MILT 275 Quiz Coping During Trauma https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/milt-275-quiz-coping-during-trauma/ MILT 275 Quiz: Coping During Trauma Covers the Learn material from Module 4: Week 4. 1. Scott Smiley avoided this response, which is often characteristic of trauma. 2. General George Marshall said that the of the soldier is more important than his equipment. 3. People can have false conclusions about the “role God plays through our pain and suffering” when we misinterpret what? 4. Fortunately, recovery from trauma takes little time and not much effort. 5. Mental wounds are more challenging than spiritual wounds. 6. In the resilience life cycle, what is done during the event 7. All of the following except one can result in a downward spiral from the traumatic event. Which does not? 8. The fork in the road so to speak for moving past a seismic even is between an upward road of despair and dysfunction and a downward road of post adversity resilience. 9. Post traumatic growth is universal. Everyone who faces a traumatic event experiences growth. 10. Individuals have a choice between suffering and growth and not suffering and not changing. 11. A key aspect of resilience is “knowledge that you are part of a good team.” 12. According to Eph. 6:11, what should individuals put on in the before cycle? 13. Which Scripture passage would be useful for individuals during a traumatic event? 14. A famous Vietnamese prison mentioned in the text was called the Hanoi Sheraton. 15. Which areas of a person does trauma impact? 16. Does one’s mindset going into trauma influence the way that individual views the trauma? 17. Bouncing back or not can be presented by the example of these two objects that the author mentions in chapter 4. 18. What is “critical to balanced and preemptive treatment” for trauma? 19. The life of Jesus is our secret sauce that will foster spiritual resilience in people. 20. In Greek, the meaning for trauma is . 21. What is the preventive fashion that the author mentions in Chapter 3? 22. Just because individuals experience growth does not mean they will not suffer. 23. Which of the following is NOT one of the areas of Post traumatic growth? 24. We either grow spiritually or we grow in bitterness. 25. All of the following are categories from Joe Stowell’s the Upside of Down except?
MILT 275 Quiz Post Traumatic Growth https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/milt-275-quiz-post-traumatic-growth/ MILT 275 Quiz: Post Traumatic Growth and Resilience Life Cycle Covers the Learn material from Module 2: Week 2. 1. IED stands for Internal/External Detail. 2. Which of the following are Military institutions NOT wrestling with? 3. Which disciple had to bounce back? 4. Which of the following represents resilience? 5. According to the author, this Scripture passage is the Bible’s Resilience Chapter. 6. Which gospel approach “denies the reality of and the theology of suffering”? 7. Trauma is the weight of > 8. Only pastors are immune to the consequences of pain and suffering in this world. 9. What part of the body are soldiers compared to? 10. Which two words are the root words of tribulation? 11. In the text, trauma was illustrated by the nursery rhyme…. 12. Prior to the return of Jesus Christ, will the world ever be free of evil empires and evil people 13. The initials TBI stand for Tribulation Befalls Individuals. 14. To whom should people cling when incoming happens? 15. Who made the statement “All that is necessary for the forces of evil to win in the world is for enough good men to do nothing.. 16. What percentage of US service members state some form of Christian faith preference on their dog tags? 17. Resilient Warriors, Resilient Leaders, and Resilient Organizations are all newly formed offices in the Defense Department. 18. According to the Dees text, which is more important to understand? 19. Which of the following is NOT an example of tribulation? 20. Resilience is only important for the military and people in crisis. 21. Wounds can been seen but some wounds are hidden. 22. Evil has not been packaged in our own sinfulness. 23. According to the author, trauma sufferers need “to recognize that evil exists in this world”. 24. What term is used to describe bouncing back? 25. PTSD stands for Pre Traumatic Stress Disorder.
PSYC 309 Quiz Sexuality & Relationships https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-309-quiz-sexuality-relationships/ PSYC 309 Quiz: Sexuality & Relationships 1. Many couples decide to cohabit for the convenience and companionship with a chosen partner to 2. Old Testament laws were expressed in a patriarchal, polygamous culture where husbands had the right to take and divorce as many wives as they wished as long as these sexual options were within a legal marriage contract. 3. By broadening the definition of infidelity to include ________ as well as sexual involvement, recent research also takes into account the subjective aspects of adultery found in Jesus’ teachings. 4. Virginity pledges are an effective universal strategy to prevent premarital sex. 5. What are the average ages of first sexual experience for boys and girls, respectively? 6. Ray Anderson (2004) has suggested that Adam and Eve’s human encounter as man and woman and their distinctive task of being a man or woman arms what? 7. Marriage is a time when two persons: 8. According to the text, perhaps our society makes it more dicult for a couple to have a ceremony because 9. According to the authors, the discerning point about physical touch is 10. Which of the following is NOT recognized as one of the four premarital sexual standards held in the United States today? 11. Most people settle for ______ rather than ______ sex. 12. A study based on a nationally representative sample of women by Teachman (2003) found that premarital sex and premarital cohabitation are predictive of marital dissolution, but only for those who had sex or cohabited with men other than their future husband. 13. During the _____, the mate-selection process in Western societies moved to a new stage, referred to as rational/romantic love. 14. Some spouses have difficulty being sexually intimate because of significant unresolved conflicts in the marriage. 15. Which of the following are the two types of behavior most correlated with teenagers delaying sexual intercourse? 16. What is identified as a solution to preventing extramarital affairs? 17. James Olthuis (1975) argues that Scripture calls for six main conditions to be present between two persons who want to join their lives together. 18. Being compassionate rather than judgmental comes from the assurance that ______ is/are the final judge and loves most fully. 19. According to the text, the partnership formed by husband and wife is an entity that goes far beyond what each one can accomplish alone. 20. The covenantal basis for Christian marriage is modeled after the covenant that God made with who? 21. Feeling inadequate to meet the spouse’s needs, affairs often provides a new focus and becomes an escape route to personal growth and real differentiation. Idealization of a new relationship flames what about oneself? 22. While covenant provides security, ______ establishes an atmosphere in which spouses can reach their full potential because. With this in mind, accepting a spouse just as he or she is means also accepting their sexual value system. 23. Nock (1994) found that cohabiters expressed _____ levels of commitment to and happiness with their relationships and had ______ relationships with their parents. 24. In more accepting cultures, cohabitation is distinguished from marriage as
25. When a couple engages in sexual intercourse without sharing a mutual covenant commitment, the church should lovingly help them understand how the biblical concept of covenant commitment can enhance their relationship. 26. The text states that the wisdom of making commitments within a believing community is especially noticeable during times of trouble. A couple depends on others to keep them resilient when what comes their way as identified in the text? 27. What does sin consist of according to the text 28. The recent AIDs epidemic is related to which premarital sexual standard? 29. According to the text, intercourse is only regarded as an external act impacting oneself and one’s spouse. 30. How many Christian responses to cohabitation are identified in the text? 31. Which of the following are identified in the text as causes of infidelity? 32. Intellectual intimacy is always threatening to a spouse. 33. The idea of a couple needing to make their commitment before a community of believers before they are married in God’s sight is not a scriptural directive. 34. Which of the following is not identified in the text as the three-stage process following the disclosure of infidelity? 35. Which comparison is made in the text regarding marital sexuality? 36. Which of the following are wrong reasons for sexual involvement? 37. The nature of marriage changes when people raise their level of differentiation in 38. Sexual disclosure and vulnerability opens spouses up to what? 39. Our gospel must be full of what? 40. How can an affair also be viewed, even though it can have devastating effects upon a marriage?
PSYC 309 Quiz Sexual Identity https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-309-quiz-sexual-identity/ PSYC 309 Quiz: Sexual Identity 1. The first biblical reference to homosexual behavior is found in the story of 2. What is the first principle of an authentic sexual relationship? 3. The alternation responses to homosexuality range from one extreme of “sex as recreation” to the other extreme of 4. During which time period was the distinction commonly made between homosexual orientation and homosexual behavior? 5. The Christian model for human relationship is based on: 6. The Bible makes definite statements about homosexual behavior rather than homosexual orientation. 7. _________________ in Leviticus addresses same-gender sexual behavior. 8. Friesen (1989) teaches parents to: 9. Research has found __________ for the theory that homosexual individuals have increased levels of androgen. 10. Who is often faulted for the strong belief in body/soul dualism within the church? 11. Oedipus or Electra complexes occur during which stage of development according to psychoanalytic theory? 12. Stanley Gretz (2001) states that created in the image of God. 13. Redemptive ministries that are based on a biblical model emphasize _______________ while working towards God’s design for heterosexual marriage. 14. Differentiation between male and female connotes: 15. Therapeutic approaches to homosexuality emphasize 16. Which type of therapy focuses on developing emotional connection and intimacy with the therapist, along with behavior strategies to change attitudes and modify behavior? 17. One’s ability to leave their father and mother and rightly cleave to their spouse is known as : 18. The dominant characteristic of Trinitarian relationality is . 19. According to the authors, a person with a homosexual orientation is not responsible for the sexual desire any more than a heterosexual person is responsible for their sexual desire for an opposite-sex person. 20. The theology of the gay church is decidedly ____________________. 21. According to Schnarch (1991), a person’s capacity for sexual intimacy is directly related to that person’s degree of 22. Defensive detachment is marked by a(n) ________ relationship with the same-sex parent who is present in the home. 23. All of the following are social learning theories of homosexuality EXCEPT: 24. Researchers estimate that the actual percentage of homosexual individuals in the American population is _________ than the 10% reported in the Kinsey Reports (1948, 1953). 25. The third principle for an authentic sexual relationship is that personal resources and gifts are used for what purpose? 26. The authors believe that Scriptures support sexual intercourse in the context of marital covenant for what purpose? 27. Sexual lust and intercourse were the original sins of Adam and Eve. 28. Characteristics of healthy family sexuality according to Maddock and Larson (1975) include all of the following EXCEPT: 29. The Bible teaches procreation as the only purpose of sexual union. 30. is the natural human response occurring when a person does something wrong, relays the message that one has not just done something wrong, but keep inside the person is awed and can never measure up.
31. Sexuality and spirituality are intricately connected. 32. A balanced sexual self should begin in the context of: 33. Who developed the developmental theory of sexual orientation that is based on five sequential causal antecedents? 34. Social scientists believe that human sexuality develops according to . 35. Jones and Yarhouse’s (2007) longitudinal study found that 36. During which decade did the majority of health care professionals start viewing homosexual orientation as a fact of life rather than a treatable problem? 37. Research indicates that homosexual youths are ____________ likely to attempt suicide. 38. Which of the following is a term used to describe individuals who cross culturally defined categories of sex and gender? 39. The second principle of authentic sexuality is that placing blame or shame can lead to renewed hope. 40. Sexuality is nonessential to the creative act of God.
PSYC 309 Quiz Sexual Development https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-309-quiz-sexual-development/ PSYC 309 Quiz: Sexual Development 1. Which factors are most crucial in establishing sexuality early in life? 2. Sexuality is nonessential to the creative act of God. 3. is the natural human response occurring when a person does something wrong, relays the message that one has not just done something wrong, but keep inside the person is awed and can never measure up. 4. The Bible teaches procreation as the only purpose of sexual union. 5. Females born with the absences of one X chromosome have a chromosomal abnormality known as: 6. Freud used the term “latency” for the developmental stage between the ages of: 7. Social scientists believe that human sexuality develops according to . 8. Who is often faulted for the strong belief in body/soul dualism within the church? 9. Sexual identity is defined as: 10. One’s ability to leave their father and mother and rightly cleave to their spouse is known as : 11. What is the first principle of an authentic sexual relationship? 12. Friesen (1989) teaches parents to: 13. The case is the most well-known case of sex reassignment gone wrong. 14. Gender or gender role refers to one’s gender identity as defined by. 15. Stanley Gretz (2001) states that created in the image of God. 16. Which factors are most crucial in establishing sexuality as a child matures? 17. The Christian model for human relationship is based on: 18. Which approach to sexuality proposes that only one factor is necessary to explain a phenomenon? 19. The 1980s were characterized by: 20. A balanced sexual self should begin in the context of: 21. The sexual revolution that began redefining gender roles began during which decade? 22. Differentiation between male and female connotes: 23. The two major explanations of the origin of male nonrelational sexuality are: 24. The second principle of authentic sexuality is that placing blame or shame can lead to renewed hope. 25. The current cultural attitude toward sexuality reflects tension between and sexual liberation. 26. The authors believe that Scriptures support sexual intercourse in the context of marital covenant for what purpose? 27. Firestone and Catlett’s (2006) determined the role of which parent is more important on a child’s sexual development? 28. Jankowiak’s (2006) studies of polygamous societies found that: 29. The third principle for an authentic sexual relationship is that personal resources and gifts are used for what purpose? 30. Sexual formation and development is a process. 31. Sexuality and spirituality are intricately connected. 32. The sexual liberation following World War II introduced the premarital sexual standard of 33. According to Schnarch (1991), a person’s capacity for sexual intimacy is directly related to that person’s degree of 34. “Free sex” morality was reexamined due to the rise of: 35. The dominant characteristic of Trinitarian relationality is . 36. Sexual lust and intercourse were the original sins of Adam and Eve. 37. How can a parent normalize their young child’s interest in sex? 38. The double standard for male and female sexual expression began during the period.
39. Characteristics of healthy family sexuality according to Maddock and Larson (1975) include all of the following EXCEPT: 40. What is the primary importance of sociocultural inuence on sexuality?
PSYC 309 Quiz Sexual Brokenness https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-309-quiz-sexual-brokenness/ PSYC 309 Quiz: Sexual Brokenness 1. According to the text, what is a sponsor’s role in the treatment process? 2. What type of training has been identified as an effective way of assisting women against sexual aggression? 3. The twentieth century can be labeled 4. According to the text, what do individuals need to live consistently sexually authentic lives? 5. How many perspectives were introduced in the text to explain date rape? 6. While there is generally consensus about sexuality in modern industrialized societies, there is considerably less consensus in traditional societies. 7. The text differentiates between pornography and erotica. According to the text, pornography ________, while erotica 8. Until ten years ago, rape was rarely reported or even openly discussed. 9. Which of the following is not a category of sexual material on the Internet identified by Fisher and Barak (2001)? 10. Rape-prone cultures tolerate rationalizations for rape such as 11. What does the Greek root for pornography mean? 12. What is identified in the text as spiritual help activities? 13. The first step to empowering an individual is a conscious decision the survivor makes that the rape experience will no longer have a disarming power over his or her life. 14. Which of the following is not an example of physical symptoms expressed in the text after rape? 15. According to the text, sexual addiction was popularized by the writings of Patrick Carnes. 16. Which of the following is not one of the three views Christianity sheds on the topic of masturbation? 17. Postmodernists reject the general laws of nature as grounds for accepting or rejecting sexual morality, because reality is viewed as multilayered, with many ways of knowing. 18. When married, it is recommended that recovery from sexual addiction not be joined with marital therapy as this could further harm the relationship. 19. According to the text, rapists have what kind of attitude toward women on the person level? 20. Erotic material is often 21. Since the term addiction has becomes a commonplace in modern society, it is necessary to examine whether this merely replaces the notion of sin. 22. What is mentioned in the text as the ultimate goal of treatment to help sexual addicts? 23. Although telling youth to “just say no” to sex is a ______ response, bringing a strong rationale for practicing sexual abstinence is a _______ response. 24. What are two major ways mentioned in the text that pornography affects the viewer? 25. A woman’s ______ symbolizes her integrated sense of self-worth. 26. The important criterion in trying to distinguish between pornography and erotica is the _______ or ______, not necessarily the degree of sexual explicitness. 27. Excessive expressions of sexuality can most notably be found in the form of the ___________ of nonsexual aspects of life and social relationships. 28. What are some beneficiary experiences that rape survivors can benet from? 29. During New Testament times, people associated themselves with two main groups: politeia and oikonomia. What does the text mention these refer to? 30. According to research, the text states that clergy are more vulnerable to pornography or other addictions compared to laypersons. 31. According to the authors of the text, the Old Testament concept of _______ is a theologically appropriate way to describe a sexually authentic society. 32. What is the last stage of the “Control/Out-of-Control Pattern before the cycle restarts?
33. According to the text, a type of impersonal social environment has caused an increasing number of persons to feel like they belong to a 34. Sexual violence of any kind is an extreme form of ________ sexuality. 35. The authors believe that dehumanization is a violation of the value God places on human life and sexuality, however, pornography does not always dehumanize. 36. The authors of the text believe that the difference in sexual behavior between males and females results from unhealthy aspects in the tradition definition of feminism. 37. Based on telephone interviews of 1,501 children aged 10-17, it was reported that most seekers of pornography are 38. For most people, ______ is the central arena in which sexual behavior and norms are taught and modeled. 39. Pornography’s expansion into ______ has led to relativism in determining and defining it. 40. Some people believe pornography serves a positive purpose in relieving feelings and desires that can lead to harmful effects if acted out. This is referred to as what?
PSYC 676 Quiz Disorders of Social Cognition https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-676-quiz-disorders-of-social-cognition/ PSYC 676 Quiz: Disorders of Social Cognition and Executive Functioning Covers the Learn material from Module 4: Week 4. 1. Children with ASD often show deficits in planning, memory, impulse control, and an ability to control their attention. This is related to which of the following? 2. Temple is a 15-year-old high school student who is in advanced placement classes and has been diagnosed with ASD. If she is like other high-functioning adolescents with ASD she is most likely to also be diagnosed with which of the following disorders? 3. A child with autism is less likely to be able to distinguish between what is socially important and what is not when compared to typically developing peers. This is known as a child’s: 4. The observation that children diagnosed with ASD appear obsessed with how things work rather than how people work is an example of what two concepts? 5. Which of the following statements would the authors of your text most likely endorse as it relates to the identification of childhood disorders? 6. Rene and Michele’s young son has just been diagnosed with ASD. What would be the best source of intervention information for them to consider? 7. Nine-month-old Andrew looks intently at his older brother as he talks to him. In response he coos and babbles, as if having a conversation with his brother. Andrew is demonstrating an important social learning task that exemplies 8. Five-year-old Bethany enters to the room and promptly sits on the school psychologist’s lap without acknowledging her. This is an example of Bethany’s ability to differentiate what is social and nonsocial and is known as 9. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding parental input regarding a possible diagnosis of ASD? 10. Smith is investigating the link between a specific neuron and a child with ASD’s deficits in imitating others. What is the name of this neuron? 11. The type of intervention used with ASD that focuses on discrete trials and intensive interactions between the child and an adult is known as 12. Researchers have found that toddlers diagnosed with ASD show a “striking imbalance” in their lack of engagement with people and enhanced engagement with 13. Which of the following statements is true regarding the developmental trajectory of autism spectrum disorder? 14. Jensen is consulting research on ADHD that would help her decide the best course of action for her young patients. One example of longitudinal research that investigated various types of interventions is the: 15. The authors of the text would most likely endorse which of the following statements regarding the validity of the diagnosis of ADHD in children? 16. Children with ADHD may be eligible for specialized educational services under which of these acts? 17. All of the following are considered psychosocial interventions for the treatment of ADHD EXCEPT: 18. Which of the following factors related to the etiology of ADHD and child factors are INCORRECTLY matched? 19. One of the positives that may come out of behaviors associated with ADHD is 20. Samuelson specializes in research related to ADHD. Based on the most common deficits found in ADHD, his research might focus on all of the following EXCEPT: 21. When parents set limits on a young child’s television viewing they are shaping a child’s executive functioning through which of these?
22. The two-factor model of ADHD assumes which of the following core deficits? 23. Lyle was diagnosed with ADHD when he was four years old and received consistent and effective treatment including medication. According to longitudinal studies Lyle is less likely to experience which of these outcomes as an adolescent? 24. Although Angel plans on going to college when he graduates next year he has difficulty attending classes on a regular basis, choosing instead to hang out with his friends at the mall. Angel may be having difficulty with 25. Children diagnosed with ADHD are more likely to show dysfunctions in which neurotransmitter/s?
PSYC 309 Quiz Sexual Problems https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-309-quiz-sexual-problems/ PSYC 309 Quiz: Sexual Problems and Infidelity 1. If the woman responds to the first hug with discomfort, the man acting from pure intent is not accountable for his behavior because it was limited contact. 2. Marital sexual fulfillment will be high when there is 3. Ray Anderson (2004) has suggested that Adam and Eve’s human encounter as man and woman and their distinctive task of being a man or woman affirms what? 4. The words “by agreement” are translated from the Greek with the same root meaning from which symphony is derived with the idea of 5. Family therapist Cloe Madanes (1995) addresses the impact of sexual abuse on the family system. She sees sexual abuse as what in the heart of the child? 6. Sexual harassment of males is reported in the context of power differentials. Men report being most threatened by coercive behavior that challenges what? 7. By broadening the definition of infidelity to include as well as sexual involvement, recent research also takes into account the subjective aspects of adultery found in Jesus’ teachings. 8. According to the text, the partnership formed by husband and wife is an entity that goes far beyond what each one can accomplish alone. 9. What is one way identified in the text that parents can create a protective home environment? 10. The process of addressing the wrong of sexual harassment is called 11. What does sin consist of according to the text 12. While covenant provides security, establishes an atmosphere in which spouses can reach their full potential because. With this in mind, accepting a spouse just as he or she is means also accepting their sexual value system. 13. Sexual abuse, whether done by a family member or a stranger, whether a single act or ongoing pattern, cuts to the very core of a child. 14. Forgiveness is 15. What is defined in the text as a sexual act imposed on a child or person who emotional, maturational and/or cognitive development 16. What is identified as an important factor in determining sexual harassment? 17. Which of the following are identified in the text as causes of infiadelity? 18. Old Testament laws were expressed in a patriarchal, polygamous culture where husbands had the right to take and divorce as many wives as they wished as long as these sexual options were within a legal marriage contract. 19. According to the text, intercourse is only regarded as an external act impacting oneself and one’s spouse. 20. A characteristic of incestuous families is emotional disconnection and inability to empathize with others 21. The nature of marriage changes when people raise their level of differentiation in 22. What is the first step identified in the text in the healing process from abuse? 23. Sexual disclosure and vulnerability opens spouses up to what? 24. When a daughter is sexually abused by her father, she is often 25. Some spouses have difficulty being sexually intimate because of significant unresolved conflicts in the marriage. 26. What type of sin does the Bible speak of in Exodus 20:5 and Deuteronomy 5:9? 27. What is identified as a solution to preventing extramarital affairs? 28. Emotional sharing with someone of the opposite gender is more likely to lead to 29. Jesus illustrates the balance of justice and mercy in Matthew 5:38- 39 which says 30. How does one maintain passionate sex as mentioned in the text?
31. Feeling inadequate to meet the spouse’s needs, affairs often provides a new focus and becomes an escape route to personal growth and real differentiation. Idealization of a new relationship ames what about oneself? 32. Most people settle for ______ rather than ______ sex. 33. According to the work of Berdahl and Moore (2006), who experiences the most sexual harassment? 34. Intellectual intimacy is always threatening to a spouse. 35. The evolutionary adaptation process explains sexual harassment in terms of adaptation to reproductive 36. Which of the following is not identified in the text as the three-stage process following the disclosure of infidelity? 37. According to the text, sexual harassment is technically not a sexual offense. 38. Some children may block out memories of being sexually abused in order to 39. How can an affair also be viewed, even though it can have devastating effects upon a marriage? 40. Which comparison is made in the text regarding marital sexuality?
PHYS 103 Quiz Refraction of Light https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/phys-103-quiz-refraction-of-light/ PHYS 103 Quiz: Refraction of Light 1. The index of refraction for vacuum is 2. A tangent line is parallel to a normal line 3. A normal line is perpendicular to the interface between material. 4. If one measures the index of refraction to be 1.1, this material would be 5. When we make multiple measurements, we can have more confidence in the index of refraction 6. 7. The index of refraction has units of distance. 8. The imaginary line perpendicular to the incident ray onto a materials interface is known as a 9. The speed of light is constant regardless of the material 10. The angles used in Snell’s law are always 11. Snell’s law helps us to determine 12. It is possible to exceed the speed of light in a vacuum 13. There is a special case when the index of refraction is less than 1. 14. The higher density a material the 15. The index of refraction for water is 16. The speed of light in a vacuum is 17. The speed of light 18. The higher the index of refraction the 19. The speed of light slows in water. 20. The index of refraction is unitless.
PHYS 103 Quiz Newton’s Second Law https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/phys-103-quiz-newtons-second-law/ PHYS 103 Quiz: Newton’s Second Law 1. The property of an object to either stay in motion or stay at rest is related to inertia. 2. The sum of forces applied to an object is known as 3. Which of the following is NOT one of newton’s three laws? 4. Newton’s first law of Motion is most closely related to an object’s 5. Kinematics equations tells us the position of an object under constant acceleration increases linearly with time. 6. Net force is the 7. The units of force (N) can be written with the following units 8. The gravitational constant is a measure of velocity. 9. Weight is an example of a force. 10. Newton’s second law of Motion is related to an object’s 11. A Newton is a measure of 12. Momentum is directly proportional to an object’s 13. An object in free-fall has a zero net force. 14. A non-zero force applied to an object implies 15. An object at rest has a velocity that is zero. 16. When a free falling mass is doubled, which statement is most true? 17. When we make measurements, we make multiple trials to help us reduce errors in measurement. 18. An object in motion must have a force applied that is non-zero. 19. The gravitational constant would change if we were standing on the moon. 20. The weight of an object is the same as the object’s mass.
PHYS 103 Quiz Introduction https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/phys-103-quiz-introduction/ PHYS 103 Quiz: Introduction to Graphing and Lab Safety 1. Laboratory equipment should not be left unattended 2. It is best to perform the laboratory exercises when easily distracted by telephones or children 3. When we graph y as a function of x, the variable x is known as the dependent variable 4. Average is the sum of a group of number divided by how many numbers was in the set 5. Laboratory equipment can be left unattended 6. It is best to perform laboratory exercise when not easily distracted by telephones or children 7. When we graph y as a function of x, the variable x is known as an independent variable 8. You do not need to check batteries for cracks or leaks 9. It is good practice to set aside an area to perform the laboratory exercises (like a lab bench in a traditional laboratory classroom) 10. When we graph y as a function of x, the variable y is known as an dependent variable 11. Outliers are numbers within a set of numbers that are close to the average 12. It is not optimal to have a space set aside to perform the exercises 13. Eye protection is not necessary during laboratory exercises 14. Average is the sum of a group of number divided by two times how many numbers in the set 15. When storing batteries, never allow the terminals to touch or short circuit 16. Eye protection needs to be worn during laboratory exercises 17. The standard deviation of a set of numbers is only based upon the average of the set of numbers. 18. If you have long hair there are no precautions necessary while doing laboratory exercises 19. Limit the use of loose jewelry when performing laboratory exercises 20. Batteries should be stored with their terminals touching
AVIA 301 Pre-Final Exam https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/avia-301-pre-final-exam/ AVIA 301 Quiz: Pre-Final Exam: Practice Part 107 Knowledge Test Preparation 1. Who is the person who assists the remote PIC to see and avoid other air traffic or objects aloft or on the ground? 2. Refer to Figure 22, Area 3 (located on Appendix 2, page 21 in the “FAA Knowledge Supplement). The vertical limits of the portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over MAGEE Airport are? 3. Refer to Figure 15 Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) located on Appendix 2, page 15 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. In the TAF from KOKC during the forecast period 2200Z and 2400Z the clear sky becomes? 4. What is an effective way for a remote pilot to prevent a collision hazard in the traffic pattern? 5. To avoid possible collision with a manned airplane you estimate that your small UA claimed to an altitude greater than 600ft AGL, must this deviation be reported? 6. According to 14 CFR Part 48, If you have an accident that destroyed yournsmall UA, what are your responsibilities regarding registration? 7. Refer to figure 23 area 3, located on Appendix 2 page 22 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. You have been asked to inspect the high intensity lights installed on the tower approximately 5 1/2 miles southwest of Savannah Hilton Head International airport. Using your small UA if you are operating at the top of the tower, will you need ATC authorization? 8. Which would most likely result from hyperventilation? 9. What should a remote PIC do when the manufacturer of their small UA does not provide items that should be checked in preflight inspection? 10. Refer to Figure 15 Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) located on Appendix 2, page 15 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. The terminal aerodrome forecasts (TAF) for Memphis is valid from? 11. Refer to Figure 26 area 2, located on Appendix 2 page 25 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. What is the common traffic advisory frequency for the Cooperstown Airport? 12. When operating a small UA near an airport without an operational control tower, which radio communication frequency could be monitored to hear manned aircraft that are reporting their positions and intentions? 13. When an unmanned aircraft is subjected to an increased load factor such as during steep turns, the aircraft will always: 14. Time critical information about airports and changes that effect the national airspace system can be found in: 15. Refer to Figure 15 Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) located on Appendix 16. 2, page 15 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast? 17. When may a remote pilot operate an aircraft above 10,000ft MSL? 18. Loading an unmanned airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be? 19. Refer to figure 25 area 4 (located on Appendix 2, page 24 in the “FAA Knowledge Supplement”). You have been asked to photograph a home 3 NM east of Ft Worth Meacham international airport (FTW) using your small unmanned aircraft, you may: 20. To perform risk management as part of the aeronautical decision-making process the remote pilot relies on: 21. For flight over people, a Category 3 aircraft must have: 22. Refer to figure 59 area 2, located on Appendix 2 page 56 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. You have been hired to inspect towers with a small UA around HENRY CO (7W5) airport. How would using 123.0 be helpful to your operation?
23. Refer to figure 25 area 4, located on Appendix 2 page 24 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. The floor of class B airspace overlaying HICKS airport (T67) northwest of FT Worth Meacham field is? 24. Identifying a hazardous attitude of a remote pilot who is trying to prove they are better than anyone else: 25. Refer to figure 25 area 1, located on Appendix 2 page 24 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. What is the meaning of the numbers 100/40 that are to the right of the number one? 26. A temporary flight restriction can be used: 27. When an unmanned aircraft and an airship are about to converge, which aircraft has the right of way? 28. Refer to figure 20 area 3, located on Appendix 2 page 19 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. What frequency would a remote PIC use to monitor manned aircraft at the CURRITUCK CO airport? 29. Refer to Figure 21 Area 3, located on Appendix 2 page 20 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. What type of military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644? 30. According to 14 CFR Part 107, in order to exercise the privileges of your remote pilot certificate, you are required to notify the FAA of a change in permanent mailing address within: 31. The rules under 14 CFR Part 107 are applicable and apply to which type of operations? 32. To promote your aerial video company you decide to use your UA to record the major league all star game at an open air stadium. The FAA has issued a TFR for the game, is it permissible for you to complete the flight you have planned? 33. A systematic approach to the mental process used by remote pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances is: 34. You plan to operate in military operations area (MOA), what action should you take? 35. Who is responsible for maintaining the unmanned system in a condition for safe operation? 36. Refer to figure 24 located on Appendix 2 page 23 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. You have been hired to inspect the tower 4 NM northeast of MAJORS Airport (GVT). If you planned to operate your small UA at the maximum allowed altitude, do you need prior authorization from ATC? 37. Refer to figure 23 area 3 (located on Appendix 2, page 22 in the “FAA Knowledge Supplement”). What is the maximum altitude above ground level a remote pilot is authorized to operate an unmanned aircraft while performing an inspection of a group of obstruction towers with high intensity lights located approximately 6NM southwest of Savannah Hilton airport? 38. Refer to Figure 15 Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) located on Appendix 2, page 15 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. The TAF from KOKC starting at 1600Z the wind is forecasted to be from? 39. Figure 25 area 3, located on Appendix 2 page 24 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. If Dallas executive airport (RBD) control tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as common traffic advisory frequency CTAF to monitor airport traffic? 40. During the inspection of farm crops an agricultural airplane is seen approaching the flight path of a small UA by a visual observer who instructs you to initiate a climb with your UA to avoid a collision, you avoided the collision but you estimate your altitude was greater than 400ft AGL. Was this an appropriate response in this situation? 41. In the aeronautical decision-making process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude? 42. Refer to Figure 26, Area 2 (located on Appendix 2, page 25 in the “FAA Knowledge Supplement”). If you wish to operate in Devils Lake East MOA what possible hazards exist? 43. What is the purpose of the rudder on an unmanned airplane? 44. Which of this factors will tend to increase density altitude? 45. According to 14 CFR Part 107, what action is required if you deviate from a regulation during an emergency? 46. When a control tower located on an airport within class D airspace ceases operations for the day what happens to the airspace designation?
47. During the preparation for a flight using your sUAS you decide to use a visual observer to help you avoid power lines in the area. You briefed the visual observer on the flight, safety concerns and how you will communicate between you and the visual observer. This is an example of: 48. Some of the most commonly used over the counter drugs antihistamines and decongestants have the potential to cause noticeable side effects which could include: 49. The most effective method for a remote pilot to scan for other aircraft is to: 50. Refer to figure 21 area 3, located on Appendix 2 page 20 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. Which airport is located at 47 21’N and 101 01’W? 51. To determine the aircraft is in a condition for safe operation, the remote pilot should: 52. An unmanned airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit, one undesirable flight characteristic a remote pilot may experience with this airplane would be? 53. If your weather briefing reports clouds where the name includes the suffix “nimbus” you should expect to see: 54. The vertical limit of class C airspace above the primary airport is normally? 55. Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on a fixed wing unmanned airplane as compared to straight and level flight? 56. In order for a Category 4 aircraft to be operated over people, it must have an airworthiness certificate issued under Part 21 of the FAA regulations and be operated in accordance with the operating limitations specified in the approved Flight Manual or as otherwise specified by the Administrator. In addition, the aircraft must have… 57. According to 14 CFR Part 48, under what condition may a small UA be registered in a foreign country and be registered in the United States? 58. When operating in mountainous areas the remote pilot notices there are lenticular clouds, what weather conditions would they expect? 59. A remote pilot is often subject to stressful situations such as dealing with a crisis of an unexpected situation. One technique that a pilot can use to enhance their performance and manage stress associated with flight operations is to: 60. When a stressful situation is encountered during an operation an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition known as: 61. Refer to Figure 2 Load Factor Chart, located on Appendix 2, page 2 in the FAA Knowledge Supplement. If an unmanned airplane weighs 54 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane’s structure be equipped to support during a 45-degree bank turn while maintaining altitude?