TEST BANK
PTS: 1 6. The prescriber of the medication is the only health care professional who is responsible for being aware of new medications, laws, and restrictions. ANS: F The health care worker involved in administration of a medication also bears the responsibility of being aware of the laws and restrictions pertinent to that medication. PTS: 1 7. A double-locked system is the recommended method for maintaining security of controlled substances. ANS: T A double-locked system may include two separate key entries or an electronic user identification and password access system. PTS: 1 8. Health care workers are responsible for maintaining records of all controlled substances received, dispensed, and destroyed. ANS: T
PTS: 1
9. Controlled substance records are to be kept for 10 years. ANS: F Records for the previous 2 years must be available at all times for inspection. PTS: 1 MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Identify the drug standard in the following list. a.
Color
c.
Shape
b.
Strength
d.
Taste
ANS: B Feedback A
Color is not a standard.
B
Correct!
C
Shape is not a standard.
D
Taste is not a standard.
PTS: 1 2. The risk of death from the use of street drugs versus prescription medications is mostly due to: a.
a lack of control over quality, purity, and strength makes street drugs dangerous.
b.
the risk is the same for both sources of the same substance.
c.
street drugs are approved for use.
d.
the need for a prescription makes drugs hard to obtain.
ANS: A Feedback A
Correct!
B
The lack of enforcement of drug standards in illegal street drugs poses a significant danger for the consumer.
C
The exact composition of a street drug is unknown, and it may contain dangerous contaminants or undisclosed additional drugs.
D
Street drugs are illegal.
PTS: 1 3. Drug standards regulate drug manufacture so that medications of the same name will be of the same: a.
strength, purity, and quality.
b.
shape, color, and taste.
c.
purity, shape, and color.
d.
quality, color, and shape.
ANS: A Drug standards state that all preparations of the same drug name must be of uniform strength, purity, and quality. PTS: 1 4. The 1906 Pure Food and Drug Act includes which of the following provisions? a.
Regulation of drugs sold in the
United States and Canada b.
Requires labeling to indicate if a medication contained a “dangerous ingredient”
c.
Regulates illicit drugs
d.
Requires information regarding medications to be handed down from one practitioner to the next
ANS: B Feedback A
The Pure Food and Drug Act regulates ALL drugs MARKETED in the United States. If a drug is manufactured in Canada, it must meet USFDA requirements to be marketed here.
B
Correct!
C
Illicit drugs are not regulated.
D
The Pure Food and Drug Act established two references of officially approved drugs, the USP and the NF.
PTS: 1 5. The Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 was formulated: a.
to curb the use of street drugs.
b.
as the first government attempt to establish consumer protection in the manufacture of drugs and foods.
c.
in order to make drug manufacturing profitable for the drug companies.
d.
as a means to identify addicting drugs.
ANS: B Feedback A
This applies to the Controlled Substances Act of 1970.
B
Correct!
C
The Pure Food and Drug Act was in answer to a need for consumer safety.
D
The Pure Food and Drug Act was in answer to a need for consumer safety.
PTS: 1 6. Which act required that drug preparations containing morphine have a label indicating the presence of morphine? a.
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938
b.
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act Amendment of 1965
c.
Controlled Substances Act of 1970
d.
Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906
ANS: D
PTS: 1
7. Identify a provision of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and its Amendments: a.
new products are required to be approved by the Food and Drug Administration.
b.
the FD&C Act defined schedules for substances that require specific controls.
c.
it set limitations on the use of prescriptions.
d.
the FD&C Act established USP.
ANS: A Feedback A
Correct!
B
This response applies to the 1970 Controlled Substances Act.
C
Prescription limitations were defined by the 1970 Controlled Substances Act.
D
USP was established by the 1906 Pure Food and Drug Act.
PTS: 1 8. What drugs are referred to as “legend” drugs? a.
Drugs that work so well they become “legendary.”
b.
Drugs that have been available for over 100 years.
c.
Drugs that must carry the legend “Caution—federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription.”
d.
Drugs that are mentioned in urban legends.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
9. The Food and Drug Administration was created to: a.
oversee testing of all proposed new drugs prior to release into the U.S. market.
b.
inspect plants where food, drugs, medical devices, and cosmetics are made.
c.
remove unsafe drugs from the market.
d.
all of the above.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
10.The USP/NF (U.S. Pharmacopeia/National Formulary) was established to: a.
provide a reference for all officially approved medications.
b.
legalize the manufacture of medications.
c.
give the public the information needed to safely make their own drugs.
d.
all of the above.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
11.USP is the official abbreviation for: a.
U.S. Post office.
c.
U.S. Police.
b.
U.S. Patrol.
d.
U.S. Pharmacopoeia.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
12.NF is the official abbreviation for: a.
National Football.
c.
National Food.
b.
National Fortress.
d.
National Formulary.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
13.Prior to the 1906 establishment of the U.S. Pharmacopeia, drug information was related by: a.
the Internet.
b.
encyclopedias.
c.
passing to the next generation.
d.
schools of medicine and pharmacology.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
14.Which bureau of the Department of Justice was established by the Controlled Substances Act of 1970? a.
USP
b.
DEA
c.
FDA
d.
NF
ANS: B Feedback A
U.S. Pharmacopeia
B
Correct! Drug Enforcement Agency
C
Food and Drug Administration
D
National Formulary
PTS: 1 15.The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 set much tighter controls on a specific group of drugs that are: a.
at risk of being abused by society.
b.
listed in the USP/NF.
c.
those that contain herbal components.
d.
available over the counter.
ANS: A Feedback A
Correct!
B
This refers to the 1906 Pure Food and Drug Act.
C
The FDA does not approve dietary or herbal supplements.
D
OTCs were outlined in the 1938 Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
PTS: 1 16.The Controlled Substances Act may limit: a.
the number of refills that can be filled in a 6-month time frame.
b.
at which pharmacies the patient may get the prescription filled.
c.
the level of pain control to be maintained.
d.
how the patient may maintain or store the medication.
ANS: A Feedback A
Correct!
B
The government does not limit where prescriptions may be filled.
C
The Act does not address pain control.
D
The government does not regulate where private citizens may keep their medications.
PTS: 1 17.The Controlled Substances Act sets tighter controls on: a.
common analgesics such as Tylenol or aspirin.
b.
depressants, stimulants, psychedelics, narcotics, and anabolic steroids.
c.
antibiotics, diuretics, antihypertensives, and diabetic medications.
d.
common cold/allergy medications.
ANS: B Feedback A
Tylenol and aspirin are provided over the counter and access to them is not regulated.
B
Correct!
C
These are prescription medications that are not considered to be at risk for abuse,
D
These currently remain as over-thecounter medications but more controls are being applied.
PTS: 1 18.Which of the following is required to have a DEA number? a.
The provider writing the prescription
b.
The person receiving the prescription
c.
All providers working in the physician’s office or clinic
d.
All providers working in the pharmacy
ANS: A Feedback A
Correct!
B
People receiving the prescription do not need a DEA number.
C
Only the prescriber needs a DEA number.
D
Only the pharmacist needs a DEA number.
PTS: 1 19.Professionals needing a DEA number are: a.
registered nurses (RNs), licensed (vocational) nurses (LPN/LVNs), and certified medication assistants (CMAs).
b.
pharmacists, physicians, veterinarians.
c.
clients who have a professional license.
d.
administrators of nursing care facilities, acute care hospitals, and home health care associations.
ANS: B Feedback A
Health care providers administering medications do not need a DEA number.
B
Correct!
C
No client needs a DEA number, regardless of occupation.
D
Administrators of institutions do not need DEA numbers.
PTS: 1 20.DEA numbers appear on the: a.
prescriber’s professional license.
b.
prescription for a controlled substance.
c.
medication bottle that contains the controlled substance.
d.
receipt for the medication.
ANS: B Feedback A
The DEA number does not appear on the professional’s license.
B
Correct!
C
The DEA number does not appear on the medication container.
D
The DEA number does not appear on the receipt.
PTS: 1 21.A DEA number represents: a.
the number of times the DEA has cited the person.
b.
the phone number for the local DEA office.
c.
registration with the Drug Enforcement Agency.
d.
the prescriber’s professional state license number.
ANS: C The DEA number refers only to the independent registration number assigned by the agency and is not reflected in any state’s professional licensure. PTS: 1 22.Agencies/persons that are required to have a DEA number are: a.
acute care hospitals and nursing homes.
b.
pharmacies, grocery stores, and convenience stores.
c.
drug manufacturers and packaging facilities, pharmacists, physicians.
d.
schools of nursing, medical assisting, and radiology.
ANS: C Feedback A
The DEA does not regulate hospitals and nursing homes.
B
The DEA does not regulate grocery stores or convenience stores.
C
Correct!
D
The DEA does not regulate schools.
PTS: 1 23.The schedule of controlled substances that has the highest risk of abuse potential is: a.
Schedule C 2.
c.
Schedule C 4.
b.
Schedule C 3.
d.
Schedule C 5.
ANS: A The lower the number, the higher the potential for abuse. PTS: 1 24.Drugs listed in Schedule 1 of Controlled Substances: a.
are not approved for medical use in the United States.
b.
may be refilled up to five times in 6 months.
c.
may have prescriptions phoned in by health care workers.
d.
have low abuse potential compared to other schedules.
ANS: A Schedule 1 drugs are not approved for medical use in the United States. PTS: 1 25.Prescriptions of the controlled substances listed in these schedules may not be called into the pharmacy: a.
Schedule 1.
c.
Schedule 3.
b.
Schedule 2.
d.
All of the above.
ANS: D Feedback A
Schedule 1 drugs are illegal for use and are not available to be prescribed in any fashion in the United States.
B
Schedule 2 drugs may not be called in to the pharmacy unless in cases of emergency, and then only by a physician. The call must be followed by a handwritten prescription within 72 hours.
C
Schedule 3 drugs may be phoned in by a physician only.
D
Correct!
PTS: 1 26.Prescriptions of the controlled substances listed in which of these schedules MAY be called into the pharmacy by health care workers other than the prescriber:? a.
Schedules 1 and 2 only
c.
Schedules 4 and 5 only
b.
Schedules 2 through 4
d.
Schedules 1 through 3
ANS: C Feedback A
Schedule 1 is not approved for medical use in the United States. Schedule 2 may be phoned into the pharmacy by a physician in an emergency only, followed by a written prescription within 72 hours.
B
Schedule 2 may only be phoned in by the physician in an emergency. Schedule 3 may be phoned in by the physician only. Schedules 4 and 5 may be phoned in by an office health care worker.
C
Correct!
D
Schedule 3 may be phoned in by the physician only.
PTS: 1 27.Prescriptions of the controlled substances listed in these schedules may be refilled up to five times in 6 months: a.
Schedules 1 and 2.
c.
Schedules 3, 4, and 5.
b.
Schedules 3 and 4.
d.
Schedules 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
ANS: C Feedback
A
Schedule 1 drugs are not approved for medical use in the United States. Schedule 2 drugs may not be refilled.
B
Both may be refilled five times in 6 months, but there is a more complete answer.
C
Correct!
D
Schedule 1 drugs are not approved for medical use in the United States. Schedule 2 drugs may not be refilled.
PTS: 1 28.The least desirable information source regarding drugs is a: a.
current drug reference.
b.
pharmacist.
c.
coworker.
d.
pharmaceutical company representative.
ANS: C All except “coworker” are reliable sources of drug information. PTS: 1 29.Which act established the USP and NF? a.
1938 Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
b.
1906 Pure Food and Drug Act
c.
1965 Pharmaceutical Consumer Protection Act
d.
1962 Amendment to the 1938 Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
ANS: B Feedback A
The 1938 Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act primarily addressed prevention of tampering with
products. B
Correct!
C
The “1965 Pharmaceutical Consumer Protection Act” does not exist.
D
The 1962 Amendment to the 1938 Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act was concerned with labeling and assuring that prescription and nonprescription drugs were both effective and safe.
PTS: 1 30.An orphan drug is defined as a(n): a.
drug used only in children.
b.
drug used to treat a disease that affects only a small number of people.
c.
lone drug in a specific class of drugs.
d.
unapproved drug used to treat a rare disease.
ANS: B B is correct! Answers A and C are incorrect. Answer D describes other circumstances where a drug is used for an unapproved use or is used under what is called a “humanitarian exception,” not covered in this chapter. PTS: 1 31.Which legislation provides for financial incentives to be provided to pharmaceutical companies for the development of medications that would otherwise be unprofitable because they are designed to treat diseases that affect only a small number of people? a.
1965 Pure Food and Drug Act
c.
1983 Orphan Drug Act
b.
1938 Orphan Drug and Cosmetic Act
d.
OBRA of 1990
ANS: C None of the other options exist. PTS: 1
32.What new requirements were mandated by the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990? a.
All prescriptions are to be included as part of the permanent medical record.
b.
Over-the-counter medications are to be entered into the permanent medical record.
c.
Pharmacists are required to provide drug use review and patient counseling prior to dispensing prescriptions to patients.
d.
Both B and C are correct.
e.
All of the above.
ANS: D Prescription medications were previously required to be included in the medical records. OBRA mandated the additional requirement of documenting over-the-counter medications and counseling to be provided by the dispensing pharmacist. PTS: 1 33.Once a drug or device has been approved for use in the United States, the: a.
DEA may withdraw approval if a safety concern exists.
b.
only actions that can be taken is requirement of additional warnings to be added to the labeling and recommendation for voluntary withdrawal by the manufacturer.
c.
FDA may reconsider its approval and withdraw it from the market to protect the public safety.
d.
DEA may demand withdrawal from the market.
ANS: B Feedback A
The DEA is not involved in approvals or withdrawals.
B
Correct!
C
The FDA has the power to review
and make recommendations regarding withdrawals of approved drugs, but it cannot enforce a withdrawal. D
PTS: 1
Withdrawals are made voluntarily by the manufacturer based on safety reports and review.
CHAPTER 2: DRUG NAMES AND REFERENCES TRUE/FALSE 1. The larger the numeral in a drug trade name (e.g., Tylenol 3, Tylenol 4, etc.), the smaller the amount of controlled substance present. ANS: F The opposite is true. PTS: 1 2. OTC (over-the-counter) medications require a prescription for purchase. ANS: F By definition, OTC medications do not require a prescription. PTS: 1 3. Legend drugs are safe for over-the-counter purchase. ANS: F Legend drugs require a prescription and are, by definition, required to carry a legend or warning that “Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription.” PTS: 1 4. Controlled substance are controlled by prescription because of the danger of addiction or abuse. ANS: T Level of risk is further defined by schedules. PTS: 1 5. The PDR, or Physician’s Desk Reference, is a complete and comprehensive resource for all medications, both prescription and over-the-counter. ANS: F The PDR incorporates drugs that the manufacturers pay to have included in the reference and is generally incomplete with regard to over-the-counter medications unless an OTC supplement is acquired separately. PTS: 1 6. Internet resources regarding drug information are considered to be reliable. ANS: F
There are many resources that provide reliable information; however, there are others that contain incomplete and/or inaccurate information. PTS: 1 MATCHING Match each name to the definition listed below. a.
Chemical name
c.
Trade name
b.
Official name
d.
Generic name
1. Name by which a pharmaceutical company identifies its product 2. Common or general name assigned to the drug 3. Name of the drug as it appears in the USP/NF 4. Exact molecular formula of the drug 1. ANS: C 2. ANS: D 3. ANS: B 4. ANS: A
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
1 1 1 1
Match each example to the names (used more than once) listed below. a.
Generic Name
b.
Chemical Name
c.
Trade Name
5. 4-dimethylamino-4,12 aoctahydro-3,6,10,12,12q pentahydroxyl-6-methyl1,11-dioxi-2naphthacenecarboxamide hydrochloride 6. Tetracycline hydrochloride 7. Alpha-4dimethylamino-3-methyl-1-2,2-diphyenyl-2 butanol, proprionate hydrochloride 8. Darvon 9. Propoxyphene hydrochloride 10.Tetracycline HCL 5. ANS: B 6. ANS: A 7. ANS: B 8. ANS: C 9. ANS: A 10.ANS: C
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
1 1 1 1 1 1
Match each legal term to the definition listed below. a.
OTC/over-the-
c.
Controlled
counter b.
substance
Legend drug
11.Drug controlled by prescription requirement because of the danger of addiction or abuse 12.No purchasing restrictions by the FDA 13.Prescription drug determined unsafe for over-the-counter purchase because of possible harmful side effects if taken indiscriminately 11.ANS: C 12.ANS: A 13.ANS: B
PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1
Match each name to the definition listed below. a.
Ototoxicity
c.
Tinnitus
b.
Nephrotoxicity
d.
Photosensitivity
14.Damage to the kidneys resulting in impaired kidney function, decreased output, and renal failure 15.Increased reaction to sunlight, with the danger of intense sunburn 16.Damage to the eighth cranial nerve 17.Ringing in the ears 14.ANS: B 15.ANS: D 16.ANS: A 17.ANS: C
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
1 1 1 1
Match each name to the definition listed below. a.
Actions
d.
Classifications
b.
Adverse reactions
e.
Contraindication s
c.
Cautions
18.List of conditions for which the drug should not be given 19.Broad subcategory to include drugs that affect the body in similar ways 20.Description of the cellular changes that occur as a result of the drug 21.List of conditions that warrant closer observation for specific side effects when given the drug 22.List of possible unpleasant or dangerous secondary effects, other than the desired effect 18.ANS: E 19.ANS: D
PTS: 1 PTS: 1
20.ANS: A 21.ANS: C 22.ANS: B
PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1
Match each name to the definition listed below. a.
Indications
d.
Prototype
b.
Interactions
e.
Side effects
c.
Pharmacology
23.List of medical conditions or diseases for which the drug is meant to be used 24.Study of drugs and their origin, nature, properties, and effects of living organisms 25.List of other drugs or foods that may alter the effect of the drug and usually should not be given during the same course of therapy 26.List of possible unpleasant or dangerous secondary effects, other than the desired effect 27.Drug that typifies the characteristics of that classification 23.ANS: A 24.ANS: C 25.ANS: B 26.ANS: E 27.ANS: D
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
1 1 1 1 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which name is the common or general name assigned to a drug and never capitalized? a.
Generic name
c.
Chemical name
b.
Trade name
d.
Official name
ANS: A Feedback A
Correct!
B
The trade name is the name by which a pharmaceutical company identifies its product.
C
The chemical name is the exact molecular formula of the drug.
D
The official name is the name of the drug as it appears in the official reference.
PTS: 1 2. Which name is the name by which the pharmaceutical company identifies its product, is copyrighted, and used exclusively by that company with a capitalized first letter? a.
Generic name
c.
Chemical name
b.
Trade name
d.
Official name
ANS: B Feedback A
The generic name is the common or general name assigned to the drug.
B
Correct!
C
The chemical name is the exact molecular formula of the drug.
D
The official name is the name of the drug as it appears in the official reference.
PTS: 1 3. Which name is the exact molecular formula of the drug? a.
Generic name
c.
Chemical name
b.
Trade name
d.
Official name
ANS: C Feedback A
The generic name is the common or general name assigned to the drug.
B
The trade name is the name by which a pharmaceutical company identifies its product.
C
Correct!
D
The official name is the name of the drug as it appears in the official reference.
PTS: 1 4. The name of the drug as it appears in the official reference, the USP/NF, and which generally is the same as the generic name is: a.
generic name.
c.
chemical name.
b.
trade name.
d.
official name.
ANS: D Feedback A
The generic name is the common or general name assigned to the drug.
B
The trade name is the name by which a pharmaceutical company identifies its product.
C
The chemical name is the exact molecular formula of the drug.
D
Correct!
PTS: 1 5. The trade name Tylenol No. 3 indicates: a.
the product contains 300 mg of acetaminophen with 15 mg of codeine.
b.
the product contains 300 mg of acetaminophen with 30 mg of codeine.
c.
the product contains 300 mg of acetaminophen with 60 mg of codeine.
d.
none of the above.
ANS: B Feedback A
Tylenol No. 2 indicates 15 mg of codeine.
B
Correct!
C
Tylenol No. 4 indicates 60 mg of codeine.
D
The correct combination is shown.
PTS: 1 6. Drugs with no purchasing restrictions by the FDA are: a.
OTC/over-thecounter drugs.
c.
controlled substances.
b.
legend drugs.
d.
none of the above.
ANS: A Feedback A
Correct!
B
Legend drugs require a prescription for purchase.
C
Controlled substances require a prescription and other requirements.
D
There is a correct answer.
PTS: 1 7. Drugs determined unsafe for over-the-counter purchase because of possible harmful side effects if taken indiscriminately are called: a.
OTC/over-thecounter drugs.
c.
controlled substances.
b.
legend drugs.
d.
none of the above.
ANS: B Feedback A
OTC drugs are deemed safe for over-the-counter purchase.
B
Correct!
C
Controlled substances are included, but many other drugs are also deemed unsafe.
D
There is a correct answer.
PTS: 1 8. Drugs controlled by prescription requirement because of the danger of addiction or abuse are: a.
OTC/over-thecounter drugs.
c.
controlled substances.
b.
legend drugs.
d.
none of the above.
ANS: C
Feedback A
OTC drugs are deemed safe for over-the-counter purchase.
B
Legend drugs require a prescription for purchase.
C
Correct!
D
There is a correct answer.
PTS: 1 9. Characteristics of a good drug reference for health care providers include: i.
current information, as drug information is constantly changing.
ii.
concise and easily understood information.
iii.
information on safe and common dosing.
iv.
information regarding chemical structure.
v.
color photos.
a.
All of the above
c.
i, ii, and iii
b.
None of the above
d.
i, ii, and v
ANS: C Feedback A
Information regarding chemical structure and color photos are not necessarily characteristics of a good drug reference.
B
The options include several characteristics of a good drug reference.
C
Correct!
D
Color photos are not necessarily characteristics of good reference books.
PTS: 1
10.Information to be included on a drug card includes: a.
generic name, trade name, action, side effects, special instructions for administration.
b.
classification, indications, routes of administration, color.
c.
available forms, cost, drug action, forms.
d.
dose range, customary dosage, special instructions for administration, taste.
ANS: A Color, cost, and taste are not relevant characteristics. PTS: 1 11.Damage to the eighth cranial nerve, resulting in impaired hearing or ringing in the ears is: a.
ototoxicity.
c.
tinnitus.
b.
nephrotoxicity.
d.
photosensitivity.
ANS: A Feedback A
Correct!
B
Nephrotoxicity refers to kidney damage.
C
Tinnitus, or ringing in the ears, is a symptom of eighth cranial nerve damage.
D
Photosensitivity is susceptibility to sunburn.
PTS: 1 12.Damage to the kidneys that results in impaired kidney function, decreased urinary output, and renal failure is described as: a.
ototoxicity.
c.
tinnitus.
b.
nephrotoxicity.
d.
photosensitivity.
ANS: B Feedback
A
Ototoxicity is damage to the eighth cranial nerve.
B
Correct!
C
Tinnitus is the ringing in the ears.
D
Photosensitivity is susceptibility to sunburn.
PTS: 1 13.Ringing in the ears is: a.
ototoxicity.
c.
tinnitus.
b.
nephrotoxicity.
d.
photosensitivity.
ANS: C Feedback A
Ototoxicity is damage to the eighth cranial nerve.
B
Nephrotoxicity is damage to the kidneys.
C
Correct!
D
Photosensitivity is susceptibility to sunburn.
PTS: 1 14.An increased susceptibility to sunlight with danger of intense sunburn is: a.
ototoxicity.
c.
tinnitus.
b.
nephrotoxicity.
d.
photosensitivity.
ANS: D Feedback A
Ototoxicity is damage to the eighth cranial nerve.
B
Nephrotoxicity refers to kidney damage.
C
Tinnitus is ringing in the ears.
D
Correct!
PTS: 1
15.A list of possible unpleasant or dangerous secondary effects, other than the desired effect, is: a.
adverse reactions and side effects.
c.
cautions and contraindications .
b.
actions and classifications.
d.
interactions and contraindications .
ANS: A Feedback A
Correct!
B
Actions describe the cellular changes that occur as a result of the drug; classifications categorize drugs together that affect the body in similar ways.
C
Cautions refer to which patient conditions warrant closer observation for specific side effects when given the drug; contraindications are lists of conditions for which the drug should not be given.
D
Interactions are lists of other drugs or foods that may alter the effect of the drug; contraindications are lists of conditions for which the drug should not be given.
PTS: 1 16.A broad subcategory of drugs that affects the body in similar ways is called: a.
adverse reaction. c.
caution.
b.
classification.
interaction
d.
ANS: B Feedback A
An adverse reaction is a possible unpleasant or dangerous secondary effect.
B
Correct!
C
A caution refers to a condition or
type of patient that warrants closer observation for specific side effects when given the drug. An interaction indicates a drug or food that may alter the effect of the drug.
D
PTS: 1 17.Cellular changes that occur as a result of the drug are: a.
adverse reactions.
c.
contraindications .
b.
actions.
d.
interactions.
ANS: B Feedback A
Adverse reactions are lists of possible unpleasant or dangerous secondary effects.
B
Correct!
C
Contraindications are lists of conditions for which the drug should not be given.
D
Interactions are lists of other drugs or foods that may alter the effect of the drug.
PTS: 1 18.Conditions for which the drug should NOT be given are: a.
adverse reactions.
c.
contraindications .
b.
classifications.
d.
interactions.
ANS: C Feedback A
Adverse reactions are unpleasant or dangerous secondary effects.
B
Classifications categorize drugs together that affect the body in similar ways.
C
Correct!
D
Interactions include drugs or foods that may alter the effect of the drug.
PTS: 1 19.Conditions or types of patients that warrant closer observation for specific side effects when given a drug are called: a.
adverse reactions.
c.
cautions.
b.
actions.
d.
interactions.
ANS: C Feedback A
Adverse reactions are unpleasant or dangerous secondary effects.
B
Actions describe the cellular changes that occur as a result of the drug.
C
Correct!
D
Interactions include drugs or foods that may alter the effect of the drug.
PTS: 1 20.Which term best describes the study of drugs and their origin, nature, properties, and effects on living organisms? a.
Adverse reactions
c.
Cautions
b.
Pharmacology
d.
Interactions
ANS: B Feedback A
Adverse reactions are unpleasant or dangerous secondary effects.
B
Correct!
C
Cautions refer to conditions or types of patients that warrant closer observation for specific side effects when given the drug.
D
Interactions include drugs or foods
that may alter the effect of the drug. PTS: 1 21.A drug that typifies the characteristics of its classification is the: a.
adverse reactions.
c.
interactions.
b.
actions.
d.
prototype.
ANS: D Feedback A
Adverse reactions are lists of possible unpleasant or dangerous secondary effects.
B
Actions describe the cellular changes that occur as a result of the drug.
C
Interactions are lists of other drugs or foods that may alter the effect of the drug.
D
Correct!
PTS: 1 22.Medical conditions or diseases for which a drug is intended to be used are referred to as: a.
indications.
c.
cautions.
b.
actions.
d.
interactions.
ANS: A Feedback A
Correct!
B
Actions describe the cellular changes that occur as a result of the drug.
C
Cautions are lists of conditions or types of patients that warrant closer observation for specific side effects when given the drug.
D
Interactions are lists of other drugs or foods that may alter the effect of
the drug. PTS: 1 23.Drugs or foods that may alter the effect of a drug and are not to be given during the same course of therapy are: a.
adverse reactions.
c.
cautions.
b.
actions.
d.
interactions.
ANS: D Feedback A
Adverse reactions are lists of possible unpleasant or dangerous secondary effects.
B
Actions describe the cellular changes that occur as a result of the drug.
C
Cautions are lists of conditions or types of patients that warrant closer observation for specific side effects when given the drug.
D
Correct !
PTS: 1 24.Which of the following are characteristics of the PDR or Physician’s Desk Reference? a.
Contains comprehensive crossreference of drugs, including photographs
b.
Includes descriptions of substances
c.
Geared toward pharmacists and physicians
d.
Does not identify nursing implications
e.
May be difficult to interpret
f.
All of the above
ANS: F Although the PDR is a useful reference and is compiled as a comprehensive reference with supplements provided throughout the year, it is geared toward pharmacists and physicians and does not necessarily provide nursing or allied
health care specific guidance regarding implications and may be difficult to interpret. PTS: 1 25.“Off-label” use refers to what? a.
Contraindication for use
c.
Use not approved by the FDA
b.
Research indication
d.
Illegal use of the medication
ANS: C Off-label indicates that research has not been conducted to verify that use of the medication for that indication has not been proven safe or effective. PTS: 1
CHAPTER 3: SOURCES AND BODILY EFFECTS OF DRUGS MATCHING Match each source with the corresponding medication below. a.
Plants
d.
Synthetic
b.
Minerals
e.
Recombinant DNA
c.
Animals
1. Auranofin 2. Lomotil 3. Codeine 4. Milk of Magnesia 5. Synthroid 6. Demerol 7. Hepatitis B vaccine 8. Digitalis 9. Bactrim 10.Morphine 11.Insulin, regular 12.Human growth hormone 13.Aspirin 14.Quinidine 15.Zinc Oxide ointment 16.Pepsin 17.Monoclonal antibody therapies 1. ANS: B 2. ANS: D 3. ANS: A 4. ANS: B 5. ANS: D 6. ANS: D 7. ANS: E 8. ANS: A 9. ANS: D 10.ANS: A 11.ANS: E 12.ANS: E 13.ANS: A 14.ANS: A 15.ANS: B 16.ANS: C
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
17.ANS: E
PTS: 1
Match each item with the correct description below. a.
Drug Action
c.
Systemic Effects
b.
Drug Effect
d.
Local Effects
18.Limited to one area of the body 19.Cellular changes 20.Absorbed and distributed throughout the body 21.Physiological changes 18.ANS: D 19.ANS: A 20.ANS: C 21.ANS: B
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
1 1 1 1
Match each item with the correct description below. a.
Lethal dose
c.
Maintenance dose
b.
Toxic dose
d.
Loading dose
22.Amount that will produce harmful side effects or symptoms of poisoning 23.Amount used to quickly elevate the blood level of a drug 24.Amount required to maintain the desired effect 25.Amount that causes death 22.ANS: B 23.ANS: D 24.ANS: C 25.ANS: A
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
1 1 1 1
Match each item with the correct description below. a.
Excretion
c.
Distribution
b.
Metabolism
d.
Absorption
26.Movement from blood into tissues and fluids 27.Alterations the drug undergoes in the body 28.Movement into the bloodstream 29.Elimination of the drug from the body 26.ANS: C 27.ANS: B 28.ANS: D 29.ANS: A
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
1 1 1 1