HLTH 624 Quiz Final https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-624-quiz-final/ HLTH 624 Quiz: Final Module 5: Week 5 – Module 8: Week 8 1. Concerning the lining of a sanitary landfill: 2. The African Stock pile Program(ASP): 3. Wastes that need disinfection include all of the following except: 4. An example of disinfecting with a safer chemical includes: 5. Improved water includes: 6. A toilet should be built: 7. For long term success, education and access related to sanitation are insufficient to elicit behavior change without investment: 8. Concerning Malaysia’s sanitation approach, all of the following are correct except: 9. Battery recycling: 10. Sewage treatment: 11. The Clean Air Act of the Philippines (1999): 12. In the compost toilet type of ecological toilet: 13. Cleaner production in tanneries in Leon, Mexico occurred because they: 14. It is preferable to build a landfill in an area with: 15. A covered porous walled chamber that allows water to slowly soak into the ground: 16. A sewerage system: 17. Disposal into water bodies of final effluent from on-site treatment systems directly into a receiving water body like a river or lake: 18. A leach field: 19. Concerning the use of bleach: 20. Aquaculture: 21. Wastes that do not need disinfection include all of the following except: 22. A sanitary landfill: 23. Electronics recycling: 24. For a safe waste pit for burying health care waste: 25. Concerning Thailand’s sanitation approach, all of the following are correct except: 26. Concerning recycling plastics: 27. All of the following are means of disinfecting waste by heat except: 28. Concerning e-water, all of the following are correct except: 29. The Sulabh public toilet program in India: 30. A type of toilet best in places where people wish to plant trees and can be moveable: 31. What should not go into compost? 32. In the dry toilet type of ecological toilet: 33. Concerning compost: 34. A toilet that turns human waste into fertilizer: 35. Decomposed organic matter that has been hygienized sufficiently to be used in agriculture is called: 36. In landfills containing mixed waste: 37. Plastic used to make IV bags: 38. A VIP toilet: 39. A corresponding target that relates to the Millennium Development Goal, for water and sanitation is: 40. A clean production paper factory reduces pollution by: 41. The following are distinct steps in the sanitation ladder:
42. A mixture of urine, feces, washing water and toilet paper is called: 43. Harmful waste from leather tanneries can be reduced by all of the following except: 44. The Khian Sea: 45. Concerning the F-Diagram, it describes fecal pathways through the environment through: 46. The following are true about community-led total sanitation (CLTS) 47. Singapore’s sanitation approach: 48. The total water generated from the washing of food, clothes, dishes and people (from bathing) is called: 49. Harmful waste from dyeing can be reduced by all of the following except: 50. Health care waste may be related to:
HLTH 624 Quiz Midterm https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-624-quiz-midterm/ HLTH 624 Quiz: Midterm Module 1: Week 1 – Module 4: Week 4 1. In onchocerciasis control programs: 2. Well water becomes safe if wells are dug at a minimum distance of: 3. Concerning the provision of soap as an option for prevention of shigellosis: 4. Malaria currently occurs in: 5. Schistosomiasis is prevalent in: 6. Clinical manifestations of malaria include: 7. Management of diarrhea includes: 8. The most common helminth infection of humans is: 9. Shigella may be controlled by: 10. Community led-sanitation is designed to improve sanitation by: 11. Humans usually become first in contact with the schistosome when: 12. The elimination of hookworm in many industrialized countries: 13. Human malaria disease is caused by: 14. Onchocerciasis: 15. The vector of dengue infection is: 16. The following water treatment method encompasses multiple different processes and products for improving the quality: 17. Schistosomiasis is transmitted by: 18. The vector of malaria is: 19. New sanitation solutions in Africa: 20. Concerning the model of the service delivery approach for delivering rural water interventions: 21. Which of the following informal water service tends to be rarer than the other services mentioned below: 22. Concerning shallow hand-dug wells: 23. Hookworm infection in pregnant women: 24. Bloody diarrhea: 25. Guinea worm (dracunculiasis) disease may be prevented by: 26. The “sodis” method: 27. Breeding sites of the vector of dengue include: 28. The major strategy(ies) to address trachoma control is (are): 29. Sustainability of water supplies is: 30. Concerning population in relation to water supply: 31. Soil-transmitted helminthes: 32. Concerning the water crises, which country or region has the greatest percentage of the population without improved drinking water? 33. A large portion of diarrhea morbidity and mortality may be prevented by: 34. Shigellosis: 35. Chlorination: 36. Dengue infections currently occur in: 37. Concerning hygiene programs: 38. Which of the following contributes to a protected well: 39. A type of informal water supply business that purchases water from formal utilities for resale is called: 40. Guinea worm disease: 41. Concerning informal water service providers:
42. Infectious diarrhea may be caused by: 43. The best way(s) to protect both ground water and surface water is/are: 44. The leading cause of diarrhea hospitalizations and cause of annual diarrhea deaths is: 45. Treatment for dengue fever and dengue hemorrhagic fever should include: 46. Diagnosis of schistosomiasis is made by: 47. According to the WHO and UNICEF an improved water source is/are: 48. The schistosome will cause disease in the following organ(s): 49. Traditional alternatives to municipal water sources, such as from rivers or ponds in urban settings is/are: 50. Concerning boiling water:
SOWK 325 Quiz 8 Vulnerable Populations https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/sowk-325-quiz-8-vulnerable-populations/ SOWK 325 Quiz 8: Vulnerable Populations 1. Which of the following is an effect of the aging process? 2. According to the closing video, the following are goals of policies regarding immigration: 3. Specific racial groups that have faced discrimination in our country over the years include all EXCEPT: 4. In the closing video, Elke Cox speaks of the Bible’s view on being involved in civic life. She uses which of the following Scriptures? 5. In the Rosaria Butterfield video, she encourages Christians ALL of the following EXCEPT: 6. Important legislation for Native Americans over the centuries that was discussed in the video include all EXCEPT: 7. In the closing video, race is discussed as both a social and biological construct (or idea). 8. Barusch was quoted in the closing video as homosexuality having “evolving definitions” that people still today view differently. Which is the following is NOT one: 9. According to Barusch in the closing video, the government has changed it’s policies over the years, as values and attitudes have shifted, to being more of an agent of healing than of oppression. 10. retirement can be caused by not being able to find work, or can be due to disability or other factors inhibiting the ability to work. 11. The video on the History of Civil Rights, included information on 12. Which view sees that families should work together to take care of the needs of the elderly persons in their lives? 13. Which view sees problems of the aged as stemming from a flawed economic system that pushes aside the old in favor of the young? 14. The societal definition of aging may be changing, even if the _______ definition is not. 15. Beth’s program, according to the video, takes clients through the process of: 16. Which view attempts to work around the restrictions of the capitalist system without changing it? 17. Which of the following groups is considerable more likely to be poor according to Administration on Aging (2011)? 18. According to the closing video, people’s values and beliefs regarding homosexuality have significantly shifted over the last 50 years. 19. In the video with Beth, she discusses that a big part of her job is working with persons who have: 20. According to Beth, nursing homes and assisted living facilities generally accept both Medicare and Medicaid as payment.
SOWK 325 Quiz 7 Social Welfare Policy https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/sowk-325-quiz-7-social-welfare-policy/ SOWK 325 Quiz 7: Social Welfare Policy Issues and Topics 1. Which of the following is NOT one of the main parts of the criminal justice system? 2. Which of the following is a main goal for the correctional system? 3. TARP stands for 4. Most of the legislation regarding protection for women, according to the video, began in the 1960s. 5. Which of the following populations are individuals who lack a fixed, regular, and adequate nighttime residence? 6. According to the video on women, which of the following is FALSE: 7. The United States imprisons the most what compared to the rest of the world? 8. According to the websites and video clip on sex trafficking, which of the following organizations was NOT named in working to combat sex trafficking globally? 9. prosecution means that the case is suspended for a period of time with a condition. 10. Which of the following is NOT an issue for women that was discussed in the video: 11. According to the video on working Americans, who of the following was/were involved with fighting for the rights of working Americans? 12. According to chapter 12, _________ is central to the American dream. 13. Sex trafficking, according to our websites & video clips: 14. Many Americans now own a house that is worth _________ than the mortgage that they owe. 15. Which view holds that housing is a basic human need therefore a right? 16. The Wagner Act of 1935 and the Taft-Hartley Act of 1947 both had to do with labor union law. 17. Which of the following is NOT one of the states in the “rust belt”? 18. Housing is one area that is most associated with community level ______. 19. This type of law is created by judges: 20. The following are all policies intended to help working Americans EXCEPT:
CJUS 400 Crimes Persons Property https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cjus-400-crimes-persons-property/ CJUS 400 Quiz: Crimes Against Persons and Property Module 5: Week 5 – Module 6: Week 6 1. Susie is out at a night club she frequents and it is crowded. She feels the hands of another patron on her hip as he attempts to move past her. She asks the bouncer to detain the man as she dials 911. The police respond and when they arrive on the scene they arrest the man. The man in the bar may consider charging the bouncer and the bar with: 2. Virtually any kind of physical contact can constitute a: 3. Because kidnapping requires the victim to be moved “some distance” or a “substantial distance,” some states have created the crime of: 4. A police officer’s defense to an assault and battery charge could be that the conduct was necessary and lawful: 5. Susie is out at a night club she frequents and it is crowded. She feels the hands of another patron on her hip as he attempts to move past her. She asks the bouncer to detain the man as she dials 911. The police respond and when they arrive on the scene they arrest the man. The man’s attorney probably moved to have the charges dropped on the basis of: 6. An individual who unlawfully restrains or detains another may be charged with: 7. According to the US Department of Justice, ______ people become victims of violent crimes at work each year. 8. An assault conviction requires acts intended to cause: 9. Samantha went on a date with Chad, but the next morning realized she had no memory of much of the evening. She had only a few sips of the one drink she ordered, but her memory fades soon after. She’s suspicious and fears she may be a victim of a sexual assault. Samantha may have been a victim of: 10. In ACLU v. Gonzales, a federal judge held that the Child Online Protection Act statute was unconstitutional because it: 11. Which of the following statements is not true of the Child Online Protection Act (COPA)? 12. Nude home photos of minor family members can result in prosecution and conviction: 13. Most states divide sexual assault into: 14. Sexual relations (nonmarital) does not become a crime in the United States if: 15. Most statutes regarding the offense of sexual touching require the state to prove the touching was intentional, nonconsensual, and: 16. ______ is not an example of video voyeurism and/or invasion of privacy. 17. Upton takes blank stolen checks and goes to local stores with them. He begins purchasing big ticket items, such as a large screen TV, expensive jewelry, and even a washer and dryer machine for his mother, by pretending to be the person listed on the check. Before long, the authorities are knocking on Upton’s door and he is placed under arrest. When Upton signs the checks using someone else’s name, this is the crime of: 18. Writing a bad check, or one that “bounces”: 19. The Latin phrase nemo dat quod non habet means: 20. Jasmine opens her monthly bank statement and is thrilled to find she has $10,000 more in her savings than she expected. Since it is late in the evening and past banking hours when she opened her mail, Jasmine does nothing to immediately rectify the error. The bank does not realize its mistake and Jasmine does nothing over the next couple of days. In certain states, Jasmine may be guilty of: 21. Upton takes blank stolen checks and goes to local stores with them. He begins purchasing big ticket items, such as a large screen TV, expensive jewelry, and even a washer and dryer machine for his mother, by pretending to be the person listed on the check. Before long, the
authorities are knocking on Upton’s door and he is placed under arrest. The police would have arrested Upton for putting into circulation a check known to be worthless, which is the crime of: 22. The use of deceit or trickery to obtain profit or advantage is: 23. _____ is putting into circulation a check known to be worthless. 24. Which of the following is an example of a check-kiting scheme? 25. ______ is not an example of theft from the person. 26. Robbery differs from extortion in that extortion requires: 27. Jason forcibly entered a building after business hours and proceeded to remove eight computers. He then sold these computers to Bill, who in turn sold them to Peggy. Peggy did not know the origin of the computers, but Bill did. The role played by Bill is that of a: 28. The federal act dealing specifically with extortion is the: 29. Home invasion does not require: 30. ______ is a wrongful intrusion on the land or into the premises of another person. 31. Purse snatching without force is a form of: 32. John waits outside the bank for his next victim, in this case an elderly man who had just cashed his Social Security check. John hits the man with a club, and the man crumbles in a pile onto the ground. John quickly goes through the old man’s pockets and takes his money. Later, the man identifies John in a police line-up as his assailant. John was charged with aggravated robbery, because the use of the club against the victim constitutes the use of: 33. ______ identity theft is the crime that occurs when an actual person’s identity is stolen. 34. Insider trading includes a person called the: 35. Theft, piracy, or counterfeiting of ideas, inventions, artistic works, and the like is: 36. Linda decides she needs some furnishings for her room, but is currently out of work and out of cash. She’s maxed out on her credit cards, but in the mail a solicitation from a credit card company arrives, addressed to Linda’s roommate. Linda sees an opportunity and goes online to apply, posing as the roommate. Two weeks later, the new credit card arrives and off goes Linda to the stores. Because of Linda’s use of the credit card in her roommate’s name, she would be charged with: 37. Any person who executes a scheme or artifice to defraud the United States in excess of $1,000,000 is guilty of: 38. Insider trading includes using information acquired by an insider and: 39. The economic cost of white collar crimes is: 40. Linda decides she needs some furnishings for her room, but is currently out of work and out of cash. She’s maxed out on her credit cards, but in the mail a solicitation from a credit card company arrives, addressed to Linda’s roommate. Linda sees an opportunity and goes online to apply, posing as the roommate. Two weeks later, the new credit card arrives and off goes Linda to the stores. Linda argues that since the solicitation was for her roommate, then she could not have stolen her identity (and anyway, she meant to pay her back). The police ignore Linda and charge her with the use of ____ for each time she signed a sale’s slip. 41. Define the following Common law crimes: Assault , Battery, False Imprisonment, and Kidnapping. Discuss Norman’s and Steve’s, Tim’s and Billy Bob’s possible criminal liability or not, in light of “all” those crimes at common law. 42. Define the following Common law crimes: Theft , Robbery, Embezzlement, and Discuss Tom’s and Hilda’s, Rob’s and Dan’s possible criminal liability or not, in light of “all” those crimes at common law.
CJUS 400 Quiz Accomplices Inchoate Crimes https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cjus-400-quiz-accomplices-inchoate-crimes/ CJUS 400 Quiz: Accomplices, Inchoate Crimes, Homicides, and Freedom Limitations Module 3: Week 3 – Module 4: Week 4. 1. A person asking another to commit murder is guilty of: 2. Federal courts and many states use the Model Penal Code substantial step test in determining whether the crime of _____ has been committed. 3. In the early 1600s, ______ was used extensively by the English Court of the Star Chamber? 4. Four criminals engage in a drug dealing enterprise, where all four are actively dealing drugs together. When they are arrested the police find a fully automatic Tech-9 weapon. The other three criminals stated they had no idea the fourth criminal had a weapon. All four were charged in Federal Court. One conspirator is liable for the crimes committed by another conspirator; this is called the _______ rule. 5. In most situations, a person who has formulated the intent to commit a crime, but has taken no actions in furtherance of the crime has: 6. The crime of solicitation is committed when: 7. All participants in a conspiracy or common plan to commit a crime are guilty of any act of another participant as long as that act is deemed a/an _____ of the intended crime. 8. A conspiracy to commit an unlawful act is known as a: 9. Chad Roso gets into an argument with his girlfriend Megan Kole and threatens to kill her. He tells her he is going into his bedroom to get his gun and then she “is down!” Megan calls the police, who arrive within two minutes and bust down the door just in time to see Chad pointing his gun at Megan screaming, “I’m going to kill you!” The police utilize their Taser and shock Chad before he is able to kill Megan. Chad could be charged with attempted murder because this crime could be determined as: 10. Chad spent a couple years in prison for his previous charges. Once he was released he was still determined to harm his ex-girlfriend. Chad stalks his ex-girlfriend Megan and ends up killing her and burying her dead body in the Nevada desert. Brian helps Chad hide out in his basement while the police are searching for him. Brian could be charged with: 11. Fred was arrested for grand theft auto. The jury found him guilty and he was sentenced to twenty years in prison and his car was seized. This was his first conviction of a felony, though he had several misdemeanor offenses on his record. Fred’s sentence would likely be overturned on appeal unless the factual findings made for the purpose of enhancing a sentence were made by a: 12. Blakely v. Washington, 124 S. Ct. 2531 (2004), applied the reasoning of Apprendi to: 13. The US Supreme Court has held that reasonable corporal punishment in public schools: 14. In Atkins v. Virginia, 536 U.S. 304 (2002), the Court held that the Cruel and Unusual Punishment Clause of the Eighth Amendment prohibited imposition of the death penalty on defendants with: 15. The United States Supreme Court has stated that life imprisonment without parole for juvenile offenders: 16. ______ is the payment of money as part of a defendant’s sentence. 17. ______ is NOT characteristic of career-criminal programs. 18. The Eighth Amendment prohibits the imposition of ______ fines. 19. ______ is inflicting deadly injury as a punishment for criminal offenses. 20. The ______ case established the steps for a proportionality review of a non-capital sentence. 21. When a city or state restricts conduct in public places: 22. Statements or actions that unequivocally convey the message that violent actions will be taken is: 23. The offense of urging another to commit an unlawful act is:
24. In District of Columbia v. Heller, 128 S. Ct. 2783, the US Supreme Court held that the Second Amendment was a: 25. Mike is the local political agitator and has been on his soap box to denounce the local mayor of the city where he lives. He claims the mayor has stolen from the city treasury and calls on all citizens to march on city hall. During his speech, Mike burns in effigy a likeness of the mayor. Mike was arrested by city police and charged with inciting a riot and slander, as well as making threats against a public official. The mayor makes a statement to the press that he is innocent of Mike’s charges and was defamed by his speech. The mayor stands little chance of winning in court, however, because the mayor: 26. Insulting or abusive language addressed to a person face-to-face is: 27. The crime of unlawful assembly: 28. When directed to a police officer, ______ is protected by the First Amendment? 29. Fawn purchases a gun for protection, even though a local ordinance forbids the possession of firearms within city limits. While in her home, the police arrive on an unrelated matter and notice the hand gun on Fawn’s coffee table. The police subsequently arrest Fawn for violation of the city’s gun control laws. Fawn admits to taking the gun with her to do her shopping, in violation of the city’s ban on guns. The city: 30. Janie is in love with Brad Pitt and sends fan letters to him constantly. Over time, the letters become more sinister and demanding, eventually containing threats and defaced pictures of Pitt. Frustrated with a lack of response, Janie begins to take time out of school to walk the sidewalk outside Pitt’s home, and to follow him around the city. She finally corners Pitt alone and threatens to kill herself if he does not obtain an immediate divorce from Angelina Jolie and marry her. Pitt immediately goes to court. ______ is not a reason to find Janie guilty of stalking. 31. When the body of the deceased is available, but doctors are unable to testify specifically that the cause of death was due to an unlawful act: 32. A death at the hands of one who intended to do only serious bodily harm: 33. Undercommon law, a victim must die within______ after the time of the wrongful act in order to convict the defendant of homicide. 34. Reginald was passed over for promotion at the law firm where he worked, losing out to Tammy who had worked at the firm longer. Reginald then had a sinister idea. “If Tammy dies, then I would be promoted,”he thought. So he schemed to kill Tammy by running her over in the parking garage. Instead, when his plot unfolded, he hit an innocent bystander. The police arrested Reginald for murder. If it can be shown that Reginald at the last moment changed his mind about killing Tammy and swerved his car away but inadvertently struck the bystander, the most appropriatecharge would be: 35. The Latin term meaning the body or substance of the crime (proof that a crime has been committed) is: 36. A person who kills another during the course of committing a felony, even if the killing is accidental, is guilty of: 37. A killer whose gunshot misses the intended victim but kills a bystander can be convicted of the intentional murder of the bystander by use of the doctrine of: 38. ______ manslaughter is becoming enraged to the point where one has lost self-control and kills another. 39. If it appears the victim may have provoked the killing, the defendant will likely be charged with: 40. Sam has a heated argument over an affair he claims his wife is having with his best friend. The argument escalates and Sam is overheard by the neighbors saying he wished his wife were dead. After repeatedly trying to get from Sam what happened to his wife, the best friend calls the police after two days, not seeing Sam’s wife during that time. If the body of Sam’s wife is never found, then Sam: 41. Billy and Stanley agree they will commit a bank robbery. They buy some guns, masks and bags. They later have Billy’s girlfriend Brenda drive them to the bank. Not until they are on their way do they tell Brenda what they are doing and give her instructions to drive by the bank; drop them off down the road, and wait in the car for them, in the alley. Brenda agrees to help. But, after Billy and Stanley get out, Brenda drives off to the alley where she is supposed to wait, but instead
gets cold feet and goes home. However, an alert police officer watched them drive by the bank with Brenda at the wheel. He watched Billy and Stanley walk to the bank. The officer then saw what he thought was a gun in Stanley’s waist. The officer decided to “stop” Billy and Stanley, and yelled at them, as Stanley was grabbing the door to go into the bank. Billy and Stanley immediately run away. Billy was caught by the officer, 3 blocks away. Stanley ran to his girlfriend’s, Susan, house. He told her what happened, left his gun and other bank robbery items, and drove 500 miles away, to his mom’s. 42. Define the following Common law murder terms: Intent to Kill, Deadly Weapons Doctrine, Transferred Intent, Intent to do Serious Bodily Harm, and Felony Murder. Discuss Stella’s and Tina’s possible criminal liability or not, in light of “all” those homicide crimes at common law.
GOVT 325 Quiz Information Legal Services https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-325-quiz-information-legal-services/ GOVT 325 Quiz Information about Legal Services 1. Select three scriptures that support the purpose and prohibitions contained in Rule 7. Explain the moral principles contained in the scriptures selected that support the ethical principles contained in Chapter 7. 2. Rule 7.2 prohibits a lawyer from stating or implying that the lawyer is certified as a specialist in a particular field of law in which no certification has been issued. How is this rule different from rule 7.1? According to this rule explain whether a lawyer is prohibited from advertising that the lawyer has expertise in a certain field when there is no certifying agency? 3. Rule 7.1 reads, “A lawyer shall not make a false or misleading communication about the lawyer or the lawyer’s services. A communication is false or misleading if it contains a material misrepresentation of fact or law, or omits a fact necessary to make the statement considered as a whole not materially misleading.” Explain in your own words the purpose of this rule. Also, explain the purpose and meaning of the last phrase “A communication is false or misleading if it contains a material misrepresentation of fact or law, or omits a fact necessary to make the statement considered as a whole not materially misleading.” 4. Explain in your own words the purpose for Rule 7.6 and give an example of the specific type of conduct that is prohibited by the rule.
GOVT 325 Quiz Transactions https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-325-quiz-transactions/ GOVT 325 Quiz: Transactions with Persons other than Clients Module 4: Week 4 1. Rule 4.2 says “In representing a client, a lawyer shall not communicate about the subject of the representation with a person the lawyer knows to be represented by another lawyer in the matter, unless the lawyer has the consent of the other lawyer or is authorized to do so by law or a court order.” What is meant by “authorized to do so by law or a court order?” What are some examples of this authorization? Furthermore, list several examples of what would constitute forbidden communication with a represented party. Detail why this rule is required. 2. Rule 4.3, in part, declaims “The lawyer shall not give legal advice to an unrepresented person, other than the advice to secure counsel, if the lawyer knows or reasonably should know that the interests of such a person are or have a reasonable possibility of being in conflict with the interests of the client.” What is the duty of a lawyer towards unrepresented persons? To what extent may a lawyer advise an unrepresented person? At what point is a lawyer-client relationship formed? 3. Rule 4.1b states that “a lawyer shall not knowingly: fail to disclose a material fact to a third person when discourse is necessary to avoid assisting a criminal or fraudulent act by a client, unless disclosure is prohibited by Rule 1.6.” What is meant by a material fact? What is the intent and purpose of this rule? How does this rule correlate with scriptural commands towards interactions with each other? 4. In your own words, explain the purpose for the rules governing “Transactions with Persons Other Than Clients.” Select two scriptures that support the ethical principles contained in this section explaining how the scriptures support the specific ethical principles.
GOVT 325 Quiz Counselor https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-325-quiz-counselor/ GOVT 325 Quiz: Counselor Module 2: Week 2 1. According to Rule 2.1, when “representing a client, a lawyer shall exercise independent professional judgment and render candid advice.” Define candid advice and explain, based upon the rule and comments, the principles a lawyer may or must consider when providing advice to the client and explain why it is important that the lawyer consider utilize these principles. Include in the answer, at least two verses that would support the obligation of the lawyer to provide candid advice to the client. 2. According to Rule 2.3 (B) reads, “When the lawyer knows or reasonably should know that the evaluation is likely to affect the client’s interests materially and adversely, the lawyer shall not provide the evaluation unless the client gives informed consent.” According to the comments give an example of when a matter will “likely affects the client’s interest materially and adversely”? Also, explain what is meant by “informed consent” and how can lawyer assure that any consent obtained from the client would be considered informed consent. In the answer include the biblical principles that supports protecting the client’s interest and not taking action that would adversely affect the client’s interest. 3. Chapter 2 addresses the rules that govern the lawyer’s conduct when acting as a counselor. List two rules from Chapter 1 that should also be taken into consideration by the lawyer when acting as a counselor and explain why these two rules are important and how they would apply as the lawyer counsels the clients. Include in the answer, the biblical principles that support the application of the two rules from Chapter 1 when the lawyer is acting as a counselor. 4. With regard to Rule 2.4 and the comments for Rule 2.4, give examples of when a lawyer serves as a third party neutral and explain why it is important that the lawyer remain impartial and avoid the appearance of bias or impartiality. In the answer, include the biblical principles that would coincide with the moral obligations of a person serving as a third party neutral in a contested matter.
GOVT 215 Quiz Categorical https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-215-quiz-categorical/ GOVT 215 Quiz: Categorical and Disjunctive Syllogisms 1. Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. The pattern of argument that commits the _____________ is one that argues what something is from a premise about what something is not. 2. Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. If the minor term is distributed in the conclusion but not in the minor premise, the argument commits the fallacy of the 3. The first step toward identifying arguments that commit the fallacy of the illicit process is to locate the major and minor terms in an argument structure. 4. Law often involved labeling conduct based on elements. 5. The hallmark of a disjunctive argument is a disjunctive proposition that presents two alternatives, referred to as disjuncts. 6. Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. _______________ are frequently marked by the use of the words “some,” “all,” or “no.” 7. One way to spot the fallacy of the illicit process is to look for patterns of argument featuring distributed terms in the conclusion that are not distributed in the premises. 8. The fallacy of the illicit process and the fallacy of affirming a disjunct are both disjunctive syllogisms. 9. A syllogism based exclusively on negative premises is always invalid. 10. A syllogism that has one negative premise and one affirmative premise can yield either a positive or negative conclusion. 11. Determining distribution of terms is always easy. 12. Like other syllogisms, syllogistic disjunction is a common way to argue both factual disputes, legal disputes, and disputes about the application of law to facts. 13. When a disjunction is inclusive, then affirming one disjunct requires denying the other. 14. A valid disjunctive syllogism is one where the categorical premise denies one of the disjuncts of the disjunctive premise and the conclusion affirms the remaining disjunct. 15. Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. _____________ generally take the “if . . . then” form. 16. The fallacy of the undistributed middle term and the fallacy of the illicit process both apply to categorical syllogisms. 17. Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. A __________ is typically marked by the word “or.” 18. The propositions in a categorical syllogism have to comply with a rule of logic that requires if either premise is negative, the conclusion must be negative. 19. The logical fallacy of the illicit process might seem ot have some persuasive force, but it is not a practical tool for most cases. 20. The propositions in a categorical system have to comply with a rule of logic that required that at least one premise must be affirmative. 21. Thoroughly discuss the Fallacy of Affirming a Disjunct in your own words (do not copy and paste material from other sources). What is a “disjunct” in an argument? What does it mean to “affirm” it? Can this fallacy appear in any argument? Is it limited to a specific category of arguments? Why or why not?
GOVT 215 Quiz Hypothetical https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-215-quiz-hypothetical/ GOVT 215 Quiz Hypothetical and Categorical Syllogisms Module 3: Week 3. 1. The middle term of a categorical syllogism is the term that appears in both the major and minor premise. 2. A hypothetical syllogism is valid where the categorical premise affirms the truth of the antecedent term of the hypothetical premise and the conclusion denies the truth of the consequent term of the hypothetical premise. 3. An important logical rule is that the middle term in a categorical syllogism has to be distributed at least twice. 4. The rule of logic that controls arguments is focused on ensuring the right order of terms to justify a logical inference. 5. The fallacy of affirming the consequent cannot apply in “if . . . then” arguments. 6. A categorical syllogism includes a major premise, a minor premise, and a conclusion. 7. Formal logic disciplines legal thinking and organizes legal argument. 8. Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. ____________ entails exchanging the subject and predicate terms and replacing both terms with their respective complements. 9. Finding fault with one component of a syllogism is all that is required to extinguish the logical force of a deductive arguments. 10. Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. ____________ is the concept of exchanging subjects and predicates. 11. Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. Arguments that place people, places or things into categories are 12. Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. ____________ replaces a predicate term with a complementary version of that term. 13. A term that refers to a class particularly is referring to all members of the class. 14. The fallacy of denying the antecedent only applies to arguments that take the form of a hypothetical syllogism 15. Arguments about cause and effect do not fit into a hypothetical syllogism. 16. Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. A ____________ is an argument that appears to be logically persuasive but is not. 17. One way to spot the fallacy of the undistributed middle term is to look for patterns of argument featuring exclusively undistributed middle terms. 18. Fallacious arguments frequently have the false appearance of a logical appeal. 19. The fallacy of the undistributed middle term is a categorical syllogism. 20. The fallacy of denying the antecedent is one of two fallacies that result from the failure to observe logical rules. What is the other fallacy? 21. The fallacy of denying the antecedent, like all fallacies, has a powerful, descriptive name. Why is this fallacy called “denying the antecedent”? What is an “antecedent” in an argument and what does it mean to “deny” it? Give a thorough explanation for each question using your own words and make sure to provide examples (do not copy and paste material from other sources).
GOVT 215 Quiz Introduction https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-215-quiz-introduction/ GOVT 215 Quiz: Introduction to Fallacies Module 2: Week 2 1. Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. ______________ ________________: reasoning from particular instances to general principles. 2. Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. _____________ ________________ is the process of reasoning from a general statement to a particular one. 3. Many lawyers are surprised to learn that the arguments they encounter and deliver every day are governed by the rules of logic. 4. In a disjunctive syllogism, the conclusion follows from the relationship between the concepts in the premises and their membership in certain categories. 5. Lawyers use logic in which contexts? 6. In logic, an argument that violates a rule is said to be: 7. Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. The most basic structure of formal logic is the 8. Both hypothetical syllogism and categorical syllogism focus on the logical relationships between concepts at the macro level. 9. The “if . . . then” arguments that lawyers often confront are hypothetical syllogisms. 10. Inductive reasoning is the most effective tool for completing legal tasks.
GOVT 407 Quiz Subject Matter Jurisdiction https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-407-quiz-subject-matter-jurisdiction/ GOVT 407 Quiz Subject Matter Jurisdiction 1. Carella (New York) collides with McGee (Florida) during a car chase in New York City. Carella is disabled in the accident, retires to Florida, and sues McGee in a federal district court in Florida. Does the court have jurisdiction over the case based on diversity? 2. Carella (New York) sues Underworld, Inc., incorporated in Delaware, doing business in every state, with its principal place of business in Florida. Suit is brought in the federal district court for the Northern District of Florida. Does the court have jurisdiction? 3. Colbert, a New Yorker, sues Kojak for a violation of her federal civil rights. Suit is brought under 42 U.S.C. §1983, the federal statute that authorizes suit for such violations. The claim arises out of an unlawful arrest that took place in New York. Kojak is also domiciled in New York. May she bring the suit in a California federal court? 4. Costa is injured in an accident with Prior on Interstate 95. Prior is a trucker who is engaged in interstate commerce, transporting goods among the various states on the eastern seaboard. Costa claims that Prior was negligent, in that he fell asleep and swerved into her lane, causing the accident. Does the claim come within the arising-under jurisdiction authorized by 28 U.S.C. §1331? 5. Hamilton from Pennsylvania sues Franklin from Pennsylvania in a federal district court in New York. Is there diversity between the parties? 6. Hammer sues Holmes for for $70,000 for his personal injuries suffered in an auto accident and for $15,000 for damage to his car in the same accident. Is the amount-in-controversy requirement met in this case? 7. Hammer sues Holmes for $60,000 for damages suffered in an accident. In the same action, Marlowe, who was a passenger in Hammer’s car, sues Holmes for $25,000 for his injuries. Is the amount-in-controversy requirement met in this case? 8. Hammer sues Holmes for $80,000 for injuries suffered in an auto accident. He also sues Dr. Watson, claiming that Watson negligently treated his injuries, causing $20,000 in additional damages. Is the amount-in-controversy requirement met in the claim against Watson? 9. Hammer sues Holmes to recover $60,000 on a loan he made to Holmes and for $50,000 for an unrelated libel. Is the amount-in-controversy requirement met in this case? 10. Landry wishes to sue Deveaux for violation of the New Mexico Consumer Protection Act. Does her case arise under the “laws of the United States”? 11. Mark (a Virginia citizen) files a lawsuit against John (a Virginia citizen) for breach of contract. Mark anticipates that John will raise a federal defense to his suit, so he files the case in federal district court. Is the case properly brought in federal court under 28 U.S.C. §1331? 12. Marlowe (California) sues Archer (California) in federal court in California for damages under a federal firearms control statute. May the court hear the case? 13. Marlowe (California) sues Gamblers International, Inc., a corporation incorporated in Nevada. Gamblers has two casinos: one very large casino in Reno, Nevada, which grosses $100 million per year, and another casino in California, which does $70 million in business each year. The corporate offices are in California. Is there diversity jurisdiction in Marlowe’s suit? 14. Marshall is arrested by Brennan, a police officer. Marshall alleges that Brennan used excessive force in making the arrest, causing serious injury to Marshall. Marshall decides to sue in federal court and to assert only a state law battery claim. Is the case properly brought in federal court under 28 U.S.C. §1331? 15. McGee (Florida) sues Underworld, Inc., incorporated in Delaware, doing business in every state, with its principal place of business in Florida. Suit is brought in the federal district court for the Southern District New York. Is there diversity jurisdiction?
16. McGee’s $100,000 houseboat is destroyed in a collision with boats piloted by Spenser and Carella. He claims that either Spenser, Carella, or both, were negligent and sues them both to recover for the damage to the boat. Is the amount-in-controversy requirement met in this case? 17. McGee sues Spenser for causing $50,000 worth of damage to McGee’s houseboat. His complaint contains two counts. Count One seeks $50,000 from Spenser for negligently ramming the boat while docking in Fort Lauderdale. Count Two seeks $50,000 from Spenser on the theory that he intentionally damaged the boat. Is the amount-in-controversy requirement met in this case? 18. McGee sues Spenser for $60,000 for intentionally damaging his boat and for $50,000 in punitive damages. Is the amount-in-controversy requirement met in this case? 19. Meyer, a New Yorker, decides to move to Arizona. He buys an Audi from Isola Volkswagen, a New York dealership incorporated in New York, and sets off with his family for Arizona. While driving through Oklahoma, he is involved in an accident and hospitalized. Two months later, while still in the hospital, Meyer files a negligence suit against Isola in an Oklahoma federal court. Does the court have diversity jurisdiction? 20. Smith from South Carolina sues both Baldwin from South Carolina and Britt from North Carolina in a federal district court. Is there diversity between the parties? 21. Steinberg, the public relations manager for Pinnacle Engineering Company, is fired. He concludes that he was fired simply because the company wanted a younger person in his job and brings suit against Pinnacle under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA), a federal statute that bars discharge or other discrimination in employment based on age. The statute expressly creates a right for employees to sue for damages for acts of age discrimination. Pinnacle admits that the ADEA governs its employees, and that Steinberg, who is 57, is protected under the statute. It defends on the ground that it fired him for incompetence, not based on his age. Is the case properly brought in federal court under 28 U.S.C. §1331? 22. Stewart, a California citizen, wishes to sue Cagney, also a Californian, for battery, to recover for injuries he suffered in a fight between them on a Los Angeles street. Stewart prefers to sue Cagney in California. (Assume that his damages exceed $75,000.) Would a state court in California have subject matter jurisdiction over Cagney? 23. Suppose that federal courts did not use the Mottley rule; instead, they upheld jurisdiction under 28 U.S.C. §1331 if either the plaintiff’s complaint or the defendant’s answer raised an issue of federal law. The Mottleys bring suit in federal court, demanding specific performance of their contract. You represent the railroad, which is considering raising several defenses to the Mottleys’ claim, some based in federal law and some in state law. If you wanted to avoid federal court, what would you advise the railroad to do in answering the complaint? 24. Suppose that Steinberg is from Florida and sues both Pinnacle (a Florida corporation) and Swift, president of Pinnacle and a Florida citizen. His suit alleges that he was fired because of his age and demands damages under the ADEA. Can he bring the action in federal court? 25. Wilson from New Jersey sues Madison from Virginia in a federal district court. Is there diversity between the parties? 26. Wilson sues Morris for spilling mustard on his favorite T-shirt. Wilson sues in federal court seeking $80,000 in compensatory damages. Is the amount-in-controversy requirement met in this case? 27. Stewart, a California citizen, wishes to sue Cagney, also a Californian, for battery, to recover for injuries he suffered in a fight between them on a Los Angeles street. Stewart prefers to sue Cagney in California. (Assume that his damages exceed $75,000.) Would a federal court in California have personal jurisdiction over Cagney? 28. Stewart, a California citizen, wishes to sue Cagney, also a Californian, for battery, to recover for injuries he suffered in a fight between them on a Los Angeles street. Stewart prefers to sue Cagney in California. (Assume that his damages exceed $75,000.) Would a federal court in California have subject matter jurisdiction over the action? 29. Stewart, a California citizen, wishes to sue Cagney, also a Californian, for battery, to recover for injuries he suffered in a fight between them on a Los Angeles street. Stewart prefers to sue
Cagney in California. (Assume that his damages exceed $75,000.) Would a state court in California have personal jurisdiction over Cagney?