3. Baby step 3 is to save ____ worth of expenses. 4. According to The Baby Steps video, _____ must become a priority. 5. Baby step 2 is the _____ _____ . 6. According to the textbook, “Money magazine says that _____ percent of us will have a major negative event in a given ten-year period of time.” 7. Dave Ramsey _____ while he was in college. 8. The Mission Statement of the Lampo Group is, The Lampo Group provides Biblically based common sense _____, which provides hope to everyone in all walks of life. 9. You should save $2,000 for a starter emergency fund. (If making less than 20k/year you should save $1000 for a starter emergency fund.) 10. “one who is dishonest in a very little is also _____ in much” according to Luke 16:10b
PSYC 640 Quiz All Modules https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-640-quiz-all-modules/ PSYC 640 Quiz: Organizational Behavior Covers the Textbook and Presentation material from Module 1: Week 1 — Module 8: Week 8. 1. Scott and Katie are both teachers at an elementary school. When disciplining students, Scott focuses on making sure that his decisions are consistent over time and based on principles such as fairness. Katie, by contrast, bases her decisions on the people involved and the unique circumstances of each situation. According to the Myers-Briggs framework, how would Scott and Katie be classified? 2. The collaborating style of conflict management reflects a _____ concern for your own interests and a _____ concern for the interests of the other party. 3. According to researchers, which is the least common sensory modality among American students? 4. According to the Ohio State studies, a leader who clearly defines the leader-subordinate roles so that subordinates know what is expected of them exhibits _____ leader behavior. 5. Making a(n) _____ rather than _____ decision is called satisficing. 6. Which of the following poles in the Myers-Briggs framework is most closely associated with the desire to stay open to new information and options? 7. Communication in _____ cultures is typically indirect, and a listener 8. In characterizing managerial work, most educators and other experts find it useful to conceptualize the activities performed by managers as reflecting one or more of _____ basic functions. 9. universal emotions are expressed in the face in exactly the same way regardless of race, culture, ethnicity, age, gender, or religion. 10. Evaluate the following statement: It is possible for a manager’s actions to be ethical yet to go against generally accepted social norms. 11. How many sources of organizational resistance have been identified by Daniel Katz and Robert Kahn? 12. Evaluate the following statement: According to Graen and Dansereau, the in-group of a leader is a small group of trusted subordinates who are given more autonomy and responsibility than others. 13. Tammy, a graphic designer for an elite studio, loves her job, wants to stay there for a long time, and speaks about her company in the rst person (“We make great designs”). Tammy has a high level of: 14. Lenore, CEO of Mun Tops Inc., would like for her executives to get feedback on their interpersonal abilities and management styles, not just on their ability to meet performance objectives. Which appraisal system should Lenore implement? 15. When first founding Billy’s Sub Shop, Billy analyzed the repair market in her area, determined what his company’s overarching goals should be, and outlined tactics and strategies for achieving those goals. While performing these activities, Billy was engaged in which core managerial function? 16. According to prospect theory, people are more concerned about _____ than about 17. Lucille gets a job as a used car salesperson. She’s extremely eager to do the job well and gets lots of support from her boss and colleagues. Unfortunately, her eagerness works against her. Customers find her enthusiasm off-putting and suspicious, and Lucille can’t close any sales. Lucille’s poor performance can be attributed to which variable in the job performance equation P = M × A × E? 18. Skill at organizational politics is correlated with _____ stress and _____ performance.
19. Arthur, a top manager at an accounting rm, politely asks his subordinate Andie to shred some incriminating documents. Andie, who typically follows her boss’s orders, does so. Later, she wishes that she hadn’t. Was Arthur’s request to Andie an abuse of power? 20. Esteban runs a gas station. He knows that when he’s put candy and ramen noodles on sale in the past, profits have gone up. Following a quarter of poor profits, Esteban decides to put candy and ramen noodles on sale. Esteban’s decision is most precisely an example of: 21. While Alderfer proposed that _____ need may motivate a person at one time, Maslow argued that _____ need may motivate a person at one time. 22. Tannenbaum and Schmidt’s proposed continuum of leadership behavior has what relationship to the Michigan or Ohio State leadership studies? 23. diversity, or diversity in location and culture, has a _____ impact on team performance. 24. For multinational organizations, the _____ structure is most appropriate when the benefits of global integration are large and local differences are small. 25. What are the two types of diversity that are important for organizational behavior? 26. The marketing department of a video game company is in constant conflict with the programming department. The marketers want every game to have a lot of bells and whistles that can be promoted in the press, while the programmers want the games to be as streamlined as possible so that there are fewer bugs and the games can launch on time. This is an example of _____ conflict. 27. In organizations, most situations and outcomes are contingent; that is, the precise relationship between any two variables is likely to be situational. In this context, situational means that the relationship: 28. Celina, a software developer, used to write programs according to very specific instructions from her manager. Now that her manager trusts her more, Celina is given only high-level specifications and has freedom to design as well as write new software. Celina’s job underwent 29. According to Hackman and Oldham, the degree to which the job gives the worker freedom, discretion, and independence in scheduling the work and determining how to do the work is called 30. Conflicts of interest over _____ issues relate to time, money, and physical resources. 31. Tim: “Changing an organization’s culture is like losing weight: It’s dicult and it can be done, but the effect is usually temporary. Most organizations who dramatically alter their corporate culture eventually revert to the culture they began with, just as most people who lose weight eventually gain it back.” 32. Evaluate this statement: A manager who wants to increase efficiency might implement job rotation, a proven method of improving worker specialization. 33. attempts to explain how people select, interpret, and change various situations. 34. Evaluate the following exchange between Karen and Mahmoud: 35. Karen: “Why do you have an organizational behavior flashcard for ‘self- efficacy’ and another for ‘self-esteem’? Aren’t they the same?” Mahmoud: “No, those are distinct terms.” Karen: “But don’t they both essentially boil down to believing in yourself?” 36. Paul, a manager at a car dealership, writes a performance improvement plan for an employee who is consistently struggling to make sales. Which of the four managerial functions is Paul primarily exercising? 37. Demographically diverse groups tend to have _____ cohesiveness and _____ conflict than homogenous ones. 38. The behavioral approach to decision making attempts to _____ rather than 39. According to Towler and Dipboye, which learning style would be most receptive to an explanatory PowerPoint presentation? 40. Which of the following is a true statement regarding suboptimizing and satisficing? 41. Moira, the hated manager of a fast food restaurant, resolves to turn things around. She calls a meeting of her staff, consults with them on how they’d like things to be different, and crafts new policies and procedures to improve her employees’ happiness and performance. Subsequently, she observes that her employees continue to fall into old patterns of behavior, such as cowering whenever Moira walks by. As Moira continually communicates with her employees about the
changes, assuring them that things really are different now, she enters which stage of Lewin’s process model? 42. An ___________ locus of control is related to passivity and learned helplessness, while an __________ locus of control has been positively related to confidence in one’s ability to successfully perform tasks. 43. Effective project teams tend to have _____ levels of relationship conflict that _____ toward the end of the project. 44. What term refers to the degree to which a job entails the creation of a tangible, identifiable piece of work? 45. Accurate planning, financing, budgeting, and staffing all depend on a reasonably predictable future. The subunits most capable of coping with _____ tend to have greater power. 46. David is a brilliant computer programmer, but he’s incredibly awkward when dealing with people. His managers know that the best way to foster David’s success is to hand him challenging programming assignments and let him stay at his computer and away from other human beings as much as possible. David’s learning style is probably that of a(n): 47. Ethics refers to which of the following? 48. No longer laughing at a coworker’s inappropriate jokes so that he will stop telling them is an example of what? 49. The invention of the steam engine in 1781 by James Watt paved the way for the Industrial Revolution. Beginning in the early 1800s, inventors began finding ways to apply the steam engine to carriages, creating the first gas-powered automobiles. This application of the steam engine constituted what type of innovation? 50. According to Locke’s goal-setting theory of motivation, what is the final stage of employee motivation? 51. A collection of verbal and symbolic assertions that specify how and why variables are related, and the conditions under which they should and should not relate, is called a:
TRMA 840 Integrated Trauma Powerpoint https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/trma-840-integrated-trauma-powerpoint/ TRMA 840 Integrated Trauma Presentation For this assignment, there are 3 options. Choose 1 of the 3: (1) Integrated Trauma Treatment Presentation, (2) Case Presentation of an Application of an Empirically Supported Treatment, or (3) Role-Play Demonstration. If the student is a licensed mental health professional or works under the supervision of a licensed mental health professional, he/she has the opportunity to choose any of the options. If the student is not licensed as a mental health professional, he/she is limited to (1) and (3) as his/her potential projects. (1) The Integrated Trauma Treatment Presentation involves the student putting together the empirical approaches from class with his/her current counseling theory to present his/her existing working model for treating clients with PTSD. The student must include Christian worldview aspects if these fit with his/her faith background. While the presentation may be done as a PowerPoint, Prezi, or other software, the student is encouraged to develop a narrated presentation using Microsoft Office Mix, narrated PowerPoint, YouTube video, Videoscribe, or other communication software.
TRMA 840 Reflection Journal https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/trma-840-reflection-journal/ TRMA 840 Reflection Journal Assignments The student will submit 3 Reflection Journal assignments. Each journal entry will contain the following: (a) A description of 3 key ideas he/she has gained from the modules’ materials since his/her last Reflection Journal and why these ideas are important (3 paragraphs), and (b) What Christian worldview integration thoughts come to mind from this section of course material (1 paragraph). See the Reflection Journal Instructions for more information.
PSYC 648 Final https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-648-final/ PSYC 648 Quiz: Final Covers the Learn material from Module 5: Week 5 — Module 8: Week 8. 1. Compare and contrast 2 motivational theories applicable to motivating a remote workforce. Explain why you would use 1 over the other. Make sure that you cite at least 1 textbook and 1 journal article. 2. Select a different motivational theory than the one you used in your first response. Explain 3 criticisms of the theory and how you might support effective application of the theory in today’s workforce. Make sure that you cite at least 1 textbook and 1 Journal article. 3. Reflect on the interaction between leadership and motivation. Who is responsible for maintaining a highly motivated workforce – leaders or followers? Support your response with clear evidence from theory. Make sure that you cite at least 1 textbook and 1 Journal article. 4. Leaders often state that they’re looking for a “highly motivated workforce”, however what they truly mean is that they are looking for employees who are motivated to support positive organizational goals. As you have learned, employees can be “highly motivated” without being positive contributors. Which motivational theory captures this issue best? Make sure that you cite at least 1 textbook and 1 journal article.
PSYC 648 Midterm https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-648-midterm/ PSYC 648 Quiz: Mid Term Covers the Learn material from Module 1: Week 1 — Module 4: Week 4. 1. We saw a very abrupt transition to remote leadership for many organizations due to the COVID pandemic. If you were hired as a consultant to help with this transition, which theory would you apply to best support leaders? Why? Make sure that you cite at least 1 textbook and 1 journal article. 2. As you know, theories of leadership each have criticisms – no theory is perfect (yet). Describe the theory that you see as least plausible and explain the challenges for application in today’s organizations. Make sure that you cite at least 1 textbook and 1 journal article. 3. Leaders have existed for many years, yet we still see difficulty in defining success and effectiveness. Explain how definitions of success and effectiveness have changed over time. Make sure that you cite at least 1 textbook and 1 journal article. 4. If you could create a “supertheory” of leadership to address criticisms and support the changing nature of work, which components of theory would you integrate? In your description, you’ll need to clearly specify the theories used for each component included. Make sure that you cite at least 1 textbook and 1 journal article.
PSYC 648 Remote Leadership Infographic https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-648-remote-leadership-infographic/ PSYC 648 Remote Leadership Infographic Assignment The student will create a 1 page theory-based infographic in current APA format that focuses on remote leadership effectiveness. The paper must include references to support the theory integrated into the recommendations.
PSYC 648 Motivational Theory https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-648-motivational-theory/ PSYC 648 Motivational Theory Intervention Assignment The student will write a 4-5 page research and application-based paper in current APA format that focuses on a scenario in which a leader must use a specific strategy to motivate his/her employees using information learned from the Latham text. The paper must include at least 5 research articles in addition to the textbook.
PSYC 750 Quiz Vision https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-750-quiz-vision/ PSYC 750 Quiz: Vision, Proprioception, and Movement Covers the Learn material from Module 6: Week 6. 1. The term color refers to ______. 2. There are approximately ______ light receptors in the human eye. 3. The ______ cell is a neuron in the visual cortex that responds best to a line or an edge with a particular orientation and will continue to respond if the line or edge moves within a limited range. 4. Adjacent retinal receptors activate adjacent cells in the visual cortex, a phenomenon called a ______ map. 5. Color constancy is the result of activity in ______. 6. Humans see different colors because we have different ______. 7. Wavelengths of light in the 500–570 nm range (just below the middle of the visible spectrum) would typically correspond with a report of seeing 8. People with prosopagnosia often have ______. 9. Which of the following statements is evidence of damage to the ventral stream? 10. If a stroke patient can identify objects and faces but cannot tell if they are moving, he or she is showing signs of 11. Mercedes is looking at her friend’s pictures on her smartphone. One of them is really blurry, but she still can tell who it is. What is missing from this picture? 12. What would happen to a stroke patient who had damage to her V5? 13. The secondary motor areas include the ______. 14. probably contribute(s) to the cognitive deficits and dementia that sometimes accompanies Parkinson’s. 15. The cupula consists of ______. 16. Which structure is part of the basal ganglia? 17. Myasthenia gravis can be caused by which of the following? 18. People who lack a properly functioning vestibular system would not be aware of 19. The receptive cells for the functions of the utricle and saccule are 20. Compared to encapsulated receptors, free nerve endings ______. 21. When looking at a slide of muscle and there are no bands or stripes, what type of muscle does it have to be? 22. The expression “bite the bullet” refers to ______. 23. If Rajeed took a drug that selectively interfered with the job of the utricle and saccule, he would be impaired in which of the following tasks? 24. While Reggie, who is blind, learns to read Braille, he is relying on discriminations based on shallow responses from 25. When Talia hears her uncle dismissing any placebo effect of pain relief as “all in the mind,” she can tell him he is wrong because
PSYC 750 Quiz Nervous System https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-750-quiz-nervous-system/ PSYC 750 Quiz: Nervous System Covers the Learn material from Module 1: Week 1. 1. ______ have water soluble heads and water insoluble tails. 2. Neurons gather information, process it, and control muscle movements. 3. Which of the following occurs during an EPSP? 4. The type of postsynaptic potential produced by a neurotransmitter depends on which neurotransmitter is released an 5. The relationship between a neurotransmitter and its receptor is akin to a 6. Compare and contrast EPSPs and IPSPs. How do they contribute to triggering an action potential? Why are they important in carrying out their functions? 7. An inhibitory message received by a neuron decreases the likelihood that it will send a message down its axon. 8. MAO inhibitors ______ in the synapse. 9. In the nervous system, hyperpolarization can ______. 10. If the resting potential of a membrane changed from -70 mV to -75 mV, this would be considered 11. William, a philosophy major, asked Ian the psychology major what type of cell contributes the most to Ian’s thoughts, feelings, and actions. Without hesitation, Ian replied 12. Describe three different ways that chemical transmission at the synapse results in more complexity than action potentials along an axon. 13. The inferior temporal cortex plays a major role in ______. 14. wo key genes (Robo1 and Robo3) influence the growth and targeting of an axon’s development in some areas. 15. How do the layers of the cortex differ from each other? 16. Which of the following is an example of hemispheric asymmetry? 17. In humans, synaptic construction and reconstruction ______. 18. The central nervous system is arranged in a hierarchy, this means that the 19. Contrast the functions of the primary cortical areas and the association areas of cortex in each lobe. 20. What role do neurotrophins appear to play in development of the nervous system? 21. Identify the subdivisions of the central and peripheral nervous systems. Explain how these two systems result in the brain communicating with the body. 22. Christopher suffered spinal cord damage at the cervical level of the spinal column. While he lost control of his legs and arms, he retained control over his 23. Callie was in a car accident in which she hit her head and was briey unconscious. She had never experienced loss of consciousness before in her life. What types of symptoms will Callie experience due to this injury? 24. Amy sometimes seems to ignore Joey, but only when he stands to her left. This is most likely a problem in the 25. Mariah is having difficulty with processing auditory stimulation. Research indicates which layer of the cortex?
EMGT 320 Quiz Production Team https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/emgt-320-quiz-production-team/ EMGT 320 Quiz: The production team 1. How conflicts are resolved by the event producer will largely be predicated upon that individual’s priorities. 2. According to the textbook, the beginning of the event coordination phase begins with the hiring of the event producer. 3. According to Matthews, most of an event’s production team will be subcontractors. 4. Matthews notes that the special events industry has a disproportionate number of people who are difficult to work with. 5. Often, the event producer is a subcontractor to the event manager and is responsible for recruiting volunteers, hiring staff, and evaluating personnel performance. 6. Recent studies of event volunteers found that they value being recognized at events such as award banquets rather than being informed about the impact of their service. 7. The interest-based approach to conflict resolution is generally regarded as the win/win approach. 8. When conducting meetings, the text recommends Robert’s Rules of Order to make meetings more efficient. 9. The positional approach to conflict resolution is generally regarded as the win/win approach. 10. An event producer’s job day-of-show is wholly dedicated to directing the production team in the load-in/setup, execution, and load-out (i.e., “striking”) of the event.
HLTH 330 Quiz Lipids, Protein https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-330-quiz-lipids-protein/ HLTH 330 Quiz: Lipids, Protein, Vitamins, Minerals, and Water 1. Particles that are formed in the small intestine when the products of fat digestion are surrounded by bile. 2. Which lipoprotein contains the highest proportion of cholesterol? 3. Triglycerides that are consumed in the diet can be used in all of the following situations except: 4. This best-known phospholipid is used by the food industry to prevent oil from separating from other ingredients. 5. High levels of ______ in the blood are associated with a reduction in the risk of heart disease. 6. Which of the following is not a function of fat in foods? 7. Though rare in U.S. diets, essential fatty acid deficiencies have occurred in infants and young children when consuming what type of diet? 8. This lipid is an important component of cell membranes, forming a lipid bilayer by orienting the water-soluble portion towards the water environment: 9. Bile is: 10. Limiting oils, butter, margarine, fatty sauces and salad dressings can reduce your total fat and calorie intake. 11. Obesity and high blood pressure increase heart disease risk, but diabetes does not. 12. Men are affected a decade earlier than are women by heart disease. 13. Most of the nitrogen we lose is lost in: 14. This enzyme is produced in the stomach. It breaks some of the peptide bonds in polypeptide chains. 15. There are certain conditions under which some of the nonessential amino acids cannot be synthesized to meet the body’s needs. When this occurs these amino acids are referred to as: 16. The effective chemical digestion of protein in the stomach requires which type of environment? 17. Chemical digestion of protein begins in the: 18. The shape of a protein is essential to its function. 19. The process by which amino acids enter the body involves an energy-requiring amino acid transport system. 20. Amino acids can be used by the body to make glucose and fatty acids. 21. Protein quality is a measure of how good the protein in a food is at providing the non-essential amino acids the body needs to synthesize proteins. 22. Transcription is the process by which transfer RNA reads the genetic code and delivers the needed amino acids to the ribosome. 23. All of the following MyPlate food groups are good sources of folate except: 24. Women of childbearing age should consume ________ daily from fortified foods or supplements. 25. The process whereby immature cells change in structure and function to become specialized is called: 26. Cells that are deficient in vitamin A become hard and dry because they produce this protein: 27. A family member has been taking Vitamin C supplements but is now wondering if they should continue to spend money on these supplements. What have you learned about Vitamin C that might help them with an evidence-based decision? 28. Of the following dieters, who would benefit the most from taking a multivitamin/multimineral supplement? 29. When Vitamin C intake is below 10 mg per day, the symptoms of _______ begin to appear. 30. Which of the following is/are antioxidants? 31. An antioxidant is a substance that protects against oxidative damage. 32. Pantothenic acid is needed for the breakdown of carbohydrates, proteins, and amino acids. 33. Folate deficiency can lead to macrocytic or megablastic anemia.
34. When vitamin D is deficient, calcium absorption is greatly affected. 35. One of the best sources of riboflavin in the diet is milk. 36. Which of the following groups of individuals should consume no more than 1500 mg sodium daily? 37. All of the following are functions of magnesium except: 38. All of the following are associated with increased risk of developing osteoporosis except: 39. Excess body weight is associated with ________ risk of osteoporosis development. 40. Which of the following is not a trace mineral? 41. When a nerve cell is at rest, potassium is concentrated ____ the nerve cell and sodium is concentrated ________ the nerve cell. 42. Which of the following is the correct sequence that occurs with the development of iron deficiency anemia? 43. Urine color charts help people monitor their ________ status. 44. Phytic acid, tannins, and oxalates ________ the absorption of many minerals. 45. About 25% of the bottled water sold in the United States is the same water that comes from local municipal water supplies or “tap” water. 46. Too much water is a problem for the human body because it can change the osmotic balance. 47. The Environmental Protection Agency sets standards for municipal water systems making tap water similarly safe as bottled water. 48. Most of the minerals have only one primary function in the body. 49. The terms “distilled water” and “purified water” are examples of water that come from underground sources rather than from municipal sources
HLTH 330 Quiz Food Choices https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-330-quiz-food-choices/ HLTH 330 Quiz: Food Choices, Tools, Guidelines, Digestion, and Carbohydrates 1. With of the following represents the correct order of steps of the scientific method? 2. ___ are studies that explore the effects of altering people’s diets. 3. All of the following are examples of lipids except 4. The observations and hypotheses that arise from epidemiology can be tested using: 5. The top three causes of death in the US include stroke, cancer, and heart disease. All of these conditions are thought to be exacerbated by: 6. Some nutrient deficiencies occur quickly, whereas others take more time to develop. Which hot the following nutrient deficiencies are listed in the order reflecting most quickly to least quickly? 7. In nutrition, the scientific method is used to 8. Over time, consuming excess or insufficient amounts of one or more nutrients will result in malnutrition. 9. Typically, less processed foods have lower nutrient density. 10. Minerals are classified as micronutrients. 11. All six classes of nutrients play important roles in regulating body processes. 12. Chronic overconsumption of kcalories and certain nutrients from foods can cause health problems. 13. Choosing a variety of foods is important because no single food can provide all the nutrients the body needs for optimal health. 14. Dietary supplements: 15. Which of the following is NOT a component of the DASH Diet? 16. To decrease your chance of getting a food-borne illness, you should: 17. DRIs vary based on each of these EXCEPT: 18. Which of the following pieces of information is NOT required on the foods label? 19. The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that no more than ___ percent of calories come from saturated fat. 20. The Dietary Guidelines for Americans promote a minimum of ___ minutes of moderate exercise weekly. 21. The Estimated Energy Requirements (EER) estimate calorie needs to promote weight loss among adults. 22. A qualified health claim does not have the same amount of research to support it as a health claim. 23. Ingredients on a food label are listed in descending order by weight. 24. Food labels are designed to help consumers make wise food choices at the point of purchase. 25. The EARs are set higher than the RDAs. 26. An ingredient list is required on all products containing more than one ingredient. 27. Dietary supplements are required to carry a Supplement Facts panel similar to the Nutrition Facts panel on food labels. 28. lubricates, moistens, and protects the cells within the mucosa. 29. The exchange of nutrients and gases occurs across the thin walls of the 30. When you eat a taco, the tortilla, meat, cheese, lettuce, and tomato are broken apart, releasing the nutrients and other food components they contain. This process is called: 31. ____ neutralizes the acidic chyme as it enters the small intestine. 32. When the epiglottis doesn’t move correctly, it can lead to 33. Vitamin E and fatty acids are absorbed via 34. Which of the following substances is not absorbed by the human body? 35. The mass of chewed food that is swallowed is called 36. During swallowing, the air passages are blocked by a flap of tissue called the esophagus.
37. Cellular respiration uses oxygen to convert glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids into carbon dioxide, water, and ATP. 38. Excess amino acids are converted to body fat. 39. The majority of absorption occurs in the stomach. 40. Nutrients are used for energy or to synthesize substances in the body after they are absorbed. 41. Glucagon: 42. Starch and dietary fiber are classified as: 43. Glycemic index is a measure of: 44. Which is less refined? 45. Which of the following is a major dietary source of soluble fiber: 46. Increased consumption of refined carbohydrates in the past few decades has been implicated in causing obesity. 47. Reducing added sugars reduces calorie intake without reducing essential nutrients. 48. Dental caries, or cavities, are the best-documented health problem associated with carbohydrate intake. 49. The grams of sugar on the food label do not differentiate between natural and added sugars. 50. Maltose and lactose are examples of complex carbohydrates.
CRIS 305 Quiz Posttraumatic Stress https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cris-305-quiz-posttraumatic-stress/ CRIS 305 Quiz Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Spiritual Integration 1. SUDS is a term identified with EMDR. 2. Child abuse and rape victims experience PTSD very differently than other victims of PTSD. 3. The Army’s Comprehensive Soldier Fitness program does not include a component to help families. 4. Terr (1995) proposed a division of childhood trauma into two categories that she called Type I and Type II traumas. What is the difference? 5. Which of the following is a common reaction to traumatic stress? 6. EMDR should not be used with children because it is very intrusive and may reignite the trauma. 7. The police, fire, and emergency services support group provide all but one of the following in their support groups? 8. Gestalt techniques such as the “empty chair” can be used for PTSD clients to effectively: 9. Affective State Dependent Retention is important to PTSD because it theorizes that: 10. Flooding works well as a safe therapeutic intervention with children because it allows them to expunge intrusive thoughts. 11. Children who suffer a traumatic experience are likely to have problems with “narrative coherence,” which is the ability to organize material into a beginning, middle, and end. 12. Young children who suffer from PTSD are likely to: 13. Structured Interviews such as the CAPS-1 are the best way of diagnosing PTSD if time is available to conduct the interview. 14. Support groups are an important component for treating PTSD. 15. All of the following were involved in the classification of PTSD as a diagnosable mental illness, except: 16. “Railway spine” was a historical precursor of what is now known as PTSD. 17. Treatment for PTSD can best be described as: 18. Of the following phases of recovery in PTSD, which does not belong? 19. There is a great deal of psychophysiological assessment evidence that indicates that stimulus presentation of sights, sounds, and smells associated with the long-past traumatic event in PTSD sufferers may cause: 20. Moving beyond the trauma means survivors need to come to understand the negative aspects of PTSD and that the physiological responses they may have are common to the experience.
CRIS 305 Quiz Intro to Crisis Intervention https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cris-305-quiz-intro-to-crisis-intervention/ CRIS 305 Quiz Introduction to Crisis Intervention and Multicultural Considerations 1. The Equilibrium model of crisis intervention seeks to equalize faulty thinking. 2. The first suicide intervention program in the United States was created over a hundred years ago. 3. Successful crisis work may be described as: 4. Grassroots movements are: 5. Eclectic crisis intervention involves the intentional and systematic selection and integration of valid concepts and strategies from all available therapeutic approaches. 6. The Contextual-Ecological Model of crisis is: 7. Characteristics of effective crisis workers must include: 8. Chaos theory is a positive theory of crisis because it causes new, previously unknown solutions to be found. 9. Crisis intervention services typically start through massive government funding to rectify some ill. 10. Workers who have experienced the crisis a client is experiencing will undoubtedly be better able to handle it because they have overcome the crisis. 11. The ACT Model of crisis intervention seems most appropriate for long term transcrisis intervention when the person cannot seem to get out of the crisis after a long period of time. 12. SAFETY is a developing model for understanding clients’ social locations during: 13. A universal view of multicultural counseling relates to “visible and racial ethnic minorities.” 14. The ADDRESSING and SAFETY models both manifest the social locations approach Brown is proposing to understand the impact of multiculturalism on trauma. 15. Multiculturalists in the United States are highly aware of how the competencies they promote apply outside the United States. 16. When a crisis worker encounters language barriers he or she should: 17. An effective multicultural view of a client includes a: 18. Of the attributes that will serve crisis workers well in a multicultural crisis world, which of the following is not helpful? 19. Geographic locale is a cultural barrier in a crisis because: 20. Laura Brown uses the___________ model to delineate her social locations approach.
CRIS 305 Quiz Intervention Assessment https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/cris-305-quiz-intervention-assessment/ CRIS 305 Quiz Intervention Assessment Models and Crisis Intervention Tools 1. Follow-up is an important task because: 2. The task model is mostly passive in what it attempts to do. 3. The Hybrid model conceptualizes assessing as overarching: 4. A rating of 9 on a specific triage A, B, or C scale would indicate: 5. The Triage Assessment system is an in-depth rapid but systematic technique for use by crisis workers in determining the severity of a client’s past and present dilemmas. 6. The Hybrid model of crisis intervention epitomizes a stage or linear model. 7. The psychobiology of humans in crisis is important because: 8. It is not necessary to assess for lethality in every case because all clients certainly do not present with suicidal/homicidal ideation. 9. In Task 3 Providing support, which of the following does not belong? 10. Owning feeling is probably more important in crisis intervention because of the need to be directive. 11. Providing guidance: 12. An owning statement does which of the following? 13. Relational markers: 14. The crisis worker who interacts with complete acceptance of clients demonstrates: 15. Of the following basic strategies for crisis intervention, which one seeks to deal with warded off, shunted, and denied feelings? 16. An owning statement most generally starts with the pronoun: 17. A good owning statement may mean making a value judgment about a client’s behavior. 18. “Tell me more “is an open lead that asks the client for expansion of the subject. 19. Closed questions are useful in crisis intervention to: 20. Communicating empathically means focusing exclusively on the accurate restatement of the content of verbal messages and not trying to guess at underlying meanings.