TEST BANK for Body Structures and Functions 13th Edition by Ann Senisi Scott, Elizabeth Fong-stamped

TEST BANK for Body Structures and Functions 13th Edition

by Ann Senisi Scott, Elizabeth Fong TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter 1: Introduction to the Structural Units Chapter 2: Chemistry of Living Things Chapter 3: Cells Chapter 4: Tissues and Membranes Chapter 5: Integumentary System Chapter 6: Skeletal System Chapter 7: Muscular System Chapter 8: Central Nervous System Chapter 9: Peripheral and Autonomic Nervous System Chapter 10: Special Senses Chapter 11: Endocrine System Chapter 12: Blood Chapter 13: Heart

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Chapter 14: Circulation and Blood Vessels Chapter 15: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems Chapter 16: Infection Control and Standard Precautions Chapter 17: Respiratory System Chapter 18: Digestive System Chapter 19: Nutrition Chapter 20: Urinary System Chapter 21: Reproductive System Chapter 22: Genetics and Genetically Linked Diseases

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Chapter 1 Introduction to the Structural Units 1. The pelvic cavity contains the organs of the reproductive and excretory urinary systems.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. The thoracic cavity contains the heart and lungs.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. The lungs are located inferior to the diaphragm.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. The kidneys are located within the abdominal cavity.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. The midsagittal plane divides the body into front and back halves.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Caudal means “skull, or head, end” of the body.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. The hand is proximal to the elbow.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. The dorsal cavity contains the _____.​ a. ​heart and lungs c. s​ tructures of the central nervous system

b. ​major organs of digestion

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 1 Introduction to the Structural Units 9. Lateral means _____.​ a. ​near the beginning of a structure c. ​toward the midline

b. ​near the front of the body d. ​toward the side

ANSWER: d 10. The midsagittal plane divides the body into _____.​ a. a​ nterior and posterior portions b. c​ ephalic and caudal halves c. u​ pper and lower sections d. l​ eft and right halves ANSWER: d 11. The _____ surface of a structure is toward, or nearer, the midline and away from the side.​ a. ​distal b. ​lateral c. ​medial d. ​proximal ANSWER: c 12. The _____ plane divides the body into front and back portions.​ a. c​ oronal b. s​ agittal c. ​transverse ANSWER: a 13. Which of the following is known as the study of microscopic one-celled organisms, multi-celled organisms, plants, animals, and humans?​ a. B ​ iology b. A ​ natomy c. ​Physiology ANSWER: a 14. Which of the following conditions would occur on the anterior part of the body?​ a. I​ njury to the bottom of the foot b. V ​ entral hernia c. ​Bruise on the back of the head ANSWER: b 15. A scratch on the left thigh would best be described as _____.​ a. d​ eep b. s​ uperficial c. i​ nternal d. e​ xternal e. ​superficial and external f. ​deep and internal ANSWER: e

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Chapter 1 Introduction to the Structural Units 16. Which of the following sequences place the terms from the simplest to the most complex?​ a. ​Tissues, cells, organs, organ systems, human body b. ​Human body, organ system, organs, tissues, cells c. ​Cells, tissues, organs, organ system, human body d. ​None of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: c 17. Which of the following is the best description of anabolism?​ a. ​Functional activities of cells that result in growth, repair, energy release, use of food, and secretions b. ​Building up of complex materials from simpler ones such as food and oxygen c. ​Breaking down and changing of complex substances into simpler ones, with a release of energy and carbon dioxide ANSWER: b 18. In the metric system, which of the following is used to measure weight?​ a. G ​ rams b. M ​ eters c. L ​ iters d. M ​ illiliters ANSWER: a 19. Place the following prefixes in the order of smallest to largest.​ a. ​Micro, milli, centi b. ​Milli, centi, micro c. ​Centi, milli, micro d. ​Micro, centi, milli ANSWER: a 20. The provider instructs the patient to take 1 gram of acetaminophen for their fever. The patient only has capsules marked as 325 mg. How many should the patient take?​ a. 1​ capsule b. 2​ capsules c. 3​ capsules d. 4​ capsules ANSWER: c 21. Which of the following are cavities within the skull. Mark all that apply.​ a. O ​ rbital cavity b. N ​ asal cavity c. O ​ ral cavity d. B ​ uccal cavity ANSWER: a, b, c, d

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Chapter 1 Introduction to the Structural Units 22. Mark all that are true.​ a. ​1 liter = 1,000 milliliters c. ​2.5 centimeters = 1 inch e. ​30 milliliters = 1 ounce

b. ​2.2 kilograms = 1 pound d. ​The prefix centi means 1/1000.

ANSWER: a, c, e 23. Any abnormal change in the structure or function which produces symptoms is considered a(n) ____________.​ ANSWER: disease​ 24. A(n) ____________, or cross, section is a horizontal cut that divides the body into upper and lower parts.​ ANSWER: ​transverse 25. The dorsal cavity contains the ____________ cavity and the ____________ cavity.​ ANSWER: cranial, spinal​ 26. The ____________ divides the ventral cavity into two parts: the upper thoracic and the lower abdominopelvic cavities.​ ANSWER: diaphragm​ 27. The naval is located in the middle or _____________ region.​ ANSWER: ​umbilical 28. The stomach is located ____________ to the diaphragm.​ ANSWER: inferior​ 29. The term ____________ is used to reference the ventral surface of the body.​ ANSWER: anterior​ 30. The region superior to the left inguinal region is the ____________ ____________ region.​ ANSWER: left lumbar​ 31. The pubic area can also be referred to as the lower, or ______________, region.​ ANSWER: hypogastric​ 32. The region inferior to the right lumbar region is the right inguinal region, or the ____________ ____________ region.​ ANSWER: right iliac​ 33. The area superior to the right lumbar region is the ____________ ________________ region.​ ANSWER: right hypochondriac​ 34. ______________ is the ability of the body to regulate its internal environment within narrow limits.​ ANSWER: Homeostasis​ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 1 Introduction to the Structural Units 35. The metric system is a decimal system based on the power of ____________.​ ANSWER: 10 ten​ 36. One tablespoon of cough medicine equals ____________ milliliters of cough medicine.​ ANSWER: 15 fifteen You must make a notation on a patient’s record. Match the correct anatomical terminology to the description of the location.​

a. ​pain in the back b. ​pain below the right ribs c. ​a cut in the lower part of the right arm d. ​heartburn e. ​stomach cramps f. ​right inguinal hernia 37. ​proximal to wrist ANSWER: c 38. ​lumbar region ANSWER: a 39. ​epigastric area ANSWER: d 40. ​right hypochondriac area ANSWER: b 41. ​umbilical area ANSWER: e 42. ​right iliac area ANSWER: f

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Chapter 1 Introduction to the Structural Units Match the branch of anatomy with its description.​

a. ​gross anatomy c. ​developmental anatomy e. ​systematic anatomy

b. ​microscopic anatomy d. ​comparative anatomy

43. ​study of the growth and development of an organism during its lifetime ANSWER: c 44. ​study of large and easily observable structures of an organism ANSWER: a 45. ​examples are dermatology, endocrinology, and neurology ANSWER: e 46. ​study of similarities and differences between different animals ANSWER: d 47. ​includes cytology and histology ANSWER: b Match the life function with the applicable body system.​

a. ​movement c. ​transport e. ​secretion g. ​regulation (sensitivity)

b. ​ingestion d. ​growth f. ​excretion

48. ​digestive system ANSWER: b 49. ​skeletal system ANSWER: d 50. ​circulatory system ANSWER: c 51. ​nervous system ANSWER: g 52. ​endocrine system ANSWER: e 53. ​muscle system ANSWER: a 54. ​urinary system ANSWER: f Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 Chemistry of Living Things 1. Hydrogen is an example of an atom.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Medical imaging refers to invasive techniques and processes.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Electrolytes are responsible for the acidity or alkalinity of solutions and can conduct an electrical charge.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Fructose found in fruit and honey is an example of a disaccharide.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Phospholipids are lipids that contain cholesterol.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Enzymes are specialized protein molecules found in all living cells.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. RNA structures are unique for each person and so are usable as a means of identification.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Another name for a base is alkali.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True

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Chapter 2 Chemistry of Living Things 9. Buffers help a living organism to maintain a constant pH value.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Nuclear medicine is a branch of medicine that uses radioactive isotopes to prevent, diagnose, and treat disease.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. The study of the chemical reactions of living things is called _____.​ a. ​anatomy b. ​biochemistry c. ​physiology d. ​physics ANSWER: b 12. Sitting is a chair is an example of _____ energy​ a. ​potential b. ​kinetic c. ​ongoing ANSWER: a 13. Atoms that are alike combine to form the next stage of matter, which is a(n) _____.​ a. ​compound b. ​molecule c. ​element ANSWER: c 14. Water makes up what percentage of our body weight?​ a. ​35% to 40% b. ​55% to 65% c. ​75% to 80% d. ​Greater than 90% ANSWER: b 15. Which of the following is an example of a lipid?​ a. ​Carbohydrate b. ​Protein c. ​Fat d. ​Enzyme ANSWER: c 16. Triglycerides are a type of _____.​ a. ​protein b. ​fat c. ​carbohydrate d. ​glycogen ANSWER: b

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Chapter 2 Chemistry of Living Things 17. The nucleus of every human cell contains how many chromosomes?​ a. 2​ 3 b. 4​ 6 c. 6​ 9 d. 9​ 2 ANSWER: b 18. The sour taste of lemons is due to the presence of a compound called a(n) _____.​ a. ​acid b. ​base c. ​salt d. ​pH ANSWER: a 19. When an acid and a base are combined, they form a salt and water. This type of reaction is called a(n) _____.​ a. ​negatively charged hydroxide ion b. ​neutralization c. ​ionization ANSWER: b 20. A solution with a pH of 5 would tell you it is _____.​ a. ​acidic b. ​alkaline c. ​neutral ANSWER: a 21. ​Milk of magnesia is an example of a(n) _____ liquid. a. ​acid b. ​base c. ​neutral ANSWER: b 22. Which of the following is required for the body to function at an optimum level of health?​ a. ​Highly acidic level b. ​Highly alkaline level c. ​State of homeostasis d. ​None of the answers are correct.

ANSWER: c 23. Which of the following is an example of an extracellular fluid?​ a. ​Tears b. ​Blood c. ​Fluid within the cell d. ​Urine ANSWER: b 24. Which of the following means many?​ a. ​Poly b. ​Uni c. ​Intra d. ​Di ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 Chemistry of Living Things 25. Which of the following would best be described as a scanning procedure that provides visualization of fluid, soft tissue, and body structures without the use of radiation?​ a. ​Computed axial tomography (CAT, or CT, scan) b. ​Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) c. ​Positron emission tomography (PET) scan d. ​Bone scan ANSWER: b 26. Molecules that contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are known as ____________ _____________.​ ANSWER: ​organic compounds 27. Molecules known as ______________ ____________ are the building blocks of protein.​ ANSWER: amino acids​ 28. The smallest particles of elements that enter into chemical reactions are ____________.​ ANSWER: atoms​ 29. The number of protons in an atom is equal to the number of ____________.​ ANSWER: electrons​ 30. The number of elements found naturally in our world is ____________________.​ ANSWER: 92 ninety-two

31. The smallest unit of a compound is a(n) ____________________.​ ANSWER: molecule​ 32. A positively or negatively charged particle is called a(n) ____________________.​ ANSWER: ion​ 33. The four groups of organic compounds are ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________ ____________________.​ ANSWER: carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids, lipids carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids carbohydrates, nucleic acids, lipids, proteins lipids, proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, carbohydrates proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, carbohydrates

nucleic acids, lipids, proteins, carbohydrates

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Chapter 2 Chemistry of Living Things 34. ____________________ ____________________ is involved in the process of heredity.​ ANSWER: DNA Deoxyribonucleic acid 35. Compounds can be classified into the following three groups: ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.

ANSWER: acids, bases, salts acids, salts, bases bases, salts, acids bases, acids, salts salts, acids, bases

salts, bases, acids

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Chapter 2 Chemistry of Living Things Match the element name with its symbol.​ a. ​calcium b. ​carbon c. ​hydrogen d. ​iron e. ​oxygen f. ​sodium g. ​potassium h. ​nitrogen i. ​magnesium j. phosphorus 36. ​N a ANSWER: f 37. ​Mg ANSWER: i 38. ​O ANSWER: e 39. ​K ANSWER: g 40. ​N ANSWER: h 41. ​Ca ANSWER: a 42. ​ P ANSWER: j 43. ​Fe ANSWER: d 44. ​C ANSWER: b 45. ​H ANSWER: c

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Chapter 3 Cells 1. Every cell is surrounded by cytoplasm.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Most of the cell’s energy comes from spherical or rod-shaped organelles called mitochondria.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. All cells reproduce at the same rate. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Osmosis is the movement of solutes across a semipermeable membrane.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. After age 30, an average of 10% of the reserve ability of organs is lost each year.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. The nucleus of a cell is contained with a nuclear membrane, which is impermeable.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Necrosis is an orderly process by which cells intentionally die.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Stem cells are primal cells common to all multicellular organisms.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 Cells 9. Adult stem cells are undifferentiated cells found throughout the body that divide to replenish dying cells and regenerate damaged tissue.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Umbilical cord blood is rich in stem cells, which can be used to treat disease.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Cancer is the most common cause of death in the United States.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. A neoplasm _____.​ a. ​is always malignant c. ​may be benign

b. ​is also known as a tumor d. i​ s also known as a tumor or may be benign

ANSWER: d 13. A structure that digests worn-out cells and bacteria is called a(n) _____.​ a. ​ribosome b. ​lysosome c. ​peroxisome d. ​mitochondrion ANSWER: b 14. The most important organelle within the cell is the _____.​ a. ​cytoplasm b. ​nucleus c. ​golgi apparatus d. ​mitochondrion ANSWER: b 15. An orderly series of steps in which the DNA in the nucleus of the cell is equally distributed to two daughter nuclei is called _____.​ a. ​meiosis b. ​osmosis c. ​mitosis d. ​scoliosis ANSWER: c 16. The process whereby molecules spread themselves through a medium is called _____.​ a. ​osmosis b. ​filtration c. ​diffusion d. ​synthesis ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 Cells 17. Some of the phospholipids of the cell membrane are hydrophilic. What does that mean?​ a. ​They attract water. b. ​They repel water. c. ​They alternate between attracting and repelling water.

ANSWER: a 18. In mitosis, which of the following phases is known as the resting stage?​ a. ​Interphase b. ​Prophase c. ​Metaphase d. ​Anaphase e. ​Telophase ANSWER: a 19. Which type of stem cell can give rise to any type of cell in the body, except those needed to develop a fetus?​ a. ​Multipotent b. ​Pluripotent c. ​Totipotent ANSWER: b 20. A solution that has a high solute concentration would be called _____.​ a. ​isotonic b. ​hypotonic c. ​hypertonic ANSWER: c 21. Filtration is an example of _____.​ a. ​active transport b. ​passive transport c. ​phagocytosis d. ​pinocytosis ANSWER: b 22. What is it called when a cell has the ability to change into another type of cell?​ a. ​Metaplasia b. ​Hyperplasia c. ​Neoplasia d. ​Atrophy ANSWER: a 23. A(n) ____________________ is the basic structural unit of the body.​ ANSWER: cell​ 24. ____________________ is a sticky semifluid material found between the nucleus and the cell membrane.​ ANSWER: Cytoplasm​

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Chapter 3 Cells 25. The process of cell division of the gamete is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: meiosis​ 26. The three common states of matter are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.​ ANSWER: gases, liquids, solids liquids, solids, gases liquids, gases, solids solids, liquids, gases solids, gases, liquids

gases, solids, liquids 27. _____________________ is the diffusion of water or any other solvent molecule through a semipermeable membrane.​ ANSWER: Osmosis​ 28. When cell division does not occur in the usual pattern, a(n) ______________________ results.​ ANSWER: tumor​ 29. The most commonly used classification system for cancer is the ________________________________.​ ANSWER: TNM system tumor, node, metastasis system

30. The process by which malignant tumors spread to other parts of the body is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: metastasis​ 31. ____________________ and _____________________ are specialized cells.​ ANSWER: nerve cells, red blood cells red blood cells, nerve cells 32. The number of chromosomes for the human being is _____________________.​ ANSWER: 46 forty-six

33. Chromosomes store the hereditary material called __________________________.​ ANSWER: DNA deoxyribonucleic acid

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Chapter 3 Cells 34. When a cell increases in size, it is called _____________________.​ ANSWER: hypertrophy​ Match the term with the best descriptor.​ a. ​chromatin b. ​chromosomes c. ​phospholipids d. ​cells e. ​nuclear membrane f. ​nucleoplasm g. ​cell membrane h. ​organelles i. ​endoplasmic reticulum j. cilia 35. ​look like a balloon with tails ANSWER: c 36. ​body is made up of trillions of them that live for a few weeks or months, die, and are replaced ANSWER: d 37. ​DNA and protein arranged in a loose and diffuse state ANSWER: a 38. ​another name for nuclear envelope ANSWER: e 39. ​chromatin condenses to form theses short, rodlike structures ANSWER: b 40. ​clear, semifluid medium that fills the spaces around the chromatin and the nucleoli within the nucleus ANSWER: f 41. ​also called a plasma membrane ANSWER: g 42. ​embedded in the cytoplasm ANSWER: h 43. ​hairlike protrusions that beat and vibrate ANSWER: j 44. ​crisscrosses the cellular cytoplasm in a fine network of tubular structures ANSWER: i

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Chapter 4 Tissues and Membranes 1. An organ is a group of specialized cells that secrete materials used elsewhere in the body.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Serous membranes line surfaces and spaces that lead to the outside of the body.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Synovial membranes secrete synovial fluid, which prevents friction inside the joint cavity.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. The respiratory system carries oxygen and nourishment to the cells of the body.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Neurons have the characteristics of irritability and the ability to contract.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Epithelial tissue allows for movement and provides support for other types of tissues.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Putting two thin layers of tissue together forms membranes.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Serous membranes produce a thin, watery fluid and line surfaces leading to the outside of the body.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False

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Chapter 4 Tissues and Membranes 9. Columnar epithelial cells line the digestive tract and parts of the respiratory system.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Collagen is a white, fibrous protein found in areolar tissue.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. ​Elastic cartilage is located within the intervertebral discs. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. Smooth muscle tissue provides for involuntary muscle movement.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Connective tissue membranes may be found in the joint cavities and are called synovial membranes.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. The mucous membrane that lines the interior cavities of the body is called the visceral membrane.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. Granulation occurs in the primary repair of wounds.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. The internal and external surfaces of the body are covered by _____ tissue.​ a. ​adipose b. ​muscle c. ​endothelium d. ​epithelial ANSWER: d

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Chapter 4 Tissues and Membranes 17. Flat, irregularly shaped cells that line the heart are called _____.​ a. ​squamous epithelial b. ​cuboidal epithelial c. ​columnar epithelial d. ​exocrine ANSWER: a 18. The type of tissue that surrounds various organs and supports nerve and blood vessels is called _____.​ a. ​adipose b. ​areolar c. ​glandular d. ​fibrous ANSWER: b 19. _____ tissue makes up the skeleton of the body.​ a. ​Dense, fibrous b. ​Hyaline c. ​Osseous d. ​Cartilage ANSWER: c 20. _____ muscle is a striated, involuntary muscle.​ a. ​Cardiac b. ​Skeletal c. ​Smooth ANSWER: a 21. Which of the following means to kill or destroy?​ a. ​Peri b. ​-cidal c. ​Ser d. ​-ac ANSWER: b 22. Part of the process of epithelial tissue repair is the formation of a strong, but inelastic, tissue. What is this tissue called?​ a. ​Scar b. ​Scab c. ​Suture ANSWER: a 23. ​Which of the following is an example of an organ? a. ​Nervous system b. ​Epithelial tissue c. ​Carbon d. ​Stomach ANSWER: d

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Chapter 4 Tissues and Membranes 24. Which of the following statements is true regarding tissue and organ transplants?​ a. ​A blood transfusion is an example of an tissue transplant. b. ​Organ transplant patients need to continue medical treatment for the rest of their lives. c. ​The most common type of rejection is acute rejection. d. ​All of the answers are correct.

ANSWER: d 25. The effects of aging on tissues result in _____.​ a. ​a decrease in pigments inside the cell b. ​the cells becoming larger c. ​connective tissue becoming progressively more pliable d. ​much tissue hypertrophy ANSWER: b 26. A(n) ____________________ is a thin layer of tissue that covers a surface, lines a cavity, or divides a space or organ.

ANSWER: membrane​ 27. Organs are held in place and body parts are bound together by _____________________ tissue.​ ANSWER: connective​ 28. Groups of ____________________ that are similar in shape, size, structure, intercellular material, and function are called tissues.​ ANSWER: cells​ 29. A(n) ____________________ is a structure made up of several tissues grouped together to perform a single function.​ ANSWER: organ​ 30. Name the eleven body systems: _________________________, _________________________, _________________________, _________________________, _________________________, _________________________, _________________________, _________________________, _________________________, _________________________, and _________________________.​ ANSWER: skeletal, muscular, digestive, respiratory, circulatory, lymphatic, nervous, endocrine, reproductive, integumentary, urinary.​ 31. A(n) ____________________ is a cut or incision on the skin where infection is not present.​ ANSWER: clean wound​

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Chapter 4 Tissues and Membranes 32. The ____________________ process will form new vertically upstanding blood vessels.​ ANSWER: granulation​ 33. ____________________ helps in the process of blood coagulation.​ ANSWER: Vitamin K​ 34. Name the four main types of tissues: ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.​ ANSWER: epithelial, muscle, connective, nervous​ 35. The brain, nerves, spinal cord, and ganglia are organs of the ____________________.​ ANSWER: nervous system​

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Chapter 4 Tissues and Membranes Match the system with the function.​ a. ​skeletal b. ​muscular c. ​digestive d. ​respiratory e. ​circulatory f. ​urinary g. ​nervous h. ​endocrine i. ​reproductive j. integumentary 36. ​communicates, controls, and coordinates body activity ANSWER: g 37. ​determines posture, produces body heat, and provides for movement ANSWER: b 38. ​helps regulate body temperature; establishes a barrier between the body and the external environment; eliminates waste, synthesizes vitamin D; contains receptors for temperature, pressure, and pain ANSWER: j 39. ​removes waste products of metabolism from the body ANSWER: f 40. ​acquires oxygen and rids the body of carbon dioxide ANSWER: d 41. ​prepares food for absorption and use by body cells through chemical and physical changes ANSWER: c 42. ​carries oxygen and nourishment to cells of the body and carries waste from the cells ANSWER: e 43. ​manufactures hormones ANSWER: h 44. ​gives shape to the body; protects delicate body parts; provides space for attaching muscles; involved in forming blood and storing minerals ANSWER: a 45. ​reproduces new life ANSWER: i

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Chapter 5 Integumentary System 1. The skin is designed to reduce the harmful effect of ultraviolet radiation contained in sunlight.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. The dermis is the outermost layer of the skin.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Perspiration is 50 percent water, 25 percent salt, and 25 percent organic materials.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. An intact skin surface is the best way the body can defend itself against pathogens.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. The loss of subcutaneous fat results in lines, wrinkles, and sagging of the skin.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. The medical prefix epi- means upon.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. If a person has redness of the skin, you would describe that as pallor.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Hyperthermia means having a body temperature below normal.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False

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Chapter 5 Integumentary System 9. Certain medications can increase the risk of obtaining a sunburn.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. The treatment for malignant melanoma is cryosurgery.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. The various shades of human skin color are determined by the amount of _____.​ a. ​keratin in the skin b. ​melanin in the skin c. ​papillae d. ​Merkel cells ANSWER: b 12. Nails are formed by the _____ layer.​ a. ​epidermal b. ​dermal c. ​hypodermal d. ​subcutaneous ANSWER: a 13. Skin is protected by a thick, oily substance called _____.​ a. ​sebum b. ​keratin c. ​melanin d. ​mucus ANSWER: a 14. The number-one way to prevent the spread of disease is _____.​ a. ​bathing daily b. ​keeping the fingernails short c. ​wearing gloves d. ​handwashing ANSWER: d 15. The amount of water lost through the skin is almost _____ milliliters a day.​ a. ​500 b. ​1,000 c. ​200 d. 5​ 0 ANSWER: a 16. A pressure (decubitus) ulcer that has a skin break through all layers of the skin is classified as stage _____.​ a. ​I b. ​II c. ​III d. ​IV ANSWER: c

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Chapter 5 Integumentary System 17. Which of the following conditions is caused by a parasite?​ a. ​Ingrown nails b. ​Fungal infections c. ​Head lice d. ​Warts ANSWER: c 18. Which level of burn may not be painful?​ a. ​First-degree burn b. ​Second-degree burn c. ​Third-degree burn d. ​Fourth-degree burn ANSWER: c 19. A patient who has burns on the entire left arm and entire left leg would have what percentage of body surface burned?​ a. ​9 percent b. ​18 percent c. ​27 percent d. ​36 percent ANSWER: c 20. Which of the following is true regarding skin cancer and ultraviolet (UV) light?​ a. ​The skin needs exposure to the sun to manufacture vitamin K. b. ​Tanning beds are safe, as they do not emit UV rays. c. ​Wait until after 1 p.m. to be in the sun, when it is less intense. d. ​The incidence of basal and squamous cell carcinoma is on the rise.

ANSWER: d 21. Special antifungal powders are used to treat blisters that occur between the toes in the condition of _____________________.​ ANSWER: athlete’s foot​ 22. An acute or chronic, noncontagious inflammatory skin disease is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: eczema​ 23. A skin condition in which intensely itchy wheals or welts appear is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: urticaria​ 24. ____________________ are cells that form and contain black pigment.​ ANSWER: Melanocytes​ 25. Malignant ____________________ is commonly known as skin cancer.​ ANSWER: melanoma​ 26. ____________________ is an inflammation of the skin that may be nonspecific.​ ANSWER: Dermatitis​ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 Integumentary System 27. ___________________ is a highly contagious fungal infection marked by raised, itchy, circular patches with crusts.​ ANSWER: Ringworm​ 28. A bacterial infection of the hair follicle is called a(n) ____________________.​ ANSWER: boil​ 29. A burn that involves only the epidermal layer is classified as a(n) ____________________.​ ANSWER: first-degree burn​ 30. A skin lesion characterized by an elevated solid area is called a(n) ____________________.​ ANSWER: papule​

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Chapter 5 Integumentary System Match the condition with its descriptor.​ a. ​acne vulgaris b. ​athlete’s foot c. ​impetigo d. ​psoriasis e. ​herpes f. ​basal cell carcinoma g. ​rosacea h. ​shingles (herpes zoster) i. ​warts j. boils 31. ​contagious fungal infection ANSWER: b 32. ​also called carbuncles and are painful ANSWER: j 33. ​common and chronic disorder of the sebaceous glands ANSWER: a 34. ​chronic inflammatory skin disease characterized by dry, reddish patches that are covered with silver-white scales ANSWER: d 35. ​common inflammatory disorder characterized by chronic redness and irritation of the face ANSWER: g 36. ​acute, inflammatory, contagious skin disease seen in babies and young children ANSWER: c 37. ​viral infections that affect the skin surrounding or underneath the nail ANSWER: i 38. ​most common and least malignant type of skin cancer ANSWER: f 39. ​is caused by a virus the same as the one that causes chickenpox ANSWER: h 40. ​viral infection that is usually seen as a blister ANSWER: e

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Chapter 5 Integumentary System Match the skin lesion with its characteristics.​ a. ​papule b. ​bulla c. ​pustule d. ​nodule e. ​macule 41. ​solid, elevated lesion less than 1 cm in diameter ANSWER: a 42. ​localized changes in skin color of less than 1 cm ANSWER: e 43. ​a vesicle or bullae that becomes filled with pus ANSWER: c 44. ​solid and elevated, but deeper than a papule ANSWER: d 45. ​a large blister ANSWER: b

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Chapter 6 Skeletal System 1. The adult skeletal system has about 150 bones.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. An osteocyte is a mature bone cell.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. The center of the bone shaft that is filled with yellow bone marrow is called the endosteum.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Osteoclasts do their work during the resorption process.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. The hyoid bone is part of the appendicular skeleton.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. The coccyx is also known as the tailbone.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic, autoimmune disease.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. A hammertoe is a condition sometimes seen in newborns.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False

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Chapter 6 Skeletal System 9. A whiplash injury is trauma to the lumbar vertebrae.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Orthotists measure, design, and fit or service prosthetic devices as prescribed by a physician.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. The clavicles are also called the collar bones.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. Most of the joints in our body are diarthroses.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Ligaments are _____.​ a. ​fibrous bands that connect bones to muscles b. ​osteocytes c. ​fibrous bands that connect bones and cartilages d. ​joints ANSWER: c 14. How many bones are in the skull?​ a. 8​ b. 1​ 2 c. 2​ 2 d. 3​ 6 ANSWER: c 15. Which bones make up the upper jaw?​ a. ​Maxilla b. ​Ethmoid c. ​Parietal d. ​Lacrimal ANSWER: a

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Chapter 6 Skeletal System 16. When a fracture is repaired surgically, it is called _____.​ a. ​open reduction b. ​closed reduction c. ​traction ANSWER: a 17. Which of the following types of fractures is the simplest type?​ a. ​Compound, or open b. ​Simple, or closed c. ​Comminuted d. ​Greenstick ANSWER: d 18. Kyphosis is​ a. ​a side-to-side, or lateral, curvature of the spine. b. ​an exaggerated inward curvature in the lumbar region of the spine. c. ​a humped curvature in the thoracic area of the spine.

ANSWER: c 19. Which of the following statements is true about osteoporosis?​ a. ​It is characterized by bowlegs. b. ​It is a degenerative joint disease. c. ​There is low bone mass and structural deterioration. d. ​Rheumatologists are taking an integrative medicine approach.

ANSWER: c 20. Bursitis means _____.​ a. ​inflammation of a joint c. ​inflammation of a tendon

b. ​inflammation of a synovial-filled sac d. ​kyphosis

ANSWER: b 21. Supinat means _____.​ a. ​placing on the back c. ​resembling

b. ​pores in the bone d. ​abnormal condition

ANSWER: a 22. Lying flat on one’s stomach with the face pointing downward would be what position?​ a. ​Supine b. ​Prone c. ​Extension ANSWER: b

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Chapter 6 Skeletal System 23. Which of the following bones is in the upper arm?​ a. ​Humerus b. ​Radius c. ​Ulna d. ​Femur ANSWER: a 24. The fingers are called _____.​ a. ​carpals b. ​metacarpals c. ​phalanges d. ​tarsals ANSWER: c 25. The process in which mineral matter replaces previously formed cartilage is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: ossification​ 26. Bones grow from the shaft, or ____________________, toward the end of the bones, or the ______________________.​ ANSWER: diaphysis, epiphysis 27. Name the five functions of the skeletal system: ______________________________, ______________________________, ______________________________, ______________________________, and ______________________________.​ ANSWER: support, movement and anchorage, mineral storage, protection, hematopoiesis​ 28. The average growth in females continues to about ______________________________ years; in males to approximately ______________________________ years.​ ANSWER: 18, 20-21 eighteen, twenty to twenty-one

29. Name the four types of bones: ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and _____________________.​ ANSWER: long, irregular, flat, short​ 30. The two main parts of the skeletal system are the ____________________ and the ____________________ skeleton.

ANSWER: appendicular, axial​ 31. The spine consists of small bones called ____________________.​ ANSWER: vertebrae​ 32. The points of contact between two bones are called ____________________.​ ANSWER: joints​ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 Skeletal System 33. The most common type of injury to a bone is a(n) ____________________.​ ANSWER: fracture​ 34. ____________________ is a joint disorder characterized by an acute inflammation commonly affecting the big toe.​ ANSWER: Gout​ 35. The acronym RICE means ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.​ ANSWER: rest, ice, compression, elevation​ Match the statement in the first column with the structure in the second column.​ a. ​movable joint b. ​immovable joint c. ​area between two articular cartilages d. ​partially movable joint e. ​lining of the articular capsule f. ​example of a pivot joint g. ​joint connected by tough fibrous tissue h. ​elastic material between vertebrae 36. ​diarthrosis ANSWER: a 37. ​amphiarthrosis ANSWER: d 38. ​disk ANSWER: h 39. ​synovial membrane ANSWER: e 40. ​synarthrosis ANSWER: b 41. ​synovial cavity ANSWER: c 42. ​suture ANSWER: g 43. ​radius and ulna ANSWER: f

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Chapter 6 Skeletal System Match the type of motion with its descriptor.​ a. ​flexion b. ​abduction c. ​pronation d. ​supination e. ​rotation f. ​circumduction g. ​adduction 44. ​movement of an extremity away from the midline ANSWER: b 45. ​the palm of the hand is facing upward ANSWER: d 46. ​movement that allows a bone to more around one central axis ANSWER: e 47. ​includes flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction ANSWER: f 48. ​the forearm turns the hand so the palm is downward or backward ANSWER: c 49. ​act of bringing two bones closer together ANSWER: a 50. movement toward the midline ANSWER: g

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Chapter 7 Muscular System 1. There are 200 different muscles in the body.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Skeletal muscles must be stimulated by nerve impulses to contract.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. In order to function, muscles should always be slightly contracted and ready to pull.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Skeletal muscles that are not used will hypertrophy, and those that are used excessively will atrophy.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. A muscle strain is a sustained contraction of the muscle.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Myalgia is a term used to describe muscle pain.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Tetanus is preventable.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Another name for a muscle spasm is a cramp.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True

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Chapter 7 Muscular System 9. Muscular dystrophy occurs when the connection between the nerves and muscle is lost.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Muscles are responsible for producing most of our body heat.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Cardiac muscle is an example of a voluntary muscle.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. Sphincter, or dilator, muscles are special circular muscles that open and close to control the passage of substances.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Muscles only push, never pull.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. The muscle on the back of the upper arm is called the _____.​ a. ​biceps b. ​triceps c. ​deltoid ANSWER: b 15. The part of a skeletal muscle that is attached to a fixed structure is called the _____.​ a. ​origin b. ​insertion c. ​prime mover d. ​ligament ANSWER: a 16. The ability of a muscle to return to its original length is called _____.​ a. ​excitability b. ​elasticity c. ​contractility d. ​extensibility ANSWER: b

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Chapter 7 Muscular System 17. The ability of a muscle to shorten in response to a suitable stimulus is called _____.​ a. ​excitability b. ​elasticity c. ​contractility d. ​extensibility ANSWER: c 18. The type of muscle that is attached to the skeleton is _____.​ a. ​smooth b. ​cardiac c. ​skeletal ANSWER: c 19. Which of the following is true regarding fibromyalgia?​ a. ​It is characterized by sudden acute pain. b. ​The treatment is surgical. c. ​There are no medications to treat it. d. ​It is a collection of symptoms (syndrome).

ANSWER: d 20. Which of the following hernias occur when the stomach pushes through the diaphragm?​ a. ​Hiatal b. ​Inguinal c. ​Abdominal ANSWER: a 21. Which of the following would be categorized as a recreational injury?​ a. ​Torticollis b. ​Rotator cuff disease c. ​Tetanus ANSWER: b 22. Which of the following would be a recommended initial treatment for a strain?​ a. ​Wrap the area in ice for several hours. b. ​Use the RICE method as for sprains. c. ​Apply heat immediately.

ANSWER: b 23. The prefix a- means _____.​ a. ​process of b. ​without c. ​excessive ANSWER: b

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Chapter 7 Muscular System 24. Asthenia means _____.​ a. ​into b. ​nature c. ​weakness ANSWER: c 25. Each skeletal muscle cell is known as a(n) ____.​ a. ​muscle fiber b. ​sarcolemma c. ​sarcoplasm ANSWER: a 26. Nearly ____________________ of our body weight comes from muscles.​ ANSWER: half one-half 1/2

27. Name the three types of muscles: ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.​ ANSWER: skeletal, smooth, cardiac​ 28. Name the four characteristics of muscles: _________________________, __________________________, _________________________, and _________________________.​ ANSWER: contractility, excitability, extensibility, elasticity​ 29. The major source of energy for muscles is ______________________________.​ ANSWER: ATP adenosine 5' triphosphate adenosine triphosphate

30. ______________________________ is caused by an accumulation of lactic acid in the muscles.​ ANSWER: Muscle fatigue​ 31. Exercise and training will alter the ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________ of a muscle.​ ANSWER: size, structure, strength​ 32. _________________________ can occur to muscles that are infrequently used.​ ANSWER: Muscle atrophy​ 33. _________________________ occur when there is injury to the muscle tendon in the front of the shin.​ ANSWER: Shin splints​

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Chapter 7 Muscular System 34. ____________________ diagnose and treat patients whose health problems are associated with the body’s muscular, nervous, or skeletal systems.​ ANSWER: Chiropractors​ 35. The masseter and temporalis muscles are representative of the muscles of ____________________.​ ANSWER: mastication​ Match the name of the skeletal muscle with its location.​ a. ​muscle of facial expression b. ​muscle of the trunk c. ​muscle of the lower extremity d. ​muscle of the upper extremity 36. ​frontalis ANSWER: a 37. ​rectus abdominis ANSWER: b 38. ​trapezius ANSWER: d 39. ​internal oblique ANSWER: b 40. ​gluteus maximus ANSWER: c 41. ​orbicularis oculi ANSWER: a 42. ​gastrocnemius ANSWER: c 43. ​deltoid ANSWER: d 44. ​biceps brachii ANSWER: d 45. ​pectoralis major ANSWER: d

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Chapter 8 Central Nervous System 1. Axons carry messages to the cell body. Dendrites carry messages away from the cell body.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. The autonomic nervous system includes peripheral nerves and ganglia.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. The adult brain weighs about 1,400 grams (3 pounds).​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. The brain contains four lined cavities called ventricles.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. The cerebral cortex of the frontal lobe controls motor functions.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. The three meninges are the dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. A lumbar puncture may be done to determine the effectiveness of the blood-brain barrier.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. The cerebrum is divided into two hemispheres—right and left—by a deep groove, known as the gyri.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False

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Chapter 8 Central Nervous System 9. The occipital lobe houses the visual area controlling eyesight.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. The diencephalon contains the thalamus and the hypothalamus.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. The hypothalamus is the center for mind-over-body experiences in which patients experience an unexplainable cure.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. _____ is a chronic inflammatory disease of the central nervous system in which immune cells attack the myelin sheath of the nerve cell axons.​ a. ​Cerebral palsy b. ​Poliomyelitis c. ​Multiple sclerosis d. ​Encephalitis ANSWER: c 13. _____ is a progressive disease in which the initial symptom is usually a problem remembering recently learned information.​ a. ​Dementia b. ​Alzheimer’s disease c. ​Multiple sclerosis d. ​Cerebral palsy ANSWER: b 14. _____ is a seizure disorder of the brain.​ a. ​Parkinson’s disease b. ​Cerebral palsy c. ​Hydrocephalus d. ​Epilepsy ANSWER: d 15. _____ is characterized by a shuffling gait, tremors, pill-rolling, and muscular rigidity.​ a. ​Parkinson’s disease b. ​Cerebral palsy c. ​Hydrocephalus d. ​Epilepsy ANSWER: a

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Chapter 8 Central Nervous System 16. Inflammation of the lining of the brain and spinal cord is called _____.​ a. ​encephalitis b. ​meningitis c. ​poliomyelitis d. ​laryngitis ANSWER: b 17. Neuroglia is the type of cell that _____.​ a. ​is able to react when stimulated b. ​insulates, supports, and protects neurons c. ​is able to pass the nerve impulse generated by other cells ANSWER: b 18. Another name for a nerve cell is _____.​ a. ​neuron b. ​neurilemma c. ​myelin sheath d. ​neuroglia ANSWER: a 19. Which of the following systems consists of the brain and spinal cord?​ a. ​Central nervous system b. ​Peripheral nervous system c. ​Autonomic nervous system ANSWER: a 20. Which type of neuron emerges from the skin or sense organs and carries messages, or impulses, toward the spinal cord and brain?​ a. ​Motor neurons b. ​Associative neurons c. ​Sensory neurons ANSWER: c 21. When a neuron membrane is “at rest,” which of the following is true?​ a. ​There are large amounts of potassium (K+) ions inside the cells. b. ​There are large amounts of sodium (Na+) ions inside the cells. c. ​The potassium (K+) and sodium (Na+) ions are in balance.

ANSWER: a 22. The neurotransmitter between muscle cells and the nervous system cells is _____.​ a. ​epinephrine b. ​acetylcholine c. ​norepinephrine ANSWER: b

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Chapter 8 Central Nervous System 23. Without oxygen, brain damage will occur within _____.​ a. ​2 to 3 minutes b. ​4 to 8 minutes c. ​10 to 15 minutes d. ​25 to 30 minutes ANSWER: b 24. When someone says “I need to use my gray matter,” they are referring to the _____.​ a. ​cerebellum b. ​brainstem c. ​cerebral cortex d. ​meninges ANSWER: c 25. Which of the following is part of the limbic system?​ a. ​Hippocampus b. ​Wernicke area c. ​Broca area ANSWER: a 26. The ________________________ is the most highly organized system in the body.​ ANSWER: central nervous system CNS

27. Nerves carry impulses by creating electric charges in a process known as ________________________.​ ANSWER: membrane excitability​ 28. A(n) ____________________ is where a message goes from one cell to the next cell.​ ANSWER: synapse​ 29. Name the three divisions of the nervous system: ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.​ ANSWER: central, peripheral, autonomic​ 30. ​The ____________________________ is made up of 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

ANSWER: peripheral nervous system PNS

31. ____________________ may be short-term or long-term.​ ANSWER: Memory​

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Chapter 8 Central Nervous System 32. The substance that serves as a liquid shock absorber protecting the brain and spinal cord is called ________________________.​ ANSWER: cerebrospinal fluid CSF

33. The ____________________ is the largest part of the brain.​ ANSWER: cerebrum​ 34. Name the three parts of the brain stem: ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.​ ANSWER: midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata​ 35. ____________________ is an inflammation of the brain.​ ANSWER: Encephalitis​

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Chapter 8 Central Nervous System Match the items.​ a. ​sensory neurons b. ​motor neurons c. ​associative neurons d. ​neurotransmitter e. ​one of the four major parts of the brain f. ​dura mater g. ​arachnoid mater 36. ​also called interneurons ANSWER: c 37. ​also called efferent neurons ANSWER: b 38. ​also called afferent neurons ANSWER: a 39. ​epinephrine ANSWER: d 40. ​norepinephrine ANSWER: d 41. ​acetylcholine ANSWER: d 42. ​outer brain covering ANSWER: f 43. ​middle brain covering ANSWER: g 44. ​diencephalon ANSWER: e 45. ​cerebrum ANSWER: e

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Chapter 9 Peripheral and Autonomic Nervous System 1. The peripheral nervous system includes all the nerves that connect the brain and spinal cord with sensory receptors, muscles, and glands.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. A nerve composed of fibers carrying impulses to the brain or spinal cord from muscles or glands is called an efferent nerve.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. The spinal nerves are named in relation to their location on the spinal cord.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. The parasympathetic nervous system is referred to as the fight-or-flight system.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Sciatica is a form of neuritis that affects the sciatic nerve.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. The peripheral nervous system connects the central nervous system to structures of the body.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. The spinal nerves are all mixed nerves.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Under normal circumstances, the parasympathetic system would be stronger than the sympathetic system.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 Peripheral and Autonomic Nervous System 9. Both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nerves are strongly influenced by emotion.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Peripheral neuropathy is frequently caused by diabetes.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Which plexus supplies motor movement to the posterior of the legs and thighs?​ a. ​Cervical b. ​Brachial c. ​Lumbar d. ​Sacral ANSWER: d 12. Which plexus supplies motor movement to the shoulder, wrist, and hand?​ a. ​Cervical b. ​Brachial c. ​Lumbar d. ​Sacral ANSWER: b 13. The cranial nerve that regulates hearing and balance (equilibrium) is _____.​ a. ​VIII b. ​VI c. ​V d. ​III ANSWER: a 14. The cranial nerve that is responsible for vision is _____.​ a. ​I b. ​IV c. ​II d. ​V ANSWER: c 15. A nerve composed of fibers that carry impulses from the sense organs to the brain is called a(n) _____ nerve.​ a. ​afferent b. ​efferent c. ​mixed d. ​busy ANSWER: a 16. If a person is extremely stressed by the behavior of a colleague, this would mean what?​ a. ​The parasympathetic system is dominant. b. ​The sympathetic system is dominant. c. ​The central nervous system is dominant.

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Chapter 9 Peripheral and Autonomic Nervous System 17. When a health care provider taps the knee to determine the presence of a knee-jerk reflex, what is happening?​ a. ​A message is sent to the brain to respond. b. ​A message is sent to the spinal cord to respond. c. ​The nerve being tapped responds locally and no message is transmitted.

ANSWER: b 18. During childbirth, a woman is given an epidural anesthetic to relieve the pain. This is an example of what type of anesthesia?​ a. ​General b. ​Local c. ​Regional ANSWER: c 19. A patient is going to have a repair of a heart valve. What type of anesthesia would be used?​ a. ​Local b. ​General c. ​Regional ANSWER: b 20. Tingling, burning, and crawling of the skin would be called _____.​ a. ​sciatica b. ​neuralgia c. ​paresthesia ANSWER: c 21. Which of the following is a therapy that delivers tiny electrical impulses to specific nerve pathways through small electrodes placed on the skin?​ a. ​TENS b. ​EMG c. ​EEG ANSWER: a 22. A(n) ____________________ is composed of bundles of nerve fibers enclosed by connective tissue.​ ANSWER: nerve​ 23. ____________________ and ____________________ nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system.​ ANSWER: Cranial, spinal Spinal, cranial 24. There are ____________________ pairs of spinal nerves and ____________________ pairs of cranial nerves.​ ANSWER: 31, 12 thirty-one, twelve

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Chapter 9 Peripheral and Autonomic Nervous System 25. The two divisions of the autonomic nervous system are the ____________________ and ____________________.​ ANSWER: sympathetic, parasympathetic parasympathetic, sympathetic

26. The simplest type of nervous response is the _________________________.​ ANSWER: reflex arc​ 27. Inflammation of a nerve or nerve trunk is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: neuritis​ 28. _________________________ is a condition that involves the seventh cranial nerve.​ ANSWER: Bell’s palsy​ 29. The instrument used to determine the electrical activity of the muscle is a(n) _________________________.​ ANSWER: electromyograph EMG

30. Reaction to a stimulus is called a(n) ____________________.​ ANSWER: response​ 31. The autonomic nervous system includes ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________, which carry impulses to all smooth muscle, secretory glands, and heart muscle.​ ANSWER: nerves, ganglia, plexuses​ 32. ____________________ is a measurement of physiological responses that yields information about the relationships between the mind and the body and helps people learn how to manipulate those responses through mental activity.​ ANSWER: Biofeedback​ 33. ________________________________________ is a condition that affects the median nerve and the flexor tendons that attach to the bones of the wrist.​ ANSWER: Carpal tunnel syndrome​

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Chapter 9 Peripheral and Autonomic Nervous System Match the cranial nerve number with its name.​ a. ​I b. ​II c. ​III d. ​IV e. ​V f. V​ I g. V​ II h. ​VIII i. ​IX j. X k. X​ I l. X​ II 34. ​oculomotor ANSWER: c 35. ​abducens ANSWER: f 36. ​vestibulocochlear ANSWER: h 37. ​optic ANSWER: b 38. ​trochlear ANSWER: d 39. ​glossopharyngeal ANSWER: i 40. ​olfactory ANSWER: a 41. ​hypoglossal ANSWER: l 42. ​vagus ANSWER: j 43. ​trigeminal ANSWER: e 44. ​spinal accessory ANSWER: k 45. ​facial ANSWER: g

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Chapter 10 Special Senses 1. The cochlear duct in the inner ear helps to maintain body balance or equilibrium.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Loud noise heard for too long will damage your hearing by overstimulating the delicate hair cells of the organ of Corti.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. The change in the number of olfactory neurons as we age increases the detection of warning smells such as gas leaks.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Older persons may use more seasoning on their food because of full upper dentures.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Another name for a bone of the middle ear is the hammer, or malleus.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. An inflammation of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid is known as a hordeolum.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Peripheral vision decline may lead to falls and mobility problems as one ages.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. A condition in which the lens of the eye loses its elasticity is known as hyperopia.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 Special Senses 9. Receptors on the taste buds send their stimuli through three cranial nerves to the cerebral cortex for interpretation.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Hearing aids are viewed as being miraculous by those who wear them, as they restore normal hearing.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. The taste buds can sense sweet, sour, bitter, and _____.​ a. ​salty b. ​hot c. ​spicy d. ​moldy ANSWER: a 12. A condition in which there is a bend in the cartilage structure of the nasal septum is called:​ a. ​nasal polyps. b. ​rhinitis. c. ​deviated septum. d. ​snoring.

ANSWER: c 13. An infection of the middle ear is called _____.​ a. ​otitis media b. ​otosclerosis c. ​tinnitus d. ​presbycusis ANSWER: a 14. The _____ collects sound waves and directs them to the auditory canal.​ a. ​eustachian tube b. ​malleus c. ​incus d. ​auricle ANSWER: d 15. A condition in which the focal point is beyond the retina because the eyeball is shorter is called _____.​ a. ​presbyopia b. ​myopia c. ​hyperopia d. ​diplopia ANSWER: c 16. The outer layer of the eye is the ​ a. ​sclera. b. ​retina. c. ​cornea. d. ​choroid.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 10 Special Senses 17. Tears are secreted by​ a. ​conjunctiva. b. ​lacrimal glands. c. ​sclera. d. ​choroid.

ANSWER: b 18. What separates the outer and middle ear?​ a. ​Auricle b. ​Tympanic membrane c. ​Organ of Corti ANSWER: b 19. Loud noise heard for too long will damage your hearing. For example, hearing a continuous noise at 90 decibels may damage hearing within how many hours?​ a. 2​ b. 4​ c. 8​ d. 1​ 0 ANSWER: c 20. What type of hearing loss results when the ear is blocked by ear wax?​ a. ​Conductive hearing loss b. ​Sensorineural damage c. ​Mixed hearing loss ANSWER: a 21. The wall of the eye is made up of three layers: ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.​ ANSWER: sclera, choroid, retina​ 22. The innermost, or third coat, of the eye is called the ____________________.​ ANSWER: retina​ 23. ​A ____________________ is a condition where the lens of the eye gradually becomes cloudy.

ANSWER: cataract​ 24. Name the three parts of the ear: ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.​ ANSWER: outer, inner, middle​ 25. The ______________________________ contain a liquid and delicate hairlike cells that bend when the liquid is set in motion by movement of the head or body.​ ANSWER: semicircular canals​

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Chapter 10 Special Senses 26. A sensation of ringing, or buzzing perceived in the ear in the absence of a stimulus is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: tinnitus​ 27. Smell accounts for about _________________________ of what we think we taste.​ ANSWER: 90% 90 percent ninety %

ninety percent 28. Growths in the nasal cavity associated with rhinitis are called _________________________.​ ANSWER: nasal polyps​ 29. The ____________________ is a mass of muscle tissue with structures called papillae.​ ANSWER: tongue​ 30. Located on the papillae are the _________________________.​ ANSWER: taste buds​ 31. Fill in the missing structures to complete the pathway of vision: Images in light > cornea > ____________________ > lens > light rays are bent or refracted > ____________________ > rods and cones pick up stimulus > optic nerve > optic chiasma > optic tracts > occipital lobe.

ANSWER: pupil, retina​ 32. Complete the missing structures to complete the pathway of hearing: Sound waves > ____________________, or outer ear> auditory canal > ______________________________ > ear ossicles > cochlea > cochlear nerve > temporal lobe.

ANSWER: pinna, tympanic membrane​ 33. Fill in the missing structures to complete the pathway of equilibrium: Movement of the head > stimulates equilibrium receptors in the ______________________________ areas of the inner ear > ______________________________ > cerebellum.​ ANSWER: semicircular canals and vestibule, vestibular nerve​ 34. The stirrup bone of the middle ear is also called the ____________________.​ ANSWER: stapes​ 35. Dispensing ____________________ fit eyeglasses and contact lenses.​ ANSWER: opticians​ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 Special Senses Match the condition with its descriptor.​ a. ​strabismus b. ​astigmatism c. ​rhinitis d. ​tinnitus e. ​hairiness of the tongue f. ​glaucoma g. ​sty h. ​amblyopia i. ​Ménière’s disease j. myopia 36. ​irregular curvature of the cornea or lens ANSWER: b 37. ​nearsightedness ANSWER: j 38. ​cross-eyes ANSWER: a 39. ​affects the semicircular canals of the inner ear, causing vertigo ANSWER: i 40. ​inflammation of the lining of the nose ANSWER: c 41. ​excessive intraocular pressure ANSWER: f 42. ​reduction, or dimness, of vision ANSWER: h 43. ​may result from taking salicylates ANSWER: d 44. ​tiny abscess at the base of an eyelash ANSWER: g 45. ​may occur after taking antibiotics ANSWER: e

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Chapter 11 Endocrine System 1. The pancreas can perform both as an endocrine gland and an exocrine gland.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. The secretion of hormones operates on a negative feedback system.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Vasopressin is released during childbirth, causing strong contractions of the uterus.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Adrenalin is a powerful cardiac stimulant.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Persons with Type 2 diabetes must take insulin and monitor blood glucose levels daily.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Our bodies need to coordinate and integrate all of their functions into one harmonious whole to maintain homeostasis.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. The adrenal glands are known as the master glands.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Norepinephrine is also called adrenalin.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False

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Chapter 11 Endocrine System 9. Epinephrine causes bronchial relaxation.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. The alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas secrete the hormone insulin.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. The aging process causes a general decrease in all of the hormone secretions.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. The most common symptom of someone with diabetes insipidus is polydipsia.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. There is no effective treatment for SAD (seasonal affective disorder).​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Exophthalmos is a condition sometimes seen in patients with a parathyroid problem.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. Excessive thirst is called _____.​ a. ​polyuria b. ​polydipsia c. ​polyphagia d. ​polygastria ANSWER: b 16. Hyperfunction of the pituitary gland in preadolescence results in _____.​ a. ​gigantism b. ​dwarfism c. ​Cushing’s syndrome d. ​diabetes mellitus ANSWER: a

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Chapter 11 Endocrine System 17. The hormone secreted by the pineal gland is _____.​ a. ​prostaglandins b. ​melatonin c. ​calcitonin d. ​oxytocin ANSWER: b 18. The anterior pituitary gland secretes _____.​ a. ​growth hormone b. ​vasopressin c. ​oxytocin d. ​calcitonin ANSWER: a 19. The gland located at the base of the brain is the _____ gland.​ a. ​pituitary b. ​thyroid c. ​thymus d. ​adrenal ANSWER: a 20. When the secretions from the gland must go through a duct, it is a(n) _____ gland.​ a. ​endocrine b. ​exocrine c. ​islets of Langerhans ANSWER: b 21. Which of the following hormones controls the rate of metabolism, heat production, and oxidation of cells?​ a. ​Thyroxine b. ​Testosterone c. ​Thymosin d. ​ACTH ANSWER: a 22. A patient is discovered to have a high calcium blood level. Which gland is most likely causing the problem?​ a. ​Pituitary b. ​Parathyroid c. ​Adrenal d. ​Thymus ANSWER: b 23. Which of the following glands is both a endocrine gland and lymphatic organ?​ a. ​Thymus b. ​Thyroid c. ​Pineal d. ​Pancreas ANSWER: a 24. Cortisone and cortisol are examples of _____.​ a. ​mineralocorticoids b. ​glucocorticoids c. ​androgens ANSWER: b

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Chapter 11 Endocrine System 25. A(n) ____________________ is any organ that produces a secretion.​ ANSWER: gland​ 26. The two glands located in the neck close to the Adam’s apple are the ____________________ and ____________________ glands.​ ANSWER: thyroid, parathyroid parathyroid, thyroid 27. The hormone that lowers the calcium ion concentration in the blood is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: calcitonin​ 28. The ____________________ glands are located on the top of the kidneys.​ ANSWER: adrenal​ 29. The sex glands include the ____________________ in the female and the ____________________ in the male.​ ANSWER: ovaries, testes​ 30. Hypersecretion of the growth hormone in the adult results in ____________________.​ ANSWER: acromegaly​ 31. The characteristics of a swollen face, weight increase, and failure in initiative and memory can result from ____________________.​ ANSWER: myxedema​ 32. ______________________________ results from hypersecretion of the glucocorticoid hormones from the adrenal cortex.​ ANSWER: Cushing’s syndrome​ 33. ____________________ is the result of excessively low blood sugar, and it can result in insulin shock.​ ANSWER: ​Hypoglycemia 34. The secretion of hormones operates on a negative feedback system or under the control of the _________________________.​ ANSWER: nervous system​

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Chapter 11 Endocrine System Match the gland with its hormone.​ a. ​pituitary - anterior lobe b. ​pituitary - posterior lobe c. ​thyroid d. ​parathyroid e. ​adrenal medulla f. ​adrenal cortex g. ​pancreas h. ​thymus i. ​ovaries j. testes 35. ​testosterone ANSWER: j 36. ​estrogen ANSWER: i 37. ​thyroxine ANSWER: c 38. ​adrenaline ANSWER: e 39. ​thymosin ANSWER: h 40. ​parathormone ANSWER: d 41. ​antidiuretic hormone ANSWER: b 42. ​androgens ANSWER: f 43. ​follicle-stimulating hormone ANSWER: a 44. ​glucagon ANSWER: g

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Chapter 12 Blood 1. Water makes up about 75 percent of the total volume of plasma.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. A rupture, or bursting, of the red blood cell is called hemolysis.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Monocytosis is a process that surrounds, engulfs, and digests harmful bacteria.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. The characteristic symptoms of inflammation are redness, local heat, swelling, and pain.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a blood vessel.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Septicemia is the presence of pathogenic organisms or toxins in the blood.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Everyone has an Rh factor, which is found on the surface of red blood cells.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Another term for blood clotting is coagulation.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True

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Chapter 12 Blood 9. Pyrexia is a fever.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Basophils are activated during an allergic reaction or inflammation.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. A hereditary disease in which blood clots slowly or abnormally is called _____.​ a. ​polycythemia b. ​embolism c. ​hematoma d. ​hemophilia ANSWER: d 12. A deficiency in the number and/or percentage of red blood cells and the amount of hemoglobin in the blood is called _____.​ a. ​anemia b. ​aplastic anemia c. ​pernicious anemia d. ​sickle cell anemia ANSWER: a 13. _____ are formed in the bone marrow and the spleen.​ a. ​Neutrophils b. ​Eosinophils c. ​Monocytes d. ​Granulocytes ANSWER: c 14. _____ is vital to the function of the red blood cell, helping it transport oxygen to the tissues and some carbon dioxide away from tissues.​ a. ​Hemoglobin b. ​Albumin c. ​Fibrinogen d. ​Globulin ANSWER: a 15. _____ is the most abundant of the plasma proteins.​ a. ​Fibrinogen b. ​Albumin c. ​Globulin d. ​Prothrombin ANSWER: b

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Chapter 12 Blood 16. What is a blood disease in which there is a decrease in the number of platelets?​ a. ​Hemophilia b. ​Thrombocytopenia c. ​Leukemia ANSWER: b 17. Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur in someone who is immobile?​ a. ​Embolism b. ​Thrombosis c. ​Hematoma ANSWER: b 18. When the donor is the patient himself, it is what type of bone marrow transplant?​ a. ​Autologous b. ​Allogenic c. ​Engraftment ANSWER: a 19. A person who has type A- (A negative) blood can receive a transfusion from which of the following?​ a. ​Type O+ b. ​Type Oc. ​ABd. ​None of the answers are correct.

ANSWER: b 20. An example of a cellular response to tissue injury is _____.​ a. ​vasodilation b. ​swelling c. ​neutrophil diapedesis d. ​vascular permeability ANSWER: c 21. The formation of all blood cell types in the red bone marrow is called ___________.​ a. ​erythropoiesis b. ​hematopoiesis c. ​hemostasis ANSWER: b 22. The average adult has ____________________ pints of blood in the body.​ ANSWER: 8-10 8 to 10 eight to ten

23. ____________________ is a plasma protein that is necessary for blood clotting.​ ANSWER: Fibrinogen​ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 Blood 24. Red blood cells, or ____________________, are biconcave, disc-shaped cells.​ ANSWER: erythrocytes​ 25. The manufacture of red blood cells is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: erythropoiesis​ 26. White blood cells are called ____________________.​ ANSWER: leukocytes​ 27. The clotting time for humans is ______________________________.​ ANSWER: 5-15 minutes 5 to 15 minutes five to fifteen minutes

28. Name the four types of blood: ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.​ ANSWER: A, B, AB, O​ 29. A person with type O negative blood is considered a(n) _________________________.​ ANSWER: universal donor​ 30. ​A person with type AB positive blood is considered a(n) ______________________________.

ANSWER: universal recipient​ 31. A disease in which the red blood cells are crescent shaped is called ___________________________________.​ ANSWER: sickle cell anemia​

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Chapter 12 Blood Match the medical term to its definition.​ a. ​an b. ​edema c. ​emia d. ​poiesis e. ​leuko f. ​thrombo g. ​gen h. ​patho i. ​mono j. poly 32. ​many ANSWER: j 33. ​producing ANSWER: g 34. ​white blood ANSWER: e 35. ​one ANSWER: i 36. ​blood ANSWER: c 37. ​clot ANSWER: f 38. ​disease ANSWER: h 39. ​formation of ANSWER: d 40. ​collection of blood plasma in tissues ANSWER: b 41. ​without ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13 Heart 1. After 4 to 5 minutes without blood flow, the brain cells are irreversibly damaged.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. The adult human heart weighs less than one pound.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. The structure of the heart allows it to function as a double pump.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Murmurs indicate some defects in the valves of the heart.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. A pacemaker is a surgically implanted electronic device that regulates the patient’s heartbeat.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. The heart sounds heard through a stethoscope are caused by the impact of the blood churning in the chambers.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. The Purkinje fibers are located in the atria.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. An arrhythmia is any change or deviation from the normal rate or rhythm of the heart.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True

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Chapter 13 Heart 9. Statins are drugs that may be used to lower cholesterol levels.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Low blood pressure (hypotension) is a risk factor for heart disease.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. Thirty minutes of physical exercise is recommended for most days of the week as a way to improve health and decrease risk factors for heart disease.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. Invasive procedures are those that do not penetrate the skin or a body cavity.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. A person’s total cholesterol level should be below _____ mg/dl.​ a. ​200 b. 3​ 00 c. 1​ 50 d. 2​ 50 ANSWER: c 14. Severe chest pain that occurs when the heart does not receive enough oxygen is called _____.​ a. ​pericarditis b. ​myocardial infarction c. ​atherosclerosis d. ​angina pectoris ANSWER: d 15. A rapid heartbeat of more than 100 beats per minute is most accurately called _____.​ a. ​arrhythmia b. ​bradycardia c. ​tachycardia d. ​fibrillation ANSWER: c 16. The _____ sends out an electrical impulse that begins and regulates the heartbeat.​ a. ​AV node b. ​SA node c. ​Purkinje fibers d. ​AV bundle ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 Heart 17. Cardiac muscle tissue, or _____, makes up the major portion of the heart.​ a. ​myocardium b. ​pericardium c. ​endocardium d. ​septum ANSWER: a 18. Which of the following best describes the location of the apex of the heart?​ a. ​It is located over the atria. b. ​It lies on the diaphragm and points to the left of the body. c. ​It is located in the area where the aorta leaves the heart.

ANSWER: b 19. All, health care workers must have current certification in which of the following?​ a. ​CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation) b. ​ALS (advanced life support) c. ​PALS (pediatric advanced life support) d. ​EKG (electrocardiogram) interpretation ANSWER: a 20. The blood vessels that bring deoxygenated blood back to the heart are called the _____.​ a. ​aorta b. ​pulmonary arteries c. ​pulmonary veins d. ​vena cava ANSWER: d 21. The bicuspid, or mitral, valve is located _____.​ a. ​between the left atrium and the left ventricle b. ​between the right atrium and right ventricle c. ​at the orifice of the pulmonary artery d. ​at the orifice of the aorta ANSWER: a 22. Which of the following would contain deoxygenated blood?​ a. ​Left ventricle b. ​Aorta c. ​Pulmonary artery d. ​Pulmonary vein ANSWER: c 23. If someone’s heart beats at 70 beats per minute and with each contraction of the ventricle 70 mL of blood is ejected from the ventricles, what is the person’s stroke volume?​ a. 1​ 400 b. 4​ 900 c. 7​ 0 ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 Heart 24. The QRS wave of the ECG reading represents the _____.​ a. ​depolarization of the atria b. ​depolarization of the ventricles c. ​repolarization of the atria d. ​repolarization of the ventricles ANSWER: b 25. Which of the following lab results would be least likely to contribute to the development of heart disease?​ a. ​Total cholesterol 250 mg/dL b. ​LDL 150 mg/dL c. ​HDL 60 mg/dL d. ​Triglycerides 190 mg/dL ANSWER: c 26. Blood leaves the heart through ____________________ and returns by ____________________.​ ANSWER: arteries, veins​ 27. The heart is located in the ____________________ cavity.​ ANSWER: thoracic​ 28. The double layer of fibrous tissue surrounding the heart is the ____________________.​ ANSWER: pericardium​ 29. Name the four valves of the heart: ____________________, ____________________, _________________________, and _________________________.​ ANSWER: tricuspid, bicuspid, pulmonary semilunar, aortic semilunar​ 30. _________________________ is the total volume of blood ejected from the heart per minute.​ ANSWER: Cardiac output​ 31. The term used to describe a slow heart rate (fewer than 60 beats per minute) is____________________.​ ANSWER: bradycardia​ 32. An inflammation of the heart muscle is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: myocarditis​ 33. The blood contains ____________________ and other fat substances called ____________________.​ ANSWER: cholesterol, triglycerides​ 34. ____________________ is a procedure to help open clogged vessels.​ ANSWER: Angioplasty​

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Chapter 13 Heart 35. A device that shocks the heart to return it to a normal rhythm is called a(n) ____________________.​ ANSWER: defibrillator​ Match the term with the best descriptor.​ a. ​Holter monitor b. ​murmurs c. ​diuretics d. ​cardiac catheterization e. ​tissue plasminogen activator f. ​CAD g. ​lipid panel h. ​cardiac stents i. ​pacemaker j. third-degree block 36. ​narrowing of the arteries that supply oxygen to the heart muscle ANSWER: f 37. ​small, portable battery-operated EKG machine ANSWER: a 38. ​used to dissolve blood clots ANSWER: e 39. ​measures cholesterol, LDL, HDL, and triglycerides ANSWER: g 40. ​drugs given to reduce the amount of fluid in the body ANSWER: c 41. ​a catheter is inserted and fed into the chamber of the heart, where dye is inserted and pictures are taken ANSWER: d 42. ​indicates some defect of the heart valve ANSWER: b 43. ​also called complete heart block ANSWER: j 44. ​tiny webbed, stainless steel devices ANSWER: h 45. ​surgically implanted battery-operated electronic device to regulate the rhythm of the heart ANSWER: i

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Chapter 14 Circulation and Blood Vessels 1. Instead of using its own lungs, the fetus obtains oxygen and nutrients from the mother’s blood.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the heart.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Capillaries are the largest of the blood vessels.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Congenital heart defects occur when there is a malformation of the heart during fetal development.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. A stroke is the sudden interruption of the blood supply to the brain.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. The portal circulation is a branch of the general circulation.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. In the fetal circulation, blood returns to the placenta via the umbilical veins.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Cerebral hemorrhage refers to bleeding from the blood vessels within the brain.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True

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Chapter 14 Circulation and Blood Vessels 9. Peripheral vascular disease is caused by blockage of the coronary arteries.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Hypertension is frequently called the “silent killer.”​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. _____ is the death of body tissue as a result of an insufficient blood supply caused by disease or injury.​ a. ​Arteriosclerosis b. ​Hemorrhoids c. ​Varicose veins d. ​Gangrene ANSWER: d 12. A traveling blood clot is called _____.​ a. ​hemorrhage b. ​embolism c. ​phlebitis d. ​claudication ANSWER: b 13. The pulse point behind the knee is from the _____ artery.​ a. ​temporal b. ​radial c. ​dorsalis pedis d. ​popliteal ANSWER: d 14. The artery that runs along the upper arm and elbow area where a pulse point can be found is called _____.​ a. ​carotid b. ​brachial c. ​axillary d. ​subclavian ANSWER: b 15. The opening of the atrial septum in the fetal circulation is the _____.​ a. ​foramen ovale b. ​ductus arteriosus c. ​ductus venosus d. ​tunica media ANSWER: a 16. Deoxygenated venous blood leaves the liver through the _____, which carries it to the inferior vena cava.​ a. ​hepatic vein b. ​hepatic portal vein c. ​mesenteric veins ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14 Circulation and Blood Vessels 17. Someone with a blood pressure of 130/90, has a pulse pressure of _____.​ a. ​20 mm Hg b. ​40 mm Hg c. ​130 mm Hg d. ​220 mm Hg ANSWER: b 18. The most common symptom of congenital heart defect is _____.​ a. ​hypertension b. ​hypotension c. ​cyanosis d. ​fatigue ANSWER: c 19. Which of the following blood pressure readings would be considered prehypertension?​ a. ​Less than 120/80 b. ​120-130/80-89 c. ​140-159/90-99 d. ​160 and above/100 and above ANSWER: b 20. Hypotension is usually a systolic reading under ________ mm Hg.​ a. 8​ 0 b. 9​ 0 c. 1​ 00 d. 1​ 10 ANSWER: b 21. The ______________________________ takes deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs where carbon dioxide is exchanged for oxygen.​ ANSWER: cardiopulmonary circulation​ 22. The ____________________ is the largest artery in the body.​ ANSWER: aorta​ 23. The ______________________________ brings oxygenated blood to the heart muscle.

ANSWER: coronary circulation​ 24. The pressure measured at the moment of the heart’s contraction is the ___________________________________, while the lessened force of blood as the ventricles relax is called the ___________________________________.​ ANSWER: systolic blood pressure, diastolic blood pressure​ 25. A(n) ____________________ is the alternating expansion and contraction of an artery as blood flows through it.​ ANSWER: pulse​ 26. The ballooning out of an artery and thinning of the artery wall is called a(n) ____________________.​ ANSWER: aneurysm​ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 Circulation and Blood Vessels 27. Another term used to describe high blood pressure is ____________________.​ ANSWER: hypertension​ 28. Another term used to describe low blood pressure is ____________________.

ANSWER: hypotension​ 29. A temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain is a(n) ______________________________.​ ANSWER: transient ischemic attack TIA

30. A loss of speech and memory is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: aphasia​

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Chapter 14 Circulation and Blood Vessels Match the term with the best descriptor/definition.​ a. ​hemiplegia b. ​arteriole c. ​dysphasia d. ​hypoperfusion e. ​cyanosis f. ​phlebitis g. ​vascular h. ​atherosclerosis i. ​arteriosclerosis j. tunica adventitia 31. ​difficulty with speech or inability to say what one wants to say ANSWER: c 32. ​small branch of an artery ANSWER: b 33. ​inflammation of the lining of a vein ANSWER: f 34. ​arterial walls thicken because of a loss of elasticity as aging occurs ANSWER: i 35. ​paralysis on one side of the body ANSWER: a 36. ​blue appearance to the skin ANSWER: e 37. ​hardening of the arteries by fat ANSWER: h 38. ​inadequate flow of blood to the organs and body systems ANSWER: d 39. ​the outer layer of the arterial wall ANSWER: j 40. ​blood vessels ANSWER: g

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Chapter 15 The Lymphatic and Immune Systems 1. An important function of the spleen is to destroy and remove worn out red blood cells. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Lymph vessels are located in almost all the tissues and organs that have blood vessels.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. The function of the thymus is to produce lymph fluid.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Hodgkin’s disease is also known as the “kissing disease.”​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. An immunoglobulin is a protein that functions specifically as an antibody.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Health care professionals who carefully follow prescribed precautions are at very low risk of contracting HIV from patients.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Cancer cells can become trapped in lymph nodes, which may necessitate surgical removal of the involved lymph nodes.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True

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Chapter 15 The Lymphatic and Immune Systems 8. Hodgkin’s disease is usually fatal.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. If a person has been fully immunized as a child, there is no need for vaccines during adulthood.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Infants must be protected against all types of infection, because they are born without any type of immunity.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. It is not uncommon for a person who contracts HIV to live without serious symptoms for as long as 10 years.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. It is possible for a person who is experiencing no symptoms of AIDS to carry and transmit HIV to others.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. The substance that diffuses from the capillaries into the tissue spaces is called _____.​ a. ​lymph b. ​interstitial fluid c. ​synovial fluid d. ​blood ANSWER: b 14. The types of immunity a person is born with are called ________ and ________immunity.​ a. ​natural; passive acquired b. ​natural acquired; passive acquired c. ​passive acquired; artificial acquired ANSWER: a 15. Which of the following diseases suppresses the body’s immune system?​ a. ​HIV b. ​AIDS c. ​ARC d. ​ELISA ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 The Lymphatic and Immune Systems 16. By what means is lymph fluid pushed forward through the lymph vessels?​ a. ​A central pump dedicated to the lymphatic system b. ​A system of valves in the lymph vessels c. ​The contractions of skeletal muscles and movements of breathing d. ​The heart, which circulates both blood and lymph ANSWER: c 17. ​What action is initiated when lymph enters a lymph node through the afferent vessel? a. ​Surging of lymph to the next vessel b. ​Creation of blood cells c. ​Destruction of red blood cells d. ​Response of the immune system ANSWER: d 18. The general term for inflammation and swelling of a lymph node is _____.​ a. ​mononucleosis b. ​tonsillitis c. adenitis​ d. ​lupus ANSWER: c 19. Which of the following is the major reason why tonsils are not surgically removed as frequently today as in the past?​ a. ​This surgery is especially risky. b. ​Children usually recover quickly from tonsillitis. c. ​The symptoms of tonsillitis are generally mild. d. ​The tonsils perform an important role in the body’s defense against infection.

ANSWER: d 20. Which would be the spleen’s first action in response to a deep knife wound in the leg?​ a. ​Release red blood cells into circulation b. ​Aid in clotting to stop bleeding at the wound site c. ​Produce lymphocytes and monocytes ANSWER: a 21. Which condition is believed to cause increased susceptibility to infections and slower healing in older adults?​ a. ​Gradual shutting down of the immune system b. ​Slowing of the rate of reproduction of important infection-fighting cells c. ​Death of lymph nodes throughout the body ANSWER: b

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Chapter 15 The Lymphatic and Immune Systems 22. Which organ can be seriously affected by infectious mononucleosis?​ a. ​Kidney b. ​Spleen c. ​Heart d. ​Liver ANSWER: d 23. Unbroken skin and cellular secretions, such as mucus, are examples of _____ immunity.​ a. ​natural b. ​passive acquired c. ​natural acquired d. ​artificial acquired ANSWER: a 24. How does inoculation protect the body against infectious diseases?​ a. ​Booster substances are injected to increase the strength of the immune system. b. ​The antibody for a specific infection is injected to be available to defend the body. c. ​Small amounts of disease-causing substances are injected to stimulate the body to produce antibodies.

ANSWER: c 25. What is the meaning of autoimmunity?​ a. ​A mother passes her antibodies to her unborn child. b. ​An individual is naturally immune to many common diseases. c. ​Immunity has been acquired through vaccines. d. ​The immune system mistakenly targets normal body cells.

ANSWER: d 26. Which of the following actions have been shown to transmit HIV from one person to another?​ a. ​Shaking hands b. ​Engaging in sexual intercourse c. ​Sharing a towel d. ​Coughing deeply ANSWER: b 27. Which of the following best describes an opportunistic infection?​ a. ​It is most often contracted by a person with a depressed immune system. b. ​It is the result of failure to secure proper immunizations. c. ​It is the infection of a health care worker by a patient. d. ​It is caused by a virus for which there is no inoculation available.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 15 The Lymphatic and Immune Systems 28. A health care student is planning to get the hepatitis B series of injections. She has never had this vaccine before.

How many injections should she anticipate receiving?​ a. ​There is no series, only a booster is needed. b. ​Two c. ​Three d. ​Four ANSWER: c 29. The _________________________ can be considered a supplement to the circulatory system.​ ANSWER: lymphatic system​ 30. ____________________ and ___________________ act as an intermediaries between the blood in the capillaries and the body’s tissues.​ ANSWER: Lymph, interstitial fluid Interstitial fluid, lymph

31. _________________________ are tiny, oval-shaped structures ranging in size from a pinhead to an almond.​ ANSWER: Lymph nodes​ 32. There are three pairs of tonsils named ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.​ ANSWER: palatine, adenoids, lingual​ 33. The ____________________ stores large amounts of red blood cells that it will release during excessive bleeding or vigorous exercise.​ ANSWER: spleen​ 34. The body’s ability to resist infections from pathogens is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: immunity​ 35. A severe and sometimes fatal allergic reaction is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: anaphylaxis​ 36. ___________________________________ progressively destroys the body’s T4lymphocytes, the immune system’s key infection fighters.​ ANSWER: HIV Human immunodeficiency virus 37. Presence of the HIV virus is primarily detected by testing a person’s blood for ____________________________________ to the virus.​ ANSWER: antibodies​ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 The Lymphatic and Immune Systems 38. When a person is infected with a virus, but does not develop symptoms of that virus, the person is said to be ____________________.​ ANSWER: asymptomatic​ 39. Drugs are used to control the HIV virus by blocking ______________________________.​ ANSWER: viral replication​ 40. The Centers for Disease Control (CDC) recommends the use of ______________________________ when engaging in sex to reduce the chance of transmitting HIV.​ ANSWER: male latex condoms​

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Chapter 15 The Lymphatic and Immune Systems Match each condition/disease with its description.​ a. ​acquired immunodeficiency syndrome b. ​acquired immunodeficiency syndrome c. ​asthma d. ​Hodgkin’s disease e. ​hypersensitivity f. ​infectious mononucleosis g. lupus​ h. lymphadenitis i. ​scleroderma j. tonsillitis 41. ​autoimmune disease in which the skin and blood vessels thicken ANSWER: i 42. ​inflammation and swelling of the lymph nodes ANSWER: h 43. ​serious allergic reaction ANSWER: b 44. ​chronic, multi-system, inflammatory, autoimmune disease ANSWER: g 45. ​a type of cancer of the lymph nodes ANSWER: d 46. ​infection of the tonsils ANSWER: j 47. ​condition caused by IgE antibodies binding to the bronchi and bronchioles ANSWER: c 48. ​disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus ANSWER: f 49. ​failure of the immune system to protect itself against foreign material ANSWER: e 50. ​serious, usually fatal, disease caused by suppression of the immune system ANSWER: a

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Chapter 16 Infection Control and Standard Precautions 1. Most microorganisms have the ability to cause disease in humans.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Different people may experience different symptoms from the same viral infection.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Many fungi are sources of food and medicines that are beneficial to humans.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. The virus that causes measles can be transmitted through the air from one person to another.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Most infectious diseases are transmitted through direct contact, such as touching someone or kissing them.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Emotional stress can increase an individual’s chance of becoming a susceptible host for infection.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. If a health care worker is wearing gloves during a client procedure, it is not necessary to wash the hands immediately following the procedure.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Used needles should never be recapped.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 Infection Control and Standard Precautions 9. If transmission-based precautions are used, it is not necessary to use standard precautions. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. The practice of medical asepsis is used to reduce and prevent the spread of microorganisms.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. The main reason that the spores of disease-causing bacteria are dangerous is that they _____.​ a. ​are very difficult to destroy b. ​cause very serious infections c. ​cause infections that are difficult to diagnose d. ​destroy the cells they inhabit ANSWER: a 12. Which of the following microorganisms must live inside the cell of another organism in order to secure nourishment and reproduce?​ a. ​Bacteria b. ​Fungi c. ​Protozoa d. ​Viruses ANSWER: d 13. The best way to prevent tapeworms is to​ a. ​wash the hands after using the toilet. b. ​cook all meats adequately. c. ​avoid drinking contaminated water d. ​protect oneself against insect bites.

ANSWER: b 14. Which statement describes the chain of infection?​ a. ​A series of steps developed to control the transmission of infection b. ​The process the body uses to fight infection c. ​An interactive process by which infections are transmitted d. ​The transmission of disease by insects ANSWER: c

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Chapter 16 Infection Control and Standard Precautions 15. Which of the following is the definition of a fomite?​ a. ​Bacterial infection transmitted through contaminated water. b. ​Small worm that may be present in meat and which infects the intestinal tract. c. ​Person who experiences no symptoms, but can transmit an infection. d. ​Nonliving object that is contaminated with an infectious agent.

ANSWER: d 16. Which of the following is an example of an agent in the chain of infection?​ a. ​Handwashing b. ​A virus c. ​A contaminated pillowcase d. ​Proper nutrition ANSWER: b 17. In the chain of infection, which of the following would most likely serve as a portal of exit?​ a. ​Nose b. ​Fingernail c. ​Hair d. ​Ear ANSWER: a 18. Which of the following is an example of a host in the chain of infection?​ a. ​Insect bite b. ​Pathogen c. ​Human body d. ​Pesticide ANSWER: c 19. Which of the following processes can be used to eliminate all pathogens, except spores?​ a. ​Washing b. ​Sterilizing c. ​Cleansing d. ​Disinfecting ANSWER: d 20. Which of the following is an example of a nonspecific immune defense?​ a. ​Inoculation b. ​Skin c. ​Antibody d. ​Antigen ANSWER: b 21. What is the minimum amount of time that hands should be washed to prevent infection?​ a. ​5 seconds b. ​10 seconds c. ​15 seconds d. 20 seconds ANSWER: d

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Chapter 16 Infection Control and Standard Precautions 22. Certain bacteria have been designated as “superbugs” because they _____.​ a. ​are easy to transmit and, therefore, are favored by bioterrorists b. ​cause especially serious respiratory infections c. ​are resistant to even very powerful antibiotics d. ​are spread globally by travelers ANSWER: c 23. Research scientists working in the field of infectomics are studying _____.​ a. ​biological agents most likely to be used in bioterrorism b. ​new drugs to treat infections c. ​how diseases are spread between geographical locations d. ​the genes and functions of microorganisms ANSWER: d 24. Health care workers should use standard precautions when _____.​ a. ​caring for clients who have infectious diseases b. ​working with any client c. ​coming into contact with blood d. ​caring for clients who have transmittable diseases ANSWER: b 25. Which of the following infectious diseases is the most likely biological terrorism agent?​ a. ​Smallpox b. ​Measles c. ​Influenza d. ​SARS ANSWER: a 26. Which of the following procedures requires BOTH gloves and goggles or a face shield?​ a. ​Brushing a client’s teeth b. ​Serving food to a client c. ​Controlling a wound that is spurting blood d. ​Giving eye care ANSWER: c 27. Which practice would be used for the purpose of protecting a client who is receiving chemotherapy?​ a. ​Isolation b. ​Standard precautions c. ​Contact precautions d. ​Reverse isolation ANSWER: d 28. ____________________ refers to the ability of an organism to produce disease.​ ANSWER: Pathogenicity​ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 Infection Control and Standard Precautions 29. Infection from ____________________ is spread through the bites of fleas, tick, mites, and lice.​ ANSWER: rickettsia​ 30. The ______________________________ is an interactive process that involves the agent, host, and environment.​ ANSWER: chain of infection​ 31. In terms of the chain of infection, a person whose normal defense mechanisms are impaired is considered to be a(n) ______________________________.​ ANSWER: compromised host​ 32. The total elimination of all microorganisms, including spores, can be accomplished through ____________________.

ANSWER: sterilization​ 33. The time interval between entry of an infectious agent into the host and the onset of symptoms is the ____________________ stage.​ ANSWER: incubation​ 34. The time period during which an individual is manifesting specific signs and symptoms of an infectious process is the ____________________ stage.​ ANSWER: illness​ 35. An infection acquired in a hospital or health care facility that was not present or incubating at the time of the patient’s admission is called a ____________________ infection.​ ANSWER: nosocomial hospital-acquired

36. The single most effective way to prevent infections is through ____________________.​ ANSWER: handwashing​ 37. The guidelines to use during routine patient care and cleaning duties to prevent the spread of infection are called ______________________________.​ ANSWER: standard precautions​

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Chapter 16 Infection Control and Standard Precautions Match each infection with the causative microorganism.​ a. ​bacteria b. ​fungi c. ​protozoa d. ​rickettsia e. ​virus f. ​helminths 38. ​athlete’s foot ANSWER: b 39. ​common cold ANSWER: e 40. ​genital herpes ANSWER: e 41. ​gonorrhea ANSWER: a 42. ​hepatitis ANSWER: e 43. ​influenza ANSWER: e 44. ​Lyme disease ANSWER: d 45. ​malaria ANSWER: c 46. ​pinworms ANSWER: f 47. ​urinary tract infection ANSWER: a

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Chapter 17 Respiratory System 1. Sound is produced by air being expelled from the lungs and passed over the vocal cords.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. External respiration involves the use of oxygen to release energy stored in nutrient molecules such as glucose.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. The larynx gives resonance to the voice.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. There are about 500 million alveoli in an adult lung.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Chemical control of respiration is dependent on the level of carbon dioxide in the blood.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Most respiratory infections are caused by bacteria.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. If the level of carbon dioxide in the blood is too low, it can result in dizziness and fainting.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Respiratory illnesses account for 20 percent of all acute illness.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False

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Chapter 17 Respiratory System 9. Quiet breathing at a normal rate is called eupnea.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. The most difficult part of breathing for individuals with emphysema is inhaling sufficient amounts of air.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between air in the alveoli and blood in the pulmonary capillaries is called _____.​ a. ​external respiration b. ​internal respiration c. ​cellular respiration d. ​oxidation ANSWER: a 12. A deep, prolonged breath that fills the lungs, believed to be caused by the need to increase the level of oxygen in the blood, is called _____.​ a. ​coughing b. ​hiccups c. ​sneezing d. ​yawning ANSWER: d 13. The amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each breath is the _____.​ a. ​tidal volume b. ​expiratory reserve volume c. ​inspiratory reserve volume d. ​total lung capacity ANSWER: a 14. An abnormally rapid and shallow rate of breathing is called _____.​ a. ​apnea b. ​dyspnea c. ​tachypnea d. ​hyperpnea ANSWER: c 15. Inflammation of the throat caused by bacteria or viruses is _____.​ a. ​laryngitis b. ​pharyngitis c. ​sinusitis d. ​bronchitis ANSWER: b

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Chapter 17 Respiratory System 16. Which of the following is an example of diffusion?​ a. ​Inhalation of air into the lungs b. ​Build-up of carbon dioxide in the cells c. ​Warming and moistening of inhaled air before it passes to the alveoli d. ​Passage of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood ANSWER: d 17. Where does oxygen release the energy stored in nutrients to provide heat and energy for body functioning?​ a. ​Blood in the capillaries b. ​Alveoli in the lungs c. ​Cells throughout the body d. ​Lymph surrounding tissues ANSWER: c 18. Overinflation of the lungs during inhalation is prevented by the _____.​ a. ​stimulation of nerve endings in the walls of the lungs b. ​action of the diaphragm c. ​positive pressure in the pleural cavity d. ​level of oxygen in the alveoli ANSWER: a 19. Health care workers use a spirometer to measure the _____.​ a. ​level of carbon dioxide in the blood b. ​lungs’ capacity for air c. ​amount of pressure in the lungs d. ​level of pleural fluid ANSWER: b 20. The purpose of residual air in the lungs is to _____.​ a. ​prevent the lungs from collapsing b. ​prevent the temporary stoppage of breathing c. ​allow the continuous exchange of gases between breaths ANSWER: c 21. If a client has a condition called orthopnea, this means that she _____.​ a. ​experiences painful breathing b. ​breathes too slowly to inhale sufficient air c. ​breathes rapidly and shallowly d. ​has difficulty breathing when she is lying down ANSWER: d

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Chapter 17 Respiratory System 22. Which of the following infectious diseases is increasing in incidence after being on the decline for many years?​ a. ​Tuberculosis b. ​Diphtheria c. ​Pneumonia d. ​SARS ANSWER: a 23. Asthma is a respiratory disease in which _____.​ a. ​the mucous membrane of the trachea becomes inflamed b. ​an inflammatory response obstructs the airways c. ​the lungs become infected and filled with pus d. ​swallowing is difficult and painful ANSWER: b 24. Clients who have undergone surgery or have been on prolonged bed rest are at increased risk for _____.​ a. ​COPD b. ​bronchitis c. ​pulmonary embolism d. ​atelectasis ANSWER: c 25. The most serious potential consequence of sleep apnea is _____.​ a. ​risk of suffocation b. ​tiredness during the day c. ​permanent decrease in lung capacity d. ​strain on the cardiovascular system ANSWER: d 26. ____________________ facilitates the release of energy stored in nutrient molecules.​ ANSWER: Oxygen​ 27. ____________________ is the physical and chemical process by which the body supplies its cells and tissues with oxygen.​ ANSWER: Respiration​ 28. The ____________________ is a flap of cartilage that prevents food and liquids from entering the trachea during swallowing.​ ANSWER: epiglottis​ 29. ____________________ is an inflammation of the membranes that cover the lungs.​ ANSWER: Pleurisy​

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Chapter 17 Respiratory System 30. During ____________________, the external intercostal muscles lift the ribs upward and outward; during ____________________, the ribs are pushed downward and inward.​ ANSWER: inhalation, exhalation inhalation, expiration inspiration, exhalation inspiration, expiration

31. The respiratory infection that affects the most people each year is the _________________________.​ ANSWER: common cold 32. The respiratory center is located in the ______________________________ in the brain.​ ANSWER: medulla oblongata​ 33. Children receive a vaccine to protect them against _________________________, a disease characterized by severe coughing attacks.​ ANSWER: pertussis whooping cough

34. ​ ANSWER: back​ 35. Chronic bronchitis and emphysema are referred to collectively as _________________________________________.​ ANSWER: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease COPD

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Chapter 17 Respiratory System Match each anatomical part with its function.​ a. ​external nares b. ​nasal conchae c. ​cilia d. ​mucous membrane e. ​pharynx f. ​alveoli g. ​pleural fluid h. ​bronchi i. ​larynx j. diaphragm 36. ​increase(s) turbulence of air in the nasal cavity ANSWER: b 37. ​serve(s) as passageway for air and food ANSWER: e 38. ​provide(s) passage for air from trachea to lungs ANSWER: h 39. ​enable(s) entry of air into the nose from the outside environment ANSWER: a 40. ​warm(s) and moisten(s) air entering from the outside environment ANSWER: d 41. ​serve(s) as point of exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide with capillaries ANSWER: f 42. ​contract(s) and relax(es) to change the pressure in chest cavity ANSWER: j 43. ​entrap(s) particles from inhaled air ANSWER: c 44. ​prevent(s) friction between membranes covering the lungs ANSWER: g 45. ​contain(s) the vocal cords ANSWER: i

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Chapter 18 Digestive System 1. The sensation of taste is coupled with the sense of touch.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Adults normally develop 32 teeth.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Absorption in the small intestine is possible because its lining is smooth.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. The average person produces between 1 and 3 pints of gas per day.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Each part of the alimentary canal contributes to the overall digestive process.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. The purpose of the uvula is to help prevent food from entering the windpipe when swallowing.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Gum infections can lead to serious conditions, such as heart disease.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. The vermiform appendix has no known function in the digestive process.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True

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Chapter 18 Digestive System 9. An important function of the colon is to help regulate the body’s water balance.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Having bacteria in the large intestine is an unnatural condition that can lead to infection.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. Diarrhea can be a life-threatening condition for the very young and the aged.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. Alcohol is only absorbed in the small intestine.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. The structure that regulates the passage of food from the stomach into the duodenum is called the _____ sphincter.​ a. ​cardiac b. ​pyloric c. ​anal d. ​duodenal ANSWER: b 14. The digestive juice in the small intestine that breaks down protein into amino acids is _____.​ a. ​protease b. ​amylase c. ​lipase d. ​bile ANSWER: a 15. The _____ is the largest organ in the body.​ a. ​pancreas b. ​liver c. ​stomach d. ​gallbladder ANSWER: b 16. Inflammation of the intestine caused by bacterial or viral infection is called _____.​ a. ​enteritis b. ​gastritis c. ​appendicitis d. ​diverticulosis ANSWER: a

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Chapter 18 Digestive System 17. A chronic, progressive inflammatory disease that permanently damages the liver is _____.​ a. ​hepatitis b. ​cirrhosis c. ​ulcer d. ​colitis ANSWER: b 18. The adult alimentary canal, from the mouth to the anus, is about how many feet long?​ a. 1​ 0 b. 2​ 0 c. 3​ 0 d. 4​ 0 ANSWER: c 19. The nerves and blood supply of the teeth are contained in the _____.​ a. ​periodontal membrane b. ​gingiva c. ​dentin d. ​pulp cavity ANSWER: d 20. What is the purpose of bile in the digestive process?​ a. ​Encourages peristalsis b. ​Stores vitamins c. ​Converts starches into glucose d. ​Emulsifies fats ANSWER: d 21. The digestive action of the stomach begins when it is stimulated by the _____.​ a. ​gallbladder b. ​esophagus c. ​nervous system d. ​liver ANSWER: c 22. Which of the following actions begins as voluntary process and then becomes an involuntary process?​ a. ​Swallowing b. ​Peristalsis c. ​Defecating d. ​Salivating ANSWER: a 23. How do cellulose-containing foods, such as fruits and vegetables, help the process of digestion?​ a. ​Encourage formation of acids in the stomach b. ​Provide essential enzymes c. ​Contribute to the bulk of feces d. ​Promote peristalsis ANSWER: c

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Chapter 18 Digestive System 24. Which process is regulated by secretions of the thyroid gland?​ a. ​Digestion b. ​Metabolism c. ​Defecation d. ​Absorption ANSWER: b 25. Periodontal disease is a bacterial infection of the _____.​ a. ​gums b. ​liver c. ​peritoneum d. ​pancreas ANSWER: a 26. Most ulcers that were previously believed to be caused by emotional stress and spicy foods may actually be caused by _____.​ a. ​poor nutrition b. ​bacteria c. ​a weakened immune system d. ​viruses ANSWER: a 27. Habitually delaying defecation when the need is present can lead to _____.​ a. ​diarrhea b. ​hemorrhoids c. ​constipation d. ​diverticulosis ANSWER: c 28. The ____________________ is an accessory organ of digestion consisting of skeletal muscles that lie in many different planes.​ ANSWER: tongue​ 29. ____________________ teeth start to erupt at about 6 months of age and continue emerging until about 2 years.​ ANSWER: Deciduous Milk

30. Name the three major parts of the tooth: ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.​ ANSWER: crown, neck, root crown, root, neck root, crown, neck root, neck, crown neck, root, crown neck, crown, root

31. The final preparation of food so that it can be absorbed by the body occurs in the _________________________.​ ANSWER: small intestine​ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 Digestive System 32. Chemical digestion of ____________________ is initiated by the secretion of saliva.​ ANSWER: carbohydrates starch

starches 33. Proteins are broken down into amino acids in the _________________________.​ ANSWER: small intestine​ 34. A(n) ____________________ is a sore, or lesion, that forms in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum.​ ANSWER: ulcer​ 35. Bile is produced in the ____________________.​ ANSWER: liver​ 36. Excessive ____________________ may lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.

ANSWER: diarrhea​ 37. ​Hidden blood in stool is called ____________________ blood.

ANSWER: occult​

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Chapter 18 Digestive System Match each condition with its major signs and/or symptoms.​ a. ​gastroesophageal reflux disease b. ​hiatal hernia c. ​gastric ulcer d. ​inflammatory bowel disease e. ​hepatitis f. ​diverticulitis g. ​cholecystitis h. ​pyloric stenosis i. ​cirrhosis j. heartburn 38. ​backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus ANSWER: j 39. ​chronic diarrhea is a major symptom ANSWER: d 40. ​sore in the lining of the stomach ANSWER: c 41. ​inflamed colon wall ANSWER: f 42. ​replacement of normal liver tissue with connective tissue ANSWER: i 43. ​weak cardiac sphincter allows stomach contents move up into the esophagus ANSWER: a 44. ​inflamed liver ANSWER: e 45. ​inflamed gallbladder ANSWER: g 46. ​protrusion of the stomach above the diaphragm ANSWER: b 47. ​narrowing of the passageway from the stomach to the small intestine ANSWER: h

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Chapter 19 Nutrition 1. A normal adult usually requires between 1,600 and 3,000 calories a day, depending on age, sex, body weight, and degree of physical activity.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. The human body stores reserves of energy as fat in fat cells.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Carbohydrates are structurally more complex than fats and proteins.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Essential amino acids are produced by the body as needed.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. It is essential to eat some form of meat, fish, or poultry each day to receive the proper amounts of protein.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. The recommended and toxic levels of many trace elements are very close in quantity.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Based on dietary guidelines released in 2010 and the new MY PLATE icon, it is suggested that a healthy plate be comprised of one-third fruit and vegetables.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Nuts and seeds are good sources of protein.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 Nutrition 9. Farmers who falsely label foods as organic may be required to pay expensive fines.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. If untreated, anorexia nervosa can result in irreversible damage to the body.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Disaccharides are a type of _____.​ a. ​protein b. ​carbohydrate c. ​vitamin d. ​fat ANSWER: b 12. Water makes up about _____ percent of our total body weight.​ a. ​25 to 35 b. ​35 to 45 c. ​45 to 55 d. ​55 to 65 ANSWER: d 13. The type of lipoprotein that picks up deposited fats and transports them to the liver is _____.​ a. ​LDL b. ​VLDL c. ​HDL d. ​a chylomicron ANSWER: c 14. Milk, cheese, and dark green vegetables are good sources of which mineral?​ a. ​Calcium b. ​Iron c. ​Potassium d. ​Sodium ANSWER: a 15. How many cups of fruit are recommended per day for an individual whose normal total caloric intake is about 2,000 calories?​ a. ​1/2 cup b. ​1 cup c. ​2 cups d. 3 cups ANSWER: c 16. Fats should provide no more than what percentage of a person’s daily caloric intake?​ a. ​10 percent b. 2​ 0 percent c. 3​ 0 percent d. 4​ 0 percent ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 Nutrition 17. Which of the following fats would be the BEST choice for individuals who have high cholesterol levels?​ a. ​Monounsaturated b. ​Polyunsaturated c. ​Saturated d. ​Trans ANSWER: a 18. Which of the following foods tends to help lower cholesterol levels?​ a. ​Eggs b. ​Liver c. ​Beef d. ​Oat bran ANSWER: d 19. Two minerals that are especially important for health in females, but are often consumed in less than optimal amounts, are _____.​ a. ​calcium and potassium b. ​calcium and iron c. ​potassium and sodium d. ​sodium and calcium ANSWER: b 20. Why is it recommended that individuals obtain dietary fiber from foods rather than from supplements?​ a. ​The supplements contain too many extra calories. b. ​Fiber in foods is more readily available to the body. c. ​To save the calories contained in the food. d. ​The foods may contain health benefits in addition to the fiber.

ANSWER: d 21. What is the basal metabolic rate for a 28-year-old woman who is 65 inches tall and weighs 135 pounds?​ a. ​1,822 calories b. ​1,681 calories c. ​1,533 calories d. ​1,402 calories ANSWER: d 22. The body’s basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of energy needed by the body _____.​ a. ​to maintain current weight b. ​to perform vigorous exercise c. ​at rest d. ​to gain weight ANSWER: c 23. The general range for a healthy body mass index is _____.​ a. ​18 to 24 b. ​19 to 25 c. ​20 to 26 d. ​21 to 27 ANSWER: b

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Chapter 19 Nutrition 24. Which of the following is the single most important way to prevent food poisoning?​ a. ​Smelling food and discarding promptly if it has a bad odor b. ​Washing hands thoroughly before handling food c. ​Using food before expiration dates have passed d. ​Cleaning preparation surfaces and cooking equipment ANSWER: b 25. Which of the following factors usually plays the least significant role in obesity?​ a. ​Genetics b. ​Lack of physical activity c. ​Overconsumption of food d. ​Underconsumption of fruits and vegetables ANSWER: a 26. ____________________ is an essential component of all body tissues.​ ANSWER: Water​ 27. ____________________ is/are the main source of energy for the body.​ ANSWER: Carbohydrates​ 28. A(n) ____________________ is a unit that measures the amount of energy contained within the chemical bonds of foods.​ ANSWER: calorie​ 29. ____________________ has/have twice as many calories as the other calorie-containing nutrients.​ ANSWER: Lipids Fats 30. ____________________ play(s) a major role in the growth and repair of tissue.​ ANSWER: Proteins​ 31. ____________________ is/are found only in plant foods such as whole grain breads, cereals, and fruits.​ ANSWER: Fiber​ 32. The ______________________________ is legally required to include information on servings, calories, and nutrient content.​ ANSWER: nutrition label food label

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Chapter 19 Nutrition 33. The most common nutritional disorder in the United States today is ____________________.​ ANSWER: obesity​ 34. ​The refusal to eat because of a fear of being overweight is a condition called ______________________________.

ANSWER: anorexia nervosa​ 35. An eating disorder characterized by episodic binge eating followed by purging is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: bulimia​

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Chapter 19 Nutrition ​Match each mineral and vitamin with its function. a. ​calcium b. ​iodine c. ​iron d. ​potassium e. ​zinc f. ​vitamin A g. ​vitamin B3 h. ​vitamin B12 i. ​vitamin E j. vitamin K 36. ​important for red blood cell synthesis ANSWER: h 37. ​necessary for metabolism of vitamin A ANSWER: e 38. ​enables normal blood clotting ANSWER: j 39. ​is a component of thyroid hormones ANSWER: b 40. ​needed for normal metabolism and proper skin health ANSWER: g 41. ​maintains the body’s acid-base and water balance, and helps control blood pressure ANSWER: d 42. ​important in the formation of bones and teeth ANSWER: a 43. ​acts as an antioxidant ANSWER: i 44. ​is a component of hemoglobin ANSWER: c 45. ​important for night vision ANSWER: f

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Chapter 20 Urinary System 1. Excretion is the process of removing nitrogenous waste material, excess salts, and excess water from the body.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Each kidney has more functional capacity than is ordinarily needed.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. The kidneys share one ureter.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Caffeine increases the loss of sodium ions, thus increasing the loss of water.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Urinary incontinence is frequently observed in the elderly.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. It is normal for freshly voided urine to contain a significant amount of bacteria.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Urine is moved down the ureters by means of gravity.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Hormones play an important role in regulating the function of the urinary system.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True

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Chapter 20 Urinary System 9. Neurogenic bladder is a condition specifically related to aging.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Peritoneal dialysis is controlled mainly by patients.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. The upper end of each ureter flares into a funnel-shaped structure known as the renal _____.​ a. ​pelvis b. ​pyramid c. ​papilla d. ​column ANSWER: a 12. The Bowman’s capsule contains the _____.​ a. ​loop of Henle b. ​collecting tubules c. ​glomerulus d. ​afferent arteriole ANSWER: c 13. Salt retention in the body’s tissues reduces the production of urine by _____.​ a. ​increasing the level of potassium b. ​increasing the secretion of ADH c. ​reducing the production of aldosterone d. ​decreasing the permeability of the membrane in the collecting ducts ANSWER: b 14. The term used to describe getting up frequently during the night to urinate is _____.​ a. ​nocturia b. ​polyuria c. ​pyuria d. ​oliguria ANSWER: a 15. Loss of voluntary control over urination is called _____.​ a. ​neurogenic bladder b. ​dialysis c. ​incontinence d. ​uremia ANSWER: c

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Chapter 20 Urinary System 16. Which organ performs the major role in excreting nitrogenous wastes and excess water from the body?​ a. ​Lungs b. ​Colon c. ​Skin d. ​Kidneys ANSWER: d 17. Which process is the first step in the formation of urine in the nephrons?​ a. ​Absorption b. ​Filtration c. ​Reabsorption d. ​Secretion ANSWER: b 18. What causes plasmalike fluid to flow from the blood in the glomerulus into Bowman’s capsule?​ a. ​Increase in blood pressure in the capillaries b. ​Hormonal secretions c. ​Stimulation from the nerves d. ​Level of salt in the blood ANSWER: a 19. How much of the fluid that comprises filtrate is reabsorbed into the bloodstream?​ a. ​15 percent b. ​80 percent c. ​90 percent d. ​99 percent ANSWER: d 20. The process of adding certain substances to the urine so they can be excreted from the body is called _____.​ a. ​collection b. ​reabsorption c. ​secretion d. ​urination ANSWER: c 21. Which is the correct sequence of the urine’s pathway after it is formed and exits the body?​ a. ​Kidney, urethra, urinary bladder, ureter b. ​Urinary bladder, ureter, kidney, urethra c. ​Urinary bladder, kidney, ureter, urethra d. ​Kidney, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra ANSWER: d 22. Which range indicates normal urinary output for a 24-hour period?​ a. ​1,000 to 1,500 ml b. ​1,000 to 2,000 ml c. ​1,500 to 2,000 ml d. ​1,500 to 2,500 ml ANSWER: b

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Chapter 20 Urinary System 23. Which condition is the most common cause of failure of kidney transplants?​ a. ​Rejection of the kidney by the recipient b. ​Infection c. ​Negative side effects of medications ANSWER: a 24. Individuals whose kidneys have failed are treated with a process called _____.​ a. ​urinalysis b. ​dialysis c. ​percutaneous nephrolithotomy ANSWER: b 25. The dosage levels of drugs prescribed for older adults must be adjusted to compensate for _____.​ a. ​decreased number of nephrons b. ​loss of muscle tone in the urinary bladder c. ​decline in filtration rate in the glomerulus d. ​increased incidence of incontinence ANSWER: c 26. A(n) ____________________ is an opening between an artery and vein that provides an insertion site to enable dialysis treatments.​ ANSWER: fistula​ 27. The ____________________ is the basic structural and functional unit of the kidney.​ ANSWER: nephron​ 28. The ______________________________ stores urine until about 1 pint is accumulated.​ ANSWER: urinary bladder​ 29. ____________________ increase urinary output by inhibiting the reabsorption of water.​ ANSWER: Diuretics​ 30. The sudden loss of function of the nephrons causes ______________________________.​ ANSWER: acute renal failure​ 31. The ______________________________ is the external opening through which urine leaves the body.​ ANSWER: urinary meatus urethral meatus

32. ____________________ involves the passage of blood through a device with a semipermeable membrane to rid the blood of harmful wastes, extra salt, and water.​ ANSWER: Dialysis​ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 Urinary System 33. The processes that follow filtration and determine the final composition of urine are called ____________________ and ______________________.​ ANSWER: reabsorption, secretion secretion, reabsorption 34. The term used to describe the limit of reabsorption of a specific substance is the ____________________.​ ANSWER: threshold​ 35. The laboratory examination of urine is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: urinalysis​

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Chapter 20 Urinary System Match each condition with its definition.​ a. ​oliguria b. ​anuria c. ​renal calculi d. ​hydronephrosis e. ​pyelonephritis f. ​polyuria g. ​cystitis h. ​dysuria i. ​chronic renal failure j. ​uremia 36. ​stones formed in the kidney ANSWER: c 37. ​frequent need to urinate ANSWER: f 38. ​diminished production of urine ANSWER: a 39. ​painful urination ANSWER: h 40. ​accumulation of fluid in the kidney ANSWER: d 41. ​lack of urine formation ANSWER: b 42. ​retention of urea in the blood ANSWER: j 43. ​inflammation of kidney tissue and renal pelvis ANSWER: e 44. ​inflammation of the lining of the urinary bladder ANSWER: g 45. ​gradual loss of nephron function ANSWER: i

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Chapter 21 Reproductive System 1. All of the inherited traits possessed by offspring are established at the time of fertilization.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Some sexually transmitted diseases can be passed from the mother to her child during the birth process.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. The prostate gland is about the size and shape of a pear.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Sexually transmitted diseases are transmitted through the exchange of bodily fluids.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Syphilis is a potentially life-threatening STD.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. The sex of a child is determined by the sex chromosomes of the mother.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Pituitary hormones play a significant role in the reproductive process.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. The changes experienced during menopause are strictly physical in nature.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False

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Chapter 21 Reproductive System 9. Testosterone is secreted only as needed for the creation of sperm in the male.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. It is relatively easy to surgically correct the condition in which the testes have not properly descended to the outside of the body.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Most cases of male impotence have psychological causes.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. All cancers of the prostate involve fast-growing cells forming tumors that must be removed surgically.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. Human somatic cells contain _____ chromosomes.​ a. 1​ 6 b. 2​ 6 c. 4​ 6 d. 5​ 6 ANSWER: c 14. The process by which an ovum is released from an ovary is called _____.​ a. ​ovulation b. ​fertilization c. ​menstruation ANSWER: a 15. The breakdown in the lining of the endometrium occurs in the _____ stage of the menstrual cycle.​ a. ​follicle b. ​ovulation c. ​corpus luteum d. ​menstruation ANSWER: d 16. The male sex hormone is called _____.​ a. ​progesterone b. ​testosterone c. ​estrogen d. ​myometrium ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 Reproductive System 17. A group of symptoms sometimes exhibited prior to the menstrual cycle is called _____.​ a. ​premenstrual syndrome b. ​endometriosis c. ​amenorrhea d. ​dysmenorrhea ANSWER: a 18. A male is considered to be sterile if he produces less than how many spermatozoa in one ml of seminal fluid?​ a. ​20 million b. ​50 million c. ​100 million d. ​150 million ANSWER: a 19. ​A zygote is a(n) _____. a. ​human sex cell b. ​fertilized egg cell c. ​unfertilized egg cell d. p​ rocess of cell division ANSWER: b 20. Which of the following occurs during the follicle stage of the menstrual cycle?​ a. ​An ovary releases an ovum. b. ​The endometrium begins to shed. c. ​FSH is released from the pituitary gland. d. ​A mature follicle ruptures.

ANSWER: c 21. An important role of progesterone in the reproductive process is to _____.​ a. ​maintain the growth and thickening of the endometrium b. ​encourage the breakdown of the lining of the endometrium c. ​stimulate the rupture of the follicle d. ​stimulate the creation of the corpus luteum ANSWER: a 22. The contraction of the prostate gland during ejaculation serves the purpose of _____.​ a. ​adding nutrients to the seminal fluid b. ​closing off the urethra to prevent the passage of urine c. ​retaining blood in the penis to maintain an erection ANSWER: b 23. During ejaculation, semen is expelled to the outside of the male body through the _____.​ a. ​ejaculatory ducts b. ​ductus deferens (vas deferens) c. ​seminiferous tubules d. ​urethra ANSWER: d

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Chapter 21 Reproductive System 24. Which of the following methods of contraception, when used correctly, is generally the most effective?​ a. ​Condoms b. ​Birth control pills c. ​Spermicides d. ​Withdrawal ANSWER: b 25. Which of the following is the only contraceptive method that also provides some protection against sexually transmitted diseases, including AIDS?​ a. ​Diaphragm b. ​Douching c. ​Latex condom d. ​IUD ANSWER: c 26. When an ovum is fertilized outside the female’s body and then transferred to her uterus, this is called _____.​ a. ​in vitro fertilization b. ​ectopic pregnancy c. ​zygote intrafallopian transfer d. ​artificial insemination ANSWER: a 27. Vaginal yeast infections commonly occur as a result of a woman _____.​ a. ​having unprotected sex b. ​going through menopause c. ​taking antibiotics d. ​using birth control pills ANSWER: c 28. Which of the following methods of contraception must be coordinated carefully with the woman’s menstrual cycle in order to be effective?​ a. ​IUD b. ​Diaphragm c. ​Abstinence d. ​Rhythm ANSWER: d 29. During which of the following stages of human development do the most dramatic changes take place?​ a. ​Infancy b. ​Toddler c. ​School-age d. ​Adolescence ANSWER: a 30. During which stage of human development is it most likely that life changes will require emotional and social adjustments?​ a. ​School-age b. ​Adolescence c. ​Early adulthood d. ​Older adulthood ANSWER: d 31. All living organisms must ____________________ to continue their species.​ ANSWER: reproduce​

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Chapter 21 Reproductive System 32. ____________________, also called conception, occurs when the sperm and egg nuclei combine.​ ANSWER: Fertilization​ 33. The primary sex organs of the female are the ____________________.​ ANSWER: ovaries​ 34. During pregnancy, the ____________________ expands to accommodate the growing embryo and a large amount of fluid.​ ANSWER: uterus​ 35. ​The primary sex organs of the male are the ____________________.

ANSWER: testes​ 36. ____________________ is the term given to the process that ends the female’s reproductive years.​ ANSWER: Menopause​ 37. ____________________ means the absence of a menstrual cycle.​ ANSWER: Amenorrhea​ 38. Benign growths that occur in the wall of the uterus are called _________________________.​ ANSWER: fibroid tumors​ 39. Inflammation of the testes is called ____________________.​ ANSWER: orchitis​ 40. The most common form of cancer in males over the age of 50 is ____________________ cancer.​ ANSWER: prostate​ 41. The most common form of cancer in females, other than skin cancer, is ____________________ cancer.​ ANSWER: breast​ 42. ____________________ is the most common sexually transmitted disease in the United States.​ ANSWER: Chlamydia​

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Chapter 21 Reproductive System Match each condition or infection to its description.​ a. ​dysmenorrhea b. ​endometriosis c. ​menorrhagia d. ​toxic shock syndrome e. ​epididymitis f. ​benign prostatic hypertrophy g. ​chlamydia h. ​gonorrhea i. ​genital herpes j. trichomoniasis 43. ​excessive or prolonged menstrual bleeding ANSWER: c 44. ​enlarged prostate ANSWER: f 45. ​bacterial STD in which males may experience painful urination and discharge of pus ANSWER: h 46. ​uterine tissue located outside the uterus ANSWER: b 47. ​protozoan infection that causes itching and burning of the vagina in females and urethra in males ANSWER: j 48. ​potentially life-threatening infection caused by staphylococcus bacteria ANSWER: d 49. ​painful menstruation ANSWER: a 50. ​common STD that presents no symptoms for most women and many men ANSWER: g 51. ​infection that causes swelling and pain in the groin and scrotum ANSWER: e 52. ​viral STD that may cause lesions in the genitalia ANSWER: i

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Chapter 22 Genetics and Genetically Linked Diseases 1. Most inherited mutated genes pass on a beneficial characteristic.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Lethal genes can cause death at any time during the human life cycle, from the zygote stage to a mature adult human being.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. When parents share similar gene pools, their chances of having spontaneous abortions and stillbirths increase.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. A genetic disorder is the same as a congenital disorder.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Down syndrome is sometimes referred to as trisomy 21.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Intentionally introducing new characteristics or attributes into an organism is known as genetic engineering.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Genetic counseling is recommended for women who are pregnant after age 40.​ a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Skin cells that undergo random changes as a person ages provide an example of a(n) _____ mutation.​ a. ​chromosomal b. ​gene c. ​somatic d. ​inherited ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22 Genetics and Genetically Linked Diseases 9. A mutagenic agent _____.​ a. ​helps prevent mutations b. ​causes mutations in many cells at the same time c. ​slows down the rate of mutation d. ​increases the occurrence of mutations ANSWER: d 10. What is chorionic villi sampling?​ a. ​Diagnostic test in which fetal cells are removed from the placenta and examined b. ​Test performed on amniotic fluid to identify potential disorders c. ​Questionnaire used in genetic counseling to create a family history d. ​Test given to newborn infants to identify the presence of phenylketonuria ANSWER: a 11. What is the purpose of a determining a person’s genotype?​ a. ​Finding possible cures for genetic disorders b. ​Mapping all the genes of the human body c. ​Predicting the possibility of a genetic disorder d. ​Locating common sites of genetic mutations ANSWER: c 12. Which of the following is a causative factor in the abnormal development of sexual organs?​ a. ​An extra chromosome exists. b. ​Sex chromosomes do not split apart when gametes are formed. c. ​The genes for sexual development are missing.

ANSWER: b 13. A major factor that must be overcome for gene therapy to become an effective treatment option is _____.​ a. ​identifying techniques to correct faulty genes b. ​lack of information about human genetic material c. ​the body’s natural immune response ANSWER: c 14. ____________________ is the branch of biology that studies how the genes are transmitted from parents to offspring.​ ANSWER: Genetics​ 15. ____________________ is the term for a change that occurs in the nucleus of gametes, and is passed on to the next generation.​ ANSWER: Mutation​ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22 Genetics and Genetically Linked Diseases 16. ______________________________ helps prospective parents make informed decisions about having children.​ ANSWER: Genetic counseling​ 17. A(n) ____________________ disorder is caused by a variation in the genetic pattern.​ ANSWER: genetic​ 18. _________________________ is a disease characterized by chronic bronchitis and pneumonia.​ ANSWER: Cystic fibrosis​ 19. ____________________ is a sex-linked blood disorder passed on the X chromosome.​ ANSWER: Hemophilia​ 20. Radiation and the chemical benzene are examples of _________________________ agents.​ ANSWER: mutagenic​ 21. The modification of genes outside an organism’s natural reproductive process is called ______________________________.​ ANSWER: genetic engineering​ 22. It is estimated that everyone carries two or three recessive ____________________ genes.​ ANSWER: lethal​ 23. The ____________________ is a small functional unit of DNA that carries instructions for cellular synthesis of a specific protein.​ ANSWER: gene​ 24. The probable reason why certain genetic diseases are more common among specific ethnic groups is that the group members share a similar _________________________.​ ANSWER: gene pool​ 25. ​The technique for correcting defective genes that cause disease is called ______________________________.

ANSWER: gene therapy​

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Chapter 22 Genetics and Genetically Linked Diseases Match each disorder with its description.​ a. ​phenylketonuria b. ​sickle cell anemia c. ​Tay-Sachs disease d. ​Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy e. ​Huntington’s disease f. ​cystic fibrosis g. ​thalassemia h. ​hemophilia i. ​Down syndrome j. Turner’s syndrome 26. ​missing enzyme causes brain damage that results in mental and motor deterioration ANSWER: c 27. ​anemia accompanied by enlargement of the spleen and possible congestive heart disease ANSWER: g 28. ​abnormality of red blood cells interfering with ability to carry oxygen ANSWER: b 29. ​impairment of skeletal muscles in which their fibers are replaced with fat and connective tissue ANSWER: d 30. ​presence of an extra chromosome, which causes certain physical malformations and some degree of mental retardation ANSWER: i 31. ​metabolic disorder that disrupts normal brain development ANSWER: a 32. ​excretion of thick mucus that blocks the respiratory passages ANSWER: f 33. ​inability to produce a substance necessary for blood clotting ANSWER: h 34. ​abnormal gene causes deterioration of the central nervous system ANSWER: e 35. ​a chromosomal nondisjunction that results in abnormal female sexual development ANSWER: j

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