/educ-730-technology-integration-learning-plan/ EDUC 730 Technology Integration Learning Plan Assignment Using a Problem-Based Learning approach the candidate will design a technology integrated learning plan for a specific audience of learners using the ASSURE model for instructional design, the Technology Integration Matrix, and the ISTE standards. Plan preparation involves determining the focus problem, outlining the learning experiences, and selecting digital resources, interactives, or simulations. The learning plan must include questioning strategies and assessments.

EDUC 730 Challenges and Possibilities Paper https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/educ-730-challenges-and-possibilities-paper/ EDUC 730 Challenges and Possibilities Paper Assignment In this 8-10 page paper, the candidate will explore emerging themes in the field of educational technology and elucidate educator perspectives in order to project future directions while grappling with several current issues facing the field. Additionally, the candidate will use the Horizon Report, Gartner’s Hype cycle, and recent scholarly literature to map the current landscape, look into the future, and predict three trends that are likely to have significant impact in the future and what these trends will likely mean for teachers and for students.

HLTH 419 Quiz 1 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-419-quiz-1/ HLTH 419 Quiz 1 Module 1: Week 1 — Module 3: Week 3.

1. According to Chapter 4 of the text, who should lead a switch?

2. According to Chapter 3, ambiguity is exhausting to the Rider because the Rider is tugging on the reigns of the Elephant trying to direct it down a new path.

3. When people exhaust their self-control, they exhaust the mental muscles necessary to think creatively, limit impulses and persist in the face of failure.

4. To inspire people to select 1% milk instead of whole milk researchers did the following: 5. According to Chapter 1, Brian Wansink organized a study which gauged how much stale popcorn people would eat while sitting through a movie. What he discovered was that portion size does impacted the quantity of consumption.

6. Successful change involves all three parts of the framework. Identify which of the following is not one of the required components: 7. According to chapter 6, helping people feel as though they are closer to the “finish line” than they first thought did NOT have any impact on the percentages for overall change.

8. Jonathan Haidt would say that instances of overeating, sleeping late, cheating or skipping the gym are all examples of: 9. Which of the following tactics would not be recommended to “Motivate the Elephant?”

10. Because the Elephant dreads tasks that do not have an immediate payoff, it is often valuable to “shrink the change” in an effort to help motivate a reluctant elephant.

11. What did Robyn Waters do for Target that so dramatically transformed the company?

12. Which of the following most motivates the elephant?

13. University psychologist Thomas Haidt says that when it comes to changing behavior, our emotional side can be likened to: 14. As chapter 5 reveals, the fact that most people cannot provide fully accurate self- assessments is linked to the belief known as “Positive Illusion.”

15. Positive Illusions often provide a substantial problem with regard to making and maintaining change.

16. The best formula for change is to only focus on the Elephant.

17. Kotter and Cohen observed that in almost all successful change efforts the sequence of change is: 18. Which is not one of the key components in the 3-part framework for guiding behavior change: 19. Jerry Sternin and his work with Save the Children in Vietnam is a great example of: 20. According to Chip & Dan Heath, which is NOT one of the qualities of a SMART goal: 21. Chapter 1 notes that what often looks like “laziness” (and a hindrance to change) is often a tension between priorities.

22. Which of the following tactics would not be recommended to “Direct the Rider?”

23. The SWITCH text confirms what many corporate executives have known for years: Making dramatic change requires substantial capital and having powerful people in the right positions at the right time.

24. Finding “Bright Spots” refers to the common practice of working in well-lit rooms when teaching people how to promote change.

25. Jerry Sternin believed that knowledge alone does NOT change behavior. As a result he believed health promotion also needed a component of “SHOWING” people how to change.

26. According to Chapter 4, the best way to promote necessary change is to have a “gut- smacking” goal that appeals to both the rider and the elephant.

27. According to the Switch text, the modern-day Food Pyramid is a great example of effective marketing.

28. According to the Heath brothers and current research, self-control is an exhaustible resource.

29. As Brian Wansink’s popcorn study revealed, “change” can be complicated by people- problems and situation-based problems.

30. According to Chapter 3, the most common path that people choose is:

CJUS 703 Quiz 4 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cjus-703-quiz-4/ 1. Advocates of restorative justice favor justice for: 2. The traditional system we now use contrasts with restorative justice in which of the following ways?

3. Which of the following is not a central principle of restorative justice?

4. Which of the following statements regarding the role of restoration is true?

5. Which of the following is not a purpose of the victim-offender conference?

6. Restoration is contingent on which of the following?

7. Which of the following is not an appealing aspect of restorative justice?

8. Which of the following examples about the justice problem is true?

9. The prison problem of restorative justice refers to which of the following: 10. Which of the following statements regarding the criminological problem is true?

11. According to Tom Tyler (2003), procedural justice is referring to: 12. What is likely to occur if officers, court personnel, and other state officials do not use procedural justice in their interactions?

13. According to Braithwaite (1989), which of the following is an example of reintegrative shaming?

14. Restorative justice advocates believe that offender change should be primarily accomplished by: 15. Which of the following statements is not a main conclusion of restorative justice research?

16. Which of the following is not a limitation of restorative justice?

17. A rehabilitation component is generally not included in restorative justice because: 18. Which of the following statements regarding the Indianapois Juvenile Restorative Justice Experiment results are true: 19. What type of analysis did Lawrence Sherman and Heather Strang (2007) use in their earlier work to determine that restorative justice infrequently increases recidivism and about half of the time actually decreases it?

20. Andrews and Bonta (2010) completed a meta-analysis that examined 46 studies where restorative justice was compared with another sanction. Which of the following statements regarding their results is true?

21. What are the four limits to restorative justice? Which limitation is the most troubling? Justify your answer.

AVIA 304 Quiz Postwar Era https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/avia-304-quiz-postwar-era/ 1. Who was the first leader of helicopter development in the 1930’s?

2. Who was the pilot of the first jet aircraft to shoot down another jet aircraft in 1950?

3. According to the author, this aircraft constituted the most powerful attack force used in South Vietnam.

4. Which aircraft broke the sound barrier on its first flight in 1953 and flew over 360,000 combat sorties in Vietnam?

5. A leading aerospace engineer and designer, his death from cancer in 1966 was a great setback to the Soviet Union’s space program.

6. Robert Goddard mostly worked in isolation.

7. Who is credited with calculating the velocities required to reach earth orbit in 1909?

8. Who was the first man in space?

9. What was the largest transport aircraft used in the Berlin Airlift?

10. The modified Boeing “Big Belly” B-52 could carry almost ________ pounds of bombs?

11. The first Soviet production supersonic fighter was the: 12. Along with being the largest bomber ever produced for the US military, this aircraft was also the first intercontinental bomber.

13. The first artificial earth satellite was named: 14. The first ejection seat was created during the Korean War. 15. The crew of which spacecraft were the first to die outside of the earth’s atmosphere?

16. Who developed the V-2 rocket?

17. What American plane was used as a high-altitude reconnaissance aircraft, of which two were shot down by the USSR? 18. The lunar landing was: 19. What airplane first flew in 1964 and is still the highest and fastest-flying turbojet aircraft in history?

20. The first hydrogen bomb, exploded in 1952, was _____ times more powerful than the device that had destroyed Hiroshima.

21. What is Top Gun and why was it created?

22. Discuss the space race between the USA and Soviet Union.

AVIA 304 Quiz 1 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/avia-304-quiz-1/ 1. Who was known as the “flying man?”

2. Who made the first flight across the Mediterranean Sea? 3. Lafayette Escadrille was mainly composed of: 4. Who made the first powered heavier-than-air flight in Europe in 1906?

5. Approximately how many times did Otto Lilienthal fly his hang gliders?

6. Prior to becoming a founding father of aviation in the United States, Glenn Curtiss was a: 7. Pyotr Nesterov was a Russian pilot, and in 1913 he was the first to perform a “loop-the-loop.”

What did he receive from his superiors for this accomplishment?

8. In what year were the Wright brothers officially recognized internationally as the first “heavierthan-air” flight?

9. Who first invited Glenn Curtiss to collaborate on building airplanes?

10. Who made the first successful take-off from water?

11. Who was the first licensed female pilot?

12. Which pilot and designer rose to prominence when he completed a roundtrip between St. Petersburg and Kiev, a 1,600 mile journey?

13. Who was in charge of the Great Aerodrome?

14. Where did Octave Chanute conduct his flight experiments?

15. Who was the first certified ace of World War I? 16. Who made the first successful take-off from a platform on a ship?

17. Who was known as “The Red Baron?”

18. Who was the first pilot to shoot down another airplane?

19. Zeppelins were the most effective aircraft of World War I. 20. Which German ace has a specific airplane maneuver named after him?

OBST 651 Quiz Creation https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/obst-651-quiz-creation/ OBST 651 Quiz: Creation, History, and the Ancient Near East 1. Oswalt lists the following common features of myths 2. For Oswalt, continuity as an idea in the ancient Near East and many other cultures can best be classified as 3. In his book, The Bible Among the Myths, John Oswalt endeavors to prove that the Old Testament offers a distinctive view of reality which underlies the New Testament.

4. Walton does not believe there is even one instance in the entire Bible where God reveals to Israel a scientific truth beyond their own culture.

5. The traditional view accepts __________________ as the author of the book of Genesis (power point).

6. In contrast to myth, the Bible’s view of God as transcendent can be seen in the following characteristics of OT religion.

7. The single most important aspect of the way of thinking that characterizes myth for Oswalt is that 8. In Oswalt’s book, this scholar proposed that Israel’s understanding of reality arose as a late creative fiction by a Yahwist in the 6th century B.C..

9. Gordon Wenham sees Gen. 1-11 as _____________.

10. Oswalt’s defines ________ as the philosophical principle that asserts that all things are continuous with one another.

11. Ancient historiography would allow for Genesis 1-11 to contain ____________ stories 12. is the use of thought forms and stories that were common in the ancient Near Eastern culture while filling them with radically new meaning (Currid).

13. The archetypal view of John Walton denies that there was a real Adam.

14. Currid’s work affirms that the biblical writers employed polemical theology as an instrument to underscore the uniqueness of the Hebrew world view versus the flawed conceptions of the surrounding nations in the ancient Near East.

15. In his explication of an old earth creation view C. John Collins allows for the possibility that Adam 16. Oswalt notes that phenomenological definitions of myth describe the common characteristics of myth which include.

17. Oswalt notes that etymological definitions of myth applied to the Old Testament would stress the falsity of the claims being made in the story.

18. Walton’s view insists that physical death (except for humanity) must have existed before the Fall.

19. For Walton, Genesis 1 contains __________.

20. Kenton Sparks suggests that Genesis 1-11 reflects _______________.

21. In days 4-6 the ________________ of the cosmos are installed in their appropriate positions and given their appropriate roles.

22. Oswalt notes that the only three world religions that believe in a transcendent God derived their view from the Old Testament.

23. The purpose of polemical theology is to demonstrate the essential ________ between Hebrew thought and ancient Near East beliefs and practices (Currid).

24. James Hoffmeier believes that the incorporation of Genesis 1-11 into the broader scheme of _______ in Genesis means that the author intended his ancient audience to see these real events that occurred in history.

25. Walton believes that the word ‘beginning’ in Gen. 1:1 refers to 26. For Currid, the inclusion of the statement that “God created the great sea creatures” in Gen. 1:21 functions as a polemic against the ___________ myth that saw a large serpent or sea creature as the enemy of the god Baal.

27. Old-Earth geologists believe that the Earth is ___________ years old.

28. In Walton’s interpretation of Days 1-3 in Gen. 1, functions are established.

29. Currid believes that the designation of the luminaries in Gen. 1:16 as “the greater light ,” “the lesser light,” and “the stars,”is an Israelite polemic against the common view in the ancient Near East that the sun, moon and stars were 30. Currid addresses the polemics in the Genesis Flood story by suggesting that in contrast to the sovereign control over the Flood exhibited by God in the Genesis account the gods in the Epic of Gilgamesh 31. The Old Testament was written first 32. For Walton the temple comes into existence by _________________.

33. This approach seeks to give a modern scientific explanation for the details in the creation texts of Genesis 34. According to the power point, differences between ancient Near East creation myths and the Old Testament creation accounts include.

35. One evidence for Walton’s temple view pertains to the ______________ built into the design of the Jewish Temple 36. The classical documentary hypothesis verified that Moses wrote the book of Genesis in the 15th century B.C. 37. Walton favors the ‘intelligent design movement’ and ‘irreducible complexity’ as the best argument against Neo-darwinism to date.

38. In contrast to the myths of the ancient Near East, the Old Testament depicts God’s interactions with humans in the arena of unique, nonrepeatable events of time and space 39. Which idea best describes John Walton’s view of the statement in Gen. 1:2 that the earth was ‘formless and void’ 40. Walton believes that the principle factor that separates a biblical view of origins from a modern scientific view is that the biblical view is characterized by a pervasive 41. Rather than evidence of syncretism or borrowing, Currid argues that many parallels between ancient Near Eastern literature and the Old Testament may be properly understood through the right use of polemical theology.

42. For Walton, function of the created celestial objects in day four relates primarily to 43. The evolutionary creation view of Denis Lamoreux affirms there was a real Adam and Eve. 44. John Walton asserts that ontology, defined as what it means to exist in the ancient Near East and Israel was 45. Oswalt defines myth as a form of expression whether literary or oral, whereby the continuities among the human, natural and divine realms are expressed and actualized.

46. One of the beauties of Walton’s temple view is that it __________________.

47. Oswalt states that unlike the ancient Near Eastern myths, in the Bible God is not the cosmos, and the cosmos is not God and thus God is radically other than His creation.

48. As William Barrick notes, the young earth creation view believes in a literal historical Adam who was supernaturally created by God within the last 6- 10,000 years.

49. In the ancient Near Deity rests in a ________________.

50. One of Walton’s conclusions (Prop. 18) is that empirical science should not favor teleology or dysteleology but should remain neutral on the issue.

51. Utilizing the power point and readings, define the four views of the historical Adam and defend one of the views. In doing so, be sure to interact with some of the criticisms raised against your view by those holding other positions.

OBST 659 Quiz Job and Psalms https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/obst-659-quiz-job-and-psalms/ OBST 659 Quiz Job and Psalms 1. Sigmund Mowinckel was the scholar who first categorized the psalms into literary types or forms.

2. If God appeared to Job, He would tell Job he is getting less punishment than he deserved.

3. In his first test, Job loses his health and his wife is killed.

4. Royal psalms concern the relationship between the king and his people only.

5. God allows Satan to kill Job, if necessary, to prove Job’s loyalty unto death.

6. Each of Job’s friends defends the proposition that because God is just, He always rewards the righteous and punishes the wicked.

7. The church father Athanasius stated one important reason for the importance of the psalms in the life of believers when he said that while most of the Scriptures speak to us, the Psalms speak for us.

8. The book of Psalms teaches that sacrifice is more important than obedience to the Law of God. 9. A lament psalm is a set prayer written for worshippers to use for typical distress.

10. Some scholars believe that the third round of speeches in the book of Job are truncated or in some confusion.

11. Not a reason for Davidic authorship of the Psalms 12. If Job is blessed by God, then he will be blessed. If Job is unfaithful, then he will be punished.

13. The psalm headings must be an original part of each psalm.

14. In the heavenly council, Satan accuses Job of continuing to maintain his faithfulness to God to save his own skin.

15. After Job is afflicted with a terrible disease, his wife pleads with him to seek the Lord in prayer for deliverance.

16. Gordis believes the book of Job offers grounds for courage in the face of the mystery of suffering in light of God’s control of and ordering of creation (that is God by analogy must be in control of the moral order as well) 17. As the book now reads, the epilogue of Job presupposes knowledge of both the poetic speeches and the prologue of the book.

18. Gunkel divided the Psalter into two main types (forms): hymns and 19. The prologue and the epilogue of Job are written in prose.

20. Satan suggests Job fears God because of God’s blessings (what he can get from God).

21. Each of Job’s friends deduces that if Job is suffering, he must have sinned since God would never punish the innocent.

22. The Sumerian poem Lamentations of a Man to His God (2000 B.C.) is similar to the book of Job, but affirms the retribution theology of Job’s friends.

23. Some terms in the psalm headings indicate the type of psalm.

24. Job’s request for God to answer him comes in chapters 38-42 where God appears to him in the quiet of a ‘still small voice’.

25. Edom’s reputation for wise men was nonexistent.

26. There are no psalms that touch upon the issue of ‘theodicy.’

27. The title for the book of Psalms in the Hebrew Bible 28. The faithfulness of God to be just and deliver his people is the underlying hope in every situation of suffering.

29. Theodicy asks the question whether God’s ways are just.

30. Our book of Psalms is divided into seven smaller books reflecting the divine number 7.

31. Songs of Thanksgiving offer praise to God for some specific act of deliverance.

32. How do scholars understand the creatures behemoth and leviathan in Job 40-41.

33. Psalm 150 is the last of five ‘Hallel Hymns’ which bring to a climax the growing dominance of praise at the end of the psalter.

34. Psalm 1 can be regarded as an introduction to the whole book of Psalms.

35. In the book of Job, the Lord calls Job ‘a blameless and upright man who fears God’.

36. Satan appears to be a title and not a name in the book of Job. 37. Not an author of a psalm 38. Psalms theology teaches that Yahweh is the only God and is Creator, Lord of history, and abounding in steadfast love.

39. Satan appears before God one time in the book of Job. 40. Job responds to God’s challenging questions with brilliant answers that lead God to restore to him all his previous blessings.

41. Elihu adds to the strict retribution theology of his friends by suggesting that the purpose of suffering can sometimes be ‘educative’.

42. The Kingship Psalms celebrate Yahweh’s rule over creation and his exercise of justice on behalf of his covenant people and the downtrodden of society.

43. Which answer is not a part of the structure of a lament psalm 44. Elihu is a humble young man who adds nothing new to the debate in his conversations with Job in chapters 32-37.

45. The setting of the book of Job takes place in the days after the Babylonian exile and return of the Jews.

46. Laments express the psalmist’s desire to give praise to God for who He is.

47. The ‘Elohistic Psalter’ is so-named because the name of God used in these psalms is primarily ‘Yahweh’.

48. In the Egyptian work ‘The Protests of the Eloquent Peasant,’ a peasant challenges the administration of justice before the Egyptian gods.

49. If Job is blessed by God, then he will be faithful. If Job is not blessed by God, then he will be unfaithful.

50. Ezekiel refers to the patriarch Job as an example of a righteous man.

51. Torah psalms are defined by their praise of God’s omniscience.

52. The scholar David Mitchell has argued that the entire book of Psalms presents an eschatological theology centered around the figure of the Davidic king.

53. The poetry in the book of Job consists of speeches.

54. One main term for God in the poetical speeches is ‘Eloah’.

55. The sub types of praise psalms include, divine kingship, hymns of creation and hymns of redemption.

56. There are six rounds of speeches between Job and his friends Eliphaz, Bildad, and Zophar.

57. Since the author of Job establishes from the beginning that Job is innocent of moral fault, he implies that the book deals with the problem of the ‘suffering of the innocent’.

58. Scholars are certain that the term Selah in the psalms means ‘forever’.

59. Job knows that his afflictions are a result of God’s testing of his faithfulness.

60. The lament psalms and Job teach that at some point the sufferer believer will worship God even if the situation does not appear to improve.

61. The problem of the suffering of the innocent is a question of ‘theodicy’ 62. At the end of his first test, Job says ‘the Lord gave, and the Lord has taken away; blessed be the name of the Lord’.

63. The lament psalms never ‘argue’ with God by offering reasons why He should intervene.

64. Calls Job a windbag and claims God killed Job’s children because they were sinners.

65. A number of individual laments contain an expression of confidence that Yahweh has heard the psalmist’s prayer.

66. Job’s persevering faithfulness support’s God’s confidence in humans to worship to worship him free from selfish motivations.

67. In response to his friends’ accusations, Job defends his innocence before them and to God. 68. Job’s questioning of God is not congruent with his earlier righteous behavior and relates dream where God told him no one can claim to be righteous before God. 69. In the speeches, Job seems to charge God with injustice for allowing the innocent to suffer and prospering the wicked in some cases.

70. Weiser linked the use of many psalms with a fall festival of covenant renewal in Israel.

71. Match the terms to their definitions sheminit moses maa lament thanksgiving psalm, imprecation, messiah, Psalm 2, mediator, psalm 51

OBST 659 Quiz Proverbs and Ecclesiastes https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/obst-659-quiz-proverbs-and-ecclesiastes/ OBST 659 Quiz Proverbs and Ecclesiastes 1. The book of Proverbs employs the one line popular proverb as its basic form.

2. The difficulty of interpreting the book of Ecclesiastes is exacerbated by the book’s affirmation of both the apparent meaninglessness of life and a lifestyle of 3. Qoheleth’s concerns about the matter of worship reveal a time for the book when a Temple is central in Jewish life.

4. Bullock believes there is good evidence for belief in some form of afterlife found in some of the passages in the OT poetical books.

5. The ‘fear of the Lord’ came to mean having a loyalty to and love for the Lord which results in obedience to his commandments.

6. Qoheleth’s argument explores the meaning of human labors and efforts apart from God. 7. A major subfunction of the book of Proverbs was ethical instruction, clearly directed to the young.

8. Which characteristic marks the fool in Proverbs.

9. It may be that wisdom was personified as a lady in Proverbs because the Hebrew word for wisdom is feminine.

10. The poetic personification of wisdom as a divine attribute in chapter 8 points toward the ontological meaning of the Logos in the New Testament.

11. Wisdom is personified as a goddess in the book of Proverbs.

12. The statement that Qoheleth ‘was king over Jerusalem’ (Eccl. 1:12) argues for Solomonic authorship.

13. The view of the psalms and wisdom books on the ‘afterlife’ includes: 14. The book of Proverbs ends with an acrostic poem in praise of a virtuous wife who exemplifies the ‘fear of the Lord’ enjoined at the beginning of the book.

15. Proverbs was written in poetry, in part, to make its precepts easy to memorize.

16. The ‘inscrutability of the future’ in Ecclesiastes means wisdom is irrelevant for life.

17. The literal meaning of the word hevel is transitory breath, wind, or vapor.

18. A major topic discussed in Proverbs includes: 19. Solomon is credited with the majority of the chapters in the book of Proverbs.

20. Which of the following is not a possible meaning of the ‘fear of the Lord.’

21. Divine revelation occurs through the created order in the wisdom understanding of Proverbs.

22. The Hebrew title of Proverbs is paroimiai of Solomon, son of David.

23. Since the wicked sometimes prosper, God doesn’t appear to be in control of things in the book of Ecclesiastes.

24. The Egyptian work Instruction of Amenemope parallels all thirty sayings in Proverbs 22:22-23:11.

25. Ecclesiastes is an example of ‘speculative wisdom’.

26. Proverbs are absolute laws. They are describing the absolute results in life of following or disobeying the proverbial principles contained in the book.

27. One way of understanding seemingly contradictory statements in Ecclesiastes is to propose that Qoheleth is quoting traditional teaching, commenting on it and sometimes refuting it.

28. The Law, the covenant, and the redemptive history of Israel are mentioned quite often in the Proverbs.

29. The fact that the book of Ecclesiastes is in the canon suggests that there is a place for skeptical doubt and questions within the Christian faith.

30. The Jews had little dispute over the canonicity of Ecclesiastes.

31. The statement in the opening verse of Ecclesiastes describing Qoheleth as ‘the son of David, king in Jerusalem’ seems to refer to Solomon.

32. Which statement characterizes the wise in Proverbs 33. The Hebrew word for proverb mashal comes from verbs that mean either ‘to be like’, or ‘to rule’.

34. The usage of ‘late’ or ‘post-biblical’ Hebrew influenced by Aramaic in the book of Ecclesiastes is evidence against both Solomonic authorship and an early date for the book.

35. It is not difficult to uncover a logical progression of thought in the book of Ecclesiastes.

36. King Hezekiah scribes added some additional proverbs of Solomon to the books of Proverbs.

37. ‘Enjoy life but under God’ is one way to sum up the teaching of Ecclesiastes.

38. The overall literary structure of Ecclesiastes is clear and most scholars agree on it.

39. Many modern critical scholars adopt the view that the name of Solomon was adopted by the unknown author of Ecclesiastes to explore the meaning of life through many different avenues open to a king of the wealth and power of Solomon.

40. Which statement does not describe the content of the three part outline of the book of Ecclesiastes.

41. The book that positively suggests that the retribution principle can generally be seen to be true in life’s experiences 42. The idea of ‘fearing God/Yahweh’ may have had its origin in the sense of terror when confronted with the Numinous.

43. While the ancient Near East offers examples of pessimistic wisdom, we have no documents from Egypt or Mesopotomia that represent the advanced stage of thought we find in Ecclesiastes.

44. Lady wisdom is pictured as an ideal wife in the acrostic poem of the virtuous woman in Prov.

31:10-31.

45. The phrase ‘under the sun’ probably limits Qoheleth’s perspective on ‘vanity’ to the meaning of human labors on earth-in this life.

46. Martin Luther accepted Solomonic authorship for Ecclesiastes.

47. The book of Ecclesiastes teaches that one can take great comfort in knowing what the future holds.

48. The royal references to unrivaled wisdom, wealth, servants, and building activities point to Solomon as author of the book.

49. Qoheleth shared the idea of the ‘fear of the Lord’ with other Old Testament wisdom literature and it became the mediating element in his philosophy.

50. The translation of Qoheleth used in our older English versions is ‘the preacher’.

51. There is no major disagreement among scholars about the overall structure (outline) of the book of Proverbs.

52. Ecclesiastes 12:2-6 may describe the physical decline that comes with old age.

53. The Hebrew title for the book of Ecclesiastes is Qoheleth.

54. A proverb can be defined as a brief, succinct and persuasive saying proven true by experience.

55. The present form of the book of Proverbs was completed by Solomon’s death.

56. A numerical proverb uses numerology to get at secret meanings in the text.

57. The authorship of the Ecclesiastes is traditionally attributed to Solomon.

58. Our English title Proverbs is derived from the Vulgate translation.

59. The proverbs of Solomon in chapters 10-22:16 are characterized by what kind of parallelism.

60. As a speculative wisdom book, Ecclesiastes has nothing to say about sin and judgment.

61. The Old Testament poetical books present a clear and unambiguous view of the afterlife as the doctrine of the resurrection does in the New Testament.

62. Many scholars dated the final form of the book of Proverbs in the postexilic period because of its developed wisdom theology (e.g. lady wisdom).

63. The inevitability of death leads the writer of Ecclesiastes to rage against it and God for allowing it.

64. The Hebrew word qahal from which Qoheleth is derived means ‘to cry out’.

65. All the proverbs in the book of Proverbs support the idea of a strict retribution theology.

66. Qoheleth’s search did not include the method of wisdom.

67. There is no compelling reason to date the book of 68. Proverbs any later than the time of B.C.).

69. The motto of the book of Proverbs is.

70. The Egyptian wisdom document, the Instruction of Amenemope, likely has some kind of relationship with Proverbs 22:17-23:14.

71. The instruction form of proverb predominates in Proverbs 1-9.

72. Match the terms to their definitions simchah hevel School of Hillel nabal Lemuel Dame Folly hypostasis Maat Retribution principle Mosaic covenant

OBST 659 Quiz Hebrew Poetry and Wisdom https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/obst-659-quiz-hebrew-poetry-and-wisdom/ OBST 659 Quiz Hebrew Poetry and Wisdom 1. One proposed setting for learning wisdom in ancient Israel is the ‘royal court’.

2. In synonymous parallelism, the second line repeats ideas of the first line.

3. Which statement defines a ‘non-alphabetic acrostic.’

4. Quantitative meter as embraced by Josephus and some of the Church Fathers is accepted as the metrical key to Old Testament poetry by a number of Old Testament scholars today.

5. The most likely time for wisdom to have been imported into Israel was during the time of King David.

6. ‘My soul is among lions; I lie among the sons of men’ (Psalm 57:4a) 7. The surrounding nations had no ‘wisdom teachers’ like Israel for the existence of ‘wise men’ was unique to Israel.

8. The Bible states that there were other ‘wise men’ in the surrounding nations.

9. The wisdom books are filled with the mention of the great moment in Israel’s history.

10. ‘Folk wisdom’ may be defined as the observations on life by ordinary people.

11. A single poetic line in Hebrew poetry is called a luxnos from the Greek.

12. “And-cast-down from-heaven to-earth, The-beauty-of Israel” (Lam. 2:1b) is an example of 3:2 meter.

13. In emblematic parallelism, one line is literal and the other line of poetry is metaphor.

14. The Bible never links King Solomon with ‘wisdom’.

15. Ecclesiastes and the Song of Songs were placed in a special group within the Writings called the Five Megilloth.

16. A single bicola consists of two, two verse units of Hebrew poetry.

17. The idea of wisdom in the Old Testament had nothing to do with practical matters and was purely an intellectual exercise concerning important philosophical questions.

18. Some synonyms of the word ‘wisdom’ connect the concept to ‘right behavior’.

19. ‘He who walks with integrity walks securely, but he who perverts his ways will become known’ (Prov. 10:1).

20. Fokkelman says Hebrew poetry is structured above the basic unit of bicolon or tricolon into verses and that groups of two or three or more verses form a unit called a ‘strophe’.

21. Bishop Robert Lowth believed that the basic feature of Hebrew poetry was ‘parallelism’.

22. In the Hebrew Bible, the five poetic books are found in the third division called the Writings or Kethubim.

23. Identifying meter has proven extremely useful from an exegetical standpoint for the interpretation of the biblical text.

24. Old Testament poetry would include all of the following: narrative, psalms of lament, proverbial wisdom, and non- proverbial wisdom.

25. According to the Old Testament wisdom books, wisdom belongs to God. 26. Many scholars agree with Watson that meter is a feature of Hebrew poetry, but that it is used flexibly.

27. Which category does not reflect a source for wisdom reflection 28. The Hebrew word most often used in the wisdom books for ‘wisdom’ is hokmah from the root hkm.

29. ‘My son, if thine heart be wise, my heart shall rejoice, even mine. Yea, my heart shall rejoice, when thy lips speak right things’ (Prov. 23:15-16) 30. There are other ‘wisdom passages’ in the Hebrew Bible outside of the wisdom books and the Psalms.

31. A colon is a single verse unit (member) of Hebrew poetry.

32. The book of Job is an example of ‘optimistic wisdom’.