Test Bank For Introduction to Mass Communication, 12th Edition Stanley Baran Chapter 1-15 Answer are

Test Bank For Introduction to Mass Communication, 12th Edition Stanley Baran Chapter 1-15 Answer are at the End of Each Chapter

Chapter 1 Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Communication requires a sharing of meaning. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) When a professor lectures to a large class of students, this is an example of mass communication. ⊚ ⊚

3)

Evening news, documentary, horror film, and gossip magazine are examples of genres. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

If you explain an idea to a friend in a letter, you have encoded your message. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

From the beginning, newspapers have been an advertiser-supported medium. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

true false

Biases and predispositions are common forms of noise.

⊚ ⊚

7)

People rarely succeed in contesting the dominant culture. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

Different bounded cultures can share a common dominant culture. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

true false

Americans maintain a good deal of trust in their mass media system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) An understanding of and respect for the power of media messages is an important media literacy skill. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Genres are such things as choice of lighting, editing, special effects, camera angle, and size and placement of a headline. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) You just watched 5 episodes ofStranger Things in one long Saturday night. You have engaged in binge watching. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13)

Media literacy is a skill that can be acquired and developed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14) Communication is best defined as A) the encoding of a message intended for a recipient.

B) conversation between two or a few people.

C) the process of creating shared meaning.

D) the product of large media industries.

15)

Which of the following is true of feedback?

A) Feedback is the response to a given communication.

B) Feedback is distortion typically attributed to electronic equipment.

C) Feedback is sometimes present in communication.

D) Feedback is rarely present in communication.

16)

Communication between two or a few people is A) mass communication.

B) feedback.

C) interpersonal communication.

D) reciprocal communication.

17) When messages are transformed into an understandable sign and symbol system by a participant in the communication process, ________ is said to have occurred.

A) noise B) encoding C) decoding D) feedback

18) When signs and symbols are interpreted by a participant in the communication process,________ is said to have occurred.

A) noise B) encoding C) decoding D) feedback

19)

Anything that interferes with successful communication is said to be A) noise.

B) encoding.

C) decoding.

D) feedback.

20)

In communication, the means by which messages are carried is A) the feedback loop.

B) encoding.

C) decoding.

D) the medium.

21)

The process of creating shared meaning between the mass media and their audiences is

A) mass communication.

B) feedback.

C) interpersonal communication.

D) encoding.

22)

In mass communication, feedback is typically A) instant and direct.

B) quite powerful.

C) absent.

D) delayed and inferential.

23)

Large, hierarchically structured organizations are typical of A) mass communication.

B) feedback.

C) interpersonal communication.

D) noise.

24)

Ongoing and reciprocal messages are characteristic of A) mass communication.

B) feedback.

C) interpersonal communication.

D) noise.

25) "Communication is a symbolic process whereby reality is produced, maintained, repaired, and transformed" is

A) the cultural definition of communication.

B) a sophisticated definition of feedback.

C) interpersonal communication when it works well.

D) the biological definition of communication.

26) No matter what the newspaper says about your favored candidate for mayor, you believe it is underselling her candidacy, including the articles that claim to support her. You may be suffering from A) the hostile media effect.

B) confirmation bias.

C) noise.

D) negative feedback.

27)

Culture is A) opera, theater, and symphonic music.

B) communication between two or a few people.

C) the learned behavior of members of a given social group.

D) the improvement of public tastes.

28) The culture that seems to hold sway with the majority of a given people is the ________ culture.

A) primary B) bounded C) dominant D) transformed

29) Groups with specific but not dominant cultures that exist as part of those larger cultures are ________ cultures.

A) secondary B) bounded C) minority D) transformed

30)

Culture is constructed and maintained through A) the mass media.

B) feedback.

C) encoding and decoding.

D) communication.

31)

The idea that machines and their development drive economic and cultural change is A) technological determinism.

B) manifest destiny.

C) technological despotism.

D) latent destiny.

32) Lasswell's model of communication is expressed as "Who Says What in Which Channel ________ with What Effect."

A) with How Much Noise B) to Whom C) Using Which Medium D) to Which Interpreter

33) The Osgood and Schramm conception of the mass communication process replaces source and receiver with

A) initiator and destination.

B) interpreters.

C) decoders.

D) Participant A and Participant B.

34) Culture is the world made meaningful; it is socially constructed and maintained through communication. It limits as well as liberates us; it differentiates as well as unites us. It defines our realities and thereby A) shapes the ways we think, feel, and act.

B) tells us what is true and false.

C) creates a national togetherness.

D) offers us hope for a unified future.

35) We can think of mass communication as a giant courtroom where, as a people, we discuss and debate our culture—what it is and what we want it to be. This view sees mass communication as a A) cultural storyteller.

B) repository of cultural understanding.

C) cultural forum.

D) unrelenting agent of change.

36) If we apply the standard model of capitalism to prime-time television programming, the television network is the producer,________ are the product, and advertisers are the consumers.

A) the programs B) the commercials C) audiences D) the actors

37) In Schramm's model of mass communication, messages from media organizations to mass audiences are characterized as A) delayed and inferential.

B) expertly decoded.

C) many and identical.

D) difficult to interpret.

38) The differences between the individual elements of interpersonal and mass communication change the________ the communication process.

A) purpose of B) noise in C) outcome of D) nature of

39) The ability to effectively and efficiently comprehend and use any form of mediated communication is A) conversationalism.

B) literacy.

C) comprehensibility.

D) media literacy.

40) A newspaper story mistakenly reports that the mayor was indicted for fraud, later correcting its account to say she was arrested, not indicted. This does not classify as fake news because A) there really isn’t much difference between the termsarrested andindicted.

B) despite the error, the crux of the story is true.

C) fake news applies only to online reporting that can be spread.

D) there was no intentional effort to deceive.

41) When we read media content at a variety of different levels, we are said to be engaging the content A) intelligently.

B) as the producers had intended.

C) from multiple points of access.

D) intuitively.

42)

Which of the following is true of media literacy?

A) It is only necessary for communication scholars.

B) It is a skill that can be improved through practice.

C) It is impossible for young people to master.

D) It is more advanced in the United States than abroad.

43)

The ability to comprehend and use written symbols effectively and efficiently is A) literacy.

B) orality.

C) learning.

D) democracy.

44) People’s tendency to accept information that confirms their beliefs and reject information that does not confirm their beliefs describes A) illiteracy.

B) aliteracy.

C) confirmation bias.

D) fake news.

45)

The Gutenberg printing press was an advance over earlier printing presses, because it

A) produced books in a widely understood language.

B) used metal type and was designed for the production of large numbers of volumes.

C) was developed in central Europe, giving more people access to it.

D) used steam power.

46)

Gutenberg developed his press to produce A) books of maps.

B) official government publications.

C) political treatises.

D) Bibles.

47)

Print helped foster the Industrial Revolution

A) because people who read books began to demand change.

B) because it helped build and disseminate bodies of knowledge that led to scientific and technological development and the refinement of new machines.

C) through its creation of leisure and entertainment.

D) because it created jobs.

48) The ability to enjoy, understand, and appreciate media content; an understanding of media content as a text that provides insight into our culture and our lives; and an understanding of the ethical and moral obligations of media practitioners are elements of A) literacy.

B) social responsibility.

C) media literacy.

D) ethics.

49)

The common assumption that others are influenced by media messages but you are not is

A) the third-person effect.

B) a violation of the second principle of media literacy.

C) the otherness effect.

D) the CNN effect.

50) An understanding of and respect for the power of media messages, the development of heightened expectations of media content, a knowledge of genre conventions, and the ability to recognize when conventions are being mixed are examples of A) the third-person effect.

B) impediments to media literacy.

C) media literacy skills.

D) good television-viewing skills.

51) Categories of expression within the different media—for example, the evening news and documentaries—are media A) conventions.

B) production values.

C) genres.

D) formats.

52) The characteristic, distinctive, standardized style elements of a given form of media expression—for example, the upbeat music that introduces the local evening news—are media A) conventions.

B) production values.

C) genres.

D) formats.

53)

Knowledge of media's conventions is important because

A) they keep us involved in the material.

B) we can identify when a content producer is attempting to fool us.

C) they cue or direct our meaning making.

D) it enhances our experience of the media.

54) The specific internal language of a given medium—for example, the choice of lighting in a soap opera—is a media A) convention.

B) production value.

C) genre.

D) format.

55) The casting of actors who do not fit traditional cultural notions of masculinity and femininity suggests that culture can be

A) confusing.

B) reinforced.

C) contested.

D) controlled.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

56) Define communication.

57) What does it mean to say that there must be a "sharing of meaning" for communication to occur?

58)

Differentiate between encoding and decoding.

59)

Define culture.

60)

What does it mean to say that "media are cultural storytellers"?

61)

What does it mean to say that "mass communication serves as a cultural forum"?

62)

What is technological determinism?

63)

What was Gutenberg's advance over existing methods of mechanical printing?

64)

How did the mass production of printed materials foster the development of capitalism?

65)

Define literacy.

66)

Define media literacy.

67)

Define and explain multiple points of access.

68)

Define and explain the third-person effect.

69)

How do genre conventions and production values differ?

70)

What is the relationship between communication and culture?

71)

What is the impact of technology on communication?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

72) How does culture limit and liberate?

73) Do you see the audience as the consumer or the product in our mass media system?

Explain your answer.

74) What are the eight elements of media literacy as defined by Art Silverblatt and your textbook author? Describe each.

75)

What are the seven media literacy skills? Describe each.

76)

What threat to the practice of democracy does the hostile media effect pose?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) A 26) A

27) C 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) A 32) B 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) C 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) D 41) C 42) B 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) B 48) C 49) A 50) C 51) C 52) A 53) C 54) B 55) C 56) Answers will vary.

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Many cable channels—for example, Nickelodeon and A&E—prosper through their ability to deliver demographically narrow audiences to advertisers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Convergence refers to the collecting, or converging, of many media companies into a few large corporations. ⊚ ⊚

3)

Supporters point to economies-of-scale in their defense of media concentration. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

true false

News deserts are areas starved for news vital to their existences. ⊚ true ⊚ false

5) The general decline in revenues for the traditional media can be traced to overall declines in media consumption. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) As a result of the changing process of mass communication, specifically the Internet, the audience has in many instances become the source. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Skeleton papers are once-prospering newspapers cut to bare bones in an effort to maximize profits. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

8) The simultaneous consumption of many different kinds of media is known as A) media multitasking.

B) multidimensional consumption.

C) synergy.

D) cross-platform interdiction.

9) The ownership of the vast majority of the media in the U.S. by only five companies is known as A) concentration of media ownership.

B) globalization of media.

C) audience fragmentation.

D) erosion of distinctions among media.

10) The concentration of control of the media industries into ever-smaller numbers of companies is A) synergy.

B) technological determinism.

C) ritual bonding.

D) oligopoly.

11) The ownership of several major U.S. media corporations by foreign companies is an example of

A) concentration of media ownership.

B) globalization of media.

C) audience fragmentation.

D) erosion of distinctions among media.

12)

Audiences for specific media content becoming smaller and more defined is known as A) concentration of media ownership.

B) globalization of media.

C) audience fragmentation.

D) erosion of distinctions among media.

13) Tailoring media content to specific audiences that possess characteristics of interest to specific advertisers is a strategy known as A) narrowcasting or niche marketing.

B) subgroup marketing.

C) synergy.

D) message concentration.

14) Groups of people, or audiences, bound by little more than an interest in a given form of media content are A) bounded cultures.

B) content subcultures.

C) synergy.

D) taste publics.

15) The availability of USA Today—in the form of a newspaper, an iPad app, a YouTube channel, and a webpage—is an example of

A) concentration of media ownership.

B) globalization of media.

C) audience fragmentation.

D) erosion of distinctions among media.

16) When a media company has content that it can use across a number of its different holdings, this is A) narrowcasting or niche marketing.

B) subgroup marketing.

C) synergy.

D) message concentration.

17)

The means of delivering a specific piece of media content is referred to as a A) medium.

B) subtechnology.

C) platform.

D) message carrier.

18)

Electronic sell-through is A) the decreased value of a company's stock.

B) the buying of digital download movies.

C) the simultaneous release of a movie in theaters, video on demand, and online.

D) a Web-only television show.

19)

The integration, for a fee, of specific branded products into media content is

A) narrowcasting.

B) in-content marketing.

C) product placement.

D) message corruption.

20) When brands are part of and essential to a piece of media content, proponents of the practice say it isn't a commercial, it is A) niche marketing.

B) subgroup marketing.

C) synergy.

D) brand entertainment.

21) The explanation of how individuals make media and content choices based on expectations of reward and effort required is the A) fraction of selection.

B) media-use model.

C) synergy-to-effort equation.

D) cost-benefit ratio.

22)

An online idea or image that is endlessly copied, manipulated, and shared is a A) virus.

B) meme.

C) snap.

D) selfie.

23) In the fraction of selection formula, the cost of a babysitter when you want to go to the movies is part of the

A) expectation of reward.

B) reason not to go.

C) effort required.

D) benefit.

24)

The ability to access any content, anytime, anywhere describes A) narrowcasting.

B) subgroup marketing.

C) synergy.

D) consumption-on-demand.

25) Audiences consuming content at a time predetermined by the producer and distributor is known as A) niche programming.

B) schedule-making.

C) media multitasking.

D) appointment consumption.

26) When a feature film is simultaneously released in movie theaters and streamed online, _________ release has occurred.

A) day-and-date B) green-light C) synergystic D) brand entertainment.

27) Increasing the amount of advertising and mixing commercial and noncommercial content is known as

A) audience fragmentation.

B) hypercommercialism.

C) convergence.

D) globalization.

28) The fact that people increasingly have no preference for where they access their media content suggests that they are becoming A) lazy.

B) content-neutral.

C) media literate.

D) platform agnostic.

29) Several towns in your state have come together to propose a tax that would fund local journalism that would otherwise be lacking. They want to create a community information district because they believe

A) in a free press.

B) that taxes in your area are too low.

C) that journalism is a public service.

D) in citizen journalism.

30) Homework's due tomorrow, so you're on your computer; to help you relax, you're streaming your favorite music on your phone; you check Facebook every few minutes to see what's happening with your pals; and in the corner, the TV shows you that the Celts lead the Bulls by 12 at the half. You are

A) media multitasking.

B) overconsuming media material.

C) a platform agnostic.

D) a content surfer.

31) News reports stories that journalists discover on their own rather than written from press releases, the kind of reporting that goes beyond covering events to explore forces shaping those events is called

A) synergistic reporting.

B) muckraking.

C) enterprise reporting.

D) biased reporting.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

32) How are the distinctions among traditional media being eroded?

33)

What is a platform?

34) How are the growth of news deserts and the drive for community information districts related?

35)

How would you describe contemporary levels of overall media consumption?

36)

What is convergence?

37)

What is media multitasking?

38)

Differentiate between concentration of media ownership and conglomeration.

39)

What is globalization?

40)

What is hypercommercialism?

41)

What is audience fragmentation?

42)

What are economies of scale and oligopoly? How are they related?

43)

What are product placement and branded content?

44)

What elements are fueling today's rampant media convergence?

45)

Differentiate between appointment consumption and consumption-on-demand.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

46) What are the five major trends currently reshaping the mass communication process?

How does each promise to do so?

47) What are the two major concerns of globalization's critics? Do you feel that concern?

Why or why not?

48) Differentiate between notions of content producers, audiences, messages, and feedback in the traditional view of the mass communication process and the more contemporary understandings of these elements of the process.

49) If your area were losing most of its independent local news outlets, would you be willing to pay a small tax to support the development of new sources of news? What factors would encourage your support? What factors would discourage it?

50) Many industry insiders attribute the recent fall-off in audiences for traditional media, such as network television and newspapers, to changes in technology; people are finding new ways to access content. And while this is certainly true to a degree, others say that in this age of concentrated and hypercommercialized media, audiences are simply being turned off. Would you agree with the critics? Why? Can you give examples from your own media consumption?

51) Critics of concentration of media ownership and conglomeration argue that they are a threat to democracy. What is the thrust of these critics' concern? Do you share it? Why or why not?

52) Do you find product placement and branded content as troublesome as do their critics?

Why or why not? Are you sympathetic to those writers who want to be paid extra for inserting "commercials" into their scripts? Why or why not?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) A 9) A 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) A

27) B 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) Answers will vary.

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) After its development by Gutenberg, the printing press spread rather slowly throughout Europe. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2)

The book is the least “mass” of our mass media in terms of audience reach. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3) One of the reasons books are seen as powerful cultural forces is because they have historically been agents of social change. ⊚ true ⊚ false

4)

Books are an advertiser-supported medium. ⊚ true ⊚ false

5) The early colonists were committed readers and brought many books with them to the New World. ⊚ true ⊚ false

6) The linotype machine permitted the mechanical rather than manual setting of type by printers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

7)

The sale of paperback books accounts for a relatively small portion of book sales. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8) As opposed to other mass media, conglomeration has yet to strike the book publishing industry. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9) The number of independent bookstores in the United States continues its decade’s-long decline. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10) Within the e-publishing industry, only new or untested authors are making their works available online. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11)

Much of book buying has gravitated toward the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12)

Aliteracy is a form of self-censorship. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

13) Most of the books carried to the New World by the American colonists were A) inexpensive and survival oriented.

B) religious in nature.

C) agriculturally oriented.

D) expensive literary volumes.

14)

The first printing press came to the colonies in 1638 and was operated by A) Benjamin Franklin.

B) the Cambridge Press.

C) Poor Richard's Press.

D) Thomas Paine.

15)

The use of reading for therapeutic effect is A) bibliotherapy.

B) literacy.

C) right reading.

D) literatherapy.

16) Designed to help England recoup the money it lost waging the French and Indian War, the passage of the ________ in 1765 angered colonial printers, who correctly saw it as a limit on their right of free expression.

A) Alien and Sedition Act B) Paine Act C) Stamp Act D) Royal Printing Act

17) Libraries as centers of community, providers of health information, and as locations for Internet use by people who otherwise have no net access are examples of libraries’ role as A) governmental overreach.

B) social infrastructure.

C) harbingers of socialism.

D) substitutes for more formal charities.

18) In the 1800s, ________ was developed, making printing possible from photographic plates rather than metal casts.

A) the daguerreotype B) offset lithography C) the linotype machine D) the hot print machine

19) In 1860, the Beadle brothers began selling popular action novels for 10 cents. These ________ helped turn books into a mass medium.

A) dime novels B) ten-cent readers C) broadsides D) serialized novels

20) U.S. publisher Robert de Graff copied the success of similar books in England when he founded ________ in 1939. This company produced inexpensive paperback reissues of books that had already become successful in hardback.

A) de Graff Brothers B) Harper Brothers C) Penguin Books D) Pocket Books

21)

A book is ________ when someone in authority limits publication of or access to it.

A) proscribed B) censored C) mandated D) circumscribed

22) Books that are published only as paperbacks and are designed to appeal to a broad readership are called A) el-hi.

B) trade books.

C) professional books.

D) mass market paperbacks.

23)

The process of eliminating gatekeepers between artists and audiences is A) disintermediation.

B) censorship.

C) print on demand.

D) platform agnostic publishing.

24) Many publishers, even authors, are happy to distribute their books in any and all formats, both print and electronic. This is called A) multistage publishing.

B) cross-publishing.

C) the three-screen strategy.

D) platform-agnostic publishing.

25) Publishing houses, now increasingly part of larger conglomerates, were once typically small operations, closely identified with their authors and staffs. In other words, publishing was largely a ________ industry.

A) low-profit B) cottage C) mom-and-pop D) mandated

26) The sale of a book, its contents, and its characters to filmmakers, paperback publishers, book clubs, and merchandise manufacturers is called the sale of its ________ rights.

A) editorial B) managerial C) outsource D) subsidiary

27)

Possessing the ability to read but being unwilling to do so characterizes A) literacy.

B) aliteracy.

C) illiteracy.

D) media literacy

28)

The fastest-growing sector of the book publishing industry is A) trade books.

B) audio books.

C) e-books.

D) pulp novels.

29)

The contemporary book industry is benefiting from an “adaptation explosion” driven by

A) the lack of new, exciting authors.

B) people’s unwillingness to invest time in reading fiction.

C) the low cost of subsidiary rights.

D) video streaming networks’ hunger for quality content.

30)

Books that are written based on popular shows and films are A) mass market paperbacks .

B) dime novels .

C) tie-in novels .

D) graphic novels .

31)

The inability to read characterizes A) aliteracy.

B) media literacy.

C) illiteracy.

D) a majority of Americans.

32) Upton Sinclair’s The Jungle investigated ________ and brought about the passage of the Pure Food and Drug Act. A) environmental degradation B) the prescription drug industry C) the meat packing industry D) deforestation in South America

33) There is a wealth of scholarly research demonstrating the link between reading literary fiction and

A) obesity.

B) declines in TV viewing.

C) family harmony.

D) empathy for others.

34) The book industry was slow to develop after the Revolutionary War because books were still expensive and literacy remained a luxury. But in a movement that began before the Civil War, ________ came to most states by 1900, swelling the number of readers.

A) the railroads B) compulsory education C) reduced taxes on the purchase of books D) the automobile

35)

The American novel flowered in the 1800s because of all of the following except A) technically improved printing.

B) low-cost printing (and therefore lower-cost books).

C) widespread literacy.

D) people’s migration to the suburbs.

36)

Which of the following gave birth to the modern environmental movement?

A) Ray Bradbury’s Fahrenheit 451 B) Upton Sinclair’s The Jungle C) Rachael Carson’s Silent Spring D) Nathaniel Hawthorne’s A Better Earth

37) “Dollar books for a dime” was the slogan of publisher Beadle & Company, sellers of all except which of the following?

A) dime novels B) pulp novels C) inexpensive frontier and adventure stories D) comic books

38) Robert de Graff’s company, Pocket Books, sold paperback books that were inexpensive reissues of successful hardbacks. They cost A) 10 cents.

B) 25 cents.

C) one dollar.

D) 75 cents.

39) We turn to books for certainty and truth about the world in which we live and the ones about which we want to know specifically because books are A) agents of social and cultural change.

B) important cultural repositories.

C) sources of personal development.

D) sources of entertainment and escape.

40) true?

We hear much troubled talk about children no longer reading. Which of the following is

A) The situation has reached epidemic proportions as fewer and fewer kids are reading.

B) This is a major cause of the decline in publishing’s revenues.

C) Nonetheless, the reality is that a large majority of children read for fun.

D) As a result, the federal government has begun early-reading programs in all 50 states.

41) Which type of book includes not only fiction and most nonfiction but also cookbooks, biographies, art books, coffee-table books, and how-to books?

A) el-hi B) trade books C) professional books D) higher education

42)

The publication and distribution of a book initially or exclusively online is called A) e-publishing.

B) digital books.

C) e-books.

D) POD.

43) A book that is downloaded in electronic form from the Internet to a computer or handheld device is A) e-publishing.

B) an e-book.

C) an e-read.

D) POD.

44) The process in which books are digitally stored and instantly printed, bound, and shipped when ordered is called A) e-publishing.

B) e-read.

C) e-books.

D) print on demand (POD).

45) A recent trend in the book business is ________, the idea that potential synergies between books and other media have spurred big media companies to invest in publishing companies.

A) “Hollywoodization” B) synergy C) hypercommercialism D) tie-in novels

46)

A frequently offered explanation for the slowing growth of e-reading is A) the cost of e-readers.

B) the lack of availability of good e-books.

C) digital fatigue.

D) the high cost of e-books.

47)

Americans’ number-one favorite activity when unplugged from their digital devices is A) reading.

B) reading paper versions of books.

C) talking to friends and family.

D) watching TV.

48) Digital devices with the appearance of traditional books but content that is digitally stored and accessed are A) e-readers.

B) trades.

C) magazines.

D) book club editions.

49) Critics fear the use of ________ in books will sacrifice the quality of the work to please sponsors.

A) censorship B) synergy C) product placement D) tie-ins

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

50) Why were books a rarity in the colonies?

51)

What was the Stamp Act? What was its goal?

52)

Why did the American novel flower in the 1800s?

53)

What is the distinction between a dime novel and a paperback novel?

54) Why can books, as compared to television and movies, be a particularly important source of personal development?

55)

What factors are responsible for the public’s renewed affection for libraries?

56)

What are the primary advantages of e-books and e-publishing?

57)

What is the difference between the book categories el-hi and higher education?

58) What is shopification of books? How does it relate to the industry’s hypercommercialism and why does it trouble book traditionalists?

59) How does the “Hollywoodization” of the book industry manifest itself? What are the pros and cons of this trend?

60) Explain how and why book readers are less likely to lose their jobs to robots than are non-readers.

61)

What are the arguments for and against censorship of books in the United States?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

62) List eight cultural functions of books. Describe each and discuss why books, as opposed to other mass media, may be better or worse equipped to fulfill these functions.

63) Book publishers confronted with censorship face a conflict: the supposed good to the culture resulting from limiting publication versus the democratic obligation to resist censorship.

If you were a publisher, how would you decide this conflict? Defend your position.

64) How have commercialization and the demand for greater profits affected the book publishing industry?

65) Convergence and technological advances are reshaping the book industry. Weigh in on the current focus on digitizing most of the world’s books: Do you believe this is a positive for literacy in our country? In your opinion, has this change helped or harmed authors, the publishing industry, bookstores, and the quality of books thus far? Where do you see this trend going in the next several years?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) A 20) D 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) B 26) D

27) B 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) B 35) D 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) B 40) C 41) B 42) A 43) B 44) D 45) A 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) C 50)Answers will vary.

51)Answers will vary.

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57)Answers will vary.

58)Answers will vary.

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60)Answers will vary.

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62)Answers will vary.

63)Answers will vary.

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65)Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Despite the fact that he was acquitted, Peter Zenger was guilty of seditious libel as the law existed at the time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Tablet, smartphone, and e-reader owners who use their devices to read the news spend more time reading than they would on conventional computers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Since the newspaper has converged with the Internet, the industry has discovered effective ways to charge for content and measure readership. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

The first 10 amendments to the U.S. Constitution are known as the First Freedoms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) The penny press succeeded by appealing to better-off, fairly well-educated readers attractive to advertisers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) The ethnic press—for example, African-American, Latino, and Native-American newspapers—is a very recent development from the past 50 years. ⊚ true ⊚ false

7) Yellow journalism is thought to have acquired its name from a popular cartoon character of the time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8)

The oldest national daily newspaper is the Wall Street Journal. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

The placement of stories has influence on what readers come to see as important news. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Primary among the reasons advertisers like newspapers as an advertising medium is their local nature. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Newspaper chains are not a new development. They have existed since the 1800s.

⊚ ⊚

true false

12) The most important story in a newspaper, as indicated by its placement, is located on the front page, toward the left, and above the fold. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

13) Among the earliest "newspapers" were the daily reports of the actions of the Roman Senate, called A) broadsides.

B) Acta Diurna.

C) corantos.

D) diurnals.

14) Seventeenth-century one-page news sheets about events on the European continent, which were printed in English in Holland and imported into England by booksellers, were called A) broadsides.

B) Acta Diurna.

C) corantos.

D) diurnals.

15) Englishmen Nathaniel Butter, Thomas Archer, and Nicholas Bourne published the first true forerunners of our daily newspaper in the 1640s, using the same title for consecutive editions. They called their news sheets

A) broadsides.

B) Acta Diurna.

C) corantos.

D) diurnals.

16) Single-sheet announcements or accounts of events imported from England and posted on walls in the American colonies were called A) broadsides.

B) Acta Diurna.

C) corantos.

D) diurnals.

17) The first newspaper printed in the colonies lasted only one day. Its publisher, Benjamin Harris, called it A) Publick Occurrences Both Forreign and Domestick.

B) Boston News-letter.

C) New-England Courant.

D) Pennsylvania Gazette.

18) Your online newspaper sent out a call for tips on age discrimination in your town’s restaurant industry. You backed that up with flyers posted in community centers, all hoping to get first-hand accounts from sources close to the story. You are engaging in

A) engagement reporting.

B) yellow journalism.

C) grapevine reporting.

D) microtargeting.

19) Benjamin Franklin demonstrated that financial independence, based on advertising sales and other nonofficial economic support, could lead to editorial independence for his newspaper, the A) Publick Occurrences Both Forreign and Domestick.

B) Boston News-letter.

C) New-England Courant.

D) Pennsylvania Gazette.

20)

The first 10 amendments to the U.S. Constitution are called the A) Emancipation Proclamation.

B) Magna Carta.

C) Freedom of Speech and Press.

D) Bill of Rights.

21) The 1798________ made illegal the writing, publishing, or printing of "any false scandalous and malicious writing" about the president, Congress, or the federal government.

A) Stamp Act B) Bill of Rights C) Alien and Sedition Acts D) First Amendment

22) With the turn of the nineteenth century, urbanization, growing industries, the movement of workers to the cities, and increasing literacy combined to create an audience for a new kind of paper, one in which the price per copy was very low but on which publishers could make a profit by selling advertising. These papers were known as A) yellow journalism.

B) the penny press.

C) pulp papers.

D) tabloids.

23)

The first penny paper was the________, first published by Benjamin Day in 1833.

A) New York Morning Herald B) New York Tribune C) New York Sun D) Chicago Tribune

24) One penny paper, Horace Greeley's________, established the mass newspaper as a powerful medium of social action through its use of non-sensationalistic, issues-oriented, and humanitarian reporting.

A) New York Morning Herald B) New York Tribune C) New York Sun D) Chicago Tribune

25) The first African-American newspaper was________, published initially in 1827 by John B. Russwurum and the Reverend Samuel Cornish.

A) the North Star B) the Chicago Tribune C) The Ram's Horn D) Freedom's Journal

26) Frederick Douglass's ________, founded in 1847 with the masthead slogan "Right is of no Sex—Truth is of no Color—God is the Father of us all, and we are all Brethren," was the most influential African-American newspaper before the Civil War. A) the North Star B) the Chicago Tribune C) The Ram's Horn D) Freedom's Journal

27) In 1849, six large New York papers, including the Sun, Herald, and Tribune, decided to pool efforts and share expenses in collecting news from foreign ships docking at the city's harbor. In doing so they established the first A) penny press.

B) yellow tabloid.

C) wire service.

D) syndicate.

28) In 1883, Hungarian immigrant Joseph Pulitzer bought the troubled New York World. His readership was "the common man," and he succeeded in reaching readers with light, sensationalistic news coverage, extensive use of illustrations, and circulation-building stunts and promotions. This brand of journalism became known as A) the penny press.

B) yellow journalism.

C) wire reporting.

D) syndication publishing.

29) Radical change in an industry brought about by the introduction of a new technology or product is known as A) agenda setting.

B) disruptive transition.

C) crowdfunded journalism.

D) alternative press.

30) In response to radio and magazines' challenge for advertising dollars, newspapers began consolidating into groups, known as________. Hearst and Scripps were among the most powerful, owning papers in different cities across the country.

A) syndicates B) chains C) combines D) conglomerates

31) Advertising rates for online newspapers are determined by how many times its online ad are seen, or its A) click bait.

B) impressions.

C) pass-along readership.

D) paywall.

32) When newspaper circulation figures include readers who did not originally buy the papers they read, they are said to include________ readership.

A) pass-along B) cumulative C) inflated D) progressive

33)

The oldest national daily newspaper in the United States is A) the New York Times.

B) the Wall Street Journal.

C) USA Today.

D) the Christian Science Monitor.

34)

The newest national daily newspaper in the United States, founded in 1982, is

A) the New York Times.

B) the Wall Street Journal.

C) USA Today.

D) the Christian Science Monitor.

35) Newspaper articles paid for by advertisers or even created by those advertisers that look like traditional editorial content is

A) synergistic journalism.

B) yellow journalism.

C) sponsored content.

D) cooperative content.

36) The feature services, or________, do not gather and distribute news. Instead, they operate as clearinghouses for the work of columnists, essayists, cartoonists, and other creative individuals.

A) wire services B) syndicates C) chains D) joint operating agreements

37) Defenders of newspaper chains see value in their_________ which can be directed toward better journalism.

A) experienced home-office leadership B) larger sales and advertising reach C) higher levels of access to national newsmakers D) expanded economic and journalistic resources

38) Because so many newspapers now have online versions of their publications, many observers feel that "circulation" is an insufficient measure of a paper's true readership. They propose a new metric that combines paper and unique online readers called A) cumulative eyes.

B) total readership.

C) integrated audience reach.

D) market saturation.

39) Newspapers have traditionally kept their advertising and editorial functions separate. This is often referred to as the A) firewall.

B) barrier.

C) guardian of trust.

D) moat.

40) ________ is a newspaper's ability to influence not only what we think, but what we think about.

A) Liberal bias B) Agenda setting C) Conservative bias D) News diffusion

41) Because so many newspapers are available online, the amount of ________, or poorly written, sensational stories designed to attract more readers and increase advertising revenue, is on the rise.

A) impressions B) crowdfunded journalism C) click bait D) hard news

42) The press's guarantee of freedom, as well as all people's right to free speech, is set out in which amendment to the U.S. Constitution?

A) First B) Fourth C) Fifth D) Fourteenth

43)

The “holy trinity” of local news consists of high school sports, obituaries, and A) mug shots.

B) movie reviews.

C) announcements for bingo nights and other civic social events.

D) the police blotter.

44) The nationally distributed newspaper most responsible for encouraging the migration of southern black people to the industrial centers of the North just after the turn of the twentieth century was A) Freedom's Journal.

B) the North Star.

C) the Chicago Tribune.

D) the Chicago Defender.

45) Overall, levels of newspaper circulation have________ for many years, and the amount of time people spend reading the print newspaper has________.

A) declined; fallen B) declined; remained steady C) declined; increased D) increased; fallen

46) A large majority of younger Americans under the age of 45 access newspaper content online. This is made possible by A) a decrease in availability of newspapers.

B) an increased leisure time.

C) an increase in development of technology such as e-readers and smartphones.

D) a decrease in leisure time.

47) Your local paper has reduced the amount of coverage it gives to state and local politics in favor of more feature writing and sponsored content. In other words, it is A) selling out.

B) setting the agenda.

C) reducing the size of its newshole.

D) meeting audience demands.

48) Long Island’s Newsday is the twelfth-largest paper in the country with a combined print and online circulation of over 700,000. It is classified as a ________ newspaper.

A) national daily B) large metropolitan daily C) zoned edition D) suburban daily

49)

Today's U.S. alternative press has grown out of A) the underground press of the 1960s.

B) the post-World War II ethnic newspaper movement.

C) a desire by sophisticated readers for more political reporting.

D) a reaction to the conservatism of the 1980s.

50) Beyond high circulation numbers, newspapers are popular with advertisers for three primary reasons: their reach to 60 percent of Americans, the good demographics of readers, and the fact that many newspapers

A) are the least expensive medium in which to advertise.

B) have exceedingly loyal readers.

C) are local, so advertisements can reach specific groups of readers.

D) give them cost breaks.

51) The practice of newspapers making some or all of their online content available only to paying subscribers is known as a A) paywall.

B) firewall.

C) zoned edition.

D) penny press.

52) Newspaper horoscopes, chess and bridge columns, editorial cartoons, and comics are all material provided by A) wire services.

B) chains.

C) syndicates.

D) joint operating agreements.

53) The front page of your local paper runs a lengthy story about an athlete’s experience in the World Series. This is an example of A) soft news.

B) hard news.

C) the “holy trinity” of local news.

D) click bait.

54)

Sensational stories that do not serve the democratic function of journalism are known as

A) hard news.

B) soft news.

C) broad sheets.

D) wire services.

55) Stories that help citizens make important decisions and keep up with important issues are known as A) hard news.

B) soft news.

C) broad sheets.

D) wire services.

56)

The success of smaller, more local newspapers can be credited to A) lower cost.

B) coverage of unique material not found easily elsewhere.

C) less advertising.

D) better journalism.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

57) What were corantos, diurnals, and broadsides?

58)

What was the political importance of the Zenger acquittal?

59) What was the relationship between the First Amendment and the Alien and Sedition Acts?

60)

What factors led to the development of the penny press and yellow journalism?

61)

What is a wire service? A syndicate?

62) Describe what is generally happening to print newspaper subscribership in the United States today.

63) What two factors make the newspaper a particularly attractive medium to potential advertisers?

64)

How does “chasing click bait” redefine the role of a journalist?

65) How has the entry of hedge funds and so-called vulture funds impacted the newspaper industry?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

66) What are some ways that critics believe concentration is damaging the newspaper as an important medium? Describe each and explain how it might damage the paper's traditional democratic function.

67) List and discuss several ways in which technology is changing the newspaper industry and the newspaper as a medium. Which of these alterations do you see as beneficial, and which do you see as harmful to the future of the medium and its role in the culture? Explain.

68) Describe the current state of newspaper readership. How will this affect the future of the newspaper as an advertising medium, as a business, and as a cultural force?

69) Explain the "softening of the news" as it pertains to a media literacy issue. In your opinion, what role do newspapers play in our democratic process? How much influence do newspapers have on how we view the world? In its current state, is the industry giving us what we want? What we need?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) A

27) C 28) B 29) B 30) B 31) B 32) A 33) B 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) C 42) A 43) B 44) D 45) A 46) C 47) C 48) D 49) A 50) C 51) A 52) C 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) B

57) Answers will vary.

58) Answers will vary.

59) Answers will vary.

60) Answers will vary.

61) Answers will vary.

62) Answers will vary.

63) Answers will vary.

64) Answers will vary.

65) Answers will vary.

66) Answers will vary.

67) Answers will vary.

68) Answers will vary.

69) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) The mass-circulation magazine prospered after the Civil War in part because of changes in postal regulations. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

Unlike other media, magazines came late to the #MeToo movement. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3) The Saturday Evening Post was the first of the mass-circulation magazines to fold after the arrival of television. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Of the 20,000 magazines in operation in the country today, about one-third are generalinterest consumer magazines. ⊚ true ⊚ false

5) The general consensus is that digital content and online versions of magazines substitute for the printed content. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) A brand magazine is a publication that has become so well known that it is, in effect, its own brand. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Controlled circulation means that magazine publishers intentionally limit the overall size of their readership. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The major circulation-monitoring companies do not include pass-along readership in their circulation totals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9) Consumer Reports has one of the highest advertising revenue incomes in the industry because of its useful reports on consumer products. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Despite its near-universal use in the magazine industry, many insiders express serious skepticism about sponsored content, citing its inherent deceptiveness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) The first magazine in colonial America was A) Andrew Bradford's American Magazine, or a Monthly View of the Political State of the British Colonies.

B) Benjamin Franklin's General Magazine, and Historical Chronicle, for All the British Plantations in America.

C) Thomas Paine's Avenging the Great Denial.

D) Condé Nast's Traveler.

12) In the early 1800s, U.S. magazines began to less resemble their British forefathers, in large part because of uniquely American A) literacy rates.

B) policies that included advertising support.

C) social movements like labor reform and abolition.

D) postal rates.

13)

The U.S. mass-circulation popular magazine first prospered in the

A) pre-Civil War years.

B) post-Civil War years.

C) excitement surrounding the turn of the twentieth century.

D) wake of the emergence of the mass-circulation newspaper.

14) The Postal Act of 1879 increased literacy and reduced cover prices, and ________ fueled the booming interest in mass circulation magazines after the Civil War. A) interest in social movements B) a growing immigrant population C) the emergence of several well-known columnists D) the spread of the railroad

15) In the late 1900s, magazines were able to reduce cover prices dramatically and thereby increase their readership due to A) a growing immigrant population.

B) the spread of the railroad.

C) their ability to attract growing amounts of advertising.

D) a reduction in postage costs.

16) In the first decades of the twentieth century, Theodore Roosevelt coined the term ________ to describe writers who agitated for change by targeting powerful political and industrial people and institutions.

A) snipers B) pulp writers C) inquisitors D) muckrakers

17) Offering special perks and features to select magazine subscribers is one of the ways magazines attract

A) licensing.

B) subscriber-only clubs.

C) paid membership.

D) click-bait.

18) The year 1956 marked the beginnings of the death of the mass-circulation magazines.

The first to cease publication was A) the Saturday Evening Post.

B) Collier's.

C) Look.

D) Life.

19) The Federal Trade Commission passed a rule requiring magazines that use sponsored content to A) pay an advertising tax on all sponsored content.

B) use a different color background for the sponsored content.

C) clearly identify and label sponsored content as advertisements.

D) place a general notice on the covers or home pages about it.

20) Many magazine companies are dropping the title of ________ from their publications as evidence of the importance of digital publishing to their business.

A) publisher B) editor C) webmaster D) content editor

21) What types of magazines carry stories, features, and ads aimed at people in specific professions and are distributed either by professional organizations or by media companies like Whittle Communications and Time Warner?

A) trade, professional, and business magazines B) industrial, company, and sponsored magazines C) consumer magazines D) controlled circulation magazines

22) What types of magazines are produced by companies specifically for their own employees, customers, and stockholders, or by clubs and associations specifically for their members?

A) trade, professional, and business magazines B) industrial, company, and sponsored magazines C) consumer magazines D) controlled circulation magazines

23) What types of magazines are sold by subscription and at newsstands, bookstores, and other retail outlets like supermarkets, garden shops, and computer stores?

A) trade, professional, and business magazines B) industrial, company, and sponsored magazines C) consumer magazines D) controlled circulation magazines

24)

Magazine circulation comes in the form of subscription, single-copy sales, and A) controlled circulation.

B) split runs.

C) custom publishing.

D) e-readership.

25)

The magazine industry typically categorizes consumer magazines in terms of their

A) geographic reach.

B) targeted audiences.

C) number of ad pages.

D) articles.

26)

The wordmagazine shares etymological roots with the word

A) storehouse.

B) chapters.

C) portable.

D) leaflet.

27) Which of the following is the name for the special versions of a given issue of a magazine, in which editorial content and ads vary according to some specific demographic or regional grouping?

A) controlled circulation editions B) webzines C) anchored editions D) split runs

28) Magazines such as Good Housekeeping and Eating Well ________ their names and reputations to various companies' products and services as a way to generate income.

A) loan B) circulate C) pass-along D) license

29) Which of the following occurs when a magazine is provided at no cost to readers who meet some specific set of advertiser-attractive criteria? Free airline and hotel magazines fit this category.

A) controlled circulation B) a run C) pass-along readership D) circulation

30) Readers who neither subscribe to nor buy single copies of a magazine but who borrow or read one in a doctor's office or library are a magazine's A) controlled circulation.

B) run.

C) pass-along readership.

D) circulation.

31)

Single-copy magazine sales are of particular interest to magazine publishers because A) they cost less than subscription sales.

B) readers decide to buy that issue, suggesting greater interest.

C) they encourage pass-along readership.

D) they allow location-tracking.

32) What most obviously separates magazines like Ms.,Consumer Reports, andAd Busters from more traditional publications likeGlamour andSports illustrated?

A) They do not target a specific demographic.

B) They exist only online.

C) They carry no advertising.

D) They exist only in hard-copy.

33) The Audit Bureau of Circulations, established in 1914, changed its name to the Alliance for Audited Media in 2012 because the industry realized that

A) “audit” did not clearly enough indicate print circulation measurement.

B) young online readers would not understand the term “bureau.”

C) a true measure of “circulation” should include digital editions and apps as well as print circulation.

D) young online readers would react more favorable to “alliance” than they would to “bureau.”

34) In the contemporary world of consumer magazines, being good isn't enough. A publication must be good and A) have a low cover price.

B) appeal primarily to specialized readerships with relatively narrow interests.

C) have exciting graphics.

D) be published weekly.

35) The very first colonial magazines were expensive and aimed at the small number of literate colonists. Their content was composed primarily of A) anti-Crown articles.

B) functional material, like corn prices, weather, and shipping schedules.

C) reprinted British material.

D) a few essays and a lot of advertising.

36) Many industry insiders, dissatisfied with circulation as the dominant audience metric, favor a more inclusive measure, one that combines magazines’ print audience, unique visitors to their Web and mobile sites, and unique video views of magazines’ video channels. This is metric is called A) Synergistic Circulation.

B) Pass-Along Plus.

C) Magazine Media 360°.

D) Nielsen Total Audience Measurement.

37) The university alumni magazine that you will receive when you graduate is an example of ________ magazine.

A) a trade, professional, or business B) an industrial, company, or sponsored C) a consumer D) a controlled circulation

38)

When you read Vogue, Sports Illustrated, or Wired, you're reading ________ magazine.

A) a trade, professional, or business B) an industrial, company, or sponsored C) a consumer D) a controlled circulation

39) The depth of the relationship between readers and the magazine advertising they see is called A) brand loyalty.

B) affinity.

C) subliminal messaging.

D) engagement.

40) Which of the following is not among the problems faced by online magazines as they attempt to become profitable?

A) People are used to their websites being free.

B) They must produce expensive original content.

C) They must compete not only with other magazines but also with all other websites on the Internet.

D) Web and Internet users tend to be unsophisticated readers.

41) A ________ is published by a retail business for readers with demographic characteristics similar to those who buy its products.

A) brand magazine B) magalogue C) synergistic magazine D) platform publication

42)

Produced to look like a consumer magazine, a ________ is actually a mail-order catalog.

A) brand magazine B) magalogue C) synergistic magazine D) platform publication

43) Millions of readers access their magazines through social media, with _______ accounting for the largest share of social media magazine activity, nearly half of the active audience.

A) Twitter B) Facebook C) TikTok D) YouTube

44) The ________ was established in 1914 to provide reliability to a booming magazine industry playing loose with self-announced circulation figures.

A) Simmons Market Research Bureau B) Audit Bureau of Circulations C) Standard Rate and Data Service D) A. C. Nielsen Company

45) Many magazines are experimenting with artificial intelligence, the use of machine learning, to write “original” articles. This process relies on _______ to produce seemingly human-authored pieces.

A) networks of bots B) crowdsourcing C) augmented reality D) predictive text

46) Magazine content placed near an ad that is designed to reinforce the advertiser's message (or at least not negate it) is called A) complementary copy.

B) an advertorial.

C) a firewall.

D) split run content.

47) Seventeen magazine committed itself to ________ in which it promised to never again change girls’ body or face shapes and to begin including in its pages only images of girls and models who appear healthy.

A) a Body Peace Treaty B) censorship C) a Federal Trade Commission Rule D) a No-Retouch Policy

48) Many magazines, in both editorial content and advertising, employ _______, a technology that lets readers point phones at a magazine page and be instantly linked to websites containing information about whatever is on that page superimposed over the screen image.

A) augmented reality B) predictive text C) bots D) Magazine Media 360°

49) The American Medical Association recently encouraged the magazine industry to discontinue its practice of digitally altering women’s bodies because those altered images create unrealistic expectations in girls and can lead to A) mistrust not only of magazines but of larger social institutions as well.

B) increases in sexual assault.

C) eating disorders and other childhood and adolescent health problems.

D) increases in misogyny and sexism.

50)

Online magazines are categorized in two ways as A) online editions of existing magazines and online-only magazines.

B) consumer magazines and general interest magazines.

C) those with advertising and those without.

D) those accessed through the Internet and those not.

51) Which of the following appear on virtually all consumer magazines, allowing readers to use their mobile devices to snap a photo and be instantly directed to a website?

A) QR codes B) NFC chips C) price codes D) advertisements

52) Tags embedded in magazine pages, called ________, allow readers to be connected to digital content by simply holding their smartphones near them.

A) QR codes B) NFC chips C) price codes D) advertisements

53)

How much readers enjoy magazine advertising is called

A) affinity.

B) engagement.

C) brand loyalty.

D) consumer culture.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

54) What factors spurred the success of the early magazine industry?

55)

What factors spurred the success of magazines' mass-circulation era?

56)

Who and what were the muckrakers?

57)

What factors spurred the success of magazines' era of specialization?

58)

What are the three broad types of contemporary magazines?

59)

List five categories of consumer magazines and provide an example of each.

60) How do augmented reality and quick response codes combine to boost the effectiveness of magazine advertising?

61)

List and define the three forms of magazine circulation.

62)

Briefly define and provide an example of sponsored content.

63) Briefly explain some of the reasons magazines have been able to survive challenges from other media over the years.

64)

What are the reasons magazines are so attractive to advertisers?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

65) Describe how advertisers can influence the content of magazines in which their ads appear. How appropriate or inappropriate do you consider this influence? Explain your answer.

66) There is no question that the contemporary magazine industry is characterized by specialization and catering to narrow interests. Do you see this as good or bad for a large democracy such as ours?

67) Reconcile, if you can, magazines’ contributions to women’s rights and welfare with their sometimes narrow and stereotypical representation of those very same people. If you cannot, explain why.

68) Many in the magazine industry are arguing for a new metric, one that represents the characteristics that make magazine advertising especially effective—engagement and affinity.

Define each and explain how each renders magazine advertising particularly effective.

69) Altering images within magazines has become a heated controversy in the magazine industry. What is your take on the altering of photographs? Do you think this is an appropriate practice? Do you agree with "digitizing" our view of reality? Is this harmful to our culture?

70) Readers feel overwhelmingly positive about online magazines and access to interactive features through mobile devices. Do you feel technology has been as favorable to other media?

What makes magazines different than newspapers in terms of success with technology? Do you think there will ever come a time when print magazines will become obsolete?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) A 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) A

27) D 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) C 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) D 41) A 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) C 50) A 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) Answers will vary.

55) Answers will vary.

56) Answers will vary.

57) Answers will vary.

58) Answers will vary.

59) Answers will vary.

60) Answers will vary.

61) Answers will vary.

62) Answers will vary.

63) Answers will vary.

64) Answers will vary.

65) Answers will vary.

66) Answers will vary.

67) Answers will vary.

68) Answers will vary.

69) Answers will vary.

70) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) The physiological phenomenon in which images gathered by our eyes are retained by our brains for about one twenty-fourth of a second is called rapid eye movement. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Among the limitations of the daguerreotype is that only one print could be made from each plate. ⊚ ⊚

3)

true false

The name of the first movie studio, built by Thomas Edison, was the Trust. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The Lumière brothers' most important contribution to the development of the movies was their introduction of narrative, aided by editing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Vertical integration was ruled illegal by the Supreme Court in what is known as the Paramount Decision. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) The three primary activities of the film industry are production, distribution, and promotion. ⊚ ⊚

7)

A movie that can be described in one line is a concept film. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

true false

Films produced originally for theater exhibition are known as theatrical films.

⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Whereas the television industry may have succumbed to pressure from the Communist hunters of the McCarthy era, Hollywood resisted gallantly. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Corporate independent studios are specialty or niche divisions of major studios designed to produce more sophisticated—but less costly—movies. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

The frequency of movie going for young people has been in decline for some time now. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Despite complaints from traditionalists, audience testing has proven to be an almost foolproof means of gauging a movie’s future success. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

13) In 1873, former California governor Leland Stanford employed which photographer to help him win his bet about running horses?

A) Eadweard Muybridge B) William Dickson C) Thomas Edison D) Louis Daguerre

14) Eadweard Muybridge invented the_____________ to project his slides of people and animals in a way that would give the appearance of motion.

A) kinetograph B) zoopraxiscope C) calotype D) nickelodeon

15) People can see motion in rapidly moving pictures because of the physiological phenomenon known as A) visual memory.

B) occular acuity.

C) persistence of vision.

D) rapid eye movement (REM).

16) Thomas Edison sought profit from Eadweard Muybridge's discovery of how to make motion pictures. He gave the task of improving the process to his top scientist A) Eadweard Muybridge.

B) William Dickson.

C) Thomas Edison.

D) Louis Daguerre.

17) William Dickson developed the first motion picture camera, permitting the photographing of 40 frames a second. He called it the A) kinetograph.

B) zoopraxiscope.

C) calotype.

D) nickelodeon.

18)

The process of photography was first invented around 1816 by A) Hannibal Goodwin.

B) William Dickson.

C) Joseph Nicéphore Niépce.

D) Louis Daguerre.

19) The process of recording images on polished metal plates covered with an emulsion of silver iodide is called A) the Eastman process.

B) emulsification.

C) calotype.

D) daguerreotype.

20) In 1893, British inventor _____________ introduced his photographic system, which used translucent paper (a negative) and was so sensitive that it permitted exposure times as short as a few seconds.

A) Hannibal Goodwin B) William Dickson C) William Henry Fox Talbot D) Louis Daguerre

21) William Henry Fox Talbot's photographic system,_____________, was superior to the daguerreotype because it permitted shorter exposure times, among other reasons.

A) speedy exposure B) emulsification C) calotype D) persistence of vision

22) One leading explanation for the disappointing box office of some big summer blockbusters is that people may be suffering________, no longer wowed by amazing visual effects.

A) special-effects fatigue B) from the high ticket prices they demand C) functional displacement D) narrative-demand fatigue

23)

Women were heavily involved in the early movie business because

A) free from the soon-to-be-dominant studio system, the independence of the small production houses offered them great opportunity.

B) American women of the time controlled more financing.

C) their husbands thought “the arts” were a legitimate outlet for female endeavor.

D) of World War I, there were not enough men to run the industry.

24) Every Avengers movie hits the big screen with existing story lines, recognizable imaginary worlds, and characters familiar not only from earlier films but also from the comic books that spawned them. They also have a built-in fan base. As such, they are a perfect example of

A) IP (intellectual property) movies.

B) the FX genre.

C) product tie-in films.

D) greenlight films.

25) Edison's first films were not projected, but instead, run through a "peep show" device called a

A) kinetoscope.

B) zoopraxiscope.

C) calotype.

D) nickelodeon.

26)

Music for the kinetoscope was provided by what other Edison invention?

A) light-sensitive emulsion B) phonograph C) calotype D) nickelodeon

27) was

The Lumière brothers' most important contribution to the development of motion pictures

A) the introduction of color.

B) the projection of movies on a screen in a dark room.

C) the introduction of talkies.

D) all of these.

28) The Lumière brothers developed a device that would both shoot and project motion pictures. They called it the A) cinematographe.

B) zoopraxiscope.

C) calotype.

D) nickelodeon.

29) Although the story may not be completely true, people ran out of the Lumière screening of a train leaving the station because

A) they were not literate in the language of film.

B) an air raid siren sounded.

C) the roar of the engine was deafening.

D) it was the last feature of the evening, and it was getting very late.

30)

The early films of Edison and the Lumière brothers A) were in a primitive form of hand-painted color.

B) were always accompanied by sound.

C) were short reproductions of reality shot in fixed frame.

D) scared people out of their movie seats.

31)

Narrative was first introduced to film by A) Hannibal Goodwin.

B) William Dickson.

C) Edwin S. Porter.

D) George Méliès.

32) was

The first film to utilize editing, intercutting of scenes, and a mobile camera to tell a story

A) Intolerance.

B) Birth of a Nation.

C) The Great Train Robbery.

D) A Trip to the Moon.

33) The first director to utilize editing, intercutting of scenes, and a mobile camera to tell a story was

A) George Méliès.

B) Edwin S. Porter.

C) D. W. Griffith.

D) Steven Spielberg.

34) Important to film narrative is_____________, the tying together of two separate but related shots in such a way that they take on a new, unified meaning.

A) narrative structure B) editing C) storyboarding D) montage

35) The Great Train Robbery is often credited with setting off the explosion of movie houses around 1905. The cost was five cents to see a movie at a A) kinetoscope parlor.

B) daguerreotype salon.

C) nickelodeon.

D) picture house.

36) _____________ is the storage of system-operating software on third-party servers, which helps reduce production costs.

A) Microcinema B) Cloud computing C) Vertical integration D) Green light process

37) In 1908, Thomas Edison united the 10 companies that held all the necessary patents for film production into the Motion Picture Patents Company (MPPC), which was often simply called the

A) Cartel.

B) Hays Office.

C) Trust.

D) Conglomerate.

38)

The first all-sound movie, released in 1928, was A) Don Juan.

B) Of Mice and Men. C) The Jazz Singer.

D) Lights of New York.

39) Adding to the scandals that surrounded Hollywood in the 1920s was the arrest of actor_____________ for a murder in a San Francisco hotel.

A) Fatty Arbuckle B) Mary Pickford C) Douglas Fairbanks D) Wallace Reid

40) Buffeted by scandal, Hollywood established a self-censoring board, the Motion Picture Producers and Distributors of America, and installed a former postmaster general as its head. The MPPDA was often simply called the A) Cartel.

B) Hays Office.

C) Trust.

D) Code.

41) The MPPDA established a set of guidelines for what was and was not acceptable in movies, called the

A) Cartel Rules.

B) Motion Picture Production Code.

C) Trust.

D) List.

42) _____________ and _____________ were two economic innovations that helped the movie industry survive the Great Depression.

A) Double features; B-movies B) New genres; new narrative forms C) Color; CinemaScope D) Special effects; 3-D

43)

The control of a film's production, distribution, and exhibition by a movie studio is called A) block booking.

B) unauthorized domination.

C) vertical integration.

D) "Paramounting."

44)

The 1948 Supreme Court decision that outlawed vertical integration is called the A) Block Booking Decision.

B) Hays Decision.

C) Code Decision.

D) Paramount Decision.

45)

Studios financing their own films with their own money are called

A) majors.

B) corporate independents.

C) independents.

D) distributors.

46)

The majority of movies that make it to U.S. theater screens are produced by A) major studios.

B) corporate independents.

C) independent studios.

D) distributors.

47)

About one-fifth of each year's feature films are produced by A) major studios and corporate independents.

B) foreign-language films.

C) independent studios.

D) distributors.

48)

The modern independent film boom is said to have been started by the film A) Pulp Fiction.

B) Malcolm X. C) Hollywood Shuffle.

D) Easy Rider.

49)

Modern filmmaking characterized by reduced risk taking and formulaic movies is called A) block booking.

B) blockbuster mentality.

C) vertical integration.

D) concept filmmaking.

50) Movies that can be described in one line and are thus easy to promote and market are called A) blockbusters.

B) B-movies.

C) vertical films.

D) concept films.

51) The linking of consumer products, such as toys and hamburgers, with popular movies is called A) merchandise tie-in.

B) blockbuster mentality.

C) product placement.

D) concept filmmaking.

52)

When a studio makes the decision to produce a picture, it has ___________ the project.

A) block booked B) exhibited C) green lighted D) synergized

53)

The making of movies is A) production.

B) distribution.

C) exhibition.

D) creation.

54)

Showing movies in a theatre is known as

A) production.

B) distribution.

C) exhibition.

D) creation.

55) You know your independently produced movie will be a big hit, but you don’t have the money to promote it like a major studio production. So you exhibit it in eight theaters in some of the country’s biggest cities and wait for word-of-mouth to promote the movie for you, later booking it on 2,000 screens. You have engaged in a

A) green light process.

B) distribution-by-bits rollout.

C) platform rollout.

D) synergy exhibition plan.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

56) How did a bet about a horse lead to the development of the motion picture?

57) Briefly describe the contributions of these people to the development of photography: Joseph Nicéphore Niépce, Louis Daguerre, William Henry Fox Talbot, Hannibal Goodwin, and George Eastman.

58) Briefly describe the contributions of these people to the development of motion pictures: Thomas Edison, William Dickson, the Lumière brothers, and Thomas Armat.

59)

What was D. W. Griffith's contribution to movie storytelling?

60) How did the activities of the Trust lead to the development of the movie industry on the West Coast?

61)

Explain today's movie distribution industry.

62)

Explain today's movie exhibition industry.

63)

Explain major, corporate independent, and independent studios.

64)

What is the blockbuster mentality?

65)

What is meant by merchandise tie-ins? Give an example.

66)

How is convergence reshaping the industry?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

67) Do you believe that product placement is beneficial or harmful to filmmaking? When might it be of value? When might it be less so? Defend your answers.

68) Are critics making too much of the negative impact of the blockbuster mentality of contemporary moviemaking? After all, the film industry is making record profits, meaning the people are getting what they want. What do you think this means for the future of filmmaking either way?

69) In what ways did Hollywood attempt to counter television's coming in the 1940s, 1950s, and 1960s? Which efforts were successful, and which were not? Can you identify how today's movies may have been shaped by these efforts at redefinition?

70) The industry sees new technology and ways of viewing films as a mixed blessing, meaning that they wonder, with so many new screens to view movies on, will it change what we have called "movies." What do you think? Do you see the option for more screens as a blessing or a curse for the industry? What are some additional ways you believe the industry can take advantage of new technology?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) C 22) A 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) B

27) B 28) A 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) B 42) A 43) C 44) D 45) A 46) C 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) D 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) C 55) C 56) Answers will vary.

57) Answers will vary.

58) Answers will vary.

59) Answers will vary.

60) Answers will vary.

61) Answers will vary.

62) Answers will vary.

63) Answers will vary.

64) Answers will vary.

65) Answers will vary.

66) Answers will vary.

67) Answers will vary.

68) Answers will vary.

69) Answers will vary.

70) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Marconi saw his wireless as a way to broadcast content to large audiences. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Despite the intrusion of technology into just about every facet of the recording industry, at least songwriting remains relatively free from advances such as artificial intelligence.

⊚ ⊚

3)

The Radio Act of 1927 created the Federal Radio Commission. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

true false

More people listen to AM radio than FM radio. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) The Radio Act of 1927 provided spectrum space for noncommercial radio, eventually developing into what we know today as National Public Radio. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

IBOC is one form of Web radio. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Especially because of all the new ways to listen, broadcast radio's audience growth is increasing with younger audiences. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The Telecommunications Act of 1996 led to deregulation in the radio industry, which allowed for the existence of duopolies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9)

In radio, the dollars earned from the sale of air time are called billings. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Much of smartphone and tablet listening occurs via social networking sites' streaming services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) Online audio file sharing that employs a person-to-person exchange of files while bypassing centralized servers is called

A) P2P. B) Napster.

C) IBOC. D) DMX.

12)

Web "radio stations" that exist solely on the Web are referred to as A) IBOCs. B) bitcasters.

C) pirate stations.

D) streamers.

13) The contemporary measurement of revenue generation in the music industry, the purchase or streaming of 10 songs, is called

A) decalogue.

B) deep catalogue.

C) album equivalents.

D) LP equivalents.

14) "Radio" that is delivered to people's homes through their cable and/or satellite television services is called

A) P2P. B) IBOC. C) DMX. D) DARS.

15)

"Radio" that is delivered directly to people's homes and cars by satellite is called

A) P2P. B) IBOC. C) DMX. D) DARS.

16) Industry insiders attribute the decline in traditional radio listening to growing hypercommercialization, the availability of online music sources, mobile technologies such as tablets and smartphones, and

A) public distaste for rap and hip-hop.

B) stations changing formats with little concern for listeners.

C) government regulation that stifles innovation.

D) dissatisfaction with unimaginative programming.

17) Some people consider ______ the "Father of Radio" because he was the first person to send radio waves over long distances.

A) Lee DeForest B) Guglielmo Marconi C) David Sarnoff D) Heinrich Hertz

18)

The first person to send voices and music over the air was

A) Lee DeForest.

B) Guglielmo Marconi.

C) David Sarnoff.

D) Heinrich Hertz.

19)

Marconi's interest in developing wireless transmission was

A) mass communication—transmitting messages to large audiences.

B) point-to-point communication.

C) the development of an advanced radio telescope.

D) in replacing the telephone with radio.

20) Canadian inventor ______ developed the liquid barretter in 1903, making possible the radio reception of voices.

A) Lee DeForest B) Thomas Edison C) David Sarnoff D) Reginald Fessenden

21) The audion tube, a vacuum tube that improved and amplified wireless signals, was developed in 1906 by

A) Lee DeForest.

B) Thomas Edison.

C) David Sarnoff.

D) Reginald Fessenden.

22) One of Lee DeForest's major contributions to the history of radio was the development and popularization of the use of radio for

A) advertising.

B) news.

C) broadcasting.

D) ship-to-shore communication.

23)

The first "talking machine", or sound-recording method, was developed in 1887 by

A) Lee DeForest.

B) Thomas Edison.

C) David Sarnoff.

D) Reginald Fessenden.

24)

The primary drawback of the Edison talking machine for sound recording was

A) poor sound fidelity made it unpopular with listeners.

B) high cost made it unpopular with buyers.

C) its availability could not meet demand.

D) recordings could not be copied.

25) German immigrant Emile Berliner developed an improved sound recording device in 1887 called the

A) gramophone.

B) dictaphone.

C) vitaphone.

D) diskophone.

26)

What was the major advance that Berliner's gramophone brought to sound recording?

A) It could accurately reproduce high fidelity.

B) It could run on battery power.

C) It allowed for the creation of a master, from which copies could be made.

D) All of these are correct.

27) Emile Berliner advanced sound recording through his importation of well-known music from Europe and the

A) development of the 45 rpm record.

B) development of the 33-1/3 rpm record.

C) development of the battery-powered phonograph.

D) development of a sophisticated microphone for recording.

28)

The most-listened to radio format in America today is

A) adult contemporary.

B) contemporary country.

C) rap/hip-hop.

D) news/talk.

29) Immediately after World War I, the U.S. government, concerned that the development of radio would be delayed by patent fights and that its future would be controlled by a foreign company (British Marconi), established a government-sanctioned monopoly to run radio, called

A) American Marconi.

B) General Electric.

C) American Telephone and Telegraph.

D) Radio Corporation of America.

30) Which of the following was not a part of the creation of the Radio Corporation of America?

A) American Marconi B) General Electric C) American Telephone and Telegraph D) Columbia Broadcasting System

31)

The first commercial radio license went to station ______ in Pittsburgh in 1920.

A) WNBC B) WEAF C) KCBS D) KDKA

32) The first instance of U.S. government regulation of radio was the ______, passed soon after the passengers of the sinking ship Republic were saved because that vessel was equipped with a radio.

A) Wireless Ship Act of 1910 B) Radio Act of 1912 C) Radio Act of 1927 D) Communications Act of 1934

33) After the sinking of the Titanic, the U.S. Congress passed the ______, mandating among other things that wireless operators be licensed by the secretary of commerce and labor.

A) Wireless Ship Act of 1910 B) Radio Act of 1912 C) Radio Act of 1927 D) Communications Act of 1934

34) The ______ established definitions of authority between federal and state governments, provided for the distribution and revocation of licenses, fined violators, assigned frequencies for operation, and set the hours during which a station was authorized to broadcast.

A) Wireless Ship Act of 1910 B) Radio Act of 1912 C) Radio Act of 1927 D) Communications Act of 1934

35) You listen to music on YouTube, and when you hear tunes you particularly like, you download them to your laptop, engaging in the practice of A) purchasing music.

B) BitTorrenting file sharing.

C) stream ripping.

D) podcasting.

36) The radio industry was on the brink of disaster in the 1920s and radio sales were down because listeners

A) could no longer afford radios.

B) did not like the programs.

C) felt radio was too chaotic.

D) felt radio was inappropriate for children.

37) Your favorite radio station plays classic rock ‘n roll 24 hours a day, 6 days a week. But on Sundays, it switches its format to Religious/Gospel. This once-a-week format change represents the station’s

A) public service remit.

B) fiduciary requirement.

C) FCC-mandated service requirement.

D) secondary service.

38) The four National Radio Conferences produced what important piece of federal legislation of broadcasting?

A) the Wireless Ship Act of 1910 B) the Radio Act of 1912 C) the Radio Act of 1927 D) the Communications Act of 1934

39)

The Radio Act of 1927 ensured that the airwaves belonged to

A) broadcasters.

B) the government.

C) the Radio Corporation of America.

D) the public.

40) The Radio Act of 1927 required that when a radio license was awarded, the standard of evaluation would be

A) the station's ability to survive financially.

B) noninterference with neighboring stations.

C) the public interest, convenience, or necessity.

D) reasonable limits on time devoted to advertising.

41) Broadcasters in the United States are licensed to use airwaves owned by the people under the ______ model of regulation.

A) receivership B) paternalistic C) economic D) trustee

42) The trustee model of broadcast regulation is based in part on the premise that because broadcast spectrum space is limited, and therefore not everyone who wants to broadcast can, those who are granted licenses to serve a local area must accept regulation. This is called the philosophy of

A) spectrum scarcity.

B) media influence.

C) fiduciary rule.

D) trusteeism.

43)

In its earliest days, the radio industry earned income through

A) subscribership.

B) government subsidies.

C) sale of receivers.

D) license fees.

44) Radio station billings come primarily from local commercials and national spots. The small remainder comes from A) syndicated sales.

B) network sales.

C) payola.

D) product placement.

45) Stations that link themselves to a national broadcast network for the purpose of airing its programs are called

A) O&Os. B) affiliates.

C) independents.

D) translator stations.

46) In 1926, RCA linked 24 stations and established the first national radio network, which it called A) CBS. B) NBC. C) NBC Blue.

D) ABC.

47)

Stations that are owned and operated by a broadcast network are called

A) O&Os. B) affiliates.

C) independents.

D) translator stations.

48) When the government ordered NBC to divest itself of one of its networks in 1943, it sold NBC Blue to Edward Noble, who renamed it A) CBS. B) Mutual.

C) NBC Blue.

D) ABC.

49) The ownership and management of multiple radio stations in a single market by one person or company is called

A) deregulation.

B) syndication.

C) monopoly.

D) duopoly.

50) ________ stations are 10- to 100-watt nonprofit community radio stations with a reach of only a few miles.

A) Low-power FM B) CATV C) Frequency-modulation D) Amplitude

51)

Which of the following statements is true about podcasts?

A) They are declining in popularity due to hypercommercialism.

B) They began with amateur enthusiasts but are now highly professional.

C) They remain largely commercial-free.

D) They can be streamed rather than downloaded.

52)

The vast majority of the recording industry's revenues (more than 80%) is generated by

A) downloaded album equivalents.

B) downloaded singles and ringtones.

C) sales of vinyl.

D) streaming.

53) Elvis Presley_____________ Big Mama Thornton’s original recording of the song Hound Dog, resulting in a giant rock ’n’ roll hit.

A) pirated B) echoed C) covered D) autotuned

54) Many of today’s popular tunes are “written to track,” meaning a producer makes a beat and then a songwriter listens to it and attempts to generate words that fit that beat. Industry people call this

A) covering a tune.

B) music by algorithm.

C) cookie-cutter songwriting.

D) mathematical songwriting.

55) It seems that most of the CDs in your town’s last remaining music store are old albums from bands that your parents liked years ago. That may annoy you, but music from these__________ albums keeps the music industry profitable.

A) antique B) catalog C) old-fashioned D) geezer

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

56) What is the difference between IBOC, DARS, and DMX?

57)

What were Lee DeForest's contributions to the development of radio?

58)

What were the limitations of Thomas Edison's recording technology?

59)

How did the sinking of the Titanic alter the history of radio?

60)

What is the trustee model of broadcast regulation?

61)

What is the difference between an O&O and an affiliate?

62) What is meant by radio's local nature? Why does this make radio an attractive medium to advertisers?

63)

What are secondary services? Provide an example of what might be a secondary service.

64)

Radio billings are amassed in three ways. List and describe them.

65) Many recording industry insiders argue that as far as their industry is concerned, television is the new radio. Using a few examples, explain what they mean by this.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

66) On what two premises is the trustee model of broadcast regulation based? Do you think these premises form an adequate basis for regulation? Explain your answer.

67) Describe how critics see conglomeration restricting the kinds of music available to listeners. Do you agree or disagree with their complaints?

68) Are you content to let your streaming service select the music you listen to? Explain your answer in terms of the relationship between music and identity.

69) Digital download sales surpassed physical sales for the first time in 2011, but today, revenues from the sale of physical products—CDs and vinyl records--actually exceed those from the sale of downloads. Explain how this may have come about in today’s era of streaming dominance.

70) Consider that some of the music you like is written by a computer or in a songwriting camp where the goal is to pump out hits rather than further individual artists’ creativity. The music sounds good, and you like it. But do you care about the way it’s written? Why or why not?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) C

27) D 28) D 29) D 30) D 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) D 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) D 42) A 43) C 44) B 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) D 49) D 50) A 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) D 55) B 56) Answers will vary.

57) Answers will vary.

58) Answers will vary.

59) Answers will vary.

60) Answers will vary.

61) Answers will vary.

62) Answers will vary.

63) Answers will vary.

64) Answers will vary.

65) Answers will vary.

66) Answers will vary.

67) Answers will vary.

68) Answers will vary.

69) Answers will vary.

70) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Nonlinear TV is watching television on our own schedules, not the programmer's. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

Paul Nipkow developed the first mechanical scanning system for television.

⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Whereas the movie industry may have easily succumbed to pressure from the Red hunters of the McCarthy era, the television industry resisted gallantly. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Lucille Ball is primarily responsible for development of the off-network television syndication business. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

The primary technology used to collect today's television ratings is the audimeter. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) A television program's share is more important than its rating in the consideration of its success in its time slot. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Cable television was initially developed as a way to bring movies without commercials into U.S. homes. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

Video-on-demand is one example of interactive cable television. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) If telephone service can be delivered by the same cable that brings television into the home, so can the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Recently, the number of online movie sales has grown larger than the number of DVD sales. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) The first workable device for generating electrical signals suitable for the transmission of a visual was the A) cathode ray tube.

B) Nipkow disc.

C) Farnsworth connector.

D) Baird's disc.

12) Which British inventor sent moving images across the Atlantic using a mechanical disc in the 1920s?

A) Paul Nipkow B) Vladimir Zworykin C) John Logie Baird D) Philo Farnsworth

13)

Who developed the iconoscope tube?

A) Paul Nipkow B) Vladimir Zworykin C) John Logie Baird D) Philo Farnsworth

14) Overall television viewing for every age group continues to decline year-to-year, with the greatest drop off for A) younger viewers.

B) older, more rural people.

C) young children under parental supervision.

D) older, more urban people.

15) The first public demonstration of television, in the form of regularly scheduled two-hour broadcasts, was presented by ______ at the 1939 World's Fair.

A) ABC B) NBC C) CBS D) Mutual

16) You have never had a television in your apartment, choosing to watch video from streaming services and other providers on your laptop and mobile devices. Which of the following groups do you belong to?

A) a group that constitutes nearly half of all streaming subscribers B) the growing number ofá la carte cable viewers C) the growing number of OTT viewers D) a zero-TV home

17)

Those who did not have cable television at any point are called

A) pseudo-watchers.

B) cord-rejectors.

C) cord-nevers.

D) cord-cutters.

18) Local affiliates used to receive compensation for airing network programs in their markets, but that has changed due to the loss of network audience and A) the rise in syndication.

B) video-on-demand.

C) the lack of network programs.

D) the rise of cable.

19) Rather than local stations receiving compensation for airing network programs, now networks receive ______, a fee paid by the local station for the right to be that network's affiliate.

A) clear time B) retransmission fees C) reverse compensation D) subscribership

20) As a result of the quiz show scandal, the networks changed the way they accepted sponsors' money, changing from single sponsorship for most programs to ______ sales.

A) time B) lottery C) spot commercial D) subscribership

21) Lucille Ball's insistence that she, rather than CBS, own the rights to her television program set the stage not only for reruns but also for

A) situation comedy in full color.

B) the creation of the syndication industry.

C) the coming of comedy to network television.

D) the rise of CBS as an industry power.

22) Today’s viewers have countless options and significant choice of high-quality content across streaming, cable, and traditional broadcast television, ushering in A) the era of peak TV. B) the vast wasteland.

C) more reruns than ever before.

D) TV commercials in heavier numbers than in the past.

23)

The primary collector and reporter of television ratings is a company known as A) Arbitron.

B) Equifax.

C) Nielsen.

D) Telecount.

24) Delivery of video without the involvement of a multiple system operator (MSO) is known as A) expanded basic cable.

B) over-the-air television.

C) over-the-top (OTT) television.

D) digital cable television.

25) Streaming services that aggregate live and on-demand television and deliver it over the Internet, for example Sling, PlayStation Vue, and YouTube Live are called

A) virtual multichannel video programming distributors (VMVPD).

B) Internet movie distributors (IMD).

C) retransmission programming devices (RPD).

D) long-distance home providers (LDHP).

26) The percentage of television sets currently in use that are tuned in to a given program is that show's A) rating.

B) share.

C) sweep.

D) clear time.

27)

_______ of all commercial TV viewing is time-shifted.

A) Half to three-quarters B) An as-yet-insignificant amount C) Less than one-third D) Just under 90 percent

28) The business of television is dominated by a few centralized production, distribution, and decision-making organizations, known as the A) major studios.

B) networks.

C) production houses.

D) affiliate councils.

29)

When an affiliate airs a network's program, it is said to ______ the show.

A) clear time for B) carry C) reciprocate D) syndicate

30)

The sale of programs to local stations on a market-by-market basis is A) clearing time.

B) carrying.

C) reciprocation.

D) syndication.

31) New video technologies that allow viewers to "talk" to programmers and content distributors while watching will produce ______ television.

A) interactive B) feedback C) cable D) satellite

32)

At cable's inception, the primary goal of most cable television operations was A) to challenge the over-the-air broadcasters.

B) to deliver pay-per-view movies.

C) to circumvent FCC all-channel rules.

D) to improve the reception of distant signals.

33) The creation of programs expressly for sale into syndication to individual stations in individual markets is called

A) all channel production.

B) nonduplication production.

C) primary production.

D) first-run syndication.

34)

A syndicated program that runs five nights a week at the same time is said to be A) cumed.

B) cleared.

C) stripped.

D) shadowed.

35)

Recording a television show on a home VCR or DVR for later viewing is called A) time-shifting.

B) zipping.

C) stripping.

D) zapping.

36)

Fast-forwarding through commercials on a recorded television show is called A) time-shifting.

B) zipping.

C) grazing.

D) zapping.

37)

Sesame Street is produced by the A) Public Broadcasting System.

B) National Broadcasting Company.

C) Jim Henson Company.

D) Children's Television Workshop.

38) If your market has 100,000 television homes and 30,000 are tuned into your program, your rating is A) 50.

B) 30.

C) 70.

D) 60.

39)

In number of subscribers, the top two pay-TV services in the United States are A) Netflix and Amazon Prime.

B) Verizon and Comcast.

C) Disney+ and Comcast.

D) Netflix and HBO Go.

40)

Streaming now accounts for ________ of all U.S. TV usage.

A) one-quarter B) half C) three-quarters D) almost all

41) Unlike the process in traditional network television in which networks typically require the production of a pilot before they commit to airing a show, streaming services have begun to offer successful producers___________, cash up front to bind them to their platform.

A) first-run deals B) lock-down deals C) binders D) green-flag options

42)

Broadcasters saw cable as a friend until

A) 1967, when microwave relays connected cable companies across the country.

B) 1975, when Time, Inc., began delivering HBO movies by satellite.

C) 1980, when Ted Turner launched the Cable News Network (CNN).

D) 1998, when Ted Turner converted TBS from a superstation to a cable network.

43)

The "free" channels provided automatically to all cable subscribers are called A) basic cable.

B) bonus cable.

C) pay cable.

D) premium cable.

44)

The multichannel service, other than cable, that has the greatest number of users is A) SMATV. B) DBS. C) VOD. D) MMDS.

45) Groups of channels made available to subscribers at varying prices are known in the cable business as A) ranks.

B) tiers.

C) stages.

D) grades.

46) Sometimes a network has an idea for a series and asks a proven producer to propose a show based on it, possibly offering a________ to keep the show away from a competing channel.

A) lock B) back nine deal C) first-run syndication D) straight-to-series commitment

47)

Companies that own several cable franchises are called A) integrated partnerships.

B) MSOs. C) HSNs. D) BOCs.

48)

The capacity of the wires or signals that bring video content into people's homes is called A) FIOS. B) broadband.

C) bandwidth.

D) fiber optics.

49) Multiplexing, which "squeezes" signals to permit multiple signals to be carried over one channel, is made possible by A) digital compression.

B) analog processing.

C) DMX technology.

D) interdiction technology.

50)

Cable subscribers can talk back to the system operator through

A) interdiction technology.

B) interactive cable.

C) addressable cable.

D) tier technology.

51) Despite significant dissatisfaction with the Nielsen ratings, almost all ad-supported television programmers use them for setting advertising rates because A) everyone else does, so they offer a somewhat standard audience measure.

B) they are far less expensive than other ratings services.

C) they do a very good job of measuring non-linear viewing.

D) they are the best at tracking mobile TV viewing.

52) Cable operators offer a form of basic service,________, composed primarily of local broadcast stations and services with broad appeal such as TBS, TNT, the USA Network, and Comedy Central.

A) bundling B) premium cable C) media-on-demand D) expanded basic cable

53)

C3 and C7 are

A) TV ratings measures that count views after a show's original airing.

B) emerging OTT technologies.

C) different means of digital delivery of TV signals.

D) advanced models of Nielsen’s new personal peoplemeter.

54) After a long run on network television,Friends has become hugely popular in syndication. It is an example of a successful effort at________ syndication.

A) first-run B) rerun C) off-network D) net-based

55) Using a set-top box, the Internet, or an app, depending on the service, you can get HBO all by itself; Hulu will deliver Disney, Turner, ESPN, and Fox channels; DirecTV NOW will give you just 100 channels. These are examples of

A) skinny bundles.

B) OTT offerings.

C) premium tier offerings.

D) CATV bundles.

56) Periscope and Facebook Live are technologies that permit people to stream live video directly

A) to social media.

B) to any screen that an individual user owns.

C) to their social network followers.

D) from their smartphones to their laptop or desktop computer.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

57) What is the difference between mechanical and electronic scanning?

58) What services do industry experts predict will form the basis of most viewers' interactive television usage?

59) How did the quiz show scandal change the way television networks sold advertising on the programs they aired?

60)

How did Lucille Ball change the business of television?

61)

What is the difference between a program's rating and its share?

62) List the steps typically required for a program to go from an idea to a spot on a network schedule and discuss how that long-standing process is changing in the face of competition from premium cable and streaming programmers.

63) Explain what is meant by digital compression and how it influences the types of content and services people can receive at home.

64) Explain what the cable industry calls skinny bundles. What is the difference between this anda la carte?

65)

What is the difference between compensation and reverse compensation?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

66) Given that satirical news anchors like Trevor Noah and John Oliver have become increasingly central to our nation's political discourse, what, if any, journalistic standards should we expect from them? What balance should they strike between informing and entertaining? Do you think these satirical news anchors have the same responsibilities to be as ethical as traditional news anchors?

67) Mobile viewing promises to alter the relationship between television and viewer in many ways, one of which is the time spent with mobile devices replacing time spent with the television set. Are you part of the majority that would rather give up your television set than your smartphone? Why or why not? What advantages or disadvantages do smartphones have over television sets as a way to view content? Do you feel these changes have the power to alter television content? Explain your reasoning.

68) Viewers typically rate television as their most influential, persuasive, authoritative, and exciting medium. With mobile viewing becoming increasingly more prominent, do you think this will change how audiences view the importance of television? Do you think it will leave more or less room for audiences to see multiple points of view and be exposed to varying content? Why or why not?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) B 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) A 26) B

27) A 28) B 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) B 37) D 38) B 39) A 40) A 41) B 42) B 43) A 44) B 45) B 46) D 47) B 48) C 49) A 50) B 51) A 52) D 53) A 54) C 55) A 56) A

57) Answers will vary.

58) Answers will vary.

59) Answers will vary.

60) Answers will vary.

61) Answers will vary.

62)Answers will vary.

63) Answers will vary.

64) Answers will vary.

65) Answers will vary.

66) Answers will vary.

67) Answers will vary.

68) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Video game industry revenues have not yet quite matched those of the movie industry. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Because they help children navigate particularly difficult games, most parents are comfortable with games that offer their kids loot boxes. ⊚ ⊚

3)

true false

Mobile games makes up 60% of revenue for the global video game market.

⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

More than half of all Americans play video games. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Game console manufacturers will set the foundation for gaming and its technology for the foreseeable future. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

A blockbuster game can cost as much to produce and market as a blockbuster movie. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) The video-game addiction controversy has been pretty much laid to rest, with the consensus being that there is little to be concerned about. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Over 90 percent of smartphone and tablet owners play video games at least once a week using these devices. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

Unlike the movie industry, cross-promotion has yet to reach the game business. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The gender gap among those who play games is being closed, in part because of games on social networking sites. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11) Nintendo introduced Wii in 2006 in order to claim a bigger share of the handheld game device market. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) One criticism of the video-game ratings system is that the ratings are assigned by a panel of clergy who have little experience with games and gaming. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

13) The first electric pinball game was invented by A) David Gottlieb.

B) Harry Williams.

C) Steven Baxter.

D) Charles Nelson Riley.

14) Sometimes you play games on your at-home console; sometimes you prefer to play on your laptop; and occasionally, when the mood moves you, you spend time with your favorite games on your smartphone. Clearly, you are a_______ game player.

A) platform-agnostic B) multi-talented C) massive multi-player D) casual

15) Very simple, easy-to-play, typically no-cost mobile games offering minimalistic user interfaces are called A) casual games.

B) hyper-casual games.

C) go-go games.

D) mobile games.

16)

LED stands for A) loose electronic device.

B) light-emitting diode.

C) light-enhancing diode.

D) light-enhancing device.

17)

The first first-person perspective shooter game was A) Doom.

B) Grand Theft Auto.

C) Myst.

D) Pong.

18)

MUD stands for

A) multi-user device.

B) multi-user dimension.

C) media user download.

D) multi-user download.

19)

A video game designed to encourage strenuous physical activity is a(n) A) physogame.

B) gyrogame.

C) exergame.

D) combat game.

20) Classic games most often played in spurts that have become a staple on small screen devices such as smartphones are ______ games.

A) escape B) adventure C) platform D) casual

21)

The spectacular success of Pokémon Go was made possible in part by A) advanced sound capabilities.

B) the widespread availability of mobile gaming devices, including phones and tablets.

C) the built-in advantage of players familiar with the game from years of play.

D) Nintendo’s massive publicity and marketing campaign.

22) _______ games, through the use of a headset, generate realistic images, sounds, and other sensations that replicate an actual or imaginary environment.

A) Iconic B) MUD C) Casual D) Virtual reality

23)

The most commonly used device for game playing is the

A) smartphone.

B) game console.

C) personal computer.

D) hand-held game device.

24) The mistreatment of female gamers, the sexism inherent in the portrayal of females in the games themselves, and the continued bullying of female players, especially in online live play collectively have become known as the _________ controversy.

A) Sexismgate B) Gamergate C) Misogynygate D) War of the Sexes

25)

Which of the following is not a game console?

A) PlayStation2 B) Game Boy C) Xbox D) Game-Cube

26)

Companies that create games for existing systems are called

A) third-party publishers.

B) content providers.

C) affiliates.

D) designers.

27) Games are particularly attractive to advertisers because they are ______, that is, players stay with them for long stretches at a time.

A) addictive B) engrossing C) sticky D) petulant

28) The movie business has its blockbusters—special-effects rich, big-name, expensive movies that attract heavy fan and public attention. The equivalent in the video-game industry is________ games.

A) console-buster B) AAA C) franchise D) legacy

29) Games that offer in-game virtual currency for various activities or sometimes for watching a commercial before playing are called A) sticky games.

B) advergames.

C) freemium games.

D) bankable games.

30)

_________ patented the first interactive video game.

A) Ralph Baer B) Nolan Bushnell C) Manny Fernandez D) David Gottlieb

31) Introduced in 1986,__________ was the first game to offer open structure play; that is, play that let players go where they wished and offered multiple routes to winning.

A) Legend of Zelda B) Tomb Raiders C) Madden Football D) Call to Duty

32)

One of Doom’s defining contributions to game play as we know it today was that

A) its story-line was particularly arresting and involving.

B) it offered a female hero.

C) it was the first interactive game that could be played by several people over a computer network.

D) it was the first successful game to come from a U.S.-based company.

33) In video games, the advanced method of rendering light and shadows in a scene to render images more life-like is A) light emitting diode.

B) wide-area pixilation.

C) ray tracing.

D) depth of field.

34)

Brands that have become games are referred to as

A) product placements.

B) brand-o-matics.

C) Trojan Horse games.

D) advergames.

35)

Advocacy games are A) used primarily by manufacturers of high-end consumer products.

B) virtually absent from web-based games.

C) web games containing non-commercial, persuasive messages.

D) favorites among young males.

36)

ESRB stands for A) Entertainment Standards Ratings Board.

B) Entertainment Software Ratings Board.

C) Ethical Software Ratings Board.

D) Ethical Standards Ratings Board.

37)

Which of the following is not an ESRB game rating?

A) M B) TO C) EC D) AO

38)

LCD stands for

A) liquid crystal display.

B) light capture display.

C) liquid crystal device.

D) light creation device.

39)

Games played as though seen from the gamer's point of view are called A) first-person perspective games.

B) shooter games.

C) multiuser dimensions.

D) virtual world games.

40)

___________ are streamed online game competitions.

A) Virtual games B) Online games C) E-sports D) Connected contests

41)

Wii was introduced in the 2000s specifically to attract A) non-traditional game players.

B) teen boys.

C) teen girls.

D) those interested in exercise.

42)

LAN stands for A) leader among newbie.

B) local area network.

C) legally accessible network.

D) log-on access needed.

43)

Computer Space, released in 1971, was designed by A) Ralph Baer.

B) Ted Turner.

C) Nolan Bushnell.

D) Steve Russell.

44)

Atari was incorporated by A) Ralph Baer.

B) Ted Turner.

C) Nolan Bushnell.

D) Steve Russell.

45)

Spacewar, the first interactive computer game, was designed by A) Ralph Baer.

B) Ted Turner.

C) Nolan Bushnell.

D) Steve Russell.

46)

Harry William's game innovations were electronic scoring and A) ball return.

B) flippers.

C) flashing lights.

D) ceramic balls.

47)

The spark that set off the game revolution was______, a game from Atari.

A) Doom B) Myst C) Space Invaders D) Pong

48)

In 1977, Mattell brought true electronic games to handheld devices with A) Doom.

B) Super Mario.

C) Missile Attack.

D) Space Invaders.

49)

Using video game skills and conventions to solve real-world problems is known as A) gamification.

B) crowdsource.

C) advergaming.

D) advocacy gaming.

50)

Much, if not most, of today's mobile gaming take the form of ______ games.

A) advocacy B) casual C) freemium D) virtual worlds

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

51) What are the major platforms on which games are played?

52)

What were the contributions to gaming of Harry Williams and David Gottlieb?

53) What were the contributions to gaming of Ralph Baer, Steven Russell, and Nolan Bushnell?

54)

Draw a distinction between advergaming and advocacy games. How are they similar?

55)

What are the major handheld systems and how do they differ?

56)

Differentiate between product placement and cross-promotion in video games.

57) What are some of the benefits of product placements in games, according to their proponents?

58)

In what ways has hypercommercialism come to gaming?

59)

In what ways have smartphones and social media altered the gaming industry?

60)

List the ESRB rating designations and tell what each means.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

61) What are the strengths and weaknesses of the ESRB ratings system? Do you think industry self-regulation is sufficient to protect young people from inappropriate content?

Speculate on the relative effectiveness of the game and movie ratings.

62) Discuss at least two ethical issue surrounding gaming and children. Offer your personal view of the issues.

63) Discuss the ways in which convergence has shaped the development of the video game industry. How will it further affect the medium's development?

64) What are the arguments for and against video games as being productive and "good"?

Can you think of any other arguments for either side? Which side do you agree with? Explain.

65) Discuss the position of women in the world of gaming. What has contributed to this state of affairs, and what hope is there of meaningful change?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) B 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) B 26) A

27) C 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) A 32) C 33) C 34) D 35) C 36) B 37) B 38) A 39) A 40) C 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) C 45) D 46) A 47) D 48) C 49) A 50) B 51) Answers will vary.

52) Answers will vary.

53) Answers will vary.

54) Answers will vary.

55) Answers will vary.

56) Answers will vary.

57) Answers will vary.

58) Answers will vary.

59) Answers will vary.

60) Answers will vary.

61) Answers will vary.

62) Answers will vary.

63) Answers will vary.

64) Answers will vary.

65) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Facebook depression is not recognized by the American Academy of Pediatrics. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2) The first successful commercial computer, used in the 1950s by the Census Bureau, was UNIVAC. ⊚ ⊚

3)

true false

Personal computer, microcomputer, and terminal are all synonymous.

⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

Tim Berners-Lee developed the hypertext transfer protocols (HTTP). ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Software programs loaded onto users' computers and used to download and view Web files are known as browsers. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

The massive collection and distillation of consumer data is referred to as dataveillance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) When people go online, the click streams they leave provide them with privacy protection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Although some critics see the Internet as possibly harmful to the democratic process, more traditional media—radio, for example—were universally hailed as bringing more people into the political process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) There is little doubt that municipal broadband is a fundamental right that should be available to all citizens.

⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Disinformation and misinformation are fundamentally the same on the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) The global network of interconnected computers that communicate freely and share and exchange information is called the A) Information Superhighway.

B) protocol.

C) World Wide Web. D) Internet.

12) The "originator of the computer" was _____________, an Englishman who in 1836 produced designs for a "computer" that could conduct algebraic computations using stored memory and punch cards for input and output.

A) John Napier B) Blaise Pascal C) Gottfried Leibnitz D) Charles Babbage

13) The first electronic digital computer,_____________, was developed by the British during World War II to help break the German's secret code.

A) ENIAC B) UNIVAC C) Colossus D) ARPA

14) Computers that reduce information to a code made up of the digits 1 and 0 for storage and manipulation are using a(n) _____________ code.

A) abacus B) binary C) plenary D) primary

15) The first "full-service" electronic computer,_____________, was based on the work of Iowa State University's John V. Atanasoff and introduced by scientists John Mauchly and John Presper Eckert of the University of Pennsylvania in 1946.

A) ENIAC B) UNIVAC C) Colossus D) ARPA

16)

The first successful commercial computer, used by the Census Bureau in 1951, was A) ENIAC. B) UNIVAC. C) Colossus.

D) ARPANET.

17) In 1962,_____________ of the Rand Corporation proposed a packet-switching system that would allow the military to maintain command over its missiles and planes in the event of a nuclear attack. It is the basis of what we know today as the Internet.

A) John Mauchly B) Paul Allen C) Paul Baran D) Steve Jobs

18)

Computers that link individual personal computer users to the Internet are called A) terminals.

B) mainframes.

C) ARPANET. D) hosts.

19) The development of the_____________—with its small size, absence of heat, and low cost—made personal computers possible.

A) terminal B) microcomputer C) vacuum tube D) semiconductor

20)

The Apple II personal computer was developed by A) Steve Jobs and Stephen Wozniak.

B) Bill Gates and Paul Allen.

C) Paul Baran and Paul Allen.

D) Steven Bellovin and Vinton Cerf.

21) The "network of networks", consisting of LANs (Local Area Networks—networks connecting two or more computers, usually within the same building) and WANs (Wide Area Networks—networks that connect several LANs in different locations), is called the A) provider.

B) World Wide Web. C) Internet.

D) host.

22)

Websites that function as online communities of users are called

A) listservs.

B) VoIP. C) Usenet.

D) social networking sites.

23) A _____________ is a personal web page that comments on the news and provides links to stories that back up the commentary with evidence.

A) dialog B) blog C) usenet D) listserv

24) Because of its absolute centrality to virtually all aspects of modern life, in 2020 the United Nations declared _________ a fundamental human right.

A) Internet access B) broadband Internet access C) social media connectivity.

D) online capitalism

25) The availability of trustworthy_____________—coding and decoding—technologies that make online use of credit and bank card numbers, addresses, social security numbers, and other sensitive information safer for both seller and buyer has fueled interest in the Internet as a place to do business.

A) Web-lock B) encryption C) Net filter D) scanner

26) Proponents of Internet freedom see its_____________ as providing protection for unpopular expression; proponents of greater Internet control see it as the Internet's greatest danger.

A) anonymity B) reach C) breadth D) low cost

27) According to long-time New Yorker columnist A. J. Liebling, freedom of the press is guaranteed to A) all.

B) the media literate.

C) those who own the presses.

D) citizens in a democracy.

28) The dual-factor model of social media use claims our engagement with social media is motivated by the need to belong and the need A) for self-esteem.

B) for self-presentation.

C) to stay current.

D) to not miss out.

29)

The idea that we use social media to communicate our actual identities is the A) dual factor model of social media use.

B) fear of missing out.

C) idealized virtual identity hypothesis.

D) extended real-life hypothesis.

30) The idea that social media users tend to show idealized characteristics that don’t represent who they are is the A) extended real-life hypothesis.

B) idealized virtual identity hypothesis.

C) fear of missing out.

D) dual factor model of social media use.

31)

People who have never known a world without the Internet are known as A) baby boomers.

B) Generation X. C) Generation Y. D) digital natives.

32) Computer stations connected to large, centralized mainframes or minicomputers are called A) personal computers.

B) terminals.

C) microcomputers.

D) LANs.

33)

The software that tells a computer how to work is called its A) microprocessor.

B) MITS. C) WAN. D) operating system.

34) The online home to self-proclaimed men's rights activists who harbor, express, and occasionally act on their ill will toward women is known as

A) the Swamp.

B) the manosphere.

C) Bro Heaven.

D) Misogyny Row.

35) The heart of the web lies in the _____________ (common communication rules and languages) that define its use.

A) software applications B) operating systems C) protocols D) search engines

36) Among the many criticisms of facial recognition technology is its unreliability when identifying A) people when the weather is unsettled.

B) older people and people of color.

C) people in large crowds.

D) people wearing disguises.

37) Each file or directory on the Internet (that is, on the host computer connected to the Internet) is designated by an address, called its A) packet locating number (PLN).

B) uniform resource locator (URL).

C) local area network (LAN).

D) internet information locator (IIL).

38) Finding information on the Web is easy thanks to _____________, which provide onscreen menus, making navigation of the web as simple as pointing and clicking.

A) software links B) operating systems C) protocols D) search engines

39) Instances in which copyrighted material may be used without permission or payment are referred to as A) commodification of information.

B) fair use.

C) blogs.

D) listservs.

40) _____ is the discrepancy between the expected and actual emotions generated by Facebook activity.

A) Dual model perspective B) Affective forecasting error C) Facebook depression D) Facebook envy

41) Privacy in the global village has two important dimensions: the use of personal information people willingly give online and the protection of A) communication people wish to keep private.

B) credit card information.

C) important business/customer data.

D) hard discs from snooping software.

42) _____________ is the massive collection, distillation, and distribution of consumer data willingly given by consumers.

A) Direct marketing B) Authorized data sale C) Dataveillance D) Clipping

43)

The electronic tracking of the choices people make when they are surfing the Web is their A) click stream.

B) MUD. C) cybertrail.

D) cookie.

44) The widening disparity between the communication technology haves and have-nots is referred to as A) flat-rate billing.

B) the information gap.

C) the information slow lane.

D) the technology gap.

45) The lack of technological access among people of color, the poor, the disabled, and those living in rural areas is called the A) information gap.

B) digital divide.

C) information slow lane.

D) technology gap.

46) _____________ is a form of technologically imposed censorship, in which people without the new communication technology have diminished access to the information it makes available.

A) Cyberdemocracy B) The information gap C) The information slow lane D) The technology gap

47)

The intensity of the online world can sometimes trigger ________ in teens.

A) Facebook depression B) social isolation C) Facebook envy D) fear of missing out

48) _____________ is the requirement that all ISPs allow the free and equal flow of all Web traffic.

A) Network neutrality B) Opt-out C) Opt-in D) Consumer Privacy Bill of Rights

49)

Resenting the positive posts of friends on social media is known as A) social isolation.

B) peer pressure.

C) Facebook envy.

D) Facebook depression.

50) In 2012, the Internet industry and federal government responded to users’ fear for their personal privacy with ________________, voluntary guidelines asking sites to place a “do not track” button on their Web pages.

A) network neutrality B) the Protect Intellectual Property Act C) the Stop Online Piracy Act D) Consumer Privacy Bill of Rights

51) ________ is the use of digital technology to solicit donations for a cause or project from a large number of people to attract financial and other support for those in need.

A) Crowdfunding B) Flashmobbing C) Smartmobbing D) Crowdsourcing

52) The collection and selling of people’s human experiences not only enrich social media companies but also, according to critics, grant them unprecedented economic control of every form of public discourse. Those critics call this

A) monetizing humanity.

B) the trust gap.

C) surveillance capitalism.

D) a free-trade exchange.

53) are

Because people on the Internet and social media create content as they consume it, they

A) audiences, not users.

B) users, not audiences.

C) recreators.

D) digital natives.

54) Many critics derogatorily call individually inspired examples of online activism “slacktivism” because

A) they see it as too liberal.

B) they see it as too embedded in the status quo.

C) its anonymity is an invitation for mischief.

D) it seems to require little effort.

55) The Internet of Things, in which everyday objects have built-in network connectivity that allows them to send and receive data, is not expanding as quickly as it might because of

A) the high cost of connection.

B) the difficulty people have in using these devices.

C) concerns about privacy.

D) the high cost of the devices themselves.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

56) What is the significance of Colossus, ENIAC, and UNIVAC?

57) Identify at least five rights articulated in the recently proposed Internet Bill of Rights and explain why you believe that they are rights that should be available to all Internet users.

58)

Distinguish between LANs and WANs.

59) People using the World Wide Web encounter hosts, URLs, browsers, search engines, and home pages. Define each of these terms.

60) How has the introduction of new computer technologies changed the issue of privacy in mass communication?

61)

Why is it inaccurate to speak of the Internet's audience?

62)

How do the technology gap and information gap differ? How are they related?

63) What does A. J. Liebling mean when he says that freedom of the press is guaranteed only to those who own the presses? What does this suggest about the relationship between the Internet and democracy?

64) How does the existence of “finstas” relate to the debate surrounding the presentation of self on social media?

65) The European Union’s General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) gives Internet users in its member countries significant privacy protections unavailable to American users.

Interestingly, the tech giants that serve U.S. users accept those rules in Europe. What are some of the GDPR’s provisions? Offer your thoughts on why American users cannot expect the same level of privacy protection.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

66) Supporters of Internet freedom see the medium's anonymity as one of its greatest strengths. Proponents of stricter Internet control see it as one of its greatest threats. Discuss the position of each side in the debate over control of Internet expression and then take—and defend—your own position.

67) Commercialization of the Internet will open it up to even more users. Commercialization of the Internet will cheapen it, making it just another ad-dominated entertainment medium like television. These are two sides in another raging Internet controversy. What is your opinion of the commercialization of the Internet? Defend your position.

68) What are the particular problems facing copyright protection on the Internet? What are some of the possible solutions? How far do you think the government should go in protecting intellectual property rights on the Internet? Defend your position.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) D 12) D 13) C 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) B 24) B 25) B 26) A

27) C 28) B 29) D 30) B 31) D 32) B 33) D 34) B 35) C 36) B 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) B 41) A 42) C 43) A 44) D 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) C 50) D 51) A 52) C 53) B 54) D 55) C 56) Answers will vary.

57) Answers will vary.

58) Answers will vary.

59) Answers will vary.

60) Answers will vary.

61) Answers will vary.

62) Answers will vary.

63) Answers will vary.

64) Answers will vary.

65) Answers will vary.

66) Answers will vary.

67) Answers will vary.

68) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Public relations is a relatively modern development, beginning in earnest with the massive PR campaign to win the public's support for World War I. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

The first corporate public relations department was started by Westinghouse. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The modern era of public relations is characterized by advanced two-way communication. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Many PR firms bill clients a fixed-fee arrangement, a standard surcharge of 17.65% for handling such things as printing, research, and photographs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

5)

For all intents and purposes, advertising and public relations are the same endeavor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) The writers, graphic designers, artists, and video producers at a PR operation are typically referred to as media specialists. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Greenwashing is the PR activity of countering criticism directed at clients by environmental groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Early PR practitioner Ivy Lee is credited with changing his industry from one primarily interested in publicity to one more interested in providing information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Still a culture-based industry, public relations has been able to withstand the forces of globalization.

⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Directly interacting with elected officials or government regulators is the public relations activity known as community relations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) Which group calls for the PR industry to adopt a position of full and total disclosure of information?

A) floggers B) transparentists C) flacks D) lobbyists

12)

An event staged specifically to attract public attention is a A) pseudo-event.

B) photo op.

C) managed moment.

D) nonevent.

13)

Ethical PR professionals reject _______, outright lying or obfuscation.

A) half-truth.

B) spin.

C) deception.

D) misinformation.

14) Unethical PR firms sometimes traffic in fake social media accounts, false narratives, fake fact-checking pages, and counterfeit local news websites, otherwise known as

A) misinformation.

B) spin.

C) astroturf.

D) pink-slime journalism.

15)

The first corporate public relations department was established in 1889 by A) the New York Central Railroad.

B) the New York World.

C) the Publicity Bureau.

D) Westinghouse Electric.

16) The first publicity company,_____________, was established in 1906 to help the railroad industry challenge legislation it opposed.

A) N. W. Ayers & Sons B) the New York World C) the Publicity Bureau D) Lord and Thomas

17) Around 1913, public relations pioneer_____________ issued his Declaration of Principles, which moved the profession's focus from primarily dispensing publicity to providing information.

A) Mason Weems B) George Creel C) Edward Bernays D) Ivy Lee

18) Unethical PR firms sometime engage in _____, science-for-hire, contracted out to consulting firms to give their claims the quantitative cover of seemingly objective scientific research.

A) astroturf B) mercenary science C) pink-slime journalism D) spin

19) Around the 1920s, public relations pioneer_____________ began stressing two-way communication—that is, public relations practitioners talking to people, and in return listening to them when they talked back.

A) Mason Weems B) George Creel C) Edward Bernays D) Ivy Lee

20) President Franklin D. Roosevelt made impressive use of which medium as a public relations tool to sell his New Deal directly to the people?

A) mass-circulation newspapers B) mass-circulation magazines C) radio D) talking movies

21) The Foreign Agents Registration Act of 1938, which required anyone who engages in political activities in the United States on behalf of a foreign power to register as an agent of a foreign power with the Justice Department, was a result of which public relations pioneer's contacts with Nazi Germany?

A) Mason Weems B) George Creel C) Edward Bernays D) Ivy Lee

22) As a result of the public's distrust of public relations, Congress passed the_____________ in 1946, requiring that those who deal with federal employees on behalf of private clients disclose those relationships.

A) Foreign Agents Registration Act B) Federal Regulation of Lobbying Act C) Public Relations Control Act D) Truth in Publicity Act

23) During the 1950s and 1960s, women began to assume prominent roles in public relations.

Among the most notable was President Dwight Eisenhower's associate press secretary A) Leone Baxter.

B) Anne Williams Wheaton.

C) Peggy Lee. D) Roberta Johndrew.

24) Some public relations firms bill clients according to the performance of a specific set of services for a specific and prearranged fee, a method known as A) fixed-fee arrangements.

B) collateral materials.

C) flat rate billing.

D) retainer billing.

25) Some public relations firms bill clients by adding a surcharge as high as 17.65% for such things as printing, research, and photographs, which are known as

A) fixed-fee arrangements.

B) collateral materials.

C) flat rate billing.

D) retainer billing.

26)

The public relations activity of getting media coverage for clients is called A) public affairs.

B) lobbying.

C) promotion.

D) publicity.

27) The public relations activity of interacting with officials and leaders of the various power centers with whom a client must deal is known as A) public affairs.

B) financial public relations.

C) promotion.

D) publicity.

28) The public relations activity that involves enhancement of communication between investor-owned companies and their shareholders, the financial community (for example, banks, annuity groups, and investment firms), and the public is known as A) public affairs.

B) financial public relations.

C) promotion.

D) publicity.

29) The public relations activity known as_____________ typically uses a large-scale public relations campaign designed to move or shape opinion on a specific issue.

A) public affairs B) issues management C) promotion D) media relations

30) Employees, stockholders, the investment community, and the government are among public relations’________, any group of people with a stake in an organization, issue, or idea.

A) customers B) clients C) publics D) targets

31) The research tool_____________ employs small groups of a targeted public that are interviewed in detail to provide a public relations operation and its clients with feedback.

A) polling B) one-on-one interviewing C) focus groups D) delineating

32) Public relations firms with particular skill at countering the PR efforts of environmentalists are said to be good at A) whitewashing.

B) greenwashing.

C) enviro-manipulation.

D) countermentalism.

33) Your boss at your new job wants you to start a blog under your own name, posing as an everyday client who uses your firm’s accounting services. She wants you to “objectively” praise the wonderful experience you’ve had. In other words, she wants you to start and maintain

A) a cybermask.

B) a flog.

C) an integrated marketing scheme.

D) an ethical blog.

34) Public relations professionals have________ over the placement of their information; advertising professionals have________ over the placement of their information.

A) control; no control B) no control; control C) control; control D) no control; no control

35) When a PR firm actively combines public relations, marketing, advertising, and promotion into a more or less seamless communication campaign that is as at home on the web as it is on the television screen and magazine page, it is engaging in A) full-service public relations.

B) integrated marketing communications.

C) PR convergence.

D) greenwashing.

36) The history of public relations is divided into four stages—early public relations, the propaganda-publicity stage, early two-way communication, and A) the modern technological era.

B) advanced two-way communication.

C) the cyberage.

D) the laissez-faire approach.

37) _______ is a derogatory, but common, name sometimes applied to public relations professionals.

A) Stooge B) Flack C) Hustler D) Information specialist

38) Around 1920, the beginning of the_____________ era of public relations, PR companies began talking to people and listening to them when they talked back—in other words, representing their various publics to their clients, just as they represented their clients to those publics.

A) early public relations B) propaganda-publicity stage C) early two-way communication D) modern technological era

39) Your firm billed its client, the local water company, for the printing of its flier promoting its desired rate increase. The total cost was set in advance. In this instance, your firm was employing

A) collateral materials billing.

B) performance-based billing.

C) service-based billing.

D) a fixed-fee arrangement.

40) There are many publics with whom PR professionals interact, including an organization's _____________ with company newsletters, social events, and internal and external recognition of superior performance.

A) employees B) stockholders C) communities D) media

41) There are many publics with whom PR professionals interact, including an organization's _____________; they own the organization (if it is a corporation), and their goodwill is necessary for the business to operate.

A) employees B) stockholders C) communities D) media

42) PR professionals interact with an organization’s _____________, or neighbors, to generate goodwill.

A) employees B) stockholders C) communities D) media

43)

PR professionals interact with the _____________ through press packets and briefings.

A) employees B) stockholders C) communities D) media

44) As "the voice of the people," which public deserves the attention of any organization that deals with the people?

A) employees B) the government C) communities D) the media

45) __________ refers to a fake grassroots organization; that is, one funded in secret by those with a vested interest in the issue at hand.

A) Greenwashing B) VNR C) Spin D) Astroturf

46) PR efforts on behalf of charities, relief groups, or other organizations serving publics in need are called A) do-good PR. B) cause marketing.

C) viral PR. D) lobbying.

47) Anticipating, analyzing, and interpreting public opinion, attitudes and issues that might impact, for good or ill, the operations and plans of the organization are part of PR's___________ function.

A) lobbying B) management C) client-centered D) ethical

48) When PR professionals directly interact with elected officials or government regulators and agents, they are engaging in A) public affairs.

B) lobbying.

C) promotion.

D) publicity.

49) Public affairs work in the communities in which an organization exists is characteristic of which public relations service?

A) community relations B) lobbying C) promotion D) publicity

50) When the department store Barneys was beset by numerous complaints of racial discrimination, it undertook an aggressive PR campaign to speak to those who felt disenfranchised by the events. This is an example of A) community relations.

B) lobbying.

C) promotion.

D) minority relations/multicultural affairs.

51) As of 1938, anyone who engages in political activities in the United States on behalf of a foreign power must register with the Justice Department as an agent of that power due to the

A) Foreign Agents Registration Act. B) Federal Regulation of Lobbying Act. C) Public Relations Control Act. D) Truth in Publicity Act.

52)

____________ is the integration of business operations and organizational values.

A) Community-based PR B) Doing well by doing good C) Public relations D) Corporate social responsibility

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

53) What are the four historical stages of public relations?

54)

What is a pseudo-event?

55) Who wrote the Declaration of Principles for public relations? What was its importance to the profession?

56)

What was the contribution of PR pioneer Edward Bernays to how the industry operates?

57) Five factors have worked to shape the operation of public relations throughout its four stages. What are they, and what was the impact of each on the industry?

58)

What are the five management functions of PR?

59)

What are the 14 public relations activities? List and briefly describe each.

60) What are the seven departments typically found in a large public relations operation? List and briefly describe each.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

61) Describe the four developmental stages of the public relations industry. What major shifts in how the industry operates characterize each, and what social, political, technological, and professional developments shaped each era?

62) Public relations, justifiably or otherwise, does not enjoy overwhelming public trust. Why is this? What are the complaints of PR pioneer Edward Bernay and others? If asked, could you mount a defense of contemporary public relations? If you can, how would you do it? If you cannot, explain why.

63) The Internet and social media are changing communication—this can certainly be seen in the PR landscape. What are some ways technology has altered PR? What is the impact on PR professionals? The various publics? In your opinion, what does this mean for the future of PR? What changes have you seen made to PR strategies through your use of social media and the Internet? What changes would you recommend going forward if you were working in this industry?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) C 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) D

27) A 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) B 34) B 35) B 36) B 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) D 44) B 45) D 46) B 47) B 48) B 49) A 50) D 51) A 52) D 53) Answers will vary.

54) Answers will vary.

55) Answers will vary.

56) Answers will vary.

57) Answers will vary.

58) Answers will vary.

59) Answers will vary.

60) Answers will vary.

61) Answers will vary.

62) Answers will vary.

63) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Toxic content is online advertising that offends potential customers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) The industry’s own research shows that fewer TV commercials results in greater program and commercial success. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The listening public was outraged when radio station WEAF began airing commercials in 1922. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Products in a given brand category that are essentially the same are called unique selling propositions (USPs). ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) A large proportion of the country’s biggest brands are moving all or part of their advertising business to in-house agencies. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

False advertising and puffery are essentially the same. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) In an ad agency, the account management department typically develops an ad's copy and design. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

CPM refers to cost per million and is one standard for determining an ad's effectiveness. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9) Ads touting a "midnight madness sale" or "back-to-school sale" are examples of promotional retail advertising. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) VALS is a psychographic segmentation strategy that classifies consumers according to values and lifestyles.

⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) ______ refers to automated, data-driven buying of online advertising.

A) Search marketing B) Ambient advertising C) Rich media D) Programmatic buying

12) ______ refers to sophisticated, interactive web advertising, usually employing sound and video.

A) Search marketing B) Ambient advertising C) Rich media D) Programmatic buying

13) Advertising that seeks to make the link between a product and a specific lifestyle is ______ advertising.

A) demonstrative B) brand C) associative D) marketing

14) Advertising that touts the functional benefits of a product or service is ______ advertising.

A) demonstrative B) brand C) associative D) marketing

15) Advertising in the United States was a small business until the mid-1800s, when industrialization and ______ combined to alter the social and cultural landscape, bringing about advertising's expansion.

A) the Spanish-American War B) the introduction of radio C) the Civil War D) the freeing of the slaves

16) Limiting the number of times an online user sees the same commercial message in a given period of time is known as

A) frequency capping.

B) targeting.

C) programmatic buying.

D) rich media.

17) With the rapid industrialization and improved transportation of the 1880s, more product producers were chasing the growing purchasing power of more consumers. As a result, they were forced to differentiate their products, resulting in the development of A) slogans.

B) advertising campaigns.

C) public relations.

D) brands.

18)

The Number 1 reason people employ adblockers on their digital devices is

A) their intrusiveness.

B) they block wanted text.

C) the sheer number of ads.

D) to stop battery drain.

19) In the span between the Civil War and the First World War, several factors combined to move the advertising industry to establish professional standards and regulate itself, including abuses by patent medicine advertisers; the examination of most of the country's important institutions, led by the muckrakers; and ______ in 1914.

A) the establishment of the Federal Trade Commission B) falling profits C) demands from magazines for more ethical operation D) demands from consumers

20) Near the turn of the twentieth century, the _____________ was established to verify magazine circulation claims.

A) Advertising Federation of America B) American Association of Advertising Agencies C) Association of National Advertisers D) Audit Bureau of Circulations

21) was

In the early days of radio—from the 1920s until well after World War II—programming

A) subject to advertiser approval.

B) paid for by advertisers.

C) produced by ad agencies for their clients.

D) free of advertising.

22) The American demographic that spends most, has greater household income, has amassed more accumulated wealth, and is more likely to own their own homes is

A) people 50 years old and over.

B) Millennials.

C) people 18 to 34 years old.

D) Generation X.

23) During the Great Depression, many advertisements began making direct claims about why consumers needed the products, a technique called A) puffery.

B) the hard sell.

C) psychographics.

D) polygraphics.

24) At the outbreak of World War II, several national advertising and media associations joined to develop the ______ and used their expertise to promote numerous government programs.

A) Consumer Union B) National Advertising War Council C) Better Business Bureau D) War Advertising Council

25) To ensure that they did not profit unduly from the death and destruction caused by World War II, manufacturers were subjected to A) a high excess-profits tax.

B) additional FTC scrutiny.

C) greater internal efforts to strengthen ethics.

D) strict limits on the amount of product they could produce.

26)

A product's ______ is what sets it apart from other brands in the same product category.

A) return on investment B) accountability metrics C) unique selling proposition D) forced exposure

27) ________ reject most traditional advertising and use multiple sources—traditional media, the Internet, product-rating magazines, recommendations from friends in-the-know—to not only research a product, but to negotiate price and other benefits.

A) Proactive consumers B) Up-scale consumers C) Niche buyers D) Teenagers

28) Reacting to increasing public criticism and FTC scrutiny in the 1970s, the ad industry established the ______ to monitor potentially deceptive advertising.

A) Advertising Federation of America B) American Association of Advertising Agencies C) Association of National Advertisers D) National Advertising Review Board

29) When most brands in a given product category are essentially the same, they are called ______ products.

A) parity B) USP C) niche D) familial

30) Many in the advertising industry are calling for the use of ______, an accountabilitybased measure of success.

A) engagement B) ROI C) creativity D) USP

31) New media technologies are forcing advertising professionals to reconsider all aspects of how they do business, including the industry's economics, creativity, and A) fee structure.

B) research approach.

C) relationship with consumers.

D) demographic makeup.

32) New, interactive technologies give consumers two choices when making a purchasing decision: exit, simply choosing not to buy the product, or __ ____, explaining exactly why they are not buying.

A) parity B) feedback C) voice D) trailing

33) Economists refer to the process of proactive consumers choosing to either exit from a sale or to voice their dissatisfaction with a product as A) parity.

B) market segmentation.

C) brand awareness.

D) expressing disapproval.

34) ______ is mediated messages paid for by and identified with a business or institution that seeks to increase the likelihood that those who consume those messages will act or think as the advertiser wishes.

A) Public relations B) Promotion C) Advertising D) Puffery

35) _________ refers to advertising sold next to or in search results produced by users' key word searches.

A) Search marketing B) Ambient advertising C) Rich media D) Permission marketing

36)

Advertising agencies bill ad production at an agreed-upon price called a A) retainer.

B) commission.

C) percentage.

D) per diem.

37) Placement of advertising in media is compensated through a ______, typically 15 percent of the cost of the time or space.

A) retainer B) commission C) percentage D) per diem

38) The ______ department is typically headed by an account executive, who serves as liaison between agency and client, keeping communication flowing between the two and heading the team of specialists assigned by the agency to the client.

A) creative B) administration C) account management D) account relations

39) The ______ department is where the advertising is developed from idea to ad. It involves copywriting, graphic design, and often the actual production of the piece, for example, radio, television, and web spots.

A) creative B) administration C) media D) account relations

40) The ______ department makes the decisions about where and when to place ads and then buys the appropriate time or space.

A) creative B) administration C) media D) account relations

41) The effectiveness of an ad's placement is often judged by its cost per thousand (CPM), or the cost of reaching 1,000 audience members. For example, an ad that costs $20,000 to place in a major newspaper that is read by 1 million people has a CPM of A) $2.00.

B) $20.00.

C) $200.00.

D) $1,000.00.

42) ______ advertising employs messages aimed at retailers and does not necessarily push the product or brand, but promotes product issues of importance to the retailer, such as volume, marketing support, profit potential, distribution plans, and promotional opportunities.

A) Institutional B) National consumer C) Trade D) Retail

43) ______ advertising is the advertising of products by stores like Sears and Macy's. It is typically local, reaching consumers where they live and shop.

A) Institutional B) National consumer C) Trade D) Retail

44)

______ refers to the melding of brands and experiences.

A) Marketing B) Experiential marketing C) Rich media D) Corrective advertising

45) Clients are increasingly asking advertisers for ______, agreements on campaign-specific outcomes and consensus on how the effectiveness of a specific ad or campaign be judged.

A) accountability metrics B) permission billing C) value compensation D) ruled placements

46) Creating advertising to appeal to audiences of varying personal and social characteristics, such as race, gender, and economic level, is called ______ segmentation.

A) psychographic B) phylographic C) zip code D) demographic

47) Creating advertising to appeal to consumer groups of varying lifestyles, attitudes, values, and behavior patterns is called ______ segmentation.

A) psychographic B) phylographic C) zip code D) demographic

48) One of the difficult issues in the regulation of advertising is finding the line between false or deceptive advertising and ______, that little lie that makes advertising more entertaining than it might otherwise be.

A) clutter B) bending C) fudging D) puffery

49) In advertising research, ______ measures the effectiveness of advertising messages by showing them to consumers.

A) recall testing B) forced exposure C) recognition testing D) copy testing

50) Among the criticisms of advertising is its ______, the fact that ads are everywhere—in schools, on sidewalks, even in the sky.

A) deceptiveness B) intrusiveness C) exploitativeness D) crassness

51) A recent trend in advertising is the proliferation of__________, smaller, more personalized, and task-specific ad agencies.

A) craft shops B) boutique agencies C) designer agencies D) mini-shops

52)

___________ accounts for the greatest proportion of online ad spending.

A) Rich media B) Video advertising C) Banner ads D) Search marketing

53) ___________ is a form of online adverting that directs users who’ve expressed an interest in a product or service to a brand’s sales pipeline.

A) Push marketing B) Pull marketing C) Lead generation D) Search advertising

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

54) How did industrialization and the Civil War boost the need for advertising?

55) Two major problems facing agencies and their clients are toxic content and programmatic ad fraud. Describe each and explain how each hurts both agency and client. Discuss the value of likely industry solutions.

56) What was the relationship between advertisers and the radio programs that carried their commercials at the time of the first radio commercial in 1922?

57)

How did the hard sell come to advertising?

58) What is the relationship between parity products and the idea of unique selling propositions?

59) What are the three new approaches many advertising executives see as essential to the continued success of their industry?

60)

Ad agencies make their money through retainers and commissions. Define each.

61)

How is CPM computed?

62)

What are specific ways in which the Internet has altered advertising?

63)

Differentiate between psychographic and demographic segmentation.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

64) What makes an ad "false" by law? Describe in detail the regulatory powers available to the FTC when it is faced with an example of false advertising. What factors make the regulation of ad content sometimes difficult?

65) Detail four defenses of contemporary advertising. Then either support or refute each in detail.

66) Detail four criticisms of contemporary advertising. Then either defend or refute each in detail.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) D 12) C 13) C 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) C

27) A 28) D 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) A 40) C 41) B 42) C 43) D 44) B 45) A 46) D 47) A 48) D 49) D 50) B 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) Answers will vary.

55) Answers will vary.

56) Answers will vary.

57) Answers will vary.

58) Answers will vary.

59) Answers will vary.

60) Answers will vary.

61) Answers will vary.

62) Answers will vary.

63) Answers will vary.

64) Answers will vary.

65) Answers will vary.

66) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Mass society theory is an example of a middle-range theory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Critical cultural theory typically finds its intellectual home in conservative political circles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) In two-step flow theory, the power of media to change attitudes and behaviors is thought to be enhanced through the intervention of opinion leaders.

⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Selective exposure predicts that people will interpret messages in a manner consistent with their preexisting attitudes and beliefs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) The uses and gratifications approach is interested in what people do with media rather than in what media do to people. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) The idea that media don't tell us what to think, but what to think about, is called dependency theory because people are dependent on media for information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) In social construction of reality theory, collections of meanings that individuals assign to specific phenomena and situations are called typification schemes. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

Neo-Marxist theory focuses on the elite's control of the base, or means of production. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Because institutions and the people in them, for example politics and politicians, must respond to the demands of the medium in which they wish to express themselves, they must apply media logic.

⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Social cognitive theorists consider identification to be a special form of imitation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) Advertisers encourage their audience to perceive their products as having meaning beyond the product’s actual function through A) product positioning.

B) symbolic interaction.

C) modeling.

D) agenda setting.

12)

Media effects on individuals are said to be A) micro-level effects.

B) macro-level effects.

C) transmissional effects.

D) ritual effects.

13)

Media effects that occur at the cultural level are said to be A) micro-level effects.

B) macro-level effects.

C) administrative effects.

D) critical effects.

14) Questions about media's impact on issues, such as what kind of nation we are building or what kind of people we are becoming, are characteristic of ______ research.

A) micro-level B) transmissional C) critical D) ritual

15) The view of mass media as central to the maintenance of society over time and the representation of shared beliefs is the ______ perspective.

A) micro-level B) macro-level C) transmissional D) ritual

16) Research questions about the immediate, observable influence of mass communication are examples of ______ research.

A) micro-level B) ritual C) organic D) administrative

17) The ______ perspective of mass communication sees media as senders of messages (discrete bits of information) across space.

A) ritual B) transmissional C) critical D) administrative

18) In a typical beer ad, "buy this beer" is the ______ message, whereas "you need this beer to have fun, to be attractive, and to have friends" may be its ______ message.

A) ritual; transmissional B) transmissional; ritual C) micro-level; macro-level D) administrative; critical

19) Which of the following theories argues that cultures give symbols meaning and then those symbols control behavior?

A) the social construction of reality theory B) the symbolic interaction theory C) the gatekeeper theory D) the agenda setting theory

20) Which of the following theories argues that media do not tell us what to think, but what to think about?

A) the social construction of reality theory B) the symbolic interaction theory C) the gatekeeper theory D) the agenda setting theory

21) Mass communication ______ are explanations and predictions of social phenomena that attempt to relate mass communication to various aspects of our personal and cultural lives or social systems.

A) assumptions B) hypotheses C) theories D) sciences

22) Ideas that explain or predict only limited aspects of the mass communication process are called

A) assumptions.

B) testable hypotheses.

C) middle-range theories.

D) quasi-sciences.

23) Because mass communication theories are created by people, and are therefore influenced by human biases, the times in which we live, the position we occupy in the mass communication process, and a host of other factors, we can say that these theories are A) dynamic.

B) unreliable.

C) unscientific.

D) human constructions.

24) Because the environments in which they are created change constantly, mass communication theories are said to be A) dynamic.

B) unreliable.

C) unscientific.

D) human constructions.

25)

The emergence of cultural theory in mass communication signaled a return to A) the primacy of social science observation in communication research.

B) the belief in powerful media effects.

C) the belief in limited media effects.

D) mass communication theory's roots in psychology and sociology.

26) In mass communication theory, the_______ argues that active audience members use media content to create meaning, and meaningful experiences, for themselves.

A) alternative hypothesis perspective B) meaning-making perspective C) middle-range perspective D) revolutionary perspective

27) During the ______ era of mass communication theory, the media were believed to be corrupting influences that undermined the social order, and "average" people were considered defenseless against their influence.

A) mass society theory B) hypodermic needle theory C) limited effects theory D) cultural theory

28) The mass society theory idea that media are a dangerous drug, or a killing force that directly and immediately penetrates a person's system, is summed up in the A) mass society theory.

B) hypodermic needle theory.

C) limited effects theory.

D) cultural theory.

29) You’ve "met" people in the media from a different bounded culture from your own, and now you seem to not only to better understand them but you’ve also come to develop improved attitudes toward them. You are experiencing

A) empathetic media influence.

B) the third-person effect.

C) parasocial contact.

D) the early window.

30) In limited effects theory, the influence of media is thought to be limited by people's intelligence and education, in other words by their A) personal relationships.

B) individual differences.

C) social categories.

D) opinion leaders.

31) In limited effects theory, the influence of media is thought to be limited by people's religious and political affiliations, in other words by their A) personal relationships.

B) individual differences.

C) social categories.

D) opinion leaders.

32) The idea that information from the media, and therefore media effects, travel from media through opinion leaders to opinion followers is called ______ theory.

A) uses and gratifications B) limited effects C) attitude change D) two-step flow

33) Which of the following theories explains how people's attitudes are formed, shaped, and changed through communication and how those attitudes influence behavior?

A) the magic bullet theory B) the limited effects theory C) the attitude change theory D) the two-step flow theory

34) Which of the following theories argues that people experience a kind of mental discomfort when confronted with new information, and as a result, they consciously and subconsciously work to limit or reduce that discomfort?

A) dissonance theory B) limited effects theory C) attitude change theory D) two-step flow theory

35) People's psychological dissonance is reduced through the selective processes, one of which is ______, the process in which people attend to only those messages that are consistent with their preexisting attitudes and beliefs.

A) selective exposure B) selective retention C) selective perception D) selective counterveillance

36) People's psychological dissonance is reduced through the selective processes, one of which is ______, the process by which people interpret messages in a manner consistent with their preexisting attitudes and beliefs.

A) selective exposure B) selective retention C) selective perception D) selective counterveillance

37) The idea that mass communication ordinarily does not serve as a necessary and sufficient cause of audience effects, but rather functions among and through a nexus (web) of mediating factors and influences, is the basis of Joseph Klapper's ______ theory.

A) two-step flow B) dissonance C) magic bullet D) reinforcement

38) Which of the following theories argues that media don't do things to people; rather, people do things with media?

A) uses and gratifications theory B) limited effects theory C) attitude change theory D) agenda setting theory

39) Which of the following theories produced theorist Stuart Hall, who first developed the idea of media as a public forum?

A) cultural theory B) limited effects theory C) attitude change theory D) British cultural theory

40) Rooted in European thought, the contemporary media theory that asserts that media have become so central and essential to modern societies that those societies are forced to change in important ways to accommodate them is known as A) uses and gratifications.

B) mediatization theory.

C) media logic.

D) agenda setting.

41) Which of the following theories is the idea that people learn through observation to model the behaviors they see?

A) selective observation theory B) excitation theory C) social cognitive theory D) vicarious reinforcement theory

42)

Social cognitive theorists call the direct replication of an observed behavior A) modeling.

B) imitation.

C) identification.

D) behavioral hierarchy.

43) Social cognitive theorists give the label ______ to the special form of imitation in which observers do not exactly copy what they have seen but make a more generalized, still-related response.

A) modeling B) vicarious reinforcement C) identification D) behavioral hierarchy

44) In social cognitive theory, seeing a model punished for a behavior reduces the likelihood that the observer will perform that behavior. This is called A) observation learning.

B) the inhibitory effect.

C) the disinhibitory effect.

D) vicarious reinforcement.

45) In social cognitive theory, seeing a model rewarded for prohibited or threatening behavior increases the likelihood that the observer will perform that behavior. This is called A) observation learning.

B) the inhibitory effect.

C) the disinhibitory effect.

D) vicarious reinforcement.

46) The underlying assumption of ______ theory is that our experience of reality is an ongoing, social construction, not something that is only sent, delivered, or otherwise transmitted to a docile public.

A) uses and gratifications B) limited effects C) attitude change D) cultural

47) Theorists in the 1930s who valued serious art and saw consumption of art as a means to elevate people to a better life represented A) attitude change theory.

B) Neo-Marxism.

C) the Frankfurt School.

D) British cultural theory.

48) People frequently use symbolic interaction theory when they are studying advertising's influence because advertisers often succeed by employing ______, or encouraging the audience to perceive their products as symbols that have meaning beyond their actual function.

A) social construction of reality B) neo-Marxism C) symbolic interaction D) product positioning

49) Which of the following theories argues that people who share a culture also share an ongoing correspondence of meaning?

A) social construction of reality theory B) cultivation analysis theory C) symbolic interaction theory D) product positioning theory

50) In social construction of reality theory, ______ are collections of meanings assigned to some phenomenon or situation.

A) typification schemes B) signs C) symbols D) artifacts

51) The theory of ______ says that television constructs a reality of the world that, although possibly inaccurate, becomes the accepted reality simply because we as a culture believe it to be true.

A) social construction of reality B) cultivation analysis C) symbolic interaction D) product positioning

52) The belief foremost in cultivation analysis is that because we all share a common public message system (television), the ______ of reality occurs, moving individual and different people toward a shared, television-created understanding of how things are.

A) mean world B) resonance C) mainstreaming D) positioning

53) Which of the following theories rely on the idea that the media operate primarily to justify and support the status quo at the expense of ordinary people?

A) social scientific theories B) cultivation theories C) British cultural theories D) critical cultural theories

54) Marxism rests on the belief that people are oppressed by those who own the factories and the land—the means of production, or A) base.

B) superstructure.

C) cultural assumption.

D) commune.

55) Modern neo-Marxist mass communication theorists believe that people are oppressed by those who control the culture, or ______; in other words, religion, politics, arts, literature, and the mass media.

A) base B) superstructure C) cultural assumption D) communistic

56) Which of the following is the study of how economic and other influences on the way news is produced distort and bias news coverage toward those in power?

A) symbolic interaction B) social construction of reality C) the Frankfurt School D) news production research

57) The daily time and cost demands of U.S. journalism result in newspapers and broadcasts composed of a large number of brief, capsulated stories with little room for perspective and context, resulting in ______ news.

A) personalized B) dramatized C) fragmented D) normalized

58) One view of the relationship between media violence and viewer aggression is____________, the idea that media portrayals can suggest that certain classes of people, such as women or foreigners, are acceptable targets for real-world aggression, thereby increasing the likelihood that some people will act violently toward people in these groups.

A) catharsis B) the stimulation model C) reinforcement D) the aggressive cues model

59) The idea that there is a direct causal relationship between violent content and aggressive behavior is known as

A) catharsis.

B) the stimulation model.

C) reinforcement.

D) the aggressive cues model.

60) Before they develop the intellectual and critical capacity to know what is not real, children confront the world in all its splendor and vulgarity through television. Television-effects researchers call this

A) catharsis.

B) the early window.

C) reinforcement.

D) subliminal effects.

61) When adults consume entertainment media, they intentionally accept as real what is put before them. This is known as

A) catharsis.

B) the stimulation model.

C) the willing suspension of disbelief.

D) the open window.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

62) What assumptions are embedded in magic bullet theory and hypodermic needle theory?

63)

What is meant by middle-range theory?

64)

What three factors have historically led to shifts in mass communication theory?

65)

What is the difference between micro- and macro-level media effects?

66)

What is the difference between administrative and critical media research?

67)

Briefly describe two-step flow theory.

68)

What is meant by dissonance in dissonance theory?

69)

How does agenda setting operate in contemporary mass media?

70) Define the symbols, signs, and typification schemes of social construction of reality theory.

71) What is the distinction between Marxist and neo-Marxist theory in regards to base and superstructure?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

72) How can entertainment content help overcome resistance to important social messages, such as health information? How has research demonstrated this effect, and can you explain a situation in your own experience where a piece of entertaining fare moved you to take action or change your opinion on an important social issue?

73) Critical cultural theorists argue that elites use their power over the media to maintain a culture that is beneficial to them and detrimental to most others. Do you agree or disagree with them? How do you account for the fact that the vast majority of people seem content with the current structure and operation of our media system? Defend your answer.

74) Of course the news media are liberal! Or are they? What are the arguments on both sides of that much-contested assertion? Offer your perspective.

75) The text cites three forces that usually operate to bring about shifts in mass communication theory. What are they? How did they cause a shift from limited effects theories to more culturally oriented theories?

76) Draw the distinction between first-order agenda setting and second-order agenda setting.

Why is that distinction important when assessing the impact of media messages, particularly news?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 13 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) A 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) D 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) B

27) A 28) B 29) C 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) C 34) A 35) A 36) C 37) D 38) A 39) D 40) B 41) C 42) B 43) C 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) C 48) D 49) A 50) A 51) B 52) C 53) D 54) A 55) B 56) D

57) C 58) D 59) B 60) B 61) C 62) Answers will vary.

63) Answers will vary.

64) Answers will vary.

65) Answers will vary.

66) Answers will vary.

67) Answers will vary.

68) Answers will vary.

69) Answers will vary.

70) Answers will vary.

71) Answers will vary.

72) Answers will vary.

73) Answers will vary.

74) Answers will vary.

75) Answers will vary.

76) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) The libertarian model of press control is based on the self-righting principle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Those who hold the absolutist position on the First Amendment are willing to make an exception when it comes to control of offensive and indecent content. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Content that is purely entertainment, such as a fun summer movie, does not enjoy First Amendment protection because it is totally commercial in its intent, and therefore, not of "the press." ⊚ true ⊚ false

4)

In the free-press-fair-trial debate, the First and Sixth Amendments conflict. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Slander typically applies to the false and malicious publication of material that damages a person's reputation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) A reporter’s commitment to equity is how well he or she affords the subjects in a story as much self-respect as possible. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Most media professionals favor licensing of media practitioners if it will produce higher standards of operation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8) When a social media site removes the pages of a group that consistently violates its terms of use that group has been deplatformed. ⊚ ⊚

9)

Democracy requires a free press. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

true false

The editors of The Progressive fought the government over the issue of prior restraint. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) The First Amendment is based on the ______ philosophy that people cannot govern themselves in a democracy unless they have access to the information they need for that governance.

A) social responsibility B) socialistic C) libertarian D) federalist

12) The ______ principle is represented by the paired ideas that the free flow or trade of ideas ensures that public discourse will allow the truth to emerge, and that truth will emerge from this public discourse because people are inherently rational and good.

A) social responsibility B) Federalist C) First Amendment D) self-righting

13) When discussing the First Amendment, Supreme Court Justice Hugo Black said, "No law means no law." He was expressing the ______ position on the freedom of press and speech.

A) absolutist B) social responsibility C) patriarchal D) self-righting

14) The Supreme Court, in its decision in ______, stated that the First Amendment was "among the fundamental personal rights and liberties protected by the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment from impairment by the states." Given that, "Congress shall make no law" is now interpreted as "government agencies shall make no law."

A) Valentine v. Chrestensen B) Gitlow v. New York C) Time, Inc. v. Hill D) Schenck v. United States

15) Advertising, or commercial speech, enjoys First Amendment protection, as established by the Supreme Court in its 1942 ______ decision.

A) Valentine v. Chrestensen B) Gitlow v. New York C) Time, Inc. v. Hill D) Schenck v. United States

16) Because freedom of the press can be limited if the likely result is damaging, there is no absolute freedom of expression in the case of A) commercial media.

B) entertainment content.

C) clear and present danger.

D) free press versus fair trial.

17) The philosophy of ______ states that, in individual First Amendment cases, several factors should be weighed in determining how much freedom the press is granted.

A) social responsibility B) balancing of interests C) clear and present danger D) libertarianism

18) The Supreme Court turned the ________ analogy against NBC, declaring that the FCC had the right to judge content.

A) traffic cop B) moral agent C) wise teacher D) concerned agent

19)

A culture's fundamental values are its A) metaethics.

B) normative ethics.

C) applied ethics.

D) moral agents.

20)

Media practitioners who put their ethical values into action are using

A) metaethics.

B) normative ethics.

C) applied ethics.

D) moral agents.

21)

The guarantee to a fair trial is secured in the ______ Amendment to the Constitution.

A) First B) Sixth C) Fourteenth D) Twenty-Third

22) In 1981 in ______, the Supreme Court determined that television cameras in the courtroom were not inherently damaging to fairness, and different states have since adopted different standards on the issue.

A) Chandler v. Florida B) New York Times v. Sullivan C) Near v. Minnesota D) the Red Lion Decision

23) The false and malicious publication of material that damages a person's reputation (typically applied to print media) is A) slander.

B) libel.

C) privilege.

D) fair comment.

24)

Oral or spoken defamation of a person's character (typically applied to broadcasting) is

A) slander.

B) libel.

C) privilege.

D) fair comment.

25) Potentially libelous or slanderous expression is protected by the First Amendment if it meets the test of all except which of the following?

A) truth B) privilege C) fair comment D) justice

26) The basis for the test of ______ is the idea that the press cannot be deterred from covering legislative, court, or other public activities for fear that the comments of a speaker or witness will open it to claims of libel or slander.

A) truth B) privilege C) fair comment D) due process

27) When a media outlet distributes content with knowledge of its falsity or a reckless disregard for the truth, it has acted with A) prior restraint.

B) actual malice.

C) due cause.

D) lack of privilege.

28) The power of the government to prevent the publication or broadcast of expression is called

A) prior restraint.

B) actual malice.

C) due cause.

D) lack of privilege.

29) In 1957 in ______, the Supreme Court determined that sex and obscenity were not synonymous, a significant advance for freedom of expression. It did, however, legally affirm for the first time that obscenity was unprotected expression.

A) Miller v. State of California B) Near v. Minnesota C) Roth v. United States D) Ginzburg v. United States

30) The legal definition of obscenity was established by which important Supreme Court decision?

A) Miller v. State of California B) Near v. Minnesota C) Citizens United v. FEC D) Ginzburg v. United States

31) According to the FCC, language or material that depicts sexual or excretory activities in a way that is offensive to contemporary community standards is A) obscene.

B) pornographic.

C) offensive.

D) indecent.

32) Legislation that expressly protects reporters’ rights to maintain sources’ confidentiality in court is called a

A) moral agent.

B) public domain.

C) shield law.

D) prior restraint.

33) Among the regulatory requirements that disappeared during the broadcast deregulation movement of the Reagan administration is ______, which required broadcasters to cover issues of public importance and to be fair in that coverage.

A) safe harbor B) ascertainment C) the Fairness Doctrine D) clear and present danger

34) Among the regulatory requirements that disappeared during the broadcast deregulation movement of the Reagan administration is ______, which required broadcasters to determine actively and affirmatively the nature of their audiences' interest, convenience, and necessity.

A) safe harbor B) ascertainment C) the Fairness Doctrine D) clear and present danger

35) The FCC’s standard for regulating on-air language is that content must be ___________ to attract fines or other punishment for the broadcaster.

A) apparently false B) unflattering to public officials C) grossly offensive D) violent in nature

36) Identifying and granting ownership of a given piece of expression, ______ is designed to protect the creator's financial interest in that expression.

A) public domain B) fair use C) copyright D) ascertainment

37) Once the copyright on a piece of expression expires and is not renewed, the material passes into ______, meaning it can be used without permission.

A) the public domain B) fair use C) copyright D) ascertainment

38) A theory that explains how media should ideally operate in a given system of social values is ______ theory.

A) a social scientific B) holistic C) a libertarian D) normative

39) ______ asserts that media must remain free of government control, but in exchange must serve the public. Its core assumptions are a cross between the libertarian principles of freedom and the practical admissions of the need for some form of control over the media.

A) Libertarianism B) The self-righting principle C) Social responsibility theory D) Normative theory

40)

Rules of behavior or moral principles that guide our actions in given situations are

A) consciences.

B) ethics.

C) moral agents.

D) strictures.

41)

In applying ethics, the person making the decisions is called the A) moral compass.

B) ethical actor.

C) moral agent.

D) interested party.

42) Among the individual or group interests that often conflict in ethical dilemmas are those of the ______, a particular person or group that is likely to be affected by media practitioners' actions.

A) object of the act B) financial supporter C) profession D) society

43) The issue of ______, an important tool of journalism, involves the ability of media professionals to keep secret the names of people who provide them with information.

A) prior restraint B) privacy C) confidentiality D) ascertainment

44) One conflict of interest issue that troubles media professionals is ______, in which combat reporters allow military control over their output in exchange for close access to the troops.

A) prior restraint B) shield laws C) privacy D) embedding

45) In addition to industry professional codes, many media organizations have formulated their own institutional policies for conduct. In the case of the broadcast networks, these are enforced by A) standards and practices departments.

B) policy books.

C) operating policies.

D) ombudsmen.

46) A dwindling number of media organizations utilize ______, practitioners internal to the company who serve as "judges" in disputes between the public and the organization.

A) standards and practices departments B) policy chiefs C) operating executives D) ombudsmen

47) Reporters acting deferentially toward news sources in order to ensure continued access is called A) prior restraint.

B) actual malice.

C) embedding.

D) access journalism.

48) The copyright exception of ______ is when the small portions of the original work are used for noncommercial or educational purposes.

A) public domain B) fair use C) licensing D) prior permission

49) Royalty payments in the music industry are collected from users and paid to musicians by ______ like ASCAP and BMI. A) ombudsmen B) standards and practices companies C) licensing companies D) public domain units

50) Social responsibility theory was developed after World War II to replace ______, which was seen as too idealistic a standard for the operation of the U.S. media system.

A) normative theory B) libertarianism C) ascertainment theory D) the self-righting principle

51) At a time of unprecedented national debate over racial, gender, and economic inequality, many journalists have called for a return to_______, journalism that meets the needs of communities directly affected by injustice.

A) movement journalism B) muckraking C) liberal journalism D) access journalism

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

52) What is the traffic-cop analogy?

53)

When can copyrighted media content be used without permission?

54)

What are the seven assumptions of social responsibility theory?

55)

What are the three levels of ethics? Define each.

56) List and define six sets of individual or group interests that moral agents often find in conflict.

57)

Why is confidentiality important in contemporary news gathering and reporting?

58) What is digital rights management? What are its elements and what problem does it hope to resolve?

59)

Should journalists be activists? Always, never, or sometimes? Defend your answer.

60)

List four limitations of media industry self-regulation.

61) Of all the court cases you've read about in this chapter, which do you find the most important in terms of protecting media's First Amendment rights? Explain your answer.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

62) What is prior restraint? Why is it so offensive to supporters of the First Amendment?

When might its use be acceptable? Defend your answer.

63) What is the distinction between pornography, obscenity, and indecency? Which enjoy First Amendment protection? Which do not? Would you grant that protection to all these forms of content, or would you restrict them all? Defend your position.

64) What is your opinion of media industry self-regulation? Do you think it is preferable— even with its limitations—to more stringent government oversight? Do you think that different media warrant different levels of government control, as is the case in the United States today?

Defend your answers.

65) Journalism ethicists Philip Patterson, Lee Wilkins, and Chad Painter proposed evaluating journalists' work according to nine ethical news values. List at least five and explain which one you think is most important to the practice of ethical journalism. If you cannot make that distinction, explain why.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 14 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) D 26) B

27) B 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) B 41) C 42) A 43) C 44) D 45) A 46) D 47) D 48) B 49) C 50) B 51) A 52) Answers will vary.

53) Answers will vary.

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65) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Advertising provides the primary source of financial support for Britain's BBC. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Advertising is strictly forbidden, even today, as a source of financial support for China's broadcast system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) America’s tech giants, such as Google and Apple, insist that the values they hold dear at home, such as freedom of expression and open debate, are guaranteed before they make their products available in China.

⊚ ⊚

true false

4)

Several countries limit the number of American movies they import each year. ⊚ true ⊚ false

5)

Prior restraint is allowed in Great Britain. ⊚ ⊚

6)

Great Britain's media system operates under the Western concept of media. ⊚ ⊚

7)

true false

true false

The Chinese media system is a hybrid of both the U.S. and British systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Italians in Milan were generally approving of Starbucks’ attempt to open a new coffee shop in their venerable city. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Whereas many developing nations fear cultural imperialism, especially from U.S. media, our European friends with well-developed cultures and media systems—for example, the French—do not share those concerns. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10) Different countries spend different amounts of money in support of noncommercial media. Of the following regions or groups of countries, which spends the most?

A) Central Europe (Great Britain, Spain, Germany) B) Asia (China, Japan, Korea) C) Scandinavia (Norway, Finland, Sweden) D) North America (the U.S. and Canada)

11)

Shortwave radio waves reflect off the ionosphere, a behavior called A) skip.

B) bounce.

C) ionospheric extension.

D) skying.

12) As countries across the globe come to fear American domination of their digital infrastructures they will inevitably create an Internet fragmented and divided along national lines, a A) splinternet.

B) Tower of Babel.

C) wave of connective action.

D) nationnet.

13) is

A clandestine broadcast operation that operates outside the region into which it transmits

A) an external service.

B) an indigenous station.

C) an exogenous station.

D) a pirate station.

14) Illegally operated radio stations broadcasting to English audiences from offshore or foreign facilities during the 1960s were called A) external services.

B) indigenous stations.

C) exogenous stations.

D) pirate stations.

15) Many countries maintain broadcasting services, called_____________, that are designed to counter the propaganda of rival nations and disseminate information about themselves around the globe.

A) external services B) indigenous stations C) exogenous stations D) pirate stations

16) The American broadcasting service established during World War II and the Cold War to deliver Department of Defense internal information, and radio and television programming services to overseas Department of Defense personnel and their families is A) Radio/TV Free Europe.

B) Radio/TV Marti.

C) Radio/TV West Germany.

D) the Armed Forces Radio and Television Service.

17) In international broadcasting, an operation established by one country to substitute for another's own domestic service is called A) a surrogate service.

B) an indigenous service.

C) an exogenous service.

D) a pirate service.

18) Originated by Marshall McLuhan, the________ is the idea that new communication technology will permit people to become increasingly involved in one another's lives.

A) Western concept B) global village C) development concept D) revolutionary concept

19) Proponents of the free flow of mass communication across borders support the_______, the idea that globalization inevitably and for the better allows the existence of traces of many cultures in every culture.

A) Western concept B) McBride Report C) hybridization hypothesis D) UNESCO Concept

20) Great Britain does not have a First Amendment similar to that of the United States, allowing the government to practice prior restraint by making an officially issued notice called a A) D-notice.

B) remand warning.

C) prior notification.

D) public service remit.

21) Limits on advertising and other public service requirements imposed on Britain's commercial broadcasters in exchange for the right to broadcast constitute broadcasters' A) D-notice.

B) remand warning.

C) prior notification.

D) public service remit.

22) The _____________ concept is based on the realities that there is no completely free (libertarian) media system on Earth; and that even in the most commercially driven systems, there exists not only the expectation of public service and responsibility, but also significant communication-related activities of government to ensure that media professionals meet those responsibilities.

A) Western B) development C) revolutionary D) authoritarian

23) The normative theory in which government and media work in partnership to ensure that media assist in the planned beneficial development of the country is the_____________ concept.

A) Western B) development C) revolutionary D) authoritarian

24) The normative theory characterized by media attempting to end government monopoly over information, facilitate the organization of opposition to the incumbent powers, destroy the legitimacy of a standing government, and bring down a standing government is the_____________ concept.

A) Western B) development C) revolutionary D) authoritarian

25) The normative theory that calls for the subjugation of media for the purpose of serving the government is the_____________ concept.

A) Western B) development C) revolutionary D) authoritarian

26)

The study of different countries' mass media systems is called A) normative analysis.

B) normative studies.

C) comparative analysis.

D) international studies.

27) In Great Britain the BBC is funded by_____________ based on the number of receivers people have in their homes.

A) voluntary donations B) license fees C) automatic paycheck withdrawals D) a surcharge on set sales

28)

The Chinese media system is based on that of

A) Japan.

B) the United States.

C) Korea.

D) the former Soviet Union.

29) Self-regulation by print and online news outlets in Great Britain exists in the form of________, which accepts complaints from the public and investigates them with the involved outlet.

A) the Independent Press Standards Organisation B) the National Communications Commission C) D-notices D) the BBC

30) The Chinese government recently enacted new rules for Communist party journalists in which they were required to A) report without fear or favor.

B) uphold the highest standards of truthfulness.

C) serve the interest of the Communist Party.

D) adhere to American-style journalistic ethics.

31) In 1980 UNESCO issued its report, the_____________, on the question of maintaining national and cultural sovereignty in the face of the rapid globalization of mass media.

A) Hawthorne Report B) New World Information Order C) MacBride Report D) Report on Cross-Border Communication

32) Many countries, especially developing countries lacking sufficient resources to create their own quality media fare, fear that U.S. cultural values will overwhelm and displace those of their own lands, a process known as A) the New World Information Order.

B) satellite imperialism.

C) cultural imperialism.

D) media transfer.

33) Many mass social movements suffer from_________, those who do not contribute to protests and other mass actions but willingly enjoy the fruits of those efforts.

A) free riders B) lookie-loos C) carpetbaggers D) collateral actors

34) _______________ is the belief that cultural products made in another country can influence or displace indigenous cultural productions, artifacts, and media to the detriment of the receiving nations.

A) Electronic colonialism theory B) Cultural imperialism C) Development concept D) Revolutionary concept

35)

The American surrogate service transmitting into Cuba is Radio and Television A) VOA. B) COMSAT. C) Marti.

D) AFRTS.

36) The French government recently declared books ______, outlawing deep discounts and subjecting books to low taxes, just like food.

A) “national treasures” B) “privileged material” C) “culturally imperative” D) “an essential good”

37) The Internet and social media aid mass social movements is by making possible quick and efficient coordination and rapid action aimed at sometimes shifting political targets. As such, this________ better balances the power differences between demonstrators and their targets.

A) logic of connective action B) logic of collective action C) Arab Spring D) flash-mobbing

38) Radio came to China via an American reporter named_____________, who established an experimental radio station there in 1923.

A) Carl Bernstein B) E. C. Osborn C) Richard Brent D) Frank "Sully" Sullivan

39) Among the world's leading 46 democracies, the news media in ______ are the least trusted by their citizens.

A) China B) the United States C) France D) Iraq

40) Proponents of the global village consider a benefit to be all except which of the following?

A) the world community coming closer together B) all cultures viewing only American content C) a profit for content creators and adopters D) a global culture with new subcultures

41) Among America's external services is_____________, which provides "a touch of home" to Department of Defense and U.S. military personnel around the world.

A) VOA B) COMSAT C) Marti D) AFRTS

42)

Those against the global village say that a negative consequence will be A) more stereotyping against others' cultures.

B) less educational programming for children.

C) fewer television channels across all countries.

D) all global content coming from a small handful of firms.

43) Which one of the following will you not see on a Saudi Arabian broadcast of The Simpsons?

A) Lisa playing the sax B) Bart eating a hamburger C) Homer drinking a Duff Beer D) Marge cooking fish

44) The ______ government ruled that inserting commercial breaks into televised movies at particularly dramatic moments compromises the integrity of the film and is punishable by fine.

A) German B) Swedish C) Chinese D) French

45) FreeNK, which broadcasts antigovernment messages into North Korea from South Korea, is an example of a(n) A) external service.

B) indigenous station.

C) exogenous station.

D) pirate station.

46)

Radio Caroline and Radio Veronica are examples of A) external services.

B) indigenous stations.

C) exogenous stations.

D) pirate stations.

47)

Britain's external service is the A) VOA. B) BBC. C) ITVA. D) B-SkyB.

48)

Clandestine broadcasting truly flowered during

A) the Great Depression.

B) World War II. C) World War I. D) the Cold War.

49) ___________ has the "capacity to render the invisible visible", to draw attention to aspects of any media system, including our own, "that may be taken for granted and difficult to detect when the focus in on only one national case".

A) Comparative analysis B) UNESCO's NWIO C) The Internet D) Satellite broadcasts from across the globe

50)

_________ has the world's largest and fastest-growing online population.

A) The United States B) Africa C) Western Europe D) China

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

51) Differentiate between an indigenous and an exogenous radio station.

52)

Describe the operation of shortwave radio.

53)

How do Britain's pirate stations differ from more political forms of exogenous stations?

54)

What are some of the objections held by the critics of the VOA? Of Radio and TV Marti?

55)

Describe the case for the global village.

56)

Describe the case against the global village.

57)

What is meant by normative theory?

58)

What is meant by comparative analysis or comparative studies?

59)

List five normative theories and briefly describe each.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

60) Not everyone is comfortable with the role of the Voice of America and other U.S. surrogate services today. Where do you stand on this issue? Defend your answer.

61) What are the five concepts that guide the world's media systems? What are the characteristics of each concept? For each concept, provide at least one example of a country whose media system operates according to that concept.

62) What is cultural imperialism? Not all critics fear cultural imperialism, but many do. What do you think? Is the fear of cultural imperialism overstated? Are there not benefits to be gained from more uniformity across nations? How do you think you would feel if you were a citizen of another country where your media were dominated by U.S.-developed content?

63) The United States continues to fall in the global rating of press freedom. Where does the country rank and what are some of the reasons for that poor showing? Does that low score bother you? Why or why not?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 15 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) C 11) A 12) A 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) A 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) C

27) B 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) C 32) C 33) A 34) A 35) C 36) D 37) A 38) B 39) B 40) B 41) D 42) D 43) C 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) D 49) A 50) D 51) Answers will vary.

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