TEST BANK for Physical Anthropology, 12th Edition, Philip Stein, Bruce Rowe,

CHAPTER 1 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) A main area of study for physical anthropologists is the study of evolution. ⊚ ⊚

2)

Science can provide answers to all possible questions. ⊚ ⊚

3)

true false

The idea that humans are superior to other animals is termed anthropocentrism. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

A theory is more certain than a guess but less certain than a fact. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

An empirical observation is one that is made with the help of a microscope or telescope. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

true false

Charles Darwin was the first person to recognize that nature could be dynamic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Lamarck proposed the theory of acquired characteristics, which states that traits gained during a lifetime can be passed to the next generation.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Darwin's theory states that groups who are better suited to their environment will be more likely to survive and reproduce. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

Darwin lacked an accurate understanding of the mechanisms of inheritance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The study of the change in body color of peppered moths described in chapter one showed that evolution could be observed in a shorter period of time than Darwin thought possible. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) The field that studies fossil records is: A) primatology B) paleontology C) genetics D) archaeology

12)

The subfield of physical anthropology includes the study of:

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A) human genetics B) forensic anthropology C) human biological variation D) all of these

13)

Cultural anthropology: A) is a branch of archaeology B) is the study of art and music C) includes the study of human social organizations and learned patterns of behavior D) includes paleontology as a major topic

14)

The study of a people's political organization would be a part of: A) cultural anthropology B) linguistics C) archaeology D) physical anthropology

15)

An anthropological linguist: A) always attempts to learn to speak as many languages as he or she possibly can B) teaches students foreign languages C) studies the history, function, structure, and physiology of language D) would only be interested in cultures that have writing systems

16)

The practical application of anthropological knowledge to real-world concerns is called:

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A) academic anthropology B) lived anthropology C) applied anthropology D) realistic anthropology

17)

An empirical observation is one that is: A) measurable B) a fact C) received through the senses D) all of these

18)

Hypotheses: A) are always considered to be correct statements B) are the same thing as laws in science C) are not a necessary part of the scientific method D) must be logical and testable

19)

Hypotheses: A) can be disproven B) can be tested through experiments and observations C) are based on empirical observations D) all of these

20)

A tentative statement about the relationship between two variables is a(n):

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A) hypothesis B) theory C) empirical statement D) rationalization

21)

An example of a variable would be: A) the theory of evolution by natural selection B) the cranial capacities of a series of skulls C) that all mammals give live birth D) all of these

22)

Once proposed, a hypothesis may be tested by: A) comparing it to known data gathered from nature B) conducting an experiment C) comparing one phenomenon with another to determine the relationships between

them D) all of these

23) A hypothesis may be tested in a number of ways. One of the following is not a way to test a hypothesis.

A) Test the predictive value of the hypothesis by comparing it to all known data from nature.

B) Ask all scientists doing research in the area the hypothesis concerns and confirm that the hypothesis is based on a consensus of the opinions of those scientists.

C) Conduct experiments D) Through comparative studies

24)

A theory is:

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A) a speculative statement B) a statement of extremely high validity C) the same as a hypothesis D) the same as a fact

25)

Darwin's explanation of evolution by natural selection is an example of a(n): A) theory B) hypothesis C) empirical statement D) experiment

26)

That evolution has occurred is a(n): A) theory B) hypothesis C) fact D) experiment

27)

Statements about the ways in which evolution occurs (the processes) are: A) facts B) theories C) experiments D) variables

28)

Scientific investigation can:

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A) provide answers to all possible questions B) generate statements that are considered to be absolute truths C) only deal with empirical observations D) all of these

29)

When scientists say that evolution is a theory, they mean that evolution is: A) a general law or principle supported by mass data B) an educated guess C) but one of several possible explanations for the diversity of life D) accepted by the majority of scientists

30)

A control in science is: A) a situation that differs from the situation being tested B) an empirical observation C) always easy to achieve in physical anthropology D) a monocausal explanation for a phenomenon

31) Which of the following statements is true regarding scientific hypotheses and theories about human evolution?

A) Scientists refuse to consider supernatural causes to explain their observations because most scientists are atheists.

B) Explanations of natural phenomena based upon religious dogma are superior because science cannot explain the great many things about the world.

C) Scientists refuse to invoke supernatural causes because the scientific method restricts scientific inquiry to hypotheses that are falsifiable and testable.

D) While evolution has been fairly well demonstrated in bacteria, plants, and simple animals, it has not been demonstrated to have taken place in humans.

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32)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) One cannot accept science and also be a religious person.

B) Science can successfully answer questions about ethics and morality.

C) Scientific conclusions are based upon available evidence and therefore can change when new evidence appears.

D) Scientific conclusions are considered to be absolute facts within the scientific community.

33)

The idea that humans are superior to other animals is termed: A) egocentrism B) anthropocentrism C) ethnocentrism D) geocentricism

34)

The belief that people are the center of the universe is termed: A) ethnocentrism B) anthropocentrism C) holism D) cultural relativism

35)

The idea that life can form from nonliving material is known as: A) uniformitarianism B) spontaneous generation C) anthropocentricity D) immutability

36)

An early belief was that life is immutable, meaning:

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A) once created, a type of organism remains unchanged B) once created, a type of organism may become extinct or change into some other type of organism C) once created, a type of organism may evolve through time into other types of organisms D) none of these

37) In the eighteenth century, the accepted date for the origin of the earth, as calculated in the seventeenth century by Archbishop Ussher, was: A) 1 million B.C. B) 250,000 B.C. C) 10,550 B.C. D) 4004 B.C.

38)

The fact that the earth is not the center of the universe was conclusively demonstrated by: A) James Ussher B) Nicolaus Copernicus C) Carolus Linnaeus D) Comte de Buffon

39)

An eighteenth-century scientific classification of the living world was made by: A) Nicolaus Copernicus B) Carolus Linnaeus C) Comte de Buffon D) Charles Lyell

40)

Linnaeus's classification was important because:

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A) it imposed order on nature's infinite variation B) it provided the means of seeing change and possible ancestral relationships C) it included humans D) all of these

41)

The eighteenth-century biologist Comte de Buffon: A) argued that the earth was the center of the universe B) believed that living forms are immutable C) proposed that the earth is much older than 6,000 years D) developed a classification of the living world that is still used today

42)

Jean Baptiste de Lamarck was important because: A) his theory of evolution was correct in detail B) he speculated on the mechanisms of change C) he proposed the idea of uniformitarianism D) all of these

43)

Jean Baptiste de Lamarck is associated with: A) the first scientific account of the gorilla B) the concept of uniformitarianism C) the concept of natural selection D) the principle of acquired characteristics

44) If a woman and a man both lift weights and become muscular, it follows that their offspring:

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A) are more likely to be muscular B) will inherit their father's, but not their mother's, muscularity C) will be genetically weaker D) will not be more muscular simply because their parents lift weights

45) Lamarck believed that parts of the body that are used are strengthened and improved, whereas parts of the body that are not become weak and might disappear. This is the principle of: A) Lamarckism B) strength and weakness C) use and disuse D) inheritance and disinheritance

46)

George Cuvier developed the theory of: A) acquired characteristics B) catastrophism C) uniformitarianism D) anthropocentrism

47) Catastrophists believe that the geographic history of the earth and changes in the biological world are a result of: A) natural selection as described by Charles Darwin B) gradual changes caused by such factors as wind, water, earthquakes, and volcanoes C) a series of violent and sudden events D) the first six days of creation as depicted in Genesis

48) The idea that animal forms are arranged in a ladder whereby organisms progress from a lesser to a greater state of perfection is termed:

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A) holism B) uniformitarianism C) great chain of being D) anthropocentrism

49)

William Smith is noted for: A) being the first geologist to recognize what a fossil was B) developing the concept of uniformitarianism C) finding the earliest known stone tools of human manufacture D) studying the strata of the earth and creating the first geologic map of England

50) The recognition that the layers of the earth or strata could be identified by specific features and always existed in the same order resulted in the construction of the first geologic map of England by: A) William Smith B) Charles Lyell C) Alfred Russel Wallace D) Peter Grant

51)

Charles Lyell is associated with the concept of: A) uniformitarianism B) catastrophism C) the theory of acquired characteristics D) the heliocentric view of the universe

52)

The principle of uniformitarianism refers to the concept that:

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A) the geological processes at work today are the same as those at work in the past B) evolution is a universal fact C) the basic biological processes of life are the same wherever life is found D) the laws of heredity are universal

53)

The concept of uniformitarianism states that: A) the human genome is uniform throughout the world B) the basic skeletal structure of primates shows much uniformity C) the mechanism of heredity is uniform throughout the animal kingdom D) the physical laws of nature are uniform throughout time

54)

The importance of uniformitarianism for the development of Darwinian theory is that it: A) showed that the earth's age was many times greater than previously thought B) explained the uniformity of shape among different animal species C) allowed for changes in a species over time D) explained the existence of fossils

55) The first person to make a systematic attempt to demonstrate the existence of a prehistoric period was: A) Charles Darwin B) Jacques Boucher de Perthes C) Comte de Buffon D) Jean Baptiste de Lamarck

56)

Jacques Boucher de Crevecoeur de Perthes:

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A) was the first to demonstrate that the earth was extremely old B) recognized primitive stone tools as evidence of prehistoric peoples C) believed that collections of now-extinct fossil animals in particular strata ended with catastrophic events D) developed the principle of use and disuse

57) That each stratum was characterized by distinct fossils that could be used to indicate the age of strata was found by: A) Charles Lyell B) Charles Darwin C) William Smith D) Carolus Linnaeus

58)

Charles Darwin: A) is best known for explaining evolution in terms of natural selection B) was the first person to conceive the idea of evolution C) published The Origin of Species in 1696 D) was the first person to work out the basic principles of heredity

59) When Charles Darwin began his voyage around the world in 1831, he was given a textbook on geology that set forth ideas on the evolution of the earth. This book, Principles of Geology, was written by: A) Thomas Malthus B) Alfred Russel Wallace C) Charles Lyell D) William Smith

60)

Darwin's five-year voyage on board the HMS Beagle:

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A) was disappointing to him since he only was able to visit South America B) allowed him to gain new insights into the plants and animals in different parts of the world C) was important because he traveled with the older and more experienced naturalist Alfred Russell Wallace D) all of these

61) was:

The main destination of the HMS Beagle, on which Darwin was the ship's naturalist,

A) Europe B) Asia C) South America D) North America

62)

The Galápagos Islands are located off the coast of: A) New Guinea B) Ecuador C) Australia D) England

63)

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A) Charles Darwin was the first person to conceive the idea of evolution.

B) The concept of evolution was the result of a long chain of discoveries and hypotheses.

C) The theory of evolution was not developed by one person.

D) Thomas R. Malthus's An Essay on the Principle of Population was influential on Darwin and Wallace in their conceptualization of natural selection.

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64) The concept of natural selection was developed by Charles Darwin and, at about the same time, by another biologist: A) Thomas Malthus B) Charles Lyell C) Alfred R. Wallace D) Carolus Linnaeus

65) Charles Darwin realized that populations have the potential to grow at a faster rate than their food supply. This idea came from the writings of: A) Thomas Malthus B) James Hutton C) Charles Lyell D) Georges Cuvier

66)

Charles Darwin wrote in On the Origin of Species that: A) the genetic material is a protein B) traits are inherited through paired genes C) natural selection occurs because of differences in fertility rates among individuals D) humans are descended from apes

67)

Charles Darwin: A) was the first to apply the scientific method to examine evolution B) proved that evolution had occurred C) provided a mechanism to explain how evolution works D) disproved the biblical account of creation

68)

Alfred Russel Wallace:

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A) wrote Essay on the Principles of Population B) was a rigorous opponent of the concept of natural selection C) came up with the idea of natural selection at about the same time as Charles Darwin D) disproved spontaneous creation

69)

Darwin laid out his ideas on evolution by natural selection in the book: A) The Antiquity of Man B) The Principles of Populations C) On the Origin of Species D) The Principles of Geology

70) The synthetic theory of evolution integrates the Darwinian concept of natural selection with: A) genetics B) paleontology C) embryology D) all of these

71)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The earth is 4000 years old.

B) Evolution has never been actually seen occurring.

C) Evolution generates testable predictions.

D) Evolution is not accepted by substantial number of biologists.

72) Essential elements of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection include which of the following?

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A) Individuals within a population vary.

B) While organisms are able to reproduce rapidly, resource growth is limited.

C) Individuals with favorable variations will be more likely to survive and reproduce.

D) All of these

73)

Darwin lacked an accurate understanding of: A) inheritance B) variability of populations C) population growth D) differential survival rates

74) Darwin's theory states that ____________ who are more well suited to their environment will be more likely to survive and reproduce.

A) individuals B) species C) families D) groups

75)

Darwin believed that evolution: A) happened quite rapidly B) could be observed in an individual's lifetime C) occurred over extremely long periods of time

76)

Which of the following is not a part of the concept of natural selection?

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A) There are limited resources for which individuals compete.

B) Modifications acquired by an organism during its lifetime are passed on to its offspring.

C) Individuals in a population vary in physical characteristics.

D) Variations possessed by individuals are, in part, inherited.

77)

Court cases advocating the teaching of creation science: A) are now on the books in over 40 states B) have not occurred in the last twenty years C) are supported by the majority of anthropologists D) are still being fought well into the 21 st century

78)

Intelligent design theory is: A) a new version of evolutionary theory B) a creationist explanation C) an attempt to blend natural selection and religion D) based on new genetic information

79) The creationist idea that the great complexity found in living organisms implies the existence of a creator is called: A) intelligent design theory B) God as creator theory C) the science of design theory D) creation science

80)

Creationism and Intelligent Design are:

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A) scientific explanations of phenomena that do not appear to be affected by natural selection B) attempts to discredit evolution and replace evolutionary theory by religious-based ideas C) based upon new discoveries in genetics D) developed because of growing doubts about the validity of evolution within the scientific community

81)

Intelligent Design Theory:

A) answers important questions that have not been successfully explained by natural selection B) suggests that the existence of complex design in the world is evidence of an intelligent designer C) is consistent with the scientific methods and should be included in scientific discussions

82) From 1925 to until recently, a series of court cases have ruled that which of the following laws or policies was legal?

A) law prohibiting the teaching of evolution B) law mandating equal treatment of creation-science with evolution C) school district rule restricting the right of teachers to teach creationism in the classroom D) All of these were declared illegal.

83) On November 20, 2005, Federal Judge John Jones ruled in a case involving the attempt of the Dover Pennsylvania school board to introduce Intelligent Design into the biology curriculum that:

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A) since the "designer" is not identified as God, Intelligent Design is not a religious concept B) Intelligent Design is a form of creationism and, being a religious concept, cannot be taught in the public schools as science C) in order to present all sides of an issue, Intelligent Design should be taught alongside evolution in the science classroom

84)

In the Kitzmiller v. Dover Area School District legal case, the Judge declared that:

A) intelligent design was a legitimate scientific concept B) the school board had the right to require teachers to discuss intelligent design in their th 9 grade classes C) intelligent design is not a scientific concept D) the concept of evolution is a religious concept

85)

The synthetic theory of evolution refers to the fusion of natural selection with: A) intelligent design theory B) theology C) genetics, paleontology, and other disciplines D) new discoveries in astronomy and astrophysics

86) Of the following, the most tentative statement about the relationship between two variables is a: A) hypothesis B) theory C) law D) rationalization

87)

An early belief was that life is immutable, meaning:

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A) life was created once and only once B) once created, a type of organism remains unchanged C) once created, an organism will eventually change into some other type of organism D) once created, a type of organism may evolve through time into other types of organisms

88)

The principle of uniformitarianism refers to the concept that: A) evolution occurs in a uniform manner for every species B) the geological processes at work today are the same as those at work in the past C) the laws of heredity are universal D) all of these

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

89) What is anthropology? What are some of the subfields within anthropology?

90) Early views on the nature of humankind were anthropocentric. What major intellectual and historical events served to move people away from an anthropocentric view?

91) Why was the classification scheme of Linnaeus so important to the later development of evolutionary biology?

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92) Great ideas seldom develop in a vacuum. Summarize the ideas that were developed prior to 1859 that influenced the work of Charles Darwin.

93) Contrast the concepts of catastrophism and uniformitarianism. What is the relationship of each of these concepts to the development of evolutionary theory?

94) What role did the development of historical geology play in the development of evolutionary theory?

95) What is meant by the synthetic theory of evolution? How does the synthetic theory of evolution differ from the concept of evolution as conceived by Charles Darwin?

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96) What are some of the major concepts of creationism? Discuss the debate over the teaching of evolution in public schools.

97) What is the theory of intelligent design? What do scientists say to counter the claims of intelligent design theory?

98) Describe the basic principles of scientific thinking. Can science provide answers to all questions?

99) Many people confuse the terms hypothesis and theory. What do these two terms mean and how do they differ?

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100) Ideas do not develop in a vacuum. Darwin was certainly not the first person to conceive the idea of biological evolution. The roots of the concept of biological evolution go back to at least the time of ancient Greece. Research and discuss these early concepts and why they failed to become widely accepted.

101) What were some of the concepts about human nature and the relationship between humans and nature that had to change before an evolutionary concept could develop?

102)

Explain the components of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection.

103) How does a scientific inquiry work? Can science provide answers to all questions?

Why/why not?

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104) How does the peppered moth example, discussed in this chapter, help explain the concept of natural selection?

105)

What is the concept of intelligent design and what are the scientific arguments against it?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_12e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) B 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) B 25) A 26) C Version 1

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27) B 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) B 34) B 35) B 36) A 37) D 38) B 39) B 40) D 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) D 45) C 46) B 47) C 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) D 54) A 55) B 56) B Version 1

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57) C 58) A 59) C 60) B 61) C 62) B 63) A 64) C 65) A 66) C 67) C 68) C 69) C 70) D 71) C 72) D 73) A 74) A 75) C 76) B 77) D 78) B 79) A 80) B 81) B 82) C 83) B 84) C 85) C 86) A Version 1

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87) B 88) B 89) Answers will vary.

90) Answers will vary.

91) Answers will vary.

92) Answers will vary.

93) Answers will vary.

94) Answers will vary.

95) Answers will vary.

96) Answers will vary.

97) Answers will vary.

98) Answers will vary.

99) Answers will vary.

100) Answers will vary.

101) Answers will vary.

102) Answers will vary.

103) Answers will vary.

104) Answers will vary.

105) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 2 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) The blending theory of inheritance correctly describes the mechanisms by which offspring resemble their parents. ⊚ ⊚

2)

The principles of heredity worked out by Gregor Mendel apply to all living organisms. ⊚ ⊚

3)

true false

Proteins are chains of nucleotides. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

X-linked traits will be expressed more commonly in females than males. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

A human body cell has 44 autosomes. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

true false

The correct sequence for protein synthesis is nDNA-mRNA-tRNA-protein synthesis. ⊚ ⊚

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

7) The blending theory is the idea that: A) inherited characteristics of offspring are intermediate between maternal and paternal characteristics B) individuals inherit some traits from the mother and some from the father C) inherited traits can be altered by the environment D) none of these

8)

Pangenesis is: A) based on the principle that acquired characteristics can be passed on B) a "Noah's Ark" explanation for the origin of life C) an explanation for the origin of all life D) none of these

9)

The basic principles of heredity were first worked out by: A) Charles Darwin B) Gregor Mendel C) Carolus Linnaeus D) Jean Lamarck

10)

Gregor Mendel's work, published in 1866, was: A) not generally known until 1900 B) immediately accepted by Mendel's contemporaries C) footnoted extensively by Charles Darwin in The Origin of Species D) used by Francis Galton in his studies on human heredity

11)

Gregor Mendel's success was the result, in part, of the fact that he:

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A) used pairs of sharply contrasting features B) precisely defined the traits he studied C) quantified the results of the breeding experiments D) all of these

12)

True-breeding means:

A) hybrid B) bred only with the same kind and shows the same trait or traits over many generations C) only the dominant characteristics will express themselves D) only the recessive traits will express themselves

13)

One of Gregor Mendel's major contributions to science was his: A) explanation of the mechanisms of heredity B) discovery of the process of mutation C) description of chromosomes D) discovery of DNA within the nucleus of the cell

14)

Gregor Mendel demonstrated that the hereditary units: A) are discrete B) blend with one another C) are composed of DNA D) all of these

15)

Male sex cells are called:

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A) pollen B) sperm C) ova D) pollen and sperm

16) In the production of sex cells, paired hereditary units separate into different sex cells.

This is termed the principle of: A) segregation B) hybridization C) independent assortment D) heterozygosity

17) When Mendel crossed a true-breeding tall plant with a true-breeding dwarf plant, all of the F 1 generation was tall. Therefore, we may conclude that the allele for dwarfism in the plant is: A) recessive B) codominant C) dominant D) intermediate in expression

18)

The inheritance patterns of differing traits are unconnected. This is the principle of: A) segregation B) independent assortment C) dominance D) recessiveness

19)

"A simplified representation of a real-world phenomenon" best defines a(n):

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A) theory B) model C) experiment D) control

20)

In 1900, important differences among red blood cells were discovered by: A) Gregor Mendel B) Karl Landsteiner C) James Watson D) Francis Galton

21) Proteins whose primary function is to destroy or neutralize foreign substances that have entered the body are called: A) enzymes B) antigens C) antibodies D) hormones

22)

A substance that stimulates the production or mobilization of antibodies is called a(n): A) antigen B) allele C) nucleotide D) enzyme

23)

How many major alleles are involved in the inheritance of ABO blood types?

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A) one B) two C) three D) four

24)

In the presence of anti-A, type A red blood cells will undergo: A) agglutination B) hydrolysis C) lysis D) fusion

25) If a person with type A blood receives a transfusion of type B blood, the recipient's blood would experience: A) heavy agglutination of the donor's cells B) light agglutination of the donor's cells C) no agglutination of the recipient's cells D) no agglutination of the donor's cells

26) An individual whose blood contains the antibodies anti-A and anti-B would be of the blood type: A) A B) B C) AB D) O

27) In the context of the ABO blood-type system, when two different alleles of the same gene are present, both alleles are expressed in the phenotype. Such alleles are called:

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A) codominant alleles B) recessive alleles C) polymorphic alleles D) dominant alleles

28)

Which of the following is true of erythroblastosis fetalis?

A) It is a recessive genetic abnormality in which the retina of the eye lacks the cones that are necessary for color vision and for seeing fine details.

B) It is a late-onset genetic disease characterized by a loss of motor control resulting in jerky movements and is associated with psychiatric symptoms.

C) It is a hemolytic disease affecting unborn or newborn infants and is caused by the destruction of the infant's Rh+ blood by the mother's anti-Rh antibodies.

D) It is a genetic disease caused by the absence of the enzyme responsible for the conversion of the amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine.

29) Which of the following is true of the relationship between the ABO and Rh blood-type systems?

A) Individuals who are O are always Rh−.

B) Individuals who are O are more likely to be Rh−.

C) The genes for the two blood systems are linked.

D) The two systems are inherited independently.

30)

The phenotype is the result of: A) the genotype B) the environment C) traits D) the genotype and the environment

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31)

The term phenotype refers to: A) physical traits B) physiological traits C) personality traits D) all of these

32)

An individual's phenotype would include that individual's: A) stature B) blood type C) skin color D) all of these

33)

A trait is: A) one aspect of the phenotype B) one aspect of the genotype C) not influenced by the environment D) one aspect of the genotype and not influenced by the environment

34)

Which of the following characteristics is least influenced by the environment?

A) skin color B) stature C) PTC tasting D) intelligence

35)

The term genotype refers to:

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A) an individual's appearance B) an individual's genetic makeup C) an individual's observable and measurable characteristics D) all of these

36)

An allele is: A) a specific type of trait B) an alternate form of a gene C) the dominant form of a gene only D) the recessive form of a gene only

37)

Cytogenetics is defined as the study of: A) cells B) zygotes C) hereditary mechanisms within the cell D) the genetics of cytoplasm

38)

The chromosomes are located within the cell's: A) cytoplasm B) nucleus C) ribosome D) endoplasm

39) as a:

The standardized classification and arrangement of photographed chromosomes is known

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A) karyotype B) cytoplasm C) cytology D) chromotype

40)

Different organisms: A) may have different number of chromosomes, ranging from 2 to 1,260 B) usually have over 1,000 chromosomes per cell C) have between 40 and 50 chromosomes per cell D) have half of their chromosomes in the nuclei and half in the cytoplasm of their cells

41)

A human body cell has the following number of chromosomes: A) 48 B) 46 C) 44 D) 23

42)

A human body cell has the following number of autosomes: A) 48 B) 46 C) 44 D) 23

43)

The chromosomes that make up a pair are called:

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A) homologous B) linked C) associated D) homozygous

44)

Genes that are located on the same chromosome are said to be: A) associated B) linked C) homologous D) homozygous

45)

The Y chromosome: A) carries no genes B) is larger than the X chromosome C) is smaller than the X chromosome D) carries no genes and is smaller than the X chromosome

46)

X-linked means: A) the site of the gene is unknown B) the gene lies on "x" number of chromosomes C) the gene lies on the X chromosome D) the gene is only inherited by women

47)

Mitosis is the process by which:

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A) single-cell organisms reproduce B) growth and replacement of cells occur in multicellular animals C) gametes are produced D) single-cell organisms reproduce and growth and replacement of cells occur in multicellular animals E) all of these

48)

A chromosome consists of two strands held together by the: A) nucleolus B) centromere C) centriole D) spindle

49)

The proper sequence of phases of division in mitosis is: A) prophase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase B) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase C) prophase, telophase, anaphase, metaphase D) metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase

50)

In mitosis, the chromosomes first become visible during: A) anaphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) telophase E) interphase

51)

Which of the following statements about meiosis is correct?

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A) Meiosis takes place only in the testes and the ovaries.

B) The chromosome number is cut in half.

C) There are two cycles of division.

D) All of these are correct.

52)

Meiosis differs from mitosis in that in meiosis: A) there are two cycles of division B) the chromosome number is cut in half C) crossing-over can occur D) all of these

53)

The cell produced by meiosis in humans contains the following number of chromosomes: A) 23 B) 24 C) 46 D) 48

54)

At the end of the first division of meiosis, each second-generation cell contains: A) 46 double-stranded chromosomes B) 46 single-stranded chromosomes C) 23 double-stranded chromosomes D) 23 single-stranded chromosomes

55)

In meiosis, crossing-over refers to:

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A) one type of chromosomal mutation B) a process whereby alleles from homologous chromosomes are exchanged C) a process that occurs only on the X chromosome D) a type of gene mutation

56) New combinations of alleles on the same chromosomes as a result of crossing-over is referred to as: A) recombination B) linkage C) mitosis D) homology

57)

Like the production of ova, the production of sperm: A) begins during fetal development B) is a product of meiosis C) is a product of ovogenesis D) none of these

58)

Oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis in that oogenesis: A) leads to sex cells that, if fertilized, will contribute mtDNA to the zygote B) begins in fetal life C) usually produces only one mature ovum at any one time D) all of these

59)

Cytogenetics shows that Mendel's principle of segregation:

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A) does not work on the molecular level B) is based on the separation of chromosomes during meiosis C) is based on the separation of chromosomes during mitosis D) is based on the linkage of genes on a single chromosome

60)

The study of cytogenetics: A) contradicts Mendelian inheritance B) is unrelated to Mendelian inheritance C) grounds Mendelian genetics in biology D) contradicts Mendelian inheritance and is unrelated to Mendelian inheritance

61)

In general, half of the human babies born are males and half are females because: A) the sex chromosomes segregate in the formation of sperm in males B) the sex chromosomes segregate in the formation of ova in females C) one half of the ova carry the male-determining gene D) none of these

62)

Which of the following statements is correct about human chromosomes?

A) A human karyotype shows 46 chromosomes.

B) Humans and chimpanzees possess the same number of chromosomes in each body

cell.

C) DNA, a special coding protein, is located within the chromosome.

D) In humans, an individual who possesses a sex chromosome count of XXY is a female.

63) Large molecules, characteristic of living organisms, are based upon the tendency to form long chains of the atom:

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A) nitrogen B) hydrogen C) carbon D) oxygen

64)

The genetic material is classified chemically as a: A) nucleic acid B) protein C) carbohydrate D) lipid

65)

The basic building blocks of the nucleic acids are: A) amino acids B) nucleotides C) fatty acids D) peptides

66)

A nucleotide is composed of: A) a five-carbon sugar B) a phosphate C) a nitrogenous base D) all of these

67)

Ribose and deoxyribose are:

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A) sugars B) lipids C) amino acids D) fatty acids

68) The nucleotides that make up the RNA contain the pyrimidines uracil and cytosine and the purines guanine and: A) thymine B) proline C) adenine D) tyrosine

69) In the DNA molecule, bonding can take place only between an adenine and a thymine and between a cytosine and a guanine. These are said to be: A) polar bodies B) chromatids C) hybrids D) base pairs

70)

In the DNA molecule, the base adenine always forms a complementary pair with: A) another adenine B) guanine C) thymine D) cytosine

71)

The basic sugar-phosphate-base unit is called a(n):

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A) polypeptide B) protein C) nucleotide D) amino acid

72)

The two categories of bases are: A) purines and pyrimidines B) proteins and lipids C) ribose and deoxyribose D) peptides and phosphates

73)

Physically, the nuclear DNA molecule can be described as a: A) single-stranded chain B) double helix C) two-dimensional ladder D) sphere

74)

Proteins are chains of: A) nucleotides B) amino acids C) lipids D) nucleic acids

75)

Chains of amino acids are referred to as:

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A) polypeptides B) carbohydrates C) lipids D) nucleic acids

76)

In DNA replication:

A) messenger RNA translates each triplet into the corresponding amino acid B) transfer RNA translates each triplet into the corresponding amino acid C) the bonds holding the bases together are broken and the exposed bases attract complementary bases D) mitochondrial DNA is formed based on the template of nuclear DNA

77)

Proteins are manufactured within the cell in structures called: A) mitochondria B) nuclei C) nucleoli D) ribosomes

78)

Enzymes are: A) nucleic acids B) proteins C) carbohydrates D) lipids

79)

Which of the following sequences is correct in relationship to protein synthesis?

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A) nDNA-mRNA-tRNA-protein synthesis B) mRNA-nDNA-tRNA-protein synthesis C) nDNA-tRNA-mRNA-protein synthesis D) tRNA-nDNA-mRNA-protein synthesis

80) The nuclear DNA molecule controls the manufacture of proteins by the following process: A) pieces of the DNA molecule break off and travel to the site of protein manufacture B) the appropriate code is copied and transported by messenger RNA to the site of protein manufacture C) the appropriate code is copied and transported by transfer RNA to the site of protein manufacture D) none of these

81)

Each amino acid is determined by specific three-base units called: A) ribosomes B) nucleotides C) proteins D) codons

82)

Identify the codons that code for the amino acid alanine.

A) GCT, GCC, GCA, GCG B) GGT, GGC, GGA, GGG C) ATT, ATC, ATA D) TTT, TTC, TTA, TTG

83)

Mitochondrial DNA is found in the:

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A) nucleus of the cell B) fat cells only C) cytoplasm D) X and Y chromosomes

84)

Mitochondrial DNA is inherited from: A) the father only B) the mother only C) both the mother and the father D) neither the mother nor the father; it develops after conception

85)

The body uses amino acids: A) to build protein molecules B) to build nucleic acids C) both of these D) neither of these

86) When Mendel crossed a true-breeding violet with a true-breeding white plant, all of the F 1 generation were violet. Therefore, we may conclude that the allele for violet in the pea plant is: A) recessive B) dominant C) codominant D) intermediate in expression

87)

The term phenotype refers to:

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A) a trait that is dominant B) a trait that is recessive C) an individual's genetic makeup D) an observable or measurable characteristic of an individual

88)

The principle of independent assortment:

A) states that inheritance patterns of differing traits are independent of one another B) states that paired hereditary factors separate and form sex cells containing either one or the other factor C) applies only to humans D) states that paired hereditary factors separate and form sex cells containing either one or the other factor and applies only to humans only

89)

Polymorphism refers to: A) the presence of several distinct forms of a gene or a trait within a population B) a trait in which two alleles are codominant C) a single gene that affects multiple aspects of the phenotype D) multiple genes that affect a single aspect of the phenotype

90)

An allele is: A) the complementary base to thymine B) the dominant form of a gene C) an alternate form of a gene D) an X-linked gene

91)

The chromosomes are located within the cell's:

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A) nucleus B) chromatids C) DNA D) cytoplasm

92)

Meiosis is the process by which: A) single-cell organisms reproduce B) growth and replacement of cells occur in multicellular animals C) gametes are produced D) all of these

93)

In the DNA molecule, the base cytosine always forms a complementary pair with: A) another cytosine B) guanine C) thymine D) adenine

94)

Physically, the nuclear DNA molecule can be described as: A) circular, like a snake eating its own tail B) many spheres linked end to end C) a two-dimensional ladder D) a double helix

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

95) Although Charles Darwin's concept of natural selection was partially based on the observation of variability within a species, Darwin did not develop an acceptable mechanism to explain this variability. How did the work of Gregor Mendel help explain a mechanism of biological evolution?

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96) Charles Darwin attempted to explain variability in terms of the blending theory. Describe the blending theory and contrast it to the concepts developed by Gregor Mendel.

97)

How does the concept of segregation differ from the concept of blending?

98) Although the basic Mendelian principles of genetics were discovered through experiments on pea plants, they also apply to all organisms, including humans. Illustrate the concepts of segregation, dominance, and independent assortment using human characteristics.

99) The construction of karyotypes has become a routine diagnostic medical tool. What kind of information does a karyotype provide?

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100) Describe the processes that occur during meiosis that demonstrate the physical basis of independent assortment and segregation.

101)

In what ways do mitosis and meiosis differ from each other?

102)

What is the essential difference between a male and a female in cellular terms?

103)

What has the study of cytogenetics added to our understanding of Mendelian genetics?

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104)

In molecular terms, describe the differences between proteins and nucleic acids.

105) What are the two main types of DNA? In what ways do they differ in structure, function, and mode of inheritance?

106) What is the concept of independent assortment? Are all traits independent from each other?

107) What are antigens and antibodies? Use the ABO blood-type system to explain these terms.

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108) What are some of the major principles and facts about genetics that have been discovered since Mendel's time?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_12e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) A 8) A 9) B 10) A 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) D Version 1

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27) A 28) C 29) D 30) D 31) D 32) D 33) A 34) C 35) B 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) A 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) C 47) D 48) B 49) B 50) B 51) D 52) D 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) A Version 1

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57) B 58) D 59) B 60) C 61) A 62) A 63) C 64) A 65) B 66) D 67) A 68) C 69) D 70) C 71) C 72) A 73) B 74) B 75) A 76) C 77) D 78) B 79) A 80) B 81) D 82) A 83) C 84) B 85) A 86) B Version 1

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87) D 88) A 89) A 90) C 91) A 92) C 93) B 94) D 95) Answers will vary.

96) Answers will vary.

97) Answers will vary.

98) Answers will vary.

99) Answers will vary.

100) Answers will vary.

101) Answers will vary.

102) Answers will vary.

103) Answers will vary.

104) Answers will vary.

105) Answers will vary.

106) Answers will vary.

107) Answers will vary.

108) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 3 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Proteins whose primary function is to destroy or neutralize foreign substances are called enzymes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) When the defects caused by mutation of genes are fully penetrant, they will follow the classical Mendelian pattern of inheritance. ⊚ ⊚

3)

Complete penetrance is characteristic of oncogenes. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

true false

Genes always exist in two forms of alleles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) The feature of the genetic code where a short sequence is repeated many times is actually fairly common in the genome. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) A Y-linked trait is passed down from a father to half of his sons but none of his daughters. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

1

7) Hemophilia is an X-linked trait. If a woman who is a carrier marries a normal man, the proportion of their male offspring that would be expected to have hemophilia is half. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

Down syndrome is caused by an extra X chromosome. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) A person with XY chromosomes could be phenotypically female under certain conditions. ⊚ ⊚

10)

Some of the non-coding DNA has regulatory functions. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

true false

Except for the possible epigenetic factors, clones are exact duplicates of the donor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Amniocentesis is a technique for determining if the parents of a fetus are carriers of a genetic disease. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

2

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

13) A single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) refers to: A) an error in the genetic code involving the replacement of multiple proteins by a single protein B) the presence of only a single allele of a gene C) an error in the genetic code involving a single change of a nucleotide at a particular point D) the presence of a dominant allele and a recessive allele of a single gene

14)

How many major alleles does the ABO blood-type system have?

A) one B) two C) three D) four E) more than four

15) The hemoglobin molecule is composed of four chains of amino acids: two alpha chains and two beta chains. The start of the code of the beta chain is GTGCACCTGACTCCTGAG. This codes for the first six amino acids of this chain: valine-histidine-leucine-threonine-prolineglutamic acid. If a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) occurs in the code for glutamic acid, which of the following will be a consequence of the SNP? A) it will result in a different amino acid replacing glutamic acid B) it will result in glutamic acid replacing all six amino acids at the start of the beta chain C) it will result in the amino acids present after glutamic acid in the beta chain being replaced by different amino acids D) it will result in glutamic acid replacing all amino acids in the beta chain

16)

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited:

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A) skeletal abnormality B) blood disorder C) metabolic abnormality D) psychiatric disorder

17)

Ashkenazi Jews:

A) are the only population to carry the allele for Tay-Sachs disease B) have a high carrier rate for Tay-Sachs disease C) have the lowest carrier rate for Tay-Sachs disease D) may have a high carrier rate for Tay-Sachs disease but also possess a regulator gene that prevents the disease from expressing itself

18)

Achondroplastic dwarfism in humans is inherited as: A) a result of a dominant allele B) a lethal recessive C) an X-linked trait D) a recessive

19) Which of the following is a late-onset genetic disease characterized by the loss of motor control associated with jerky movements and psychiatric symptoms?

A) Klinefelter syndrome B) Turner syndrome C) Tay-Sachs disease D) Huntington's disease

20)

Which of the following is true of Huntington's disease?

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A) it is a result of excessive GGG repeats B) it is a result of excessive CAG repeats C) it is inherited in a codominant pattern D) it is inherited in a recessive pattern

21)

A Punnett square is a grid used in genetics to: A) show the genotypes and their probabilities of a particular gene in a mating B) show the probability of occurrence of the actual phenotypes for a particular gene C) calculate the frequency of a genetic abnormality in a population D) calculate the frequency of a particular phenotype in a population

22) A child is diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease. Both the father and mother are carriers (heterozygous for the disorder). Using the Punnett square, it can be estimated that the probability of them having a phenotypically normal child is: A) 1/4 B) 2/4 C) 3/4 D) 4/4

23) A couple has a child who is diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease. Both the father and mother are carriers (heterozygous for the disorder). Using the Punnett square, it can be estimated that the probability of them having a child with Tay-Sachs disease is: A) 1/4 B) 2/4 C) 3/4 D) 4/4

24)

Deviations from Mendelian genetics include:

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A) polygenic inheritance B) multiple-allele series C) pleiotropy D) all of these

25) Which of the following genetic abnormalities shows the symptoms of excessive mucus production, digestive and respiratory failure, and reduced life expectancy?

A) achondroplastic dwarfism B) beta-thalassemia C) cystic fibrosis D) Tay-Sachs disease

26)

In the context of deviations from Mendelian genetics, polygenic inheritance refers to: A) a specific trait being influenced by more than one gene B) both alleles being expressed in a heterozygous genotype C) three or more alleles existing for a specific gene D) a gene altering the expression of another gene

27)

In the context of deviations from Mendelian genetics, codominance refers to: A) the influence of nongenetic factors on a phenotype B) both alleles being expressed in a heterozygous genotype C) three or more alleles existing for a specific gene D) a gene altering the expression of another gene

28)

In the context of deviations from Mendelian genetics, incomplete penetrance refers to:

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A) the influence of nongenetic factors on a phenotype B) the situation in which an allele that might be expected to be expressed is not C) a single allele affecting an entire series of traits D) a gene altering the expression of another gene

29)

Oncogenes refer to genes with alleles that: A) contribute to the development of cancers B) prevent the expression of cancer-causing genes C) are unaffected by mutation D) behave as dominant alleles

30)

A sex-limited gene is: A) one that is carried on the Y chromosome B) one that is carried on the X chromosome C) one that is carried on either the X or Y chromosome D) expressed in only one of the sexes

31)

The Y chromosome: A) carries the gene that establishes the sex of the individual B) carries very few genes C) is found only in genetic males D) all of these

32)

Ways of determining the sex of an individual include:

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A) phenotypic sex B) chromosomal sex C) genetic sex D) all of these

33)

Which of the following statements is not true?

A) unless certain chemicals are released at a certain time, a human embryo will be

female B) a person with two X chromosomes is always phenotypically female C) an XY individual can be phenotypically female D) phenotypic, chromosomal, and genetic sex do not always agree

34)

The gene that determines male sex is known as: A) SRY B) Andro C) Bly D) Gen

35)

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) a feature, such as stature, may be the result of the action of several genes B) genes may be expressed differently in males and females C) genes always exist in two forms of alleles D) it is possible to have inherited a particular allele that is not expressed in the phenotype

36)

A Y-linked trait is passed down from a father to:

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A) all of his sons but none of his daughters B) none of his sons but all of his daughters C) half of his sons but none of his daughters D) all of his sons and half of his daughters

37)

Hemophilia is due to the presence of an allele on: A) the X chromosome B) the Y chromosome C) an autosome D) none of these

38)

Chromosomal abnormalities: A) never occur B) occur only when there is an abnormal number of chromosomes C) may be the result of breaks in the chromosome D) are not a significant source of miscarriages

39)

Structural aberrations of chromosomes include: A) deletion B) duplication C) inversion D) all of these

40)

A common error in meiosis at the chromosomal level is:

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A) nondisjunction B) deletion C) inversion D) duplication

41)

Which of the following statements is true about trisomy?

A) it is a result of nondisjunction B) it is characterized by the presence of three chromosomes instead of a pair C) Down syndrome is an example of trisomy D) all of these

42) Male phenotype, sterility, small penis, breast enlargement in 40 percent of the cases, and average IQ scores characterize individuals with a sex-chromosome count of: A) XXY B) XYY C) XXX D) X

43)

A person with Klinefelter syndrome: A) is phenotypically male B) is sterile C) has a small penis D) all of these

44)

Persons with Turner syndrome:

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A) are phenotypically male B) have a shield-shaped chest C) are taller than average D) all of these

45)

XXX individuals are said to have: A) Patau syndrome B) Edward syndrome C) Down syndrome D) none of these

46)

An individual with an XXY chromosome combination is said to have: A) Jacob syndrome B) Turner syndrome C) Edward syndrome D) Patau syndrome

47)

Which of the following is true about individuals with XXX chromosome combination?

A) they are taller than average B) they are short in stature C) they are phenotypically female D) they are phenotypically male

48)

A person:

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A) with one X and one Y chromosome could be phenotypically female B) with two X chromosomes could be phenotypically male under certain conditions C) with two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome is phenotypically male D) all of these

49) Which of the following refers to the process whereby segments of chromosomes become detached and then reattach to other nonhomologous chromosomes?

A) deletion B) translocation C) inversion D) duplication

50)

GINA is: A) an acronym for the phrase Genes In a Normal Adult B) an acronym for the phrase Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act C) the name of a girl after which an act of Congress was named D) a nickname for the Human Genome Project

51)

GINA: A) protects Americans against discrimination based on genetic information B) allows insurance companies to exclude people from coverage if they carry certain

alleles C) allows insurance companies to raise premiums on people who carry certain alleles D) allows employers to refuse to hire a person who has a higher probability of expressing a genetic disease than the average person in the population.

52)

An abnormal fetus can sometimes be detected by means of:

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A) blood typing B) pedigree analysis C) amniocentesis D) dermatoglyphics

53)

Amniocentesis is a technique for determining: A) if a fetus has one of many chromosomal and genetic defects B) if the parents of a fetus are carriers C) the blood type of a fetus D) all of these

54)

Which of the following is true of chorionic villus sampling?

A) it is a method for discovering genetic defects in a mother through the sampling of amniotic fluid B) it consists of a sample composed of placental tissue, which is derived from the embryo C) it involves analyzing a cell that has been removed from an early embryonic state in the laboratory D) it is usually performed between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation

55)

Which of the following is true about cell-free fetal DNA?

A) it refers to small pieces of maternal DNA detected after 10 weeks of gestation B) it can be detected in the blood only after 25-27 weeks of gestation C) it refers to small fragments of fetal DNA that cannot be distinguished from the mother's DNA in the blood D) it originates from the placenta

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56) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis refers to the method for determining the presence of genetic disorders in an embryo by: A) viewing and analyzing the radiographic images of the fetus B) analyzing blood samples taken from the mother C) analyzing a cell that has been removed from an early embryonic state in the laboratory D) removing the ovum from the mother and then analyzing it for genetic disorders in the laboratory

57)

Which of the following is true about assisted reproductive technology?

A) the ova from the mother are removed and fertilized by sperm in vivo B) the ova from the mother are removed and fertilized by sperm in the laboratory C) amniotic fluid from the womb is removed and fertilized by sperm in the laboratory D) cell-free fetal DNA is taken and fertilized by sperm in the laboratory

58)

The DNA in a body cell contains about _____ base pairs.

A) 10 billion B) 6 billion C) 8 million D) 1 trillion

59)

Which of the following statements is not true about the Human Genome Project?

A) the project is an attempt to determine the base pair sequence for all human genes B) a complete human genome map would lead to improved diagnosis and treatment of genetic diseases C) there is some concern that the project is not taking into account human diversity D) the project will not be completed for another 50 years

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60)

The first director of the Human Genome Project was: A) Luca Cavalli-Sforza B) Peter Grant C) James Watson D) Francis Crick

61) A new discipline dedicated to the analysis of genetic information and the practical use of that information is: A) bioinformatics B) bioethics C) genomology D) genome analysis

62) A segment of DNA that codes for a polypeptide that has a phenotypic expression is referred to as: A) structural gene B) regulator gene C) activator gene D) repressor gene

63)

Proteins within a cell that prevent the expression of a gene are referred to as: A) structural proteins B) regulator proteins C) activator proteins D) repressor proteins

64)

Regulatory genes:

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A) initiate or block the activity of other genes B) were originally thought by Mendel to be responsible for violet-colored flowers in the pea plant C) "cut" DNA at specific sites D) all of these

65)

The regulation of the expression of a gene: A) is strictly a matter of genetic control B) is strictly a matter of environmental control C) always involves both genetic and environmental controls D) might be genetic or environmental

66)

Which of the following is true about non-coding RNA? A) it is a type of messenger RNA B) it is a type of transfer RNA C) it is not involved in protein synthesis D) it is not involved in the regulation of genes

67)

Activator proteins are protein molecules within the cell that: A) bring about the expression of a gene B) bring about the duplication of a gene C) prevent the expression of a gene D) control the expression of RNA

68)

A fertilized ovum is referred to as a:

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A) spermatid B) clone C) gonad D) zygote

69) There are processes that turn some genes off (silence them) and turn other genes on without actually changing the nucleotide sequence of each gene. These are called ______ processes.

A) supragenetic B) supergenetic C) epigenetic D) novagenetic

70) Cloning is the process of producing ____________ that have the same genetic constitution.

A) genes B) cells C) whole organisms D) all of these

71)

Which of the following statements about cloning is not true?

A) whole organisms can be cloned B) clones are exact duplicates of the donor C) the first mammal has already been cloned D) cloning can be used to insert human genes into nonhuman animals

72) Undifferentiated cells with the potential to become many types of adult specialized cells are called: Version 1

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A) hemocytes B) nerve cells C) stem cells D) lymphocytes

73) A gene that is made in a laboratory and used in place of a defective or undesirable gene is called a(n): A) homeobox gene B) oncogene C) parasitic gene D) artificial gene

74) Matthew is a researcher who corrects genetic defects in individuals by replacing the DNA sequence responsible for the defect with the correct DNA sequence. In this scenario, Matthew most likely is involved in: A) gene therapy B) genetic concordance C) genetic reductionism D) gene polymorphism

75)

Which of the following statements best defines eugenics?

A) it is the study of the three-dimensional structure of all proteins encoded by a given genome B) it is the study of the evolutionary relationships among groups of organisms C) it is the study of the methods that can improve the inherited qualities of a species D) it is the study of the processes that control gene expression without changing the genetic code

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76)

A difference between positive and negative eugenics is that negative eugenics:

A) allows for the regulation of gene expression without changing the genetic code B) allows for the cloning of cells to form tissues or organs for medical procedures C) is used to eliminate deleterious alleles from the gene pool by encouraging persons with such alleles not to reproduce D) is used to increase the frequency of desirable traits by encouraging genetic modification of fetuses

77) The Council on Ethical and Judicial Affairs of the American Medical Association concluded that genetic manipulation for purposes other than the prevention, cure, or treatment of genetic disorders may be permissible if: A) there would be a clear and meaningful benefit to the child whose genes would be modified B) the genetic technology could control human matings to produce desirable traits C) trade-offs could be made with other characteristics or traits to improve the human genome D) citizens with low intelligence were given priority to access the genetic technology over citizens with high intelligence

78)

In the medical arena, the goal of genetic engineering is to: A) enable parents to modify their offspring in terms of eye color and hair B) enhance the performance of athletes C) produce desirable traits in feeble-minded humans D) treat genetic defects

79) The altering of the genetic material to create specific characteristics in individuals is referred to as:

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A) genetic reductionism B) genetic engineering C) genetic concordance D) genetic divergence

80)

Individuals with an abnormal number of sex chromosomes: A) rarely survive to adulthood B) are always phenotypically female C) often show abnormal sex organs and are sterile D) all of these

81)

A person is phenotypically male only if that individual has: A) an XY chromosome combination B) one X chromosome C) Y chromosomes that are more than or equal in number to X chromosomes D) at least one Y chromosome

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

82) Match each sex-chromosome count with the correct phenotypic sex: A. male B. female 1. XXY 2. XYY 3. XXX 4. X-

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83) Over the years it has become apparent that, although the basic principles of genetics uncovered by Gregor Mendel hold true in simple situations, the inheritance patterns of many traits in many organisms appear to deviate from what would be predicted by simple Mendelian genetics. What are some of the explanations for these apparent deviations?

84) What are some of the common errors in cell division and chromosome replication? How do these errors impact the individual?

85) The inheritance of some traits, such as hemophilia, does not follow the classic Mendelian rules. Why?

86)

What are the functions of a genetic counselor?

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87)

What is the Human Genome Project? What are some of the controversies surrounding it?

88)

What are the benefits and possible negative implications of human cloning?

89) What is epigenetics? How might knowledge of epigenetics change our understanding of inheritance?

90) What is the 1000 Genome Project? What do you think might ultimately be the significance of this to human affairs, including medicine?

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91) Explain the process of therapeutic cloning, and describe its advantages over whole organ or tissue transplant.

92) What are some examples of chromosomal abnormalities? What causes these abnormalities?

93) The inheritance of some traits, such as hemophilia, do not follow the classic Mendelian rules. Why?

94) What is the Human Genome Project? What are some of the potential positive benefits of the project? What are some of the controversies surrounding the project?

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95) What is epigenetics, and what is the epigenome? Research this question online to be able to better answer the question.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_12e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) C 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) A 24) D 25) C 26) A Version 1

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27) B 28) B 29) A 30) D 31) D 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) A 41) D 42) A 43) D 44) B 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) A 52) C 53) A 54) B 55) D 56) C Version 1

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57) B 58) B 59) D 60) C 61) A 62) A 63) D 64) A 65) D 66) C 67) A 68) D 69) C 70) D 71) B 72) C 73) D 74) A 75) C 76) C 77) A 78) D 79) B 80) C 81) D 82) 1. A, 2. A, 3. B, 4. B. 83) Answers will vary.

84) Answers will vary.

85) Answers will vary.

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86) Answers will vary.

87) Answers will vary.

88) Answers will vary.

89) Answers will vary.

90) Answers will vary.

91) Answers will vary.

92) Answers will vary.

93) Answers will vary.

94) Answers will vary.

95) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 4 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Both individuals and populations can evolve. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Biological evolution can be defined as a change in the frequency of alleles in the gene pool. ⊚ ⊚

3)

Real-world populations are usually found to be in a state of genetic equilibrium. ⊚ ⊚

4)

2

+ 2pq + q

2

= 1.

true false

The process of genetic drift is most significant in a population that is small. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

If a population is in genetic equilibrium, then p ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

true false

Differential rates of mortality and fertility refer to natural selection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Genetic drift, population bottlenecking, and the founder principle are all examples of sampling error in a population.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) An example of consanguineous mating would be a tall person preferring to mate with another tall person. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

9) That which is evolving is the: A) individual B) lineage C) family D) reproductive population

10)

The largest natural reproductive population is the: A) deme B) species C) subspecies D) genus

11)

Successful reproduction requires: A) successful sexual behavior B) normal development of the fetus C) production of offspring capable of reproducing in turn D) all of these

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12)

The genotype of a population is known as the: A) genetic load B) allele load C) gene pool D) allele pool

13)

Biological evolution can be defined as the change in the frequency of alleles in the: A) genotype B) gene pool C) phenotype D) none of these

14)

A population is not evolving if the allele frequencies remain constant, a situation termed: A) natural selection B) genetic equilibrium C) population equilibrium D) gene pool constancy

15)

Biological evolution can be defined as: A) changes in gene frequencies in response to specific selective pressures B) changes in gene frequencies as a result of changes in mutation rates C) changes in gene frequencies as a result of genetic drift D) any change in gene frequencies from one generation to the next

16) Genetic equilibrium is maintained in a gene pool under ideal conditions. This equilibrium is disturbed by:

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A) nonrandom mating B) mutation C) genetic drift D) all of these

17) Genetic equilibrium is maintained in a gene pool under ideal conditions. This equilibrium is disturbed by: A) gene flow B) random mating C) lack of natural selection D) all of these

18)

A condition that must be assumed for the state of genetic equilibrium is: A) small population size B) low mutation rate C) random mating D) differential fertility

19)

If a population is in genetic equilibrium, the frequency of alleles will: A) remain constant B) change only slightly C) show an increase in dominant alleles D) show an increase in recessive alleles

20)

Genetic equilibrium refers to:

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A) a population with equal amounts of dominant and recessive alleles B) a situation in which there is no change in the frequency of alleles in a population C) individuals who are the most fit in a population D) a population in which matings are completely random

21) by:

The equation p

2

+ 2pq + q

2

= 1 is the algebraic expression of a principle developed

2

= 1 is the algebraic expression for:

A) Darwin and Wallace B) Mendel and Weismann C) Hardy and Weinberg D) Wright and Dobzhansky

22)

The equation p

2

+ 2pq + q

A) genetic equilibrium B) natural selection C) genetic drift D) assortative mating

23) Statistically, how often will a given real-world population be in a state of genetic equilibrium?

A) 100 percent B) 80 percent C) 25 percent D) 0 percent E) impossible to determine

24)

In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, 2pq refers to the frequency of:

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A) AA B) Aa C) aa D) AA + aa

25)

If a population is in genetic equilibrium, then p

2

+ 2pq + q

2

=:

2

+ _____ + q

2

A) 0 B) ½ C) 1 D) 10

26)

If a population is in genetic equilibrium, then p

= 1.

A) 2pq B) pq C) 1 D) p 2q 2

27) If 36 percent of the individuals in a population have the genotype aa, then the frequency of the allele a is: A) 0.032 B) 0.32 C) 0.40 D) 0.60

28) In a population, if 36 percent of the individuals tested are nontasters ( tt), what is the frequency of the allele T?

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A) 0.36 B) 0.40 C) 0.48 D) 0.60

29) In a population, if 25 percent are nontasters ( tt), the frequency of the recessive allele would be: A) 0.05 B) 0.10 C) 0.25 D) 0.50

30) If the frequency of a recessive allele is 0.7, it follows that the frequency of the dominant allele would be: A) 0.30 B) 0.40 C) 0.60 D) 0.90

31) If allele A has a frequency of 0.70 and allele a has a frequency of 0.30, then the frequency of the heterozygote genotype would be: A) 0.42 B) 0.36 C) 0.21 D) 0. 09

32) In a population, 170 people are AA, 230 are Aa, and 100 are aa. The frequencies of the alleles A and a are: Version 1

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A) 0.25 and 0.75, respectively B) 0.34 and 0.20, respectively C) 0.57 and 0.43, respectively D) 0.66 and 0.34, respectively

33) aa?

In the population given above, what are the frequencies of the genotypes AA, Aa, and

A) 0.68, 0.92, 0.40 B) 0.25, 0.50, 0.25 C) 0.33, 0.50, 0.17 D) 0.34, 0.46, 0.20

34)

Is the population given above in genetic equilibrium?

A) No; it is far from being in genetic equilibrium.

B) Yes; observed and expected frequencies are the same.

C) The population is close to being in genetic equilibrium, with the expected and observed phenotypic frequencies being close together.

35)

The term that refers to the totality of recessive lethal alleles in a population is: A) mutation index B) gene pool C) genetic load D) lethal load

36)

A lethal allele is defined as:

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A) an allele that destroys its complementary allele B) an allele that, when expressed, causes death through natural causes/old age C) an allele that, when expressed, causes death before reproductive age D) any allele that causes a disease

37)

A mechanism for evolutionary change is: A) mutation B) genetic drift C) gene flow D) all of these

38)

Mutation occurs: A) to fulfill a need B) randomly C) only because of radiation D) in only about one out of 100 persons

39)

An error at a particular point on the DNA molecule is referred to as a: A) point mutation B) genetic drift C) allele mutation D) chromosome mutation

40)

A new mutation may be:

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A) deleterious B) neutral C) beneficial D) all of these

41)

A new mutation is most likely to be: A) deleterious B) neutral C) beneficial D) all of these

42)

A mutagen is: A) a factor that is capable of causing mutations B) a neutral mutation C) a beneficial mutation D) a harmful mutation

43)

H. J. Muller is known for his research on the: A) relationship between mutations and narcotic drugs B) causes of spontaneous mutation C) relationship between induced mutation and x-rays D) sequencing of genes on the chromosome

44)

Mutations may result from:

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A) radiation B) certain chemicals and drugs C) some viruses D) all of these

45)

Mutations caused by human-made substances or activities are: A) spontaneous mutations B) induced mutations C) of no evolutionary significance D) all of these

46)

Which of the following is true about mutations?

A) While most mutations do not confer any advantage to a population, over time, they provide for increased variability.

B) Modern medical technology has significantly reduced the number of new mutations in the human population.

C) Microevolution is the accumulation of mutations over time.

D) New mutations occur in order to increase the probability of a population surviving in a particular habitat.

47)

Sampling error includes the phenomenon of: A) founder principle B) nonrandom mating C) genetic drift D) founder principle and genetic drift

48)

The process of genetic drift is most significant in a population that is:

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A) small B) large C) under stress D) primitive

49) If a population of early humans reduced from 50,000 to 500 individuals because of a natural disaster, we might find that the resulting and future populations show (when compared with the original population): A) no changes in gene frequencies B) greater genotypic and phenotypic variations C) less genotypic and phenotypic variations D) a further reduction in population size, leading to extinction

50)

The phenomenon described in the above question is called: A) balanced polymorphism B) population bottlenecking C) generation gap D) gene flow

51) A small group of individuals who colonize a new area most likely will not represent a random sample of alleles of the population from which they came. This is the concept of: A) genetic drift B) assortative mating C) founder principle D) nonrandom mating

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52) The United States is a country of immigrants. Newly arrived immigrants tend to settle near one another for social comfort and support, thus forming small, semi-isolated populations.

The frequencies of the ABO blood types in these populations are often very different from the population of the mother country. This is due to the fact that: A) the small size of the immigrant population is not a random sample of the mother population B) mutation rates are higher in the United States C) natural selection quickly produces changes in the frequencies of ABO blood types D) none of these

53) An earthquake occurs and destroys 95 percent of a specific population. The surviving population displays gene frequencies that are different from those of the original population. This is likely due to: A) new spontaneous mutations adaptive to the possibilities of more earthquakes B) sampling error C) increased mutation rates D) new selective pressures that arise after the earthquake

54)

Gene flow refers to:

A) the tendency of a gene to gradually move (flow) from one position on a chromosome to another B) people migrating to a new geographic area C) the process by which alleles from one gene pool move into another gene pool D) the movement of people across oceans or other large bodies of water

55)

Migration refers to:

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A) a long-term movement to a new area B) movement to a new area, including a short trip C) a high death rate due to natural selection in new areas D) rapid evolutionary change

56)

Those more likely to be responsible for gene flow are: A) women B) men C) both sexes equally

57)

Gene flow can result in: A) alteration of the effects of genetic drift B) mutation C) homogenization of populations D) alteration of the effects of genetic drift and homogenization of populations

58)

Assortative mating occurs when: A) people with certain phenotypes mate at nonrandom frequencies B) siblings or other very closely related people mate C) people mate at random with regard to phenotype D) none of these

59)

An example of assortative mating would be:

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A) people mating at random B) tall people tending to mate with tall people C) people tending to mate with their first cousins D) all of these

60)

Cross-cousin preferential marriage is a form of: A) consanguineous mating B) assortative mating C) random mating D) none of these

61) A high frequency of consanguineous matings most likely would result in an increase in the frequency of: A) homozygous genotypes B) heterozygous genotypes C) recessive alleles D) none of these

62) In tribal societies, trust is placed with family members as opposed to those outside the family. This extends to marriage, where the most desirable marriages are with relatives. In one society on the northwest coast of British Columbia, the most desirable marriage is between a boy and his mother's brother's daughter, which makes his mother's brother (maternal uncle) his father-in-law. This type of mating is called: A) assortative mating B) consanguineous mating C) incest D) random mating

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63)

Consanguineous mating within a population would tend to: A) decrease the homogeneity of that population B) increase the homogeneity of that population C) increase the heterogeneity of that population D) have no effect on the gene pool

64)

The unusual gene frequencies among the Amish can be explained on the basis of: A) the founder principle B) genetic drift C) consanguineous mating D) all of these

65)

"Differential rates of mortality and fertility" is known as: A) genetic drift B) mutation C) differential migration D) natural selection

66)

Natural selection refers to: A) mutations B) genetic equilibrium C) nonrandom mating D) none of these

67)

Not all matings are equally fertile. This is part of:

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A) genetic equilibrium B) genetic drift C) genetic load D) natural selection

68)

The unit of evolution is the: A) family B) reproductive population C) individual D) breeding pair

69)

The genotype of a population is known as the: A) gene equilibrium B) genetic load C) gene pool D) allele sum

70)

If a population is in genetic equilibrium: A) the allele frequencies remain constant B) the allele frequencies are changing in a specific direction C) there are more dominant than recessive alleles D) there are more recessive than dominant alleles

71)

A condition that must be assumed for the state of genetic equilibrium is:

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A) a small and isolated population B) random mating C) consanguineous mating D) all of these

72)

In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, q

2

refers to the frequency of:

A) AA B) Aa C) aa

73)

The term genetic load refers to: A) the sum of all the alleles in the population B) the sum of all the alleles in an individual C) the totality of recessive alleles in an individual's genotype D) the totality of recessive lethal alleles in the population

74)

The ultimate source of all biological variation is: A) mutation B) natural selection C) genetic drift D) nonrandom mating

75) In the 1800s, the small population of the island of Martha's Vineyard included many people who were congenitally deaf. Everyone there spoke sign language because so many people had deaf neighbors or relatives. They could trace this trait back to a few of the original settlers on the island, who were deaf and in the same family. What is the most likely explanation, in evolutionary terms, why so many people on the island were deaf?

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A) One of the few founders of the population carried the allele for deafness.

B) There was a mutation causing the gene for deafness.

C) Gene flow onto the island continually brought in genes for deafness from the mainland.

D) The foghorns on the island provided a selective advantage to being deaf.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

76) In genetic terms, what is a population? How can the phenotype and genotype of a population be described?

77)

Write a concise definition of evolution in genetic terms.

78)

What are the purposes of the Hardy-Weinberg formula?

79) Describe the state of genetic equilibrium. How common is genetic equilibrium in natural populations?

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80) What is meant by the term genetic load? What facts bring about an increase in the genetic load and what are some of the consequences of this increase?

81) What are the five main forces of evolutionary change? How do they affect the gene frequencies of a population?

82)

What is a sampling error? How is this concept applied in population genetics studies?

83) What is the difference between random, consanguineous, and assortative matings? Give an example of each.

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84) Think of some of the nonrandom criteria you might use to choose a mate. Speculate about how these criteria might or might not affect the phenotypes of your offspring.

85)

Define biological evolution. What does natural selection act on? What actually evolves?

86) Genetic equilibrium is maintained in a gene pool under ideal conditions. What forces disturb this equilibrium?

87)

What are the three forms of sampling error? How do they differ from each other?

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88) Give a real or hypothetical example of how the forces of evolution work together to create evolutionary change.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_12e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) D 10) B 11) D 12) C 13) B 14) B 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) A Version 1

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27) D 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) C 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) C 44) D 45) B 46) A 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) B 51) C 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) A 56) B Version 1

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57) D 58) A 59) C 60) A 61) A 62) C 63) B 64) D 65) D 66) D 67) D 68) B 69) C 70) A 71) B 72) C 73) D 74) A 75) A 76) Answers will vary.

77) Answers will vary.

78) Answers will vary.

79) Answers will vary.

80) Answers will vary.

81) Answers will vary.

82) Answers will vary.

83) Answers will vary.

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84) Answers will vary.

85) Answers will vary.

86) Answers will vary.

87) Answers will vary.

88) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 5 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Microevolution refers to any change in the frequency of alleles in the gene pool of a population. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Out of a population of 1,340,997 people, an earthquake kills 3,120 people only because those people happened to be in buildings that were destroyed by the earthquake. This illustrates that the earthquake was a selective agent. ⊚ ⊚

3)

People in Africa were dying of malaria, so the sickle-cell allele came into being. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

A female's reproductive success is most limited by access to males. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

true false

Sexual dimorphism is a result of intrasexual selection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Inclusive fitness refers to one's fitness plus that individual's influence on the fitness of all relatives. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

1

7)

The smallest possible population, the local population, is the species. ⊚ ⊚

8)

Speciation is usually initiated by geographic isolation. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

true false

Species that occupy mutually exclusive geographical areas are called sympatric species. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10) Microevolution refers to: A) any change in the frequency of alleles in the gene pool of a population B) only changes that occur because of natural selection C) only changes due to mutations D) the evolution of new species

11)

The deliberate breeding of domesticated plants or animals is called: A) natural selection B) artificial selection C) breeding selection D) sexual selection

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12) The presence of several distinct forms within a population—such as A, B, O, and AB blood types—is termed: A) pleiotropy B) polytypy C) polymorphism D) none of these

13)

The specific place where a particular animal lives is that animal's: A) habitat B) environment C) ecological niche D) none of these

14)

The living elements that surround an organism, such as plant life, are the: A) physical environment B) biological environment C) cultural environment D) microenvironment

15) The specific term used for the elements of the environment that are products of human behavior is the: A) ecological niche B) physical environment C) cultural environment D) habitat

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16) Each species occupies a(n) _______ that is defined in terms of space and how that space is used by the organism.

A) ecological niche B) habitat C) microenvironment D) microhabitat

17)

The term ecological niche refers to: A) everything external to the organism B) the microhabitat C) the way the microenvironment is exploited by the organism D) the microhabitat and the way the microenvironment is exploited by the organism

18)

Any factor that brings about differential fertility is called a: A) selective agent B) selective pressure C) mutation agent D) mutation rate

19)

An example of a selective agent in humans would be: A) smallpox B) an earthquake C) a flood D) all of these

20)

A selective agent places __________ on certain individuals in the population.

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A) selective advantage B) selective pressure C) differential pressure D) differential advantage

21)

Selective agents act on the ______ of members of the population.

A) genotype B) phenotype

22)

Fitness is:

A) a measure of how well a particular individual or group is adapted to the requirements imposed by the environment B) the degree of physical strength an organism has in relationship to other organisms of its species C) a measure of the degree of good health an organism or group of organisms displays D) the degree of physical strength an organism has in relationship to other organisms of its species and a measure of the degree of good health an organism or group of organisms displays

23)

Fitness refers to:

A) characteristics a society values, such as education B) health and strength of an organism C) resistance to disease D) how well an individual or population is adapted to the requirements imposed by the environment

24)

Fitness:

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A) varies with the situation B) always remains constant even with changing environments C) of a heterozygous individual is never greater than that of a homozygous individual D) is always the greatest for a homozygous individual

25)

Fitness could best be measured by how: A) strong an individual is B) healthy an individual is C) many offspring an individual has D) many dominant alleles an individual has

26) Mosquitoes have been controlled in most parts of the world by the spraying of DDT. But after years of repeated sprayings, the number of mosquitoes has been increasing in spite of the continued use of DDT because: A) each new generation of mosquitoes grew up with DDT as a part of the environment and gradually developed immunity B) mosquitoes exposed to nonlethal concentrations of DDT learned to avoid food and other matters sprayed with DDT C) DDT-resistant mosquitoes survived to breed, as did their offspring, until more and more of each year's mosquitoes were resistant D) none of these

27)

Darwin's finches are found in: A) the Hawaiian Islands B) the Galápagos Islands C) the Trobriand Islands D) New Guinea

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28) Peter and Rosemary Grant observed natural selection taking place on the island of Daphne Major located: A) in the Channel Islands off the coast of California B) off the east coast of South Africa C) in the Andaman Islands off the west coast of Thailand D) in the Galápagos Islands off the west coast of South America

29)

Studies of Darwin's finches were done by: A) Peter and Rosemary Grant B) Louis and Mary Leakey C) Robert and Rebecca Fitzroy D) Richard and Meave Leakey

30)

During a drought on Daphne Major, the larger and harder seeds were available to eat, so: A) birds with smaller beaks had an advantage B) birds with larger beaks had an advantage C) no birds died since there was still some food available D) birds of every size died in equal numbers

31) When the Grants measured the beaks of the birds on Daphne Major after the drought, they found: A) a large number of the birds had died as a result of the drought B) the survivors of the drought had a larger average beak size C) beak size is inherited, so the next generation had a larger average beak size D) all of these

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32) As a result of a drought, the average size of a bird's beaks on Daphne Major increased.

This is an example of: A) directional selection B) disruptive selection C) stabilizing selection D) averaging selection

33) Human infants that are lighter or heavier in weight have a lower chance of survival than those of average weight. This is an example of: A) directional selection B) disruptive selection C) stabilizing selection D) averaging selection

34) When natural selection favors the two extremes and individuals near the mean have lower fertility rates, this is termed: A) directional selection B) disruptive selection C) stabilizing selection D) averaging selection

35)

Which of the following statements is incorrect about the ABO blood type system?

A) There are three major alleles for the system.

B) There appears to be selective significance between the ABO system and certain types of diseases.

C) Blood type O is the most frequent blood type in all human populations.

D) One or more of the four ABO blood types could be absent from a specific population.

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36)

Sickle-cell anemia is caused by the presence of _____ within the red blood cells.

A) hemoglobin S (HbS) B) hemoglobin A 2 (HbA 2) C) hemoglobin A (HbA) D) fetal hemoglobin (HbF)

37)

A person who develops the disease sickle-cell anemia: A) is homozygous for HbA B) is homozygous for HbS C) is heterozygous

38)

A person with sickle-cell traits is: A) is homozygous for HbA B) is homozygous for HbS C) is heterozygous

39)

Relatively high frequencies of hemoglobin S are found in: A) Central Africa B) Southern Europe C) Middle East D) all of these

40)

Hemoglobin S conveys a selective advantage to:

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A) tuberculosis B) malaria C) smallpox D) yaws

41) The increase in the incidences of malaria in Africa historically was most directly related to the development of: A) fishing B) herding C) agriculture D) industrialism

42) Which of the following statements is logically correct? People in Africa were dying of malaria: A) so the sickle-cell allele came into being B) so mutation occurred that would protect them C) but an allele existed, which provided some protection against malaria to those who have the allele

43)

Malaria is caused by: A) the genetic coding for an abnormal hemoglobin B) a virus carried by rats C) humid weather conditions D) parasites of the blood transmitted by mosquitoes

44) A situation in which a heterozygous individual is the best fit results in a situation referred to as:

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A) allele maintenance B) balanced heterozygosity C) balanced polymorphism D) heterozygote maintenance

45) Characteristics that increase the success of a male competing for females will increase over time through: A) natural selection B) gender selection C) sexual selection D) competition selection

46) A female's reproductive success is most limited by ____________; a male's reproductive success is most limited by ____________.

A) access to males; access to females B) access to resources; access to females C) access to males; access to resources D) access to resources; access to resources

47)

Selection for traits that make males more attractive to females is termed: A) intersexual selection B) intrasexual selection C) countersexual selection D) infrasexual selection

48)

Selection for traits that make males more able to compete directly for females is termed:

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A) intersexual selection B) intrasexual selection C) countersexual selection D) infrasexual selection

49)

An example of intersexual selection would be:

A) females preferring males with large, safe territories B) a peacock with a brightly colored tail C) males being significantly larger than females D) females preferring males with large, safe territories and a peacock with a brightly colored tail

50)

Sexual dimorphism is a result of: A) intersexual selection B) intrasexual selection C) countersexual selection D) infrasexual selection

51)

The large and colorful tail of a peacock is the result of: A) intersexual selection B) intrasexual selection C) countersexual selection D) infrasexual selection

52)

Which of the following is not true of human mate choice?

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A) Males value appearance more than females.

B) Females value educational background and favorable social status more than males.

C) Males prefer younger women.

D) Culture has no influence on traits that males and females prefer.

53)

David Buss's study of human mate choice led him to conclude: A) males prefer women who can reproduce successfully B) females prefer men who can provide resources C) many mate preferences are found cross-culturally D) all of these

54)

Evolutionary biologists define altruism as behavior that:

A) decreases the reproductive success of an individual but benefits the reproductive success of another individual B) benefits the reproductive success of another individual without having any effect on the fitness of the individual doing the altruism C) increases the reproductive success of an individual but decreases the reproductive success of another individual D) benefits the reproductive success of both the individual doing the altruism and the other individual involved

55)

An individual who acts to increase the fitness of a close relative is demonstrating: A) reciprocal altruism B) kin favoring C) kin selection D) sexual selection

56)

Based on the theory of kin selection, you should perform the most altruism toward your:

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A) aunt B) grandfather C) sibling D) cousin

57)

The coefficient of relatedness between a parent and offspring is: A) 1 B) ½ C) ¼ D) ⅛

58)

The coefficient of relatedness between siblings is: A) 1 B) ½ C) ¼ D) ⅛

59)

Inclusive fitness refers to:

A) one's personal fitness plus the fitness that all of one's relatives contribute to the individual B) one's fitness plus that individual's influence on the fitness of all relatives C) one's fitness plus the fitness of one's mate D) the additive fitness that an individual possesses for all environmental situations that the individual is exposed to

60) Because inclusive fitness refers to altruistic acts that benefit relatives, it is sometimes called:

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A) altruistic selection B) genetic determinism C) relative selection D) kin selection

61)

The measure of how likely two individuals are to share the same allele is called: A) the coefficient of relatedness B) homozygosity C) allele transference D) kin selection

62)

Macroevolution refers to: A) large-scale evolutionary changes such as speciation B) small-scale evolutionary changes based on natural selection C) the relationship between humans and very large animals D) how the evolution of one species affects the evolution of another species

63)

The smallest possible population, the local population, is the: A) cline B) deme C) race D) species

64)

A deme is:

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A) a group of animals who mate most frequently with each other as opposed to other groups B) the largest possible population C) an infertile hybrid D) microhabitat

65)

A distribution of frequencies that shows a systematic gradation over space is a: A) graded distribution B) clinal distribution C) macro distribution D) micro distribution

66)

Speciation is usually initiated by: A) mutation B) nonrandom mating C) allelic recombination D) geographical isolation

67)

A necessity for speciation is some type of: A) climatic change B) spatial isolation C) cataclysmic event D) all of these

68)

Reproductive isolating mechanisms:

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A) are initiated by geographic isolation B) occur within a deme C) occur before geographic isolation D) are initiated by geographic isolation and occur within a deme

69)

Spatial isolation: A) cuts off gene flow between groups B) allows reproductive isolating mechanisms to develop C) allows for the genetic reconstitution of the separated populations D) all of these

70)

Reproductive isolation that results from incompatibility in mating behavior is termed: A) ecological isolation B) sexual isolation C) seasonal isolation D) mechanical isolation

71)

Which of the following is a postmating mechanism of reproductive isolation?

A) hybrid sterility B) zygotic mortality C) hybrid inviability D) all of these

72)

Which of the following are factors in speciation?

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A) genetic drift B) natural selection C) mutation D) all of these

73)

Species that occupy mutually exclusive geographical areas are called: A) allopatric species B) ecological species C) sympatric species D) hybrid species

74) Different species living in the same area but prevented from successfully reproducing are called: A) allopatric species B) ecological species C) sympatric species D) hybrid species

75)

The mule is an example of: A) hybrid sterility B) hybrid inviability C) gametic mortality D) sexual isolation

76)

In evolutionary terms, the term "competition" means that populations:

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A) show aggressive behavior toward one another B) share the same territory C) occupy the same or parts of the same niche D) all of these

77)

Preadaptation:

A) refers to the potential to adapt to a new niche B) refers to the need to adapt to a new niche C) would more often characterize an ecologically specialized species as opposed to a generalized one D) is not important to species that remain within one locality

78)

Generalization: A) allows for a greater tolerance of environmental change B) characterizes humans as a whole C) characterizes the koala D) allows for a greater tolerance of environmental change and characterizes humans as a

whole E) allows for a greater tolerance of environmental change and characterizes the koala

79)

A species that can survive in a variety of ecological niches is known as a(n): A) specialized species B) ecological species C) generalized species D) niche species

80)

A specialized species:

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A) is closely fitted to a specific niche B) cannot tolerate much change in its niche C) exhibits little variation D) all of these

81)

Specialization could lead to all of the following except: A) greater ability to adapt to a greater variety of ecological niches B) evolutionary dead ends C) speciation D) greater ability to adapt to a greater variety of ecological niches and speciation

82)

The phyletic gradualism model sees evolution as: A) basically static B) a slow process with gradual transformation of one population into another C) fairly rapid evolutionary change resulting in a multitude of species

83) The phyletic gradualism model of evolution assumes that the rate of evolutionary change is characterized by: A) abrupt changes followed by periods of no change at all B) slow but constant change C) rapid but constant change D) alternating patterns of rapid and slow periods of change

84) The punctuated equilibrium model might explain evolution on the ____________ level better than does the phyletic gradualism model.

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A) molecular B) genotypic C) phenotypic D) molecular and phenotypic

85)

The model of evolution characterized by an uneven tempo of change is known as: A) phyletic gradualism B) punctuated equilibrium C) disequilibrium D) asymmetrical speciation

86)

A gene that regulates or blocks the activities of another gene is called a: A) regulatory gene B) adjunct gene C) related gene D) helper gene

87) Chimpanzees and humans are very similar genetically and much less similar phenotypically. This is likely due to: A) many differences in structural genes B) a few changes in regulatory genes C) a few changes in structural genes D) none of these

88)

In order for an organism to move into a new ecological niche:

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A) there has to be physical access to the new niche B) the individuals entering the new niche must be preadapted to some degree C) the new niche must be unoccupied or the entering organisms must be able to compete successfully with existing populations D) all of these

89)

The evolution of a single population into a number of different species is called: A) phyletic expansion B) punctuated equilibrium C) adaptive radiation D) natural diversion

90) The red colobus monkey is an African arboreal monkey that eats leaves and spends most of its time in the upper story of the forest. This is specifically a description of the colobus monkey's: A) environment B) habitat C) microhabitat D) ecological niche

91)

Fitness is a measure of:

A) how well adapted an individual is to the requirements imposed by a specific ecological niche B) the overall health and well-being of a population of animals in a specific habitat C) how adaptable an animal might be to a new ecological niche D) how well two different species are able to share the same habitat

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92) If individuals with small and large body sizes are selected against, shifting the population in the direction of average body size, this is an example of: A) directional selection B) stabilizing selection C) disruptive selection D) sexual selection

93) If people with a particular phenotype brought about by a dominant allele had only half the children, on average, than people without the trait, we would say these people had a ________ of 0.5.

A) biased fitness B) relative fitness C) phenotype disadvantage D) genotype disadvantage

94) In areas where malaria is prevalent, it is best to be heterozygous for the sickle-cell allele.

This results in a situation referred to as: A) heterozygous polymorphism B) balanced phenotypism C) balanced polymorphism D) a multiple allele series

95) An altruistic act, while being detrimental to the individual himself or herself, may raise that individual's: A) inclusive fitness B) reproductive potential C) kin-based fitness D) gene-based fitness

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96)

Closely related species that live in the same region may be isolated because: A) there are slight differences in the niches that they occupy B) their breeding seasons are not at the same time C) any hybrid individual may be inviable or sterile D) all of these

97)

A species that can survive in a variety of ecological niches is referred to as a: A) comprehensive species B) generalized species C) global species D) ranging species

98) In the Galápagos Islands, a single mainland species of finch evolved into 13 new species upon reaching the islands. This is an example of: A) ancestral diversion B) phyletic gradualism C) adaptive radiation D) additive speciation

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

99) What is a one-word synonym for environment? The text talks about three types of environment. What are these three types of environments and what characterizes each?

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100) What is the difference between the concept of environment and the concept of habitat?

How does the concept of an ecological niche differ from the two concepts mentioned above?

101)

How does natural selection act upon a population to change gene frequencies?

102) Why is the expression "survival of the fit" more descriptive than the expression "survival of the fittest"?

103)

Give some examples of how natural selection has operated on human populations.

104) Outline the differences between the phyletic gradualism and the punctuated equilibrium models of evolution.

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105) Create a hypothetical population and describe the steps that could occur to segment that population into two or more species.

106) Two keys to the understanding of the process of evolutionary change are reproductive success and reproductive isolation. Write a paragraph explaining microevolutionary change using these two concepts.

107) What is meant by the term "preadaptation"? How does the concept relate to the statement "Necessity is not the mother of (biological) invention"?

108)

Explain the differences between natural selection, sexual selection, and kin selection.

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109)

Define the three different types of selection, including how they differ from one another.

110) Mosquitoes have been controlled in most parts of the world by the spraying of DDT. But after years of repeated sprayings, the number of mosquitoes has been increasing in spite of the continued use of DDT. Explain why this is the case.

111)

Explain the alternative models of phyletic gradualism and punctuated equilibrium.

112) The main factor that initiates speciation is geographic isolation. Discuss this factor and what might occur after the geographic isolation of segments of species that could ultimately lead to speciation.

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113) What does it mean when we say a species is either more generalized or more specialized than another species? Explain these concepts in detail.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_12e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) C 26) C Version 1

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27) B 28) D 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) B 41) C 42) C 43) D 44) C 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) B 51) A 52) D 53) D 54) A 55) C 56) C Version 1

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57) B 58) B 59) B 60) D 61) A 62) A 63) B 64) A 65) B 66) D 67) B 68) A 69) D 70) B 71) D 72) D 73) A 74) C 75) A 76) C 77) A 78) D 79) C 80) D 81) A 82) B 83) B 84) C 85) B 86) A Version 1

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87) B 88) D 89) C 90) D 91) A 92) B 93) B 94) C 95) A 96) D 97) B 98) C 99) Answers will vary.

100) Answers will vary.

101) Answers will vary.

102) Answers will vary.

103) Answers will vary.

104) Answers will vary.

105) Answers will vary.

106) Answers will vary.

107) Answers will vary.

108) Answers will vary.

109) Answers will vary.

110) Answers will vary.

111) Answers will vary.

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112) Answers will vary.

113) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 6 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) The form of the modern system of biological classification is based upon the work of Charles Darwin. ⊚ ⊚

2)

Linnaeus saw a species as variable and changing. ⊚ ⊚

3)

true false

true false

Structures that have evolved from a common ancestry are called homologies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Many Australian marsupials closely resemble placental mammals. This is because of convergent evolution. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) When comparing mammals and reptiles, the fact that mammals are homeothermic would be considered a shared derived feature. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

Humans belong to the phylum Arthropoda. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

1

7)

Vertebrates include birds, reptiles, and mammals. ⊚ ⊚

8)

Mammals are ectotherms. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

There are mammals that lay eggs but also produce milk for their young. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

true false

Humans belong to the order Primate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) A system of ordering data is called: A) an arrangement B) taxonomy C) a classification D) nomenclature

12)

Taxonomy is the study of:

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A) evolutionary relationships among organisms B) the history of animal classification C) comparative anatomy D) classification

13)

The form of the modern system of biological classification is based upon the work of: A) Alfred Russell Wallace B) Charles Darwin C) Carolus Linnaeus D) Charles Lyell

14)

The basic unit of classification in Linnaeus's scheme is the: A) kingdom B) family C) genus D) species

15)

Which of the following groups contains the largest number of animals?

A) arthropods B) mammals C) fish D) reptiles

16)

Early classification schemes were based upon the divine unit of creation known as the:

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A) prototype B) category C) kindred D) archetype

17)

An archetype can be considered to be: A) a reproductive population B) the class of animals to which a specific species belongs C) the divine plan for a particular animal D) the reconstructed common ancestor of a group of organisms

18)

Linnaeus saw a species as: A) variable and changing B) unchanging and distinct C) based on a divine blueprint D) unchanging and distinct and based on a divine blueprint

19) The first person to categorize human beings in the same order ("primates") as apes and monkeys was: A) Carolus Linnaeus, 1758 B) Charles Darwin, 1859 C) Francis Crick, 1953 D) Human beings are not categorized as primates.

20)

An example of a taxon would be a(n):

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A) archetype B) order C) binomen D) clade

21)

A binomen includes: A) family and order B) genus and species C) genus and family D) order and class

22)

The higher taxa include all of the following except: A) genus B) family C) order D) class

23)

Humans belong to the species: A) Homo B) Sapiens C) Homo sapiens

24)

Which taxonomic group contains the greatest number of organisms?

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A) class B) order C) genus D) family

25)

The taxa between class and family is: A) species B) genus C) order D) phylum

26) If a newly discovered monkey population was named Cercopithecus albigena, it would be most closely related to: A) Cercocebus albigena B) Cercopithecus hamlyni C) Cercocebus torquatus D) Parapithecus albigena

27)

Phylogeny is the: A) study of fossil pollen B) growth and development of an individual C) interaction of several genes D) evolutionary history of species

28)

Modern biological classifications are based upon:

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A) archetypes B) habitats C) evolutionary relationships D) none of these

29)

Structures that have evolved from a common ancestry are called: A) homologies B) analogies C) phylogenies D) ontogenies

30) are:

Similarities in the anatomy of species that are not due to a common evolutionary ancestry

A) homoplastic B) archetypical C) homologous D) binomial

31)

Homoplastic similarities can evolve as a result of: A) parallelism or convergence B) inheritance from a common ancestor C) transformation D) cladistics

32)

A bird's wing and a bat's wing are said to be:

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A) homologous structures B) convergent structures C) archetypical structures D) cladograms

33)

Many Australian marsupials closely resemble placental mammals. This is called: A) parallel evolution B) homologous evolution C) convergent evolution D) archetypical evolution

34) There are many similarities in the bones of the forelimb in vertebrates (including humans, dogs, and birds). They would be referred to as being: A) homologous B) homoplastic C) archetypical D) convergent

35)

Whales are most closely related to: A) elephants B) primates C) rodents D) hoofed mammals

36)

Cladistics is an approach to classification based upon:

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A) the reconstruction of archetypes B) the assigning of a numerical value to similarities C) an analysis of reproductive isolation D) an analysis of recently and distantly evolved features

37) Features that first appeared in the distant past and are shared by a large number of populations are called: A) autapomorphic features B) shared (synapomorphic) derived features C) shared (symplesiomorphic) ancestral features D) archetypes

38) Homologies that appeared most recently and are therefore shared by a relatively small group of closely related taxa are called: A) autapomorphic features B) shared derived features C) shared ancestral features D) shared archetypical features

39) When comparing a North American wolf and a whale, the fact that they both have a placenta would be considered a(n): A) autapomorphic feature B) shared derived feature C) shared ancestral feature D) shared archetypical feature

40) When comparing mammals and reptiles, the fact that mammals are homeothermic would be considered a(n): Version 1

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A) autapomorphic feature B) shared derived feature C) shared ancestral feature D) shared archetypical feature

41) a:

A graphic representation of the evolutionary relationships among species or other taxa is

A) spectrogram B) phylogram C) cladogram D) kandigram

42)

The term clade refers to: A) a set of species descended from a particular ancestral species B) a group of species that share many convergences C) a species found in many different habitats D) a species that has remained unchanged for at least a million years

43)

The domain Eukaryota consists of organisms characterized by: A) cells with distinct nuclei B) internal skeleton and jaws C) terrestrial lifestyles D) the ability to make food from air and water

44)

Which of the following taxa is not a kingdom?

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A) Animalia B) Chordata C) Planti D) Fungi

45) Multicellular organisms that derive their nutrients by consuming other organisms and can respond quickly to changes in their environment belong to the kingdom: A) Monera B) Protista C) Planti D) Animalia

46) A multicellular organism that synthesizes food from inorganic materials and is not highly mobile is most likely a(n): A) animal B) plant C) arthropod D) chordate

47)

All chordates possess at some point in their life cycle: A) radial symmetry B) gill slits C) a diaphragm D) all of these

48)

The notochord is:

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A) an internal skeletal element B) a nerve chord C) an element of the circulatory system D) a musical instrument

49)

Which of the following is not a chordate?

A) a bird B) a fish C) a dog D) a spider

50)

An example of a nonvertebrate chordate is: A) a shark B) an Amphioxus C) a starfish D) a lamprey

51)

Humans belong to the phylum: A) Echinodermata B) Chordata C) Arthropoda D) Mollusca

52)

The early vertebrates differed from the earlier nonvertebrate chordates in possessing a:

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A) four-chambered heart B) diaphragm C) vertebral column D) all of these

53)

The first jaws evolved from: A) gill bars B) vertebral spines C) pectoral girdle D) none of these

54)

Vertebrates include: A) birds B) mammals C) reptiles D) all of these

55)

Within the amniote egg, the embryo is contained within a fluid-filled sac called the: A) chorion B) allantois C) amnion D) yolk sac

56)

A life spent totally on land was made possible by the evolution of:

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A) lungs B) a waterproof skin C) the amniote egg D) all of these

57)

The development of the amniote egg was important for: A) the survival of birds B) the movement of vertebrates onto land C) the development of external fertilization in fish D) the evolution of the egg-laying mammals

58)

Mammals did not become the dominant form of large terrestrial animals until: A) the demise of the dinosaurs B) they developed methods of behavioral thermoregulation C) they developed mammary glands D) the evolution of primates

59)

The regional differentiation of teeth is termed: A) heterodonty B) homodonty C) diphyodonty D) polyphyodonty

60)

Diphyodonty refers to:

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A) the development of two sets of teeth B) the regional differentiation of teeth C) the continuous replacement of teeth D) all teeth with a similar structure

61)

Mammals are characterized by a: A) diaphragm B) hard palate C) four-chambered heart D) all of these

62)

Mammals are characterized by: A) homodont dentition B) one bone in the middle ear C) hair and fur D) all of these

63)

Mammals: A) usually swallow their food whole B) usually eat only once or twice a week C) begin the digestive process in the stomach D) begin the digestive process in the mouth

64)

Mammary glands:

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A) produce milk B) are found among mammals C) are related to the development of close bonds between mothers and offspring D) all of these

65)

Mammals are divided into three groups on the basis of their: A) method of milk production B) circulatory system C) manner of caring for their embryonic young D) digestive systems and diet

66)

Metatherian mammals are found primarily in: A) Australia B) Africa C) North America D) all of these

67)

An example of a metatherian mammal is a: A) whale B) kangaroo C) monkey D) bat

68)

The platypus and echidna are the only living forms of ________.

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A) prototherian mammals B) therian mammals C) eutherian mammals D) none of these

69)

The prototherian mammals: A) lay eggs and do not produce milk B) lay eggs but also produce milk C) have live birth but do not produce milk D) have live birth and also produce milk

70)

The greatest number of mammals are: A) eutherians B) prototherians C) metatherians D) monotremes

71)

How many orders of placental mammals are there today?

A) 0 (They are all extinct.)

B) 11 C) 19 D) 24

72)

Humans belong to the class:

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A) Vertebrata B) Mammalia C) Aves D) Chordata

73)

Some biologists place primates in the superorder named: A) Scandentia B) Chordata C) Euarchontoglires D) Arthropoda

74)

Some biologists see the primate order as being closely related to: A) Scandentia (tree shrews) B) Dermoptera (colugos) C) Rodentia (rodents) D) all of these

75)

Humans belong to the order: A) Carnivora B) Primate C) Scandentia D) Chiroptera

76) Most evolutionary biologists believe that all currently living organisms had a common ancestor that existed about _____ years ago.

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A) 600 million B) 2.3 billion C) 3.9 billion D) 4.5 billion

77)

The acronym for the proposed common ancestor of all currently living things is ______.

A) LUCA B) COMA C) OLDE D) EVA

78) The development of an organism from conception to death is called that organism's _____.

A) phylogeny B) epigenetics C) ontogeny D) evo-devo

79)

HOX genes:

A) are regulator genes that among other things control the development of an organism B) are only found in primates C) are considered to be made up of "junk" DNA and do not perform any function but can be used to construct phylogenetic trees D) are found in mitochondria and are passed on to the next generation only by females

80)

The science of classifying organisms into different categories is known as:

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A) taxonomy B) cladonomy C) binomen D) paleontology

81)

Binomial nomenclature refers to each organism being named by: A) kingdom and phylum B) class and order C) genus and species D) species and subspecies

82)

A group of closely related species is a: A) family B) order C) subspecies D) genus

83)

Which taxonomic group contains the greatest number of organisms?

A) class B) order C) phylum D) family

84) If a newly discovered species was named Orrorinphilensis, it would be most closely related to:

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A) Ardipithecusphilensis B) Orrorinrebecensis C) Philepithecusorrorinensis D) Orropithecuscarolensis

85) The first person to categorize human beings in the same order ("primates") as apes and monkeys was: A) Carolus Linnaeus, 1758 B) James Watson, 1953 C) Charles Darwin, 1859 D) Human beings are not categorized as primates.

86)

Phylogeny is the: A) determination of whether a similarity is due to inheritance from a common ancestor

or not B) study of fossil organisms C) evolutionary history of species D) study of how organisms relate to their environment

87) Features that first appeared in the distant past and are shared by a large number of populations are called: A) shared ancestral features B) ancient derived features C) dispersed features D) communally derived features

88)

Humans belong to the class:

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A) Carnivora B) Mammalia C) Eutheria D) Chordata

89)

Mammals are characterized by: A) a four-chambered heart B) heterodont dentition C) hair and fur D) all of these

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

90) Why do biologists study taxonomy? What information can be gained from attempting a classification of a phenomenon?

91) Carefully distinguish between the concepts of archetype and species (as the latter is used today).

92)

In what ways does an order differ from a family in the taxonomic hierarchy?

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93)

What are some of the ways in which biologists determine homologies?

94) Homoplasy can arise in three different ways. What are these ways? Give an example of each.

95)

What is cladistics? What are the steps in a cladistic analysis?

96) What is the major difference between a shared ancestral feature and a shared derived feature? Give examples of each.

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97) Make a chart comparing and contrasting the most significant features of mammals and reptiles.

98) What is the taxonomic classification for humans (include kingdom, phylum, subphylum, and class)? For each of these taxa, what are two traits that are characteristic of the group?

99)

What are HOX genes and some of their functions?

100) What explains the similarities in the forelimbs of animals as diverse as humans, dogs, birds, and whales?

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101)

What characterizes the mammals as opposed to the reptiles?

102) What is the taxonomic classification for humans (include kingdom, phylum, subphylum, and class)? What characteristics do humans have that place them in each of these categories?

103) Most evolutionary biologists believe that all current living species originated from a common ancestor about 3.9 billion years ago. What is the evidence for this?

104) Why do you think that a taxonomic classification of the living world is necessary in biology? Why would it not be as useful or practical to just use everyday names for all living things such as dog, cat, oak tree, and so on?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_12e 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) C 12) D 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) D 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) B Version 1

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27) D 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) D 36) D 37) C 38) B 39) C 40) B 41) C 42) A 43) A 44) B 45) D 46) B 47) B 48) A 49) D 50) B 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) D 55) C 56) D Version 1

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57) B 58) A 59) A 60) A 61) D 62) C 63) D 64) D 65) C 66) A 67) B 68) A 69) C 70) A 71) C 72) B 73) C 74) D 75) B 76) C 77) A 78) C 79) A 80) A 81) C 82) D 83) C 84) B 85) A 86) C Version 1

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87) A 88) B 89) D 90) Answers will vary.

91) Answers will vary.

92) Answers will vary.

93) Answers will vary.

94) Answers will vary.

95) Answers will vary.

96) Answers will vary.

97) Answers will vary.

98) Answers will vary.

99) Answers will vary.

100) Answers will vary.

101) Answers will vary.

102) Answers will vary.

103) Answers will vary.

104) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 7 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Primates as a group are best defined in terms of their narrow specialization. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

Primates have a good visual sense, but a reduced sense of smell. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Compared with mammals of similar size, primates tend to have longer childhood periods and longer life spans. ⊚ ⊚

4)

The Lemuriformes lack many of the features of monkeys, apes, and humans. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

The prehensile tail is found exclusively among Old World monkeys. ⊚ ⊚

7)

true false

Tarsiers are characterized by elongated tarsal bones. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

true false

Sexual dimorphism is found predominantly among the New World monkeys.

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⊚ ⊚

8)

The term "lesser apes" or "small-bodied apes" refers to gibbons. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

true false

Humans have lost much of their locomotor flexibility. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10) Among the hypotheses that attempt to explain primate features is the idea that these features evolved because of: A) leaping patterns of locomotion where grasping branches was important B) consuming fruit that grows on the ends of slender branches C) insect predation on slender branches D) all of these

11)

Many of the shared derived features of primates are related to: A) movement in arboreal habitats B) swimming in aquatic habitats C) running in terrestrial habitats D) none of these

12)

Primates differ from other mammals in that primates are characterized by:

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A) eyes encircled by a bony ring B) nails on the big toe C) a relatively larger brain D) all of these

13)

Which of the following traits is not found in the order Primates?

A) replacement of claws by nails B) a well-developed olfactory sense C) a long gestation period with a hemochorial placenta D) some prehensile capacity in the hand with a grasping or opposable thumb

14) The following is a list of features that are found in primates but rarely in other mammalian orders. Which of these is most generalized, that is, which is found in the greatest number of primate species?

A) grasping big toe B) prehensile tail C) dental comb D) complete eye socket

15)

The characteristics of primates include: A) nails instead of claws B) a grasping thumb and big toe C) eyes on the front of the face D) all of these

16)

A grasping big toe:

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A) is found in all primates except humans B) is rare among primates C) is found only among the anthropoids D) distinguishes Old World from New World monkeys

17)

Primates are characterized by flexible patterns of locomotion. This is made possible by: A) a flexible shoulder characterized by a well-developed clavicle B) five digits on the hand and foot C) a grasping big toe D) all of these

18) is:

Probably the most important of the senses for the primate's rapid movement in the trees

A) vision B) touch C) smell D) taste

19)

The olfactory sense is the sense of: A) smelling B) tasting C) hearing D) feeling

20)

Primate olfactory anatomy is characterized by:

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A) reduction of the muzzle or snout B) lack of a rhinarium in most species C) reduction of the olfactory region of the brain D) all of these

21)

The rhinarium is the: A) moist naked area surrounding the nostrils B) pattern of ridges on the palm of the hand C) naked area on the rear of a female monkey D) none of these

22)

The strepsirhine primates include the: A) prosimians B) monkeys C) apes D) humans

23)

The haplorhine primates include the: A) prosimians B) monkeys C) apes D) monkeys and apes

24)

The term 'macula' refers to:

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A) a feature of the primate brain B) an area of the primate retina C) the primate opposable thumb D) a specialization of the primate placenta

25)

The cones of the eye: A) allow for stereoscopic vision B) are more sensitive to low intensities of light than are rods C) sense color D) none of these

26)

Within the retina, the area of greatest visual acuity is the: A) rhinarium B) macula C) fovea D) reticulum

27)

A bony eye socket develops when the eye is separated from the muscles behind it by a(n): A) postorbital bar B) preorbital plate C) postorbital septum D) orbital wall

28)

Primates are able to see in three dimensions because:

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A) the eyes lie on the front of the face B) the visual fields of each eye overlap C) of changes in the optic nerves and the brain D) all of these

29)

The period of time from conception to birth is called: A) the prenatal period B) gestation C) the juvenile period D) the prenatal period and gestation

30)

The phase of development that ends with the eruption of the first permanent teeth is the: A) prenatal period B) infantile period C) juvenile period D) adult period

31)

Of the following primates, which has the longest period of gestation?

A) humans B) macaques C) chimpanzees D) primates do not have gestation periods

32)

Primates are characterized by:

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A) long life spans B) long gestations C) long childhoods D) all of these

33)

The hemochorial placenta:

A) is found in all primates, except prosimians B) is more efficient than other types of placentae C) involves the transmission of nutrients and other material in the blood through a single vessel wall D) all of these

34)

Primates can be placed into two suborders, the Prosimii and the: A) Anthropoidea B) Tarsioidea C) Lorisidae D) Hominoidea

35)

The suborder Prosimii includes the infraorder: A) Lemuriformes B) Tarsiiformes C) Lorisiformes D) Lemuriformes and Tarsiiformes

36)

Which of the following is true about prosimians?

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A) Prosimians are not primates.

B) Prosimians lack many of the features of monkeys, apes, and humans.

C) Prosimians are the primitive ancestral forms of modern monkeys, apes, and humans.

D) All of these statements are true.

37)

The prosimians include the: A) chimpanzees B) gibbons C) lemurs D) monkeys

38)

In general, the Lemuriformes are characterized by: A) nocturnal habits B) a dental comb C) a well-developed sense of smell D) all of these

39)

The dental comb is a characteristic of: A) Lemuriformes B) New World monkeys C) Old World monkeys D) apes

40)

Prosimians are classified as primates because they possess:

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A) a catarrhine nose B) an enhanced sense of smell C) three bones in the middle ear D) none of these

41)

Which of the following statements is true about the prosimians?

A) The lower front teeth form a dental comb.

B) The middle ear contains only one bone.

C) The thumb is opposable, which permits these animals to manufacture tools.

D) The prosimians today are found only in Africa.

42)

Where would you go to observe lemurs in the wild?

A) the islands of Sumatra and Borneo B) the island of Madagascar C) the Amazon rainforest D) the Congo rainforest

43)

Living on the island of Madagascar are the: A) marmosets B) lemurs C) bonobos D) all of these

44)

According to primatologists, how did prosimians arrive on the island of Madagascar?

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A) by swimming across the channel B) by rafting across the channel C) brought by humans in the 1800s D) there are no prosimians on Madagascar

45)

Animals that are active at night are said to be: A) diurnal B) folivorous C) nocturnal D) none of these

46)

Large, chisel-like incisors, which are reminiscent of rodent teeth, are characteristic of the: A) aye-aye B) tarsier C) potto D) sifaka

47)

The family Lorisidae includes the: A) lorises B) pottos C) angwantibos D) all of these

48) Members of the family Lorisidae are found in Africa and Asia where they are able to coexist with monkeys and apes, primarily because they are:

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A) insectivorous B) large and highly territorial C) nocturnal D) meat eaters

49)

Tarsiers are characterized by: A) elongated tarsal bones B) fused tibia and fibula C) partially closed eye sockets D) all of these

50)

Tarsiers are found in: A) Southeast Asia B) Central Africa C) Central America D) Southern India

51)

Which of the following statements is true about anthropoids?

A) Anthropoids are almost always nocturnal.

B) Anthropoids are strictly arboreal.

C) Anthropoids have retained a good sense of smell.

D) None of these statements are true.

52)

The platyrrhine nose is found among the:

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A) apes B) Old World monkeys C) New World monkeys D) prosimians and tarsiers

53)

A prehensile tail is found exclusively among: A) apes B) Old World monkeys C) New World monkeys D) prosimians and tarsiers

54)

New World monkeys are divided into two families, the: A) Lemuridae and Tarsioidea B) Callitrichidae and Cebidae C) Hominoidea and Hominidae D) Cercopithecoidea and Hylobatidae

55)

The Callitrichidae includes: A) marmosets B) lemurs C) chimpanzees D) baboons

56)

The marmosets and tamarins differ from the other New World monkeys in that they:

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A) are strictly nocturnal B) have prehensile tails C) have claws on all digits except the thumb and big toe D) give birth to one young at a time

57)

Which of the following is not a member of the Cebidae?

A) spider monkey B) colobus monkey C) howler monkey D) capuchin monkey

58)

The catarrhine nose is characteristic of: A) humans B) Old World monkeys C) apes D) all of these

59)

An opposable thumb is characteristic of: A) lemurs B) New World monkeys C) Old World monkeys D) all of these

60) New World monkeys differ from Old World monkeys in that New World monkeys, but not Old World monkeys, have:

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A) a platyrrhine nose B) fingernails and opposable thumbs C) a tail D) a dental comb

61)

On what continent did semiterrestrial monkeys, living on the savanna grasslands, evolve?

A) South America B) Asia C) Africa D) Australia

62)

The catarrhine nose: A) is characterized by a rhinarium and a philtrum B) is characterized by a wide nasal septum with nostrils pointing outward C) is found in humans and apes D) can be used to distinguish apes from monkeys

63)

Which of the following traits is found in the Old World monkeys?

A) three premolars per quadrant B) a catarrhine nose C) prehensile tails D) all of these

64)

The sexual skin:

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A) is not visible during estrus B) is found only in male monkeys C) swells and turns bright pink or red during estrus D) covers the mammary glands

65)

All of the following are members of the Cercopithecoidea except: A) gibbons B) baboons C) langurs D) macaques

66)

The only European monkey is a: A) baboon B) macaque C) langur D) guenon

67)

Among the Old World monkeys, the subfamily Colobinae is characterized by a: A) sacculated stomach B) cheek pouch C) prehensile tail D) all of these

68)

Among the Old World monkeys, the subfamily Colobinae specializes in the eating of:

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A) insects B) leaves C) hard fruits D) small mammals and reptiles

69)

A member of the Colobinae is the: A) gelada B) langur C) siamang D) marmoset

70)

Apes are generally adapted for: A) suspensory locomotion B) arboreal quadrupedalism C) terrestrial quadrupedalism D) none of these

71)

Apes differ from Old World monkeys in that apes: A) possess 32 teeth B) lack a tail C) possess an opposable thumb D) are larger than all monkeys

72)

Which of the following is not an ape?

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A) the bonobo B) the gelada C) the gibbon D) the gorilla

73)

All apes belong to the superfamily: A) Hominoidea B) Hominidae C) Panidae D) Pongidae

74)

The Hylobatidae includes the: A) baboon and macaque B) drill and mandrill C) gibbon and siamang D) chimpanzee and gorilla

75)

The "small-bodied apes" or "lesser apes" refer to: A) Old World monkeys B) gibbons and siamangs C) orangutans and gorillas D) humans

76)

The family Hominidae includes:

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A) orangutans B) gorillas C) humans D) all of these

77)

The orangutan is found on the island of: A) Ceylon B) Hawaii C) Sumatra D) Tasmania

78)

The orangutans are characterized by: A) a large degree of sexual dimorphism B) quadrumanous locomotion C) solitary adults D) all of these

79)

Which of the following apes does not live in Africa?

A) the gorilla B) the orangutan C) the chimpanzee D) the bonobo

80)

The subfamily Homininae includes the:

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A) chimpanzee B) bonobo C) human D) all of these

81)

Chimpanzees are members of the tribe: A) Hominini B) Panini C) Ponginae D) Gorillinae

82)

Among the following primates, the chimpanzee is most closely related to the: A) gibbon B) gorilla C) human D) rhesus monkey

83)

Knuckle walking is characteristic of the: A) lemur B) baboon C) chimpanzee D) gibbon

84)

Bonobos are:

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A) a species in the same genus as the gorilla B) Old World monkeys C) a species in the same genus as the chimpanzee D) lesser apes

85)

Humans belong to the suborder: A) Catarrhini B) Anthropoidea C) Hominidae D) Hominoidea

86)

Humans belong to the superfamily: A) Panidae B) Hominidae C) Hominoidea D) Anthropoidea

87)

Humans belong to the family: A) Panidae B) Hominidae C) Hominoidea D) Anthropoidea

88)

Humans belong to the subfamily:

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A) Hominidae B) Homininae C) Ponginae D) Hylobatidae

89)

Humans: A) have one of the longest gestation periods of any primate B) exhibit mild sexual dimorphism C) have lost much of their locomotor flexibility D) all of these

90)

Which of the following does not accurately describe living humans?

A) Humans are anatomically and physiologically tropical and subtropical animals.

B) Humans are specialized terrestrial erect bipeds.

C) Humans possess opposable thumbs and grasping toes associated with the use of

tools.

D) Humans have long childhood periods and long life spans.

91)

Primates as a group are best defined in terms of their: A) diet B) adaptability C) specialized skeletons D) specialized dentition

92)

An example of a shared ancestral feature of the primates is:

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A) pentadactylism B) retention of the clavicle C) a placenta D) all of these

93)

Primates can be placed into two suborders, the Prosimii and the: A) Catarrhini B) Lorisidae C) Anthropoidea D) Hominoidea

94)

In general, the Lemuriformes are characterized by: A) nocturnal habits B) prehensile tails C) opposable thumbs D) all of these

95)

Which of the following traits is found exclusively among New World monkeys?

A) opposable thumbs B) stereoscopic vision C) a prehensile tail D) a rhinarium

96)

The sexual skin:

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A) swells and turns bright pink or red during estrus B) is used by males to attract females C) is found instead of sexual dimorphism in some primates D) is found only in New World monkeys

97)

The catarrhine nose is found among the: A) apes B) Old World monkeys C) New World monkeys D) prosimians and tarsiers E) apes and Old World monkeys

98)

All apes belong to the superfamily: A) Hominidae B) Hominoidea C) Catarrhini D) Hylobatidae

99)

Chimpanzees: A) live in flexible social groups B) are knuckle walkers C) are closely related to bonobos D) all of these

100)

Humans:

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A) have a long period of infant dependency B) exhibit moderate sexual dimorphism C) are omnivorous, with meat eating playing a large role D) all of these

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

101) What characteristics differentiate the primates from other mammalian orders?

102) Primates have evolved in arboreal habitats. What selective pressures did such environments impose? What features evolved in response to the selective pressures of the arboreal habitats?

103) Looking at the various characteristics of the primates, give some examples of those that may be considered to be shared ancestral traits and those that may be considered to be shared derived traits.

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104) The primate eye is an important feature of the order. Describe some of the features of the primate eye and parts of the skull that support the eye. What role does vision play in primate activities?

105) Prepare an outline of primate taxonomy. Briefly describe the characteristics of each taxon.

106) What traits can be used to distinguish the prosimians from the anthropoids? What traits can be used to distinguish the New World from the Old World monkeys? What traits can be used to distinguish the monkeys from the apes?

107)

Why are humans classified as primates?

108)

How are humans classified in relation to the great apes?

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109)

Why are so many species of nonhuman primates on the verge of extinction?

110)

What features are associated with the primate's acute sense of vision?

111)

In terms of evolutionary relationships, how are humans related to the great apes?

112)

What differentiates the apes from the monkeys?

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113) What are the main taxonomic categories of the primates? What are some of the distinguishing features of each category?

114) The continued existence of most types of primates is endangered. What are the main reasons for this?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_12e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) D 11) A 12) D 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) C Version 1

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27) C 28) D 29) D 30) B 31) A 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) C 38) D 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) B 43) B 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) D 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) D 52) C 53) C 54) B 55) A 56) C Version 1

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57) B 58) D 59) C 60) A 61) C 62) C 63) B 64) C 65) A 66) B 67) A 68) B 69) B 70) A 71) B 72) B 73) A 74) C 75) B 76) D 77) C 78) D 79) B 80) D 81) B 82) C 83) C 84) C 85) B 86) C Version 1

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87) B 88) B 89) D 90) C 91) B 92) D 93) C 94) A 95) C 96) A 97) E 98) B 99) D 100) D 101) Answers will vary.

102) Answers will vary.

103) Answers will vary.

104) Answers will vary.

105) Answers will vary.

106) Answers will vary.

107) Answers will vary.

108) Answers will vary.

109) Answers will vary.

110) Answers will vary.

111) Answers will vary.

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112) Answers will vary.

113) Answers will vary.

114) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 8 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) In terms of locomotion, the primates can be said to be specialized for arboreal locomotion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Primates whose dominant locomotor pattern is vertical clinging and leaping are characterized by legs longer than arms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) A form of quadrupedalism in which the animal suspends itself by a prehensile tail is called Old World semibrachiation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Features of the hominoid skeleton, such as the short, broad trunk and the backward positioning of the clavicle, are adaptations for suspensory behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) In the human skeleton, the lumbar curve and nongrasping, big toes are adaptations for erect bipedalism. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) In humans, the occipital condyles and the foramen magnum lie almost directly in the center of the underside of the skull.

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⊚ ⊚

7)

The zygomatic arch refers to the flange for the attachment of neck muscles. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

The development of a large brow ridge is related to the development of a large eye. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

The adult chimpanzee and the adult human both have a total of 32 teeth. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

true false

A molecular clock is used to measure the age of an individual. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) In terms of locomotion, the primates can be said to: A) be highly specialized for arboreal locomotion B) be specialized for a series of specific niches C) show a wide range of locomotor behaviors D) none of these

12) An example of a primate whose dominant locomotor habit is ground running and walking is the:

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A) colobus monkey B) tarsier C) gelada D) chimpanzee

13)

An upright posture is referred to as: A) orthograde B) pronograde C) semigrade D) none of these

14)

The orthograde body posture is associated with: A) vertical clinging and leaping B) brachiation C) erect bipedalism D) all of these

15)

The term "semibrachiation" refers to: A) movement on the tops of branches B) hanging underneath branches C) movement on the ground D) leaping from tree to tree

16) A form of quadrupedalism in which the animal suspends itself by a prehensile tail is called:

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A) branch running and walking B) ground running and walking C) New World semibrachiation D) Old World semibrachiation

17)

Ape locomotion includes: A) knuckle walking B) true brachiation C) quadrumanous locomotion D) all of these

18)

Quadrumanous locomotion is characteristic of the: A) tarsier B) gibbon C) orangutan D) chimpanzee

19)

An example of a knuckle walker would be the: A) chimpanzee B) gibbon C) baboon D) tarsier

20)

True brachiation is found in:

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A) chimpanzees B) gibbons C) siamangs D) all of these

21)

True brachiation involves: A) the use of a prehensile tail B) an orthograde posture C) quadrupedalism D) none of these

22)

Which of the following statements about erect bipedalism is not true?

A) Humans maintain an orthograde posture while standing and walking.

B) Erect bipedalism involves a heel-toe stride.

C) Humans are the only primates to exhibit erect bipedalism.

D) Humans are the only primates to habitually exhibit erect bipedalism.

23)

Humans maintain a(n) ____________ posture while walking and standing.

A) orthograde B) pronograde C) monograde D) bipograde

24)

A heel-toe stride is a part of:

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A) knuckle walking B) quadrumanous locomotion C) erect bipedalism D) branch running and walking

25)

The primate skeleton: A) is highly specialized for arboreal locomotion B) is highly specialized for suspensory behavior C) is highly specialized for quadrupedalism D) has remained basically generalized

26)

In contrast to monkeys, apes and humans: A) have shorter, broader trunks B) can rotate their forearms to a much greater extent C) do not use their backs much in locomotion D) all of these

27)

As compared to the monkey skeleton, the hominoid skeleton is characterized by: A) fewer lumbar vertebrae in the spine B) scapula lying to the side of the body C) the ability to rotate the forearm 90 degrees D) all of these

28)

As compared to the monkey skeleton, the hominoid skeleton is characterized by:

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A) a shallow socket in the scapula for articulation with the humerus B) a short, broad trunk C) a reduction in the number of lumbar vertebrae D) all of these

29) Features of the hominoid skeleton, such as the short, broad trunk and the backward positioning of the clavicle, are adaptations for: A) knuckle walking B) true brachiation C) generalized suspensory behavior D) erect bipedalism

30)

Features of the human skeleton that are adaptations for suspensory behavior include: A) a reduction in the number of lumbar vertebrae B) a lumbar curve C) five fingers and toes D) the scapula lying to the side of the body

31)

Which is a specialization for brachiation found in chimpanzees but not in humans?

A) short, broad trunk B) elongated arms and fingers C) scapula found on back D) short, nongrasping big toe

32)

The intermembral index is a measurement of the ratio of the bones of the:

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A) upper arm to the lower arm B) arm to the leg C) limbs to the tail D) leg to the trunk

33)

The intermembral index is a measure of: A) the relative proportion of hindlimbs and forelimbs B) the overall size of the animal C) the relative strength of hindlimbs and forelimbs D) the relative length of the fingers and toes

34)

The gibbon has an intermembral index of 129. This means that in the gibbon, the: A) arms are longer than the legs B) arms are shorter than the legs C) arms and legs are of about equal length D) none of these

35) Primates whose dominant locomotor pattern is vertical clinging and leaping are characterized by: A) legs longer than arms B) arms longer than legs C) arms and legs of roughly equal length

36)

The human intermembral index is closest to:

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A) 50 B) 70 C) 90 D) 110

37)

Adaptations for erect bipedalism found in the human skeleton include: A) the development of curvatures of the spine B) the development of a short, broad ilium C) the development of a short, inflexible big toe D) all of these

38)

Adaptations for erect bipedalism found in the human skeleton include: A) a lumbar curve B) a reduction in the number of lumbar vertebrae C) the head of humerus pointing inward D) all of these

39)

One of the major challenges of bipedal locomotion is: A) supporting the entire weight on the feet B) keeping the knees bent C) balance D) keeping the head facing forward

40) Unlike in other primates, in humans, the gluteus medius and gluteus minimum muscles act as:

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A) abductors B) flexors C) adductors D) extensors

41) One of the aspects of the human skeleton that is most specialized for bipedal locomotion is the: A) foot B) femur C) shoulder D) ankle

42)

The length of the radius relative to the length of the humerus is given in the: A) intermembral index B) brachial index C) crural index D) humeral index

43)

The length of the tibia relative to the length of the femur is given in the: A) intermembral index B) brachial index C) crural index D) humeral index

44) Humans have a brachial index of 76, while chimpanzees have a brachial index of 93. This shows that in humans, relative to the apes, the:

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A) radius is shorter than the humerus B) humerus is shorter than the radius C) tibia is shorter than the femur D) femur is shorter than the tibia

45)

The primate hand is characterized by: A) pentadactylism B) nails C) epidermal ridges D) all of these

46) The holding of an object between one or more fingers with the thumb fully opposed to the fingertip is termed the: A) power grip B) precision grip C) opposable grasp D) none of these

47)

An opposable thumb is found among the: A) New World monkeys B) Old World monkeys C) apes D) Old World monkeys and apes E) all of these

48)

The skull articulates with the spine by means of the:

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A) occipital condyles B) foramen magnum C) nuchal crest D) mandibular condyles

49)

The foramen magnum is the: A) birth canal in the female pelvis B) socket on the pelvis that articulates with the head of the femur C) hole in the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes D) site of attachment for the masseter muscle

50)

In humans, the occipital condyles and the foramen magnum lie: A) well forward on the underside of the skull B) well back on the underside of the skull C) almost directly in the center of the underside of the skull D) on the back of the skull

51) In primates with large facial skeletons, powerful muscles are required to keep the head up. The size of this muscle is reflected in the presence on the back of the skull of a: A) nuchal crest B) sagittal crest C) mandibular crest D) occipital crest

52) as:

A jutting forward of the jaw, caused by the massiveness of the teeth and jaw, is known

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A) ectotympanic B) prognathism C) nuchalism D) orthognathism

53) In the vertebrates, the area of the brain associated with the association and coordination of impulses coming in from the sense organs and other areas of the brain is the: A) neocortex B) medulla oblongata C) thalamus D) olfactory bulb

54) The increase in brain size over and beyond that due to an increase in body size is measured by the: A) allometric index B) encephalization quotient C) frontal quotient D) interhemispheric index

55)

The largest encephalization quotient is found in: A) New World monkeys B) Old World monkeys C) apes D) dolphins E) humans

56)

Allometric growth is:

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A) growth in the first year of life B) the growth of the brain C) growth that occurs as an adult D) the growth of some parts of the body faster than others

57) Among the anthropoids, the cerebral cortex is highly convoluted and differentiated into areas associated with specific functions. Those areas that are greatly expanded in humans include those associated with: A) vision B) language C) hand coordination D) all of these

58)

An endocranial cast is a: A) cast of the inside of the brain case B) cast of the exterior of the brain case C) measure of the volume of the brain case D) measure of the length of the skull relative to its width

59)

The average cranial capacity for modern humans is: A) 550 cubic centimeters B) 1050 cubic centimeters C) 1350 cubic centimeters D) 1850 cubic centimeters

60) Which of the following cranial capacities falls outside the normal range of variation for modern humans?

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A) 900 cubic centimeters B) 1100 cubic centimeters C) 1800 cubic centimeters D) none of these

61)

The cranial capacities of the great apes generally fall between: A) 100 and 300 cubic centimeters B) 400 and 500 cubic centimeters C) 850 and 950 cubic centimeters D) 1000 and 1250 cubic centimeters

62)

Primate dentition is characterized by: A) heterodonty B) diphydonty C) a fairly unspecialized tooth structure D) all of these

63)

Grasping, ripping, tearing, defense, and antagonistic display are the functions of the: A) incisors B) canines C) premolars D) molars

64)

The adult gorilla has how many teeth?

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A) 44 B) 36 C) 32 D) 20

65)

The adult human has how many teeth?

A) 44 B) 36 C) 32 D) 20

66)

The dental formula for an adult chimpanzee is: A) 2.1.2.3/2.1.2.3 B) 2.1.3.2/2.1.3.2 C) 2.1.3.3/2.1.3.3 D) 3.1.4.3/3.1.4.3

67) The New World monkeys are characterized by how many premolars per quadrant of the mouth?

A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1

68)

Ape dentition is characterized by:

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A) upper incisors implanted in the jaw at an angle B) large and projecting canines C) a U-shaped dental arcade D) all of these

69)

The dental arcade of a chimpanzee is shaped like: A) a parabola B) the letter V C) the letter U D) a helix

70) The larger size of canine teeth in the male baboon as compared with the female is an example of: A) allometric growth B) sexual dimorphism C) heterodonty D) neoteny

71)

The sectorial premolar in the ape refers to: A) the anterior upper premolar B) the anterior lower premolar C) all upper premolars D) all premolars

72)

The lower molars of chimpanzees and humans can be described as:

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A) X-4 B) Y-5 C) T-3 D) bilophodont

73)

Which of the following characteristics is found in hominin dentition?

A) sectorial premolar B) diastema C) upper incisors implanted vertically D) all of these

74)

Which of the following characteristics are lacking in hominin dentition?

A) sexual dimorphism B) sectorial premolar C) diastema D) all of these

75)

A steplike wear pattern of the molars may be indicative of: A) a diet consisting mostly of nuts and seeds B) an extended childhood period C) a longer life span D) the use of teeth as tools

76) A hypothesis that explains why hominin dentition has reduced in size through time includes the idea that:

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A) tools perform the same functions in hominids that teeth perform in other hominoids B) humans use weapons instead of teeth C) cooperative hunting is inconsistent with canine threat displays D) all of these

77)

In contrast to ape canine teeth, human canine teeth: A) do not show sexual dimorphism B) are not accompanied by a diastema C) erupt before the second and third molars D) all of these

78)

The internal buttress that reinforces the ape mandible is the: A) chin B) simian shelf C) sagittal crest D) nuchal crest

79)

The sagittal crest develops in response to the development of a large: A) temporalis muscle B) masseter muscle C) nuchal muscle D) none of these

80)

The development of a large brow ridge is related to the development of a large:

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A) eye B) jaw C) brain D) none of these

81)

The great apes are characterized by how many chromosomes in each body cell?

A) 36 B) 42 C) 46 D) 48

82) When human chromosomes are compared with chimpanzee chromosomes, all of the chromosomes match except for human chromosome number: A) 2 B) 12 C) 22 D) X

83)

Human chromosome 2 probably arose by means of a: A) translocation B) pericentric inversion C) fusion of two ancestral chromosomes D) break in a large ancestral chromosome

84)

The common ancestor of humans and chimpanzees had how many chromosomes?

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A) 42 B) 44 C) 46 D) 48

85)

Graphic representations of evolutionary relationships among animal species are called: A) karyotypes B) allopatric trees C) phylogenetic trees D) none of these

86) When comparing the amino acid sequences of divergent populations, those with the most recent common ancestor: A) will have the greatest number of amino acid substitutions B) will have the least number of amino acid substitutions C) will always have absolutely no amino acid substitutions D) will have amino acid substitutions that produce abnormalities

87)

The maximum parsimony principle states that the most probable phylogenetic tree is one: A) with the fewest number of species represented B) with the maximum number of species represented C) based on the fewest changes in the genetic code D) based on the maximum number of changes in the genetic code

88)

A molecular clock is used to measure:

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A) the age of an individual B) the relative evolutionary distance between species C) the rate of mutation in an individual D) the rate of mutation in a population

89) It is generally believed that the DNA code of humans is approximately how similar to the DNA code of chimpanzees?

A) 97 percent B) 90 percent C) 75 percent D) 50 percent

90)

Comparative genomics:

A) is specifically the comparative study of the genomes of plants and animals B) is the comparative study of the genomes of different organisms of any type C) only involves the comparative study of humans and other primates D) is not technically possible yet, but if it becomes possible, it could be a valuable tool in explaining evolutionary relationships

91)

When compared with arboreal quadrupeds, terrestrial quadrupeds are identified by: A) less flexibility in the shoulder B) shorter fingers and toes C) a more forward position of the foramen magnum D) significantly longer arms than legs

92)

True brachiation is found in:

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A) gibbons and siamangs B) chimpanzees and gorillas C) New World monkeys D) Old World monkeys

93)

The intermembral index is a measure of: A) the size of the brain relative to body size B) the relative body sizes of two related species C) the relative proportion of hindlimbs and forelimbs D) the relative body size of males as compared to females

94) Although it is not found or fully evolved in all species, an opposable thumb could be found as a characteristic of: A) New World monkeys B) Old World monkeys C) prosimians D) all of these

95)

The foramen magnum is the: A) site of attachment for the nuchal muscle B) site of attachment for the masseter muscle C) curve that forms in the spine of humans D) hole in the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes

96) as:

A jutting forward of the jaw, caused by the massiveness of the teeth and jaw, is known

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A) sagitallism B) encephalization C) prognathism D) massivism

97) The increase in brain size over and beyond that due to an increase in body size is measured by the: A) encephalization quotient B) cranial index C) endocast quotient D) neocortex index

98) The larger size of canine teeth in the male baboon as compared with the female is an example of: A) allometric growth B) sexual dimorphism C) karyotyping D) bilophodontism

99)

The sagittal crest develops in response to the development of a large: A) jaw muscle B) neck muscle C) leg muscle D) pelvis

100) In a study where samples of the same basic proteins of humans and chimpanzees were compared, the percentage of amino acids that were found to be the same was:

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A) 50 percent B) 65 percent C) 80 percent D) 99 percent

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

101) Most comparative anatomical studies indicate strong evolutionary ties between the great apes and humans. Summarize the data that demonstrate this link.

102)

Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of erect bipedalism to humans.

103)

Why are anthropologists interested in the study of teeth?

104)

What are some of the trends in the evolution of the hominin face?

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105)

How do the teeth of modern humans differ from those of modern apes?

106)

Trace the evolutionary development of the human brain from the early primate stage.

107) What is the molecular and cytogenetic evidence for the close relationship of chimpanzees and humans?

108)

What are phylogenetic trees? What data are used in their construction?

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109)

How do apes and humans differ from monkeys in terms of anatomy?

110) What are the specialized features of the human skeleton that are adaptations for bipedal locomotion?

111)

What characterizes ape dentition as opposed to human dentition?

112) What is comparative cytogenetics? What has been learned about the relationship between species from comparative cytogenetic research?

113) What is comparative genomics? Conduct Internet research to discover some new research findings in this field.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_12e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) C 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) D Version 1

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27) A 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) B 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) D 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) A 45) D 46) B 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) C 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) B 55) E 56) D Version 1

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57) D 58) A 59) C 60) D 61) B 62) D 63) B 64) C 65) C 66) A 67) B 68) D 69) C 70) B 71) B 72) B 73) C 74) D 75) B 76) D 77) D 78) B 79) A 80) B 81) D 82) A 83) C 84) D 85) C 86) B Version 1

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87) C 88) B 89) A 90) B 91) B 92) A 93) C 94) D 95) D 96) C 97) A 98) B 99) A 100) D 101) Answers will vary.

102) Answers will vary.

103) Answers will vary.

104) Answers will vary.

105) Answers will vary.

106) Answers will vary.

107) Answers will vary.

108) Answers will vary.

109) Answers will vary.

110) Answers will vary.

111) Answers will vary.

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112) Answers will vary.

113) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 9 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Among marmosets and tamarins, two adult males may be present and help the female care for the infant, a situation known as a multimale group. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) A fission-fusion society is characterized by changes in group composition and size related to activity of the group and season of the year. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Play behavior can be described as intense, repetitive physical activity such as chasing, grappling, and pushing. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

Grooming helps create bonds of solidarity among troop members. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) When a gibbon reaches about six years of age, he or she becomes integrated as an adult member of the group. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

A territory is an area used most intensively by a primate group. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

1

7) Among chimpanzees, the greatest number of social interactions are observed between an adult male chimpanzee and adult females. ⊚ ⊚

8)

Chimpanzees in the wild have been observed manufacturing different types of tools. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

true false

Chimpanzees in the wild have been observed hunting and eating monkeys. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10) Models for why primates live in groups include: A) the resource defense model B) the predation model C) the mutual aid model D) the resource defense model and the predation model E) all of these

11) According to the resource defense model, primates exploiting _____ as a food source should live in the largest groups.

A) insects B) fruit C) leaves

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12)

Which types of primates are at the most risk from predators?

A) semiterrestrial B) arboreal semibrachiators and true brachiators C) arboreal quadrupeds D) vertical clingers and leapers

13)

Types of primate social groups include: A) monogamous family groups B) one-male groups C) multimale groups D) all of these

14)

A social group consisting of several males with several females and young is termed a: A) multimale group B) monogamous family group C) one-male group D) fission-fusion society

15)

A social group consisting of a male and female and their young is termed a: A) multimale group B) monogamous family group C) one-male group D) fission-fusion society

16)

Like most lemurs, the dwarf lemur marks its territory with:

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A) urine B) feces C) secretions from specialized glands D) all of these

17)

The social behavior of marmosets and tamarins is characterized by: A) the production of twins B) offspring carried around by their fathers C) monogamous family units D) all of these

18) Among marmosets and tamarins, two adult males may be present and may help the female care for the infant. This type of a group is known as a: A) multimale group B) polyandrous group C) polygamous group D) harem

19)

Harems and one-male groups characterize the: A) gibbon B) chimpanzee C) gelada D) hamadryas baboon

20)

A fission-fusion society is characterized by:

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A) polyandry B) changes in group size related to births and deaths C) changes in group size related to activity of the group and season of the year D) polyandry and changes in group size related to births and deaths

21)

Primatologists study primate behavior in: A) natural populations B) zoo populations C) provisioned populations D) all of these

22)

The primate populations on Cayo Santiago are an example of: A) natural populations B) zoo populations C) provisioned populations D) all of these

23)

Which of the following is true of the studies of captive colonies such as those in zoos?

A) The behavior of caged animals is much the same as their wild counterparts.

B) Behavior is apt to reflect some of the behavioral patterns of wild populations at a much lower intensity.

C) Behavior tends to be like that of a wild population, given adequate space and a good food supply.

D) Zoo animals are thoroughly domesticated and useless for any studies.

24)

A monogamous family group is characteristic of the:

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A) gibbon B) chimpanzee C) gelada D) hamadryas baboon

25)

Grooming helps: A) keep the fur clean B) maintain adult male-female bonds C) create bonds of solidarity among troop members D) all of these

26)

The act of grooming oneself is termed: A) autogrooming B) self-grooming C) allogrooming D) altruistic grooming

27)

Intense, repetitive physical activity such as chasing, grappling, and pushing are part of: A) courtship behavior B) allogrooming behavior C) play behavior D) agonistic behavior

28)

Play behavior is important for:

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A) development and refinement of physical skills B) learning about the physical world C) development of social skills and social bonds D) all of these

29)

When a gibbon reaches about six years of age: A) both males and females leave the group B) he or she becomes integrated as an adult member of the group C) males become integrated into the group but females leave D) females become integrated into the group but males leave

30)

A territory is an area: A) occupied by a primate group B) used most intensively by a primate group C) defended by a primate group D) none of these

31)

An example of a highly territorial animal is the: A) gibbon B) baboon C) gelada D) chimpanzee

32)

The gibbon territorial behavior is characterized by:

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A) frequent fights leading to injury and death B) little to no conflicts of any type between groups C) daily conflicts expressed primarily by vocalization and display D) daily conflicts but only between females of different groups

33)

Geladas are: A) monkeys found in Ethiopia B) arboreal quadrupeds C) a subspecies of baboons D) Asiatic leaf-eating monkeys

34)

The basic unit of gelada societies is: A) solitary animals B) monogamous family groups C) one-male harem groups D) multimale groups

35) The period of life between the time when the male reaches sexual maturity to the time when the canines are fully erupted is called: A) adulthood B) subadulthood C) juvenile D) infant

36) A gelada one-male harem group typically consists of one adult male and __________ adult females.

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A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 15

37)

In addition to one-male harem groups, gelada society is also made up of: A) small all-male groups B) family units C) nursery units D) solitary adults

38) The cohesiveness of the gelada one-male harem group seems to be derived primarily from the: A) sexual attraction between the male and females B) constant herding on the part of the male C) close relationships among the adult females D) these units are not very cohesive and are constantly changing

39)

Among geladas, __________ have different-colored fur.

A) infants B) adult males C) females in estrus D) pregnant females

40)

Behavior involving fighting, threats, and fleeing is termed:

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A) agonistic B) antagonistic C) allogrooming D) play

41) Because of fluctuations in the available food supply, the size of the gelada social unit varies. The largest unit, composed of hundreds of individuals under very good grazing conditions, is called the: A) troop B) herd C) band D) cohort

42)

Often, several harems share a home range and are called a: A) troop B) band C) multiharem group D) cohort

43)

Geladas form: A) one-male harems B) all-male groups C) herds D) all of these

44)

Studies of the baboon are of special interest to students of human evolution because:

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A) the common ancestor of humans and the apes was a baboon-like form B) baboons make tools and hunt for meat C) baboons occupy a habitat similar to that occupied by the early hominins D) none of these

45)

The savanna baboons of Nairobi Park live in: A) social units very similar to those of the gelada B) large multimale troops C) associations of monogamous family units D) a fission-fusion society

46)

The home ranges of baboons: A) are defended by the males of the group B) often cover as many as 100 square miles C) often overlap extensively with home ranges of neighboring troops D) all of these

47)

Baboons: A) range freely over very large areas B) remain within a fixed home range, which overlaps the home ranges of neighboring

troops C) remain within fiercely defended nonoverlapping territories D) mix freely with other troops

48)

Core areas usually contain:

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A) concentrations of sleeping trees B) preferred food supplies C) a source of water D) all of these

49)

The diet of the savanna baboon includes: A) grasses and seeds B) hunted vertebrates C) fruits and flowers D) all of these

50)

Baboon males: A) are constantly fighting for dominance positions B) express most aggression and antagonism in terms of gesture C) are responsible for the defense of territory D) all of these

51)

Dominance interactions within the baboon troop often take the form of: A) presenting and mounting B) displacement C) preference over choice food resources D) all of these

52) A system of social ranking based on the relative dominance of animals within a social group is called a:

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A) dominance hierarchy B) dominance ranking C) ascendancy ranking D) power hierarchy

53)

Which of the following statements is not true of baboon dominance hierarchies?

A) Most aggression is expressed in terms of gesture.

B) Adult females form dominance hierarchies.

C) Dominance positions are unstable and change frequently.

D) High-ranking males often are the offspring of high-ranking females.

54)

Which of the following statements is true of baboon sexual behavior?

A) The baboon female is always receptive to the advances of the male.

B) Mating is always initiated by the male.

C) Particular males and females will form consort pairs for short periods of time.

D) None of these

55)

The period of sexual receptivity is termed: A) ovulation B) estrus C) availability D) none of these

56)

Estrus in baboons:

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A) is marked by a swelling of the sexual skin B) will not occur during pregnancy or lactation C) characterizes females at most times of their lives D) is marked by a swelling of the sexual skin and will not occur during pregnancy or lactation E) all of these

57)

Cohesion within the baboon troop results: A) exclusively from interest between males and females in sex B) from constant herding on the part of the male C) from the defense of a common territory D) none of these

58)

A grooming cluster consists of: A) adult females and their young B) groups of juveniles of about the same age C) small multimale units D) all of these

59)

Fission-fusion societies are societies in which:

A) females form one-male harems during part of the year and multimale groups during other times B) males and females form monogamous units during part of the year and exist in multimale troops during other times of the year C) large groups break up into smaller units and smaller units coalesce into larger ones D) animals remain solitary except during the mating season

60)

Chimpanzees:

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A) sleep on the ground at night B) find most of their food on the ground C) can be considered to be basically a terrestrial primate D) none of these

61)

The chimpanzee diet consists of: A) fruits, leaves, and seeds B) meat C) insects D) all of these

62)

The chimpanzee community consists of: A) nursery units B) consortship C) all-male parties D) all of these

63)

A chimpanzee social unit can consist of: A) adult males, females, and young B) all adult males C) adult females with young D) all of these

64)

In describing chimpanzee social organization, a gathering refers to a(n):

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A) hunting party B) unit consisting of a male, female, and young C) group that contains more than half of the individuals of the community D) all-male group

65)

In chimpanzee groups: A) females migrate from one community to another B) closely related males form close bonds C) males groom each other about twice as long as males and females groom each other D) all of these

66)

Social interactions between adult male chimpanzees: A) are characterized by a strict dominance hierarchy B) are described by the terms "dominance" and "submission" C) are usually very aggressive D) occur only when a new male is trying to take over the group

67)

The chimpanzee has been observed in the wild to manufacture: A) termite sticks B) stone hammers C) wood clubs D) none of these

68)

Tool manufacturing among wild chimpanzees is an example of:

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A) innate behavior B) learned behavior C) imitation of human activity D) none of these since chimpanzees do not manufacture tools in the wild

69)

Chimpanzees in the wild have been observed killing: A) young bushbucks and bushpigs B) baboons C) arboreal monkeys D) all of these

70)

Which of the following describes some aspect of chimpanzee hunting?

A) Hunting is primarily a male activity.

B) Chimpanzees will cooperate with one another in hunting.

C) Meat is shared.

D) All of these

71)

Chimpanzees form sharing clusters: A) whenever they eat B) to eat meat that has been hunted C) only between mothers and children D) to eat nuts that have been cracked open

72)

The bonobo differs from the chimpanzee in many ways, including the fact that:

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A) bonobos mate face to face B) sex is initiated by males only C) bonobos have a very restricted time of sexual receptivity D) all of these

73)

The act of grooming oneself is termed: A) autogrooming B) allogrooming C) ego-grooming D) self-grooming

74)

Gibbon behavior is characterized by: A) frequent fighting between adult males in the group, often leading to injury B) daily territorial conflicts between groups, expressed primarily by vocalization and

display C) infrequent conflicts between groups that often lead to serious injuries D) all of these

75)

Gelada society is made up of: A) one-male harem groups B) small all-male groups C) nursery units D) all of these E) one-male harem groups and small all-male groups only

76) The period of life between the time when the male reaches sexual maturity to the time when the canines are fully erupted is called:

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A) juvenile B) adolescence C) subadulthood D) adulthood

77)

Primatologists call behavior involving fighting, threats, and fleeing: A) unfriendly B) allo-hostility C) agonistic D) antagonistic

78)

The period of sexual receptivity is termed: A) estrus B) amenability C) approachability D) ovulation

79)

Which of the following statements is true of baboon dominance hierarchies?

A) Most dominance interactions take the form of biting and scratching.

B) Adult females only form dominance hierarchies during the breeding season.

C) Dominance positions are unstable and change frequently.

D) High-ranking males often are the offspring of high-ranking females.

80)

Tool manufacturing among wild chimpanzees is an example of:

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A) innate behavior B) learned behavior C) imitation of human activity D) learned behavior and imitation of human activity

81)

Chimpanzees: A) sleep in nests in the trees at night B) form fission-fusion social groups C) are primarily arboreal, although they travel between trees on the ground D) all of these

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

82) In what situations do primatologists study primate behavior? What are the strengths and weaknesses of each type of study?

83) What are the essential differences between the concepts of home range, territory, and core area?

84) What are the major functions of grooming? What is the difference between autogrooming and allogrooming?

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85) What is play behavior? What are some of the types of activity that are labeled play?

Which age categories are most likely to engage in play behavior?

86) The gibbon social group is that of a monogamous family unit consisting of an adult pair and its young. What happens when the young approaches adulthood?

87) A major category of primate behavior is agonistic behavior. What does this term mean?

Give some specific examples of agonistic behavior.

88) Gelada social organization is quite complex and consists of a number of social units including the harem, all-male group, band, and herd. What is the composition of structure of these groups and how are they related to one another?

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89) While most primates are arboreal, some species, like the savanna baboon, spend a great deal of time on the ground. What characteristics of baboon social organization are related to their terrestrial lifestyle?

90) Assume you are on the African savanna observing a group of baboons. What behaviors are you observing that provide you with information for constructing the dominance hierarchy of the troop?

91) Chimpanzee society is fragmented into a series of social units of varying composition such as the all-male party, family unit, nursery unit, consortship, and gathering. Describe the composition and functions of these different units.

92)

Describe the contribution of Jane Goodall to our understanding of primate behavior.

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93) What are some of the characteristics and functions of dominance behavior in a baboon troop?

94)

What are the functions of grooming in nonhuman primates?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_12e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) D 11) B 12) A 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) D 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) A Version 1

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27) C 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) A 34) C 35) B 36) B 37) A 38) C 39) A 40) A 41) B 42) B 43) D 44) C 45) B 46) C 47) B 48) D 49) D 50) B 51) D 52) A 53) C 54) C 55) B 56) D Version 1

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57) D 58) A 59) C 60) D 61) D 62) D 63) D 64) C 65) D 66) B 67) A 68) B 69) D 70) D 71) B 72) A 73) A 74) B 75) E 76) C 77) C 78) A 79) D 80) B 81) D 82) Answers will vary.

83) Answers will vary.

84) Answers will vary.

85) Answers will vary.

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86) Answers will vary.

87) Answers will vary.

88) Answers will vary.

89) Answers will vary.

90) Answers will vary.

91) Answers will vary.

92) Answers will vary.

93) Answers will vary.

94) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 10 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Explanations for concealed ovulation in human females include the development of permanent pair bonding in humans. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

Human foraging bands typically contain about 100 members. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Human foraging societies are characterized by an egalitarian and cooperative social organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Since foragers rely mainly on gathering natural foods, children are able to feed themselves at a very young age. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) A postmenopausal woman can increase her inclusive fitness by helping to provide food for her grandchildren. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

The transmission of learned behavior in nonhuman primates is called preculture. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

1

7) Cheney's and Seyfarth's observations of vervet monkeys suggest that these monkeys understand the concept of rank within their dominance hierarchy. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

Human language is discrete, open, and arbitrary. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Vocalizations in nonhuman primates serve many functions, including sounding an alarm in case of danger. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10) The earliest farming dates back to about: A) 36,000 years ago B) 28,000 years ago C) 18,000 years ago D) 13,000 years ago

11)

For the vast majority of time, humans have been: A) scavengers and/or foragers B) horticulturalists C) herders D) industrialists

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12)

When examining the behavior of Homo sapiens, we look to foraging societies because: A) modern foragers live exactly like humans did 100,000 years ago B) agriculture is a recent phenomenon; most humans have lived as foragers C) foragers live a life that is not complicated by change or contact with other groups D) all of these

13) Most studies of modern hunter-gatherer societies date to the first half of the twentieth century because: A) most foraging societies have recently died out B) contemporary foraging societies have been influenced by neighboring agricultural or industrial peoples C) studying foraging societies has been found to have no anthropological value D) all of these

14)

The basic social unit of foraging peoples is the: A) harem unit B) band C) village D) clan

15)

Human foraging bands typically contain about ____ members.

A) 200 B) 100 C) 25 D) 10

16)

In terms of mating activities, humans differ from other primates in that:

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A) humans do not practice mother-son mating B) human groups inbreed C) human females are potentially receptive at all times D) humans show external signs of estrus

17)

Explanations for concealed ovulation in human females include: A) the development of pair bonding in humans B) the development of bonds between males C) lessening male competition for females D) confused paternity as protection against infanticide E) all of these

18)

Foraging bands are like baboon troops in that: A) young females leave the band of their birth and move into a different band B) young males leave the band of their birth and move into a different band C) young males and females tend to remain in the band of their birth throughout their

lives

19)

Human foraging bands: A) may join into large multiband units during certain times of the year B) are highly territorial C) are made up of males and females who do not form exclusive relationships D) contain only one mated pair

20)

Human foraging bands:

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A) are composed of several male-female pairs B) contain several males ranked in a dominance hierarchy C) form temporary male-female pairs when the female is in estrus D) contain male-female pairs formed among individuals born into the band

21)

Human foraging bands: A) contain several males ranked in a dominance hierarchy B) contain several females ranked in a dominance hierarchy C) contain both males and females in separate ranked hierarchies D) are basically egalitarian

22) Within a human foraging band, a feature of male-male and female-female social relationships is: A) dominance behavior B) competition for scarce resources C) basically egalitarian behavior D) agonistic behavior

23)

The presence of a large number of elderly individuals is characteristic of: A) all primates B) all apes C) chimpanzees and humans D) humans only

24)

In human foraging societies:

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A) there is a sexual division of labor, where men hunt and women collect vegetable food B) food sharing is important C) the vegetable foods consumed are often difficult to find, acquire, and process D) all of these

25) The idea that the presence of postmenopausal females in human groups increases the survival rate of children is called the: A) grandmother hypothesis B) menopausal advantage C) postmenopausal fitness advantage D) elderly female hypothesis

26) The grandmother hypothesis states that the presence of postmenopausal females in human groups: A) is unfavorable to the survival of the rest of the group B) only became possible after the development of agriculture C) increases the survival rate of children D) all of these

27)

In foraging societies: A) both males and females hunt B) hunting is primarily a male activity C) hunting is primarily a female activity D) men hunt and share the meat only with other men

28)

Human foraging societies are characterized by:

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A) a sexual division of labor B) an egalitarian and cooperative social organization C) food sharing D) all of these

29)

Sharing is: A) not a typical human behavior B) an important aspect of human social behavior C) more commonly part of monkey social behavior than part of human social behavior D) not found in any species except Homo sapiens

30)

Culture is: A) learned B) patterned C) passed down D) all of these

31)

Culture is: A) systematic and patterned B) used by humans to adapt to their environment C) learned and passed on from generation to generation D) all of these

32)

Studies of primates have shown that:

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A) only humans display any signs of cultural behavior B) only humans are capable of learning from experience C) only humans display any signs of cultural behavior and only humans are capable of learning from experience D) monkeys and apes display the beginning aspects of culture

33)

Nonhuman primates:

A) do not possess culture in any form; only humans do B) adjust to new situations through learned behavior C) have behavioral patterns that are passed on to the offspring D) adjust to new situations through learned behavior and have behavioral patterns that are passed on to the offspring

34)

The authors call the transmission of learned behavior in nonhuman primates: A) primoculture B) preculture C) protoculture D) primatoculture

35)

The term protoculture refers to: A) the cultural activities of children B) the earliest evidence of culture found in prehistoric human societies C) simple cultural activities found in monkey and ape societies D) innate behaviors commonly found in all mammals

36) The development of sweet-potato washing among the Japanese macaques of Koshima Island is of interest to students of human evolution because:

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A) the monkeys were observed to use simple tools to help clean the sweet potatoes B) the eating of sweet potatoes was not accepted by the troop until the adult males started it C) a single monkey developed a new behavior and this behavior was transmitted to the rest of the population D) the monkeys developed new vocalizations to accompany the activity of sweet-potato washing

37)

Learned behavioral patterns found among chimpanzees in the wild include: A) cracking nuts with a wood or stone hammer B) using leaves to clean the body C) fishing for termites using a termite stick D) all of these

38)

Donald E. Brown's list of what he considers to be human universals includes: A) rules about sexual behavior B) some form of play and games C) languages that conform to a universal set of grammatical rules D) all of these

39)

A sexual division of labor is: A) found in all human societies B) found only in non-Western societies C) found only in foraging societies D) the only human universal

40)

The transmission of information from a sender to a receiver is termed:

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A) language B) articulation C) communication D) displacement

41)

Which of the following is an example of primate communication?

A) a male grooms an estrus female B) a lemur marks territory using a scent gland C) a male baboon displays his large canines D) all of these

42)

Vocalizations in nonhuman primates serve many functions, including: A) maintaining contact between members of a group B) signaling annoyance C) sounding an alarm in case of danger D) all of these

43)

Human language is open. This means that: A) humans can coin new labels for new concepts and objects B) humans can communicate about things not directly in front of them C) human vocalized sounds do not blend with other signals D) human "words" have no real connection to the things to which they refer

44) The ability of a speaker to communicate about things at times other than the present and about things not directly in front of the speaker is termed:

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A) displacement B) duality of patterning C) arbitrariness D) discreteness

45)

A discrete signal is one that: A) blends with other signals B) is not distinct from other signals C) does not blend with other signals D) is characteristic only of nonhuman communication systems

46)

A system of vocalized sounds that grade one into another is a: A) call system B) discrete system C) blending system D) vocalization system

47)

Human language is: A) discrete B) open C) arbitrary D) all of these

48)

A lexicon is:

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A) the collection of all the standardized sounds made by the speakers of a language B) a set of meaningful units such as words C) a set of rules used to make up words and combine words into larger utterances D) a symbol that represents a word

49)

The area in the human brain that controls the production of speech sounds is: A) Chomsky's area B) Terrace's area C) Broca's area D) Darwin's area

50)

The chimpanzees' use of ASL includes the language feature(s): A) openness B) displacement C) arbitrariness D) all of these

51)

ASL has been taught to: A) Albert B) Washoe C) Vicki D) Sarah

52)

In order for a communication system to be called a language it must have:

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A) words B) phrases C) grammar D) all of these

53)

The faculty of language in the broad sense refers to: A) the shared communicative capabilities of humans and some nonhumans B) the characteristics of language that are unique to humans C) the characteristics of communication found only in apes and humans D) any ability to communicate

54)

The faculty of language in the narrow sense refers to: A) the shared communicative capabilities of humans and some nonhumans B) the characteristics of language that are unique to humans C) the characteristics of communication found only in apes and humans D) any ability to communicate

55)

H. S. Terrace's criticism of ape language studies states:

A) that the apes' utterances did not increase in length over time B) that the apes had no concept of turn taking C) that the apes' utterances were not spontaneous but followed the researchers most of the time D) all of these

56)

Cheney's and Seyfarth's observations of vervet monkeys suggest that these monkeys:

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A) make a variety of tools out of vegetables B) understand the concept of rank within their dominance hierarchy C) use a number of hand signs similar to ASL D) none of these

57)

The evolution of primate intelligence may be based on:

A) the difficulties imposed by living in a social group B) the challenge of exploiting fruit as a resource C) the association of intelligence with language ability D) the difficulties imposed by living in a social group and the challenge of exploiting fruit as a resource E) all of these

58)

For most of the time the human species has been around, humans have obtained food by: A) gathering, supplemented by scavenging and/or hunting B) herding animals C) horticulture D) agriculture

59)

The earliest farming dates back to about: A) 500,000 years ago B) 120,000 years ago C) 26,000 years ago D) 13,000 years ago

60)

In foraging societies:

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A) both males and females participate fully in both hunting and gathering B) females primarily hunt and males primarily gather C) males primarily hunt and females primarily gather D) both males and females primarily gather, with males occasionally hunting

61)

In terms of mating activities, humans differ from other primates in that: A) human females conceal ovulation B) human females and males form monogamous pair bonds within a larger social group C) human females are potentially receptive at all times D) all of these

62)

Human foraging bands: A) are composed of several male-female pairs B) contain several males ranked in a dominance hierarchy C) form temporary male-female pairs when the female is in estrus D) contain male-female pairs formed among individuals born into a band

63) The development of sweet-potato washing among the Japanese macaques of Koshima Island is of interest to students of human evolution because: A) as a result of this behavior, the macaques have become more intelligent, as is shown by an increase in their brain size B) a single monkey developed a new behavior and this behavior was transmitted to the rest of the population C) only the females of the population developed and practiced this behavior D) while the practice spread among the adults of the group, it was not passed on to the offspring

64)

Nonhuman primates:

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A) do not possess culture in any form; only humans do B) do adjust to new situations through learned behavior, but they do not have behavioral patterns that are passed on C) both adjust to new situations through learned behavior and have behavioral patterns that are passed on D) have complex cultural traditions that they rely on to adapt to their environment

65) The ability of a speaker to communicate about things at times other than the present and about things not directly in front of the speaker is termed: A) openness B) displacement C) disarticulation D) discreteness

66)

The transmission of information from a sender to a receiver is termed: A) communication B) language C) speech D) vocalization

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

67) In what ways does human behavior differ from chimpanzee behavior?

68) Describe the structure of a human band. How does the human band differ from the baboon troop?

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69) What features describe the social networks of the Hadza as discussed in the text? How do these features compare to modern social networks?

70) In what ways are the alarm calls of the vervet monkey similar to human language? In what ways are they different?

71)

In what ways do nonhuman primates display what might be called intelligence?

72)

Can apes be taught to communicate linguistically?

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73)

What is meant by the term "protoculture"?

74)

Are there any human universals? Explain.

75) What is the difference between the faculty of language in the broad sense and the faculty of language in the narrow sense?

76) How intelligent are nonhuman primates? What factors may be related to the evolution of intelligence in primates?

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77)

What are some of the characteristics of a human foraging society?

78) What is the function of sharing in a human band? What type of social networks might form in a foraging society (see Box 10-1)?

79)

Define culture. How is culture used by humans to adapt to their environment?

80) What features characterize human languages that do not seem to be found in the communication of most nonhuman primates?

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81) What does the term "protoculture" mean? What are some examples of protoculture in nonhuman primates? What are some elements of human culture that might be absent or at least not present to a significant degree in the protoculture of nonhuman primates?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_12e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) E 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) C Version 1

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27) B 28) D 29) B 30) D 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) C 35) C 36) C 37) D 38) D 39) A 40) C 41) D 42) D 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) A 47) D 48) B 49) C 50) D 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) B 55) D 56) B Version 1

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57) D 58) A 59) D 60) C 61) D 62) A 63) B 64) C 65) B 66) A 67) Answers will vary.

68) Answers will vary.

69) Answers will vary.

70) Answers will vary.

71) Answers will vary.

72) Answers will vary.

73) Answers will vary.

74) Answers will vary.

75) Answers will vary.

76) Answers will vary.

77) Answers will vary.

78) Answers will vary.

79) Answers will vary.

80) Answers will vary.

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81) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 11 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Soft tissue of prehistoric organisms has been preserved under special conditions. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

An ancient stone tool is considered to be a fossil. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The fossil record represents all genera and families with about the same degree of completeness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) We can reconstruct an organism's musculature by examining the organism's fossilized skeleton. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) A careful analysis of skeletal remains can provide some information about body size, brain size, and skin color. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

A billion is 1000 million. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

1

7) According to the principle of superposition, the older sedimentary beds lie beneath the younger beds. ⊚ ⊚

8)

The statistical measure of the rate of decay of a radioactive isotope is termed its half-life. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

true false

Potassium-argon can be used to directly date bone. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) A needle on a compass points to magnetic north. Magnetic north has always been in the same relative position. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) The study of the processes that affect an organism after death is called: A) paleontology B) phylogeny C) taphonomy D) archaeology

12)

A fossil is:

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A) an intact and completely preserved ancient organism only B) any remains of an organism, even modern C) the remains or traces of an ancient organism D) none of these

13)

In order to become a fossil, an organism usually must: A) have hard parts such as bones or shell B) not have been destroyed immediately by other animals or natural elements C) have been protected from decaying, usually by being buried quickly after death D) all of these

14) Soft tissue of prehistoric organisms has been preserved under special conditions including: A) mummification in hot dry climates B) freezing in glaciers or tundra C) preservation in waterlogged areas such as bogs D) all of these

15) In 1991, a partially freeze-dried body of a man was found in the Italian Alps. The body dates to about: A) 1000 B.P. B) 2700 B.P. C) 5300 B.P. D) 7500 B.P.

16)

The majority of fossils exist in the form of:

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A) bone that has been mineralized B) soft tissue remains C) a cast of the actual organism D) actual bones and teeth

17)

All of the following are considered to be fossils except: A) mineralized bone B) an insect embedded in amber C) a stone tool D) a cast of an ancient animal

18)

Sampling error in the fossil record involves the fact that: A) some species are fossilized more frequently than others B) some parts of the world have been more extensively excavated than others C) some fossils may not represent average individuals in an ancient population D) all of these

19) One estimate, based upon the excavations at Omo, is that only ____________ percent of individuals who once lived are presented in the fossil record.

A) 5 B) 0.1 C) 0.03 D) 0.004

20)

The fossil record:

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A) is a true reflection of the numerical relationship of one animal to all others B) represents all genera and families with about the same degree of completeness C) is quite complete because almost all animals that have died have become fossilized D) none of these

21)

A bone's preservation potential is determined by: A) its length, width, shape, and condition at death B) its size, shape, composition, and hydraulic behavior C) its sponginess D) none of these

22)

The hydraulic behavior of bones refers to: A) the potential for the transport of bones by water sources B) the way bones may be dispersed by moving water C) how bones of different sizes and shapes move through water D) all of these

23) A careful analysis of skeletal remains can provide some information about all of the following except: A) musculature B) skin color C) brain size D) relative importance of the senses

24) The Neandertal from La Chapelle-aux-Saints, once used as the prototype of the Neandertal, is not typical because in part:

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A) he was a dwarf B) he suffered from arthritis C) he was a juvenile D) none of these

25)

The Neandertal from La Chapelle-aux-Saints: A) illustrates how an accurate picture of an entire group can be drawn from only one

find B) is an example of fossilization by desiccation C) illustrates the problem of the use of a small sample from which conclusions are drawn about an entire group D) was an elaborate hoax

26)

The investigation of injuries and disease in prehistoric populations is the field of: A) paleopathology B) paleoecology C) palynology D) paleontology

27)

The material remains of human behavior are known as: A) fossils B) artifacts C) casts D) lithics

28)

The study of fossils in general is referred to as:

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A) paleoanthropology B) palynology C) paleontology D) none of these

29)

The populationist:

A) believes that variation of a basic type is illusory; only archetypes are real B) believes that only individuals have reality; archetypes are illusory C) would classify fossils that show no more variation between them than individuals within a closely related living species as the same species D) believes that only individuals have reality; archetypes are illusory and would classify fossils that show no more variation between them than individuals within a closely related living species as the same species

30)

Living species are defined in terms of: A) morphological variation B) sexual dimorphism C) reproductive isolation D) arbitrary criteria

31)

Paleospecies are defined in terms of: A) morphological variation B) sexual dimorphism C) reproductive isolation D) arbitrary criteria

32) Variation within a single species (as opposed to variation between different species) is referred to as: Version 1

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A) intraspecific variation B) interspecific variation C) endospecific variation D) none of these

33)

A billion is: A) 100 thousand B) 1000 thousand C) 1000 million D) 10,000 million

34)

Sedimentation rates: A) vary depending on environmental conditions B) are uniform throughout time and are therefore the best means for absolute dating C) can change, causing unconformities D) vary depending on environmental conditions and can change, causing unconformities

35)

The study of sedimentary beds is termed: A) palynology B) taphonomy C) stratigraphy D) paleoecology

36)

According to the principle of superposition:

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A) older sedimentary beds lie on top of the younger beds B) the position of sedimentary beds is not related to age C) older sedimentary beds lie beneath the younger beds D) the geological processes responsible for the development of sedimentary beds in the past are different than those operating today

37)

An unconformity is:

A) a scientific theory that does not conform to other theories on the same general phenomenon B) a hoax, such as the Piltdown hoax C) a surface that represents breaks in the stratigraphic record D) an index fossil that appears to be from the wrong time period

38)

An index fossil:

A) is a marker for a specific time period B) is a fossil species that existed for a long period of time before becoming extinct C) is a fossil species that was restricted to a small geographic area D) is a fossil species that existed for a long period of time before becoming extinct and is a fossil species that was restricted to a small geographic area

39)

Fluorine dating can be used to determine: A) whether or not two fossils found at the same level are contemporary B) a relative date C) a chronometric date D) an index date

40)

Using a relative dating technique, we could determine:

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A) the exact age difference between two fossils or artifacts B) whether one fossil is younger or older than another fossil C) if two fossilized animals were genetically related to one another D) the exact age difference between two fossils or artifacts and whether one fossil is younger or older than another fossil

41)

Dendrochronology refers to: A) carbon dating B) tree-ring dating C) dental dating D) fluoride dating

42)

The Piltdown find: A) is now thought to be our direct ancestor B) is probably ancestral to chimpanzees C) was an elaborate hoax D) conclusively confirmed our ancestral relationship to the orangutan

43)

Which of the following is a chronometric date?

A) Mary is 10 years older than John.

B) The first life dates to about 3.8 billion years ago.

C) Basket A is older than basket B. D) Sivapithecus comes before Australopithecus in the fossil record.

44)

Which of the following does not yield a chronometric date?

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A) stratigraphic methods B) radiocarbon dating C) potassium-argon dating D) amino acid racemization

45)

The statement that a chronometric date is 500 B.P. plus or minus 50 years means:

A) the date includes an error factor of 50 years B) the probability of the date falling within a range is given C) the plus or minus 50 years is the standard deviation D) the probability of the date falling within a range is given and the plus or minus 50 years is the standard deviation only

46) If the standard deviation of a radiocarbon date is given as 50 years, the probability that the organism died within 50 years of the radiocarbon date is: A) 50 percent B) 67 percent C) 95 percent D) 100 percent

47)

The statistical measure of the rate of decay of a radioactive isotope is termed its: A) half-life B) disintegration rate C) coefficient of decay

48) was:

The first radiometric method of dating, developed by Willard H. Libby in the late 1940s,

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A) amino acid racemization B) fission-track dating C) radiocarbon dating D) electron spin resonance (ESR) dating

49)

Radiocarbon dating can be used to date: A) a bone harpoon point B) a stone point C) a metal container D) all of these

50)

The half-life of carbon 14 is: A) 2344 years B) 5730 years C) 10,250 years D) 100,000 years

51)

The conventional method of radiocarbon dating can be used to date objects as old as: A) 35,000 years B) 50,000 years C) 100,000 years D) 450,000 years

52)

Radiocarbon dating can be used to date:

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A) actual organic material B) the volcanic ash surrounding the material C) only items older than 20 million years old D) the volcanic ash surrounding the material and only items older than 20 million years old

53)

Potassium-argon can be used to directly date: A) soft tissue B) bone C) pottery D) none of these

54)

Potassium-argon would be used to date the age of a: A) sedimentary layer B) bone breccia C) lava flow D) tree

55)

The half-life of potassium 40 is: A) 1250 million years B) 200 million years C) 5730 years D) 52,345 years

56)

In order to use potassium-argon dating, the material must:

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A) have a high potassium content B) be associated with volcanic activity C) be organic D) have a high potassium content and be associated with volcanic activity E) all of these

57) Recently a new method of potassium-argon dating, called single-crystal fusion, has been developed. This method has an advantage over the traditional potassium-argon dating in that it can be used to: A) date organic material B) reduce the effects of contamination C) date smaller samples D) reduce the effects of contamination and date smaller samples

58)

Fission-track dating:

A) is a relative dating method based on the tracks of animals left in different strata B) is a chronometric method of dating based on the tracks created by radioactive decay and left in minerals C) is an advanced method of radiocarbon dating D) is based on the process of racemization

59) When some materials, such as crystals, are heated they will give off a flash of light, a phenomenon known as: A) thermoluminescence B) racemization C) radioactive decay D) electron spin resonance

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60)

Thermoluminescence dating can be used to date: A) ceramic artifacts B) stones from a fire pit C) hominin bones dating back 5,000,000 B.P. D) ceramic artifacts and stones from a fire pit E) none of these

61) Electrons separated from radioactive elements are sometimes trapped in defects of crystals in odd numbers. These electrons, acting as small magnets, are the basis of: A) electron spin resonance (ESR) dating B) radiocarbon dating C) thermoluminescence dating D) amino acid racemization dating

62)

Fossilized fecal matter is called a: A) coprolite B) fecalite C) dung ball D) fecalis

63)

A coprolite is defined as: A) a fossilized tooth or other dental material B) a tree ring C) a coral or sea shell D) fossilized fecal matter

64) is:

A method of dating, which would be used to study the fossils older than 1 million years,

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A) radiocarbon dating B) potassium-argon dating C) stratigraphy D) potassium-argon dating and stratigraphy

65)

A needle on a compass points to magnetic north. Magnetic north: A) has always been in the same relative position B) changes position over time C) can be on both sides of the earth at the same time D) is an imaginary concept with no basis in fact

66) The angle made by a line pointing to true north and a line pointing to magnetic north is called a: A) declination angle B) differential angle C) magnetic angle D) northerly angle

67) Certain metallic crystals leave a record of the polarity of the earth at the point in time when they were formed in molten rock because they: A) leave radioactive "signatures" that scientists can read B) act as small magnets that orient themselves to the poles before the rock solidifies C) form ring-type patterns like tree rings that can be counted D) contain amino acids, which form as crystals, and this change in the amino acids can be used to determine the passage of time

68)

Chrons are:

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A) the number of electrons trapped in crystals B) a segment of the geological time scale that is smaller than an epoch C) the time it takes two tectonic plates to move one kilometer from each other D) large divisions of a geomagnetic reversal time scale

69)

Geomagnetic dating is most useful for dating material that existed between: A) 100 and 10,000 years ago B) 10,000 and 10 million years ago C) 10 million and 50 million years ago D) 50 million and 5 billion years ago

70)

The amino acid racemization method of dating is based upon: A) the replacement of amino acids in a dead body by minerals B) the uptake of fluorine from groundwater C) the processes whereby L-amino acids turn into D-amino acids D) the radioactive decay of carbon within the amino acids

71)

The earth's tectonic plates move at a rate of about: A) 1 kilometer a year B) 14 meters a year C) 2.5 centimeters a year D) 0.3 centimeters a year

72)

Pangaea refers to:

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A) an ancient land mass made up of all major land masses of today B) the name of the most recent glacial period C) a partial fluid layer of the earth directly below the lithosphere D) a Cretaceous dinosaur

73)

About 65 million years ago, the world saw the extinction of: A) only the dinosaurs B) large animals only C) about 75 percent of all life forms, large and small D) a large number of life forms for the first time in the history of the earth

74) Some scientists believe that about 65 million years ago an asteroid, meteorite, or comet struck the earth causing mass extinctions. One line of evidence for this event is: A) a stratum rich in iridium, rare on earth but more common in extraterrestrial bodies, found in many areas around the world B) the presence of a very large meteorite dated at around 65 million years ago embedded in the ground in central Asia C) a crater in Arizona, measuring about 18 miles across, dated about 65 million years ago D) there is no good evidence for this assumed event

75)

The cause of the earth's most recent mass-extinction event is: A) an impact by an asteroid, meteorite, or comet B) a global cooling, or ice age C) the extinction of the dinosaurs D) human activity

76)

In which of the following eras are we currently living?

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A) Mesozoic B) Cenozoic C) Paleozoic D) Neozoic

77)

The Cenozoic began about: A) 500 million years ago B) 125 million years ago C) 65 million years ago D) 5 million years ago

78)

The epoch that spans the last 10,000 years is the: A) Quaternary B) Holocene C) Pleistocene D) Neogene

79)

The Pleistocene was:

A) the time of the only ice ages in earth's history B) a time with both glacial and interglacial periods C) a time when ice covered the entire earth D) the time of the only ice ages in earth's history and a time with both glacial and interglacial periods

80)

Which of the following is not an era?

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A) Paleozoic B) Neozoic C) Mesozoic D) Cenozoic

81)

The first mammals evolved during the: A) Paleozoic B) Neozoic C) Mesozoic D) Cenozoic

82)

The first hominins appeared in the: A) Miocene B) Pliocene C) Pleistocene D) Eocene

83)

The study of the processes that affect an organism after death is called: A) taphonomy B) paleontology C) palynology D) paleopathology

84)

All of the following are considered to be fossils except:

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A) mineralized bone B) an insect embedded in amber C) a cast of an ancient animal D) a stone tool

85)

The investigation of injuries and disease in prehistoric populations is called: A) taphonomy B) paleopathology C) palynology D) paleontology

86)

The material remains of human behavior are known as: A) fossils B) artifacts C) molds D) coprolites

87)

Paleospecies are defined in terms of: A) the potential for gene flow from one paleospecies to the next B) geographical range C) morphological variation D) all of these

88)

The study of sedimentary beds is termed:

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A) palynology B) sedimentology C) indexology D) stratigraphy

89)

Which of the following is a chronometric date?

A) Fossil A is 1000 years older than fossil B. B) Fossil B is older than fossil C. C) The first hominid dates to around 6 million years ago.

D) Australopithecus comes before Homo in the fossil record.

90)

In which of the following eras are we currently living?

A) Mesozoic B) Cenozoic C) Paleocene D) Neozoic

91)

The first hominins appeared in the: A) Miocene B) Pliocene C) Oligocene D) Paleocene

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

92) What is a fossil? How does a fossil differ from an artifact?

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93)

What is the most common way in which bones become fossilized?

94)

What is taphonomy? What type of information can be gained from taphonomic studies?

95) Why is the probability of a lowland animal being preserved as a fossil greater than a similar type of highland animal being fossilized?

96) Other than fossils, what evidence does a paleoanthropologist use to reconstruct ancient environments?

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97) Some paleoanthropologists maintain that one cannot speak of species in the fossil record.

What are some of the difficulties in applying the species concept to extinct populations?

98)

Why is the concept of time so important to geologists and paleoanthropologists?

99)

What are the two types of dates referred to by paleoanthropologists? Define each of them.

100) What is plate tectonics? In what ways do the movements of land masses affect the evolution of life?

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101) What does the impact of an interplanetary object possibly have to do with the extinction of the dinosaurs?

102)

What are the main sources of sampling error and variability in the fossil record?

103) Have humans had any major influences on the physical characteristics of the earth? If so, what have they been?

104) How often does fossilization take place? What conditions must be met for fossilization to occur?

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105)

Why is there sampling error in the fossil record?

106) What is the difference between relative dating and chronometric dating? Why are these types of dating often necessary to get an accurate picture of the dates of a series of fossils?

107)

What is plate tectonics? How does plate tectonics affect the evolution of life?

108) Why is an understanding of the Pleistocene ice ages necessary to understand the distribution and relationship between species that lived during that epoch and afterward?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_12e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) C 12) C 13) D 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) D 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) B 25) C 26) A Version 1

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27) B 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) A 32) A 33) C 34) D 35) C 36) C 37) C 38) A 39) A 40) B 41) B 42) C 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) A 50) B 51) B 52) A 53) D 54) C 55) A 56) D Version 1

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57) D 58) B 59) A 60) D 61) A 62) A 63) D 64) D 65) B 66) A 67) B 68) D 69) B 70) C 71) C 72) A 73) C 74) A 75) D 76) B 77) C 78) B 79) B 80) B 81) D 82) A 83) A 84) D 85) B 86) B Version 1

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87) C 88) D 89) C 90) B 91) A 92) Answers will vary.

93) Answers will vary.

94) Answers will vary.

95) Answers will vary.

96) Answers will vary.

97) Answers will vary.

98) Answers will vary.

99) Answers will vary.

100) Answers will vary.

101) Answers will vary.

102) Answers will vary.

103) Answers will vary.

104) Answers will vary.

105) Answers will vary.

106) Answers will vary.

107) Answers will vary.

108) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 12 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Molecular data suggests that the last common ancestor of all primates lived 30 million years ago. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Aegyptopithecus falls very near the divergence of the Old World monkeys and the apes. It is not clear whether or not it is a very early monkey or a very early ape or perhaps closely related to the common ancestor of both lineages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The earliest New World monkey, Branisella, first appears in the Middle Miocene of Bolivia. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

Fossil hominoids underwent a major adaptive radiation during the Miocene. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) A land connection developed between Africa and Asia during the Middle Miocene that not only permitted animals to move from one continent to another, but also resulted in an expansion of more varied habitats, including the savanna grasslands. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Fossils of the hominoids of the Late Miocene, including Dryopithecus, Ouranopithecus, and Sivapithecus, are only found in sites in southern and southeastern Asia.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Gigantopithecus survived into the Pleistocene where it coexisted with populations of the genus Homo. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Paleontologists are able to identify which fossil hominoids from the Miocene gave rise to the living great apes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) The hominins most likely evolved from a Miocene hominoid that closely resembled the living chimpanzees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10) The order Primates probably originated about: A) 84.5 million years ago B) 65.5 million years ago C) 52.5 million years ago D) 38.5 million years ago

11)

Which of the following statements is true?

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A) Modern primates did not descend from Mesozoic mammals.

B) Mesozoic mammals coexisted with dinosaurs.

C) Mesozoic mammals included monkey-like and ape-like primates.

D) None of these

12)

Almost half of the known living and fossil primates species have been found in: A) East Africa B) South America C) North America and Europe D) Southeast Asia

13)

The earliest well-documented primate fossils date from the: A) Late Miocene B) Middle Oligocene C) Early Paleocene D) Middle Eocene

14)

Most investigators believe that the origins of the primates lie in the: A) Cretaceous B) Jurassic C) Paleogene D) Triassic

15)

The plesiadapiforms:

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A) may represent the earliest primates B) were small arboreal quadrupeds C) lacked many characteristics of later primates, such as a grasping big toe D) all of these

16)

The plesiadapiforms lived in: A) East Africa B) South America C) North America and Europe D) Southeast Asia

17) the:

Primates that show anatomical features of living primates first appear at the beginning of

A) Paleocene B) Neogene C) Eocene D) Oligocene

18)

The two distinct groups of primates that appear at the beginning of the Eocene are the: A) Adapidae and Omomyidae B) Omomyidae and Plesiadapiforms C) Plesiadapiforms and Tarsiidae D) Tarsiidae and Lemuridae

19)

The members of the family Adapidae are characterized by:

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A) nocturnal habits B) elongated tarsal bones C) elongated snouts D) dental combs

20)

Members of the Adapidae resemble in many ways modern: A) tarsiers B) New World monkeys C) lemurs and lorises D) Old World monkeys

21)

The omomyids were: A) nocturnal B) insectivores C) smaller than adapids D) all of these

22)

The members of the family Omomyidae resemble in some ways the modern: A) tree shrews B) lemurs C) tarsiers D) marmosets

23)

The earliest fossils that belong to the superfamily Lorisoidea were found in:

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A) Bugti Hills, Pakistan B) Fayum, Egypt C) Olduvia Gorge, Tanzania D) Shang huang, China

24)

The earliest loris-like primate was: A) Bugtilemur mathesoni B) Ardipithecus ramidus C) Karanisia clarki D) Proconsul africanus

25)

The earliest known lemur is from: A) Middle Eocene, Egypt B) Early Oligocene, Pakistan C) Middle Eocene, China D) Early Oligocene, Tanzania

26)

The features most essential to being defined as a tarsier include: A) very long legs relative to the arms and trunk B) an elongation of two ankle bones C) fusing of the tibia and fibula D) all of these

27)

The earliest loris-like and galago-like primates date from the:

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A) Middle Eocene B) Late Oligocene C) Early Paleocene D) Early Miocene

28)

The earliest tarsiers are from: A) Eocene, Egypt and China B) Oligocene, Pakistan and China C) Eocene, Kenya and Tanzania D) Oligocene, India and Pakistan

29)

The anthropoid primates first appear in the Middle to Late: A) Paleocene B) Eocene C) Oligocene D) Miocene

30)

Which of the following is not an early anthropoid?

A) the parapithecids B) the propliopithecids C) the adapids D) all of these

31)

Darwinius, a well-preserved fossil from Germany, is an early:

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A) adapid B) anthropoid C) hominoid D) hominin

32)

Darwinius is a well-preserved fossil from: A) China B) East Africa C) Europe D) North America

33)

An important Early Oligocene site in northern Africa is: A) Rusinga Island B) the Fayum C) Olduvai Gorge D) Sterkfontein

34) The upper-sequence primates of the Jebel Qatrani Formation are classified into two families: A) the Parapithecidae and the Propliopithecidae B) the Adapidae and the Omomyidae C) the Platyrrhini and the Catarrhini D) none of these

35)

The Propliopithecidae include:

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A) Aegyptopithecus B) Catopithecus C) Victoriapithecus D) Aegyptopithecus and Catopithecus E) Catopithecus and Victoriapithecus

36)

The parapithecids were: A) early anthropoids B) frugivores C) very small D) all of these

37)

One of the best known propliopithecids is: A) Parapithecus B) Aegyptopithecus C) Aeolopithecus D) Oligopithecus

38)

One of the most common mammals in the Fayum beds, Apidium, belongs to the family: A) Parapithecidae B) Propliopithecidae C) Aegyptopithecidae D) none of these

39)

Aegyptopithecus was:

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A) a true primate that lived in the Early Eocene of North America and resembles modern tarsiers B) an early anthropoid that lived in the Early Oligocene of Egypt C) an Early Miocene hominoid that lived in Kenya and may be ancestral to one of the ape lineages D) a Late Miocene hominid that might be close to the common ancestor of chimpanzees and humans

40)

Aegyptopithecus seems to show a locomotor adaptation for: A) arboreal quadrupedalism B) brachiation C) knuckle-walking D) erect bipedalism

41)

The fact that Aegyptopithecus shows considerable sexual dimorphism might mean that: A) males and females lived separate from each other B) they lived in a complex social grouping C) males and females ate entirely different types of food D) the males hunted and the females gathered

42)

The New World monkeys most likely: A) evolved independently in South America from a late omomyid B) are descended from a group of early African anthropoids C) are descended from a group of early Asian anthropoids D) are descended from a group of early European anthropoids

43)

New World and Old World monkeys exhibit many similarities as a result of:

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A) descent from a common ancestor B) occupying similar ecological niches C) parallelism D) all of these

44) During the Middle Oligocene, ancestral ceboid monkeys could have traveled from Africa to South America because: A) at that time, the two continents were connected B) a major lowering of sea levels facilitated crossing on natural rafts C) an ice age created a connecting sheet of ice D) none of these as the Atlantic Ocean presented an impossible barrier, as it does today

45)

The oldest known New World fossil monkey is dated at about: A) 65 million B.P. B) 45 million B.P. C) 27 million B.P. D) 10 million B.P.

46)

The oldest known New World fossil monkey is: A) Branisella B) Kondous C) Micodon D) Chilecebus

47) The earliest Old World monkeys are separated from the next-oldest known Old World monkeys by a gap in the fossil record of:

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A) 3 million years B) 7 million years C) 10 million years D) 15 million years

48)

The Old World monkeys seem to have first evolved in: A) Africa B) Asia C) Europe D) North America

49)

The earliest fossils of Old World monkeys belong to the family: A) Cercopithecidae B) Cebidae C) Victoriapithecidae D) Propliopithecidae

50)

The oldest known Old World monkey is: A) Victoriapithecus B) Oligopithecus C) Apidium D) Theropithecus

51)

The cercopithecoids only assumed a dominant role in the mammalian fauna after:

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A) the extinction of the dinosaurs B) the number of hominoids diminished C) they spread into the New World D) all of these

52)

Fossil hominoids underwent a major adaptive radiation during the: A) Miocene B) Oligocene C) Pliocene D) Pleistocene

53)

The hominoids most likely evolved from the: A) propliopithecids B) parapithecids C) pithecids D) cercopithecoids

54)

Perhaps the best known of the early Miocene African hominids is: A) Sivapithecus B) Gigantopithecus C) Oreopithecus D) Proconsul

55)

Early Miocene hominids are found in:

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A) Asia B) Africa C) Europe D) South America

56)

In contrast to the modern apes, Proconsul is characterized by: A) more vertically implanted incisors B) thin dental enamel C) a V-shaped dental arcade D) all of these

57) The known postcranial bones of Proconsul suggest that the major locomotion pattern of this form was: A) knuckle-walking B) brachiation C) bipedalism D) arboreal quadrupedalism

58)

The last sacral vertebra of Proconsul africanus indicates that the animal: A) was a quadruped B) had no tail C) was bipedal D) none of these

59)

A geological event that is important to the understanding of hominoid evolution is the:

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A) movement of South America away from Africa, making the Atlantic Ocean wider than it was B) movement of the Indian subcontinent into southern Asia, creating the Himalayan mountains C) movement of the Afro-Arabian plate into the Asian plate, creating a land bridge between Africa and Asia D) drying up of the Mediterranean Sea during the Miocene, permitting the free exchange of African and European fauna

60)

During the Miocene: A) glacial ice expanded in Antarctica B) volcanic eruptions contributed to an episode of major mountain building C) a land connection developed between Africa and Asia D) all of these

61) The movement of the Afro-Arabian plate into the Asian plate took place approximately around: A) 23-21 million B.P. B) 16-12 million B.P. C) 12-10 million B.P. D) 8-6 million B.P.

62) As a result of the various geological events that took place during the Miocene, major climatic changes also took place that are associated with the development of: A) a continuous tropical rain forest throughout most of Africa B) many discontinuous habitats, including savanna grasslands C) a shallow sea over much of what is today Western Asia D) major desert areas covering over 50 percent of Africa

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63)

Middle Miocene hominoids include: A) Pliopithecus B) Victoriapithecus C) Dryopithecus D) Pliopithecus and Dryopithecus E) all of these

64)

During the Middle Miocene, hominoids: A) migrated from Africa to Europe and Asia B) diversified, in part due to dietary specialization C) underwent a major adaptive radiation D) all of these

65)

Which of the following statements is true about the Miocene hominids?

A) The Miocene hominids were very monkeylike, yet they were moving around the trees using suspensory behavior.

B) While the Miocene hominids possessed apelike dentition, their postcranial skeletons were very generalized and did not show the postcranial specializations found in living apes.

C) The Miocene hominids were specialized leaf-eating primates, although there is some evidence that they hunted small game.

D) The direct ancestor of orangutans and gorillas has been identified among the Miocene hominid fossils.

66)

The Miocene Hominid Radiation refers to the rapid evolution in the Miocene of:

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A) the early prosimians B) the early Old World monkeys C) the early New World monkeys D) the early apes

67)

Dryopithecus: A) is one of the best known Middle-Late Miocene hominoids B) has bones that resemble the living apes C) was characterized by suspensory behavior and orthograde posture D) all of these

68)

Pliopithecus was an: A) African hominoid from the Early Miocene B) European hominoid from the Middle Miocene C) African prosimian from the Early Eocene D) African anthropoid from the Late Eocene

69)

Late Miocene hominoids include: A) Dryopithecus B) Oreopithecus C) Sivapithecus D) all of these

70)

Sivapithecus possessed:

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A) thick dental enamel B) small canines C) cusps on the large premolars and molars that were worn flat D) all of these

71)

Oreopithecus possesses: A) large canines B) a high degree of sexual dimorphism C) teeth adapted to processing leafy material D) all of these E) large canines and teeth adapted to processing leafy material

72)

Gigantopithecus was: A) a very large hominid that was ancestral to "Bigfoot" B) misnamed hominid that was actually more than the size of a living chimpanzee C) a late-surviving member of the Miocene hominid radiation D) an ancestor of the hominins

73)

Gigantopithecus has been found in: A) Africa B) Europe C) Asia D) all of these

74)

A fossil hominoid that was contemporary with a member of the genus Homo is:

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A) Sivapithecus B) Gigantopithecus C) Oreopithecus D) Pliopithecus E) none of these

75)

The diet of Gigantopithecus probably emphasized the consumption of: A) bamboo and fruit B) insects and leaves C) meat D) none of these

76)

The cranial capacity of Sahelanthropus is about: A) 240-250 cubic centimeters B) 270-285 cubic centimeters C) 330-380 cubic centimeters D) 405-429 cubic centimeters

77)

Sahelanthropus tchadensis was discovered in: A) Chad B) Ethiopia C) Kenya D) China

78)

Sahelanthropus tchadensis dates to around:

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A) 9-10 million B.P. B) 7-5 million B.P. C) 3-2 million B.P. D) 1 million to 500,000 B.P.

79)

Sahelanthropus tchadensis is characterized by: A) a small, chimp-like brain case B) a relatively flat face C) a large, continuous brow ridge D) all of these

80)

Those who suggest that Sahelanthropus is a hominin point to the following feature: A) cranial capacity within the fossil Homo range B) well-developed opposable thumb associated with early stone tools C) features of pelvis and femur suggesting it was an erect biped D) none of these

81)

" Orrorin tugenensis was an early hominin." This statement is: A) true B) partially true as Orrorin was a late hominin C) debated by paleoanthropologists D) false

82)

Orrorin tugenensis was found in:

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A) Kenya B) South Africa C) Germany D) France

83)

Orrorin tugenensis dates to around: A) 1 million B.P. B) 3 million B.P. C) 4 million B.P. D) 6 million B.P.

84)

Ardipithecus kadabba was classified as a hominin on the basis of: A) evidence of erect bipedalism B) the flatness of the face C) an analysis of the teeth D) all of these

85)

The site of Aramis is located in: A) China B) Ethiopia C) South Africa D) Pakistan

86) The material assigned to the species Ardipithecus ramidus that has been examined so far suggests that this species is very closely related to:

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A) chimpanzees B) New World monkeys C) Old World monkeys D) prosimians

87)

Ardipithecus ramidus is dated at about: A) 2.5 million B.P. B) 3.6 million B.P. C) 4.4 million B.P. D) 5.7 million B.P.

88)

Which of the following species is the oldest?

A) Ardipithecus ramidus B) Sahelanthropus tchadensis C) Ardipithecus kadabba D) Orrorin tugenensis

89)

Most investigators believe the origins of the primates lie in the: A) Jurassic B) Cretaceous C) Paleogene D) Triassic

90)

The plesiadapiforms:

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A) to some paleoanthropologists represent a very early representative of the primate order B) were small arboreal quadrupeds C) lacked many characteristics of later primates, such as a grasping big toe D) all of these

91)

Darwinius is a well-preserved fossil _______ from Germany.

A) adapid B) omomyid C) plesiadapiform D) tarsier

92)

Some of the earliest anthropoid fossils have been found in the: A) Miocene of Pakistan and India B) Early Miocene of East Africa C) Late Eocene of Egypt D) Oligocene of South America

93)

Aegyptopithecus: A) is found in the Early Oligocene of Egypt B) is an early anthropoid C) shows considerable sexual dimorphism D) all of these

94) The earliest fossils belonging to the superfamily Cercopithecoidea, the Old World monkeys, are placed into the family:

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A) Omomyidae B) Hominidae C) Victoriapithecidae D) Proconsulidae

95) During the middle of the Miocene, a major geological event took place that played a major role in the Miocene hominoid radiation. This event was: A) an asteroid hitting Earth in East Africa B) a connection developing between Africa and Asia C) the melting of glacial ice in northern Europe D) a long period of hot, dry climatic conditions

96) Gigantopithecus is characterized by several unusual features in the teeth and jaws that suggest that this species specialized in eating: A) bamboo B) hard fruits C) insects D) seeds and grasses

97)

Ardipithecus ramidus: A) dates to as early as 4.4 million years ago and it is now called Ethiopia B) lived in a wooded habitat and possessed a grasping big toe for climbing C) walked bipedally on the ground D) all of these

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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

98) Match the characteristic to the family. (An answer may be used more than once.)

A. Adapidae B. Omomyidae 1. V-shaped tooth row 2. relatively vertically implanted incisors 3. elongated tarsal bones

99) When did the earliest primates evolve? What were these earliest primates like? What are the earliest known primate fossils?

100)

What are the major differences between the Adapidae and Omomyidae?

101) What are the earliest anthropoid fossils? Where have they been found and how old are they?

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102)

Describe the habitats present at the Fayum during the Early Oligocene.

103) What are some of the features of the infraorder Parapithecidae? What are some of the features of this taxon and some representative genera?

104) Describe Aegyptopithecus. Why is this species important to our understanding of anthropoid evolution?

105) What is the evolutionary relationship of the New World and Old World monkeys? How old is the earliest New World monkey?

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106) The earliest Old World monkeys belong to the family Victoriapithecidae. Where are fossils from this family found and how old are they? Do they resemble any modern monkeys?

107) Describe the geological events that led to the Miocene hominoid radiation. What were the major consequences of this event?

108) Who are the earliest possible hominins? What evidence is there for each that it might be a hominin? Why is their hominin status doubted by some?

109) There is a tendency for people to refer to fossil groups in terms of analogies with living groups. For example, the Miocene hominoids are frequently referred to as "apes." Although these forms may have ancestral to modern apes (and humans as well), they are not really apes in the modern sense. What is the danger in calling early hominoids, such as Aegyptopithecus and Proconsul, a monkey or an ape?

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110) One of the burning questions in anthropology revolves around the origin of the hominins and the divergence of the hominins from the apes. What fossil group or groups might include a hominin ancestor? Why would it be recognized as the common ancestor of apes and humans?

111) What was the name of perhaps the largest primate that ever lived? What were some of its characteristics and when did it live?

112) What is the significance of the genus Ardipithecus to hominid evolution? Describe the characteristics of the two species of Ardipithecus.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_12e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) A 19) C 20) C 21) D 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) B 26) D Version 1

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27) A 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) A 39) B 40) A 41) B 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) C 48) A 49) C 50) A 51) B 52) A 53) A 54) D 55) B 56) D Version 1

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57) D 58) B 59) C 60) D 61) B 62) B 63) D 64) D 65) B 66) D 67) A 68) B 69) D 70) D 71) D 72) C 73) C 74) B 75) A 76) C 77) A 78) B 79) D 80) D 81) C 82) A 83) D 84) C 85) B 86) A Version 1

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87) C 88) B 89) B 90) D 91) A 92) C 93) D 94) C 95) B 96) A 97) D 98) 1. B, 2. A, 3. B. 99) Answers will vary.

100) Answers will vary.

101) Answers will vary.

102) Answers will vary.

103) Answers will vary.

104) Answers will vary.

105) Answers will vary.

106) Answers will vary.

107) Answers will vary.

108) Answers will vary.

109) Answers will vary.

110) Answers will vary.

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111) Answers will vary.

112) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 13 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) The fact that the brain of a human infant is less than 30 percent of its adult size is a consequence of the development of language. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

Olduvai Gorge is in Southern Africa. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) One of the oldest australopithecine sites, Laetoli, has yielded many hominin fossils as well as tracks of hominin footprints. ⊚ ⊚

4) B.P.

The first concrete evidence of the manufacture of stone tools dates to about 3.8 million ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

The dentition of Australopithecus afarensis is like modern chimpanzee dentition. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

true false

Kenyanthropus platyops was contemporary with Australopithecus afarensis. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

1

7)

A tuff is a layer of volcanic material. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Compared to apes, humans have relatively short, straight fingers, but a relatively long thumb. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) The cranial capacity of Paranthropus was around 1,000 cc, only slightly smaller than that of modern humans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The skulls of the genus Australopithecus are characterized by a marked prognathism and postorbital constriction and have considerably larger dentition and more powerful chewing apparatus than members of the genus Paranthropus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) The hominins include: A) Australopithecus B) Paranthropus C) Homo D) all of these

12)

The first member of the genus Australopithecus to be discovered was found by:

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A) Raymond Dart B) Robert Broom C) L. S. B. Leakey D) Donald Johanson

13)

" Australopithecus" means: A) "Australian skull" B) "southern skull" C) "southern ape" D) "African ape" E) "Taung Baby"

14)

The "Taung Baby" is assigned to the species: A) Australopithecus afarensis B) Australopithecus africanus C) Australopithecus anamensis D) Paranthropus robustus

15)

The "Taung Baby" was found in: A) South Africa B) East Africa C) Southeast Asia D) Western Europe

16)

Raymond Dart decided that the Taung baby was a hominin based on:

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A) the forward position of the foramen magnum B) the large cranial capacity C) the lack of body hair D) all of these

17) Today, paleoanthropologists have determined that A. africanus is not a hominin because it: A) does not have an enlarged brain case, like the Piltdown skull B) is quadrupedal C) possessed a sagittal crest D) none of these; A. africanus is indeed a hominin

18)

The South African sites where Australopithecus is found were once: A) limestone caves B) desert wastelands C) saltwater lakes D) lush forests

19)

C. K. Brain explains the South African fossils as being: A) tools B) the result of leopard predation C) the result of predation by Australopithecus D) none of these

20)

The three species of early hominins known from South Africa are:

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A) A. africanus, A. afarensis, and A. sediba B) A. africanus, P. robustus, and A. sediba C) A. africanus, P. boisei, and P. robustus D) A. afarensis, P. robustus., and A. garhi

21)

" Paranthropus" means: A) southern ape B) African C) parallel to man D) robust skull

22)

The site of Sterkfontein has yielded finds of: A) Australopithecus africanus B) Paranthropus robustus C) early Homo D) all of these

23)

Olduvai Gorge is located in: A) southern Africa B) northern Africa C) western Africa D) eastern Africa

24)

Olduvai Gorge was excavated beginning in the 1930s by:

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A) Louis and Mary Leakey B) Donald Johanson C) Raymond Dart and Robert Broom D) Richard Leakey and Alan Walker

25)

The hominin sites of Olduvai Gorge are located at what were once: A) tropical forests B) savanna grasslands C) lake margins or stream beds D) swamp lands

26) The hominin material from Bed I and Lower Bed II of Olduvai Gorge belong to the species: A) P. boisei B) A. africanus C) P. robustus D) A. afarensis

27)

The Paranthropus finds at Olduvai Gorge date to around: A) 4.40 million years ago B) 2.75 million years ago C) 1.75 million years ago D) 1 million years ago

28)

Australopithecus sediba is characterized by:

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A) features of both the genus Homo and other australopithecines B) a cranial capacity of about (for MH1) 420 cubic centimeters C) hands that show some degree of arboreal adaptation D) all of these

29) The australopithecine fossils from the Koobi Fora Formation of East Lake Turkana date from: A) 4.9 to 5.1 million B.P. B) 3.3 to 1.4 million B.P. C) 0.9 to 1.1 million B.P. D) 600,000 to 400,000 B.P.

30)

A tuff is a(n): A) find that was hard to make B) area lacking sedimentary deposits C) dry river bed D) layer of volcanic material

31) In 1984, a fossil cranium and partial mandible, WT 17000, or the "Black Skull," were found at West Lake Turkana. Some paleoanthropologists suggest that this fossil be placed in a species named: A) Australopithecus habilis B) Australopithecus capensis C) Paranthropus aethiopicus D) Homo africanus

32)

WT 17000 from West Lake Turkana has been dated at:

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A) 5.1 million B.P. B) 3.5 million B.P. C) 2.5 million B.P. D) 900,000 B.P.

33)

Finds of Paranthopus boisei range from: A) 4.5 to 3.8 million years ago B) 3.6 to 2.5 million years ago C) 2.3 to 1.4 million years ago D) 1.8 million to 600,000 years ago

34)

Fossils belonging to the species Australopithecus anamensis were discovered at: A) Koobi Fora, Kenya B) Kanapoi, Kenya C) Lomekwi, Kenya D) Laetoli, Tanzania

35) The australopithecine fossils from Kanapoi have been dated by the 40Ar/39Ar method to around: A) 5.10 million B.P. B) 4.15 million B.P. C) 3.77 million B.P. D) 3.15 million B.P.

36)

Kenyanthropus platyops is named after its most distinctive feature, which is:

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A) the appearance of a flat face B) an enlarged brain case C) the lack of bipedalism D) the reduced size of the canine teeth

37)

Kenyanthropus platyops was contemporary with: A) Orrorin tugenensis B) Australopithecus afarensis C) Paranthropus robustus D) early members of the genus Homo

38) The person associated with finds of both Kenyanthropus platyops and Australopithecus anamensis is: A) Louis Leakey B) Raymond Dart C) Meave Leakey D) Donald Johanson

39)

The site of Hadar is located in: A) Ethiopia B) Kenya C) Tanzania D) Zambia

40) Although there might be more than one species present at Hadar, the current consensus is that only one species is present, and that species is:

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A) A. africanus B) P. boisei C) P. robustus D) A. afarensis

41)

According to the consensus among paleoanthropologists, "Lucy" is:

A) a female australopithecine B) the first fossil australopithecine to be discovered where the cranium and postcranial remains are known to be from the same individual C) a representative of the species Australopithecus afarensis D) all of these E) none of these

42)

"Lucy" was found at: A) Hadar B) Omo C) Laetoli D) Taung

43)

The leader of the expedition which found the fossil "Lucy" was: A) L. S. B. Leakey B) Richard Leakey C) Donald Johanson D) Raymond Dart

44)

The 1994 find from Hadar, AL 444-2:

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A) is about 3 million years old B) represents the largest-known australopithecine cranium C) is 200,000 years younger than "Lucy" D) all of these

45) One of the oldest australopithecine sites, Laetoli, has yielded many hominin fossils as well as tracks of hominin footprints. This site dates from: A) 4.3 million B.P. B) 3.6 million B.P. C) 3.3 million B.P. D) 2.8 million B.P.

46)

The footprints of Australopithecus, found at Laetoli, indicate that the australopithecines: A) were imperfect bipeds who walked on the sides of their feet B) walked somewhat like modern gorillas C) were basically quadrupedal, but occasionally rose to a two-legged posture D) walked in a striding bipedal mode like modern humans

47)

The australopithecine footprints at Laetoli were formed when australopithecines: A) walked on cooling lava flows B) walked on wet volcanic ash C) escaped from a tar pit D) wore shoes

48)

Australopithecus garhi was found in ________ and is dated to ___________.

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A) Ethiopia, 2.5 million B.P B) Chad, 3.5 million B.P C) Kenya, 6.5 million B.P D) Tanzania, 1.5 million B.P

49)

Recent finds in northern Chad have been assigned to the species: A) Australopithecus africanus B) Australopithecus bahrelghazalia C) Paranthropus aethiopicus D) Paranthropus chadensis

50) The Australopithecus bahrelghazalia find is associated with other animal fossils that have been dated to between: A) 6.0 to 5.5 million B.P. B) 4.5 to 4.0 million B.P. C) 3.5 and 3.0 million B.P. D) 2.0 and 1.5 million B.P.

51)

Which of the following species is the oldest in the fossil record?

A) Australopithecus africanus B) Australopithecus afarensis C) Paranthropus aethiopicus D) Paranthropus boisei

52) The most apparent difference between modern humans and A. africanus is that the latter would:

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A) lack upright posture B) be smaller and lighter in weight C) lack the free use of the hands D) lack any tools

53)

The postcranial bones of A. anamensis suggest that the earliest-known hominins were: A) knuckle walkers B) brachiators C) erect bipeds D) quadrupeds

54)

Postcranially, A. afarensis is characterized by: A) a bowl-shaped pelvis B) a lumbar curve in the spine C) an arched foot D) all of these

55)

The postcranial bones of A. afarensis suggest: A) a transition to erect bipedalism B) knuckle-walking C) a lack of arboreal locomotion D) all of these

56) Based upon the curving of the A. afarensis finger and toe bones, some paleoanthropologists believe that this species was adapted to:

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A) knuckle-walking B) high-speed quadrupedal running C) arboreal suspensory locomotion D) essentially modern bipedal locomotion

57) The fact that the brain of a human infant is less than 30 percent of its adult size is a consequence of: A) the evolution of erect bipedalism B) a reduction in the length of gestation C) the development of language D) the development of pair bonding

58)

One function of bipedalism is that it: A) makes the animal a faster runner B) lowers body temperature in warm climates C) makes the animal stronger D) makes it easy to jump greater distances

59)

The adaptive advantage of erect bipedalism is that it: A) raises the eyes high off the ground B) frees the hands C) is efficient for covering large distances D) all of these

60)

The evidence for bipedal locomotion in early hominins includes:

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A) the postcranial skeleton B) brain anatomy C) fossilized footprints D) all of these E) the postcranial skeleton and fossilized footprints

61) Raymond Dart believed that the presence of many broken bones at Makapansgat represented: A) deliberately manufactured bone tools B) an osteodontokeratic culture C) the result of carnivore activity D) deliberately manufactured bone tools and an osteodontokeratic culture E) all of these

62)

The term "osteodontokeratic culture" refers to the use of: A) stone tools B) wood tools C) bone, tooth, and horn tools D) all of these

63)

C. K. Brain suggests that some evidence for bone tools may actually be evidence of: A) carnivore activity B) osteodontokeratic culture C) subsistent implements D) all of these

64) The first concrete evidence of the manufacture of stone tools comes from a site near the Gona River of: Version 1

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A) Ethiopia B) Tanzania C) South Africa D) Morocco

65)

The first concrete evidence of the manufacture of stone tools dates to about: A) 3.6 million B.P. B) 2.6 million B.P. C) 1.8 million B.P. D) 1.2 million B.P.

66)

A hand with relatively short, straight fingers and a relatively long thumb might belong to: A) a chimpanzee B) Australopithecus afarensis C) Homo sapiens D) all of these

67)

The dentition of Australopithecus is: A) like modern human dentition B) like modern chimpanzee dentition C) intermediate between chimpanzee and human dentition D) none of these

68)

The dentition of A. afarensis shows many nonhominin features including:

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A) a small diastema between the upper canine and premolar B) a parabolic dental arcade C) a nonprojecting canine D) all of these

69)

An analysis of the dentition of the "Taung Baby" suggests:

A) the "Taung Baby" is not a hominin after all B) Australopithecus gave rise to modern chimpanzees C) the "Taung Baby" represents a population far removed from the hominin line D) prolongation of childhood, characteristic of modern humans, was not fully developed in Australopithecus

70) Which of the following cranial capacities falls within the range found in the genus Australopithecus?

A) 300 cubic centimeters B) 500 cubic centimeters C) 900 cubic centimeters D) 1,200 cubic centimeters

71)

When a form has large jaw muscles, you might also find: A) small teeth B) a reduced number of teeth C) the development of a sagittal crest D) all of these

72)

The facial skeleton of Australopithecus is characterized by:

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A) a lack of prognathism B) prognathism C) a concave profile D) a lack of prognathism and a concave profile E) prognathism and a concave profile

73)

The genus Australopithecus is characterized by: A) marked postorbital constriction B) thick postcranial bones C) large incisors relative to the other teeth D) thick cranial bones

74) A. afarensis may be transitional between the Miocene hominoids and later australopithecines. It shows primitive characteristics including: A) a small diastema in one location B) a projecting canine C) a semisectorial lower molar D) all of these

75)

A. africanus is characterized by a: A) temporal-nuchal crest B) relatively high forehead C) marked postorbital constriction D) all of these

76)

The genus Paranthropus is characterized by:

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A) cranial capacities as high as 875 cubic centimeters B) relatively large molars C) well-developed chin D) very small jaw compared to face

77)

Many of the characteristics that define Paranthropus are related to adaptations for: A) heavy chewing and grinding B) biting and tearing with the front teeth C) meat-eating D) biting and tearing with the front teeth and meat-eating

78)

Traits associated with heavy chewing include: A) large and flared zygomatic arches B) a sagittal crest C) a large and deep mandible D) all of these

79)

Early hominins may have lived in: A) savannas B) wooded grasslands C) swamps D) all of these

80) An environmental factor that may be linked with the emergence of Paranthropus and Homo is:

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A) a rise in global temperatures B) a major cooling event C) a tectonic shift in the African continent D) none of these

81)

Specific anatomical adaptations for a tough, fibrous diet include: A) thickened tooth enamel B) large molars and premolars C) flared zygomatic arches D) all of these

82)

The two species of early hominins known from South Africa are: A) Australopithecus anamensis and Australopithecus afarensis B) Australopithecus afarensis and Paranthropus boisei C) Australopithecus africanus and Paranthropus robustus D) Ardipithecus ramidus and Australopithecus afarensis

83)

Which of the following statements about the Taung child is NOT true?

A) The Taung child is assigned to the species Australopithecus africanus.

B) The Taung child was originally classified as a hominin based on the forward position of the foramen magnum.

C) The Taung child was discovered by Donald Johanson in Ethiopia.

D) Analysis of the dentition of the Taung child shows that prolongation of childhood, which characterizes modern humans, was not fully developed in Australopithecus.

84)

The "Lucy" find:

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A) consists of 40 percent of a single skeleton B) is assigned to the species Australopithecus afarensis C) was definitely bipedal D) all of these

85)

The dentition of Australopithecus afarensis is characterized by a: A) small diastema between the upper canine and premolar B) canine that projects above the tooth row C) dental arcade that is intermediate in shape between that of modern humans and apes D) all of these

86)

The genus Paranthropus is characterized by: A) the presence of a sagittal crest B) the presence of a well-developed chin C) very large incisors and canines D) a cranial capacity of less than 400 cc

87)

Many of the characteristics that define Paranthropus are related to adaptations for: A) biting and tearing with the front teeth B) heavy chewing and grinding with the back teeth C) eating insects D) eating meat

88)

Of the following species, which is oldest?

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A) Paranthropus robustus B) Paranthropus boisei C) Australopithecus africanus D) Australopithecus afarensis

89)

The term "osteodontokeratic culture" refers to the use of: A) stone hammers B) bone, tooth, and horn tools C) tools made from wood and leaves D) projectile weapons

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

90) How was Raymond A. Dart's 1925 description of the first member of the genus Australopithecus received by the scientific community of the day?

91) Outline the history of Australopithecus and Paranthropus finds in South Africa.

Include a description of the different species of Australopithecus and Paranthropus found in South Africa.

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92) What is the history of Australopithecus and Paranthropus finds in east Africa? Who were the paleoanthropologists involved? What did each add to the general picture of human evolution?

93) What is the range of cranial capacities in early hominins? How does this compare with the cranial capacities in the apes and in modern humans?

94) What evidence exists that sheds light on the locomotor behavior of Australopithecus?

How would you describe this behavior?

95) How many species of Australopithecus were there? Do all paleoanthropologists agree on this number? Explain.

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96) The members of the genus Paranthropus were at one time considered to be robust species of the genus Australopithecus. What are the arguments for separating these species into their own genus versus including them with the members of the genus Australopithecus?

97) Many paleoanthropologists see A. afarensis as exhibiting many features that are transitional between the Miocene hominoids and the hominins. What are some of the features?

98)

What ideas exist on the use of tools by Paranthropus? What evidence is there?

99)

What traits characterize the hominins as different from the rest of the hominoids?

100)

What traits define hominins as different from apes?

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101)

What are the adaptive advantages of bipedalism?

102)

Did early hominins use tools? What evidence is there for this?

103) Where have early genera of hominins been found? What can we conclude from their distribution?

104) What are some of the major anatomical differences between the genera Australopithecus and Paranthropus? What evolutionary consequences might these differences have had for the two genera?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_12e 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) D 12) A 13) C 14) B 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) D 23) D 24) A 25) C 26) A Version 1

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27) C 28) D 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) C 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) A 40) D 41) D 42) A 43) C 44) D 45) B 46) D 47) B 48) A 49) B 50) C 51) B 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) A 56) C Version 1

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57) A 58) B 59) D 60) D 61) D 62) C 63) A 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) C 68) A 69) D 70) B 71) C 72) E 73) A 74) D 75) C 76) B 77) A 78) D 79) D 80) B 81) D 82) C 83) C 84) D 85) D 86) D Version 1

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87) B 88) D 89) B 90) Answers will vary.

91) Answers will vary.

92) Answers will vary.

93) Answers will vary.

94) Answers will vary.

95) Answers will vary.

96) Answers will vary.

97) Answers will vary.

98) Answers will vary.

99) Answers will vary.

100) Answers will vary.

101) Answers will vary.

102) Answers will vary.

103) Answers will vary.

104) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 14 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Generally, the dentition of Homo is smaller than that of Australopithecus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Some paleoanthropologists split the species Homo habilis into two species: Homo habilis and Homo ergaster. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The oldest likely member of the genus Homo was found in Africa and is dated to around 2.5 million B.P. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The earliest hominins, which are classified as Homo erectus, date to as far back as about 1.8 million years. ⊚ ⊚

5)

The Neandertal facial configuration can be explained as a response to warm weather. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

true false

Neandertals were on the average much more lightly built than modern people. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

1

7) Early members of the genus Homo were probably scavengers of meat and gatherers of vegetation. ⊚ ⊚

8)

Broca's area of the brain controls fine movement of the hand and allows for tool-making. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

true false

Neandertals may have buried their dead, but not all researchers agree that they did. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10) Paleoanthropologists use the word "human" as a technical term to refer to: A) Homo sapiens only B) H. sapiens and H. neanderthalensis only C) all members of the genus Homo D) none of these; "human" is not a technical term

11)

Which of the following is the earliest species of the genus Homo?

A) Homo sapiens B) Homo habilis C) Homo neanderthalensis D) Homo erectus

12)

The genus Homo differs from the australopithecines in several ways, including:

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A) greater cranial capacity and no sagittal crest B) smaller premolars and molars C) erect bipedalism D) greater cranial capacity and no sagittal crest and smaller premolars and molars E) all of these

13)

Generally, the dentition of Homo is ____________ those of Australopithecus.

A) the same as B) larger than C) smaller than D) characterized by larger molars and smaller incisors than

14)

Homo is different from Australopithecus in that Homo is characterized by: A) the bones of brain case being thin B) relatively small facial skeleton C) marked postorbital constriction D) enclosed eye socket

15)

Homo is different from Australopithecus in that Homo is characterized by: A) larger body size B) less sexual dimorphism C) larger cranial capacity D) all of these

16)

The thickest bones of the brain case and the largest brow ridges are found in the genus:

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A) Australopithecus B) B.P aranthropus C) Aegyptopithecus D) Homo

17) The oldest member of the genus Homo was found in ___________ and is dated at around ___________.

A) east Africa; 2.3 million B.P B) east Africa; 1.8 million B.P C) South Africa; 2.8 million B.P D) South Africa; 2.1 million B.P

18)

The first specimens of Homo habilis were discovered at: A) Hadar B) Laetoli C) Olduvai Gorge D) East Lake Turkana

19) The average cranial capacity (as indicated by the specimens listed in Table 14.2) for Homo habilis probably lies somewhere around: A) 500-700 cubic centimeters B) 700-900 cubic centimeters C) 900-1000 cubic centimeters D) above 1000 cubic centimeters

20) Some paleoanthropologists see the specimens that make up Homo habilis as really belonging to two separate species, H. habilis and:

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A) H. rudolfensis B) H. ergaster C) H. leakyi D) H. erectus

21)

The best-known specimens of Homo habilis fall between: A) 2.5 and 2.3 million B.P. B) 1.9 and 1.6 million B.P. C) 1.5 and 1.3 million B.P. D) 1.2 and 1.0 million B.P.

22)

The earliest species to be found outside of the African continent is: A) Paranthropus robustus B) Homo habilis C) Homo erectus D) Homo sapiens

23)

Fossilized remains of Homo erectus have been found in: A) Europe B) Asia C) Africa D) all of these

24)

Historically, the first Homo erectus find was made in:

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A) China B) Japan C) Java D) India

25)

The first Homo erectus find was made by: A) Eugene Dubois B) Mary and Louis Leakey C) Richard Leakey D) Tim White

26)

The earliest hominins, which are classified as Homo erectus, date as far back as about: A) 3.8 million years B.P. B) 2.4 million years B.P. C) 1.8 million years B.P. D) 800,000 years B.P.

27)

The first Homo erectus find in Africa was made by: A) Louis Leakey at Olduvai Gorge B) Tim White at Olduvai Gorge C) Richard Leakey at Lake Turkana D) Eugene Dubois at Ngandong

28)

Homo ergaster was found in:

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A) east Africa from 1.8 to 1.5 million B.P. B) South Africa from 2.4 to 2.1 million B.P. C) eastern Europe from 1.3 to 1.1 million B.P. D) southern Europe from 1.8 to 1.7 million B.P.

29) WT 15000, or "Turkana Boy," is an important find because it showed that Homo ergaster: A) remained as short as H. habilis B) lived as early as 2.5 million years ago C) had cranial capacities as large as H. sapiens D) none of these

30)

Homo erectus is characterized by a: A) relatively large facial skeleton as compared to H. sapiens B) cranial capacity averaging 1400 cubic centimeters C) prominent chin D) lack of brow ridges

31)

A typical cranial capacity for Homo erectus would be: A) 700 cubic centimeters B) 1000 cubic centimeters C) 1400 cubic centimeters D) 1600 cubic centimeters

32)

The cranial capacity of Homo erectus is:

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A) within the range of apes B) within the lower range of variation of modern humans C) the same as modern humans D) greater than the average for modern humans

33)

The Homo erectus skull is characterized by: A) being platycephalic B) an occipital torus C) a sagittal keel D) all of these

34)

Having a low, relatively flat forehead is referred to as being: A) platycephalic B) B.Prognathic C) prolific D) none of these

35)

A thickening of the bone along the top of the skull that forms a bony ridge is called a(n): A) sagittal keel B) B.Postorbital ridge C) mandibular torus D) occipital torus

36)

A platycephalic skull with a sagittal keel and occipital torus is characteristic of:

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A) Homo habilis B) Homo erectus C) Homo heidelbergensis D) Homo neanderthalensis

37)

The first hominin to have a body size similar to that of modern humans was: A) Homo habilis B) Homo erectus C) Homo heidelbergensis D) Homo neanderthalensis

38) In the 1990s, researchers at the site of Gran Dolina in Spain identified a new hominin species: A) Homo erectus B) Homo heidelbergensis C) Homo antecessor D) Homo floresiensis

39)

The finds of Homo antecessor at the site of Gran Dolina has been dated to about: A) 2.5 million B.P. B) 1.5 million B.P. C) 800,000 B.P. D) 400,000 B.P.

40)

Finds of the species Homo heidelbergensis date between:

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A) 1.5 and 1.3 million years ago B) 1.2 and 1.0 million years ago C) 800,000 and 250,000 years ago D) 200,000 and 100,000 years ago

41)

Which of the following sites have yielded fossil evidence of Homo heidelbergensis?

A) Kabwe, Zambia B) Shaanxi Province, China C) Boxgrove, England D) all of these

42)

The Kabwe cranium: A) may be a Homo heidelbergensis from Africa B) had a cranial capacity of about 1280 cc C) may be 300,000 years old D) all of these E) none of these

43)

The Boxgrove fossils consist of: A) a fragment of tibia B) a mandible C) a pelvis and several limb bones D) a complete skull E) all of these

44)

The Neandertals are named after the Neander Valley in:

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A) east africa B) france C) germany D) java

45)

Neandertals can best be considered to be:

A) apelike forms not on the direct evolutionary line leading to modern humans B) late surviving H. erectus populations C) the ancestors of the Australian aborigines D) a highly variable population of humans living throughout the Old World from about 120,000 to 35,000 years ago

46)

Neandertals have been found in: A) Yugoslavia B) Russia C) Israel D) all of these E) none of these

47)

Neandertal skeletal features include: A) prominent brow ridge B) "bun-shaped" occipital C) curvature of the femur D) all of these

48)

Neandertal fossils indicate that:

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A) because of the large brain size, Neandertals were more intelligent than modern humans B) Neandertals had a "bun-shaped" skull C) Neandertals were considerably taller than the average modern European D) Neandertals were less muscular than modern people

49)

The Neandertal skull is characterized by: A) small brow ridges B) small orbits C) forward-projecting face D) all of these

50)

From the back view, the Neandertal skull appears: A) perfectly round B) "barrel-shaped" C) "bun-shaped" D) square

51)

A "bun-shaped" occipital bone is characteristic of: A) modern H. sapiens B) H. erectus C) Australopithecus D) Neandertals

52)

Neandertals were on the average ____________ than modern people.

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A) taller and more muscular B) much more lightly built C) shorter and more muscular D) probably weaker

53)

The teres minor is: A) a muscle of the upper arm B) a muscle of the leg C) a small primate D) a part of the brain

54)

The teres minor of Neandertals: A) allowed for powerful throwing and pounding activities B) allowed them to run faster than modern people C) protected the eyes from cold D) was more developed in females because of the requirements of childbirth

55)

Neandertals: A) existed only in northern Europe B) existed only in central Europe C) ranged over a large area of Europe and Eurasia D) extended even into the New World

56)

When compared with Neandertals, Homo sapiens exhibit:

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A) a rounder head B) a smaller cranial capacity C) smaller dentition D) all of these

57)

A recent testing of Neandertal DNA showed that Neandertals: A) and modern H. sapiens are genetically indistinguishable from each other B) definitely never interbred with any modern populations C) share a small percentage of their genes with some modern populations D) are really a subspecies of H. habilis

58) DNA evidence from southern Siberian hominin fossils from about 80,000 years ago indicates that: A) these hominins had genes that allowed them to exist in temperatures as low as 100 degrees Fahrenheit below zero without clothes or shelter B) this population was a separate species from Homo sapiens and Homo neanderthalensis C) they were a 50-50 hybrid of Neandertals and modern humans D) they were the common ancestor of Neandertals and modern humans

59)

The Lower Paleolithic began about: A) 4.4 million years ago, with the evolution of Ardipithecus ramidus B) 2.6 million years ago, with the first use of stone tools C) 120,000 years ago, with the evolution of the Neandertals D) 15,000 to 10,000 years ago, after the last ice age

60)

"Paleolithic" means:

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A) "stone tool" B) "old stone" C) "ancient ape" D) "stone age"

61)

The Middle Paleolithic refers to the stone tools of: A) Homo habilis B) Homo erectus C) Homo neanderthalensis D) Homo sapiens

62)

Debitage refers to: A) the waste produced in the process of tool manufacture B) the artifacts that appear to have been created for a specific function C) pieces of stone used without retouch D) natural rocks brought into a site by humans

63)

Assemblage refers to: A) all of the artifacts from a given site B) all of the artifacts from a site made from the same material C) the materials used to create or assemble tools D) the waste produced in the process of tool manufacture

64)

A lithic industry refers to all of the stone artifacts of a:

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A) region B) culture C) site D) none of these

65)

An unaltered, natural rock, transported to a site by humans, is referred to by the term: A) debitage B) assemblage C) manuport D) burin

66)

The tools found at Lokalakei in west Turkana show: A) the use of bone as well as stone tools B) fine motor precision and coordination C) the manufacture of projectile points D) all of these

67)

The oldest known archaeological culture is the: A) Mousterian B) Oldowan C) Acheulean D) Aurignacian

68)

Stones may be tools if:

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A) there is regularity in shape among them B) they are found in association with things they may have been used on C) they are found at some distance from where the material to make them is located D) all of these

69)

The most frequent manifestation of the Lower Paleolithic is the: A) Acheulean tradition B) Oldowan tradition C) Mousterian tradition D) Upper Paleolithic tradition

70)

The hand ax is a diagnostic tool type of the: A) Acheulean tradition B) Mousterian tradition C) Oldowan tradition D) Upper Paleolithic tradition

71)

The earliest date suggested for the purposeful use of fire is: A) 1.5 million B.P. B) 1 million B.P. C) 300,000 B.P. D) 100,000 B.P.

72) of:

The evidence for the use of fire dating back to about 1 million B.P. comes from the site

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A) Terra Amata, France B) Olduvai Gorge, Africa C) Wonerwerk Cave, South Africa D) Zhoukoudian, China

73)

The evidence for the controlled use of fire:

A) goes back about 1 million years B) occurred very early in hominin history, perhaps with the australopithecines C) is associated closely with the manufacture of the first stone tools D) seems to be one of the latest hominin primary cultural developments dating only to about 25,000 years ago

74)

The use of fire by hominins would have: A) extended their niche by providing light in the evening B) B.Provided the warmth necessary to move into cooler regions C) increased the intensity of social interactions D) all of these

75)

It was likely that early hominins of the Lower Paleolithic were: A) skilled hunters of large game B) strict vegetarians C) hunted large game, but only in groups disturbed by natural processes D) mostly scavengers when it came to acquiring meat

76) Before hominins predominately became hunters of large game, they may have predominately been:

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A) carnivores B) scavengers of meat and gatherers of vegetation C) gatherers of vegetation without meat in their diet D) primitive horticulturalists

77)

Evidence for scavenging as opposed to hunting in early hominins includes:

A) microscopic analysis of cut marks on bones of prey animals B) the wear patterns of hominin teeth C) an analysis of the division of labor in contemporary hunter-gatherer societies D) microscopic analysis of cut marks on bones of prey animals and the wear patterns of hominin teeth

78) The dramatic increase in the genetic potential for culture and linguistic ability seems to have begun about: A) 1.6 million years ago B) 850,000 years ago C) 650,000 years ago D) 425,000 years ago

79)

Broca's area of the brain: A) controls the muscles used in speech B) controls fine movement of the hand and allows for tool-making C) is responsible for the maintenance of balance during bipedal walking D) controls the muscles of hand used in sign language

80)

The earliest presence of Broca's area may be found in:

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A) Australopithecus afarensis B) Homo rudolfensis C) Homo erectus D) early Homo sapiens

81)

The motor hypothesis of language states that:

A) the motor skills necessary for language only evolved with H. sapiens B) all hominins would have been capable of language C) the complex skills needed to manufacture tools led directly to the motor skills needed to produce speech D) the rearrangement of the skeleton for erect bipedalism led to the motor skills needed to produce speech

82) The motor hypothesis of language suggests that the initial event that led to the modern motor capacity for language was the: A) evolution of erect bipedalism B) ability to manufacture stone tools C) shift to hunting from scavenging D) ability to use a precision grip

83)

The floor of the brain case is referred to as the: A) basicranium B) hyoid C) occipital D) torus

84) The shape of the Neandertal basicranium has been used as evidence to support the conclusion that Neandertals: Version 1

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A) were able to produce all of the sounds produced by modern humans B) were unable to produce all of the sounds produced by modern humans C) could not speak at all D) were largely deaf

85)

The basicranium of the Neandertals was: A) straighter than that of H. sapiens but more bent than that of H. erectus B) more bent than that of any other hominin C) straighter than that of H. erectus and H. sapiens D) more bent than that of H. sapiens but straighter than that of H. erectus

86)

The Kebara hyoid bone:

A) suggests that the Neandertals could not produce the same speech sounds as modern humans B) is about the same shape as that of modern humans, suggesting that the Neandertals could produce the same speech sound as modern humans C) corresponds to the conclusions reached on the basis of the basicranial data D) suggests that the Neandertals could not produce the same speech sounds as modern humans and corresponds to the conclusions reached on the basis of the basicranial data

87)

The cultural traditions of the Neandertals are known as the: A) Acheulean B) Magdalenian C) Mousterian D) all of these

88)

Archaeologist Richard Klein argues that:

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A) Neandertal technology is the result of imitation from contact with H. sapiens B) Neandertals did not conceptualize a particular tool but were just trying to create a sharp point or cutting edge C) Neandertals made complex stone and bone tools D) Neandertal technology is the result of imitation from contact with H. sapiens and Neandertals did not conceptualize a particular tool but were just trying to create a sharp point or cutting edge

89)

Francesco d'Errico and his colleagues believe that Neandertals: A) created and used their own tools B) created bone jewelry C) could create objects with symbolic meaning D) all of these

90)

Neandertals lived: A) exclusively in caves B) exclusively in open-air sites C) exclusively in the mouths of caves or under rock shelters D) in the mouths of caves or in open-air sites

91)

The site of Molodova, in Ukraine, is important because it shows that Neandertals: A) buried their dead B) built homes in the open, away from caves C) worshipped the giant cave bear D) wore clothing

92) A study that compared the teeth of Neandertals to those of 2500-year-old foragers in Alaska found that Neandertals: Version 1

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A) had much poorer nutrition than the modern foragers B) were no worse off nutritionally than the modern foragers C) reached maturity much earlier than the modern foragers D) reached maturity much later than the modern foragers

93) The first evidence of humans practicing cannibalism goes back to about __________ years ago.

A) 2.1 million B) 780,000 C) 120,000 D) only 5000

94) The first suggested purposeful burials that might indicate symbolic behavior date from within the time range of: A) Homo erectus B) Homo heidelbergensis C) Homo neanderthalensis D) Homo sapiens

95)

The oldest species of the genus Homo is: A) Homo habilis B) Homo erectus C) Homo ergaster D) Homo antecessor

96)

The earliest hominin species to be found outside the African continent is:

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A) Homo habilis B) Homo erectus C) Homo neanderthalensis D) Homo sapiens

97)

Homo erectus is characterized by: A) a sagittal keel B) a relatively large facial skeleton as compared to H. sapiens C) being platycephalic D) all of these

98) Homo ergaster is considered by those paleoanthropologists who originally split this new species off of what was previously called Homo erectus and those that agree with this split to be: A) the earliest species in the genus Homo B) a species that predated Homo erectus in Africa and other areas but in some ways displays characteristics more similar to Homo sapiens than to Homo erectus C) a species that evolved from Homo erectus in Africa and other areas but in some ways displays characteristics more similar to the Australopithecines than to Homo sapiens D) an early species of the genus Homo that had cognitive abilities greater than modern humans

99)

Neandertal features include: A) forward-projecting face B) B.Platycephalic skull C) "bun-shaped" occipital D) all of these

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100)

The Lower Paleolithic begins about: A) 2.6 million years ago, with the first known use of stone tools B) 6 million years ago, with the evolution of the first hominids C) 120,000 years ago, with the evolution of Neandertals D) 100,000 years ago, with the evolution of Homo sapiens

101)

The Middle Paleolithic refers to the stone tools of: A) Homo sapiens B) Homo neanderthalensis C) Homo ergaster D) Homo habilis

102)

Neandertal fossils have been found in: A) Europe B) Southeast Asia C) east Africa D) all of these

103) The shape of the Neandertal basicranium has been used as evidence to support the conclusion that Neandertals were: A) more intelligent than modern humans B) big game hunters C) unable to produce all of the sounds produced by modern humans D) stronger than modern humans

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

104) In what way is a stereotypical member of the genus Homo different from a stereotypical member of the genus Australopithecus?

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105) What is the range of cranial capacities in the genus Homo? How does this compare with the cranial capacities in the genus Australopithecus?

106) What is the earliest species within the genus Homo? Does this species exhibit any features that can be thought of as transitional between earlier hominins and the genus Homo?

107) What are the major characteristics of the species Homo erectus? Where and during what period of time did members of this species live?

108) Modern humans are considerably larger both in cranial capacity and body size than the earliest hominins. When did body size and cranial capacity increase?

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109) What might the daily life of Homo erectus have been like? Include a discussion of their tools, homes, general subsistence pattern, and other features.

110) What evidence do we have for the transition between Homo erectus and Homo sapiens?

111) What does the term "human" mean? Were members of the genus Australopithecus human? What about Homo erectus and the Neandertals? At what point along the hominin evolutionary path did humanity emerge?

112) Some people see the beginnings of many cultural behaviors with the Neandertals. What are some of these behaviors?

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113) When H. neanderthalensis was discovered, the stereotype of the brutish, backward "caveman" was created. Discuss how and why this stereotype developed. How was this idea disproved, and why does it continue in the public mind to this day?

114) What characterizes the genus Homo as being different from the genus Australopithecus?

115) What is the oldest known archaeological culture? How can we tell that these stones were actually tools?

116) Were the hominins of the Lower Paleolithic more likely to have been hunters or scavengers? What evidence is this based on?

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117) What are some of the physical characteristics that differentiate modern humans from the Neandertals?

118) What were some of the features of culture and life for the hominins of the Lower Paleolithic?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_12e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) D 11) B 12) D 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) C 25) A 26) C Version 1

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27) A 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) B 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) B 38) C 39) C 40) C 41) D 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) D 46) D 47) D 48) B 49) C 50) B 51) D 52) C 53) A 54) A 55) C 56) D Version 1

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57) C 58) B 59) B 60) B 61) C 62) A 63) A 64) C 65) C 66) B 67) B 68) D 69) A 70) A 71) B 72) C 73) A 74) D 75) D 76) B 77) D 78) A 79) A 80) B 81) C 82) B 83) A 84) B 85) C 86) B Version 1

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87) C 88) D 89) D 90) D 91) B 92) B 93) B 94) B 95) A 96) B 97) B 98) B 99) D 100) A 101) B 102) A 103) C 104) Answers will vary.

105) Answers will vary.

106) Answers will vary.

107) Answers will vary.

108) Answers will vary.

109) Answers will vary.

110) Answers will vary.

111) Answers will vary.

112) Answers will vary.

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113) Answers will vary.

114) Answers will vary.

115) Answers will vary.

116) Answers will vary.

117) Answers will vary.

118) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 15 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Domestication of plants and animals in the New World did not occur until it was brought to the New World by Europeans starting in the late 1400s. This statement is: ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Domestication of plants and animals developed in the New World independently of domestication in the Old World. This statement is: ⊚ ⊚

3)

true false

H. sapiens developed contemporaneously with the Neanderthals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Based on evidence, it can be concluded that breeding between Neandertals and Homo sapiens did not take place. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

The Cro-Magnon specimen is often used as a prototype for Homo neanderthalensis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Fossil evidence from the Klasies River and complex comparative genetic studies has led some researchers to believe that early modern people first evolved in Europe. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

1

7) Early evidence for symbolic behavior in H. sapiens found at Blombos Cave, South Africa, consists of decorated red ochre pigment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) New studies of a section of the Y chromosome suggest that all modern human males had a common ancestor about one million years ago. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

Humans probably traveled to Australia by means of a land bridge. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) A fossil population that maintained Homo erectus characteristics as recently as 9500 years ago was discovered in Australia. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

The earliest agreed upon date for people occupying the New World is about 13,500 B.P. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) The extinction of many genera of large animals during the Late Pleistocene may be due to hunting by Homo sapiens. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

2

13)

The first domestication of plants was 20,000 years ago in Africa. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14) The significance of the Jebel Qafzeh fossil is that it shows that: A) Neanderthals lived up until modern times B) H. sapiens developed contemporaneously with the Neanderthals C) H. sapiens reached the New World much before researchers previously believed D) all modern people descended from one woman living in Israel about 100,000 years ago

15)

The Qafzeh fossil is dated at about: A) 10,000 B.P. B) 27,000 to 25,000 B.P. C) 115,000 to 96,000 B.P. D) 153,000 to 142,000 B.P.

16)

The specimen most often used as the prototype of an early modern Homo sapiens is: A) Cro-Magnon B) Wadjak C) Boskop D) Del Mar

17)

Cro-Magnon populations were characterized by:

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A) massive faces B) low foreheads C) small cranial capacities D) all of these E) none of these

18) Three skulls dated to 156,000 years ago represent the earliest known Homo sapiens fossils. They were found in: A) Africa B) Europe C) Asia D) Southeast Asia

19)

Early Homo sapiens found near Herto in Ethiopia are characterized by: A) a cranial capacity of only about 900 cubic centimeters B) less prominent brow ridges than pre -Homo sapiens C) prominent brow ridges D) a forehead similar to pre -Homo sapiens

20)

Early sites for Homo sapiens in Africa include: A) Klasies River B) Herto C) Border Cave D) all of these

21)

The Klasies River fossils are about:

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A) 1 million years old B) 450,000 years old C) 120,000 years old D) 40,000 years old

22) Early evidence for symbolic behavior in H. sapiens found at Blombos Cave, South Africa, consists of: A) carved Venus figurines B) decorated red ochre pigment C) human burials D) stylized, decorated bone spear points

23) In terms of hominin evolution, perhaps the most important part of the diet of early H. sapiens at Pinnacle Point, South Africa, was: A) drought-resistant nuts and tubers B) large game animals C) shellfish D) fish and water fowl

24)

Compared with earlier hominids, the modern human skull: A) is less robust B) has a strong chin C) lacks any bony crests D) all of these

25)

The average cranial capacity for modern humans is:

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A) 1500 cubic centimeters B) 1350 cubic centimeters C) 1200 cubic centimeters D) 1150 cubic centimeters

26)

The site called Skhūl is found in: A) South Africa B) Southern Europe C) India D) Israel

27)

The site at Skhūl dates to about: A) more than 200,000 years ago B) 134,000-80,000 years ago C) between 500,000 and 800,000 years ago D) less than 30,000 years ago

28) Which of the following is true about the modern hominins from Israel, one from Jebel Qafzeh and the other from Tabūn?

A) they place anatomically modern humans well back into the Neandertal time range B) they provide a good example of intrapopulation variability C) they were the largest concentration of a single hominin spe-cies ever discovered D) they closely resemble the early modern humans found in Flores Island

29) One of the earliest reliable dates for Homo sapiens in eastern Asia is associated with an anatomically modern human from:

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A) Flores Island B) Niah Cave in north Borneo C) the Upper Cave of Zhoukoudian D) the Rising Star cave in China

30) One of the skulls discovered in the Upper Cave of Zhoukoudian shows _____ similar to those of pres-ent Asian populations.

A) shovel-shaped incisors B) a backward-jutting zygomatic arch C) a high forehead D) large molars

31)

Which of the following is true about the characteristics of the Cro-Magnon people?

A) they had a receding forehead and lacked a protruding chin B) they were destroyed by the bestial Neandertals C) they had broad, small faces with high foreheads D) they had cranial capacities as high as 790 cubic centimeters

32)

The earliest anatomically modern human fossils in Europe have been found in: A) Sweden B) Greece C) Spain D) Romania

33)

Which of the following is true about the Denisovans?

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A) they lived in Europe and west-ern Asia B) Denisovan DNA exists in some modern human genomes C) Denisovan DNA sequences are found only among the European populations D) they structurally resembled australopithecines

34) The line that follows deep-water straits that separates animals of Asian origin to the west from those of New Guinea and Australian origin to the east is referred to as: A) Huxley Line B) Lydekker Line C) Wallace Line D) Lombok Line

35)

The strangest feature of LB1, a skeleton found on Flores Island, is the fact that: A) its cranial capacity has been reconstructed at 380 to 417 cubic centimeters B) its cranial capacity has been reconstructed at 1530 to 1590 cubic centimeters C) its stature from various limb bones suggests a height of about 6 feet 6 inches D) its limb proportions, especially the legs, resemble those of Neandertals

36) The phenomenon whereby mammalian forms evolve miniature body size as the result of living on islands is referred to as: A) social Darwinism B) balanced polymorphism C) phyletic gradualism D) insular dwarfism

37)

Which of the following is true about the little people of Flores Island?

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A) the limb proportions, especially the legs, resembled those of australopithecines B) the structure of their teeth did not resemble that of Neandertals or Homo sapiens C) they had high foreheads and lacked a protruding chin D) they were characterized by large cranial capacities

38) In 2013, _____ produced the largest concentration of a single hominin spe-cies ever discovered.

A) Lascaux Cave in France B) the Upper Cave of Zhoukoudian in China C) the Rising Star cave system in South Africa D) Niah Cave in north Borneo

39) Which of the following is true about the homi-nin fossil remains from the Rising Star cave in South Africa?

A) their cranial capacities are much larger than that of Homo erectus B) they represent multiple individuals of the species Homo naledi C) the endocasts of their brains seem to indi-cate that they were not social D) their vertebrae resemble those of genus Australopithecus

40) Which of the following refers to the partial merging of two or more ancestor lineages through interbreeding?

A) assemblage B) accretion C) convection D) reticulate

41)

The regional continuity model of Homo sapiens' evolution states that H. sapiens:

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A) evolved locally in Europe, Africa, and Asia from earlier Homo populations B) evolved in Africa and migrated into the rest of the world, replacing all earlier populations C) evolved in Europe and migrated into the rest of the world, replacing all earlier populations D) evolved in the New World and migrated into the rest of the world, replacing all earlier populations

42)

Current evidence indicates that the replacement model:

A) might be a better fit to the data than the regional continuity model B) suggests that there was some interbreeding between modern Homo sapiens as they moved out of Africa into other areas and pre-modern Homo sapiens C) suggests that the replacement of pre- Homo sapiens populations was incomplete D) all of these

43)

The replacement model for Homo sapiens' evolution suggests that modern humans:

A) evolved in Africa and migrated into the rest of the world, replacing all earlier populations B) evolved in Europe and migrated into the rest of the world, replacing all earlier populations C) evolved locally in Europe, Africa, and Asia from earlier Homo populations D) evolved in the New World and migrated into the rest of the world, replacing all earlier populations

44)

"Mitochondrial Eve" refers to:

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A) a hypothetical population of African women from whom all modern humans are descended B) a population of energetic women who killed off the Neanderthals C) the biblical Eve who lived about 6,000 years ago D) a hypothetical African woman, the ancestor of all modern humans

45) Proponents of the "Mitochondrial Eve" hypothesis believe that Mitochondrial Eve lived about: A) 750,000 years ago B) 500,000 years ago C) 200,000 years ago D) 120,000 years ago E) 75,000 years ago

46) The "Mitochondrial Eve" hypothesis traces all modern populations back to about 200,000 years ago. The accuracy of this date of about 200,000 is: A) questioned by some paleoanthropologists B) thought to be accurate by all paleoanthropologists C) thought to be closer to one million years ago by most paleoanthropologists D) thought to be closer to 5,000 years ago by most paleoanthropologists

47) When the "Mitochondrial Eve" hypothesis was first suggested, the fossil evidence of modern humans only when back to about __________ years ago.

A) 10,000 B) 25,000 C) 40,000 D) 90,000

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48)

There is evidence of modern-looking populations in Europe by: A) 130,000 B.P. B) 100,000 B.P. C) 52,000 B.P. D) 38,000 B.P.

49) ago.

Recent research suggests that people may have first reached Australia __________ years

A) 120,000 or earlier B) 40,000 or earlier C) no earlier than 25,000 D) no earlier than 10,000

50)

People originally migrated to Australia from: A) Africa B) Europe C) Southeast Asia D) Japan

51)

Humans probably traveled to Australia by means of: A) human-made boats or rafts B) a land bridge C) Ice Age glaciers D) naturally formed rafts

52) A fossil population that maintained Homo erectus characteristics as recently as 9,500 years ago was discovered at:

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A) Lake Mungo B) Kow Swamp C) Niah Cave D) Laguna Beach

53) A fossil population that maintained Homo erectus characteristics as recently as 9,500 years ago was discovered in: A) Europe B) Asia C) Australia D) the Americas

54)

Beringia: A) may have been 2000 kilometers wide B) connects Europe to Asia C) refers to a group of islands in the Pacific D) is an area around Berlin where numerous fossils have been found

55)

Beringia connected: A) Europe to Asia B) Asia to Australia C) Asia to North America D) none of these

56)

The earliest agreed dates for people occupying the New World are about:

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A) 55,000 to 60,000 B.P. B) 13,000 to 11,000 B.P. C) 3000 to 4000 B.P. D) 1000 to 2000 B.P.

57)

Which of the following statements is most valid on the basis of current evidence?

A) people were living in the New World sometime after 28,000 years ago B) B.People were living in the New World sometime before 50,000 years ago C) people did not arrive in the New World until 9,000 years ago D) there is good evidence that people lived in the New World before 500,000 years ago

58)

Kennewick Man: A) dates to 7880 B.P. B) exhibits "Caucasoid" features C) was found in Washington state D) all of these

59)

The find of Kennewick Man implies:

A) humans were in the New World much earlier than previously thought B) European genes may have been included in the genome of the earliest arrivals to the New World C) Europeans arrived in the New World before those from Asia D) all of these

60) Current evidence suggests that there were __________ separate early migrations of humans to the New World.

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A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

61)

The Upper Paleolithic was characterized by: A) the latter part of the last glaciation B) a tundra in northern and western Europe C) large herds of animal life D) all of these

62)

People in the Upper Paleolithic: A) were most likely scavengers B) practiced cooperative hunting C) used projectile technology D) practiced cooperative hunting and used projectile technology

63) to:

The extinction of many genera of large animals during the Late Pleistocene may be due

A) a meteorite B) the beginning of the Ice Age C) hunting by Homo sapiens D) the ending of the Ice Age

64)

The Upper Paleolithic is often defined in terms of:

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A) Oldowan tools B) stone blade tools C) the hand ax D) the bow and arrow

65)

Blades are prepared from: A) clay B) rounded pebbles found in rivers C) cores D) wood

66)

One of the reasons for the success of Upper Paleolithic peoples was the first use of: A) fire B) hand axes C) wood and stone tools D) compound tools

67)

"Hafting" refers to: A) putting a handle on a tool B) B.Preparing a core C) the use of bone in tool manufacture D) working both sides of a tool

68)

Upper Paleolithic innovations include:

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A) compound tools B) the eyed needle C) the harpoon D) all of these

69)

The earliest Upper Paleolithic paintings date to: A) 50,000 B.P. B) 42,000 B.P. C) 32,000 B.P. D) 25,000 B.P.

70)

Venus figurines: A) may represent motherhood or fertility B) are very stylized C) date to around 32,000 B.P D) all of these

71)

European cave art first appeared about how many years ago?

A) 500,000 B) 220,000 C) 95,000 D) 32,000

72)

Cave art is associated with:

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A) Homo sapiens B) Homo heidelbergensis C) Homo neanderthalensis D) Homo erectus

73)

Upper Paleolithic tool technologies of Europe include: A) Aurignacian B) Gravettian C) Solutrean D) all of these

74)

The earliest transitional European Upper Paleolithic tool tradition is the: A) Aurignacian B) Gravettian C) Châteperronian D) Magdalenian

75)

The most recent European Upper Paleolithic tool tradition is the: A) Aurignacian B) Gravettian C) Solutrean D) Magdalenian

76) Simple chopping tools were used in Southeast Asia until the end of the Paleolithic because:

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A) Homo sapiens did not expand into Southeast Asia until that time B) of the reliance on other materials, such as bamboo, for tool manufacture C) the hominids in Southeast Asia were less evolved D) all of these

77)

Early archaeological sites in the New World include: A) Meadowcroft Rockshelter B) Orogrande Cave C) Clovis D) all of these

78)

Folsom and Clovis points are: A) arrowheads B) lance tips C) spearheads D) arrowheads and spearheads E) lance tips and spearheads

79) Clovis and Folsom assemblages are the most common American tool type found between the dates of: A) 13,200 to 9,000 years ago B) 20,500 to 12,000 years ago C) 50,000 to 20,000 years ago D) 100,000 to 50,000 years ago

80)

The Meadowcroft Rockshelter in Pennsylvania shows signs of human presence and:

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A) appears to be older than the Folsom and Clovis sites B) if correctly dated, indicates that people were in the New World sometime before 16,000 B.P. C) if correctly dated, indicates that people were in the New World sometime before 115,000 B.P. D) appears to be older than the Folsom and Clovis sites and if correctly dated, indicates that people were in the New World sometime before 16,000 B.P. E) appears to be older than the Folsom and Clovis sites and if correctly dated, indicates that people were in the New World sometime before 115,000 B.P.

81)

The mainstay of the Folsom hunters was: A) mammoths B) wild horses C) bison D) small game

82) After the Upper Paleolithic, people began to utilize the food resources of the environment more extensively. This period is known as the: A) Terminal Paleolithic B) Mesolithic C) Neolithic D) Bronze Age

83)

All domesticated dogs are descended from (and are the same species as): A) a single wild dog that lived 20,000 years ago B) hyenas C) gray wolves D) none of these

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84)

Wolves may have been domesticated: A) to help in hunting B) about 10,000-14,000 years ago C) because of their good sense of smell D) all of these

85)

The first domestication of plants was: A) 13,000 B.P. in the Near East B) 5000 B.P. in the Near East C) 15,000 B.P. in Africa D) 8000 B.P. in Africa

86)

The cultural stage marked by established farming is the: A) Paleolithic B) Mesolithic C) Neolithic D) Bronze Age

87)

The Neolithic refers to:

A) a type of cultural setting in which hunting-gathering is the main source of food B) the cultural setting in which people lived in villages and food production dominated hunting and gathering C) the time of the first civilization D) a cultural setting which first appeared about 40,000 years ago

88)

The Neolithic was characterized by:

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A) great technological and social changes B) elaboration of tool types C) refined pottery D) all of these

89)

Most Neolithic villages were: A) small B) self-sufficient C) farming communities D) all of these

90)

In the Middle East, the correct sequence of culture history phases is: A) Neolithic, Mesolithic, Paleolithic, Bronze Age, Iron Age B) B.Paleolithic, Mesolithic, Neolithic, Bronze Age, Iron Age C) Mesolithic, Paleolithic, Neolithic, Iron Age, Bronze Age D) Paleolithic, Mesolithic, Neolithic, Iron Age, Bronze Age

91)

The earliest civilization was found in: A) the Middle East B) Africa C) Asia D) Europe

92)

Civilization is characterized by:

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A) the support of large populations B) occupational division of labor C) monumental architecture D) the support of large populations and monumental architecture E) all of these

93)

With the development of Neolithic and Bronze Age cultures, population sizes: A) remained stable B) decreased slightly C) increased slightly D) increased dramatically

94)

Cro-Magnon populations were characterized by: A) broad, small faces B) B.Prominent chin C) large cranial capacities D) all of these

95)

The replacement model for the evolution of Homo sapiens suggests:

A) modern humans evolved in one place and then spread out into different areas B) modern humans evolved first in Africa C) although evolution is continuous, paleoanthropologists who are proponents of the replacement model suggest that the earliest populations that we might call modern Homo sapiens lived about 200,000 years ago D) all of these

96)

The "Mitochondrial Eve" hypothesis traces all modern populations back to:

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A) Asia, 150,000 years ago B) Africa, 200,000 years ago C) Europe, 100,000 years ago D) Africa, 2 million years ago

97)

There is evidence of modern-looking populations in Europe by: A) 38,000 B.P. B) 62,000 B.P. C) 150,000 B.P. D) 230,000 B.P.

98)

Beringia connected: A) Europe to Africa B) Asia to Europe C) Africa to Australia D) Asia to North America

99)

The Upper Paleolithic is often defined in terms of: A) choppers B) the hand ax C) stone blade tools D) the bow and arrow

100) After the Upper Paleolithic, people began to utilize the food resources of the environment more extensively. This period is known as the:

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A) Mesolithic B) Neolithic C) Modernolithic D) Greater Paleolithic

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

101) What are the two general ideas about the origin of Homo sapiens? Give some of the evidence for each.

102) What are the different views on the relationship of the Neanderthals to modern Homo sapiens?

103)

What is the "Mitochondrial Eve" hypothesis? What is its current status?

104) What are the factors that lead to the conclusion that Neandertals and modern humans came into contact?

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105)

What major cultural innovations occurred after the evolution of Homo sapiens?

106)

Is there consensus on a date for the first arrival of people in the New World? Explain.

107)

What significant cultural developments are associated with the Mesolithic?

108)

What significant cultural developments are associated with the Neolithic?

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109) What is meant by the term "civilization"? What were the earliest civilizations, and when did they occur?

110)

Compared with earlier hominins, what characterizes the modern human skull?

111) Where did the earliest Homo sapiens populations evolve? What were the circumstances of their origin?

112) When did modern humans arrive in the New World and in Australia? How did they get to these areas?

113)

What were the major cultural innovations of the Upper Paleolithic?

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114)

What were the major cultural innovations of Post-Pleistocene people?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_12e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) E 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) D Version 1

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27) B 28) A 29) B 30) A 31) C 32) D 33) B 34) C 35) A 36) D 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) D 41) A 42) D 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) A 47) C 48) D 49) B 50) C 51) A 52) B 53) C 54) A 55) C 56) B Version 1

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57) A 58) D 59) B 60) C 61) D 62) D 63) C 64) B 65) C 66) D 67) A 68) D 69) C 70) D 71) D 72) A 73) D 74) C 75) D 76) B 77) D 78) B 79) A 80) D 81) C 82) B 83) C 84) D 85) A 86) C Version 1

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87) B 88) D 89) D 90) B 91) A 92) E 93) D 94) D 95) D 96) B 97) A 98) D 99) C 100) A 101) Answers will vary.

102) Answers will vary.

103) Answers will vary.

104) Answers will vary.

105) Answers will vary.

106) Answers will vary.

107) Answers will vary.

108) Answers will vary.

109) Answers will vary.

110) Answers will vary.

111) Answers will vary.

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112) Answers will vary.

113) Answers will vary.

114) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 16 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Nongenetic changes that aid in survival are called adjustments. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) The critical temperature is the temperature at which normal body temperature is maintained is 37°C (98.6°F). ⊚ ⊚

3)

The use of bottled oxygen at high altitudes is an example of an acclimatory adjustment. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

The only major skin pigment is melanin. ⊚ ⊚

5) area.

true false

true false

The amount of heat that can be lost from an object by radiation depends on its surface ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) The process of specialization and differentiation of cells into different tissues and organs is termed development. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

1

7) The bone age of an individual can be determined by examining an X-ray for bone density. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

The development of two sets of teeth is unique to humans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) An example of variation due to developmental adjustment is individuals who grow up at high altitudes having larger chest circumference. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The life span of a species is defined as the theoretical maximum age determined by genetics. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) Genetic changes that favor the survival of a population in a stressful environment are called: A) adaptations B) adjustments C) acclimatization D) none of these

12)

Nongenetic changes that aid in survival are called:

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A) adaptations B) adjustments C) acclimatization D) none of these

13)

Types of adjustments include: A) behavioral B) acclimatory C) developmental D) all of these

14)

Survival in a stressful environment through cultural means is called: A) acclimatory adjustment B) behavioral adjustment C) developmental adjustment D) technological adjustment

15)

Which of the following is an example of a behavioral adjustment?

A) increased lung capacity B) vasoconstriction C) construction of an igloo D) increased breathing rate

16) A group of people has moved from a temperate to a tropical climate. In their new home, the people wear different types of clothing than they did in their former home. This is an example of:

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A) acclimatory adjustment B) behavioral adjustment C) developmental adjustment D) adaptations

17)

Acclimatory adjustments are: A) physiological responses B) alterations in the growth patterns of children C) aspects of technology that permit survival D) genetic changes in populations

18)

A reversible physiological adjustment to a stressful environment is called a(n): A) acclimatory adjustment B) behavioral adjustment C) developmental adjustment D) stressful adjustment

19) A person moves from a cold, humid climate to a hot, dry climate. At first, she feels tired most of the time, very hot, and often faint. Gradually she feels better and notices a reduction in the amount of urine she produces. This scenario illustrates a(n): A) acclimatory adjustment B) behavioral adjustment C) development adjustment D) adaptation

20)

Cold stress, as experienced in the Arctic, can result in:

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A) dehydration B) hypothermia C) hypoxia D) hyperventilation

21)

The basal metabolic rate is: A) the rate at which the body uses up certain minerals in the blood B) the total calories used by the body to maintain the functions of the brain C) the total energy used by the body to maintain the body processes necessary for life D) the rate at which the body replaces fluids lost by sweating

22)

A long-term acclimatory response to cold stress is: A) vasodilation of the capillaries in the skin B) increased rate of breathing C) an increase in the basal metabolic rate D) a reduction in the volume of urine produced

23)

The critical temperature is the temperature at which:

A) the body must begin to combat a rise in body temperature due to warm air temperature B) the body must begin to combat a lowering of body temperature due to cold air temperature C) normal body temperature is maintained (98.6°F or 37°C) D) sweating begins to occur in order to lower body temperature

24) The nude human body at rest must begin to combat a lowering of body temperature when the air temperature is approximately:

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A) 0°C (32°F) B) 20°C (68°F) C) 31°C (87.8°F) D) 37°C (98.6°F)

25)

In desert habitats, the most significant method of ridding the body of excess heat is: A) evaporation B) convection C) radiation D) conduction

26)

Body heat may be lost through: A) conduction B) radiation C) evaporation D) all of these

27)

A nude body at rest loses most of its heat by: A) evaporation B) conduction C) radiation D) convection

28)

People living in desert habitats:

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A) produce greater volumes of sweat B) have more sweat glands than other people C) show vasoconstriction of the skin capillaries D) all of these

29)

Vasodilation and reduced urine volume are adjustments to: A) Arctic habitats B) high-altitude habitats C) desert habitats D) outer space

30)

The use of bottled oxygen at high altitudes is an example of a(n): A) behavioral adjustment B) acclimatory adjustment C) developmental adjustment D) none of these

31)

Environmental stress encountered at high altitudes includes: A) low partial pressure of oxygen B) cold temperature C) high levels of solar radiation D) all of these

32)

Low oxygen pressure in the body's tissues results in a condition known as:

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A) hypothermia B) hypoxia C) hyperventilation D) homeothermy

33)

Oxygen makes up __________ percent of the air we breathe.

A) 12 B) 21 C) 47 D) 99

34)

Most of the oxygen in the blood is transported by: A) myoglobin B) fibrinogen C) hemoglobin D) cytochrome

35)

Adjustments to hypoxia include: A) an increase in the number of red blood cells B) an increase in the number of blood capillaries C) hyperventilation D) all of these

36)

Problems often encountered at high altitudes include:

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A) low birth weights B) delayed growth and development C) high infant mortality D) all of these

37) Alterations in the pattern of growth and development resulting from environmental influences are called: A) acclimatory adjustments B) behavioral adjustments C) developmental adjustments D) environmental adjustments

38) Individuals who grow up at high altitudes develop a greater lung capacity. This is an example of a(n): A) acclimatory adjustment B) behavioral adjustment C) developmental adjustment D) environmental adjustment

39)

An example of variation due to developmental adjustment is: A) males being taller and more muscular B) individuals who grow up at high altitudes having a larger chest circumference C) increased biacromial width in females D) all of these

40)

People with dark skin are often found in more equatorial regions. This is an example of:

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A) adaptation B) adjustment C) acclimatization D) none of these

41)

Human skin color is determined in large part by: A) the pigment melanin B) small blood vessels underlying the skin C) exposure to sunlight D) all of these

42) It has been suggested that one of the major functions of melanin is the regulation of the production of: A) vitamin D B) vitamin C C) hemoglobin D) phenylalanine

43)

Which of the following is true about skin color?

A) the only major skin pigment is melanin B) dark skin is more susceptible to frostbite than light skin C) melanin is involved in the regulation of vitamin D manufacture D) all of these are true

44) Within the same species of mammals, there is a tendency to find more heavily pigmented forms near the equator and lighter forms away from the equator. This is known as:

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A) Allen's rule B) Gloger's rule C) Bergmann's rule D) Stein's rule

45)

Gloger's rule concerns a correlation between: A) latitude and skin color B) latitude and height C) latitude and body weight D) high altitude and lung capacity

46)

The amount of heat that can be lost from an object by radiation depends on: A) only the surface area B) only the volume C) the ratio of surface area to body mass D) only the mass

47)

Human adaptations for life in a warm climate, as seen in the Nilotes, include: A) tall stature B) long, linear trunks C) long arms and legs D) all of these

48)

Human adaptations for life in a cold climate, as seen in the Inuit (Eskimo), include:

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A) short arms and legs B) tall stature C) long noses D) large body size

49) Among mammals, populations of the same species living near the equator tend to have body parts that protrude more and to have longer limbs than do populations farther away from the equator. This is known as: A) Allen's rule B) Gloger's rule C) Bergmann's rule D) Stein's rule

50) Within the same species of mammals, populations with low average weight are found nearer the equator, while those with greater average weight are found farther from the equator.

This is known as: A) Allen's rule B) Gloger's rule C) Bergmann's rule D) Stein's rule

51) If we apply Allen's rule, Bergmann's rule, and Gloger's rule, we would expect within a species of mammals that populations living near the equator would have: A) longer limbs, weigh less, and be more heavily pigmented B) shorter limbs, weigh more, and be more heavily pigmented C) longer limbs, weigh more, and be less heavily pigmented D) shorter limbs, weigh less, and be less heavily pigmented

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52)

Differences in growth and development between individuals are due: A) almost exclusively to environmental factors B) almost exclusively to genetic factors C) to both genetic and environmental factors D) to neither genetic nor environmental factors

53) The process of specialization and differentiation of cells into different tissues and organs is termed: A) development B) phylogeny C) growth D) evolution

54)

Hyperplasia refers to: A) an increase in the size of cells B) an increase in the amount of intercellular material C) an increase in the number of cells D) all of these

55)

An increase in cell size is termed: A) hyperplasia B) hypertrophy C) accretion D) ontogeny

56)

An increase in the amount of intercellular material is called:

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A) accretion B) hyperplasia C) hypertrophy D) ontology

57)

An adult human body contains an estimated __________ cells.

A) 100,000 B) 100 million C) 100 billion D) 100 trillion

58)

The study of bones is called: A) dendrology B) ontology C) paleontology D) osteology

59)

A fetal limb bone is originally formed of: A) cartilage B) actual bone C) calcium D) membrane

60)

The process of turning cartilage into bone is called:

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A) diaphysis B) ossification C) hardening D) osteolication

61)

The narrow zone on a bone where bone growth occurs is called a: A) growth zone B) development zone C) growth plate D) secondary center of ossification

62)

The bone age of an individual can be determined by examining an X-ray for: A) the fusion of growth plates B) the length of long bones C) bone density D) none of these

63)

The bone age of an individual is defined as:

A) the precise age at which secondary centers of ossification form B) the average chronological age at which centers of ossification form and fusion of growth plates takes place C) a fossil human's age at death as determined by x-raying the bones D) none of these

64)

Humans have _________ deciduous teeth and __________ permanent teeth.

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A) 18; 30 B) 20; 32 C) 28; 32 D) 32; 32

65)

Deciduous teeth are also referred to as: A) premolars B) molars C) wisdom teeth D) baby teeth

66)

The development of two sets of teeth is: A) unique to humans B) found in mammals C) found in all mammals and reptiles D) found in all animals

67)

A graph that plots the height gained by an individual in each 1 year period is a(n): A) distance curve B) adolescent curve C) velocity curve D) growth curve

68)

A velocity curve shows:

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A) the actual height or weight at a given age B) changes in the rate of growth with age C) differences in growth patterns between males and females D) none of these

69)

The adolescent growth spurt occurs: A) earlier in girls than in boys B) earlier in boys than in girls C) at about the same time in boys and girls D) irregularly in both boys and girls

70)

The adolescent growth spurt: A) is more pronounced in girls than in boys B) is identical in girls and boys C) is less pronounced in girls than in boys D) does not occur in most girls

71)

Menarche refers to the onset of: A) menstruation B) spermatogenesis C) tooth eruption D) antibody production

72)

To properly pronounce the word "menarche," one should rhyme it with:

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A) marsh B) march C) Archie D) monarchy

73)

The earliest sign of puberty in the human female is: A) the enlargement of the areolar area B) the development of the breast bud C) menarche D) constant talking on the telephone E) none of these

74)

At puberty, bitrochanteric width increases: A) more in males than females B) at the same rate in males and females C) more in females than males D) not at all; it is determined by age 5

75)

Which of the following is an example of a secondary sexual characteristic?

A) the development of facial hair in males B) the deepening of the voice in males C) an increase in the width of the hips in females D) all of these

76)

Anthropometry is the study of:

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A) the differences in behavior between various societies B) human heredity C) the biological classification of humans D) the measurements of the human body

77) A spreading caliper is used to measure the width and breadth of the head. Such an activity is part of the field of: A) ontogeny B) phylogeny C) anthropometry D) psychology

78) When compared with females, males experience as part of the adolescent growth spurt a decrease in: A) muscle tissue B) subcutaneous fat C) lung capacity D) blood volume

79)

Growth and development are influenced by: A) hormones B) genetics C) nutrition D) all of these

80)

A state of severe protein and carbohydrate deficiency is:

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A) diarrhea B) marasmus C) kwashiorkor D) dyspnea

81)

Characteristics of kwashiorkor include: A) edema B) retarded growth and development C) apathy D) all of these

82)

The secular trend refers to: A) a change in religious ideas B) a tendency for succeeding generations to, on the average, mature faster and be larger C) an increase in the rate of mitosis due to radiation D) a change in the distribution of any trait due to prolonged migration and interbreeding

83)

Twin studies suggest that: A) genes strongly influence growth, mainly by establishing optimal limits for growth B) genes determine growth and there is no influence from the environment C) the environment more strongly determines growth than do genes D) no conclusions can be drawn about the relative importance of genes and environment

84) The fact that menarche in females today occurs earlier than in their mothers is an example of:

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A) ontogeny B) anthropometry C) the secular trend D) a velocity curve

85)

Secular trends may be caused by: A) genetic factors B) improved nutrition C) better health services D) improved nutrition and better health services E) all of these

86)

The life span of a species is defined as: A) the average age at which natural death occurs B) the average age at which death (due to any factor) occurs C) the theoretical maximum age determined by genetics D) none of these

87)

The life span for humans is about __________ years.

A) 45 B) 70 C) 85 D) 120

88)

When compared to the female skull, the stereotypical male skull is characterized by:

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A) larger teeth B) more pronounced brow ridges C) square orbits D) all of these

89)

A difference between the male and female human skeletons is that:

A) stereotypical males have smaller jaws than stereotypical females B) the stereotypical female has a relatively wider pelvis than a stereotypical male that is adapted for childbearing C) the stereotypical males orbits tend to be rounded when compared to a stereotypical female D) all of these

90)

The female pelvis is characterized by: A) a U-shaped subpubic angle B) a wide and shallow sciatic notch C) a smaller acetabulum D) all of these

91) Genetic changes that favor the survival of a population in a stressful environment are called: A) amendments B) adjustments C) acclimatization D) adaptations

92)

An example of an acclimatory adjustment would be:

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A) an increase in the basal metabolic rate in a cold climate B) sweating in a warm environment C) an increase in the number of capillaries in a high-altitude environment D) all of these

93)

Vasodilation and reduced urine volume are adjustments to: A) desert habitats B) Arctic habitats C) high-altitude habitats D) heavily wooded habitats

94) It has been suggested that one of the major functions of melanin is the regulation of the production of: A) vitamin A B) vitamin D C) sweat D) hemoglobin

95)

Human adaptations for life in a warm climate, as seen in the Nilotes, include: A) short arms and legs B) large noses C) tall stature D) dense hair growth

96)

The study of bones is called:

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A) osteology B) paleontology C) anthropometry D) palynology

97)

The process of turning cartilage into bone is called: A) accretion B) hyperplasia C) ossification D) osteocation

98)

Menarche refers to the onset of: A) adolescence in both males and females B) menstruation C) the eruption of the permanent teeth D) conditions such as marasmus

99)

Anthropometry is the study of: A) fossil humans B) the size differences between males and females C) the measurements of the human body D) all of these

100)

The secular trend refers to:

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A) the rapid increase in stature and other dimensions of the body during puberty B) an increasing acceptance of evolutionary theory as opposed to religious explanations C) an increase in the rate of mutations due to pollution and other man-made environmental changes D) a tendency for succeeding generations to, on the average, mature faster and grow larger

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

101) What are the three types of adjustments? Give an example of each.

102) What changes in behavior might you have to make if you were to live successfully in an Arctic environment?

103) What is meant by the term "adaptation"? In what way does this concept differ from the concept of adjustment?

104)

What is the relationship between ultraviolet radiation, vitamin D, and skin color?

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105)

Describe how bones grow. What is meant by bone age?

106)

Describe the process of aging. Do people in different areas of the world age differently?

107)

What is the adolescent growth spurt? What factors influence this growth spurt?

108) Why do people in different parts of the world exhibit different rates of growth and development?

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109)

What is the secular trend? What factors may be responsible for the secular trend?

110) What is puberty? What physiological changes take place, and how are the sexes different? How is puberty reflected in culture?

111) In what ways do the skeletons of males and females differ? What is the significance of these differences?

112) What is forensic anthropology? How might a forensic anthropologist aid in a criminal investigation?

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113) What is meant by the term "adjustment"? In what way does this concept differ from the concept of adaptation?

114)

What is puberty? What physiological changes take place?

115)

What are the main differences between a human male and a human female skeleton?

116)

What are the main factors that affect growth and development?

117) What is forensic anthropology? What kind of information might forensic anthropology be able to supply investigators in a criminal investigation?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_12e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) A 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) D Version 1

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27) C 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) C 35) D 36) D 37) C 38) C 39) B 40) A 41) D 42) A 43) D 44) B 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) A 49) A 50) C 51) A 52) C 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) A Version 1

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57) D 58) D 59) A 60) B 61) C 62) A 63) B 64) B 65) D 66) B 67) C 68) B 69) A 70) C 71) A 72) D 73) B 74) C 75) D 76) D 77) C 78) B 79) D 80) B 81) D 82) B 83) A 84) C 85) D 86) C Version 1

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87) D 88) D 89) B 90) D 91) D 92) D 93) A 94) B 95) C 96) A 97) C 98) B 99) C 100) D 101) Answers will vary.

102) Answers will vary.

103) Answers will vary.

104) Answers will vary.

105) Answers will vary.

106) Answers will vary.

107) Answers will vary.

108) Answers will vary.

109) Answers will vary.

110) Answers will vary.

111) Answers will vary.

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112) Answers will vary.

113) Answers will vary.

114) Answers will vary.

115) Answers will vary.

116) Answers will vary.

117) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 17 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) A clinal distribution is one in which the same frequency is found everywhere. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) The selective pressure acting on the ABO blood system may be that people with blood type B are resistant to smallpox. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Genetic diseases, such as Tay-Sachs disease and sickle-cell anemia, are found with equal frequency in all populations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Body modifications, including deformation of bones, can be the result of cultural traditions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Linnaeus classified all humans as Homo sapiens and then divided the human species into four subspecies based on skin color and geographical location. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Blood-type frequencies are often used in human classification because large geographical areas fall into clearly defined categories. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

1

7) The average genetic differences between geographically separated human populations are fewer than the genetic differences within a single population. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Studies based on molecular data have concluded that varying populations of humans can be assigned to separate subspecies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) The assertion that there are pure races is no longer true today, but was probably true a hundred years ago. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

IQ tests and other tests of intelligence are influenced by cultural background. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) A clinal distribution is one in which: A) a trait shows no gradation between populations B) the same frequency is found everywhere C) frequencies show a gradation D) little variation from north to south is found

12)

A discontinuous distribution is one in which:

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A) a trait shows no gradation between populations B) the same frequency is found everywhere C) frequencies show a gradation D) little variation from north to south is found

13)

Human variation: A) can be clinal for some traits and discontinuous for others B) is such that populations similar for one trait will always be similar for all traits C) is not affected by migration D) all of these

14) An anthropologist from planet X finds that as he travels from east to west, the inhabitants of the planet become one inch taller with every 200 miles covered. Thus, the researcher has discovered a(n): A) clinal distribution B) discontinuous distribution C) nonclinal distribution D) ontological distribution

15) If we look at the distribution of skin color, red hair color, and blood type B in Europe, we find that: A) they all show clinal distributions from south to north B) they all show clinal distributions but in different directions C) they do not all show clinal distributions

16)

The distribution of both skin color and body build shows a(n):

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A) clinal distribution B) discontinuous distribution C) nonclinal distribution D) ontological distribution

17) The selective pressure acting on the ABO blood system may be that people with blood types O and B are resistant to: A) sickle-cell anemia B) phenylketonuria C) smallpox D) tuberculosis

18)

The Diego blood antigen can be used to identify people who are usually: A) African B) eastern Asiatic C) Australian D) eastern European

19)

Genetic diseases, such as Tay-Sachs disease and sickle-cell anemia, are: A) found with equal frequency in all populations B) found with equal frequency among peoples of the same skin color C) often more frequent in some populations than in others D) found only in populations of small size

20) The reasons why certain genetic diseases are associated with particular populations include:

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A) inbreeding in small populations B) preferences for consanguineous matings C) founder principle in small migrant populations D) all of these

21)

Body modifications based on cultural traditions include: A) deformation of the head B) scarification C) body piercings D) all of these

22) Anthropologists have studied head shape for well over a century. A newly discovered population has extremely elongated heads. This probably means that: A) the population was isolated genetically and so developed an unusual head shape B) the growth pattern of the head was influenced by unusual dietary patterns C) an unusual mutation occurred in this population for elongated heads D) elongation of the head may not be the result of any biological factor since some people artificially alter the shape of their heads

23)

An example of a nondeliberate cultural body modification would be:

A) bony extensions on the bones of the foot as a result of a particular resting posture B) placing a board on the soft forehead of an infant to flatten the front of the skull C) slitting the earlobes and inserting brass rings, which eventually draw the earlobe down to the shoulder D) none of these

24)

Folk taxonomies:

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A) are classifications that are part of specific cultural traditions B) differ from group to group C) do not necessarily correspond to biological reality D) all of these

25)

In a scientific sense, the term Negro: A) refers to all the dark-skinned people in the world B) refers to all the dark-skinned people of Africa C) refers to all the dark-skinned people of Africa and the United States D) is a term of sociological significance with no biological reality

26)

Scientific classifications are: A) ends in themselves B) means of discovering relationships C) derived from empirical studies D) means of discovering relationships and derived from empirical studies E) all of these

27)

Linnaeus: A) did not include people in his classification B) used the cephalic index for classifying people C) was the first to employ blood type in human classification D) none of these

28)

Linnaeus's classification of humans into four groups:

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A) is still considered valid by most scientists today B) has been reduced to three groups by most contemporary scholars C) only took into account European peoples D) is not considered valid by scientists today

29)

The difficulty in using skin color to categorize human groups is that: A) the precise genetic mechanisms of skin color are not known B) skin color can be strongly influenced by environmental and cultural factors C) skin color distribution is largely clinal D) all of these

30)

The cephalic index refers to the relative proportions of: A) head length and head breadth B) head height and head circumference C) nose length and nose breadth D) stature and weight

31)

Blood type systems have been used in human classifications because: A) blood types are easy to determine B) blood types are not affected by the environment C) the mechanisms of inheritance are, for the most part, known D) all of these

32)

A problem with using blood type frequencies in human classifications is that:

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A) it is extremely difficult to collect blood type data B) blood type is highly influenced by the environment C) most of the frequencies show a clinal distribution D) there is very little variation in blood type frequencies from population to population

33) Problems in the correlation of human fossils from the remote past to modern human variants: A) include gene flow between adjacent groups B) include migrations C) that it contradicts the regional continuity model D) all of these E) include gene flow between adjacent groups and include migrations

34)

Stanley Garn: A) believes that races do not exist B) does not take clinal variation into account C) divides the human species into nine geographical races D) all of these

35)

Human variation is: A) static B) dynamic C) indescribable D) always clinal

36)

The study of human variation on the molecular level has shown that:

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A) there is more variation within geographically separated human populations than between them B) there is more variation between geographically separated human populations than within them C) different human populations can be assigned to different subspecies D) both there is more variation between geographically separated human populations than within them and different human populations can be assigned to different subspecies

37)

A group or block of nucleotides that tends to be inherited together is called a: A) genome B) haplotype C) DNA cluster D) genomic

38)

The genomic research concludes that:

A) the number of dominant alleles is always greater than the number of recessive alleles in a population B) the differences between populations emerge at the genomic level C) there are genomic differences between some continental groups but not between others D) fixed groupings of people do not emerge from these studies

39)

All human share _____ percent of their genome.

A) 95 B) 97½ C) 98½ D) 99½

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40) About what percent of allelic variation in human populations occurs within any given continental group?

A) 93 percent B) 85 percent C) 67 percent D) 50 percent

41)

Diseases such as sickle-cell anemia are associated with: A) specific racial groups B) people with a specific ancestry in a specific area of the world C) all populations equally

42)

Albinism is common among the Hopi because: A) Native Americans carry the albino allele at higher rates B) being albino conferred a selective advantage against smallpox C) of Hopi cultural practices that favored albinos D) none of these

43) Government medical research fund granting agencies, such as the National Institutes of Health (NIH) and the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA), require research subjects to be classified by racial categories determined by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget (OMB).

This requirement:

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A) reinforces what most biologists now consider to be the false concept of race being genetically based B) reinforces the false idea that races fall into neat categories C) is seen by most physical anthropologists as being illogical and not conforming to empirical data D) all of these E) none of these

44)

Alfred Binet developed the IQ test to: A) measure general intelligence B) measure emotional intelligence C) measure job readiness D) determine if school children needed special education

45)

Most anthropologists now believe that IQ scores are:

A) valid measures of intelligence B) biased in favor of the groups for which and by whom they were designed C) influenced by general cultural background D) biased in favor of the groups for which and by whom they were designed and influenced by general cultural background

46)

Robert Sternberg believes that intelligence is exercised in which area?

A) contextual intelligence B) internal intelligence C) experiential intelligence D) all of these

47)

The major differences among human groups are differences in:

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A) culture B) anatomy and physiology C) innate patterns of behavior D) skin color

48)

Social concepts of race: A) do not usually correspond well or at all to biological facts B) are often tied into ideas of superiority and inferiority C) are often used to justify social stratification D) all of these

49)

The assertion that there are pure races is: A) true B) false C) no longer true today, but was probably true a hundred years ago D) still debated among anthropologists

50)

Civilizations did not arise in central Africa because of all of the following except: A) the terrain was not suitable for quick movement of people or goods B) the hot, humid climate C) endemic disease D) the lower intelligence of those in Africa as compared to Europe

51) Jared Diamond's explanation for the development of colonial empires in Eurasia and not in Africa or South America is based on:

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A) the more extensive development of agriculture in Europe B) the greater availability of domesticable plants and animals in Europe C) the East-West orientation of the European continent D) all of these

52)

Human variation: A) can be clinal for some traits and discontinuous for others B) is such that populations similar for one trait will always be similar for all traits C) is not affected by gene flow D) all of these

53)

A discontinuous distribution is one in which: A) frequencies show a gradation B) a trait shows little or no gradation in frequencies between adjacent populations C) high frequencies of the trait are found everywhere D) low frequencies of the trait are found everywhere

54) An anthropologist studying a trait finds that with every 250 miles covered, the frequency of the trait increases by 5 percent. She has discovered a(n): A) discontinuous distribution B) illustration of Allen's rule C) illustration of Bergmann's rule D) clinal distribution

55)

The distribution of both skin color and body build show a:

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A) discontinuous distribution B) nonlinear distribution C) clinal distribution D) complete distribution

56)

The highest frequencies of the blood allele B are found in: A) North America B) South America C) Asia D) Europe

57)

The cephalic index refers to the relative proportions of: A) surface area and volume B) head length and head breadth C) waist and hip D) nose length and nose breadth

58)

All humans share _____ percent of their genome.

A) 90 B) 97 1/2 C) 98 1/2 D) 99 1/2

59)

Folk taxonomies:

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A) are classifications that are part of specific cultural traditions B) are remarkably similar from group to group C) generally correspond to biological reality D) all of these

60)

The major differences among human groups are differences in: A) cephalic index B) culture C) anatomy D) skin color

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

61) What is the nature of human variation? Include in your discussion the concepts of clinal distribution and discontinuous variation.

62)

In what ways are folk taxonomies not scientific?

63)

What is the difference between a race and an ethnic group?

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64)

Describe the various attempts to scientifically describe human variation.

65) Some researchers believe that the concept of race as applied to humans is more of a social concept than a biological one. Explain this point of view.

66)

The way in which "race" is defined has political consequences. Explain.

67) Eurasians developed global colonial empires, while Africans and Native Americans did not. This was commonly attributed to the "racial superiority" of the Eurasians. How does Jared Diamond explain this historical development? Do his explanations support racial superiority?

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68) Describe the validity or lack thereof of the American folk classification of people into the categories of white, brown, black, yellow, and red.

69)

What are the difficulties in using skin color to categorize human groups?

70) How does Jared Diamond explain the development of colonial Empires in Eurasia and not in Africa or South America?

71)

It is valid to use racial classifications in medicine. Explain.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 17_12e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) C 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) D 26) D Version 1

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27) D 28) D 29) D 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) E 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) D 44) D 45) D 46) D 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) D 51) D 52) A 53) B 54) D 55) C 56) C Version 1

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57) B 58) D 59) A 60) B 61) Answers will vary.

62) Answers will vary.

63) Answers will vary.

64) Answers will vary.

65) Answers will vary.

66) Answers will vary.

67) Answers will vary.

68) Answers will vary.

69) Answers will vary.

70) Answers will vary.

71) Answers will vary.

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CHAPTER 18 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Urbanization is defined as the growth and development of cities. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

Urbanization began around 5000 years ago with the development of the first cities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The increasing mobility associated with industrialism has had several genetic consequences, including a possible increase in the number of heterozygotes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Fossilized bone can display clear indications of both skeletal diseases such as arthritis and bone cancer and nonskeletal diseases such as tuberculosis and syphilis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Compared to foraging societies, modern industrial societies suffer from epidemics less often, because of advances in modern medicine. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Some climate scientists believe that the average global temperature might rise by as much as 10 degrees Fahrenheit by 2100. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

1

7) In areas of the world where women have the same or close to the same educational and occupational opportunities as men, birth rates are low. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Based on what we know about evolution and natural selection, we know that eventually humans will adapt to high levels of smog. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Darwinian medicine interprets vomiting, coughing, pain, and fever primarily as evidence of low fitness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The world's population has grown very little in the last 150 years, compared to the previous 150 years. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) In 1750, the world population was about 725 million. By 2018, the global population had grown more than __________ times larger.

A) 4 B) 6 C) 10 D) 100

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12)

The 2018 world population was about: A) 725 million B) 2.5 billion C) 4 billion D) 7.6 billion

13)

Urbanization is defined as: A) the growth and development of cities B) the proportionate rise in urban population compared to rural population C) a society in which the majority of the people live in cities D) none of these

14)

Urbanization is chiefly a phenomenon of about the last __________ years.

A) 5000 B) 550 C) 120 D) 20

15)

The dependence on mechanization to produce products and render services is called: A) urbanization B) industrialism C) the Iron Age D) civilization

16)

The consequences of the greater mobility found in industrial societies include:

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A) the fact that hybrid groups have tended to develop from populations that were once separated B) a possible increase in the number of heterozygotes C) an increase in the probability of assortative mating D) all of these

17)

Evidence exists that pollution in urban centers affected the residents' health as early as: A) 5000 years ago B) the Middle Ages C) the beginning of the Industrial Era D) 1900

18)

The impact of industrialization on the evolution of modern populations includes: A) the development and use of physical and chemical materials that cause mutations B) increased mobility, which results in more intergroup mating C) new selective pressures, such as pollution, associated with industrialization D) all of these

19)

Pollution of various kinds:

A) dates back to before the beginning of civilization B) has only become a problem in the last 100 years C) can cause a wide range of health problems, including skin disease, eye irritation, and headaches D) dates back to before the beginning of civilization and can cause a wide range of health problems, including skin disease, eye irritation, and headaches E) has only become a problem in the last 100 years and can cause a wide range of health problems, including skin disease, eye irritation, and headaches

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20)

Endocrine disruptors: A) are both natural and synthetic chemicals that affect the endocrine system B) alter hormonal functioning by mimicking the sex hormones C) are suspected to cause several reproductive system problems D) all of these

21)

The study of disease and injury in human populations is referred to as: A) paleopathology B) anthropathology C) epidemiology D) zoonosology

22)

The study of disease and injury in fossil specimens is called: A) paleopathology B) anthropathology C) epidemiology D) zoonosology

23)

Fossilized bone can display clear indications of: A) skeletal diseases such as arthritis and bone cancer B) nonskeletal diseases such as tuberculosis and syphilis C) physical injury D) all of these E) skeletal diseases such as arthritis and bone cancer and physical injury

24)

Some Neandertal skeletons have a pattern of fractures consistent with those of modern:

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A) rodeo bull riders B) skydivers C) construction workers D) none of these

25)

Infectious diseases transmitted from animals to humans: A) are referred to as paleopathogens B) are referred to as zymotics C) are referred to as zoonoses D) do not exist; humans cannot catch animal diseases

26)

Compared to foraging societies, modern industrial societies suffer from epidemics: A) less often, because of advances in modern medicine B) just as often; modern medicine balances population density C) more often, because of population density D) exclusively; foraging peoples are not affected by epidemics

27) Foraging societies display a lower occurrence frequency of common noninfectious diseases than industrial societies. Explanations for this include all of the following except: A) differences in diet B) higher life expectancies in industrial societies C) the fact that foraging societies are more in tune with nature D) the fact that foragers are exposed to fewer carcinogens

28)

Agriculture has a negative impact on health because:

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A) population densities increase, facilitating the spread of disease B) standing water in plowed fields becomes the breeding ground for insects C) untreated animal feces, used as fertilizer, enter the drinking water supply D) all of these

29)

Which of the following statements about HIV is false?

A) Some biologists believe that HIV is at least as powerful a selective agent as malaria B) The CCR5 gene codes for cell-surface receptors and affects a person's susceptibility

to HIV C) A gene that may offer some protection against HIV is found in northern European populations, but rarely in Africa D) North America has the highest number of young adults with AIDS

30)

As of 2012, ______ countries are known to have nuclear weapons.

A) 3 B) 9 C) 17 D) 33

31) As of 2012, it is estimated that the total number of nuclear warheads in the world is about ______.

A) 300 B) 3000 C) 19,000 D) 90,000

32)

The most significant cause of global warming is:

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A) a tilt in the earth's orientation to the sun B) greenhouse gases C) the thinning of the ozone layer D) acid rain

33)

The gas that has increased significantly because of human activity is: A) carbon dioxide B) methane C) dihydrogen oxide D) nitrous oxide

34) Some climate scientists believe that the average global temperature might rise by as much as ___ degrees Fahrenheit by 2100.

A) .5-.8 B) 1-2 C) 3-10 D) 20

35)

The effects of global warming include: A) a shifting of the world's climatic zone B) droughts in some areas and torrential rain in others C) health crises, including a rise in respiratory ailments such as asthma D) all of these

36)

The world's rain forests contain about ____ percent of the world's species.

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A) 12 B) 27 C) 46 D) 62

37) By ___, according to one prediction in the text, as much as 95 percent of the world's rain forests might be gone.

A) 2020 B) 2035 C) 2100 D) 2150

38) year:

At the current rate of destruction, all rain forests will be gone or greatly disturbed by the

A) 1995 B) 2035 C) 2250 D) 2500

39)

The effects of the loss of the world's rain forests include: A) a reduction in atmospheric oxygen B) major changes in world climates C) a loss of fuel and food plants D) all of these

40)

Possible factors resulting in a loss of biodiversity include:

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A) intensive farming B) destruction of rain forests C) genetically engineered crops D) all of these E) intensive farming and destruction of rain forests

41) At the current rate of population growth, the world population will reach about ____________ billion by the year 2050.

A) 3.1 B) 5.2 C) 7.0 D) 9.3

42) In the early 2000s, up to ______ people per year died from a lack of food or from normally nonfatal infections worsened by deficiencies in food resources.

A) 3 million B) 20 million C) 75 million D) 125,000 million

43)

"Humans will adapt to high levels of smog." This statement: A) is true B) is partially true C) cannot be scientifically supported, and there is no reason to believe that it is true D) is false

44)

Darwinian medicine is:

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A) another name for paleopathology B) the study of the evolution of diseases C) the study of the evolution of medicine D) the study of human medical conditions in terms of evolutionary theory

45)

Darwinian medicine interprets vomiting, coughing, pain, and fever primarily as: A) illness B) defense mechanisms C) evidence of low fitness D) all of these

46) A defense mechanism that is so fine-tuned that even an insignificant stimulus might trigger it is called the: A) smoke-detector principle B) early warning principle C) stimulus trigger principle D) overreactive response principle

47) Evidence exists that pollution in urban centers affected the residents' health as early as ________ years ago.

A) 8000 B) 5000 C) 2000 D) 500

48)

Endocrine disruptors:

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A) are natural and synthetic chemicals that affect the endocrine system B) alter hormonal functioning C) are found in soybeans and whole grains as well as in pesticides and birth control pills D) all of these

49)

The study of disease and injury in human populations is referred to as: A) epidemiology B) paleopathology C) paleontology D) anthropathology

50)

Infectious diseases transmitted from animals to humans are called: A) zoopathogens B) zoonoses C) anthropathogens D) zoodiseases

51)

The study of disease and injury in fossil specimens is called: A) epidemiology B) paleomedicine C) paleopathology D) Darwinian medicine

52)

Global warming might:

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A) result in coastal areas flooding because of a rise in sea levels B) cause droughts in some areas because of a decrease in rainfall C) cause an increase in respiratory ailments such as asthma because of an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere D) all of these

53)

Darwinian medicine is the study of: A) the evolution of human diseases B) the evolution of diseases in both humans and other animals C) diseases in fossil populations D) human diseases in terms of evolutionary theory

54) A defense mechanism that is so fine-tuned that even an insignificant stimulus might trigger it is called the: A) early warning system B) smoke-detector principle C) excessive reaction principle D) over-evolved mechanism

55)

The "smoke-detector principle" as discussed in the text is:

A) the fact that people tend to get violent (like a smoke detector going off) when they are frustrated B) a defense mechanism that is so fine-tuned that even an insignificant stimulus might trigger it C) the fact that we are more and more dependent on technology D) none of these

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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

56) Discuss the problems facing modern people that are presented in this chapter. Can you think of any major problems that were not discussed?

57)

How has the shift to a more urban way of life affected human populations?

58) How does population growth differ between more and less economically developed nations? Why do these differences exist? What social challenges will these present?

59) What is Darwinian medicine? Give an example of an illness that would be interpreted differently from the perspective of Darwinian medicine.

60) Through the study of paleopathology, what have anthropologists been able to figure out about Neandertals?

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61) What are the applications of anthropology to modern issues such as those discussed in this chapter?

62) In what ways can anthropological knowledge be applied to the understanding of modernday problems?

63)

In what ways does agriculture have a negative impact on human health?

64) Through the study of paleopathology, what have anthropologists been able to learn about Neandertals?

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65)

In what ways can insights from Darwinian medicine be useful in modern medicine?

66) Although some people embrace the idea of a world that continues to increase in human population, most environmentalists believe that there are major problems today with overpopulation. What are those problems, and how might they affect the future of the human species?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 18_12e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) C 12) D 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) D 19) D 20) D 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) C 26) C Version 1

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27) C 28) D 29) D 30) B 31) C 32) C 33) A 34) C 35) D 36) D 37) A 38) B 39) D 40) D 41) D 42) B 43) C 44) D 45) B 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) A 50) B 51) C 52) D 53) D 54) B 55) B 56) Answers will vary.

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57) Answers will vary.

58) Answers will vary.

59) Answers will vary.

60) Answers will vary.

61) Answers will vary.

62) Answers will vary.

63) Answers will vary.

64) Answers will vary.

65) Answers will vary.

66) Answers will vary.

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