First Buster Maximiser - Sample

Carla Natalie Leonard

buster

Preparation Course for the Cambridge English: First (FCE) FOR SCHOOLS

first

Carla Natalie Leonard

first

buster

First Buster is an intensive exam preparation course designed to challenge motivated students and to encourage them to become independent learners.

It features 20 units covering all First for schools topics, vocabulary, grammar and the skills needed for the four exam papers.

Preparation Course for the Cambridge English: First (FCE) for schools

First Buster Language Maximiser recycles and consolidates the vocabulary and the grammar items studied in the Student’s Book. It also provides thorough practice of the Use of English and the Speaking Papers. It contains two complete Practice Tests.

Components: n n n n n

Student’s Book 3 Audio CDs Teacher’s Guide with Tests Answer Key Booklet Online Resources

LANGUAGE

MAXIMISER LANGUAGE MAXIMISER

-3 R l. .r. TE 99 I s S -21 EL BU 536 T 8RS -8 FI 978 BN IS

www.elionline.com

With TWO PRACTICE TESTS

AUDIO CD

Carla Natalie Leonard

first E

buster

SA

MP L

Preparation Course for the Cambridge English: First (FCE) for schools

LANGUAGE

MAXIMISER With TWO PRACTICE TESTS

CONTENTS Society and Identity............................................................................................... 6

Unit 2

Food for All! ............................................................................................................. 9

Speaking Buster Part 1 .................................................................................... 12

Unit 3

Sports Champions .................................................................................................. 14

Unit 4

Music: New Scenarios .......................................................................................... 17

Speaking Buster Part 2 .................................................................................... 20

Unit 5

To Read or Not to Read ....................................................................................... 22

Unit 6

Your Tomorrow ........................................................................................................ 25

Speaking Buster Parts 3 and 4 ................................................................... 28

Unit 7

Revolutionary Inventions ................................................................................... 30

Unit 8

On Holiday! ............................................................................................................... 33

MP L

E

Unit 1

Use of English Buster Parts 1 and 2 ........................................................ 36

Unit 9

The Animal World ................................................................................................... 38

Unit 10 Fashion and Trends ................................................................................................ 41

Use of English Buster Parts 3 and 4 ........................................................ 44

SA

Unit 11 Feelings and Personality ...................................................................................... 46 Unit 12 The Language of Advertising ............................................................................ 49 Unit 13 Free Time and Entertainment ........................................................................... 52 Unit 14 Education ................................................................................................................... 55

Unit 15 Sleep Tight ................................................................................................................. 58 Unit 16 Make Mine Music ................................................................................................... 61 Unit 17 Money, Money Everywhere ................................................................................ 64 Unit 18 Urban Life .................................................................................................................. 67 Unit 19 Our Natural Environment ................................................................................... 70 Unit 20 Myths and Legends ............................................................................................... 73 Practice Test 1 ................................................................................................................................ 76 Practice Test 2 ................................................................................................................................ 98 Recording Scripts .......................................................................................................................... 120

First Certificate in English – Exam Overview There are four Papers in the Cambridge English: First (FCE) examination: Reading and Use of English, Writing, Listening, Speaking. The first part is worth 40% of the total marks; the other three parts carry 20% of the marks each.

PAPER 1

Part

1 hour 15 minutes

READING and use of English

Task type and focus

Format

Number of questions

1

Multiple-choice cloze Lexical / lexico-grammatical

A modified cloze test containing 8 gaps and followed by four-option multiple-choice items

8

2

Open cloze Grammatical / lexico-grammatical

A modified cloze text containing 8 gaps

8

Word formation Lexical / lexico-grammatical

A text containing 8 gaps. Each gap corresponds to a word. The stems of the missing words are given beside the text and must be changed to form the missing word.

8

Six separate items, each with a lead-in sentence and a gapped second sentence to be completed in two to five words, one of which is a given ‘key word’.

6

3

Key word transformations Lexical and grammatical

E

4

7

Gapped text Text structure, cohesion and coherence

A text from which sentences have been removed and placed in jumbled order after the text. Candidates must decide from where in the text the sentences have been removed.

6

Multiple matching A text or several short texts preceded Specific information, detail, opinion and implication by multiple-matching questions.

Candidates must match prompts to elements in the text.

10

WRITING

80 minutes

MP L

6

A text followed by 6 four-option multiple-choice questions.

SA

5

Multiple choice Detail, opinion, attitude, tone, purpose, main idea, gist, meaning from context, implication, text organisation features (exemplification, reference)

PAPER 2

Part

1

Task type and focus

Question 1 Candidates are required to write an Writing an essay giving opinion and providing reasons essay giving their opinion on the for the opinion essay title using the ideas given and providing an idea of their own. The essay title will be on a subject of general interest with no requirement of specialised knowledge.

Questions 2-4 Writing one from a number of possible text types based on a contextualised writing task

2

Format

Candidates have a choice of task.

In questions 2-4, the tasks provide candidates with a clear context, topic, purpose and target reader for their writing. The output text types are: article, email/letter, report, review.

6

Number of tasks and length One compulsory task 140-190 words

One task to be selected from a choice of three.

140-190 words

First Certificate in English – Exam Overview PAPER 3

LISTENING

40 minutes

Format

Number of questions

The focus is on genre, identifying speaker, feeling, attitude, opinion, purpose, agreement between speakers, gist and detail

Eight short unrelated extracts, of approximately 30 seconds each, from monologues or exchanges between interacting speakers. There is one multiple-choice question per extract, each with three options.

8

Sentence completion Detail, specific information, stated opinion

A monologue lasting approximately 3-4 minutes. Candidates are required to complete the sentences with information heard on the recording.

10

3

Multiple matching General gist, detail, main points, purpose, attitude, opinion, feeling

Five short related monologues, of approximately 30 seconds each. The five multiple-matching questions require selection of the correct option from a list of eight.

5

4

Multiple choice Opinion, attitude, detail, gist, main idea, specific information

An interview or an exchange between two speakers lasting approximately 3-4 minutes.

There are seven multiple-choice questions, each with three options.

7

Part

1

Task type and focus

Part

MP L

PAPER 4

E

2

SPEAKING

Task type and format

Focus

A conversation between the interlocutor and each candidate (spoken questions).

2

An individual ‘long turn’ for each candidate with a Organising a larger unit of brief response from the second candidate. In turn, the discourse; comparing, describing, candidates are given a pair of photographs to talk about. expressing opinions.

SA

1

General interactional and social language.

14 minutes

Timing 2 minutes 4 minutes

3

A two-way conversation between the candidates.

The candidates are given spoken instructions with written and visual stimuli, which are used in a decision-making task.

Sustaining an interaction, exchanging ideas, expressing and justifying opinions, agreeing and / or disagreeing, suggesting, speculating, evaluating, reaching a decision through negotiation, etc.

4 minutes

4

A discussion on topics related to the collaborative task (spoken questions).

Expressing and justifying opinions, agreeing and / or disagreeing.

4 minutes

UNIT

1

Society and Identity

Reading and Use of English Part 1

1

Read the report and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.

Migration in Europe

B search B island B needed B house B money B time B harmony B accept

E

C desire C sea C saw C deal C family C origin C agreement C house

SA

1 A look 2 A coast 3 A wanted 4 A manage 5 A clothes 6 A age 7 A happiness 8 A except

requesting asylum there. Hungary is in second place.

Often the immigrants arrive with no 5 …....................… , having lost it on their long and treacherous journeys, making identifying refugees and processing their application for asylum that much harder. This leads some people to question the true 6 ….................….....… and objective of the migrants, worrying that they are not all genuine asylum seekers.

Border checkpoints have been stretched to the limit, and intolerance from locals towards the refugees is on the rise. Some nations, like Austria and Hungary, have considered constructing a wall to keep the migrants out. But not every country is in 7 ….................….....… of this type of approach, and with no proper Europeanwide system set up to 8 ….................….....… and integrate them into their new society, things will struggle to improve.

MP L

It has been a difficult year for European countries caught up in the refugee crisis, with, according to the International Organization for Migration (IOM), an estimated 700,000 migrants entering Europe in 1 ….................….....… of safety, happiness and wealth in the first 8 months of the year. Most have come in via the Italian or Greek 2 ….................….....… , whilst more and more are now using the land border crossing between Hungary and Austria.

No one 3 ….................….....… such large numbers would emigrate from war zones such as Syria, Kosovo and Afghanistan, and a lot of pressure has been put on both the immigration policies and citizens of the host nations, who have had to 4 ….................….....… with a large influx of tired, hungry and poor culturally different people. Germany is the most popular destination, with nearly a third of all refugees

D want D space D predicted D accept D documentation D name D favour D bring

GRAMMAR Tense Revision

2

Complete the sentences with the correct verb form A, B or C. 1 ….........….....… to a refugee about their experiences? I imagine it would be fascinating.

A Did you talk B Have you ever talked C Do you talk 2 Turn the TV on! There’s a documentary about the conflict in Syria which ….........….....… in two minutes.

A begins B began C has begun 3 The protesters ….........….....… noisily outside my office all morning, I wish they would stop!

A have demonstrated B are demonstrating C have been demonstrating 4 We ….........….....… that immigrants have the same rights as any other citizens.

A are believing B believe C have been believing

6

UNIT

5 He ….........….....… his car right now, I’m afraid you’ll have to take the bus.

A cleans B has cleaned C is cleaning 6 A group of over 500 desperate asylum seekers ….........….....… at Munich station.

A has been arriving B has arrived C arrives 7 So why ….........….....… to emigrate from Britain to Australia when you were 18?

A do you decide B have you decided C did you decide 8 Millions of children in the world ….........….....… in terrible poverty.

A live B have lived C lived 9 ….........….....… a house in London for 5 years but I still don’t feel integrated into the British culture.

A I have B I’ve been having C I’ve had 10 Can I borrow your phone, please? ….........….....… to contact the embassy, but I’m out of credit.

A I try B I tried C I’m trying

3

1

Complete the dialogue putting the verbs in brackets into the correct form.

4

SA

MP L

E

Zoe: Jack, is that you? 1 ….........….....… (I not / see / you) in ages! How are you?

Jack: Hello, Zoe! 2 ….........….....… (I / be) very well thanks. Wow, I didn’t recognise you with that haircut, 3 ….........….....… (it / look) amazing! How long 4 ….........….....… (have) short hair?

Zoe: 5 ….........….....… (you / like) it? It’s my new look for my new job! 6 ….........….....… (I /go) to the hairdresser’s last week and 7 ….........….....… (I get) it all cut off!

Jack: You’ve got a new job? What 8 ….........….....… (you / do)?

Zoe: I’m Account Manager at a pharmaceutical company. 9 ….........….....… (I / work) there for a couple of months now.

What about you, 10 ….........….....… (you / still / look for) a job as a salesman?

Jack: No, 11 ….........….....… (I / decide) to become a professional musician. A big record company 12 ….........….....… (offer) me a recording contract for the next two years! 13 ….........….....… (I / practise) guitar all afternoon. My fingers are killing me!

Zoe: That’s incredible! I really want to hear you play.

Jack: Well, our next concert 14 ….........….....… (be) on Tuesday night at the Crown pub, if you can come.

Zoe: Oh no, what a shame, 15 ….........….....… (I study) for an important exam at the moment and I can’t take any time off.

Jack: Never mind. 16 ….........….....… (I / not / know) what our tour dates are yet, so here’s a copy of a CD 17 ….........….....… (we / just / make).

Zoe: Great! 18 ….........….....… (I / look forward) to listening to it. Anyway, I have to go, I’m late for a meeting!

Jack: Wait, Zoe, here’s my mobile number. 19 ….........….....… (I / really / enjoy) speaking to you, let’s do it again soon.

Zoe: Wow, thanks, Jack! 20 ….........….....… (I promise) to keep in touch. Bye!

Match each sentence to the correct use of the phrasal verbs.

1 2 3 4 5 6

I think somebody has made off with my car!

I know they fight like cats and dogs, but they always make up in the end.

They made for home as soon as the storm began.

Old rubbish is made into all sorts of things these days!

We’re out of tea I’m afraid, so we’ll have to make do with coffee!

Sorry to disturb you, but I can’t make out what they are playing!

a to make peace with somebody b to tolerate something because there is no alternative c to steal something d to be able to hear something e to transform something into something else f to move in the direction of somewhere

7

UNIT

1 VOCABULARY Phrasal Verbs with make

5

Read the short dialogues and complete the gaps with the correct prepositions for the phrasal verbs with make. for

up (x 2)

for

off with

after

out

off

over

into

Sue: Lisa:

Hi, Lisa, I’m so sorry to hear you got burgled last week. Did the thieves take anything important?

Well, fortunately they didn’t make 1 ….........….....… my diamond ring!

Mum: Ian:

So, Ian, how did your French listening exam go?

It was awful. I really couldn’t make 2 …..........… what they were saying so I had to make 3 …..........… all the answers!

Ruth: Philip, you haven’t seen Bessie anywhere, have you?

Philip: Oh no! She’s escaped into the farmer’s field and she’s making 4 ….........….....… the lambs!

Press: What has the government done so far to help out with the refugee crisis?

MP: Firstly, many of our empty buildings have been made 5 ….........….....… temporary refugee shelters.

Do immigrants usually come to Britain for a new life?

No they don’t. As a matter of fact, most migrants prefer to make 7 ….........….....… Germany.

MP L

Press: UN:

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Emma: Hey, did Gary give you back the money he owes you yesterday?

Jo: No he didn’t. In fact, he made 6 ….........….....… as soon as he saw me arrive!

Ann: Have you inherited anything from your great aunt’s estate?

James: No, can you believe that she made 8 ….........….....… everything to her dog!

Jenny: I’m not sure whether to go to the protest on Saturday morning.

Bob: Please come. We need as many people as possible to make 9 ….........….....… the numbers.

Reading and Use of English Part 3

SA

6 Read the article and use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form an appropriate word to fit the gap.

The four phases of culture shock

exciting and educational. On the other hand, On one hand, living abroad can be extremely 0 ….........….....… adjusting to an unfamiliar culture, or culture shock, can be a very disorienting experience.

Culture shock usually moves through four distinct phases.

The ‘honeymoon’ phase, describes an 1 ….........….....… feelings when they first arrive in their host country. It is common for them to feel very positive and 2 ….........….....… towards their new home.

Initially, all aspects of their new life feel like an exhilarating adventure.

The second, and most difficult stage, is the ‘frustration’ phase. This point usually occurs after a few months when an immigrant is becoming 3 ….........….....… frustrated with the daily challenges and cultural 4 ….........….....… . As they miss their old friends and family, they frequently suffer from homesickness and constantly compare the host country with their home country.

By and large, in time immigrants do get used to their new life. The ‘adjustment’ phase is one where tasks slowly become easier and everything begins to make sense. Life becomes more 5 ….........….....… when a daily routine is developed and by socialising with the locals. Moreover, 6 ….........….....… improves when immigrants start to make out more and more words in the local language.

The final stage of culture shock is the ‘acceptance’ phase. With the realisation that neither culture is 7 ….........….....… than the other, immigrants can actually begin to celebrate the 8 ….........….....… differences.

8

EXCITE

IMMIGRATE TOLERATE

INCREASE DIFFERENT

HARMONY INTEGRATE

GOOD CULTURE

UNIT

2

Food for All! VOCABULARY Food and Drink Complete the table with the words from the box.

vegetables

2

lettuce dried pasta beef lemon raspberry toast rice watermelon

bell pepper tuna oyster ham water bean milk chicken onion juice grapes cereal

fruits

fish

meat

grain products

E

salmon bacon clam coffee

drinks

Complete the sentences with an appropriate word from the box. Change the nouns to a plural where necessary. bar

cup

tin

piece

bowl

carton

glass

packet

MP L

1

slice

can

GRAMMAR Quantifiers

3

SA

1 I don’t wake up properly unless I drink a big ….........….....… of black coffee first thing in the morning.

2 It’s unbelievable! I wanted to have a ….........….....… of cereal, and you’ve just finished off the last ….........….....… of milk!

3 Can you pass me a couple of ….........….....… of wholegrain bread, please? I want to make myself some toast.

4 Every morning she has a ….........….....… of orange juice with some scrambled eggs for breakfast.

5 I bought you two ….........….....… of your favourite chocolate biscuits because you love them so much.

6 Could I have another ….........….....… of that apple pie, please? It was absolutely delicious!

7 Have we got any ….........….....… of beans in the cupboard? I need them for my beef chilli recipe.

8 Did you know, a ….........….....… of cola contains more sugar than ….........….....… of chocolate!

Jake and Maddy are at the supermarket. Choose the correct quantifier to complete their conversation.

Jake: Right, how much / many eggs have we got left in the fridge?

Maddy: Um, not a large deal / amount, I think we’ve only got three.

Jake: OK, I’ll get a box, then. And what about butter, do we need to get any / some?

Maddy: No, we’ve got much / lots of butter left. But we’ll need to buy some / any milk.

Jake: Wow! There are too many / much different types of milk... Do you have some / any preferences?

Maddy: Get some / many of those big bottles of semi-skimmed milk, please.

Jake: Now, what about fruit and vegetables? We haven’t got much / many bananas left, so I’ll get some / a little of those too.

Maddy: Don’t forget we haven’t got some / any onions for tonight’s curry!

Jake: There you go. How wonderful! What many / a lot of delicious-looking raspberries! Shall I get a few / a little boxes for dessert?

Maddy: Good idea. We can have them with a little / a few ice cream. I mustn’t have too many / much though, I am supposed to be on a diet!!

Jake: We haven’t got a great amount / deal of rice for this evening either. I’ll get any / some more of that too.

Maddy: Make sure you get whole wheat, it’s many / much healthier for you!

Jake: I agree. Right, time to go to the checkout. How many / much money have you got on you?

Maddy: Hmmm, about ten pounds. That’s too few / little to pay for all this stuff! Let’s pay by credit card.

9

UNIT

2

4

Match the first part of the sentence to the second part to make the list of ingredients for the recipe.

Quick and easy stir-fried beef Ingredients 1 two teaspoons of sunflower a carrots 2 some beef cut b oil 3 a cup c of broccoli florets 4 a yellow d sauce 5 two e into thin strips 6 an f bell pepper 7 a bottle of soy g few toasted sesame seeds 8 a h onion

5

n n n n n n n n

Now complete the method with the correct word from the box. add

peel

little

vegetables

wholegrain

chop

fry

lots

beef

some

7 ….........….....… them for about 2 minutes on a high heat.

8 Mix the ….........….....… into the vegetables.

9 Season with ….........….....… soy sauce, and cook and stir until the vegetables are tender.

10 Sprinkle with ….........….....… of toasted sesame seeds.

11 Serve immediately with some noodles or ….........….....… rice. Enjoy your meal!

MP L

E

1 ….........….....… the skin off the carrots and the onion.

2 ….........….....… the onion into little pieces.

3 Slice the other ….........….....… into thin strips.

4 Heat a ….........….....… sunflower oil in a large frying pan over a medium-high heat.

5 Cook the beef for ….........….....… minutes (about 3-4), then move it to one side of the pan.

6 ….........….....… the vegetables to the pan.

a few

Reading and Use of English Part 2

Read the magazine article and think of one word which best fits each gap.

SA

6

Does dieting really work? Is it good for me? How much water should I drink? How many portions of fruit and vegetables should I eat? many There are so 0 ….........….....… questions surrounding dieting, and conflicting opinions on its effectiveness. Some diets seem unrealistic, like the Orange Diet (which involves eating only oranges!), while others sound a lot 1 ….........….....… believable. Moreover, there is still a big question mark as to whether dieting is actually any good for you.

Diet or die?

One thing is certain, however, and that is unhealthy eating can lead to many health problems and a much shorter life. Heart disease, strokes and cancer 2 ….........….....… all been linked to a bad diet, and keeping cholesterol and blood sugar levels low is thought to be anti-ageing. But all things must be done in moderation. If you don’t eat enough or eat too much of the wrong things, you may end up unhealthier 3 ….........….....… you were in the first place! A common misunderstanding is that losing a large amount of weight in a short time is a good thing. On the contrary, it’s a quick fix, whilst eating healthily is a much better way of life.

So how should I lose weight?

The first step is to get checked out 4 ….........….....… a nutrition

10

specialist, who will establish whether you have any food intolerances or allergies. Otherwise you may end up eating things which are making your situation much worse. Once you get the all-clear from the specialist, make sure you eat regularly from all the food groups.

Experts believe that we should be eating 5 ….........….....… least five portions of fruits and vegetables a day in order to remain balanced and healthy. Only five? Sounds easy, right? Well, in practice, it isn’t that simple, particularly if you are not used 6 ….........….....… doing it. What counts in the five? Any fruit or non-starchy vegetable, so not potatoes. In theory, even tomato ketchup can count towards your daily five, but when you 7 ….........….....… into consideration how much salt, sugar and fat it contains, you may prefer another source (or sauce!).

Reduce the amount of red meat you eat, use white meat or a vegetable substitute instead, such as tofu. Remember to cook using olive oil rather than butter.

And never underestimate the importance of water in your diet.

When you fancy a snack, drink 8 ….........….....… water instead.

It will replace the hunger, quench your thirst and cleanse your system. All without adding a single calorie!

But most of all, remember Rome wasn’t built in a day. Start with a few small changes, and stick with them.

UNIT

VOCABULARY Prefixes and Suffixes Put the correct word into each newspaper advert. disrepair

Car for sale, one 1 ….........….....…

recycling

Donate to n!

Save the Childre f Your act o 2 … ... ... ... … ... ..…

owner.

can change lives!

preview

careful

uble sortin g out all you r 4 … .. .. .. .. .… .. .. .… ?

Let the Gre en Team help you!

The 3 ….........….....… of the new Bond film

s ♥♥

is this Sunday.

Buy your tickets now before

ilders

Bob’s Bu

.… ? .. .. .. .. .… .. .. …

6 in e s u new Is your ho as good as k o lo it e k We’ll ma again!

they run out!

MP L

Are you looking for a carin g, 5 …. .... .... …. .... … and rom antic male?

I could be the man for you!

thoughtful

Having tro

Star Cinema

♥♥ Lonely hearts ad

Complete the words in this text from a health website with the correct prefix or suffix from the table.

Each one is used only once. Change the spelling where necessary.

un-

mis-

prefixes pre-

dis-

re-

-less

suffixes -ness -able

–ful

SA

8

kindness

E

7

A grain of truth

It is a common 1 ….........….....… understanding ….........….....… that all grain products, such as bread, pasta and rice, are bad for you. They are actually full of essential vitamins and minerals as well as being a 2 ….........….....… wonder ….........….....… source of carbohydrates. Many people also believe that carbohydrates are fattening, but most doctors 3 ….........….....… agree ….........….....… . Carbohydrates are healthy when they are not eaten alongside calorie-rich fats such as oil, cheese or mayonnaise. In order to eat grain products healthily, however, you first need to 4 ….........….....… think ….........….....… the way you shop. When choosing a grain product, wholegrain has much more fibre than white, so buy brown rice and whole wheat bread whenever possible. Secondly, always read the labels on 5 ….........….....… packaged ….........….....… carbohydrates and choose products that contain only a little fat and sugar.

The fact remains that not all carbohydrates are healthy. It is 6 ….........….....… believable ….........….....… just how much fat and sugar is contained in many baked goods found in supermarkets such as croissants, doughnuts and cakes. But before you start feeling too 7 ….........….....… miser ….........….....… , here is some reassuring advice. You don’t have to give sweets up completely, just eat them in small amounts and less often. Lastly, when you prepare your rice or pasta dishes, cut down on the oil or butter used, and flavour your meals with lots of herbs and spices. Healthy eating doesn’t have to mean 8 ….........….....… taste ….........….....… food! And be encouraged by the fact that feeling good on the inside is a key to lifelong 9 ….........….....… happy ….........….....… .

11

2

Speaking Buster Speaking Test Part 1: Interview Part 1 of the Speaking Test tests your ability to use interactional language or language for social purposes, such as making introductions or answering questions about yourself.

It lasts about 2 minutes. The examiner will ask you some questions to find out where you come from, your areas of interest, your family or your studies etc. To prepare for this part, think about short answers to typical questions. Some examples are shown below.

Sample Question 1: Where are you from?

Practical Tips • Avoid

giving short, uncommunicative replies.

• Giving full answers to the examiner’s questions will help get the interview off to a good start.

Before answering Sample Question 1, think about the following:

• • •

•

its main industries • Is it clean or polluted? Quiet or noisy?

• Do you like living there? Why/Why not?

• If you are not living in your home town now, what are the main differences between your current town and your home town?

E

•

the name of your home town and where it is located Do you live in a city centre, a suburb, a town, a village, or in the countryside?

Is it near to the capital city or any major cities?

Is it inland or by the coast?

Is it well known for something (a monument, a type of food)?

SA

Now write your answer.

MP L

•

Sample Question 2: Tell me something about your family.

Practical Tips • Don’t • Give

stop after the list of your family members. some extra information about everyone.

Before answering Sample Question 2, think about the following: • •

Do you have a large or small family?

Do you have any brothers or sisters? Are they older or younger than you?

Now write your answer.

12

•

Do you live with your parents?

What do your parents do?

• Do you have any pets?

•

Speaking Part 1 Sample Question 3: Tell me something about your studies.

Before answering Sample Question 3, think about the following: •

•

•

Are you working or studying at the moment?

Where are you studying or working?

• What were you doing before you started your current work or studies?

•

Why are you studying English?

Why are you preparing for the First exam?

• How long have you been studying English?

Now write your answer.

Sample Question 4: What do you like doing in your spare time?

Do you have any hobbies?

• What kind of music do you like?

• Can you play any musical instruments?

• Do you enjoy reading?

Do you like sports?

• What sort of films do you like to watch?

• How do you like to spend your holidays?

SA

Now write your answer.

•

MP L

•

E

Before answering Sample Question 4, think about the following:

Sample Question 5: Tell me about your future plans.

Before answering Sample Question 5, think about the following: •

What sort of job would you like to do in the future?

• Do you want to live in your home country or abroad?

•

Where do you see yourself in 5 or 10 years’ time?

• Do you have any plans for a holiday this year?

Now write your answer.

13

UNIT

3

Sports Champions

VOCABULARY Sporting Words Find words in this wordsearch grid to complete the sentences.

G

A

R

I

S

A

I

L

I

N

G

N

O

T

A

O

N

B

N

C

I

A

O

M

A

T

C

H

O

L

Y

M

P

I

C

C

L

K

E

M

W

R

E

A

B

L

O

S

K

I

E

R

B

C

U

T

R

E

C

D

E

H

N

S

O

A

P

H

I

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MP L

O

SA

1

1 Among the younger generation, …...................….....… is the trendiest and most popular winter sport.

2 Rock …...................….....… can be one of the most dangerous extreme sports. It requires specialised equipment and amazing physical and mental strength.

3 It is common knowledge that Germany’s …...................….....… , Manuel Neuer, is one of the best in the world.

The amount of great saves he made in the last football world cup was astonishing.

4 France will face Italy in the European Championship final football …...................….....… on Saturday.

5 The …...................….....… races had to be delayed by a week because the conditions at sea got a lot worse.

6 The school athletics tournament included a five-mile …...................….....… around the sports track.

7 In the 400-metre race, runners must jump over all ten …...................….....… .

8 …...................….....… gold medallist, Bradley Wiggins, is undoubtedly one of Britain’s finest cyclists.

9 American downhill …...................….....… , Lindsey Vonn, is one of the most popular and successful sportswomen of all time.

10 I was absolutely thrilled when sprinter Buthaina Yaqoubi became the first female …...................….....… ever to compete for Oman in the Olympics.

11 The …...................….....… jump is a track and field event which requires athletes to run down a board and jump as far as possible into a sandpit.

12 When I went …...................….....… in the mountains, it was the most exhilarating thing I had ever done. I soared like an eagle!

14

UNIT

Reading and Use of English Part 2

2

Read the interview below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word.

An interview with Markus Rehm, the Paralympic Long Jump World Record Holder

You obviously know that your new record distance means that you are jumping as far 6 ….........….....… the able-bodied athletes. Doesn’t that make you feel exhilarated?

Yes, and no. If I had been allowed to enter the London 2012 Olympics with the able-bodied athletes, I would probably 7 ….........….....… won the gold medal!

My last jump was 9 centimetres longer than the gold medallist, Greg Rutherford.

MP L

8 metres 40 is the furthest that a paralympian has ever 0 ….........….....… jumped, 11 centimetres further than your previous record. Your closest paralympic competitor only jumped 6.69 metres, how does that motivate you? How do you feel you could get 1 ….........….....… better? Can you jump any further?

Too 2 ….........….....… questions! Well, firstly, I’m jumping very well at the moment. Obviously, I have days when I perform better or worse, and jumps which are longer than others, but overall I’m much 3 ….........….....… competent than I was a year ago. As a long jumper, like any athlete, it’s very important to have great self-confidence. As I am very confident 4 ….........….....… my abilities at the moment, I don’t see why my performance should get any worse from now on. In fact, the sky is the limit!

doesn’t matter if the other competitors perform worse than I do. My motivation is internal. And, the other competitors are also my friends, so we actually all want 5 ….........….....…other to do well.

E

Hello Markus, how are you feeling after your last world record breaking jump? The longest jump ever!

I’m absolutely thrilled, thanks. I couldn’t feel any better!

GRAMMAR

SA

What is your motivation?

I compete to be the best I can be, not just to win. So, it

I see, doesn’t that make you feel angry?

Not angry, no. But I do feel more and more determined 8 .….....… ever. Ultimately, it is my goal, to compete with able-bodied athletes. And why not? I’m not frightened of them. Maybe they are more afraid of being beaten by me!

Comparatives and Superlatives

3

Complete the table with the correct form of the missing words. adjective/adverb/determiner

comparative

superlative

short the latest bigger the trendiest more exciting good / well bad / badly much / many less fewer

the fewest

further

15

3

UNIT

3

4

Complete these adverts with the correct adjective from the list in its superlative form. happy

Whistler, 1 ….........….....… ski resort in the USA!

bad

tall

clean

re Danes a .… .. .. .. .…

6 … .. .. .. y other than an ns.

Europea

beautiful

good (x2)

biza!

I y d Tren . . . . . … . . . . . …

A top speed of over 270 mph makes the Hennessey Venom 2 ….........….....… road car on earth!

Hero.

Quite simply 5 ….........….....… film ever made!

..

3 … . . where else any than r the sun! unde

Reach for the sky, visit Dubai and see Burj Khalifa, the world’s 4 ….........….....… building!

Install s olar pow er It’s 8 … .. .. .. .. .…

.… .. .. .…

! enhagen Visit Cop

cool

.. .. .. ..

When 7 … st o you, tru happens t urance Direct Ins ht. ything rig r e v e t u p to

.. .. .… and 9 … .. .. .. .. .… .. .. .… for the e nvironm ent!

Complete the dialogue with the correct comparative or superlative adjective or adverb. fit

far

big

bad

sorry

great

old

young

Hey Mikey. I bet you can’t hit a ball as hard as your old man, hey?

Are you kidding, Dad? Of course I can! I’m 1….........….....… than you are, and loads 2 ….........….....…

When I was your age, Son, I was 3 ….........….....… baseball player in my school!

Yeah, Dad, but that was a long time ago. Now, I’m 4 ….........….....… player ever!

Alright then, let’s have a challenge. If you can bat this baseball 5 ….........….....… than me, you’re the winner!

Great! That should be easy. You’re the 6 ….........….....… , you bat first and I’ll pitch.

Here goes... (WHACK!) That must be at least 50 yards. We’ll see who’s the 7 ….........….....… player now, eh?

Cut it out, Dad. Watch this, 8 ….........….....… hit ever...! (SMASH!) Mikey! More like 9 ….........….....… I’ve ever seen! You’ve broken the window!

Sorry, Dad...

You’ll be a lot 10 ….........….....… when Mom finds out!

E

Dad: Mikey: Dad: Mikey: Dad: Mikey: Dad: Mikey: Dad: Mikey: Dad:

good (x 2)

MP L

5

fast

6

SA

Reading and Use of English Part 3

Read the article and use the words given in capitals to form a word that fits in the gap.

Rugby World Cup 2015 Final: New Zealand 34-17 Australia In this final match of the 2015 Rugby World Cup, the firm favourites arrived for a clash of the titans. championship had seen many twists and turns There was no surprise at the final two teams, but the 0 ….........….....… beforehand, not least the astonishing performance of Japan against rugby giants, South Africa. Japan were 1 ….........….....… the underdogs in this championship, but they weren’t frightened of their bigger opponents. They played with amazing speed, agility and courage to record the most surprising, or rather 2 ….........….....… , victory the rugby world had ever seen! Returning to the current All Blacks team, this was the fourth time that New Zealand had reached the final, but the match held a particular 3 ….........….....… to many players. The team contained four centurions, all of whom were viewing the World Cup final as their moment to close their careers, including the world’s best player Dan Carter and the All Blacks most 4 ….........….....… captain of all time, Richie McCaw. This was the All Blacks at their very best, and with a point to prove. They were simply better than Australia throughout the game. They ran faster, tackled harder, kicked 5 ….........….....… and played extremely well both as individuals and, more importantly, as a team. Australia, for their part, were valiant opponents. They worked hard for the entire 80 minutes of the match and scored two excellent tries. But as 6 ….........….....… as the match was, the result was never in doubt and no one was surprised when the champions claimed their prize. Such an aggressive, physical spectacle culminated with a moment of true 7 ….........….....… , however when All Blacks player Sonny Bill Williams gave away his winner’s medal to a young fan in the crowd. The boy, who was both shocked and 8 ….........….....… , had been tackled earlier by a steward when he ran onto the pitch to congratulate his heroes. It was a day when the All Blacks reconfirmed their superiority in the rugby world.

16

CHAMPION CERTAIN SHOCK IMPORTANT SUCCESS FAR EXHILARATE TENDER THRILL

UNIT

4

Music: New Scenarios VOCABULARY

1

Read the concert advertisements from an events magazine. Match each advert to a music genre from the box. jazz

classical

country

R&B

heavy metal

reggae

rap

2 Line and rodeo 3 Tonight, a fantastic five-piece 4 Superbly soulful dance with Lisa outfit from New Orleans plays singer Kayla has McDonald and her Hill homage to Louis Armstrong plenty of funky Billy music band in on trumpet, piano, saxophone, songs lined up for The Bluegrass Tavern, guitar and drums. ….........….....… tomorrow’s concert.

Soho. ….........….....… ….........….....…

6 Brooklyn native, Little 7 And tonight, the Vienna 5 Our festival on Saturday promotes Bob Marley’s B, will be performing his Philharmonic Orchestra will be unmistakeable music and was founded in honour signature free-flowing delighting the audience with of his 1978 ‘One Love’ concert. Also playing rhymes and trip-hop Strauss waltzes, and the grand Conscience Roots and Dub Music. ….........….....… samples at the EZ Club. finale: the Blue Danube.

E

1 The most powerful and intense rock festival in the world with 10 hours of distorted electric guitar and loud, aggressive vocals! ….........….....…

….........….....…

MP L

….........….....…

2 Read the interview from a music magazine and complete it with the words from the box. sign

band

laptop

recording

gigs

deal

download

burned

upload

mainstream

release

classical

SA

Hailing from Manchester, the three members of the emerging band, Unforgettable, are lead singer and guitarist Jodie, bass player, Steve, and drummer and producer, Phil. The trio got together as a 1 ….........….....… three years ago. Their debut album Raindrop is set to be released sometime next year and is already eagerly anticipated by the music press.

Their music can certainly not be described as 2 ….........….....… . It has been classified as a mix of eighties pop and indie rock with overtones of Celtic folk music. I had the pleasure of talking to Jodie and Phil at their studio yesterday.

Int.: How did you start out as a band?

Jodie: We used to go to uni together, and we shared a house. We liked writing songs and playing together and we 3 ….............… some CDs on my 4 ….........…...… to give to our mates. They all said we were really good.

Phil: Then we decided to 5 ….........….....… a few song onto You Tube, just for a laugh, and we were shocked when they had been watched and liked by nearly half a million viewers a few days later! After a couple of weeks, we were contacted by an indie record label who wanted to 6 ….........….....… us up to a two-year 7 ….........….....… ! It was incredible. We realised then that our band had a big future ahead.

Int.: So what have you been doing in the last few weeks?

Phil: When we haven’t been 8 ….........….....… the new album, we’ve been playing 9 ….........….....… all around the UK. It’s been pretty manic actually!

Int.: What’s your main source of inspiration for songwriting?

Jodie: Well, I listen to a lot of 10 ….........….....… music, especially opera when I need to relax. I also get really inspired when I listen to country and folk music and of course the greatest singer songwriters of all time, Carole King and Bob Dylan.

Phil: I think, if anything, my influences as a drummer are ’80s electro pop and ’80s techno. I know it sounds like a strange contrast, but that’s where I find most inspiration!

Int.: Does your debut album have a 11 ….........….....… date yet?

Phil: Hopefully it will be out by the beginning of next year.

Int.: Thanks, guys, and good luck with the album! Their new single, Caught off guard will be available to buy and/or 12 ….........….....… from September 23rd.

17

UNIT

4

GRAMMAR Articles

3

Match each sentence 1-10 to its function a-j. The relevant articles have been underlined to help you.

1 On tour, the band enjoyed swimming in the Pacific Ocean and sailing down the Amazon.

2 She played the cello with such feeling last night.

3 I prefer watching musicals at the cinema.

4 Some of the best bands in the world have come from the UK. 5 The sun was so hot, that many festival goers suffered serious sunburn.

6 The Royal Albert Hall is a Victorian music theatre in London.

7 Many of the best classical musicians are from Korea.

8 Glastonbury festival is in June and lasts five days.

9 My grandfather was a conductor in an orchestra.

10 I prefer reggae to hip-hop.

4

MP L

E

a unique objects or things b before the names of theatres, galleries, museums and organisations c with days and months d nouns with a general meaning e before names of seas, rivers, mountains and deserts f before countries g before countries which end with kingdom, republic and states h before buildings which people visit i with musical instruments j with jobs and professions

Read the text and fill in the gaps with a/an, the or zero article.

SA

The King

Elvis Aaron Presley, born in 1935 in Mississippi, was 1 ….........….....… singer and one of 2 ….........….....… most important musical icons in history. When he was 13, he moved to Memphis, Tennessee, which was where his career in 3 ….........….....… music took off.

In the mid 50s, when he was nineteen years old, he recorded 4 ….........….....… song with producer Sam Phillips. He was accompanied by Scotty Moore on 5 ….........….....… guitar and Bill Black on the bass guitar.

His music was 6 ….........….....… early form of rock and roll and 7 ….........….....… mix between 8 ….........….....… country music and R&B. Subsequently, Elvis signed a record deal with RCA Victor. The first single he released with them in 1956 was Heartbreak Hotel.

It immediately became a number one hit record in 9 ….........….....… USA. Following that, Presley released many more hit singles and appeared several times on TV. He was 10 ….........….....… very handsome young man with 11 ….........….....… extraordinary voice, and combined with his mesmerising nonmainstream performance style, he quickly became one of 12 ….........….....… most popular artists in

18

13 ….........….....… world.

Then in 1956, he decided to become 14 ….........….....… actor, with his debut film Love Me Tender. During the 1960s, he both starred in many different Hollywood films and recorded 15 ….........….....… soundtrack albums. However, this career move was not considered particularly successful, and in 1968, he returned to his first love, singing and playing concerts. He went on 16 ….........….....… tour and played many sell-out gigs, including 17 ….........….....… famous televised one at 18 ….........….....… International Hotel in Las Vegas, ‘Elvis’. Sadly, Elvis’ health deteriorated due to his abuse of 19 ….........….....… prescription drugs. In 1977, at 20 ….........….....… age of 42, he died. His nickname 21 ‘….........….....… King of Rock and Roll’ lives on and his influence is still felt in 22 ….........….....… music industry today.

UNIT

5

4

Complete the dialogue with a/an, the or zero article.

Jack: Look at this. It’s my dad’s old violin. 1 ….........….....… instrument is about 150 years old, I think.

Billy: How marvellous! I’d love to hear it being played. Is it from 2 ….........….....… Italy?

Jack: No, he bought it in 3 ….........….....… Netherlands. It used to belong to 4 ….........….....… famous Dutch classical violinist.

Billy: And can he play 5 ….........….....… violin well?

Jack: Yes, he used to play in 6 ….........….....… orchestra. I think they performed 7 ….........….....… concert at 8 ….........….....… Royal Opera House once.

Billy: Fascinating! Does he still play it at 9 ….........….....… home?

Jack: Not any more. He was 10 ….........….....… painter decorator, and he damaged his hands at 11 ….........….....… work, so it hurts him too much to play now.

Billy: What 12 ….........….....… pity. Has he been to 13 ….........….....… doctor about it?

Jack: Yeah, and he’s got an appointment at 14 ….........….....… physiotherapist’s on 15 ….........….....… Friday. Actually, I uploaded a video of him playing it on 16 ….........….....… Internet. Let me show you on my phone.

Reading and Use of English Part 1

6

Read the text about streaming and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.

there are many streaming service providers who allow users to legally listen to millions of songs and create their own personal playlists for a monthly fee. Streaming services also allow people to 6 ….........….....… their own radio, receive news about new releases and share their playlists.

One of the most publicised music streaming services is TIDAL. It delivers high-quality music and high-definition videos to its users. It boasts more than 35 million tracks and over 80,000 music videos. The company was 7 ….........….....… in 2014 in Sweden and was subsequently taken over by famous American rapper and record producer, Jay Z. Wanting to relaunch it as an artist-owned streaming service, Jay Z was joined by a star-studded group including Beyoncé, Kanye West, and Madonna to help promote it.

TIDAL has higher subscription fees than the other streaming services, but claims this is so because it pays the highest percentage of royalties to the artists and songwriters.

Critics suggest that the high 8 ….........….....… of the service may encourage more people to download music illegally, thus increasing piracy.

SA

MP L

delivers Streaming is a technology which 0 ….........….....…

Internet content and data, usually in the form of audio and video, to computers and mobile devices. At 1 ….........….....… it is the quickest way to access Internet-based content, and allows users to listen to or watch music and videos in ‘real time’ instead of downloading a file 2 ….........….....… their computer.

The advantages of streaming is that users do not have to store a large 3 ….........….....… of memory-consuming data onto their devices. However, a slow or poor Internet connection can make streaming near to impossible.

Buffering is a streaming program’s way of temporarily storing the next 4 ….........….....… minutes of content while the current content is being watched. If there is a slow internet connection, the consequences are that the buffer cannot work quickly enough and the video will either be of poor quality or constantly interrupted.

Audio streaming allows users to access a huge quantity of songs either via a mobile device, a PC or even through a home audio system. There are many illegal sites which allow users to stream free of charge, but users risk steep 5 ….........….....… or even criminal records. Nowadays,

E

Audio and video streaming

0 A gives 1 A moment 2 A onto 3 A quantity 4 A many 5 A costs 6 A customise 7 A founded 8 A amount

B delivers B current B into B size B small B fines B manufacture B born B total

C makes C present C to C weight C much C tickets C hand-build C made C cost

D does D now D in D number D few D invoices D mould D stabilised D number

19

Speaking Buster Speaking Test Part 2: Long turn Part 2 of the Speaking Test tests ability to speak at length coherently and use language to describe, contrast and comment upon a topic.

Part 2 lasts about 4 minutes (6 minutes for groups of three). The examiner gives you two photographs and gives your partner a different pair of photographs. You have to speak about your two photos for 1 minute without interruption and also answer a question about your partner’s photographs (30 seconds) when he or she has finished their long turn.

Sample Question: In this part of the test I’m going to give each of you two photographs.

I’d like you to talk about your photographs on your own for about 1 minute and also to answer a short question about your partner’s photographs.

(Talking to Candidate A) Here are your photographs. They show people involved in arts activities. I’d like you to compare the two photographs and say why art is important to people.

Practical Tips • Listen

MP L

E

Notice that there are two tasks here: first to compare the two photographs, second to say why art is important to people.

In Part 2 candidates need to show they can compare and contrast, but also give an opinion.

to the instructions carefully. sure you know what you have to talk about.

• If you have doubts about the instructions, ask the examiner to repeat them: ‘Excuse me, could you say that again please?’

‘Would you mind repeating that, please?’

SA

• Make

Before answering the question, think about the following: • • • • • •

Remember you only have one minute.

Try to keep talking; avoid any long gaps.

The pictures may show anything: a building, a landscape, a town, a person (or a group of people) doing something.

You can keep looking at the photographs while you are talking.

You might start by giving a brief description of each of the pictures. You do not have to describe them in detail.

To refer to the pictures you can use different ways.

For example: - the first picture (referring to the one on the left or on top) shows... ; - the second/other picture (referring to the one on the right or at the bottom) shows... ; - the picture on the left / the left-hand picture describes; - the picture on the right / the right-hand picture describes... ; - the top picture / the picture on the top / the upper picture is about... ; - the bottom picture / the picture at the bottom / the lower picture is about... .

20

Speaking Part 2 Useful phrases To describe, compare and contrast the pictures, you can use the following: •

What strikes me about the first picture is the fact that...

• This picture reminds me of...

• Judging from the photograph, the children...

• The woman appears to be... / From what we can see here, she must...

• • • • • • • • • • •

There are many similarities...

Both pictures depict... / Both pictures are quite similar in that they show...

When you give it a closer look it reveals...

The first picture... whereas the other picture...

Another important difference is... / Picture... doesn’t show... as clearly as...

Picture... attempts to... but I think picture... does this more effectively...

All the pictures are interesting, but... gives a stronger idea of...

It’s difficult to tell from a photograph but this picture could have been taken in...

I might be wrong, but I’d say that this picture...

I would imagine / guess that this picture comes from...

Picture... is by far the best to show because...

A picture of... would get the message across more effectively…

The name for this escapes me at present, but it’s for / it’s like…

E

•

MP L

•

SA

Now look at pictures A and B and write your answer below.

Picture A

Picture B

21

Practice Test 1 - Paper 1 Reading and Use of English Part 1

For questions 1-8, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. There is an example at the beginning (0).

Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet.

Example: 0 A sites 0

B places

C webs

D locations

A B C D

Friend or burglar?

E

Users of well-known social networking (0) ............... have been warned they may have to pay more for their house (1) ……… . This is because there is (2) ............... that burglars use the sites to find out personal details about potential targets and information like when people will be (3) ............... on holiday.

MP L

Burglars can use the networking sites to develop relationships with people who they can then (4) ............... as people to burgle. An experiment found that many users (5) ............... complete strangers as followers when they made a friend request. Also, about 40% of users of the most popular social networking sites have such low security settings that their personal information can be seen by anyone.

SA

Users of these sites can’t help boasting about their holiday plans or expensive new home gadgets they’ve (6) ............... . Users also give away information about when their house will be empty when they complain about working long hours or how long their journey to work takes.

All this information makes life very (7) ............... for thieves. Graham Jones who works for an Internet security company said he has seen people sending messages about what a wonderful time they’re having on holiday in the Caribbean on a website that has their home address. He says people need to be more (8) ............... of just who has access to the information they post on networking websites.

1

A assurance

B insurance

C protection

D cover

2

A findings

B research

C clues

D evidence

3

A gone

B away

C out

D outside

4

A target

B aim

C choose

D decide

5

A let

B allowed

C agreed

D accepted

6

A purchased

B found

C used

D sold

7

A difficult

B clear

C good

D easy

8

A know

B aware

C willing

D open

76

Practice Test 1 - Paper 1 Reading and Use of English Part 2

For questions 9-16, read the text below and think of the word that best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap. There is an example at the beginning (0).

Write your answers IN CAPITAL LETTERS on the separate answer sheet.

Example: 0

I NTO

Recycling

E

Recycling involves taking used materials and turning them (0) ............... new products. It is not a new concept; people have been recycling for hundreds of years but (9) ............... rising energy costs since the 1970s it has become more of a necessity and is now common practice. The idea of recycling is (10) ............... prevent waste and reduce the consumption of new fresh raw materials.

MP L

The (11) ............... common materials which are recycled are paper and glass. Some plastics, metals and textiles can also be recycled as well as some electronic equipment.

It is now typical to separate household waste into materials (12) ............... can and can’t be recycled. Recycling points (13) ............... glass, paper etc. can be taken to are now common sights in many major towns and cities.

SA

In theory recycling seems obvious; however, in practice it is (14) ............... always cost-effective.

Often the cost of collection and transportation is greater (15) ............... the cost of the energy saved. It also means there are fewer jobs available in industries (16) ............... as mining, as demand for raw materials is lower. As a result, recycling is a controversial topic. However, with more government legislation and more incentives being introduced, recycling is clearly on the increase.

77

Practice Test 1 - Paper 1 Reading and Use of English Part 3

For questions 17-24 read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. There is an example at the beginning (0).

Write your answers IN CAPITAL LETTERS on the separate answer sheet.

Example: 0

AC COUN T AN T

Advertising for work

MP L

E

An out of work (0) ............... was seen advertising his services on a placard outside a busy London station last week. This (17) ............... tactic is reminiscent of scenes from New York’s Wall Street during the great (18) ............... of the 1930s. Daniel Bell decided to try this drastic approach after months of looking for a job using more (19) ............... methods. He said he had sent out hundreds of CVs and applied to over 70 different jobs but only had five interviews, none of which were successful.

Now he says he has nothing to lose and hopes to impress prospective (20) ............... with his initiative.

SA

He plans to stand outside the station with his sign during the rush hour and gives out business cards for as long as it takes to get a job. After just two days he has received three (21) ............... to attend interviews so the plan seems to be working. He admits, however, that his (22) ............... has received mixed (23) ............... . ‘Most people seem embarrassed and try to look the other way, while others (24) ............... think I am being ridiculous and more than one person openly pointed and laughed at me.

I don’t care though,’ he says, ‘they might find themselves being made redundant by the end of the month. It feels good to be doing something positive.’

78

ACCOUNT USUAL DEPRESS TRADITION

EMPLOY

INVITE PRESENT REACT CLEAR

Practice Test 1 - Paper 1 Reading and Use of English Part 4

For questions 25-30, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words, including the word given. Here is an example (0).

Example: 0 I haven’t seen him for at least 2 years.

TIME The ……………………………………….........................………… was more than 2 years ago.

The gap can be filled by the words ‘last time I saw him’, so you write: Example: 0

L AS T

T I ME

I

S AW

H I M

Write only the missing words IN CAPITAL LETTERS on the separate answer sheet.

E

25 ‘I’m really sorry I lost your scarf, I promise I’ll buy you a new one,’ she said to me.

LOSING She ……………………………………….........................………… and promised to buy a new one.

MP L

26 I’ve reached a decision about what I’m going to do next year.

UP I’ve ……………………………………….........................………… about what I’m going to do next year.

We need to have the house decorated before we can sell it.

DECORATING The house ……………………………………….........................………… before we can sell it.

28

It might get cold later so I’d take a jumper if I were you.

CASE You should ……………………………………….........................………… it gets cold later.

29

You failed the exam because you didn’t pay attention in class.

PAID You wouldn’t have failed the exam ……………………………………….........................………… attention in class.

30

Unfortunately, Mike turned down our offer of a job.

NOT Unfortunately, Mike ……………………………………….........................………… our offer of a job.

SA

27

79

Practice Test 1 - Paper 1 Reading and Use of English Part 5

You are going to read an article written by a 75-year-old retired engineer, in which he explains why he has recently started to do regular exercise. For questions 31-36 choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text.

Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet.

There’s no age limit for working out!

Exercise is good for us. This statement is widely accepted and believed by just about everyone. We know that regular exercise improves muscle tone and function and increases our level of fitness; it improves our physical well-being. I’ve known that for a long time but never quite managed to find the time in my busy life to do regular exercise. I have never been overweight or felt particularly unhealthy so I didn’t feel a great need to exercise. What changed my mind at the age of 75 and made me start exercising was reading an article which said that exercise can combat the effects of ageing and improve memory.

MP L

E

Exercise increases oxygen-rich blood flow to the brain and according to the article I read the benefits of this increased blood flow are especially evident for the middle aged and elderly. It’s well-known that, in general, exercise improves the heart’s ability to pump blood more effectively and increase the amount of oxygen it can carry. The theory is that the elderly and particularly those with coronary artery disease and hypertension often notice loss of memory and a general decline in mental ability because of a reduction in blood flow to the brain. It seems likely that while exercise improves muscle tone and function it has a similar effect on the brain increasing blood flow. One of the benefits of an increased blood flow to areas at the front of the brain is improved memory. And the really good news is that apparently the positive effects of exercise on the brain are immediate and long-lasting.

SA

The points discussed in the article had a real effect on me. At my age news like that shouldn’t be taken lightly. I thought, well, I’ve got nothing to lose, so I got myself along to the local gym and asked what they would advise an old man like me to do to keep fit. They were extremely encouraging and helpful, I had been worried they might laugh in my face and send me to the old people’s home for yoga classes but not at all. They took me very seriously and gave me a proper assessment, then together we came up with an exercise regime for me. I didn’t want to overdo it and I had read that just half an hour of exercise three times a week is sufficient to cause a significant increase in brain power. With that in mind we decided I should start with some gentle exercise on the exercise bike followed by some brisk walking and light jogging on the running machine; a total of 40 minutes exercise 3 times a week. I don’t use the weights but now I’m getting more used to it, I’m starting to do ten minutes or so on some of the other machines like the cross-trainer, the stepper and the rowing machine and I really enjoy it. I don’t just confine my exercise to the gym. About once a week I go swimming, which is something I’ve always enjoyed and done irregularly throughout my life. And if it’s a nice day I go for a good brisk walk in the park. I’ve never been much interested in team sports and it’s unrealistic to think that at my age I might suddenly start playing football or tennis or something and I hate the idea of golf, so for me the gym and plain simple exercise is perfect. And does it work? Well, yes I think it does. Since I retired I had started to feel more and more forgetful but now I definitely suffer from that frustration a lot less. I’m sure doing exercise has had a positive effect on my mental health; I simply feel more alert.

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Practice Test 1 - Paper 1 Reading and Use of English Part 5

Why didn’t he do exercise when he was younger?

A He planned to do exercise after he retired when he had more time.

B He didn’t feel like it was necessary for him.

C He didn’t like the idea of doing sport.

D He didn’t know about the positive effects of exercise.

32

According to the article he read doing exercise helps combat the aging process because A it means that you breathe in more oxygen.

B it makes muscles stronger and function better.

C it means that less blood and oxygen reach the brain.

D it means that more blood and oxygen reach the brain.

33

How did he feel when he went to the gym for the first time?

A enthusiastic B nervous C impatient D amused

34

What did the people at the gym do when he asked them for advice?

A They helped him plan what sort of exercise he should do and for how long.

B They told him to start with yoga classes.

C They warned him not to exercise too much.

D They suggested doing a little exercise every day.

35

Why does he say ‘so for me the gym and plain simple exercise is perfect’ in line 30?

A Because he doesn’t like exercising outside.

B Because he’s too old to do other sorts of sport he likes.

C Because he prefers to exercise by himself.

D Because he was never good at other sports.

36

How does he feel since he’s started doing exercise?

A frustrated B tired C more intelligent D less forgetful

SA

MP L

E

31

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Practice Test 1 - Paper 1 Reading and Use of English Part 6

You are going to read an article about what makes a good manager. Six sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-G the one which fits each gap (37-42). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use.

Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet.

Being a Good Manager To be an effective manager I think it is important to be optimistic and able to instil a positive attitude in the workforce; the worst kind of manager is one who allows or even encourages a bad feeling in the workplace.

39 As a result we all lacked confidence in the whole organisation and the office became a very negative environment to work in. It’s a manager’s responsibility to keep workers’ spirits high and create a pleasant atmosphere. Having a naturally optimistic and friendly personality helps.

MP L

E

Being a good manager of people requires excellent communication and interpersonal skills. All people are different and in a working environment there will always be a great mix of personalities and skills. 37 Like everything in life though, experience brings knowledge and in my many years as both an employee and a manager in various charity organisations I have come to recognise the qualities and skills which make an efficient manager.

SA

I’ve worked with lots of different people in the past and I think I have experienced all sorts of different types of managers. There are those who are very controlling and always telling you what to do while at the other extreme there are those who are nowhere to be seen. 38 I think it’s important to let people work on their own and not interfere too much; ideally you want to promote assertiveness and self-confidence in your workers and if you are always watching over them and checking up on them they will not develop these skills. At the same time it is not helpful to leave your workers completely alone. The manager is there to oversee things and make sure everything runs smoothly, if employees have a problem or need help they should always be able to ask for it, and the manager should be able to provide it. A line manager who is not available to staff when they need them is of no use at all.

82

The best types of managers are those who can accept the responsibility they have been given. If something goes wrong a good manager will take the blame; they are responsible for the team and if the team, or any individual within it, is not performing well then it is ultimately the manager’s fault. 40 They must also then do all they can to solve any unsatisfactory situations and deal with dissatisfaction from higher up in the organisation on the team’s behalf.

One thing which managers often do not do enough is give praise. Praise is a very effective management tool and should be exploited as much as possible. 41 Managers who give a lot of praise are also in a much better situation to criticise when work is not of a satisfactory standard. It is important that employees receive positive as well as negative feedback on their performance;

Practice Test 1 - Paper 1

B

E

Finally, empathy is an enormously important quality when working as a manager of people. The basic rule of ‘treat others as you would expect others to treat you’ is fundamental. It’s important to try to put yourself in your colleagues’ situation and try and appreciate how they are feeling and then act accordingly.

ing about and criticising the directors of the company.

They should never promise anything that is not possible as this will lead to disappointment and undermine confidence in the company.

E

Now that I work as a manager myself I try to be neither too controlling nor too distant.

Managers should look for examples of good work and congratulate workers accordingly.

F

Managers choose and develop their team and so must accept responsibility for the bad as well as the good results of their efforts.

G

An efficient team makes the most of all the skills different individuals bring to it.

SA

A

their personal expertise; this not only resulted in the jobs not being done well, and therefore reduced efficiency, but also great dissatisfaction among workers and clients.

For example, someone with excellent computer skills but poor public speaking skills should not be asked to go into schools and universities to give presentations. At the same time it is essential to share knowledge and experience so that the team as a whole develop existing skills and individuals learn new ones.

MP L

the more feedback there is the more aware workers will be of what is expected of them and positive feedback helps increase motivation. Connected to this last point is the ability to judge on merit. Managers must be able to separate their personal feelings for individuals from their assessment of their work. It is really important to see team members’ actions objectively. Any feelings of favouritism or discrimination can be very harmful to the team.

Managers need to be able to recognise the strengths and weaknesses of their employees and use them appropriately. This includes recognising their own strengths and weaknesses. 42 Managers need to be flexible in their approach to assigning work so that tasks are assigned to those best suited to doing them. I have worked for an organisation where work was given to individuals based on the time of the day they were available to work rather than

C

Efficiently managing a team of people is no easy task and there will be many challenging moments.

D

In the past I have worked in an office where my line manager was constantly complain-

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Practice Test 1 - Paper 1 Reading and Use of English Part 7

You are going to read an article in which four people talk about their work as teachers. For questions 43-52 choose from the people (A-D). The people may be chosen more than once. When more than one answer is required they may be given in any order.

Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet.

Which person or people: 43

no longer works as a teacher?

44

has taught in many different countries?

45

mentions the qualities which are important to be a good teacher?

46

E

has been a teacher the longest?

says they became a teacher because they were not happy in their previous job?

MP L

says they like working as a teacher because their job is always interesting?

47 48

49 50

says they have had a number of different jobs?

51

says that they had been interested in teaching from a young age?

52

SA

mentions a difficulty of their subject?

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Practice Test 1 - Paper 1

A Career in Teaching C

Anna

Sally I have been teaching for 3 years now and decided to train to be a food technology teacher after working in the food industry for 5 years. I was fed up with working long hours, knowing the end result was making profit for the company I was working for at the time rather than giving me satisfaction.

I have also always loved my subject — Home Economics, Food technology and Cookery — and wanted the opportunity to use my experience and knowledge to inspire and help others. Friends had put me off going into teaching previously due to the notorious heavy workload. It has been the most rewarding and challenging job of my career and I now couldn’t imagine doing anything else. I am lucky with my subject because progress and success are instant in practical cookery lessons; giving plenty of opportunity to praise pupils and raise their confidence.

There have been very difficult times in my teaching career, especially the first year, when learning the work-life balance was impossible to grasp; this in conjunction with challenging behavioural issues was a steep learning curve, but I am pleased I persevered. Over time teaching got easier and I think it is the most fulfilling, satisfying profession I could do. The odd pupil that walks out of the class and says ‘thanks for a great lesson, Miss’ or the look on a pupil’s face when his bread comes out of the oven, makes the hard work worth while.

B

Valerie

SA

MP L

I first got into teaching 4 years ago when I decided to quit my office job and do a bit of travelling. I’d heard of the CELTA qualification to teach English to adults and thought it would be a great way to see the world. I’d also been interested in teaching since I was at school and with the CELTA thought it would be a perfect combination — teaching and travel. Since completing the course I’ve spent time teaching in the UK, Austria, Poland and Spain and have loved every minute. I’ve taught people of all ages and levels. I’d say the main thing I enjoy about teaching is the fact that you’re able to engage with people from different countries, all of whom have different backgrounds and experiences, and I feel that this therefore makes teaching an interesting, varied profession. I think the thing I found the most frustrating was probably going into different schools and trying to teach children and teenagers who were not interested in learning English and only there because their parents had made them.

However, this meant there was always a challenge in trying to find material that these students would be interested in and a job where you don’t have challenges I imagine would be rather boring.

I’ve recently started working as a primary school teacher, which I’m really enjoying. I look back on my time teaching abroad with a lot of fondness and for this reason it is something I would definitely like to do again in the future.

E

A

I love teaching because it is never boring. I have been a teacher for over twenty years and I still enjoy my day–to–day work. I teach Science to students aged eleven to sixteen. This sometimes involves explaining difficult concepts and examining ethical questions which some students find very difficult.

It is very stimulating working with young people and their enthusiasm and optimism can be quite infectious. To be a good teacher you need to be very knowledgeable about your subject. You must have a good sense of humour and be fair and consistent in your dealings with other people, but most of all you must be a good communicator.

There are lots of teachers who know their subject very well but unless you can enthuse your students and build their confidence and self-esteem you will never be an inspirational teacher.

D

Joanna After studying languages at university, I was unsure what I wanted to do for a living. I worked for a year in a nursery school and, in my spare time, volunteered for a charity that sends people on projects in developing countries. I put together a programme of induction for the volunteers, to prepare them for going on their projects. I soon decided that I would like to do this as a full-time job, but I needed to get a qualification in education and some more experience. I took a postgraduate teacher training course and worked for three years teaching languages in a secondary school. During that time, I got very involved in global education — teaching schoolchildren about global issues and how they affect people in developing countries.

After three years of teaching, I got a job managing a global education centre. I co-ordinated and contributed to a programme of workshops for children and training for teachers. A further three years later, the charity I had volunteered for could afford to give me a full-time job, and I’ve been working there for two years now.

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Practice Test 1 - Paper 2 Writing Part 1

You must answer this question. Write your answer in 140-190 words in an appropriate style.

1

In your English class you have been talking about technology. Now your English teacher has asked you to write an essay for homework.

Write your essay using all the notes and giving reasons for your point of view.

SA

MP L

Notes Write about: 1 working at own speed 2 having no help 3 ………….. (your own idea)

E

Some people think that in a not-so-far future technology will replace humans in many activities, even in teaching. Do students think this will really happen? What could the pros and cons be for them?

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Practice Test 1 - Paper 2 Writing Part 2

Write an answer to one of the questions 2-5 in this part. Write your answer in 140-190 words in an appropriate style.

2

Your teacher has asked you to write a story for an international magazine. The story must begin with the following words:

As soon as I closed the door behind me, all the lights came on.

Write your story.

3

You have seen this announcement on an international student website:

My favourite freetime activity

MP L

E

What do you like to do when you’re not studying? What is your favourite hobby, why do you enjoy it so much and what does it involve? How did you begin and how much time do you spend doing it?

We’ll publish the best articles on the website next month.

Write your article.

4

An international film magazine you read is looking for reviews with the following title: ‘The last film I watched’. You have decided to write a review for the magazine. Describe the film and say what you think about it. Would you recommend it to other people?

Write your review.

5

Answer the following question based on the set book you have read.

SA

Sometimes we are not satisfied with the way a book ends. Describe the ending of the book and say whether you were pleased that it ended that way, or whether you would have preferred a different ending.

Write your essay.

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Practice Test 1 - Paper 3 Listening Part 1

1

You’ll hear people talking in eight different situations. For questions 1-8, choose the best answer (A, B or C).

1

You A B C

2

You hear a woman complaining about something. What is she complaining about?

A types of mobile phones B teenagers C the public transport system

3

You A B C

hear somebody talking on the phone. What is the purpose of their phone call? to complain to arrange to meet someone to apologise

4

You A B C

hear somebody talking in a shop. What kind of shop is it? a health food shop a greengrocer’s a chemist’s

5

You A B C

hear a man talking about his sister. What is his sister’s biggest fault?

She talks too much.

She’s too serious.

She gets easily annoyed.

6

You A B C

hear 2 people talking. What is their relationship?

They’re related.

They go to college together.

They go to the same gym.

7

You hear a man talking to his partner on the phone. When is he going to leave work?

A 8.30 B 8 C 9.30

8

What is the speaker describing?

A a documentary B a visit to a national park C a friend’s holiday

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SA

MP L

E

hear someone talking about something he saw on television. What did he see? a magic trick a drama a sporting event

Practice Test 1 - Paper 3 Listening Part 2

2

You’ll hear an information announcement about facilities offered at Blackpool Airport.

For questions 9-18, complete the sentences.

Blackpool Airport The majority of check-in desks at Blackpool Airport are located on of the terminal building.

9

UK, London and German flights operate from check-in Area 14, which is located on a level beneath 10

Ensure that carry-on luggage does not contain any liquids, gels or pastes that

E

11

Airline staff are on hand if you

MP L

12

Enjoy the comfort and relaxing atmosphere of the Eric Morecambe Lounge for up to three hours for only 13 A left luggage facility is available in the

14

SA

Those collecting keys from the car key holding facility must have when collecting the keys.

16

is served from 4 am.

The airport is conveniently located approximately centre.

18

15

17

of Blackpool city

passengers travelled through Blackpool Airport last year.

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Practice Test 1 - Paper 3 Listening Part 3

3

You will hear five different actors talking about their first stage performance. For questions 19-23 choose from the list A-F to say what each person felt during the performance. Use the letters only once. There is one extra letter which you do not need to use.

A

nervous

Speaker 1

19

B

proud

Speaker 2

20

C

excited

Speaker 3

21

D

calm

Speaker 4

22

E

exhausted

Speaker 5

23

SA

MP L

E

F sick

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Practice Test 1 - Paper 3 Listening Part 4

4

You will hear an interview with the creator of a web-based music service. For questions 24-30, choose the best answer (A, B or C).

Why is MusicFlow popular with record companies?

A It gives users instant access.

B It is completely legal.

C It has a very big catalogue of music.

25

What is one of Steven Pride’s faults?

A working too hard B being a pirate C going to sleep at inappropriate times

26

Why does he admire the Beatles?

A Because of how many good songs they recorded.

B Because they inspired Oasis.

C Because of their business acumen.

27

Whose is the latest album you can listen to on MusicFlow?

A Little Feat’s B The Black Keys’ C Leonard Cohen’s

28

Where does Steven Pride think most people hear about new music?

A from websites B from friends C from the radio

29

What was the first challenge he faced?

A making deals with record companies B adding all the new songs C fighting music piracy

30

Who does he believe MusicFlow’s main competitors are?

A Geezer B Phapster C nobody

SA

MP L

E

24

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Practice Test 1 - Paper 4 Speaking

Part 1 2 minutes (3 minutes for groups of three) • •

What’s your name? (Candidate A) (Repeat for Candidate B)

• • • •

Where are you from? / Where do you live? (Candidate A) What do you like about living in … ?

And you (Candidate B) Where are you from? / Where do you live?

What do you like about living in … ?

Choose questions from the sections below; ask different questions to each candidate, in any order.

Free time and interests

• •

E

What do you like doing at weekends?

Do you prefer to spend your free time alone or with friends? Why? How much of your free time do you spend with your family? What sorts of things do you do together?

Do you have any hobbies that you’ve done for a long time? What?

Do you enjoy trying new activities? Have you tried anything new recently?

Daily routine

•

Do you prefer getting up early in the morning or staying up late at night? Why? What’s your favourite day of the week? Why? Do you spend a lot of time at home? What do you do there?

Do you prefer to have the same routine every day or do you prefer to do different things every day? Why? Is there anything you’d like to change about your daily routine?

SA

• • • •

MP L

• • •

Future plans • • • • •

92

What are you planning to do for your next holiday?

Is there anything you’d like to study in the future? (What? Why?) What job would you like to be doing in 10 years time?

Would you like to live abroad in the future?

Is there anything you’re really looking forward to in the next few weeks? (What? Why?)

Practice Test 1 - Paper 4 Speaking

Part 2 4 minutes (6 minutes for groups of three) Interlocutor

In this part of the test I’m going to give each of you two different photographs.

I’d like you to talk about your photographs on your own for about a minute, and also to answer a question about your partner’s photographs.

(Candidate A) It’s your turn first. Here are your photographs. They show people travelling to work. Compare the photos and say what the advantages and disadvantages are of these different ways of travelling to work.

Look at page 94.

Candidate A  approximately

….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........…....

1 minute

Thank you.

MP L

Interlocutor

E

(Candidate B) Have you ever spent time at the beach?

Candidate B

….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........…....

Interlocutor

Thank you.

Now (Candidate B) it’s your turn, here are your photographs; they show people and animals.

SA

 20-30 seconds

Compare the photos and say why you think the people are enjoying spending time with these animals.

Look at page 95.

Candidate B  approximately

….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........…....

1 minute

Interlocutor

Thank you.

(Candidate A) Which one of these animals would you like to keep as a pet?

Candidate A  20-30 seconds

….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........…....

Interlocutor

Thank you.

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Practice Test 1 - Paper 4

SA

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E

1

94

Practice Test 1 - Paper 4

SA

MP L

E

2

95

Practice Test 1 - Paper 4 Speaking

21 Helping the environment and wildlife

Part 3 4 minutes (5 minutes for groups of three) Part 4 4 minutes (6 minutes for groups of three)

Part 3 Now, I’d like you to talk about something together for about two minutes.

(3 minutes for groups of three).

Imagine your school’s environmental group has decided to do something to help the environment and local wildlife. Here are some of the suggestions for what the group can do and a question for you to discuss. First you have some time to look at the task.

(The Interlocutor will show the candidates the page with Task 21 and will allow 15 seconds.)

Now, talk to each other about how these activities might help the environment and local wildlife.

Candidates  2 minutes Interlocutor

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E

Interlocutor

….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........…....

Thank you. Now you have about a minute to decide which two would be the most effective.

….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........….....…….........…....

Interlocutor

Thank you.

Part 4

SA

Candidates  1 minute

Interlocutor

Use the following questions, in order, as appropriate: • • • • • •

How important is it to protect the environment? Why? Do you learn about environmental issues at school?

Do people in your country regularly recycle waste?

Do you think we do enough to protect the environment?

What wildlife species are endangered in your country?

What is your country and/or your local community doing to help them?

Thank you. That is the end of the test.

96

recycling waste at home and at public buildings

clearing parks and beaches

MP L

SA raising money for wildlife sanctuaries

E

How might these activities help the environment and local wildlife?

planting trees and bushes

preventing forest fires

Practice Test 1 - Paper 4

Speaking Task 21

97