Chapter 01: Scope of Microbiology and Infection Control Miller: Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Who is reported to have first observed microbes? a. Pasteur b. Oliver Wendell Holmes c. Lister d. Leeuwenhoek ANS: D
Pasteur, Oliver Wendell Holmes, and Lister made other important contributions to microbiology. Leeuwenhoek first observed microbes and called them “animalcules.” PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 2
2. What year were microbes first observed? a. 1667 b. 1880 c. 1956 d. 1975 ANS: A
Leeuwenhoek first observed microbes and called them “animalcules” in 1667, 1880, 1956, and 1975 are all too recent. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 2
3. Choose the microbial killing method referred to as pasteurization. a. 121C for 20 minutes b. 212F for 5 minutes c. 63C for 30 minutes d. 37C for 10 minutes ANS: C
121C for 20 minutes achieves sterilization. 212F for 5 minutes is the temperature of boiling water. 63C for 30 minutes achieves pasteurization which kills harmful microbes in liquids such as milk. 37C for 10 minutes is body temperature. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 2 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.A. Instrument/device processing 4. When was the “Golden Age of Microbiology”? a. Mid to late 1600s b. Mid to late 1700s c. Mid to late 1800s
d. Mid to late 1900s ANS: C
Mid to late 1600s and mid to late 1700s were too early. Mid to late 1800s was the time when many new discoveries in microbiology were made. Mid to late 1900s was too late. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 2
5. What microbes are used to make vinegar, vitamins, drain cleaners, enzymes, and other
products? a. Fungi b. Viruses c. Protozoa d. Bacteria ANS: D
Fungi can make antibiotics but not these products. Viruses grow inside living cells and do not make such products. Protozoa are not very efficient in making such products. Bacteria make these and other products when they are grown in large vats. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 3
6. Which microbes are used to make pickles out of cucumbers? a. Bacteria or fungi b. Fungi or viruses c. Viruses or yeasts d. Bacteria of viruses ANS: A
Bacteria or fungi make certain extracellular products that change cucumbers into pickles. Viruses do not produce products that affect cucumbers. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 3
7. What microbe is used to make bread dough rise? a. Bacteria b. Yeasts c. Viruses d. Protozoa ANS: B
Bacteria do not produce enough carbon dioxide (CO2) to make the dough rise. Yeasts metabolize carbohydrates to produce the gas bubbles of CO2 which causes the dough to rise. Viruses only grow inside of living cells and do not have a regular metabolism. Protozoa do not produce enough carbon dioxide (CO2) to make the dough rise. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 3
COMPLETION 1. Louie Pasteur and John Tyndall first recognized the use of ___________ to destroy
bacteria and resistant spores. ANS:
heat Other physical procedures were found not to be as efficient as heat for killing microbes. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 2 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.A. Instrument/device processing 2. In 1915 it was discovered that bacteria can be infected with viruses called
________________. ANS:
bacteriophages Animal viruses had been previously discovered, so they gave bacterial viruses a different name – bacteriophages – phage means “to eat.” PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 1
3. Microbiology is the study of bacteria, molds, yeasts, protozoa, certain algae, viruses and
_________. ANS:
archaea Archaea are single cell microbes morphologically similar to bacteria, but their genes and metabolic pathways are more closely related to eukaryotes. While they may be present in the human body, there have been no clear examples of archaeal human pathogens. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 2
TRUE/FALSE 1. The disease of smallpox was involved in the discovery of immunizations in the 1790s by
Edward Jenner. ANS: T
Edward Jenner is credited with recognizing the concept of immunization when he realized in the 1790s that milkmaids who caught cowpox, a mild disease, were protected from the more serious disease of smallpox. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 2 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission
Chapter 02: Characteristics of Microorganisms Miller: Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Under what conditions do regular bacteria, excluding Rickettsia and Chlamydia, multiply? a. In the absence of nutrients b. Only when they are inside of living cells c. When they are outside of living cells d. Only when the temperature is below 7C ANS: C
Nothing can grow in the absence of nutrients. Rickettsia and Chlamydia are the only bacteria that can grow inside living cells. Regular bacteria do not need to be inside living cells to grow. They can obtain their nutrients from the environment. Only the special bacteria called psychrophiles can grow at these low temperatures. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 12 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 1
2. Select an environment in which viruses can multiply. a. Only in the absence of nutrients b. Only when they are inside of living cells c. Only when they are outside of living cells d. Only when the temperature is below 7C ANS: B
Nothing can grow in the absence of nutrients. Viruses need the nutrients and metabolic machinery of living cells to multiply. Viruses cannot obtain their nutrients from the environment. Only the special bacteria called psychrophiles can grow at these low temperatures. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 14 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 3. Which of the following microbes is a yeast? a. Streptococcus mutans b. Trichomonas vaginalis c. Candida albicans d. Staphylococcus aureus ANS: C
Streptococcus mutans is a bacterium. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan. Candida albicans can exist as a yeast which is a special fungus. Staphylococcus aureus is a bacterium. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 3
4. Which of the following microbes is a type of fungus? a. Influenzae b. Candida albicans c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Streptococcus mutans ANS: B
Influenzae is a virus. Candida albicans can exist as a yeast or filamentous fungus. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan. Streptococcus mutans is a bacterium. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 3
5. A yeast is what type of microorganism? a. Bacterium b. Fungus c. Virus d. Protozoan ANS: B
Bacteria cannot form yeast. A yeast is a special type of fungus. Viruses and protozoa cannot form yeasts. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 3
6. Thrush is caused by a. Candida albicans. b. Streptococcus mutans. c. Staphylococcus aureus. d. human herpesvirus 1. ANS: A
Candida albicans causes thrush (e.g., oral candidiasis or denture stomatitis) and is a fungus that may exist as a yeast cell or as a filamentous fungus (mold). Streptococcus mutans, Staphylococcus aureus, and human herpesvirus 1 do not cause thrush. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 3
7. Bacilli are shaped like a. spheres. b. cylinders or rods. c. curved or spiral forms. d. flat disks. ANS: B
Spheres are not bacilli. Bacilli are bacterial cells shaped like a rod or cylinder. Spirilla are curved or spiral forms. There are no microbes shaped like a flat disk. PTS: 1
DIF: Recall
REF: p. 7
OBJ: 1
TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply 8. Cocci are shaped like ____________. a. spheres b. cylinders or rods c. curved or spiral forms d. flat disks ANS: A
Spherical cells are called cocci. Rod-shaped cells are called bacilli. Curved or spiral cells are called spirilla. This is not a shape associated with bacteria. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 7 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 1
9. Choose the bacterial structure that controls the flow of nutrients and waste into and out of
the cell? a. Cell wall b. Flagellum c. Cytoplasmic membrane d. Capsule ANS: C
The cell wall protects the cell from being crushed. The flagellum provides locomotion. The cytoplasmic membrane has a function to regulate the entrance and exit of nutrient materials and waste products. The capsule keeps the cell from drying out and is antiphagocytic. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall TOP: CDA, Does not apply
REF: p. 8
OBJ: 1
10. Which of the following bacterial structures interferes with phagocytosis? a. Cell wall b. Flagellum c. Cytoplasmic membrane d. Capsule ANS: D
The cell wall protects the cell from being crushed. The flagellum provides locomotion. One of the functions of the cytoplasmic membrane is to regulate the entrance and exit of nutrient materials and waste products. The capsule’s “slimy” nature interferes with phagocytosis. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 1
11. Which of the following bacterial structures helps the cell to attach to surfaces? a. Cell wall b. Capsule c. Cytoplasmic membrane d. Fimbriae
ANS: D
The cell wall protects the cell from being crushed. The capsule keeps the cell from drying out and is antiphagocytic. One of the functions of the cytoplasmic membrane is to regulate the entrance and exit of nutrient materials and waste products. Fimbriae serve as mechanisms by which cells can attach to other cells or other environmental surfaces. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 1
12. The main function of the bacterial cell wall is to a. protect against drying. b. protect against crushing. c. to control the exit of wastes from the cell. d. provide the cell with locomotion. ANS: B
Protect against drying is a function of the capsule. The basic components of the cell wall (peptidoglycan) protect the cell from being crushed. Controlling the flow of nutrients and waste is a function of the cytoplasmic membrane. Providing the cell with locomotion is a function of the flagellum. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 8 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 1
13. The main function of bacterial fimbriae is to a. control the exit of wastes from the cell. b. protect against crushing. c. allow the cell to attach to surfaces. d. protect against drying. ANS: C
Controlling the exit of wastes from the cell is a function of the cytoplasmic membrane. Protection against crushing is a function of the cell wall. Fimbriae serve as mechanisms by which cells can attach to other cells or other environmental surfaces. Protection against drying is a function of the capsule. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 1
14. Choose an environment in which psychrophilic bacteria grow best. a. In the human body b. In hot water heaters c. Anywhere the temperature is 37C d. In the refrigerator ANS: D
The human body, hot water, and 37C are all too warm for the growth of psychrophiles. The refrigerator at 7C provides the optimal grow temperature for psychrophiles. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: CDA, Does not apply
REF: p. 10
OBJ: 1
15. Which of the following groups of bacteria grow best inside your refrigerator? a. Psychrophiles b. Thermophils c. Mesophils d. Acidophils ANS: A
Psychrophiles are “cold-loving” and optimal growth is refrigerator temperature. Thermophils love high temperatures. Mesophils love medium (e.g., body) temperatures. Acidophils produce acids and are unrelated to temperature. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall TOP: CDA, Does not apply
REF: p. 10
OBJ: 1
16. How would prevent the growth of an obligate anaerobe? a. Adjust the pH of the environment to 7.0. b. Remove protein of the environment. c. Maintain the environmental temperature to 37C. d. Add oxygen to the environment. ANS: D
A pH of 7.0 will support the growth of most bacteria. Removing protein will not always prevent growth. Keeping the temperature at 37C will allow many bacteria to grow. Adding oxygen to the environment will prevent growth since they require low or no oxygen for growth. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 11 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 1
17. Those bacteria that die in the presence of oxygen are called a. aerobes. b. mesophils. c. acidogens. d. anaerobes. ANS: D
Aerobes need oxygen for growth. Mesophils grow at medium temperatures and most are aerobes. Acidogens produce acids during growth and some are aerobes and some anaerobes. Anaerobes cannot tolerate oxygen. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 11 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 1
18. Acidogenic bacteria are noted for producing large amounts of a. acids. b. vitamins. c. proteins. d. carbohydrates. ANS: A
Acidogenic bacteria produce large amounts of acid. Vitamins may also be produced but do not relate to being acidogenic. Proteins and carbohydrates are also produced but do not relate to being acidogenic. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 11 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 1
19. What temperatures are the surest way to kill bacteria (or any other type of
microorganisms) in the shortest amount of time? a. Sterilizing temperatures b. Freezing temperatures c. Fluctuating temperatures d. Refrigerator temperatures ANS: A
Sterilizing temperatures such as those achieved in a steam, dry heat, or unsaturated chemical vapor sterilizer is the surest way to kill bacteria (or any other type of microorganisms) in the shortest amount of time. Freezing will not kill all microbes. Fluctuating temperatures cannot be relied upon to kill all microbes. Refrigeration will not kill all microbes. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 14 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.A. Instrument/device processing 20. Anaerobes are bacteria that a. require oxygen for growth. b. grow only in the absence of oxygen. c. can multiply in the presence or absence of oxygen. d. are killed in the presence or absence of oxygen. ANS: B
Aerobes require oxygen for growth. Anaerobes cannot tolerate oxygen and only grow in its absence. Facultative anaerobes grow in the presence or absence of oxygen. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 11 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 1
21. Agar is a polysaccharide from seaweed that is used to a. kill bacteria. b. grow viruses. c. kill viruses. d. culture bacteria. ANS: D
Agar is not lethal to bacteria or viruses. Viruses require living cells to grow. Agar can provide a semisolid surface on which bacteria can grow if adequate nutrients are available. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 11 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 1
22. What environmental condition will promote the growth of an aciduric bacterium? a. Low oxygen level
b. Low nutrient level c. Low pH d. Low temperature ANS: C
Low oxygen will promote growth of anaerobes. Low nutrients restrict rather than promote bacterial growth. Low pH (usually below pH 5.5) promotes growth of aciduric bacteria. Low temperature promotes the growth of psychrophiles. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 11 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 1
23. Which type of microbe is the most difficult to kill? a. Endospores b. Vegetative bacteria c. Viruses d. Chlamydiae ANS: A
An endospore is one most resistant forms of life against heat, drying and chemicals due to its thickened cell wall, dense cytoplasm and dormant state. Vegetative bacteria can be killed by exposing it to high heat or with chemicals. Viruses can be killed when outside the body by exposure to high heat or chemicals. Chlamydiae are a type of bacterium and can be killed by exposure to high heat or with chemicals. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.A. Instrument/device processing 24. Select the best description of a bacterial endospore a. a fungus resistant to chemicals. b. one of the most resistant forms of life to heat and chemicals. c. a virus that infects the root canal. d. a bacterium that grows at low temperatures. ANS: B
A fungus is not a bacterium. An endospore is one of the most resistant forms of life against heat, drying and chemicals due to its thickened cell wall, dense cytoplasm and dormant state. A virus is not a bacterium. A bacterium that grows at low temperatures is called a psychrophile not an endospore. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.A. Instrument/device processing 25. Some bacteria can change into special forms that are dormant and are highly resistant to
heat, chemicals, and drying? These are called a. Rickettsia. b. endospores. c. mold. d. vegetative cells. ANS: B
Bacteria average 1.0 m in diameter. Human viruses are smaller than bacteria, ranging from 0.02 to 0.3. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 14 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 2
4. If bacteria grow in a broth culture, the broth remains clear. ANS: F
If bacteria grow in broth culture, the broth becomes turbid (cloudy). PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 12 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.B. Instrument/device processing 5. Unlike bacterial diseases, most viral diseases cannot be successfully treated. ANS: T
Because viruses use the metabolic machinery of the host cell to replicate, chemicals such as antibiotics used against bacteria may damage the host cells and cannot be used to treat viral diseases. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission
Chapter 03: Development of Infectious Diseases Miller: Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Microbes that are usually harmless but can cause disease under certain conditions are
called a. opportunistic pathogens. b. toxigenic pathogens. c. endogenous pathogens. d. exogenous pathogens. ANS: A
Opportunistic pathogens cause diseases only when given a special opportunity to enter deeper tissues of the body or to accumulate to levels that can harm the body. Toxigenic pathogens are caused by toxins released by a bacterium or fungus. Endogenous pathogens are caused by microbes that already exist within the body. Exogenous pathogens are caused by microbes that enter the body from the outside. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 17 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 4
2. Microbes that cause disease by producing a toxin are called a. opportunistic pathogens. b. toxigenic pathogens. c. endogenous pathogens. d. exogenous pathogens. ANS: B
Opportunistic pathogens cause diseases only when given a special opportunity to enter deeper tissues of the body or to accumulate to levels that can harm the body. Toxigenic pathogens are caused by toxins released by a bacterium or fungus. Endogenous pathogens are caused by microbes that already exist within the body. Exogenous pathogens are caused by microbes that enter the body from the outside. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 17 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 3
3. Members of the normal body microbiota that can cause disease are called a. obligate intracellular parasite. b. toxigenic pathogens. c. endogenous pathogens. d. exogenous pathogens. ANS: C
Obligate intracellular parasites (e.g., all viruses and some special bacteria) cause diseases by invading body cells. Toxigenic pathogens are caused by toxins released by a bacterium or fungus. Endogenous pathogens are caused by microbes that already exist within the body. Exogenous pathogens are caused by microbes that enter the body from the outside.
2. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is caused by the __________________________. ANS:
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) HIV infects the body and destroys the immune system which makes the person susceptible to a variety of diseases. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 47 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 3. AIDS is the acronym for _____________. ANS:
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome AIDS is the acronym for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome disease caused by the human immunodeficiency virus. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 46 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols TRUE/FALSE 1. A person infected with HIV can have the virus present in saliva. ANS: T
Although HIV has been isolated from saliva, so far this route in casual or household contacts has not resulted in any documented cases of transmission. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 48 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols
Chapter 07: Oral and Respiratory Diseases Miller: Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is a viral disease of the mouth? a. Syphilis b. Gonorrhea c. Tuberculosis d. Herpangina ANS: D
Herpangina is caused by a coxsackievirus and produces small vesicles on the soft palate or elsewhere in the posterior of the mouth. Syphilis, gonorrhea, and tuberculosis are all bacterial diseases. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 54 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 2. Which of the following is a fungal disease? a. Denture stomatitis b. Common cold c. Measles d. Chickenpox ANS: A
Denture stomatitis is mainly caused by the fungus Candida albicans. Common cold, measles, and chickenpox are viral diseases. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 51 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 3. What microbe causes denture stomatitis? a. Streptococcus mutans b. Herpes simplex virus c. Candida albicans d. Streptococcus pyogenes ANS: C
Streptococcus mutans causes dental caries. Herpes simplex virus causes herpes labialis and other infections. Candida albicans is the fungal yeast that causes thrush and denture stomatitis. Streptococcus pyogenes causes streptococcal pharyngitis and scarlet fever. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 51 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 4. What microbe causes “strep throat”?
a. b. c. d.
Streptococcus mutans Herpes simplex virus Candida albicans Streptococcus pyogenes
ANS: D
Streptococcus mutans causes dental caries. Herpes simplex virus causes herpes labialis and other infections. Candida albicans is the fungal yeast that causes candidiasis and denture stomatitis. Streptococcus pyogenes (also known as -hemolytic, group A streptococcus) causes streptococcal pharyngitis (“strep throat”). PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 55 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 5. Which herpes virus causes most of the oral and ocular herpes infections and some of the
genital herpes infections? a. Human herpes virus type 1 b. Human herpes virus type 3 c. Human herpes virus type 5 d. Human herpes virus type 8 ANS: A
Human herpes virus type 1 (also known as herpes simplex 1) causes intraoral herpes, recurrent herpes labialis, infections of the eye and some of the herpes infections of the genitalia. Human herpes virus type 3 causes chickenpox and shingles. Human herpes virus type 5 causes cytomegalovirus disease. Human herpes virus type 8 causes Kaposi sarcoma. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 51 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 6. Which of the following is a respiratory disease that can be screened for using the Mantoux
test or purified protein derivative test? a. Strep throat b. Tuberculosis c. HIV-disease d. Syphilis ANS: B
The Mantoux test does not detect strep throat. The Mantoux test or purified protein derivative test is used to screen for tuberculosis infection. HIV-disease and syphilis are not considered respiratory diseases. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 55 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 7. Some strains of which of the following bacteria are known as “flesh-eating” bacteria? a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d. Streptococcus pyogenes ANS: D
Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis. Staphylococcus aureus causes skin infections and secondary pneumonia. Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria. Certain strains of Streptococcus pyogenes (known as “flesh-eating bacteria”) cause necrotizing fasciitis, which produces rapidly spreading damage to the muscle tissue. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 55 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 8. Rheumatic heart disease occurs in a small percent of those previously infected with a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. b. Staphylococcus aureus. c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. d. Streptococcus pyogenes. ANS: D
Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis. Staphylococcus aureus causes skin infections and secondary pneumonia. Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria. Some people who become infected with Streptococcus pyogenes (the cause of “strep throat” and scarlet fever) may experience complications such as rheumatic heart disease or kidney failure. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 55 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 9. All of the following microbes may be found in the throat, but which one causes most
middle ear infections? a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Neisseria meningitidis c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Candida albicans ANS: A
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a bacterium that causes the most middle ear infections. Neisseria meningitides causes meningitis. Streptococcus pyogenes causes “strep throat,” scarlet fever and skins infections. Candida albicans causes thrush and denture stomatitis. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 57 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 10. Which of the following types of respiratory infections is usually caused by inhaling or
aspirating contaminated water? a. Chickenpox b. Infectious mononucleosis c. Legionnaire’s disease d. Influenza
ANS: C
Chickenpox, infectious mononucleosis, and influenza are infections acquired by contact with another person’s respiratory droplets. Legionnaire’s disease is a pneumonia that can result from the inhalation of contaminated water from water-handling systems. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 59 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 11. Which of the following is a systemic disease that commonly produces lesions in the
mouth? a. Chickenpox b. Tuberculosis c. Legionnaire disease d. Influenza ANS: A
About 2 weeks after infection with the Varicella-zoster virus vesicles frequently develop in the mouth. Tuberculosis usually does not produce oral lesions. Legionnaire disease and influenza do not produce oral lesions. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 54 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 12. Which of the following diseases may produce palatal petechiae, widespread erythema
(reddening) of the oral mucosa, and swelling of the uvula? a. Infectious mononucleosis b. Influenza c. Herpes labialis d. Legionnaire’s disease ANS: A
Infectious mononucleosis caused by human herpesvirus 4 (also called the Epstein–Barr virus) produces these oral lesions. Influenza and Legionnaire’s disease do not produce oral lesions. Herpes labialis produces lesions on and around the lips. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 55 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 13. About 5% to 10% of the cases of _______________ occur in or around the mouth in the
form of an open ulcer commonly on the tongue or lips. a. Tuberculosis b. Chickenpox c. Syphilis d. Infectious mononucleosis ANS: C
Tuberculosis usually does not produce oral lesions. Chickenpox produces oral lesions more frequently that 5% to 10%. Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum and can cause a primary oral infection if the mouth is directly exposed. Infectious mononucleosis causes oral lesions but not of the ulcer type. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 53 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 14. In untreated ________________ a secondary oral phase (infectious mucous patches) of the
disease may appear 2 to 10 weeks after the initial nonoral lesion occurs and has subsided. a. tuberculosis b. chickenpox c. syphilis d. infectious mononucleosis ANS: C
Tuberculosis usually does not produce oral lesions. Chickenpox produces oral lesions but they are vesicular rather than mucous patches. The causative bacterium in syphilis (Treponema pallidum) can spread within the body from the primary nonoral lesion (e.g., a genital lesion) to the mouth causing mucous patches that contain the T. pallidum. Infectious mononucleosis causes oral lesions but not of the mucous patches type. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 54 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply
OBJ: 2
15. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis mainly occurs in children and is usually caused by a. human herpesvirus 8. b. human herpesvirus 6. c. human herpesvirus 3. d. human herpesvirus 1. ANS: D
Human herpesvirus 8 causes a skin disease called Kaposi sarcoma. Human herpesvirus 6 causes roseola, a skin disease usually in children. Human herpesvirus 3 causes chickenpox. About 10% of those infected with human herpesvirus 1 (also known as herpes simplex virus 1) have intraoral lesions (vesicles) referred to as primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. The other 90% may never have any symptoms or may have recurrent herpes lesions (e.g., herpes labialis) periodically throughout their lives. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 51 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 16. Herpes labialis is caused by a. human herpesvirus 8. b. human herpesvirus 6. c. human herpesvirus 3. d. human herpesvirus 1. ANS: D
Human herpesvirus 8 causes a skin disease called Kaposi sarcoma. Human herpesvirus 6 causes roseola, a skin disease usually in children. Human herpesvirus 3 causes chickenpox. About 10% of those infected with human herpesvirus 1 (also known as herpes simplex virus 1) have intraoral lesions (vesicles) referred to as primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. The other 90% may never have any symptoms or may have recurrent herpes lesions (e.g., herpes labialis) periodically throughout their lives. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 51 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 17. Entrance of the herpes virus through breaks in the skin on unprotected hands and fingers
can lead to vesicle development at these sites called ____________. a. herpes labialis b. herpetic whitlow c. secondary herpes d. recurrent herpes ANS: B
Herpes labialis is a recurrent (secondary) form of herpes that occurs on or around the lips. This can occur on the hands of dental personnel who are not wearing gloves and treating a patient with human herpesvirus 1 in the mouth. Secondary herpes is a general term for any form of recurrent herpes. Recurrent herpes is a general term for any form of secondary herpes. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 51 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 18. Who has published guidelines for the prevention of tuberculosis in dental health care
facilities? a. The Food and Drug Administration b. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention c. The Environmental Protection Agency d. The American Dental Association ANS: B
The Food and Drug Administration clears foods, drugs, and medical devices for sale. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention issued these tuberculosis prevention guidelines in 1994. The Environmental Protection Agency does not regulate prevention of infectious diseases. The American Dental Association supports the CDC’s guidelines for prevention of tuberculosis but has not prepared its own guidelines. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 55 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 19. What disease is not a particular problem for dental professionals but is a worldwide
problem affecting about one third of the world population with about 10 million new cases in 2019? a. Hepatitis C b. Tuberculosis
c. Hand-foot-mouth disease d. Gonococcal pharyngitis ANS: B
Hepatitis C is a bloodborne disease and, thus, is important to dental personnel. Tuberculosis is a worldwide problem causing about 1.5 million deaths per year, but it is not a particular problem for dental personnel because of the relatively short exposure times that occur with dental patients. Hand-foot-mouth disease is of concern for dental workers since it is an infectious disease that occurs in the mouth. Gonococcal pharyngitis is of concern for dental workers since it is an infectious disease that occurs in the throat. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 55 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 20. Which of the following human herpesviruses causes hairy leukoplakia, an infection of the
tongue? a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Type 3 d. Type 4 ANS: D
Type 1 mainly causes primary herpetic gingivostomatitis and herpes labialis. Type 2 mainly causes genital herpes. Type 3 causes chickenpox and shingles. Type 4 causes infectious mononucleosis and hairy leukoplakia of the tongue. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 51 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 21. What microbe that is spread through respiratory/oral droplets causes a vaccine-preventable
lung disease, is the leading cause of middle ear infections, and also can cause meningitis and invasive disease? a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Human herpes virus type 1 c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Candida albicans ANS: C
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not a leading cause of middle ear infections. There are two vaccines available against the respiratory pathogen Streptococcus pneumoniae. Human herpes virus 1 and Candida albicans do not cause a lung disease and have no related vaccines. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 57 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.E. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 22. What virus was first associated with human disease in 2012 and causes a severe acute
respiratory illness, including fever, cough, and shortness of breath? a. MERS-CoV
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. MRSA ANS: A
Middle Eastern Respiratory Syndrome-Coronavirus (MERS-CoV) was originally recognized in Saudi Arabia, and early victims in the US had recently traveled to Saudi Arabia. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Streptococcus pneumonia and Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) are bacteria not viruses. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 58 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.E. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 23. What infection prevention procedure would be least effective in preventing the spread of
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MERSA) in the dental office? a. Hand hygiene b. Antimicrobial treatment of dental unit water c. Wearing appropriate personal protective equipment d. Cleaning and disinfecting or using surface barriers on clinical contact surfaces ANS: B
Hand hygiene, wearing of appropriate personal protective equipment, and cleaning and disinfecting or using surface barriers on clinical contact surfaces are important in preventing spread from direct contact of contaminated surfaces. MERSA is not spread through dental unit water. It usually causes a skin infection and is spread by contact with those lesions or items the person has used or contacted. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 60 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.C. and I.D. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission | CDA, Infection Control, II.A. Prevent cross-contamination during procedures 24. What virus has caused the COVID-19 pandemic? a. SARS-CoV-1 b. SARS-CoV-2 c. MERS-CoV d. MRSA ANS: B
SARS-CoV-1 caused the severe acute respiratory syndrome that occurred in 2003. MERS-CoV caused the middle Eastern respiratory syndrome that was first reported in Saudi Arabia in 2012. MRSA is the name of a disease caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 58 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.E. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 25. The primary mode of spread of COVID-19 is a. through needlesticks and other sharps injuries. b. through beaks in the skin when not wearing gloves. c. from contaminated respiratory droplets and aerosols.
d. from mosquito bites. ANS: C
COVID-19 is a respiratory disease, so the virus multiplies in the lungs and bronchi so when an infected person sneezes, talks, sings, or coughs, contaminated droplets and aerosol particles are released into the air. Mosquito bites, needlesticks and other sharps injuries are modes of spread for bloodborne diseases. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 58 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.E. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission
Chapter 08: Infection Control Rationale and Regulations Miller: Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The goal of infection control is a. to reduce the number of microbes that are shared between individuals. b. to sterilize all surfaces in the dental operatory. c. to increase the body’s resistance to all microbes. d. decrease the virulence of all microbes. ANS: A
Reduction in the number of microbes that are shared between individuals will reduce the dose of microbes that can be spread between persons or surfaces to decrease the chance of infection or contamination. Sterilization of all surfaces in the dental operatory is not possible. The body’s resistance to microbes can only be done for some microbes for which vaccines are available. It is impossible to decrease the virulence of microbes except by gene manipulation. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 67 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 2. Which governmental agency regulates disinfectants? a. The Department of Labor b. Occupational Health and Safety Administration c. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention d. The Environmental Protection Agency ANS: D
The Department of Labor contains OSHA which is charged with protecting the workers of America. The Occupational Health and Safety Administration agency is charged with protecting the workers of America. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention makes recommendations for disease prevention and investigates disease outbreaks. The Environmental Protection Agency requires manufacturers of disinfectants to submit information that shows the safety and effectiveness of antimicrobial agents used on environmental surfaces. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 68 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, II.A. Prevent cross-contamination during procedures 3. Wearing gloves when treating a patient prevents which of the following modes of entry of
the patient’s microbes into your body? a. Inhalation b. Ingestion c. Mucous membranes d. Percutaneous through breaks in the skin ANS: D
Inhalation means breathing in aerosol particles. Ingestion means swallowing droplets of saliva/blood spattered into the mouth. Mucous membranes are not present on the hands. Gloves protect hands against contact with blood, saliva, mucous membranes, nonintact skin, or contaminated items, but give little protection against needlesticks or cuts. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 74 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.D. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 4. Which of the following pathways of cross-contamination is the main pathway prevented
when instruments are cleaned and sterilized? a. Patient to dental team b. Dental team to patient c. Patient to patient d. Office to community ANS: C
Patient to patient is the main cross-contamination pathway prevented as the instruments will be reused on other patients. The dental team handles instruments only with gloved hands and practices sharps safety. Occasionally sharps injuries will contaminate a member of the dental team but this is not the main pathway prevented. The dental team handles the instruments with gloved hands which prevents the team members microbes from contaminating the instruments. Contaminated instruments are not commonly sent out into the community—only when rare repairs are needed, but this is not the main pathway prevented. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 66 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 5. Which of the following pathways for cross-contamination is the most difficult to control? a. Patient to dental team b. Dental team to patient c. Patient to patient d. Office to community ANS: A
The patient to dental team pathway includes more opportunities for microbe spread than the other pathways and includes direct contact, indirect contact, and droplet infection. The dental team to patient, patient to patient, and office to community pathways involve indirect contact. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 66 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 6. What pathway of cross-contamination is the main pathway prevented when protective
eyeglasses are worn by a member of the dental team? a. Patient to dental team b. Dental team to patient c. Patient to patient
d. Office to community ANS: A
Patient to dental team is the main cross-contamination pathway prevented since the glasses will reduce/prevent droplets from the patient’s mouth from contacting the employee’s eyes. The dental team to patient, patient to patient and office to community pathways are unrelated to the eyeglasses worn by the dental team members. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 66 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 7. The manufacturing of medical devices like sterilizers is regulated by what U.S. agency? a. EPA b. OSHA c. CDC d. FDA ANS: D
The EPA regulates disinfectants and drinking water. OSHA regulates the safety of workers. The CDC makes recommendations for disease prevention and investigates disease outbreaks. The FDA regulates the manufacturing and labeling of medical devices and a sterilizer is a medical device. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 68 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, II.A. Prevent cross-contamination during procedures 8. The rule that requires employers to do certain things to prevent employees from being
exposed to human body fluids at work is called the a. Universal Precautions Standard. b. Hazard Communications Standard. c. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard. d. Medical Device Standard. ANS: C
The Universal Precautions Standard an approach to disease prevention originally describes by OSHA. The Hazard Communications Standard is a standard from OSHA designed to protect employees from exposure to hazardous chemicals. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (developed by OSHA) directs employers to protect employees from occupational exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials. The Medical Device Standard is not a specific set of rules or a standard. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 68 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 9. Which of the following infection control procedures is not mentioned in the bloodborne
pathogens standard? a. Wearing gloves and protective clothing to prevent contact with blood or saliva. b. Wearing masks to prevent contact with oral spatter. c. Sterilizing instruments before they are reused on another patient. d. Cleaning and disinfecting contaminated surfaces.
ANS: C
Sterilizing instruments is a patient protection procedure, and OSHA is charged to protect workers not patients. Wearing gloves and protective clothing, wearing masks, and cleaning and disinfecting contaminated surfaces are important parts of the bloodborne pathogens standard. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 75 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 10. The bloodborne pathogens standard requires action by whom? a. Dental patients b. Dentist employers c. Dental office employees d. Dental sales representatives ANS: B
The bloodborne pathogens standard requires employers to take steps to protect employees from occupational exposure to blood and other infectious material. It does not address or require any action by the patient, employees, or sales representatives. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 69 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 11. What is required by the postexposure evaluation part of the bloodborne pathogens
standard? a. That all patients exposed to an HIV-positive or hepatitis B-positive dental office employee be evaluated for their bloodborne disease status. b. That employees exposed to a patient’s blood or saliva be evaluated for their bloodborne disease status. c. That an OSHA inspector evaluate employers and employees exposed to a patient’s blood or saliva for their bloodborne disease status. d. The employees get hepatitis A and tetanus vaccinations. ANS: B
Evaluation for bloodborne disease status is not a part of the bloodborne pathogen standard. The standard requires employers to provide medical evaluation and follow-up for exposed employees. OSHA inspectors are not required to evaluate employers and employees exposed to a patient’s blood or saliva for their bloodborne disease status. The postexposure evaluation does not require these hepatitis A and tetanus vaccinations. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 67 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.B. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 12. According to the bloodborne pathogens standard who must provide gloves, masks,
eyeglasses and protective clothing to the dental assistant in the office? a. The dental assistant must supply her/his own protective equipment. b. The employing dentist must supply this protective equipment. c. OSHA must supply this protective equipment. d. A dental sales representative of a protective equipment manufacturer must provide the protective equipment to the office free of charge. ANS: B
The bloodborne pathogens standard is directed to the employer; therefore, the employer must provide gloves, masks, eyeglasses, and protective clothing to employees. Dental assistants, OSHA, and sales representatives are not required to provide the protective equipment. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 74 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 13. Which U.S. government agency helps assure the safety and effectiveness of surface
disinfectants? a. CDC b. FDA c. EPA d. OSHA ANS: C
The CDA makes recommendations for disease prevention and investigates disease outbreaks. The FDA regulates the manufacturing and labeling of medical devices and a sterilizer is a medical device. The EPA ensures the safety and effectiveness of disinfectants and regulates drinking water. OSHA makes laws to protect the safety of workers. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 68 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, II.A. Prevent cross-contamination during procedures 14. Which governmental agency sets the standard for drinking water? a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration b. Food and Drug Administration c. Environmental Protection Agency d. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention ANS: C
OSHA makes laws to protect the workers of America. FDA regulates medical devices, food, drugs, and cosmetics. The EPA sets the standard for drinking water, and this is the quality of water that should be used for routine dental care. CDC makes recommendations on disease prevention and investigates outbreaks of diseases. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 77 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, II.A. Prevent cross-contamination during procedures 15. The bloodborne pathogens standard was designed to a. protect patients from getting diseases in health care facilities like the dental office. b. make all patients divulge their HIV status to their health care workers. c. assure the safety and effectiveness of medical devices. d. require employers to do certain things to prevent employees from being exposed to
human body fluids. ANS: D
The standard does not relate to patients, just to employers and employees. Patient safety is covered by the infection control recommendations from CDC. It is not required for patients to divulge their HIV status Ensuring the safety and effectiveness of medical devices is an activity of the FDA and is not related to the bloodborne pathogens standard. The bloodborne pathogen standard directs employers to do certain things to prevent employees from being exposed to human body fluids. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 69 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 16. What is a part of the CDC infection control recommendations for dental facilities rather
than OSHA’s bloodborne pathogens standard? a. Written exposure control plan b. Sterilizing all instruments before they are reused c. Hepatitis B vaccination d. Postexposure medical evaluation ANS: B
A written exposure control plan, hepatitis B vaccinations, and postexposure medical evaluation relate to both CDC and OSHA. Sterilizing instruments relates to protecting patients which is not part of the bloodborne pathogens standard. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 75 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 17. Use of high-volume evacuation, preprocedure mouthrinsing, and _______________ are
designed to reduce the spread of patient’s microbes in dental aerosols and spatter. a. dry heat sterilizer b. disinfectant c. wearing latex gloves d. the rubber dam ANS: D
A sterilizer is designed to kill or remove all microorganisms on an object. A disinfectant is for environmental surfaces and is not to be used on the body. Latex gloves are intended to protect from directly contacting patient microbes not from exposure to aerosol and spatter. The rubber dam serves as a barrier between the patient’s saliva and the extraoral environment by reducing the aerosolization of the patient’s saliva. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 73 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.E. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 18. What involves patient to dental team cross-contamination? a. Not wearing protective eyewear by the dental team member b. Not using biological indicators c. Not sterilizing instruments before reuse d. Not cleaning and disinfecting operatory surfaces before the next appointment ANS: A
Not wearing protective eyewear allows spatter from the patient’s mouth to contact the eyes and this would be patient to dental team spread. Not using biological indicators, not sterilizing instruments, and not cleaning and disinfecting operatory surfaces before the next appointment relate to dental team to patient or patient to patient spread. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 66 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.D. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 19. How can we best prevent disease considering the dose of the microbe and body resistance? a. Increase the dose and decrease body resistance. b. Decrease the dose and increase body resistance. c. Increase the dose and increase body resistance. d. Decrease the dose and decrease body resistance. ANS: B
Increasing the dose and decreasing body resistance gives higher contamination. Decreasing the dose and increasing body resistance yields less contamination and higher body resistance. Increasing the dose and increasing body resistance gives high contamination. Decreasing the dose and decreasing body resistance lowers body resistance. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 67 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 20. If you are working in a private dental office and your employer says that you must buy
your own gloves, where is the best place to go to complain? a. CDC b. OSHA c. The local school of dentistry d. Another dental office ANS: B
The CDC is the government agency that makes infection control recommendations, but does not have authority to accept such complaints. Being made to purchase your own gloves is a violation of OSHA’s bloodborne pathogens standard that requires the employer to provide these items. A school of dentistry has no authority over a private dental practice. A dental office has no authority over another dental practice. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 74 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 21. The seven sections of the bloodborne pathogens standard are: written exposure control
plan; exposure prevention methods; hepatitis B vaccinations; postexposure medical evaluation; hazard communication; training; and a. new office construction. b. instrument sterilization. c. patient protection. d. recordkeeping. ANS: D
Construction codes are usually regulated by the state. Instrument sterilization relates to the CDC recommendations. Patient protection relates to the State Department of Health and the CDC recommendations. Recordkeeping is an important part of the bloodborne pathogens standard and includes training records, employee medical records, vaccination records and postexposure evaluation records. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 69 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 22. Which of the following is a not-for-profit nongovernmental organization involved with
infection control in dentistry? a. CDC b. OSAP c. EPA d. OSHA ANS: B
The Organization for Safety, Asepsis and Prevention is a not-for-profit professional organization which is the premier infection control education organization in dentistry. The CDC, EPA, and OSHA are governmental agencies. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 68 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 23. The CDC recommends that dental unit water should have no more than _____________
colony-forming-units (CFU) of heterotrophic bacteria per milliliter. a. 5 b. 50 c. 500 d. 5000 ANS: C
500 CFU is the recommendation and is the same as the EPA’s standard for good quality drinking water. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 77 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, II.A. Prevent cross-contamination during procedures | CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 24. According to the CDC extracted teeth that do not contain amalgam and will be used by
schools for educational purposes need to be a. disinfected with bleach. b. ultrasonically cleaned. c. soaked in alcohol. d. heat sterilized. ANS: D
Disinfection is not sufficient to kill all microbes inside the teeth. Ultrasonic cleaning will not kill all the microbes. Alcohol is not sufficient to kill all microbes inside the teeth. Heat sterilization will kill all the microbes on the outside and inside of teeth. PTS: 1
DIF: Recall
REF: p. 78
OBJ: 5