TEST BANK for Radiologic Science for Technologists: Physics, Biology, and Protection 10th Edition by

Radiologic Science for Technologists 10th Edition Bushong Test Bank Chapter 1: Essential Concepts of Radiologic Science Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Matter is measured in a. kilograms b. joules c. electron volts d. rems

.

ANS: A

Matter is measured in kilograms DIF: Easy

REF: page 3

2. Energy is measured in a. kilograms b. joules c. electron volts d. B or C

OBJ: Recognize the unit of measurement for matter.

.

ANS: D

Energy is measured in joules or electron volts DIF: Moderate

REF: page 4

OBJ: Recognize the unit of measurement for energy.

3. Atoms and molecules are the fundamental building blocks of a. energy b. radiation c. matter d. gravity

.

ANS: C

Atoms and molecules are the fundamental building blocks of matter.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 3

OBJ: List the fundamental building blocks of matter.

4. Ice and steam are examples of two forms of a. matter b. radiation c. energy d. work

.

ANS: A

Ice and steam are examples of two forms of matter.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 4

OBJ: Describe states of matter.

5. The formula E=mc2 is the basis for the theory that led to the development of a. x-rays

.

b. electromagnetic radiation c. nuclear power d. cathode ray tubes ANS: C

The formula E=mc2 is the basis for the theory that led to the development of nuclear power.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 5

OBJ: Understand the theory of energy-mass equivalence.

6. Radio waves, light, and x-rays are all examples of a. nuclear b. thermal c. electrical d. electromagnetic

energy.

ANS: D

Electromagnetic energy includes radio waves, light, and x-rays as well as other parts of the spectrum.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 4

7. A moving object has a. potential b. kinetic c. nuclear d. electromagnetic

OBJ: List types of electromagnetic energy.

energy.

ANS: B

A moving object has kinetic energy.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 4

OBJ: Identify various forms of energy.

8. What is the removal of an electron from an atom called? a. ionization b. pair production c. irradiation d. electricity ANS: A

The removal of an electron from an atom is called ionization.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 5

OBJ: Understand ionization of matter.

9. Ionizing radiation is capable of removing a. neutrons b. protons c. electrons d. ions

from atoms as it passes through the matter.

ANS: C

Ionizing radiation is capable of removing electrons from atoms as it passes through the matter.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 5

OBJ: Describe the process of ionization by ionizing radiation.

10. The energy of x-rays is _ a. thermal b. potential c. kinetic d. electromagnetic

.

ANS: D

X-rays are a form of electromagnetic energy.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 5

OBJ: List the category of energy of x-rays.

11. The biggest source of man-made ionizing radiation exposure to the public is a. atomic fallout b. diagnostic x-rays c. smoke detectors d. nuclear power plants

.

ANS: B

Medical x-ray exposure is the biggest source of man-made radiation.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 6 OBJ: Understand the relative intensity of ionizing radiation from various sources.

12. In the United States, we are exposed to

mR/year of ionizing radiation from the natural

environment. a. 0-5 b. 5-20 c. 20-90 d. 100-300 ANS: C

We are exposed to 20-90 mR/yr of ionizing radiation from natural environmental sources in the United States.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 6 OBJ: Understand the amount of natural environmental ionizing radiation to which the public is exposed in the United States.

13. The basic quantities measured in mechanics are _ a. volume, length, meters b. mass, length, time c. radioactivity, dose, exposure d. meters, kilos, seconds

,

, and

.

ANS: B

The basic quantities measured in mechanics are mass, length, and time.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 12

OBJ: List the basic quantities measured in mechanics.

14. An example of a derived quantity in mechanical physics is a

.

a. b. c. d.

meter second dose volume

ANS: D

Volume is a derived unit.

DIF: Moderate 15. a. b. c. d.

REF: page 12

OBJ: Recognize an example of a derived quantity.

is a special quantity of radiologic science.

Mass Velocity Radioactivity Momentum

ANS: C

Radioactivity is a special quantity of radiologic science.

DIF: Easy REF: page 12 OBJ: Recognize radioactivity as a special quantity of radiologic science.

16. Exposure is measured in units of a. becquerel b. sieverts c. meters d. grays

.

ANS: D

Exposure is measured in units of grays.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 14

OBJ: Understand units of radiation measurement.

17. Today, radiology is considered to be a(n) a. safe b. unsafe c. dangerous d. high-risk

occupation.

ANS: A

Today, radiology is considered to be a safe occupation because of effective radiation protection practices.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 10

OBJ: Understand the risk of an occupation in radiology.

18. What does ALARA mean? a. All Level Alert Radiation Accident b. As Low As Reasonably Achievable c. Always Leave A Restricted Area d. As Low As Regulations Allow ANS: B

ALARA means As Low As Reasonably Achievable.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 10

OBJ: Understand the meaning of ALARA.

19. Computed tomography was developed in the a. 1890s b. 1920s c. 1970s d. 1990s

.

ANS: C

Computed tomography was developed in the 1970s.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 10 OBJ: Relate history of the development of computed tomography.

20. Filtration is used to . a. absorb low-energy x-rays b. remove high-energy x-rays c. restrict the useful beam to the body part imaged d. fabricate gonadal shields ANS: A

Filtration is used to absorb low-energy x-rays.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 10 OBJ: Relate history of the development of computed tomography.

Chapter 2: The Structure of Matter Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The term “atom” was first used by the a. Ethiopians b. British c. Greeks d. Romans

.

ANS: C

The term “atom” was first used by the Greeks DIF: Moderate

REF: page 27

OBJ: Relate the history of the term “atom.”

2. The first person to describe an element as being composed of identical atoms was a. J. J. Thomson b. John Dalton c. Dmitri Mendeleev d. Niels Bohr ANS: B

The first person to describe an element as being composed of identical atoms was John Dalton.

DIF: Moderate REF: pageN2U7 OBJ: Name the first person to describe an element as being composed of identical atoms.

3. The smallest particle that has all the properties of an element is a(n) a. neutron b. proton c. electron d. atom

.

ANS: D

The smallest particle that has all the properties of an element is an atom.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 28

OBJ: Define the atom.

4. The periodic table of the elements was developed by a. Bohr b. Rutherford c. Mendeleev d. Roentgen

in the late 19th century.

ANS: C

The Periodic Table was developed by Mendeleev.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 28 OBJ: Name the person who developed the periodic table of the elements.

.

5. Rutherford’s experiments in 1911 showed that the atom was composed of a. electrons with well-defined orbits b. a nucleus with an electron cloud c. electrified plum pudding d. a ball of hooks and eyes

.

ANS: C

Rutherford’s experiments in 1911 showed that the atom was composed of a nucleus with an electron cloud.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 29 OBJ: Relate the history of the Rutherford model of the atom.

6. A positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons in well-defined

orbits is the a. Bohr b. Thomson c. Rutherford d. Dalton

model of the atom.

ANS: A

A positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons in well-defined orbits is the Bohr model of the atom.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 29 OBJ: Identify the structure of the Bohr model of the atom.

7. What are the fundamental particles of an atom? a. quark, positron, negatron b. nucleon, electron, proton c. proton, neutron, quark d. proton, electron, neutron ANS: D

The fundamental particles of an atom are the proton, electron, and neutron.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 29

OBJ: Identify the fundamental particles of an atom.

8. The chemical element is determined by the number of a. protons b. electrons c. neutrons d. nucleons

in the atom.

ANS: A

The chemical element is determined by the number of protons in the atom.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 30

OBJ: Describe how a chemical element is determined.

9. An atom in a normal state has an electrical charge of a. one

.

b. zero c. positive d. negative ANS: B

An atom in a normal state has an electrical charge of zero.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 31 OBJ: Describe the electrical charge of an atom in a normal state.

10. The binding energies, or energy levels, of electrons are represented by their a. atomic numbers b. atomic mass units c. shells d. isotopes

.

ANS: C

The binding energies, or energy levels, of electrons are represented by their shells.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 33 OBJ: Describe binding energies or energy levels of electrons.

11. When an atom has the same number of protons as another, but a different number of neutrons,

it is called an a. isomer b. isobar c. isotone d. isotope

.

ANS: D

When an atom has the same number of protons as another, but a different number of neutrons, it is called an isotope.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 34

OBJ: Describe an isotope.

12. When atoms of various elements combine, they form a. isotopes b. compounds c. molecules d. ions

.

ANS: C

When atoms of various elements combine, they form molecules.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 36

OBJ: Describe a molecule.

13. An atom that loses or gains one or more electrons is a(n) a. ion b. molecule c. isotope d. isomer ANS: A

.

An atom that loses or gains one or more electrons is an ion.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 31

OBJ: Define an ion.

14. The maximum number of electrons that can exist in an electron shell is calculated with the

formula a. 2n b. 2n2 c. 2/n d. 2/n2

.

ANS: B

The number of electrons in an electron shell is calculated with the formula 2n2.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 32 OBJ: Identify the formula for the maximum number of electrons that can exist in an electron shell.

15. A neutral atom has the same number of a. quarks b. neutrinos c. neutrons d. protons

and electrons.

ANS: D

A neutral atom has the same number of protons and electrons.

DIF: Easy REF: page 31 OBJ: Identify the formula for theNm imIuN mGnT um r oOf M electrons that can exist in an electron shell.

UaRxS Bb.eC 16. The innermost electron shell is symbolized by the letter a. J b. K c. L d. M

.

ANS: B

The innermost electron shell is symbolized by the letter K. DIF: Moderate REF: page 31 OBJ: Recognize the symbol for the innermost electron shell.

17. The shell number of an atom is called the a. alpha particle b. chemical element c. principal quantum number d. half-life number

.

ANS: C

The shell number of an atom is called the principal quantum number.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 32

OBJ: Define the shell number of an atom.

18. The atomic number of an element is symbolized by the letter

.

a. b. c. d.

A X Z n

ANS: C

The atomic number of an element is symbolized by the letter Z. DIF: Moderate REF: page 34 OBJ: Identify symbol for the atomic number of an element.

19. Aluminum has an atomic number of 13. How many protons does it have? a. 13 b. 26 c. 27 d. none of the above ANS: A

The atomic number equals the number of protons in an atom.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 34 OBJ: Identify the number of protons on an atom based on its atomic number.

20. Two identical atoms which exist at different energy states are called a. isotopes b. isomers c. isotones d. isobars

.

ANS: B

Two identical atoms which exist at different energy states are called isomers.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 36

OBJ: Define an isomer.

21. The atomic number of molybdenum is 42 and the atomic mass number is 98. How many

neutrons does it have? a. 42 b. 98 c. 21 d. 56 ANS: D

The number of neutrons is equal to A–Z. DIF: Difficult REF: page 36 OBJ: Identify the number of neutrons in an atom based on its atomic number and atomic mass number.

22. A chemical compound is any quantity of a. one type of atom b. one type of molecule c. two types of molecules

.

d. two or more types of atoms ANS: B

A chemical compound is any quantity of one type of molecule.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 36

23. During beta emission, an atom releases a. electrons b. positrons c. protons d. neutrons

OBJ: Describe a compound.

.

ANS: A

During beta emission, an atom releases electrons.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 37

OBJ: Describe beta emission.

24. The only difference between x-rays and gamma rays is their a. energy b. size c. origin d. name

.

ANS: C

The only difference between x-rays and gamma rays is their origin.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 42 NeUenRxS-rIaN Cm OaMrays.

OBJ: Explain the difference betw ysGaT ndBg.am 25. The is the least penetrating form of ionizing radiation. a. beta particle b. x-ray c. gamma ray d. alpha particle ANS: D

The alpha particle is the least penetrating form of ionizing radiation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 41 OBJ: Name the least penetrating form of ionizing radiation.

Chapter 3: Electromagnetic Energy Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The four properties of photons are , , a. size, shape, spin, mass b. frequency, mass, amplitude, wavelength c. frequency, wavelength, velocity, amplitude d. refraction, velocity, spin, amplitude

and

.

ANS: C

The properties of photons are frequency, wavelength, velocity, and amplitude.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 45

OBJ: Identify the properties of photons.

2. The smallest quantity of any type of electromagnetic radiation is a(n) a. photon b. electron c. neutrino d. quark

_.

ANS: A

The smallest quantity of any type of electromagnetic radiation is a photon.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 45

OBJ: Define photons.

3. What is the velocity of all electromagnetic radiation? a. 8  103 m/s b. 2  108 m/s c. 3  108 m/s d. 4  103 m/s ANS: C

The velocity of all electromagnetic radiation is 3  108 m/s.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 45

OBJ: State the velocity of all electromagnetic radiation.

4. The rate of rise and fall of a sine wave is called its a. amplitude b. frequency c. wavelength d. velocity

.

ANS: B

The rate of rise and fall of a sine wave is called its frequency.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 46

5. A hertz (Hz) is equal to a. 103

OBJ: Define wave frequency.

cycle(s) per second.

b. 102 c. 10 d. 1 ANS: D

A hertz is equal to 1 cycle per second.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 46

OBJ: Define the hertz.

6. What is the electromagnetic wave equation? a. b. c. c = fv d.

ANS: A

The wave equation is DIF: Difficult

.

REF: page 48

OBJ: Recognize the electromagnetic wave equation.

7. The of electromagnetic radiation is constant. a. amplitude b. velocity c. frequency d. wavelength ANS: B

The velocity of electromagnetic radiation is constant.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 48

OBJ: Discuss the velocity of electromagnetic radiation.

8. If the wavelength of a beam of electromagnetic radiation increases by a factor of 2, then its

frequency must . a. double b. increase four times c. decrease by half d. remain constant ANS: C

If the wavelength of a beam of electromagnetic radiation increases by a factor of 2, then its frequency must decrease by half.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 48 OBJ: Discuss the relationship between electromagnetic radiation wavelength and frequency.

9. The intensity of radiation

from the source. a. increases, direct b. decreases, direct c. increases, inverse d. decreases, inverse ANS: D

in

proportion to the square of the distance of the object

The intensity of radiation decreases in inverse proportion to the square of the distance of the object from the source.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 54

OBJ: Explain the inverse square law.

10. The reduction of radiation intensity due to scattering and absorption is called a. reflection b. refraction c. attenuation d. dispersion

.

ANS: C

The reduction of radiation intensity due to scattering and absorption is called attenuation.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 52

OBJ: Understand the function of attenuation.

11. The intensity of radiation on an object is reduced with distance because the radiation a. reduces its velocity b. increases in wavelength c. loses its energy d. is spread out over a greater area

.

ANS: D

The intensity of radiation on an object is reduced with distance because the radiation is spread out over a greater area.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 54

OBJ: Explain the inverse square law.

12. If the intensity of light from a flashlight is 4 millilumens (mlm) at a distance of 3 feet, what

will the intensity be at 6 feet? a. 0.4 millilumens b. 1 millilumen c. 2 millilumens d. 16 millilumens ANS: B

If the intensity of light from a flashlight is 4 millilumens (mlm) at a distance of 3 feet using the inverse square law, it will be 1 millilumen at 6 feet.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 55 OBJ: Calculate intensity changes using the inverse square law.

13. The diagnostic range of x-ray energy is a. 30 to 150 kVp b. 200 to 300 kVp c. 300 to 1000 kVp d. over 1 MV

.

ANS: A

The diagnostic range of x-ray energy is 30-150 kVp. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 56

OBJ: Discuss the electromagnetic spectrum.

14. The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its a. amplitude b. frequency c. velocity d. wavelength

.

ANS: B

The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its frequency.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 57 OBJ: Discuss the relationship between the energy and frequency of electromagnetic spectrum.

15. The mass equivalent of a 100 KeV photon of radiation can be calculated using the a. inverse square formula b. equivalent Planck equation c. relativity formula d. Planck quantum equation

.

ANS: C

The mass equivalent of a 100 KeV photon of radiation can be calculated using the relativity formula.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 57

16. X-rays are usually identified by their a. energy b. velocity c. wavelength d. hertz

OBJ: Understand how to calculate mass equivalency.

.

ANS: A

X-rays are usually identified by their energy.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 56

OBJ: Discuss the electromagnetic spectrum.

17. The lowest energy range of the electromagnetic spectrum is a. sound waves b. radio waves c. gamma rays d. microwaves

.

ANS: B

The lowest energy range on the electromagnetic spectrum is radio waves.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 50

18. Gamma rays are produced in the a. outer electron shell b. inner electron shell c. nucleus d. K-shell

OBJ: Discuss the electromagnetic spectrum.

of the atom.

ANS: C

Gamma rays are produced in the nucleus of the atom.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 51

19. Photons tend to interact with matter a. equal in size to b. larger in size than c. smaller in size than d. unequal in size to

OBJ: Discuss the electromagnetic spectrum.

their wavelength.

ANS: A

Photons tend to interact with matter equal in size to their wavelength.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 52

OBJ: Identify the properties of photons.

20. Photons with the highest frequencies have the a. highest velocity b. lowest energy c. longest wavelengths d. shortest wavelengths

.

ANS: D

Photons with the highest frequencies have the shortest wavelengths.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 48 OBJ: Understand the relationship between frequency and wavelength.

Chapter 4: Electricity, Magnetism, and Electromagnetism Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The smallest unit of electrical charge is the a. electron b. proton c. neutron d. neutrino

.

ANS: A

The smallest unit of electrical charge is the electron.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 61

OBJ: Define the electron.

2. Electrification occurs through the movement of _ a. protons only b. protons and electrons c. electrons only d. electrons and neutrons

.

ANS: C

Electrification occurs only through the movement of electrons.

DIF: Moderate 3. Like charges a. repel, repel b. attract, attract c. attract, repel d. repel, attract

REF: page 62

OBJ: Define electrification.

and unlike charges

.

ANS: D

Like charges repel and unlike charges attract.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 64

OBJ: List the laws of electrostatics.

4. Electrostatic force is

proportional to the distance between charges, and proportional to the product of the charges. a. directly, inversely b. inversely, directly c. inversely, inversely d. directly, directly ANS: B

Electrostatic force is inversely proportional to the distance between charges, and directly proportional to the product of the charges.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 64

OBJ: Describe the laws of electrostatics.

5. The charges on an electrified object are distributed a. in the center of the object b. on the side nearest the charge c. on the topside of the object d. evenly throughout the object

.

ANS: D

The charges on an electrified object are distributed evenly throughout.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 64

OBJ: Discuss the laws of electrostatics.

6. On the surface of an electrified object, the charges concentrate on the a. top side b. underside c. sharpest curvatures d. smoothest curvatures

_.

ANS: C

On the surface of an electrified object, the charges concentrate on the sharpest curvature.

DIF: Moderate 7. A a. b. c. d.

REF: page 64

OBJ: Discuss the laws of electrostatics.

is a source of direct current. wall socket battery generator spark

ANS: B

A battery is a source of direct current.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 68

OBJ: Recognize sources of direct current.

8. What is the unit of electric potential? a. watt b. amp c. volt d. ohm ANS: C

The unit of electric potential is the volt.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 65 OBJ: Identify units of electric potential and electric power.

9. An electric potential applied to a conductor produces a. an electric current b. a magnetic field c. an electric insulator d. both A and B ANS: D

.

When an electric potential is applied to a conductor, both an electric current and a magnetic field are produced.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 75

OBJ: Understand the principle of the electromagnet.

10. An alternating (AC) current is represented by a a. sinusoidal b. horizontal c. vertical d. descending

line.

ANS: A

An alternating (AC) current is represented by a sinusoidal line.

DIF: Moderate 11. A a. b. c. d.

REF: page 68-69

OBJ: Define direct and alternating current.

uses direct current. hair dryer toaster microwave flashlight

ANS: D

A flashlight is battery operated, and batteries use direct current.

DIF: Easy REF: page 68 OBJ: Recognize the uses of direct and alternating current.

12.1 Alternating current is produced by a 2 a. battery . b. generator c. capacitor d. semiconductor

.

ANS: B

Alternating current is produced by a generator.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 68

OBJ: Define direct and alternating current.

13. What is Ohm’s law? a. I = V/R b. V = I/R c. R = VI d. I = VR ANS: A

Ohm’s law is I = V/R. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 67

OBJ: Define Ohm’s law.

14. A charged particle in motion creates a(n) a. negative charge

.

b. positive charge c. magnetic field d. electrostatic charge ANS: C

A charged particle in motion creates a magnetic field.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 75

15. Electrical power is measured in a. coulombs b. amperes c. volts d. watts

OBJ: Discuss the four laws of magnetism.

.

ANS: D

Electrical power is measured in watts.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 69 OBJ: Identify units of electric potential and electric power.

16. Rubber and glass are a. semiconductors b. conductors c. insulators d. superconductors

.

ANS: C

Rubber and glass are insulators because they are nonconductors.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 73

OBJ: Identify some types of insulators.

17. The rotation of electrons on their axis is the property called a. magnetic force b. electron spin c. unified field theory d. magnetic induction

.

ANS: B

The rotation of electrons on their axis is the property called electron spin.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 70

OBJ: Define the electron spin.

18. When a group of dipoles are aligned, they create a. a magnetic domain b. paramagnetic material c. magnetic resonance d. a north pole

.

ANS: A

When a group of dipoles are aligned, they create a magnetic domain.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 71

OBJ: Define the magnetic dipole.

19. In the United States, alternating current goes through a complete cycle every a. 1/120 b. 1/100 c. 1/60 d. 1/30

second.

ANS: C

In the United States, alternating current goes through a complete cycle every 1/60 second.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 68

OBJ: Define direct and alternating current.

20. What is the SI unit of magnetic field strength? a. ampere b. tesla c. dipole d. ohm ANS: B

The SI unit of magnetic field strength is the tesla or gauss.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 74

OBJ: Identify the SI unit for magnetic field strength.

21. The force between magnetic poles is proportional to the

divided by the a. square, sum b. sum, square c. square, product d. product, square

of the magnetic pole strengths,

of the distance between them.

ANS: D

The force between magnetic poles is proportional to the product of the magnetic pole strengths, divided by the square of the distance between them.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 74

OBJ: Discuss the four laws of magnetism.

22. What type of material can be made magnetic when placed in an external magnetic field? a. diamagnetic b. ferromagnetic c. paramagnetic d. nonmagnetic ANS: B

Ferromagnetic material can be made magnetic when placed in an external magnetic field.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 72 OBJ: Recognize the properties of ferromagnetic materials.

23. Like magnetic poles a. attract, attract b. repel, repel c. repel, attract

and unlike magnetic poles

.

d. attract, repel ANS: C

Like magnetic poles repel and unlike magnetic poles attract.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 73

OBJ: Discuss the four laws of magnetism.

24. Water is a material. a. paramagnetic b. magnetic c. diamagnetic d. ferromagnetic ANS: C

Water is a diamagnetic material.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 72 OBJ: Identify the interactions between matter and magnetic fields.

25. The magnetic intensity of an electromagnet is greatly increased by the addition of a(n)

core. a. wood b. iron c. aluminum d. copper ANS: B

The magnetic intensity of an electromagnet is greatly increased by the addition of an iron core.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 73-74 OBJ: Identify the interactions between matter and magnetic fields.

Chapter 5: The X-ray Imaging System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The three main parts of the x-ray imaging system are the x-ray tube, a. protective barrier, tabletop b. operating console, high voltage generator c. rectification circuit, operating console d. crane assembly, tabletop

, and

.

ANS: B

The three main parts of the x-ray imaging system are the x-ray tube, operating console, and high voltage generator.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 87 OBJ: Identify the components of the operating console positioned outside the x-ray examination room.

2. The operating console contains circuits that are a. both high voltage and low voltage b. high voltage only c. low voltage only d. non-voltage

.

ANS: C

The operating console containsNcU irR cuSitI sN thG atTaB re.lC ow OMvoltage only.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 87 OBJ: Identify the components of the operating console positioned outside the x-ray examination room.

3. Variations in power distribution to the x-ray machine are corrected by the _ a. line voltage compensator b. high voltage autotransformer c. full-wave rectifier d. automatic exposure control

.

ANS: A

Variations in power distribution to the x-ray machine are corrected by the line voltage compensator.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 88 OBJ: Identify the components of the operating console positioned outside the x-ray examination room.

4. The first component to receive power in the x-ray circuit is the a. mA meter b. high voltage transformer c. rectifier d. autotransformer

.

ANS: D

The first component in the x-ray circuit is the autotransformer.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 88 OBJ: Identify the components of the operating console positioned outside the x-ray examination room.

5. The autotransformer has a. one b. two c. three d. four

winding(s).

ANS: A

The autotransformer has one winding.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 88 OBJ: Identify the components of the operating console positioned outside the x-ray examination room.

6. The circuit provides electrons for the x-ray tube current. a. rectifier b. autotransformer c. high voltage d. filament ANS: D

The filament circuit provides eN leU ctR roS nI s fNoG r tThB e. x-C raOyMtube current.

DIF: Moderate/Difficult REF: page 90 OBJ: Explain the function of the filament circuit.

7. Thermionic emission at the filament determines the

across the x-ray tube during an

exposure. a. kilovoltage b. milliamperage c. resistance d. magnetism ANS: B

Thermionic emission at the filament determines the milliamperage across the x-ray tube during an exposure.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 90

OBJ: Understand the process of thermionic emission.

8. A step-down transformer is located in the a. tube b. timing c. filament d. rectifier ANS: C

circuit.

A step-down transformer is located in the filament circuit.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 90 OBJ: Explain the operation of the high voltage generator and the step-down transformer.

9. The most accurate type of timer is the a. mechanical b. electronic c. synchronous d. mAs

timer.

ANS: B

The most accurate type of timer is the electronic timer.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 91

OBJ: Discuss types of timers.

10. The automatic exposure control (AEC) terminates the exposure when a. the set time is reached b. set radiation leaves the x-ray tube c. sufficient radiation reaches the image receptor d. the correct mAs is reached

_.

ANS: C

The automatic exposure control (AEC) terminates the exposure when sufficient radiation reaches the image receptor.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 92 OBJ: Identify the components ofNtU heRoS peIraNtiG ngTcBo. nsC olO eM positioned outside the x-ray examination room.

11. The mAs timer is usually set to give the a. highest, highest b. highest, shortest c. lowest, shortest d. lowest, highest

mA at the

time.

ANS: B

The mAs timer is usually set to give the highest mA at the shortest time.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 92

OBJ: Discuss the use of the mAs timer.

12. The step-up transformer increases voltage a. 500-1000 b. 200-300 c. 60-120 d. 20-50

times.

ANS: A

The step-up transformer increases voltage 500-1000 times.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 93

13. A diode allows electrons to flow from

OBJ: Explain the operation of the step-up transformer.

.

a. b. c. d.

anode to cathode cathode to anode cathode to cathode anode to anode

ANS: B

A diode allows electrons to flow from cathode to anode.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 94

OBJ: Discuss the function of a diode.

14. The high voltage generator contains the high voltage transformer, the a. autotransformer, timer b. timer, rectifiers c. kVp meter, filament transformer d. filament transformer, rectifiers

_, and the

.

ANS: B

The high voltage generator contains the high voltage transformer, the filament transformer, and the rectifiers.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 93 OBJ: Explain the operation of the high voltage generator, including the filament transformer and the rectifiers.

15. The difference in the waveform between the primary and secondary sides of the high voltage

transformer is . a. frequency b. velocity c. amplitude d. all of the above ANS: C

The difference in the waveform between the primary and secondary sides of the high voltage transformer is amplitude.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 93 OBJ: Explain the operation of the high voltage generator, including the filament transformer and the rectifiers.

16. In modern imaging systems, the components for rectification are a. capacitor discharge generators b. high frequency transformers c. vacuum tubes d. solid state semiconductors

.

ANS: D

In modern imaging systems, the components for rectification are solid state semiconductors.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 94 OBJ: Explain the operation of the high voltage generator, including the filament transformer and the rectifiers.

17. With half-wave rectification, the current flows through the x-ray tube during the

part of

the cycle. a. zero b. positive or negative c. positive d. negative ANS: C

With half-wave rectification, the current flows through the x-ray tube during the positive part of the cycle.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 95 OBJ: Explain the operation of the high voltage generator, including the filament transformer and the rectifiers.

18. Full-wave rectified, three-phase units provide an x-ray beam at a. 1 b. 60 c. 120 d. 360

pulse(es) per second.

ANS: D

Full-wave rectified, three-phase units provide an x-ray beam at 360 pulses per second.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 97 OBJ: Explain the operation of the high voltage generator, including the filament transformer and the rectifiers.

19.1 Voltage across the x-ray tube is most constant with 9 a. high frequency generators . b. single-phase, half-wave rectification c. single-phase, full-wave rectification d. three-phase, full-wave rectification

.

ANS: A

Voltage across the x-ray tube is most constant with high frequency generators.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 97 OBJ: Explain the operation of the high voltage generator, including the filament transformer and the rectifiers.

20. Most mammography units operate with a. capacitor discharge b. high frequency c. single-phase d. three-phase

generators.

ANS: B

Most mammography units operate with high frequency generators.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 98 OBJ: Explain the operation of the high voltage generator, including the filament transformer and the rectifiers.

21. A single-phase waveform has a. 1% b. 4% c. 14% d. 100%

ripple.

ANS: D

A single-phase waveform has 100% ripple.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 99 OBJ: Identify the voltage ripple associated with various high voltage generators.

22. The x-ray beam generated by the circuit with the

voltage ripple has the

quantity

and quality. a. highest, lowest b. highest, highest c. lowest, highest d. lowest, lowest ANS: C

The x-ray beam generated by the circuit with the lowest voltage ripple has the highest quantity and quality.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 100 OBJ: Discuss the importance of voltage ripple to x-ray quantity and quality.

23. The principal disadvantage of tN hrUeR e-S phIaN seGeTqB ui. pm enMt is CO a. efficiency b. cost c. operation d. beam quality

.

ANS: B

The principal disadvantage of three-phase equipment is cost.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 100 OBJ: Relate the important differences among single-phase, three-phase, and high frequency power.

24. What is the industry standard formula for calculating high voltage generator power? a. power = min mA (@100 kVp and 100 ms)  100 kVp b. power = min mA (@100 kVp and 100 ms)/100 kVp c. power = max mA (@100 kVp and 100 ms)  100 kVp d. power = max mA (@100 kVp and 100 ms)/100 kVp ANS: C

The industry standard for calculating high voltage generator power is to use the maximum tube current at 100 kVp and 100 ms.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 101 OBJ: Define the power rating of an x-ray imaging system.

25. The x-ray generator with the lowest power rating is the a. high frequency b. three-phase, twelve-pulse c. three-phase, six-pulse d. single-phase

imaging system.

ANS: D

The x-ray generator with the lowest power rating is the single-phase imaging system.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 101 OBJ: Define the power rating of an x-ray imaging system.

Chapter 6: The X-ray Tube Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The most widely used support structure for the x-ray tube is the a. C-arm b. floor-to-ceiling mount c. ceiling support system d. floor support system

.

ANS: C

The most widely used support structure for the x-ray tube is the ceiling support system.

DIF: Easy REF: page 105 OBJ: Describe the general design of the support structure for the x-ray tube.

2. The external structure of the x-ray tube includes the support structure, the protective housing,

and the . a. anode b. cathode c. glass envelope d. focusing cup ANS: C

The external structure of the x-ray tube includes the support structure, the protective housing, and the glass envelope.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 107

OBJ: List the external components that house the tube.

3. As an x-ray tube ages, the inside can become coated with tungsten, which can cause

in

the tube. a. convection b. anode pitting c. off-focus radiation d. arcing ANS: D

Tungsten coating within the tube can cause arcing.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 107

OBJ: Identify one of the causes of tube failure from age.

4. The negative side of the x-ray tube holds the a. filament b. anode c. target d. rotor

_.

ANS: A

The negative side of the x-ray tube holds the filament.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 107

OBJ: Describe the general design of an x-ray tube.

5. What is the most common cause of tube failure? a. cracked anode b. loose bearings c. pitted anode d. tungsten vaporization ANS: D

The most common cause of tube failure is tungsten vaporization.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 108

6. The filament is made of a. graphite b. tungsten c. copper d. molybdenum

OBJ: Identify the most common cause of tube failure.

.

ANS: B

The filament is made of tungsten.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 108

OBJ: Describe the filament.

7. Thermionic emission at the filament creates a a. space charge b. grid control c. line focus d. heel effect

.

ANS: A

Thermionic emission at the filament creates a space charge.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 109

8. The rotating anode is turned by a a. thermal cushion b. rotating belt c. magnetic field d. mechanical pulley

OBJ: Discuss thermionic emission.

.

ANS: C

The induction motor works by electromagnetic induction.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 113

9. When electrons bombard the target, a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 99 ANS: D

OBJ: Describe the induction motor.

% of their kinetic energy is converted to heat.

When electrons bombard the target, 99% of their kinetic energy is converted to heat.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 110 OBJ: Discuss the conversion of kinetic energy to heat at the target.

10. The target of the rotating anode is usually coated with a a. molybdenum b. graphite c. tungsten d. copper

alloy.

ANS: C

The target of the rotating anode is usually coated with a tungsten alloy.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 111

OBJ: Describe the target of the rotating anode.

11. The is the source of radiation in the x-ray tube. a. filament b. focal spot c. focusing cup d. stator ANS: B

The focal spot is the source of radiation in the x-ray tube.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 113

OBJ: Describe function of the focal spot.

12. Because of the line focus princN ipU alR , tShI eN efG feT ctB iv.eCfoOcM al spot size decreases with decreasing a. b. c. d.

. target angle rotor speed window thickness space charge

ANS: A

The size of the effective focal spot decreases as the target angle decreases.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 113-114 OBJ: Define the line focus principle.

13. High capacity tube rotors revolve at a. 2000 b. 3600 c. 6000 d. 10,000

rpm.

ANS: D

High capacity tube rotors revolve at 10,000 rpm.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 112 OBJ: Identify the rotor speed of high capacity tube rotors.

14. The x-ray intensity is lower on the anode side of the tube because of the _

.

a. b. c. d.

line focus principle heel effect focusing cup filament length

ANS: B

The heel effect causes x-ray intensity to be greater on the anode side of the tube.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 116

OBJ: Discuss the heel effect.

15. The cathode side of the tube should be directed toward the a. upper b. lower c. thicker d. thinner

part of the patient.

ANS: C

The cathode side of the tube should be directed toward the thicker part of the patient, because of the heel effect.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 116

OBJ: Discuss the heel effect.

16. What is the formula for heat units for a 3-phase, 6-pulse x-ray machine? a. kVp  mA  seconds b. 1.35  kVp  mA  seconds c. 1.41  kVp  mA  seconds d. 1.66  kVp  mA  seconds ANS: B

The formula for heat units is units for a 3-phase, 6-pulse x-ray machine is 1.35  kVp  mA  seconds.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 120 OBJ: Identify the formula for heat units for a 3-phase, 6-pulse x-ray machine.

17. Tube failure can occur from a. extrafocal radiation b. short exposure times c. high kVp techniques d. long exposure times

.

ANS: D

Tube failure can occur from long exposure times.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 118 OBJ: Identify one of the three causes of x-ray tube failure.

18. The filament in an x-ray tube is about a. 1-2 b. 3-4 c. 8-10 d. 10-20

cm in length.

ANS: A

The filament in an x-ray tube is about 1-2 cm in length.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 108

19. A dual focus tube has two a. anodes b. filaments c. rotors d. stators

OBJ: Describe the size of the filament.

.

ANS: B

The dual focus tube has two filaments.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 108

OBJ: Describe the dual focus tube filaments.

20. Each tube has its own tube rating chart to show a. housing cooling times b. anode cooling times c. maximum exposure times d. maximum patient doses

.

ANS: C

Each tube has its own tube rating chart to show maximum exposure times.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 119

OBJ: Understand the use of the x-ray tube rating charts.

21. The is/are outside the glN asU sR enSvI elN opGeT. B.COM a. stators b. rotor c. focal spot d. filaments ANS: A

The stators are outside the glass envelope.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 113

OBJ: Identify the location of the stators.

22. Extrafocal or off-focus radiation is produced from a. overheated anodes b. scattered x-rays c. rebounding electrons d. dual focus cathodes

.

ANS: C

Extrafocal or off-focus radiation is produced from rebounding electrons.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 117

23. The heel effect is caused by the a. stator windings b. anode angle

OBJ: Describe extrafocal or off-focus radiation.

.

c. exposure times d. induction motor ANS: C

The heel effect is caused by the anode angle.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 116

24. The effective focal spot size is a. equal to b. larger than c. equal to or larger than d. smaller than

OBJ: Understand the cause of the heel effect.

the actual focal spot size.

ANS: D

The effective focal spot size is smaller than the actual focal spot size.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 114

OBJ: Define the line focus principle.

25. Localized pitting or cracking on the anode can occur from a. filament vaporization b. a single excessive exposure c. long exposure times d. high kVp and low mA

.

ANS: B

Localized pitting on the anode target can occur from a single excessive exposure.

DIF: Difficult REF: pageN1U 17RSINGTB.COM OBJ: Identify the cause of pitting or cracking on the anode.

Chapter 7: X-ray Production Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Projectile electrons travel from a. anode to cathode b. cathode to anode c. target to patient d. inner shell to outer shell

.

ANS: B

Projectile electrons travel from filament to target.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 124 OBJ: Discuss the interactions between projectile electrons and the x-ray tube target.

2. During an exposure, most of the a. b. c. d.

energy of the projectile electrons is converted to

. kinetic, x-rays x-ray, kinetic kinetic, heat heat, kinetic

ANS: C

During an exposure, most of the kinetic energy of the projectile electrons is converted to heat.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 125 OBJ: Discuss the interactions between projectile electrons and the x-ray tube target.

3. At the target, the projectile electrons interact with a. outer-shell electrons b. inner-shell electrons c. atomic nuclei d. both A and B

.

ANS: D

The projectile electrons interact with both outer-shell and inner-shell electrons in the target.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 125 OBJ: Discuss the interactions between projectile electrons and the x-ray tube target.

4. The efficiency of x-ray production is a. indirectly proportional to b. directly proportional to c. not affected by d. strongly affected by

the tube current.

ANS: C

The efficiency of x-ray production is unrelated to tube current.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 125 OBJ: Discuss the relationship between tube current and x-ray production.

5. Most of the heat generated at the target is due to _ a. inner-shell ionization b. outer-shell excitation c. nucleus bombardment d. K x-rays

.

ANS: B

Most of the heat generated at the target is due to outer-shell excitation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 125 OBJ: Discuss the interactions between projectile electrons and the x-ray tube target.

6. The production of heat at the anode is directly proportional to a. rotor speed b. filament current c. kVp d. tube current

.

ANS: D

The production of heat at the anode is directly proportional to tube current.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 125 OBJ: Discuss the interactions between projectile electrons and the x-ray tube target.

7. The efficiency of x-ray production increases as NURSINGTB.COM increases. a. mA b. kVp c. time d. both A and B ANS: B

The efficiency of x-ray production increases as kVp increases.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 125 OBJ: Discuss the interactions between projectile electrons and the x-ray tube target.

8. Approximately

of the kinetic energy of the projectile electrons is converted to x-rays at

the target. a. 1% b. 10% c. 50% d. 99% ANS: B

Approximately 1% of the kinetic energy of the electrons is converted to x-rays at the target.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 125 OBJ: Discuss the interactions between projectile electrons and the x-ray tube target.

9. Electron interactions at the inner-shell of the target atoms produce

radiation.

a. b. c. d.

gamma Bremsstrahlung characteristic all of the above kinds of

ANS: C

Electron interactions at the inner-shell of the target atoms produce characteristic radiation.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 125

OBJ: Identify characteristic and bremsstrahlung x-rays.

10. The useful characteristic x-rays from tungsten targets are a. K b. L c. M d. N

-shell x-rays.

ANS: A

The useful characteristic x-rays from tungsten targets are K-shell x-rays.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 126

OBJ: Identify characteristic and bremsstrahlung x-rays.

11. Characteristic K-shell x-rays have an effective energy of a. 0.6 b. 3 c. 12 d. 69

keV.

ANS: D

Characteristic K-shell x-rays have an effective energy of 69 keV. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 129

OBJ: Identify characteristic and bremsstrahlung x-rays.

12. Most of the x-rays produced at the target are a. bremsstrahlung b. characteristic c. gamma d. beta

_.

ANS: A

Most of the x-rays produced at the target are bremsstrahlung.

DIF: Moderate 13. At 55 kVp, a. 15% b. 80% c. 100% d. none

REF: page 128

OBJ: Identify characteristic and bremsstrahlung x-rays.

of the x-rays produced are bremsstrahlung.

ANS: C

At 55 kVp, 100% of the x-rays produced are bremsstrahlung.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 128

OBJ: Identify characteristic and bremsstrahlung x-rays.

14. Bremsstrahlung x-rays are produced by a. outer shell excitation b. slowing electrons c. K-shell interactions d. L-shell interactions

at the target.

ANS: B

Bremsstrahlung x-rays are produced by slowing electrons at the target.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 127

15. Characteristic x-rays are produced by a. braking electrons b. excitation of outer shell electrons c. nuclear fragmentation d. released binding energy

OBJ: Identify characteristic and bremsstrahlung x-rays.

.

ANS: D

Characteristic x-rays are produced by released binding energy.

DIF: Moderate/Difficult REF: page 129 OBJ: Identify characteristic and bremsstrahlung x-rays.

16. The quantity of bremsstrahlung radiation increases proportionately with increased a. kVp b. mAs c. filtration d. rotor speed

.

ANS: B

The quantity of bremsstrahlung radiation increases proportionately with increased mAs. DIF: Difficult

REF: page 130

OBJ: Identify characteristic and bremsstrahlung x-rays.

17. An exposure taken at 100 kVp would have a continuous emission spectrum with a maximum

energy of a. 30 b. 69 c. 100 d. 140

keV.

ANS: C

An exposure taken at 100 kVp would have an emission spectrum with a maximum energy of 100 keV. DIF: Moderate REF: page 129-130 OBJ: Describe the x-ray emission spectrum.

18. The

of an x-ray beam is higher when the peak of the emission spectrum is further to the . a. quality, right

b. quantity, right c. quality, left d. quantity, left ANS: A

The quality of an x-ray beam is higher when the emission spectrum is further to the right.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 130

19. An increase in mAs would the a. increase, position alone b. increase, amplitude alone c. increase, amplitude and position d. not affect, amplitude and position

OBJ: Describe the x-ray emission spectrum.

of the emission spectrum.

ANS: B

An increase in mAs would increase only the amplitude of the emission spectrum.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 130 OBJ: Explain how mAs, kVp, added filtration, target material and voltage ripple affect the x-ray emission spectrum.

20. An increase in kVp would the a. increase, position alone b. increase, amplitude alone c. increase, amplitude and position d. not affect, amplitude and position

of the emission spectrum.

ANS: C

An increase in kVp would increase the amplitude and position of the emission spectrum.

DIF: Moderate/Difficult REF: page 131 OBJ: Explain how kVp changes affect the x-ray emission spectrum.

21. Changes in

result in directly proportional changes in the amplitude of the emission

spectrum. a. mA b. time c. kVp d. both A and B ANS: D

Changes in both mA and time result in directly proportional changes in the amplitude of the emission spectrum.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 130 OBJ: Explain how mAs and kVp affect the x-ray emission spectrum.

22. The discrete portion of the x-ray emission spectrum would change position with a change in

. a. kVp b. target material

c. voltage ripple d. both A and B ANS: B

The discrete portion of the x-ray emission spectrum would change position with a change in target material.

DIF: Moderate/Difficult REF: page 132 OBJ: Explain how target material affects the x-ray emission spectrum.

23. The amplitude of the emission spectrum with a

generator is

it is with a

three-phase generator. a. single-phase, lower than b. high frequency, lower than c. single-phase, higher than d. single-phase, the same as ANS: B

The amplitude of the emission spectrum is lower with a single-phase generator than with a three-phase generator.

DIF: Moderate/Difficult REF: page 134 OBJ: Explain how voltage ripple affects the x-ray emission spectrum.

24. A 15% increase in kVp is equivalent to . a. increasing the mAs 15% b. doubling the mAs c. increasing the mAs 1 1/2 tiN mU esRSINGTB.COM d. tripling the mAs ANS: B

A 15% increase in kVp is equivalent to doubling the mAs. DIF: Moderate REF: page 132 OBJ: Explain how kVp affects the x-ray emission spectrum.

25. How does added filtration affect the emission spectrum? a. increased amplitude and a shift to the right b. increased amplitude and a shift to the right c. reduced amplitude and a shift to the right d. reduced amplitude and a shift to the left ANS: C

Added filtration causes reduced amplitude and a shift to the right on the emission spectrum.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 132 OBJ: Explain how added filtration affects the x-ray emission spectrum.

Chapter 8: X-ray Emission Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Grays in air are the measurement for x-ray a. quantity b. exposure c. intensity d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Grays are the measurement for x-ray quantity, exposure or intensity.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 137 OBJ: Define radiation quantity and its relation to x-ray intensity.

2. The number of x-rays in the useful beam defines x-ray a. kVp b. quality c. quantity d. mAs

.

ANS: C

The number of x-rays in the useful beam defines x-ray quantity.

DIF: Moderate REF: pageN1U 37RSINGTB.COM OBJ: Define radiation quantity and its relation to x-ray intensity.

3. Standard x-ray machines produce about a. 20 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200

µGya/mAs at 70 kVp measured at 100 cm SID.

ANS: B

Standard x-ray machines produce about 50 µGya/mAs at 70 kVp measured at 100 cm SID. DIF: Difficult REF: page 137 OBJ: Define radiation quantity and its relation to x-ray intensity.

4. X-ray quantity increases in direct proportion to increases in a. mAs b. kVp c. distance d. filtration ANS: A

X-ray quantity increases in direct proportion to increases in mAs. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 137

.

OBJ: List and discuss the factors affecting the intensity of the x-ray beam.

5. If the distance from the source to the image (SID) is reduced by half, how is the x-ray

intensity at the image affected? a. It is increased 4 times. b. It is doubled. c. It is reduced by 1/2. d. It is reduced by 1/4.

ANS: A

If the SID is reduced by 1/2, the intensity at the image increases 4 times, because of the inverse square law.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 139 OBJ: List and discuss the factors affecting the intensity of the x-ray beam.

6. If filter thickness is a. reduced, reduced b. increased, reduced c. reduced, increased d. both B and C

_, then x-ray intensity is

.

ANS: D

If filter thickness is increased, then x-ray intensity is decreased and if filter thickness is decreased, then x-ray intensity is increased.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 142 OBJ: List and discuss the factorsNaU ffR ecS tiI ngNtG heTint enC siO tyMof the x-ray beam.

B. 7. A 10% increase in kVp has a. the same b. much greater c. less d. much less

effect on x-ray intensity than/as a 10% increase in mAs.

ANS: B

A 10% increase in kVp has much greater effect on x-ray intensity than a 10% increase in mAs. DIF: Difficult REF: page 138 OBJ: List and discuss the factors affecting the intensity of the x-ray beam.

8. If the quantity of electrons hitting the target are doubled, the x-ray quantity is a. reduced by half b. just slightly increased c. increased by a factor of two d. increased by a factor of four

.

ANS: C

If x-ray quantity is doubled, the optical density on the finished radiograph will be increased by a factor of two.

DIF: Moderate/Difficult REF: page 138 OBJ: Discuss the relationship between x-ray quantity and optical density.

9. If a technologist changes the technique from 70 kVp @ 200 mAs to 70 kVp @ 400 mAs, the

x-ray intensity will and optical density will a. double, double b. double, remain the same c. remain the same, remain the same d. remain the same, double

.

ANS: A

If the technologist changes from 200 mAs to 400 mAs, the x-ray intensity will double and optical density will double.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 138 OBJ: Calculate changes in the factors affecting the intensity of the x-ray beam.

10. The inverse square law has the same effect on optical density and x-ray a. intensity b. exposure c. quantity d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

The inverse square law has the same effect on x-ray intensity, x-ray exposure, x-ray quantity, and optical density.

DIF: Moderate REF: pageN1U 39RSINGTB.COM OBJ: List and discuss the factors affecting the intensity of the x-ray beam.

11. An increase of 15% in kVp is equivalent to increasing mAs a. 15% b. 30% c. 50% d. 100%

.

ANS: D

An increase of 15% in kVp is equivalent to increasing mAs 100%.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 139 OBJ: Calculate changes in the factors affecting the intensity of the x-ray beam.

12. If the intensity of a 70 kVp exposure at 20 mAs is 1.0 mGya, what would it be at 5 mAs? a. 0.25 mGya b. 0.5 mGya c. 2.0 mGya d. 4.0 mGya ANS: A

If the intensity of a 70 kVp exposure at 20 mAs is 1.0 mGya, it would be 0.25 mGya at 5 mAs because exposure is proportional to mAs.

DIF: Moderate/Difficult REF: page 138 OBJ: Calculate changes in the factors affecting the intensity of the x-ray beam.

13. If an exposure is 0.5 mGya at an SID of 40 inches, what would the exposure be at an SID of

60 inches? a. 0.22.2 mGya b. 0.333 mGya c. 0.75 mGya d. 1.125 mGya ANS: A

If an exposure is 0.5 mGya at an SID of 40 inches, it would be at 0.222 mGya at an SID of 60 inches because of the inverse square law.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 139 OBJ: List and discuss the factors affecting the intensity of the x-ray beam.

14. X-ray intensity is proportional to a. distance b. kVp c. kVp2 d. filtration

.

ANS: C

X-ray intensity is proportional to kVp2.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 138 OBJ: List and discuss the factorsNaU ffR ecS tiI ngNtG heTint enC siO tyMof the x-ray beam.

B. 15. The penetrability of an x-ray beam is called x-ray a. quantity b. quality c. intensity d. all of the above

.

ANS: B

The penetrability of an x-ray beam is called x-ray quality.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 140

OBJ: Explain x-ray quality and penetrability.

16. An x-ray beam that could pass through dense tissue would have high a. penetrability b. quality c. quantity d. both A and B

.

ANS: D

An x-ray that could pass through thick tissue would have high quality and penetrability.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 140

OBJ: Explain x-ray quality and penetrability.

17. A low quality beam would also have low

.

a. b. c. d.

penetrability quantity mAs intensity

ANS: A

A low quality beam would also have low penetrability.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 140

18. Beam quality is affected by a. mAs and distance b. kVp and mAs c. kVp and filtration d. filtration and mAs

OBJ: Explain x-ray quality and penetrability.

.

ANS: C

Beam quality is affected by kVp and filtration.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 142 OBJ: List and discuss the factors affecting the quality of the x-ray beam.

19. The half value layer (HVL) of an x-ray beam is a measurement of beam a. intensity b. quality c. quantity d. all of the above

.

ANS: B

The half value layer (HVL) of an x-ray beam is a measurement of quality.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 140

20. Image contrast is affected by a. beam quality b. kVp c. mAs d. both A and B

OBJ: Explain x-ray quality and penetrability.

.

ANS: D

Image contrast is affected by beam quality and kVp. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 140

OBJ: Explain x-ray quality and penetrability.

21. The HVL is lowered by a decrease in a. kVp b. mAs c. distance d. both A and C ANS: A

The HVL is lowered by a decrease in kVp.

.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 140 OBJ: List and discuss the factors affecting the quality of the x-ray beam.

22. X-ray beam quality is improved by a. lowering kVp b. decreasing filtration c. increasing filtration d. increasing distance

.

ANS: C

X-ray beam quality is improved by increasing filtration.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 142 OBJ: List and discuss the factors affecting the quality of the x-ray beam.

23. The main purpose of added filtration is to reduce a. the HVL b. patient dose c. beam quality d. beam penetrability

.

ANS: D

The main purpose of added filtration is to reduce patient dose.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 142 OBJ: List and discuss the factors affecting the quality of the x-ray beam.

24. Added filtration will a. decrease, increase b. decrease, decrease c. increase, decrease d. increase, increase

beam quality and

beam quantity.

ANS: C

Added filtration raises beam quality and lowers beam quantity.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 142 OBJ: List and discuss the factors affecting the quality of the x-ray beam.

25. A compensating filter is used to create

optical density with a body part of

thickness. a. uniform, non-uniform b. non-uniform, non-uniform c. non-uniform, uniform d. uniform, uniform ANS: A

A compensating filter is used to create uniform optical density with a body part of non-uniform thickness.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 144 OBJ: List and discuss the factors affecting the quality of the x-ray beam.

Chapter 9: X-ray Interaction with Matter Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The two primary forms of x-ray interaction in the diagnostic range are a. Compton scattering and photoelectric absorption b. Compton scattering and pair production c. photoelectric absorption and coherent scattering d. coherent scattering and Thompson scattering

.

ANS: A

The two primary forms of x-ray interaction in the diagnostic range are Compton scattering and photoelectric absorption.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 148 OBJ: Describe each of the five x-ray interactions with matter.

2. An incident x-ray interacts with an atom without ionization during a. photoelectric absorption b. Compton scattering c. coherent scattering d. pair production

.

ANS: C

An incident x-ray interacts with an atom without ionization during coherent scattering.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 148 OBJ: Describe each of the five x-ray interactions with matter.

3. An outer-shell electron is ejected and the atom is ionized during a. photoelectric interactions b. Compton interactions c. coherent scattering d. pair production

_.

ANS: B

An outer-shell electron is ejected and the atom is ionized during Compton interactions.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 149 OBJ: Describe each of the five x-ray interactions with matter.

4. Which x-ray interaction involves the ejection of the K-shell electron? a. coherent scattering b. Compton interaction c. pair production d. photoelectric absorption ANS: D

Photoelectric absorption involves the ejection of the K-shell electron.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 151 OBJ: Describe each of the five x-ray interactions with matter.

5. The scattered x-ray from a Compton interaction usually retains

of the energy of the

incident photon. a. none b. little c. most d. all ANS: C

The scattered x-ray from a Compton interaction usually retains most of the energy of the incident photon.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 149 OBJ: Describe each of the five x-ray interactions with matter.

6. Compton scatter is directed at a. a 180 b. a 90 c. a 0 d. any

angle from the incident beam.

ANS: D

Compton scatter is directed at any angle from the incident beam.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 149 OBJ: Describe each of the five xN -rU ayRiS ntI erN acG tiT onB s. wC ithOm Matter.

7. As kVp , the probability of photoelectric absorption a. increases, remains the same b. increases, decreases c. decreases, decreases d. decreases, remains the same

.

ANS: B

As kVp increases, the probability of photoelectric absorption decreases.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 151 OBJ: Describe each of the five x-ray interactions with matter.

8. In a. b. c. d.

, there is complete absorption of the incident x-ray photon photoelectric interaction Compton interaction pair production coherent scatter

ANS: A

There is complete absorption of the incident x-ray photon in photoelectric interaction.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 151 OBJ: Describe each of the five x-ray interactions with matter.

9.

occurs only at the very high energies used in radiation therapy and in nuclear medicine P.E.T. imaging. a. Coherent scatter b. Compton scatter c. Photoelectric absorption d. Pair production ANS: D

Pair production occurs only at the very high energies used in radiation therapy and in nuclear medicine P.E.T. imaging.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 154 OBJ: Describe each of the five x-ray interactions with matter.

10. Only at energies above 10 MeV can a. photodisintegration b. pair production c. Compton scatter d. photoelectric absorption

take place.

ANS: A

Only at energies above 10 MeV can photodisintegration take place.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 154 OBJ: Describe each of the five x-ray interactions with matter.

11. When the mass density of the aN bso r iNs GTB.,CitOrM esults in URrbSeI a. decreased, increased b. increased, increased c. increased, decreased d. decreased, decreased

Compton scatter.

ANS: B

When the mass density of the absorber is increased, it results in increased Compton scatter.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 156 OBJ: Explain the effect of atomic number and mass density of tissue on the differential absorption.

12. K-shell binding energy increases with increasing a. mass density b. kVp c. atomic number d. mAs

.

ANS: C

K-shell binding energy increases with increasing atomic number.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 151 OBJ: Explain the effect of atomic number and mass density of tissue on the differential absorption.

13. Which has the greatest mass density?

a. b. c. d.

fat soft tissue bone air

ANS: C

Bone has greater mass density than fat, soft tissue, or air.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 157 OBJ: Explain the effect of atomic number and mass density of tissue on the differential absorption.

14. Differential absorption in diagnostic imaging is primarily caused by a. photoelectric absorption b. Compton scatter c. pair production d. all of the above

.

ANS: C

Differential absorption is primarily caused by the photoelectric effect.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 150 OBJ: Describe each of the five x-ray interactions with matter.

15. Because of differential absorption, about

% of the incident beam from the x-ray tube

contributes to the finished image. a. 0.5 b. 10 c. 50 d. 95 ANS: A

Because of differential absorption, about 0.5% of the incident beam from the x-ray tube contributes to the finished image.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 155 OBJ: Explain the difference between absorption and attenuation.

16. Differential absorption is dependent on (the) a. kVp of the exposure b. atomic number of the absorber c. mass density of the absorber d. all of the above

_.

ANS: D

Differential absorption is dependent on the kVp of the exposure, the atomic number of the absorber, and the mass density of the absorber.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 155 OBJ: Explain the effect of atomic number and mass density of tissue on the differential absorption.

17. Attenuation is caused by a. absorption

.

b. scattering c. transmission d. both A and B ANS: D

Attenuation is caused by absorption and scattering.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 159 OBJ: Explain the difference between absorption and attenuation.

18. Barium is a good contrast agent because of its a. low atomic number b. high atomic number c. light color d. low density

.

ANS: B

Barium is a good contrast agent because of its high atomic number.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 158 OBJ: Understand the advantages of the use of barium as a contrast agent.

19. The use of contrast agents increases the amount of a. differential absorption b. Compton scatter c. photoelectric absorption d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

The use of a contrast agent increases the amount of Compton scatter and photoelectric absorption, therefore increasing the amount of differential absorption.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 158 OBJ: Discuss why radiologic contrast agents are used to image some tissues and organs.

20. A negative contrast agent is a. air b. iodine c. barium d. water

.

ANS: A

A negative contrast agent is air.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 159

OBJ: Discuss the types of radiologic contrast agents.

21. X-rays transmitted without interaction contribute to a. photoelectric absorption b. the radiographic image c. the image fog d. beam attenuation ANS: B

.

X-rays transmitted without interaction contribute to the radiographic image.

DIF: Moderate/Difficult REF: page 155 OBJ: Explain the difference between absorption and attenuation.

22. Compton interactions, photoelectric absorption, and transmitted x-rays all contribute to a. image fog b. differential absorption c. patient dose d. attenuation

.

ANS: B

Compton interactions, photoelectric absorption, and transmitted x-rays all contribute to differential absorption.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 154 OBJ: Explain the difference between absorption and attenuation.

23. High kVp techniques reduce a. patient dose b. differential absorption c. image fog d. all of the above

.

ANS: A

High kVp techniques reduce patient dose.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 155 OBJ: Explain the difference between absorption and attenuation.

24. At energies below 40 keV, the predominant x-ray interaction in soft tissue and bone is a. coherent scatter b. Compton scatter c. photoelectric absorption d. photodisintegration ANS: C

At energies below 40 keV, the predominant x-ray interaction in soft tissue and bone is photoelectric absorption.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 151 OBJ: Explain the difference between absorption and attenuation.

25. If 5% of an incident beam is transmitted through a body part, then 95% of that beam was a. b. c. d.

. scattered attenuated absorbed back-scattered

ANS: B

.

If 5% of an incident beam is transmitted through a body part, then 95% of that beam was attenuated.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 159 OBJ: Explain the difference between absorption and attenuation.

Chapter 10: Concepts of Radiographic Image Quality Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A high quality radiograph should always demonstrate a. structures and tissues b. high contrast c. minimum magnification d. all of the above

.

ANS: C

A high quality radiograph should always demonstrate structures and tissues.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 173-174 OBJ: Define radiographic quality, resolution, noise, and speed.

2. Spatial resolution improves with decreased a. screen b. motion c. geometric d. all of the above

blur.

ANS: D

Spatial resolution improves with decreased screen blur, motion blur, and geometric blur.

DIF: Moderate REF: pageN1U 63RSINGTB.COM OBJ: Define radiographic quality, resolution, noise, and speed.

3.

is defined as the ability to image two separate objects and visually detect one from the other. a. Contrast b. Resolution c. Detail d. Noise ANS: B

Resolution is defined as the ability to image two separate objects and visually detect one from the other.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 163 OBJ: Define radiographic quality, resolution, noise, and speed.

4. Radiographic a. detail b. contrast c. noise d. resolution

is random fluctuation in the optical density of a radiograph.

ANS: C

Radiographic noise is random fluctuation in the optical density of a radiograph.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 163 OBJ: Define radiographic quality, resolution, noise, and speed.

5. Higher speed image receptors generally produce images with a. better resolution b. increased noise c. higher contrast d. improved detail

.

ANS: B

Higher speed image receptors generally produce images with increased noise.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 164 OBJ: Define radiographic quality, resolution, noise, and speed.

6. The slope of the a. base b. shoulder c. toe d. straight line

portion of the characteristic curve shows the film contrast.

ANS: D

The slope of the straight line portion of the characteristic curve shows the film contrast.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 165

OBJ: Interpret the shape of the characteristic curve.

7. In general radiography, the useful optical densities lie between NURSINGTB.COM a. 0.25, 2.25 b. 0.5, 1.0 c. 1.0, 1.5 d. 2.0, 3.0

and

.

ANS: A

The useful densities of a radiograph lie between 0.25 and 2.25.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 167 OBJ: Identify the toe, shoulder, and straight-line portion of the characteristic curve.

8. The inherent base density plus fog density in film is a. 0.0-0.1 b. 0.1-0.3 c. 0.5-1.0 d. 1.0-1.3

.

ANS: B

The inherent base density plus fog density in film is 0.1-0.3.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 167

9. What is the formula for optical density? a. OD = log10(Io/It) b. OD = log10(It/Io)

OBJ: Interpret the shape of the characteristic curve.

c. OD = Io/It d. OD = It/ Io ANS: A

The formula for optical density is OD = log10(Io/It).

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 166

OBJ: Interpret the shape of the characteristic curve.

10. If 10% of the viewbox light is transmitted through an area of film, what is the optical density

in that area? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 ANS: B

A transmission of 10% incident light corresponds to an optical density of 1.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 167

OBJ: Interpret the shape of the characteristic curve.

11. The densities above 2.5 on a film are represented in the

portion of the characteristic

curve. a. base + fog b. toe c. straight-line portion d. shoulder ANS: D

The densities above 2.5 on a film are represented in the shoulder portion of the characteristic curve.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 165 OBJ: Identify the toe, shoulder, and straight-line portion of the characteristic curve.

12. A film with a characteristic curve showing a high slope would be useful when

is

needed. a. low contrast b. wide latitude c. high contrast d. fine detail ANS: C

A film with a characteristic curve showing a high slope would be useful when high contrast is needed.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 169

OBJ: Interpret the shape of the characteristic curve.

13. The base + fog of a film is shown below the a. straight-line portion b. average gradient c. toe portion d. shoulder portion

of the characteristic curve.

ANS: C

The base + fog of a film is shown below the toe portion of the characteristic curve.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 167 OBJ: Identify the toe, shoulder, and straight-line portion of the characteristic curve.

14. An image receptor with _ a. wide latitude b. high contrast c. narrow latitude d. high average gradient

can be used over a greater range of exposures.

ANS: A

An image receptor with wide latitude can be used over a greater range of exposures.

DIF: Moderate/Difficult REF: page 172 OBJ: Interpret the shape of the characteristic curve.

15. The three primary geometric factors affecting image quality are a. distortion, subject contrast, and mAs b. patient thickness, distortion, and magnification c. magnification, distortion, and focal spot blur d. kVp, focal spot blur, and contrast

.

ANS: C

The three primary geometric factors affecting image quality are magnification, distortion, and focal spot blur.

NURSINGTB.COM

DIF: Moderate REF: page 173 OBJ: Distinguish the geometric factors affecting image quality.

16. What is the formula for the magnification factor? a. MF = SID/SOD b. MF = SOD/SID c. MF = (SID/SOD)2 d. MF = SID2/SOD ANS: A

The formula for magnification factor is: MF = SID/SOD. DIF: Moderate REF: page 174 OBJ: Distinguish the geometric factors affecting image quality.

17. The best way to minimize magnification is to use a a. long SID b. small OID c. large OID d. both A and B

.

ANS: D

The best way to minimize magnification is to use a long SID and small OID. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 175

OBJ: Distinguish the geometric factors affecting image quality.

18. Focal spot blur can be reduced by using a. a small focal spot b. a shorter SID c. a larger OID d. all of the above

.

ANS: A

Focal spot blur can be reduced by using a small focal spot, longer SID, and smaller OID. DIF: Moderate REF: page 178 OBJ: Distinguish the geometric factors affecting image quality.

19. Subject contrast is affected by a. mAs b. focal spot size c. patient thickness d. voltage ripple

.

ANS: C

Subject contrast is affected by patient thickness, tissue mass density, effective atomic number, and kilovolt peak.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 179 OBJ: Analyze the subject factors affecting image quality.

20. Distortion can be reduced by NUR.SINGTB.COM a. placing the object plane perpendicular to the image plane b. placing the object plane parallel to the image plane c. directing the central ray 15 from the object plane d. increasing the SID and the OID ANS: A

Distortion can be reduced by placing the object plane perpendicular to the image plane.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 177 OBJ: Distinguish the geometric factors affecting image quality.

21. Which of these body parts has the highest subject contrast? a. abdomen b. skull c. chest d. pelvis ANS: C

The chest has high subject contrast because of the wide differences in effective atomic number and tissue mass density between air and bone.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 180 OBJ: Analyze the subject factors affecting image quality.

22. Radiographic image quality is improved when the a. source image distance b. focal spot size c. film speed d. screen speed

is increased.

ANS: A

Radiographic image quality is improved when source image distance is increased.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 175 OBJ: Understand the relationship between image quality and SID. 23. Patient thickness affects image quality by affecting a. magnification b. radiographic contrast c. focal spot blur d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Patient thickness affects image quality by affecting magnification, radiographic contrast, focal spot blur, motion blur, absorption blur, and optical density.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 179 OBJ: Analyze the subject factors affecting image quality.

24. The technologist primarily controls radiographic contrast by varying the a. image receptor b. kilovoltage c. voltage ripple d. milliamperage

.

ANS: B

The technologist primarily controls radiographic contrast by varying the kilovoltage.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 183 OBJ: Examine the tools and techniques available to create high quality images.

25. Optical density is primarily controlled by changing the a. kVp b. mAs c. film d. SID

.

ANS: B

Optical density is primarily controlled by changing the mAs. DIF: Moderate REF: page 183 OBJ: Understand the relationship between optical density and mAs.

Chapter 11: Control of Scatter Radiation Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Image-forming x-rays include those which have been a. transmitted without interaction b. scattered through Compton interaction c. absorbed through photoelectric interaction d. both A and B

.

ANS: D

Image-forming x-rays are those which have been transmitted without interaction and scattered through Compton interaction.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 187 OBJ: Identify the x-rays that constitute image-forming radiation.

2. Which kVp selection would result in the most scattered x-rays in the image-forming beam? a. 90 kVp b. 75 kVp c. 60 kVp d. 50 kVp ANS: A

The percentage of Compton interaction increases as kVp increases.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 187

OBJ: List three factors that contribute to scatter.

3. Approximately

% of the x-ray beam incident on the patient is transmitted through the patient without interaction to become part of the image-forming beam. a. 90-99 b. 80-89 c. 20-29 d. 0-9 ANS: D

Approximately 1% of the x-ray beam incident on the patient is transmitted through the patient without interaction to become part of the image-forming beam.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 188 OBJ: Identify the x-rays that constitute image-forming radiation.

4. The x-ray interaction that contributes to the clear parts of the image is a. coherent scatter b. Compton interaction c. photoelectric interaction d. pair production ANS: C

_.

The x-ray interaction that contributes to the clear parts of the image is photoelectric interaction.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 188 OBJ: Identify the x-rays that constitute image-forming radiation.

5. Compton scatter contributes to a. useful information b. image noise c. image contrast d. all of the above

.

ANS: B

Compton scatter contributes only to image noise.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 187 OBJ: Identify the x-rays that constitute image-forming radiation.

6. The three primary factors influencing the intensity of scatter in the image-forming beam are a. b. c. d.

. mAs, kVp, and collimation mAs, filtration, and grids kVp, field size, and patient thickness filtration, patient thickness, and mAs

ANS: C

The three primary factors influencing the intensity of scatter in the image-forming beam are kVp, field size, and patient thicNkU neRssS. INGTB.COM DIF: Moderate REF: page 187 OBJ: List three factors that contribute to scatter radiation.

7. Decreasing the kVp will increase a. patient dose b. image noise c. Compton scatter d. optical density

.

ANS: A

Decreasing the kVp will increase patient dose.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 187 OBJ: List three factors that contribute to scatter radiation.

8. Photoelectric interactions increase when a. mAs b. patient thickness c. filtration d. kVp

is decreased.

ANS: D

Photoelectric interactions increase when kVp is decreased.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 188 OBJ: List three factors that contribute to scatter radiation.

9. Scatter radiation increases as a. photoelectric absorption b. field size c. filtration d. contrast

increases.

ANS: B

Scatter radiation increases as field size increases.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 188 OBJ: List three factors that contribute to scatter radiation.

10. The x-rays that are transmitted through the patient without interaction contribute to a. useful information b. film fog c. image noise d. all of the above

.

ANS: A

The x-rays that are transmitted through the patient without interaction contribute to useful information.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 187 OBJ: List three factors that contribute to scatter radiation.

NURSINGTB.COM

11. Contrast resolution is improved by a. tight collimation b. lowering kVp c. patient compression d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Contrast resolution is improved by tight collimation, lowering kVp, and patient compression.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 189 OBJ: Discuss three devices developed to minimize scatter radiation.

12. A fixed aperture diaphragm should leave a a. 0.1 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. 2

cm unexposed border on the film.

ANS: C

A fixed aperture diaphragm should leave a 1 cm unexposed border on the film.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 192 OBJ: Discuss three devices developed to minimize scatter radiation.

13. The most commonly used beam restricting device is the a. extension cone b. variable collimator c. aperture diaphragm d. compression device

.

ANS: B

The most commonly used beam restricting device is the variable collimator.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 193 OBJ: Discuss three devices developed to minimize scatter radiation.

14. The use of a compression device will increase a. film fog b. patient dose c. contrast d. scatter

.

ANS: C

The use of a compression device will increase contrast.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 189 OBJ: Describe beam-restricting and its effect on patient dose and image quality.

15. Lowering kVp patient dose and a. lowers, decreases b. increases, decreases c. lowers, increases d. increases, increases

image contrast.

ANS: D

Lowering kVp increases patient dose and increases image contrast.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 187-188 OBJ: List three factors that contribute to scatter radiation.

16. The use of improves contrast and reduces patient dose. a. collimation b. high kVp c. low kVp d. less filtration ANS: A

The use of collimation improves contrast and reduces patient dose.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 187 OBJ: Describe beam-restricting and its effect on patient dose and image quality.

17. The positive beam limiting device (PBL) assures that the x-ray beam is collimated to a. the exact part size b. 1 cm inside image receptor size c. the image receptor size

.

d. 1 cm outside image receptor size ANS: D

The positive beam limiting device (PBL) assures that the x-ray beam is collimated to the image receptor size.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 195 OBJ: Describe beam-restricting and its effect on patient dose and image quality.

18. Federal regulations passed in

required that positive beam limiting devices be on all

manufactured x-ray collimators. a. 1954 b. 1974 c. 1994 d. 2000 ANS: B

Federal regulations passed in 1974 required that positive beam limiting devices be on all manufactured x-ray collimators.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 195 OBJ: Discuss three devices developed to minimize scatter radiation.

19. Beam restriction with a(n) a. aperture diaphragm b. cone c. collimator d. PBL device

is only accurate at a fixed SID.

ANS: A

Beam restriction with an aperture diaphragm is only accurate at a fixed SID. DIF: Moderate REF: page 192 OBJ: Describe beam-restricting and its effect on patient dose and image quality.

20. How can you improve image contrast with a heavy patient without increasing patient dose? a. Lower kVp and raise mAs. b. Use tight collimation. c. Raise kVp and lower mAs. d. Do both A and B. ANS: B

You can improve image contrast with a heavy patient without increasing patient dose by using tight collimation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 193 OBJ: Describe beam-restricting and its effect on patient dose and image quality.

Chapter 12: Screen-Film Radiography Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The two basic components of radiographic film are the a. base, adhesive layer b. base, emulsion c. emulsion, gelatin d. emulsion, silver halide

and the

.

ANS: B

The two basic components of radiographic film are the base and the emulsion.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 208

OBJ: Discuss the construction of radiographic film.

2. The main purpose of the gelatin emulsion in radiographic film is to a. resist chemical penetration b. hold the silver halide crystals c. maintain dimensional stability d. protect the base

.

ANS: B

The main purpose of the gelatin emulsion is to hold silver halide crystals.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 209

OBJ: Discuss the construction of radiographic film.

3. Crystals in film emulsion consist of a. potassium bromide, silver bromide b. silver nitrate, silver bromide c. silver bromide, silver iodide d. silver nitrate, potassium bromide

and

.

ANS: C

Crystals in film emulsion consist of silver bromide and silver iodide.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 209

OBJ: Discuss the construction of radiographic film.

4. The overcoat on radiographic film is a protective covering of a. gelatin b. polyester c. adhesive d. cellulose

.

ANS: A

The overcoat on radiographic film is a protective covering of gelatin.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 208

OBJ: Discuss the construction of radiographic film.

5. Latent image formation occurs during film a. processing

.

b. manufacturing c. storage d. exposure ANS: D

Latent image formation occurs during film exposure.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 210

OBJ: Describe the formation of the latent image.

6. A contaminant in the silver halide crystal creates the a. sensitivity speck b. latent image c. manifest image d. image fog

.

ANS: A

A contaminant in the silver halide crystal creates the sensitivity speck.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 210

7. The latent image can be seen a. with a microscope b. with the naked eye c. only after development d. only under red light

OBJ: Describe the formation of the latent image.

.

ANS: C

The latent image can be seen only after development.

NURSINGTB.COM

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 215

OBJ: Describe the formation of the latent image.

8. Photon interactions free the electrons from a. bromide b. iodide c. silver d. both A and B

atoms in the silver halide crystal.

ANS: D

Photon interactions free the electrons from bromide and iodide atoms in the silver halide crystal.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 215

9. The latent image is made up of a. bromide b. silver c. iodine d. sulfide

OBJ: Describe the formation of the latent image.

atoms.

ANS: B

The latent image is made up of silver atoms.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 215

OBJ: Describe the formation of the latent image.

10. Photon interactions in the emulsion occur with exposure to a. x-rays b. light c. heat d. both A and B

.

ANS: D

Photon interactions in the emulsion occur with exposure to both x-rays and light.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 215

11. High contrast film contains a. larger, varying b. larger, uniform c. smaller, uniform d. smaller, varying

OBJ: Describe the formation of the latent image.

silver halide crystals of

size.

ANS: C

High contrast film contains smaller silver halide crystals of uniform size.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 211

OBJ: List and define the characteristics of x-ray film.

12. Film is made with double emulsion to enhance film a. sensitivity b. latitude c. contrast d. speed

.

ANS: D

Film is made with double emulsion to enhance film speed.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 211

OBJ: List and define the characteristics of x-ray film.

13. The layer of screen that lies closest to the film is the a. screen base b. fluorescent layer c. protective coating d. reflective layer

.

ANS: C

The layer of screen that lies closest to the film is the protective coating.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 217 OBJ: Describe the component layers of a radiographic intensifying screen.

14. The light-emitting efficiency of the intensifying screen is improved by the a. protective coating b. reflective layer c. added dyes d. phosphor afterglow ANS: B

.

The efficiency of the intensifying screen is improved by the reflective layer.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 217 OBJ: Describe the component layers of a radiographic intensifying screen.

15. Screen characteristics are determined by the a. size of the phosphor crystals b. thickness of the phosphor layer c. phosphor composition d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Screen characteristics are determined by phosphor size, thickness, and composition.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 217 OBJ: Describe the component layers of a radiographic intensifying screen.

16. A phosphorescent material emits light a. for a period of time after stimulation b. only while it is stimulated c. for less than a nanosecond d. only from chemical stimulation

.

ANS: A

A phosphorescent material emits light for a period of time after stimulation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 217 OBJ: Discuss luminescence and its relationship to phosphorescence and fluorescence.

NURSINGTB.COM

17. An intensifying screen is an example of a. luminescence b. fluorescence c. phosphorescence d. both A and B

.

ANS: D

An intensifying screen is an example of both luminescence and fluorescence.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 217 OBJ: Discuss luminescence and its relationship to phosphorescence and fluorescence.

18. Luminescent material emits light after its outer shell electrons are a. excited b. ejected c. removed d. any of the above

.

ANS: A

Luminescent material emits light after its outer shell electrons are excited.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 217 OBJ: Discuss luminescence and its relationship to phosphorescence and fluorescence.

19. A screen that emits light after an exposure terminates is exhibiting a. conversion efficiency b. image noise c. screen lag d. screen blur

.

ANS: C

A screen that emits light after an exposure terminates is exhibiting screen lag.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 217 OBJ: Discuss luminescence and its relationship to phosphorescence and fluorescence.

20. The intensification factor is a measurement of screen a. resolution b. speed c. noise d. quality

.

ANS: B

The intensification factor is a measurement of screen speed DIF: Moderate

REF: page 217

OBJ: Define and use the term intensification factor.

21. The intensification factor is the exposure required a. b. c. d.

divided by the exposure required

. with one screen, with two screens with two screens, with one screen without screens, with screeN nsURSINGTB.COM with screens, without screens

ANS: C

Intensification factor is the exposure required without screens divided by the exposure required with screens.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 218

OBJ: Define and use the term intensification factor.

22. The intensification factor increases with increased a. kVp b. mAs c. dye d. temperature

.

ANS: A

The intensification factor increases with increased kVp. DIF: Difficult

REF: page 218

OBJ: Define and use the term intensification factor.

23. The ability of an intensifying screen to absorb x-rays is called a. quantum mottle b. intensification factor c. conversion efficiency d. detective quantum efficiency

.

ANS: D

The ability of an intensifying screen to absorb x-rays is called detective quantum efficiency.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 219 OBJ: Identify how detective quantum efficiency (DQE) and conversion efficiency (CE) affect screen speed.

24. Image noise in increased with increased a. detective quantum efficiency (DQE) b. conversion efficiency (CE) c. both A and B d. none of the above

.

ANS: B

Image noise in increased with increased conversion efficiency (CE).

DIF: Difficult REF: page 219 OBJ: Identify how detective quantum efficiency (DQE) and conversion efficiency (CE) affect screen speed.

25. Both the isotropic emission of light from screen phosphor crystals and the added reflective

layer contribute to . a. conversion efficiency b. image blur c. quantum mottle d. detective quantum efficiency ANS: B

Both the isotropic emission of light from screen phosphor crystals and the added reflective layer contribute to image blur.

DIF: Moderate/Difficult REF: page 221 OBJ: Describe image noise and image blur.

Chapter 13: Screen-Film Radiographic Technique Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What are the four primary exposure factors? a. kVp, mAs, filtration, and voltage ripple b. mA, time, distance, and filtration c. kVp, mAs, time, and SID d. mA, time, kVp controls, and focal spot size ANS: C

The four primary exposure factors are kVp, mAs, time, and SID. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 237

2. Changes in kVp affect a. optical density b. image contrast c. image noise d. all of the above

OBJ: List the four prime exposure factors.

.

ANS: D

Changes in kVp affect optical density, image contrast, and image noise.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 237

3. An increase in mAs causes a. an increase, a decrease b. an increase, no change c. an increase, an increase d. no change, an increase

OBJ: Describe how changes in kVp affect the image.

in beam quality and

in beam quantity.

ANS: D

An increase in mAs causes no change in beam quality and an increase in beam quantity.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 238 OBJ: Discuss mAs in relation to x-ray beam quantity and quality.

4. There is a direct relationship between the quantity of x-rays and the a. milliamperage b. kilovolt peak c. filter thickness d. voltage ripple

.

ANS: A

There is a direct relationship between the quantity of x-rays and the milliamperage.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 238

OBJ: Discuss mAs in relation to x-ray beam quantity.

5. If mAs is increased from 20 mAs to 40 mAs, the patient dose will

.

a. b. c. d.

not be affected increase slightly be halved be doubled

ANS: D

If mAs is increased from 20 mAs to 40 mAs the patient dose will be doubled.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 239

6. Beam penetrability is increased if a. mAs b. SID c. kVp d. all of the above

OBJ: Discuss mAs in relation to patient dose.

is/are increased.

ANS: C

Beam penetrability is increased if kVp is increased.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 237 OBJ: Discuss kVp in relation to x-ray beam penetrability.

7. A a. b. c. d.

% increase in kVp has the same effect on optical density as doubling the mAs. 5 15 30 50

ANS: B

A 15% increase in kVp has the same effect on optical density as doubling the mAs. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 248

OBJ: Identify how changes in kVp affect optical density.

8. A radiograph with a long scale of contrast will have a. narrow, low b. narrow, high c. wide, low d. wide, high

latitude and

contrast.

ANS: C

A radiograph with long scale of contrast will also have wide latitude and low contrast.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 249 OBJ: Identify the relationship between degrees of contrast, scale of contrast, and image latitude.

9. A radiograph is taken using 75 kVp @ 20 mAs. Which change in technique would increase

contrast but maintain the same density? a. 85 kVp @ 10 mAs b. 85 kVp @ 40 mAs c. 65 kVp @ 20 mAs d. 65 kVp @ 40 mAs ANS: D

Reducing kVp by 15% and doubling the mAs will increase contrast but maintain the same optical density.

DIF: Difficult 10. At least a a. 10 b. 15 c. 30 d. 50

REF: page 248

OBJ: Identify technique changes that affect contrast.

% change in mAs is necessary to produce a visible change in optical density.

ANS: C

At least a 30% change in mAs is necessary to produce a visible change in optical density.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 248 OBJ: Describe how changes of mAs affect the visible optical density of a radiograph.

11. A radiograph taken using 65 kVp @ 10 mAs is too light. Which technique would double the

optical density while producing a wider scale of contrast? a. 75 kVp @ 10 mAs b. 75 kVp @ 20 mAs c. 55 kVp @ 20 mAs d. 55 kVp @ 40 mAs ANS: A

A technique of 75 kVp @ 10 mAs would double the density while also widening the scale of contrast.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 248 OBJ: Identify technique changes that affect optical density and scale of contrast.

12. Which technique would give the highest patient dose? a. 90 kVp/200 mA @ 0.02 sec b. 87 kVp/400 mA @ 0.02 sec c. 74 kVp/400 mA @ 0.04 sec d. 65 kVp/300 mA @ 0.1 sec ANS: D

Patient dose increases are directly related to increases in mAs. DIF: Difficult

REF: page 238

OBJ: Discuss mAs and kVp in relation to patient dose.

13. Patient thickness should be measured with the a. caliper b. eyes c. hands d. SID tape

.

ANS: A

Patient thickness should be measured with the caliper.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 243

OBJ: State the correct way to measure patient thickness.

14. The small focal spot will provide a

.

I. higher quality x-rays beam II. greater quantity of x-rays III. finer detail of image a. I only b. I & III c. III only d. I, II & III ANS: C

The small focal spot is used to provide a finer detail of image when less quantity of x-rays is needed.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 241

15. Beam quality is improved when the

OBJ: Describe the use of the small focal spot.

is increased, but

has no effect on beam

quality. a. kilovoltage, filtration b. kilovoltage, milliamperage c. milliamperage, kilovoltage d. milliamperage, filtration ANS: B

Beam quality is improved when the kilovoltage is increased, but milliamperage has no effect on beam quality.

DIF: Moderate REF: pageN2U 37RSINGTB.COM OBJ: Discuss mAs and kVp in relation to x-ray beam quantity and quality.

16. Both beam quality and beam quality are increased by a. increasing kVp b. using 3-phase voltage c. increasing mAs d. both A and B

.

ANS: D

Both voltage waveform and kVp affect beam quality and quantity.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 237-238 OBJ: Discuss the factors that affect x-ray beam quantity and quality.

17. Added filtration has the effect of a. reducing, increasing b. reducing, reducing c. increasing, reducing d. increasing, increasing

the beam quality and

patient dose.

ANS: C

Added filtration has the effect of increasing the beam quality and reducing patient dose.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 249

OBJ: Describe the effect of added filtration on beam quality and patient dose.

18. List the following tissues in order from the most radiolucent to the most radiopaque.

I. II. III. IV. a. b. c. d.

muscle fat lung bone IV, I, II, III III, I, II, IV III, II, I, IV II, III, I, IV

ANS: C

Lung is the most radiolucent tissue in the body. Fat is more radiolucent than muscle and bone is the most radiopaque.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 244 OBJ: Understand which body tissues are more radiolucent and which are more radiopaque.

19. Which medical condition may require a lower technique? a. atelectasis b. emphysema c. pneumonia d. pleural effusion ANS: B

Emphysema makes the lungs more radiolucent, while the other conditions listed make the lungs more radiopaque.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 245 OBJ: Understand how some medical conditions require changes in radiographic technique.

20. When only the optical density needs to be changed, only the a. mAs b. kVp c. SID d. filtration

should be adjusted.

ANS: A

When only the optical density needs to be changed, only the mAs should be adjusted.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 245 OBJ: Understand the direct relationship between mAs and optical density.

21. Sharpness of detail can be improved by increasing a. SID b. OID c. focal spot size d. all of the above ANS: A

Sharpness of detail can be improved by increasing SID.

.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 251 OBJ: Identify relationship between SID and sharpness of detail.

22. Foreshortening is caused by a(n) . a. angled beam when the body part is parallel the image receptor b. angled body part when the beam is perpendicular to the image receptor c. angled beam that is perpendicular to the body part d. perpendicular beam and the body part parallel to the image receptor ANS: B

Foreshortening is caused by an angled body part when the beam is perpendicular to the image receptor.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 252

OBJ: Describe the cause of foreshortening.

23. In a variable kVp technique chart, the optimal mAs is set for each body part and there is a

kVp increase for each cm of thickness. a. b. c. d.

6 4 2 1

ANS: C

In a variable kVp technique chart the optimal mAs is set for each body part and there is a 2 kVp increase for each cm of thickness.

DIF:

Moderate

REF: pageN2U 54RSINO : .DCisOcuMss the variable kVp technique chart.

GBTJB

24. A variable mAs technique chart has a set kVp and specific mAs settings for a. small, medium, and large parts b. every 2 cm of thickness c. every 6 cm of thickness d. either A or B

.

ANS: D

A variable mAs technique chart has a set kVp and specific mAs settings either for small, medium, and large parts or for every 2 cm of thickness.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 254

OBJ: Describe the variable mAs technique chart.

25. With automatic exposure control the exposure is terminated when the optimum

is

reached. a. OD b. time c. mAs d. kVp ANS: A

With automatic exposure control the exposure is terminated when the optimum optical density is reached.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 257 OBJ: Describe how automatic exposure control is designed to terminate an exposure.

Chapter 14: Computers in Medical Imaging Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The first generation of computers was run with a. vacuum tubes b. transistors c. integrated circuits d. large scale integration

.

ANS: A

The first generation of computers was run with vacuum tubes.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 267-268 OBJ: Discuss the history of computers and the role of the transistor.

2. Modern day computers use a. transistors b. vacuum tubes c. silicon chips d. electric wires

to store information.

ANS: C

Modern day computers use silicon chips to store information.

DIF: Moderate REF: pageN2U 68RSINGTB.COM OBJ: Discuss the history of computers and the role of the transistor.

3. The

, developed in 1951, was the first commercially successful general-purpose stored-program electronic digital computer. a. ENIAC b. UNIVAC c. VLSI d. LSI ANS: B

The UNIVAC, developed in 1951, was the first commercially successful general-purpose stored-program electronic digital computer.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 267 OBJ: Discuss the history of computers and the role of the transistor.

4. Computer hardware includes the a. keyboard b. central processing unit c. motherboard d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Computer hardware includes any part of the computer that you can see and touch.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 269 OBJ: List and define the components of computer hardware.

5. The is an example of computer input hardware. a. printer b. CPU c. mouse d. diskette ANS: C

The mouse is an example of computer input hardware.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 279 OBJ: List and define the components of computer hardware.

6. The controls data transfer between the main memory and the input and output hardware a. flat panel display b. central processing unit c. disk drive d. RAM chip ANS: B

The central processing unit controls data transfer between the main memory and the input and output hardware.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 274 OBJ: List and define the components of computer hardware.

NURSINGTB.COM

7. The active storage of a computer is stored in a. DRAM b. SRAM c. ROM d. all of the above

chips.

ANS: D

The active storage of a computer is stored in DRAM, SRAM, and ROM chips.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 276 OBJ: List and define the components of computer hardware.

8. A tape, diskette, hard disk or optical disk is used to a. archive files b. process data c. convert data d. perform calculations

.

ANS: A

A tape, diskette, hard disk, or optical disk is used to archive files.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 277 OBJ: List and define the components of computer hardware.

9. The represents zero or one. a. byte b. bit c. gigabyte d. terabyte ANS: B

The bit represents zero or one.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 271 OBJ: Define bit, byte, and word as used in computer terminology.

10. In computer language, a. 2 bytes b. 2 bits c. 16 units d. 8 pixels

is a “word.”

ANS: A

In computer language, 2 bytes is a “word.”

DIF: Moderate REF: page 271 OBJ: Define bit, byte, and word as used in computer terminology.

11. MAC-OS, Windows, and Unix are three different a. hardware b. printer c. operating d. output

systems.

ANS: C

MAC-OS, Windows, and Unix are three different operating systems.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 271 OBJ: Contrast the two classifications of computer programs: systems software and applications programs.

12. a. b. c. d.

is a computer language used to write some applications programs.

Quicken Word Excel QuickBASIC

ANS: D

QuickBASIC is a computer language used to write some applications programs.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 274

13. A computer first uses its a. systems software b. applications c. bootstrap

OBJ: List and explain various computer languages.

program when it is turned on.

d. C++ ANS: A

A computer first uses its bootstrap program when it is turned on.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 272 OBJ: Contrast the two classifications of computer programs: systems software and applications programs.

14. The oldest computer language for writing scientific and mathematical programs is a. FORTRAN b. C++ c. COBOL d. Pascal ANS: A

The oldest computer language for writing scientific and mathematical programs is FORTRAN. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 273

OBJ: List and explain various computer languages.

15. The programming language was developed for coding business data. a. Pascal b. COBOL c. QuickBASIC d. Visual C++ ANS: B

IaNsGdT The COBOL programming lanN guUaR geSw evBe. loC peOdMfor coding business data.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 274

OBJ: List and explain various computer languages.

16. The official computer language used by the U.S. Department of Defense is a. BASIC b. LOGO c. ALGOL d. ADA

.

ANS: D

The official computer language used by the U.S. Department of Defense is ADA. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 274

OBJ: List and explain various computer languages.

17. All of the below are examples of a type of computer storage except: a. microprocessor b. solid state drive c. hard disk drive d. flash drive ANS: A

Microprocessors process information; they do not store data.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 277

OBJ: Understand forms of computer data storage.

.

18. Automatic bank tellers are a. time-sharing b. online c. batch processing d. pipeline processor

computer systems.

ANS: B

Automatic bank tellers are online computer systems.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 279

OBJ: Discuss four computer processing methods.

19. What is the form of radiology that allows for the transfer of images to remote sites for

interpretation. a. neuroradiology b. interventional radiology c. long distance radiology d. teleradiology ANS: D

Teleradiology is the practice of transferring patient images and records to remote sites.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 279

OBJ: Discuss four computer processing methods.

20. The following computer component temporarily stores data for processing. a. hard disk drive b. microprocessor c. solid state drive d. main memory ANS: A

Main memory is the working storage of the computer.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 276

OBJ: Understand computer memory.

Chapter 15: Computed Radiography Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Digital radiography was first introduced by a. GE in 1998 b. Fuji in 1981 c. Kodak in 1975 d. DuPont in 1965

.

ANS: C

Digital radiography was first introduced by Fuji in 1981.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 283

OBJ: Describe the origination of digital radiography.

2. Computed radiography cassettes and film/screen cassettes can be used interchangeably with

any x-ray imaging system. a. True b. False ANS: A

Computed radiography cassettes and film/screen cassettes can be used interchangeably with any x-ray imaging system.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 284 OBJ: Describe the similarities beNtw ioM graphy imaging and film/screen imaging.

UeRenScIoNmGpuTteBd.raCdO 3. Computed radiography screens respond to radiation with a. fluorescence b. electron emission c. photostimulable luminescence d. biological phosphorescence

.

ANS: C

Computed radiography screens respond to radiation with photostimulable luminescence.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 284 OBJ: Describe how computed radiography screens respond to radiation.

4. A photostimulable phosphor in a metastable state will emit light

I. immediately II. when stimulated by light III. over time a. I b. II c. II & III d. I, II & III ANS: D

.

A photostimulable phosphor in a metastable state emits light immediately, when stimulated by light, and over time.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 284 OBJ: Describe the properties of a photostimulable phosphor in a metastable state.

5. Europium is the a. image buffer b. scintillator c. phosphor d. activator

of the photostimulable phosphor.

ANS: D

Europium is the activator of the photostimulable phosphor.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 284 OBJ: Describe the composition of the photostimulable phosphor.

6. The computed radiography cassette is called a(n) a. optical b. imaging c. laser d. thermoluminescent

plate.

ANS: B

The computed radiography cassette is called an imaging plate.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 285 OBJ: Identify the name of the computed radiography screen.

7. The photostimulable phosphor screen is handled in a a. reader b. darkroom c. film processor d. film changer

.

ANS: A

The photostimulable phosphor screen is handled in a reader.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 288 OBJ: Describe how a photostimulable phosphor screen is handled.

8. The computed radiography reader is made up of _

I. II. III. IV. a. b. c. d.

mechanical chemical optical computer I, II, III II, III, IV I, III, IV I, II, IV

,

, and

modules.

ANS: C

The computed radiography reader is made up of mechanical, optical, and computer modules.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 288 OBJ: Describe how a computed radiography reader is made.

9. The four steps of creating an image with computed radiography are a. metastable state, stimulate, read, and erase b. erase, stimulate, metastable state, and read c. read, erase, stimulate, and metastable state d. metastable state, read, erase, and stimulate

.

ANS: A

The four steps of creating an image with computed radiography are metastable state, stimulate, read, and erase.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 287 OBJ: List the steps involved in imaging with computed radiography.

10. Following the laser stimulation of the photostimulable phosphor, the excited electrons are a. b. c. d.

. completely stabilized mostly stabilized still excited completely removed

ANS: C

Following the laser stimulationNoUf R thS eI phNoGtoTsB tim abMle phosphor, the electrons are mostly .uClO stabilized.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 284 OBJ: Understand how photostimulable phosphor plates are read.

11. The digital imaging plate can sit for some time after the erase cycle. a. True b. False ANS: B

The digital imaging plate should be used soon after the erase cycle to prevent fog from background radiation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 287 OBJ: Understand level of sensitivity of photostimulable phosphor plates.

12. The laser is one of the a. computer b. chemical c. mechanical d. optical

features of the computed radiography reader.

ANS: D

The laser is one of the optical features of the computed radiography reader.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 287 OBJ: Describe the features of the computed radiography reader.

13. Optical filters are used to filter out the

light and allow the

light to reach the

photodetector. a. stimulating, emitted b. emitted, stimulated c. emitted, monochromatic d. stimulating, monochromatic ANS: A

Optical filters are used to filter out the stimulating light and allow the emitted light to reach the photodetector.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 288 OBJ: Describe the purpose of the optical filters in the computed radiography reader.

14. The output signal from the photostimulable phosphor plate is converted from analog to digital

by the . a. optical system b. computer controls c. photodetector d. drive mechanism ANS: C

The output signal from the photostimulable phosphor plate is converted from analog to digital by the computer controls.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 290 OBJ: Describe the features of the computed radiography reader.

15. Computed radiography and screen-film imaging both have a(n) a. image receptor response function b. characteristic curve c. digital image d. latent image

.

ANS: D

One of the similarities between computed radiography and screen-film imaging is that both have a latent image.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 287 OBJ: Understand the similarities and differences between film-screen imaging and computed radiography.

16. Spatial resolution, contrast resolution, noise, and artifacts are identical in screen-film imaging

and computed radiography. a. True b. False ANS: B

Imaging characteristics (spatial resolution, contrast resolution, noise, and artifacts) in digital radiography are different from imaging characteristics in screen-film imaging.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 290 OBJ: Understand the similarities and differences between film-screen imaging and computed radiography.

17. The principal source of noise in computed radiography is a. scatter radiation b. background radiation c. computer noise d. phosphor scatter

.

ANS: A

The principal source of noise in computed radiography is scatter radiation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 291 OBJ: Understand the principal source of noise in computed radiography.

18. The 400 speed film-screen systems are still faster than computed radiography image receptors. a. True b. False ANS: B

Computed radiography image receptors are faster than 400 speed film-screen systems.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 292 OBJ: Understand how computed radiography systems are faster than the average film-screen NURSINGTB.COM systems.

19. With computed radiography the contrast is a. controlled by kVp b. controlled by mAs c. constant regardless of radiation exposure d. impossible to change

.

ANS: C

With computed radiography the contrast is constant regardless of radiation exposure.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 291 OBJ: Understand how contrast is constant in computed radiography.

20. The computed radiography image has a. narrow exposure latitude b. wide exposure latitude c. improved contrast resolution d. both B and C

.

ANS: D

The computed radiography image has wide exposure latitude and improved contrast resolution.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 291

OBJ: Describe the exposure latitude of digital images.

21. When switching from screen-film imaging to computed radiography, which step is

eliminated? a. creating the latent image b. reloading the cassette c. selecting an exposure technique d. processing the latent image ANS: B

When switching from screen-film imaging to computed radiography the step of reloading the cassette is eliminated.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 292 OBJ: Understand that photostimulable phosphor plates are reusable.

22. The laser beam must be less than 100 nm in diameter in order to maintain _ a. consistent beam shape b. smooth image edges c. high spatial resolution d. high speed

.

ANS: C

Following the laser stimulation of the photostimulable phosphor the electrons are mostly stabilized.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 288 OBJ: Understand how photostimulable phosphor plates are read.

23. a. b. c. d.

is prevented by flooding the erased imaging plate with bright light.

Image fog Noise Overexposure Ghosting

ANS: D

Ghosting is prevented by flooding the erased imaging plate with bright light.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 287

OBJ: Understand how to prevent ghosting.

24. Computed radiography imaging produces a. 30 b. 100 c. 10,000 d. 1,000,000

gray levels.

ANS: C

Computed radiography imaging produces 10,000 gray levels.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 291 OBJ: Recognize the wide latitude of computed radiography.

25. Switching from screen-film imaging to computed radiography can

patient dose.

a. b. c. d.

increase reduce not effect remove

ANS: B

Switching from screen-film imaging to computed radiography can reduce patient dose.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 292 OBJ: Understand how computed radiography can reduce patient dose.

Chapter 16: Digital Radiography Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Digital imaging techniques are always applied to a. computed tomography (CT) b. ultrasound c. magnetic resonance imaging d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Digital imaging techniques are always applied to computed tomography, ultrasound, and magnetic resonance imaging.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 296 OBJ: Discuss the use of digital modalities in today’s imaging department.

2. In digital radiography, the latent image is formed on the a. radiographic film b. image matrix c. radiation detector d. computer screen

.

ANS: C

The latent image is formed on the radiation detector for digital radiography.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 298 OBJ: Discuss the use of digital modalities in today’s imaging department.

3. In digital fluoroscopy, each matrix pixel represents a. interface reflectivity b. atomic number and mass density c. proton density and spin relaxation d. radionuclide uptake

.

ANS: B

Each matrix pixel represents atomic number and mass density in digital fluoroscopy.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 300 OBJ: Discuss the use of digital modalities in today’s imaging department.

4. In digital radiography, the brightness of the image is determined by a. pixel values b. Hounsfield units c. automatic brightness control d. film contrast

.

ANS: A

In digital radiography, the brightness of the image is determined by pixel values.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 300 OBJ: Discuss the use of digital modalities in today’s imaging department.

5. Digital imaging could only be developed after advances were made in a. microprocessors b. semiconductor memory c. photostimulable phosphors d. both A and B

_.

ANS: D

Digital imaging could only develop with advances in microprocessors and semiconductor memory.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 296 OBJ: Relate the research and development of digital imaging.

6. Computed radiography developed in the 1970s with the use of a. phosphor b. selenium c. silicon d. film

as the image receptor.

ANS: A

Computed radiography developed in the 1970s with the use of phosphor as the image receptor.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 297 OBJ: Relate the research and devNeU loR pm t oGf T diB gi. taC l iO mM aging.

SeInN 7. Scanned projection radiography was developed as a complement to a. plain film radiography b. computerized tomography c. magnetic resonance imaging d. nuclear medicine

.

ANS: B

Scanned projection radiography was developed as a complement to computerized tomography.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 296 OBJ: Relate the research and development of digital imaging.

8. What is the most recent development in digital radiography image receptors? a. fanned x-ray beams b. linear array radiation detectors c. photostimulable phosphors d. direct capture solid-state devices ANS: D

Direct capture solid-state devices are the most recent developments in digital radiography image receptors.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 300 OBJ: Relate the research and development of digital imaging.

9. Digital radiography first began to be used in clinical settings in the a. 1960s b. 1970s c. 1980s d. 1990s

.

ANS: C

Digital radiography first began to be used in clinical settings in the 1980s.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 297 OBJ: Relate the research and development of digital imaging.

10. In digital radiography, spatial resolution is improved with increased a. field of view b. Hounsfield units c. pixel size d. matrix size

.

ANS: D

Spatial resolution is improved with increased matrix size in digital radiography.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 300 OBJ: Explain the characteristics of digital images, specifically image matrix and dynamic range.

11. The dynamic range determines the degree of a. contrast resolution b. spatial resolution c. motion blur d. all of the above

__ in the image.

ANS: D

The dynamic range determines the degree of contrast resolution in the image.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 298 OBJ: Explain the characteristics of digital images, specifically image matrix and dynamic range.

12. Spatial resolution is determined by the ratio of a. matrix size, field of view b. field of view, matrix size c. bit depth, field of view d. field of view, dynamic range

to

.

ANS: B

Spatial resolution is determined by the ratio of field of view to matrix size.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 300 OBJ: Explain the characteristics of digital images, specifically image matrix and dynamic range.

13. Scanned projection radiography differs from conventional radiography in the lack of a. patient motion

.

b. spatial resolution c. contrast resolution d. scattered x-rays ANS: D

Scanned projection radiography differs from conventional radiography in the lack of scattered x-rays.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 297 OBJ: Discuss the components and use of a digital radiography system.

14. In scanned beam radiography, the spatial resolution is determined by the a. number of detectors b. width of the beam c. semiconductor material d. translation speed

.

ANS: A

Spatial resolution is determined by the number of detectors in scanned beam radiography.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 297 OBJ: Discuss the components and use of a digital radiography system.

15. The primary limitation of fanned beam radiography is a. reduced spatial resolution b. long scanning time c. low contrast resolution d. shortened dynamic range

.

ANS: B

The primary limitation of fanned beam radiography is long scanning time.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 300 OBJ: Discuss the components and use of a digital radiography system.

16. Computed radiography uses (a) a. thin film transistors b. photosensitive silicon chips c. photostimulable phosphor d. semiconductor material

for latent image formation.

ANS: C

Computed radiography uses (a) photostimulable phosphor for latent image formation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 296 OBJ: Discuss the components and use of a digital radiography system.

17. Conventional x-ray tubes and cassettes are used with a. computed b. scanned projection c. direct capture d. all of the above

radiography systems.

ANS: A

Conventional x-ray tubes and cassettes are used with computed radiography systems.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 296 OBJ: Discuss the components and use of a digital radiography system.

Chapter 17: Digital Radiographic Technique Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The two principal characteristics of a medical image are a. spatial resolution and noise b. spatial resolution and contrast resolution c. contrast resolution and modular transfer function d. contrast resolution and dynamic range

.

ANS: B

Spatial resolution and contrast resolution are the two principal characteristics of a medical image.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 306 OBJ: Describe the principal characteristics of the medical image.

2. Spatial frequency is used to describe the quality of spatial resolution in terms of a. pixel size b. modular transfer function c. line pairs d. contrast resolution

.

ANS: C

In medical imaging, the quality of spatial resolution is measured by the quantity of spatial frequency.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 306 OBJ: Identify the use of spatial frequency to describe spatial resolution.

3. In digital imaging, spatial resolution is ultimately limited by a. focal spot size b. spatial frequency c. contrast resolution d. pixel size

.

ANS: D

A digital imaging system cannot resolve anything smaller than one pixel.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 308 OBJ: Understand and describe the concept of spatial resolution.

4. What is the spatial frequency of a digital system that can resolve 100 um? a. 5 lp/mm b. 10 lp/mm c. 50 lp/mm d. 100 lp/mm ANS: B

If a line is 100 um, a line pair is 200 um; therefore, 1 lp/200 um = 1 lp/0.2 mm, which equals 20 lp/mm.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 307

OBJ: Understand the calculation of spatial frequency.

5. If a digital system has a spatial resolution of 4 lp/mm, it can resolve an object as small as a. b. c. d.

mm.

8 4 0.25 0.125

ANS: B

A spatial resolution of 4 lp/mm resolves 8 objects per mm, each object being 1/8 mm, or 0.125 mm.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 307

OBJ: Understand the calculation of spatial frequency.

6. As spatial frequency increases the object size a. increases, increases b. decreases, decreases c. decreases, increases d. increases, decreases

and the spatial resolution

.

ANS: C

As spatial frequency increases the object size decreases and the spatial resolution increases.

DIF: Difficult REF: pageN3U 07RSINGTB.COM OBJ: Understand how spatial frequency relates to object size and spatial resolution.

7. If a digital radiography imaging system has a spatial resolution of 10 lp/mm, what is the pixel

size of that system? a. 0.05 mm b. 0.5 mm c. 0.1 mm d. 0.01 mm ANS: A

A system with a spatial resolution of 10 lp/mm resolves 20 pixels/mm; therefore, each pixel is 1/20 mm in size or 0.05 mm.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 308 OBJ: Understand the relationship of spatial resolution to pixel size.

8. If there were such thing as a perfect imaging system, the MTF would be equal to a. 5 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 ANS: B

.

In a perfect system, the image size would equal the object size, and the MTF would therefore be equal to one.

DIF: Moderate 9. A a. b. c. d.

REF: page 308

OBJ: Understand the concept of MTF.

test tool is used to acquire data for an MTF curve. bar pattern post processing signal-to-noise ratio contrast-detail curve

ANS: A

A bar pattern test tool is used to acquire data for an MTF curve.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 308

OBJ: Describe how an MTF curve is produced.

10. The use of two screens in imaging results in a higher a. spatial frequency b. pixel size c. MTF d. spatial resolution

.

ANS: C

The use of two screens increases the MTF because spatial resolution and spatial frequency are decreased. Pixel size is not affected by screens.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 309

OBJ: Understand the factors that affect MTF.

11. The human visual system can distinguish a. 10 b. 30 c. 300 d. 1000

shades of gray.

ANS: B

The human visual system can distinguish no more than 30 shades of gray.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 310 OBJ: Understand how the visual system perceives dynamic range.

12. The number of gray shades that an imaging system can reproduce is called its a. spatial frequency b. contrast c. spatial resolution d. dynamic range

.

ANS: D

The number of gray shades that an imaging system can reproduce is called its dynamic range.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 310

OBJ: Define dynamic range.

13. Screen-film radiography has a dynamic range of

.

a. 10 b. 100 c. 1,000 d. 10,000 ANS: C

Screen-film radiography has a dynamic range of 1,000.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 310

OBJ: Understand the concept of dynamic range.

14. The bit capacity of each pixel identifies the a. dynamic range b. grey scale c. spatial frequency d. MTF

of a digital imaging system.

ANS: A

The bit capacity of each pixel identifies the dynamic range of a digital imaging system.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 310

OBJ: Understand dynamic range in digital imaging.

15. The digital imaging system uses the highest dynamic range. a. computed tomography b. mammography c. magnetic resonance d. angiography ANS: B

The mammography digital imaging system uses the highest dynamic range.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 310 OBJ: Describe the comparative dynamic range of all digital imaging systems.

16. The portion of useful image-forming x-rays is referred to as the a. frequency b. MTF c. signal d. noise

.

ANS: C

The portion of useful image-forming x-rays is referred to as the signal.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 312

OBJ: Describe signal-to-noise ratio.

17. Recent studies have shown that denser breast tissue is best imaged with a. xerography b. computed tomography c. screen-film mammography d. digital mammography

.

ANS: D

Recent studies have shown that denser breast tissue is best imaged with digital mammography.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 312 OBJ: Understand the advantages of using digital imaging for mammography.

18. As mAs is increased the signal to noise ratio is a. decreased b. increased c. not affected d. doubled

.

ANS: B

As mAs is increased the signal to noise ratio is increased.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 312

19. Image detail is also called a. spatial resolution b. spatial frequency c. signal to noise ratio d. dynamic range

OBJ: Understand the factors that affect SNR.

.

ANS: A

Image detail is also called spatial resolution.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 312

20. Of all radiographic imaging systems, a. digital radiography b. mammography c. magnetic resonance imaging d. computed tomography

OBJ: Define spatial resolution.

has the best contrast resolution.

ANS: B

Of all radiographic imaging systems, computed tomography has the best contrast resolution.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 315 OBJ: Describe the contrast resolution of different imaging systems.

21. With digital imaging, patient dose can be reduced by using higher a. mAs b. kVp c. optical density d. contrast

techniques.

ANS: B

With digital imaging, patient dose can be reduced by using higher kVp techniques.

DIF: Easy REF: page 315 OBJ: Understand how digital techniques can reduce patient dose.

22. DQE is . a. density quantum effect b. direct quantum efficiency

c. detective quantum efficiency d. detective quantum energy ANS: C

DQE is detector quantum efficiency.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 316

OBJ: Define DQE.

23. If an image receptor has a high probability of interacting with the x-ray beam, then it has a

high . a. DQE b. SNR c. MTF d. lp/mm ANS: A

If an image receptor has a high probability of interacting with the x-ray beam, then it has a high DQE. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 316

OBJ: Define DQE.

24. The use of an image receptor with

DQE can result in

patient doses.

I. low, lower II. high, lower III. high, higher IV. low, higher a. I b. II c. I & III d. II & IV ANS: D

The use of an image receptor with high DQE can result in lower patient doses.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 317 OBJ: Understand the relationship between DQE and patient dose.

25. Digital radiography images should be repeated if there is a problem with a. contrast b. overexposure c. brightness d. none of the above

_.

ANS: D

With digital radiography, problems with overexposure or inadequate brightness or contrast can be corrected during post-processing.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 311 OBJ: Understand how post-processing reduces the need for repeats.

Chapter 18: Viewing the Digital Radiographic Image Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The science of a. physiology b. optometry c. photometry d. ophthalmology

is the study of the response of the human eye to light.

ANS: C

The science of photometry is the study of the response of the human eye to light.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 322

OBJ: Define photometry.

2. What is the basic photometric unit? a. lumen b. candela c. lux d. nit ANS: A

The basic photometric unit is the lumen.

DIF: Easy REF: page 322 OBJ: Understand the units used N inUthReSstI udNyGoT f pBh. otC om OeMtry.

3. The decreasing luminous intensity with increasing distance from the source of light follows a. b. c. d.

. the law of gravity Murphy’s law cosine law the inverse square law

ANS: D

The decreasing luminous intensity with increasing distance from the source of light follows the inverse square law.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 323 OBJ: Understand how the inverse square law applies to photometrics.

4. A digital display monitor is best viewed a. straight on b. from above c. from below d. at a 30 angle

.

ANS: A

A digital display monitor is best viewed straight on.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 323

OBJ: Describe the optimal viewing of a digital device.

5. A liquid crystal is a material in a state. a. solid b. state between a liquid and a solid c. liquid d. state between a liquid and a gaseous ANS: B

A liquid crystal is a material in a state between a liquid and a solid state.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 324

OBJ: Describe liquid crystal.

6. Almost all digital images in medical imaging are viewed and interpreted on a a. view box b. CRT device c. digital display device d. television monitor

.

ANS: C

Almost all digital images in medical imaging are viewed and interpreted on a digital display device.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 324 OBJ: Describe how digital images are viewed and interpreted.

7. A digital display device with higher megapixels has better spatial resolution. a. True b. False ANS: A

A digital display device with higher megapixels has better spatial resolution.

DIF: Easy REF: page 328 OBJ: Understand which digital display device has the best spatial resolution.

8. Almost all medical flat panel digital display devices are a. color liquid crystal displays b. monochrome liquid crystal displays c. color CRTs d. monochrome CRTs

.

ANS: B

Medical flat panel display devices are monochrome liquid crystal displays.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 324

OBJ: Describe a medical flat panel display device.

9. Medical flat panel display devices are identified by the a. aperture ratio b. depth of the monitor c. size of the pixels d. number of pixels

.

ANS: D

Medical flat panel display devices are identified by the number of pixels.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 324 OBJ: Learn to identify medical flat panel display devices.

10. Compared to CRTs, AMLCDs have a. better contrast b. better gray scale definition c. less intrinsic noise d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Compared to CRTs, AMLCDs have better contrast, better gray scale definition, and less intrinsic noise.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 324

OBJ: Compare the CRT to the AMLCD.

11. An advantage to viewing the AMLCD screen is that the image quality is equally good viewed

from any angle. a. True b. False ANS: B

The AMLCD loses contrast and luminous intensity when viewed from any angle.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 326 OBJ: Understand the best positioNnUfoRrSview INiGngTtBhe.ACM OLMCD screen.

12. The ambient light at a digital image workstation should be a. daylight bright b. slightly dimmed c. near darkness d. complete darkness

.

ANS: C

The ambient light at a digital image workstation should be near darkness.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 326 OBJ: Understand the optimum light level when viewing images at a digital display workstation.

13. Preprocessing the digital image is done a. automatically, manually b. manually, manually c. manually, automatically d. automatically, automatically

, and post-processing is done

.

ANS: C

Preprocessing the digital image is done automatically, and post-processing is done manually.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 326-327 OBJ: Describe the difference between preprocessing and post-processing of the digital image.

14. Flatfielding is accomplished through automatic calibration images called _ a. magnification, edge enhancement b. offset images, gain images c. image flip, image lag d. image inversion, pixel shift

and

.

ANS: B

Flatfielding is accomplished through automatic calibration images called offset images and gain images.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 326

OBJ: Describe flatfielding.

15. Reregistering an image to correct for patient motion is done with a. edge enhancement b. offset images c. pixel shift d. image inversion

.

ANS: C

Reregistering an image to correct for patient motion is done with pixel shift.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 328 OBJ: Describe how to correct for patient motion during post-processing.

16. A computation of the mean pixel value within a region-of-interest is performed for a. quantitative radiology b. edge enhancement c. image inversion d. window and level adjustment

.

ANS: A

A computation of the mean pixel value within a region-of-interest is needed for quantitative radiology.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 328

OBJ: Describe quantitative radiology.

17. Post-processing includes all of the following except a. image inversion b. signal interpolation c. annotation d. pixel shift

.

ANS: B

Signal interpolation is performed during preprocessing.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 327 OBJ: Understand the difference between pre- and post-processing manipulations.

18.

is corrected by the application of an offset voltage. a. Spatial resolution b. Line noise c. Image lag

d. Misregistration ANS: C

Image lag is corrected by the application of an offset voltage.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 327 OBJ: Describe how to correct for image lag during preprocessing.

19. PACS stands for . a. Processing, Applications, and Computer Storage b. Processing, Archiving, and Computer Storage c. Physician Applications and Communication Systems d. Picture Archiving and Communication Systems ANS: D

PACS stands for Picture Archiving and Communication Systems.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 329

OBJ: Understand what PACS means.

20. Which is not a part of PACS? a. film storage b. a display system c. a network d. image acquisition ANS: A

PACS replaces film storage.

DIF:

Easy

GBTJB REF: pageN3U 29RSINO : .LC isO t tM he components of PACS.

21. Within a PACS network the secretarial workstation and the viewing workstation would both

be called . a. mainframes b. remote devices c. clients d. DICOMs ANS: C

All of the devices in a PACS network are called clients.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 329

OBJ: Understand what clients are in PACS.

22. The national standard for image transmission in teleradiology is the a. RIS b. DICOM c. MB d. PACS

format.

ANS: B

The national standard for image transmission in teleradiology is the DICOM format.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 329

OBJ: Understand what a DICOM file is.

23. Text data and email are generated at a a. Radiology Information System (RIS) b. DICOM c. image acquisition d. archive retrieval

workstation in PACS.

ANS: A

Text data and email are generated at a Radiology Information System (RIS) workstation in PACS. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 330

24. Image file size is determined by a. RIS b. DICOM c. matrix d. pixel

OBJ: Describe a Radiology Information System (RIS).

size and gray scale.

ANS: C

Image file size is determined by matrix size and gray scale.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 331 OBJ: Understand how matrix size and gray scale determine the digital image file size.

25. What is the file size of an image with a 1026  1026 matrix and a 2.5 byte gray scale depth? a. 2,565 bits b. 1,053 bits c. 26 MB d. 2.6 MB ANS: D

File size is the matrix multiplied by the byte depth.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 331 OBJ: Calculate an image file size based on matrix and gray scale.

Chapter 19: Screen Film Radiographic Artifacts Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A screen film radiographic artifact can be _. a. an object that is not part of the radiographed anatomy b. patient motion c. an improper grid or warped cassette d. any of the above ANS: D

A screen film radiographic artifact is any irregularity on an image that is not caused by the proper imaging of tissue by the primary x-ray beam.

DIF: Moderate 2. A a. b. c. d.

REF: page 335

OBJ: List and discuss the three categories of artifacts.

is an example of an exposure artifact. foreign object Pi line pressure mark dichroic stain

ANS: A

A foreign object is an example of an exposure artifact.

DIF:

Moderate

REF: pageN3U 35RSINO GBTJB : .LC isO t aMnd discuss the three categories of artifacts.

3. A static mark artifact is created during a. exposure b. development c. handling d. all of the above

of the film.

ANS: C

A static mark artifact is created during handling of the film.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 339

OBJ: List and discuss the three categories of artifacts.

4. What sort of screen film radiographic artifact is a guide-shoe mark? a. exposure artifact b. processing artifact c. handling artifact d. storage artifact ANS: B

A guide-shoe mark is a processing artifact.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 337

OBJ: List and discuss the three categories of artifacts.

5. Generally, most repeat exams are caused by

_ artifacts.

a. b. c. d.

processing handling exposure storage

ANS: C

The largest number of repeat exams is generally caused by exposure artifacts.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 335

OBJ: List and discuss the three categories of artifacts.

6. A cassette that is improperly positioned can cause a a. blur b. grid cut-off c. fog d. double exposure

artifact.

ANS: B

A cassette that is improperly positioned can cause a grid cut-off artifact.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 336

OBJ: Explain the causes of exposure artifacts.

7. Misalignment of the processor turnaround assembly can cause a. tree static b. grid cut-off c. Pi lines d. guide-shoe marks

.

ANS: D

Misalignment of the processor turnaround assembly can cause guide-shoe marks.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 337 OBJ: Describe the types of artifacts caused during film processing.

8. A greasy appearance of a film is usually caused by a. inadequate washing b. excess hardener chemicals c. improper developer heat d. inadequate processing chemistry

.

ANS: A

A greasy appearance of a film is usually caused by inadequate washing.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 337 OBJ: Describe the types of artifacts caused during film processing.

9. Lines that occur C.14 inches apart on the finished radiograph are caused by a. misalignment of guide-shoes b. chemical build-up on rollers c. poor film-screen contact d. grid cut-off during exposure ANS: B

.

Lines that occur C.14 inches apart on the finished radiograph are caused by chemical build-up on rollers.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 338 OBJ: Describe the types of artifacts caused during film processing.

10. Thin lines on the leading or trailing edge of a film are a. Pi lines b. dichroic stains c. guide-shoe marks d. emulsion build-up

.

ANS: C

Thin lines on the leading or trailing edge of a film are guide-shoe marks.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 338 OBJ: Describe the types of artifacts caused during film processing.

11. A bi-color chemical stain on a radiograph is called a. a curtain effect b. a dichroic stain c. hypo retention d. both A and B

.

ANS: D

A bi-color chemical stain on a radiograph is called a curtain effect or a dichroic stain.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 338 OBJ: Describe the types of artifacts caused during film processing.

12. Low humidity in the darkroom can cause a. tree static b. brown stains c. pressure marks d. film fog

.

ANS: A

Low humidity in the darkroom can cause tree static.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 339 OBJ: Discuss how improper handling and storage of film can cause artifacts.

13. A streak of high optical density on the finished radiograph can be caused by a. film boxes stacked too high in storage b. light leaks in the cassette or darkroom c. inadequate washing in the processor d. high humidity in the darkroom

.

ANS: B

A streak of high optical density on the finished radiograph can be caused by light leaks in the cassette or darkroom.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 339

OBJ: Discuss how improper handling and storage of film can cause artifacts.

14. What can cause image blur on the finished radiograph? a. patient motion b. chemical imbalance c. high humidity d. any of the above ANS: A

Only patient motion can cause image blur.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 336

15. Kink marks are caused by a. fingernails b. light leaks c. misaligned rollers d. bending film

OBJ: Explain the causes of exposure artifacts.

.

ANS: D

Kink marks are caused by bending film.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 339 OBJ: Discuss how improper handling and storage of film can cause artifacts.

Chapter 20: Screen-Film Radiographic Quality Control Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A quality assurance program monitors a. films b. imaging equipment c. people d. processors

.

ANS: C

A quality assurance program monitors people.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 342

2. A quality control program is for a. film processors b. CT scanners c. x-ray tubes d. all of the above

OBJ: Define quality assurance and quality control.

.

ANS: D

A quality control program is for all instrumentation and equipment.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 342

OBJ: Define quality assurance and quality control.

3. The determination of how consistently radiologists’ image interpretations match patients’

ultimate diagnoses is called a. exposure linearity b. outcome analysis c. reproducibility d. uniformity

.

ANS: B

The determination of how consistently radiologists’ image interpretations match patients’ ultimate diagnoses is called outcome analysis.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 342

4. A QC program should include a. acceptance testing b. outcome analysis c. calibration d. personnel monitoring

OBJ: Define quality assurance and quality control.

, routine performance monitoring, and maintenance.

ANS: A

A QC program should include acceptance testing, routine performance monitoring, and maintenance.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 343

OBJ: Name the three steps of quality control.

5. The first step of the QA recommended by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of

Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) is to a. collect and organize data b. take action to improve care c. assign responsibility d. assess and document actions

.

ANS: C

A quality assurance program monitors people.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 342 OBJ: List the ten-step quality assurance model used in hospitals.

6. Medical facilities have quality control programs in place in order to a. have JAHCO approval and accreditation b. ensure quality patient care c. receive payment from insurance carriers d. do all of the above

.

ANS: D

Medical facilities have quality control programs in place in order to have JAHCO approval, ensure quality patient care, and receive payment from insurance carriers.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 342

OBJ: Define quality assurance and quality control.

7. Acceptance testing should never be done by a a. medical physicist b. manufacturer’s representative c. QC technologist d. radiologic engineer

.

ANS: B

Acceptance testing should never be done by a manufacturer’s representative.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 342

OBJ: Name the three steps of quality control.

8. Most quality control testing on radiographic equipment is done a. annually b. semiannually c. monthly d. weekly

.

ANS: A

Most quality control testing on radiographic equipment is done annually.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 342 OBJ: Describe the quality control tests and schedule for radiographic systems.

9. All general purpose radiographic units must have a minimum of a. 1.5 b. 2.0

mm Al filtration.

c. 2.5 d. 3.0 ANS: C

All general purpose radiographic units must have a minimum of 2.5 mm Al filtration.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 343 OBJ: Describe the quality control tests and schedule for radiographic systems.

10. Filtration is measured with a. caliper b. photometer c. slit camera d. half-value layer

measurements.

ANS: D

Filtration is measured with half-value layer measurements.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 343 OBJ: Describe the quality control tests and schedule for radiographic systems.

11. The collimator must be accurately aligned to within ± a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 12

% of the SID.

ANS: A

The collimator must be accuratN elU yRalSigInN edGtT oBw.itC hiO nM±2% of the SID. DIF: Moderate REF: page 344 OBJ: Describe the quality control tests and schedule for radiographic systems.

12. Focal spot size is measured with a. a pinhole camera b. a star pattern c. a slit camera d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Focal spot size is measured with a slit camera, star pattern, or pinhole camera.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 344 OBJ: Describe the quality control tests and schedule for radiographic systems.

13. It is acceptable to perform a(n) a. line pair b. exposure linearity c. half-value layer d. wire mesh pattern

test instead of measuring the focal spot size.

ANS: A

It is acceptable to use a line pair test instead of measuring the focal spot size.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 345 OBJ: Describe the quality control tests and schedule for radiographic systems.

14. The measured kVp should be within ± a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

% of the kVp indicated on the console.

ANS: B

The measured kVp should be within ±10% of the kVp indicated on the console.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 345 OBJ: Describe the quality control tests and schedule for radiographic systems.

15. Comparing the mR output at 50 mA @ 0.2 sec, 100 mA @ 0.1 sec, and 200 mA @ 0.05 sec is

part of a test for a. reciprocity b. reproducibility c. linearity d. uniformity

.

ANS: C

Comparing the mR output at 50 mA @ 0.2 sec, 100 mA @ 0.1 sec, and 200 mA @ 0.05 sec is part of a test for linearity.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 346 OBJ: Describe the quality control tests and schedule for radiographic systems.

16. What is the testing device used to measure cassette screen-film contact? a. dosimeter b. wire-mesh c. sensitometer d. star pattern ANS: B

A wire-mesh pattern test is used to measure screen-film contact in cassettes.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 347 OBJ: Describe the quality control tests and schedule for radiographic systems.

17. When a light in a viewbox is out, . a. that light bulb must be replaced b. all bulbs in the viewbox must be replaced c. all the bulbs must be matched to adjacent viewboxes d. all of the above must be done ANS: D

When a light in a viewbox is out, all bulbs in the viewbox must be replaced and matched to adjacent viewboxes.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 347

OBJ: Describe the quality control tests and schedule for radiographic systems.

18. The minimum HVL for an x-ray machine operated at 70 kVp is? a. 1.0 mm Al b. 5.0 mm Al c. 2.0 mm Al d. 20 mm Al ANS: C

An x-ray machine operated at 70 kVp is required by law to have a minimum HVL of 2.0 mm Al. DIF: Moderate REF: page 345 OBJ: Describe the quality control tests and schedule for radiographic systems.

19. The x-ray field must center accurately to within a. 2 b. 3 c. 0.5 d. 1

% of SID.

ANS: C

It is required that an x-ray field can be centered accurately to within 1% of SID. DIF: Moderate REF: page 344 OBJ: Describe the quality control tests and schedule for radiographic systems.

20. Quality control testing proceduN reUs R shSoI ulNdGbT eB pe.rfCoO rm Med on a. a daily and weekly b. a monthly c. an annual d. all of the above

basis.

ANS: D

Depending on the specific quality control procedure it will be performed on a daily, weekly, monthly, or annual basis.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 342 OBJ: Describe the quality control tests and schedule for radiographic systems.

21. A positive beam limitation (PBL) device is involved in? a. Collimation b. Exposure control c. Dose reduction d. Protocol monitoring ANS: A

A positive beam limitation (PBL) device is involved in collimation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 344 OBJ: Discuss radiographic quality control related to collimation.

22. Probably the most important patient protection characteristic of a radiographic imaging

system is . a. Filtration b. Focal spot size c. Accurate collimation d. High contrast resolution ANS: A

Probably the most important patient protection characteristic of a radiographic imaging system is filtration.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 343 OBJ: Discuss the quality control tests and schedule for radiography.

23. Processor crossover racks should be cleaned on a a. daily b. weekly c. biweekly d. monthly

basis.

ANS: A

Processor crossover racks should be cleaned on a daily basis.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 349

OBJ: Discuss processor quality control.

24. Processors should be monitored every day for . a. sensitometric measurements b. water and chemical temperN atU urR esSINGTB.COM c. replenishment tank levels d. all of the above ANS: D

Processors should be monitored every day for sensitometric measurements, water and chemical temperatures, and replenishment tank levels.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 350

OBJ: Discuss processor quality control.

25. Following a good processor QC program reduces the need for a. daily b. unscheduled c. scheduled d. preventive

maintenance.

ANS: B

Following a good processor QC program reduces the need for unscheduled maintenance.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 350

OBJ: Discuss processor quality control.

Chapter 21: Digital Radiographic Artifacts Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Artifacts are an acceptable part of digital imaging. a. True b. False ANS: B

Artifacts, like accidents, are avoidable.

DIF: Easy REF: page 353 OBJ: Understand the causes of digital artifacts and how to prevent them.

2. The three classifications of digital imaging artifacts are a. processing, exposure, and handling/storage b. processing, image receptor, and exposure c. image receptor, software, and object d. software, object, and exposure

.

ANS: C

The three classifications of digital imaging artifacts are image receptor, software, and object.

DIF: Easy REF: page 353 OBJ: List the three classifications of digital imaging artifacts.

3. Radiation fatigue occurs in a. film-screen radiography b. CR digital image plates c. DR digital image plates d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Radiation fatigue occurs in all screens, but is more likely in digital plates.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 354

OBJ: Understand where radiation fatigue occurs.

4. A ghost image can occur in digital imaging because of a. supernatural phenomena b. image blur c. incomplete erasure d. backscatter

.

ANS: C

A ghost image can occur in digital imaging because of incomplete erasure.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 354

OBJ: Understand the cause of ghost images.

5. During preprocessing the digital output of the image receptor may need to be manipulated to

correct for

.

a. b. c. d.

dead pixels image blur ghost images radiation fatigue

ANS: A

During preprocessing the digital output of the image receptor may need to be manipulated to correct for dead pixels.

DIF: Moderate 6. a. b. c. d.

REF: page 354

OBJ: Understand the concept of dead pixels.

is done during preprocessing to correct for an irregular pattern over the image.

Lossy compression Signal erasure Partitioning Flatfielding

ANS: D

Flatfielding is done during preprocessing to correct for an irregular pattern over the image.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 355

OBJ: Understand the use of flatfielding.

7. Cassettes used in computed radiography are more highly sensitive to background and scatter

radiation than film/screen cassettes are. a. True b. False ANS: A

Cassettes used in computed radiography are more highly sensitive to background and scatter radiation than film/screen cassettes are.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 355 OBJ: Recognize the difference between CR cassettes and film/screen cassettes.

8. The software correction that equalizes the response of each pixel to a uniform exposure of

x-rays is called . a. lossless compression b. flatfielding c. lossy compression d. histogram selection ANS: B

Flatfielding is the software correction that equalizes the response of each pixel to a uniform exposure of x-rays.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 355

OBJ: Describe the use of flatfielding.

9. It is a safe practice to keep CR cassettes in a “radiation safe” area of an x-ray suite during

exams. a. True b. False ANS: B

It is not a safe practice to keep CR cassettes in a “radiation safe” area of an x-ray suite during exams because they are too sensitive to scatter radiation.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 355

OBJ: Understand the sensitivity of CR cassettes.

10. Which is/are done to the image during preprocessing?

I. Lossless compression II. Partitioning III. Flatfielding a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and II ANS: C

Partitioning is done during imaging, flatfielding is done during preprocessing, and lossless compression is done during post-processing.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 355 OBJ: Understand the steps of preprocessing and post-processing.

11. Which modality produces the largest image files? a. digital or computed radiography b. computed tomography c. nuclear medicine d. digital mammography ANS: D

Digital mammography produces the largest file sizes of all digital imaging.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 356 OBJ: Understand the different file sizes produced by different types of digital images.

12. What size is the average CR or DR image file? a. 10 KB b. 100 KB c. 20 MB d. 200 MB ANS: D

The average size of a CR or DR image is 200 MB. DIF: Moderate REF: page 355 OBJ: Understand the different file sizes produced by different types of digital images.

13. Computed radiography cassettes can sit for a. a few hours b. a few days c. up to one year d. an unlimited time ANS: B

between exposures.

Computed radiography cassettes can sit for a few days between exposures.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 355

OBJ: Understand the sensitivity of CR cassettes.

14. The size and number of digital images has to be compressed to permit a. transmitting b. archiving c. viewing d. both A and B

_.

ANS: D

The size and number of digital images has to be compressed to permit transmitting and archiving.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 356 OBJ: Understand the process of compressing digital images.

15. Lossless compression reduces data files a. 10:1 b. 50:1 c. 100:1 d. 1000:1

.

ANS: A

Lossless compression reduces data files 10:1.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 356

OBJ: Describe lossless and lossy compression.

16.1 Lossy compression reduces data files 6 a. 10:1 . b. 50:1 c. 100:1 d. 1000:1

.

ANS: C

Lossy compression reduces data files 100:1 and more.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 356

17. Lossy compression can be used for a. mammography b. video recordings c. chest radiographs d. all of the above

OBJ: Describe lossless and lossy compression.

.

ANS: B

Lossy compression can be used for exams where detail is not important, such as video recordings.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 356

OBJ: Understand the use of lossy compression.

18. Computer aided diagnoses (CAD) requires the use of

.

a. b. c. d.

uncompressed images lossy compression lossless compression either B or C

ANS: A

Computer aided diagnoses (CAD) requires the use of uncompressed images.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 356

OBJ: Understand the requirements of CAD.

19. Object artifacts in digital imaging can occur from errors in

.

I. x-ray beam collimation II. histogram selection III. patient positioning a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. I, II and III ANS: D

Object artifacts can occur from errors in x-ray beam collimation, histogram selection, or patient positioning.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 357 OBJ: Understand the causes of object artifacts in digital imaging.

20. Backscatter radiation artifacts can occur more readily in digital imaging because of the a. large data file sizes b. techniques used c. highly sensitive receptors d. partitioning errors

.

ANS: C

Backscatter radiation artifacts can occur more readily in digital imaging because of the highly sensitive receptors.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 357

OBJ: Understand the causes of backscatter artifacts.

21. A graph of the frequency of occurrence versus digital value intervals is called a(n) a. histogram b. compression c. digitization d. algorithm ANS: A

A graph of the frequency of occurrence versus digital value interval is a histogram.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 357

OBJ: Define a digital radiography histogram.

22. Each anatomical part has an image histogram with a(n) a. identical b. characteristic

shape.

.

c. S-curve d. round ANS: B

Each anatomical part has an image histogram with a characteristic shape.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 357 OBJ: Understand the use of histogram selection in digital imaging.

23. Histogram selection is done . a. automatically during each exposure b. automatically during post-processing c. by the radiographer before each exam d. by the radiographer during post-processing ANS: C

Histogram selection is done by the radiographer before each exam.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 357 OBJ: Understand the use of histogram selection in digital imaging.

24. The largest standard size for a digital imaging plate is a. 11”  14” b. 14”  17” c. 35 cm  35 cm d. 35 cm  43 cm

.

ANS: D

The largest standard size for a digital imaging plate is 35 cm  43 cm.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 358

OBJ: List standard digital imaging plate sizes.

25. Creating distinctly collimated margins on all 4 sides of a DR image is important in preventing a. b. c. d.

errors. flatfielding lossless compression histogram analysis archiving

ANS: C

Creating distinctly collimated margins on all 4 sides of a DR image is important to prevent errors in histogram analysis.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 358 OBJ: Understand the importance of partitioning in digital radiography.

Chapter 22: Digital Radiographic Quality Control Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. SMPTE stands for the . a. Standards of Medical Practice and Television Electronics b. Standards of Medical Practice and Technical Electronics c. Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers d. Society of Medical Physicians and Technical Engineers ANS: C

SMPTE stands for the Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 364

OBJ: Explain meaning of SMPTE.

2. A standard pattern made to measure the resolution of digital display systems is called the a. b. c. d.

.

VESA pattern SMPTE pattern Gray Scale Display Function DICOM standard

ANS: B

A standard pattern made to measure the resolution of digital display systems is called the SMPTE pattern.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 364

3. Medical images are transferred using the a. VESA b. SMPTE c. DIN d. DICOM

OBJ: Understand how the SMPTE pattern is used.

standard.

ANS: D

Medical images are transferred using the DICOM standard.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 364 OBJ: Understand the standard for transferring medical images.

4. The standard for Digital Imaging and Communication was developed by a committee of the a. b. c. d.

.

ACR and DIN DIN and NEMA ACR and NEMA ACR and VESA

ANS: C

The standard for Digital Imaging and Communication was developed by a committee of the ACR and NEMA.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 364 OBJ: Understand how the DICOM standard was developed.

5. The consistent appearance of DICOM images on any compatible digital display device is

achieved through . a. perceptual linearization b. SMPTE pattern c. specular reflection d. digital driving levels ANS: A

The consistent appearance of DICOM images on any compatible digital display device is achieved through perceptual linearization.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 364 OBJ: Describe how DICOM images remain constant when transferred any compatible display device.

6. The quality control standard for flat panel displays was released by a. DIN b. SMPTE c. NEMA d. VESA

in 1998.

ANS: C

The quality control standard for flat panel displays was released by VESA in 1998.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 365 OBJ: Recognize the source of quality control standards for flat panel displays.

7. The Task Group Report 18 is a procedure manual for a. evaluating the Gray Scale Display Function b. testing digital display devices c. evaluating the SMPTE pattern d. testing doing CT exams

.

ANS: B

The Task Group Report 18 is a procedure manual for testing digital display devices.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 365 OBJ: Understand the use of the TG18 for digital display device testing.

8. There are a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

types of photometers commonly used.

ANS: A

There are 2 types of photometers commonly used.

DIF: Easy REF: page 365 OBJ: Understand the use of photometers for testing luminescence response.

9. A photometer is a . a. TG-18 test device b. dosimeter c. luminescence meter d. illuminance meter ANS: C

A photometer is a luminescence meter.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 365

10. A telescope photometer is used at a. close proximity b. 1 meter c. a 35 angle d. a 50 angle

OBJ: Describe a photometer.

.

ANS: B

A telescope photometer is used at 1 meter.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 365

OBJ: Describe the types of photometers.

11. Digital display reflections and ambient light conditions are assessed with a(n) a. illuminance meter b. near-range photometer c. luminescence meter d. TG-18 test device

.

ANS: A

Digital display reflections and ambient light conditions are assessed with an illuminance meter.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 366

OBJ: Describe the use of an illuminance meter.

12. Luminance response can be tested with a(n)

.

I. near-range photometer II. telescope photometer III. illuminance meter a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I or II ANS: D

Luminance response can be tested with a either a near-range photometer or a telescope photometer.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 366

OBJ: Understand how luminance response is tested.

13. Most of the quality control testing of digital display devices is performed with the use of

test patterns.

a. b. c. d.

SMPTE AAPM TG18 DIN VESA

ANS: B

Most of the quality control testing of digital display devices is performed with the use of AAPM TG18 patterns.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 366 OBJ: Understand how quality control tests are performed on digital display devices.

14. The TG18-LPV/LPH test is used to evaluate a. display noise b. luminance response c. reflection d. geometric distortion

_.

ANS: D

The TG18-LPV/LPH test is used to evaluate geometric distortion.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 366

OBJ: Describe the test for geometric distortion.

15. When evaluating the test pattern for geometric distortion, all lines should appear a. blue b. dashed c. straight d. curved

.

ANS: C

When evaluating the test pattern for geometric distortion, all lines should appear straight.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 366

OBJ: Describe the test for geometric distortion.

16. Specular reflection is reduced with the use of a. improved anti-reflective coating b. brighter ambient lighting c. color monitors d. larger monitors

.

ANS: A

Specular reflection is reduced with the use of improved anti-reflective coating.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 366

OBJ: Describe specular reflection.

17. Specular reflection can be tested with the

I. TG 18-AD pattern II. ambient light turned on III. ambient light turned off a. I only b. I & II only c. I & III only

.

d. I, II & III ANS: D

Specular reflection can be tested with the TG18-AD pattern, and with ambient light turned on or off.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 366 OBJ: Understand the methods for evaluating specular reflection.

18. Specular reflection can be assessed by only turning off the monitor in ambient light. a. True b. False ANS: A

Specular reflection can be assessed by only turning off the monitor in ambient light.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 366 OBJ: Understand the methods for evaluating specular reflection.

19. The qualitative evaluation of luminance response is measured with the a. TG18-AD b. TG18-CT c. TG18-LPV/LPH d. TG18-LN

test tool.

ANS: B

The qualitative evaluation of luminance response is measured with the TG18-CT test tool.

DIF:

Moderate

GBTJB REF: pageN3U 67RSINO : .DCeO scM ribe how luminance response is evaluated.

20. Spatial resolution of the digital display monitor is done with the a. TG18-CX b. TG18-AFC c. TG18-AD d. TG18-LN

test pattern.

ANS: A

Spatial resolution of the digital display monitor is done with the TG18-CX test pattern.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 369

21. Display noise is measured using the a. TG18-QC b. TG18-AD c. TG18-AFC d. TG18-LN

OBJ: Describe how display resolution is evaluated.

test pattern.

ANS: C

Display noise is measured using the TG18-AFC test pattern.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 369

OBJ: Describe how display noise is evaluated.

22. Daily evaluation of the monitors should be done with the

test tool.

a. b. c. d.

TG18-LPV/LPH TG18-QC TG18-LN TG18-AD

ANS: B

Daily evaluation of the monitors should be done with the TG18-QC test tool.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 370

OBJ: Discuss the method for daily quality control.

23. Daily quality control testing is done by the medical physicist. a. True b. False ANS: B

Daily quality control testing is done by the radiologic technologist.

DIF: Easy REF: page 370 OBJ: Understand the technologist’s role in quality control testing of digital display devices.

24. A continuous quality control program for digital display devices should include

I. II. III. IV. a. b. c. d.

.

acceptance testing of any new devices routine quality control periodic review of the program by a medical physicist annual and post-repair performance evaluations II only I, II & IV II, III & IV I, II, III & IV

ANS: D

A continuous quality control program for digital display devices includes accepting testing, routine QC, periodic review, and annual and post-repair evaluations.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 370 OBJ: Describe a continuous quality control program for digital display devices.

25. Veiling glare can be evaluated with a VG18 testing pattern. a. True b. False ANS: A

Veiling glare can be evaluated with a VG18 testing pattern.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 369

OBJ: Understand the uses of the VG18 testing patterns.

Chapter 23: Mammography Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Soft tissue radiography requires special techniques because of the low a. image receptor contrast b. subject contrast c. part thickness d. spatial resolution

.

ANS: B

Soft tissue radiography is unique because of the low subject contrast.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 373 OBJ: Discuss the differences between soft tissue radiography and conventional radiography.

2. When doing soft tissue radiography, the differential absorption between

and

must be enhanced. a. bone, muscle b. muscle, fluid c. muscle, fat d. fat, air ANS: C

When doing soft tissue radiography, the differential absorption between muscle and fat must be enhanced.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 373 OBJ: Discuss the differences between soft tissue radiography and conventional radiography.

3. In soft tissue radiography, all of the tissues being imaged have similar a. effective atomic numbers b. mass densities c. Compton interaction d. all of the above

_.

ANS: D

In soft tissue radiography, all of the tissues being imaged have similar effective atomic numbers, mass densities, and Compton interaction.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 373 OBJ: Discuss the differences between soft tissue radiography and conventional radiography.

4. The breast tissue tends to be increasingly a. fatty b. dense c. glandular d. fibrous ANS: A

in older women.

The breast tissue tends to be increasingly fatty in older women.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 374

5. About 80% of breast cancer occurs in a. epidermal b. adipose c. ductal d. connective

OBJ: Describe the anatomy of the breast.

tissue.

ANS: C

About 80% of breast cancer occurs in ductal tissue.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 375

OBJ: Describe the anatomy of the breast.

6. A diagnostic mammogram must be able to demonstrate microcalcifications less than

in

size. a. 5000 b. 50 c. 1000 d. 500 ANS: D

A diagnostic mammogram must be able to demonstrate microcalcifications less than 500 in size.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 375

OBJ: Describe the anatomy of the breast.

7. The American Cancer Society recommends that all women

years of age and above

have an annual screening mammogram. a. 45 b. 50 c. 55 d. 60 ANS: B

The American Cancer Society recommends that all women 50 years of age and above have an annual screening mammogram.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 374 OBJ: Identify the recommended intervals for self-examination and x-ray examination of the breast.

8. The American Cancer Society recommends biannual screening mammograms for all women a. b. c. d.

. over age 65 age 30-39 age 50-59 age 40-49

ANS: D

The American Cancer Society recommends biannual screening mammograms for all women age 40-49.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 374 OBJ: Identify the recommended intervals for self-examination and x-ray examination of the breast.

9. It is recommended that women obtain their first baseline mammogram before the age of a. b. c. d.

. thirty forty fifty sixty

ANS: B

It is recommended that women obtain their first baseline mammogram before the age of forty.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 374 OBJ: Identify the recommended intervals for self-examination and x-ray examination of the breast.

10. A dedicated mammography unit should have an automatic adjustable a. grid b. compression c. focal spot d. filter

device.

ANS: B

A dedicated mammography unit should have an automatic adjustable compression device.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 375 OBJ: Describe the unique features of a mammographic imaging system.

NURSINGTB.COM

11. Every dedicated mammography unit is equipped with a a. low ratio grid b. high ratio grid c. 3-phase voltage generator d. tungsten filter

.

ANS: A

Every dedicated mammography unit is equipped with a low ratio grid.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 375 OBJ: Describe the unique features of a mammographic imaging system.

12. A target of molybdenum or rhodium is preferable in mammography because it reduces the a. b. c. d.

. resolution scatter contrast motion

ANS: B

A target of molybdenum or rhodium is preferable in mammography because it reduces the scatter.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 376

OBJ: Describe the unique features of a mammographic imaging system.

13. Breast compression has the advantage of lowering a. patient dose b. motion blur c. superimpositions d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Breast compression has the advantage of lowering patient dose, motion blur, and superimpositions.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 380 OBJ: Discuss the requirement for compression in mammography.

14. Breast compression is used to a. lower, reduce b. lower, increase c. raise, reduce d. raise, increase

patient dose and

focal spot blur.

ANS: A

Breast compression is used to lower patient dose and reduce focal spot blur.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 380 OBJ: Discuss the requirement for compression in mammography.

15. Breast compression increases NURS. INGTB.COM a. contrast resolution b. spatial resolution c. motion blur d. both A and B ANS: D

Breast compression increases contrast resolution and spatial resolution.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 380 OBJ: Discuss the requirement for compression in mammography.

16. Mammograms are taken with a. double screen b. single screen c. non-screen d. both A and B

cassettes.

ANS: B

Mammograms are taken with single screen cassettes.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 382 OBJ: Describe the image receptors used in mammography and the spatial resolution obtained.

17. The spatial resolution is improved in mammography by always placing the emulsion side of

the film

the screen and

the tube.

a. b. c. d.

away from, away from against, toward against, away from away from, toward

ANS: C

The spatial resolution is improved in mammography by always placing the emulsion side of the film against the screen and away from the tube.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 382 OBJ: Describe the image receptors used in mammography and the spatial resolution obtained.

18. Cassettes used in mammography are specially designed with a. tighter film-screen contact b. high Z front covers c. double screens d. looser spring latches

.

ANS: A

Cassettes used in mammography are specially designed with tighter film-screen contact.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 382 OBJ: Describe the image receptors used in mammography and the spatial resolution obtained.

19. Mammography currently uses a. direct exposure b. xeroradiography c. double-emulsion d. single-emulsion

film.

ANS: D

Mammography currently uses single-emulsion film.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 382 OBJ: Explain the differences between diagnostic and screening mammography.

20. Screening mammography requires

mammography requires a. 1, 2 or more b. 2, 2 or more c. 3, 3 or more d. 4, 4 or more

view(s) of each breast, whereas diagnostic or more views.

ANS: B

Screening mammography requires 2 views of each breast, whereas diagnostic mammography requires 2 or more views.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 374 OBJ: Explain the differences between diagnostic and screening mammography.

Chapter 24: Mammography Quality Control Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A quality assurance program includes measures of a. patient satisfaction b. processor quality control c. equipment function d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

A quality assurance program includes measures of patient satisfaction, processor quality control, and equipment function.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 386 OBJ: Define quality control and its relationship to quality assurance.

2. The is responsible for supervising quality assurance. a. chief radiologist b. mammographer c. department manager d. medical physicist ANS: A

The chief radiologist is responsible for supervising quality assurance.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 386 OBJ: Define quality control and its relationship to quality assurance.

3. The purpose of a quality assurance program is to maintain the maximum

with the

minimum . a. equipment function, department costs b. patient satisfaction, exam time c. quality of mammograms, patient dose d. patient care, exam time ANS: C

The purpose of a quality assurance program is to maintain the quality of mammograms with the minimum patient dose.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 386 OBJ: Define quality control and its relationship to quality assurance.

4. The screen-film mammography quality control program is outlined by the a. radiology department b. Mammography Quality Standards Act c. state governments d. Bureau of Radiation Health ANS: B

.

The mammography quality control program is outlined by the Mammography Quality Standards Act. DIF: Moderate REF: page 386 OBJ: Define quality control and its relationship to quality assurance.

5. The average glandular dose to mammography patients must be tested annually by the a. mammographer b. radiologist c. medical physicist d. department manager

.

ANS: C

The average glandular dose to mammography patients must be tested annually by the medical physicist.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 386 OBJ: Describe the role of the radiologist and the medical physicist in quality control.

6. The team of is responsible for mammography quality control. a. mammographer and QC technologist b. mammographer, radiologist, and medical physicist c. medical physicist, staff manager, and chief radiologist d. staff manager and medical physicist ANS: B

The team of mammographer, radiologist, and medical physicist is responsible for mammography quality control.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 386 OBJ: List the members of the quality control team in radiology.

7. The

is responsible for selecting the medical physicist and mammographers responsible for quality control. a. radiologist b. department manager c. chief mammographer d. federal government ANS: A

The radiologist is responsible for selecting the medical physicist and mammographers responsible for quality control.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 386 OBJ: Describe the role of the radiologist and the medical physicist in quality control.

8. The medical physicist is responsible for

equipment. a. quarterly b. semiannual c. biannual d. annual

performance evaluation of the imaging

ANS: D

The medical physicist is responsible for annual performance evaluation of the imaging equipment.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 386 OBJ: Describe the role of the radiologist and the medical physicist in quality control.

9. The is responsible for measurement of the mammogram viewing conditions. a. darkroom technologist b. mammographer c. medical physicist d. radiologist ANS: C

The medical physicist is responsible for measurement of the mammogram viewing conditions.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 386 OBJ: Describe the role of the radiologist and the medical physicist in quality control.

10. When is the QC evaluation of the equipment performed? a. once a year b. when major components are replaced c. when repairs are needed d. both A and B ANS: D

Equipment QC is done annually and when major components are replaced.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 386 OBJ: Describe the role of the radiologist and the medical physicist in quality control.

11. One responsibility of the radiologist is to track a. patient communications b. film repeat analysis c. darkroom conditions d. equipment performance

.

ANS: A

One responsibility of the radiologist is to track patient communications.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 386 OBJ: Describe the role of the radiologist and the medical physicist in quality control.

12. The medical physicist is responsible for the a. monthly equipment check b. quarterly conference with the radiologist c. annual artifact evaluation d. semiannual compression check

.

ANS: C

The medical physicist is responsible for the annual artifact evaluation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 386 OBJ: Describe the role of the radiologist and the medical physicist in quality control.

13. The role of medical physicist includes . a. doing annual performance evaluations of equipment b. consulting with the mammographers concerning QC c. reviewing the QC records to check for compliance d. all of the above ANS: D

The role of medical physicist includes annual performance evaluations of equipment, consultation with the mammographers concerning QC, and review of the QC records to check for compliance.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 386 OBJ: Describe the role of the radiologist and the medical physicist in quality control.

14. The mammographer should on a monthly basis. a. do a repeat analysis b. complete a visual checklist c. perform processor quality control d. review phantom images ANS: B

The mammographer should complete a visual checklist on a monthly basis.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 394 OBJ: Itemize the mammographeN r’U s qRuS alI ityNcGoT ntB ro. l dCuO ties M on a weekly, monthly, and annual basis.

15. How often should the mammographer perform the quality control test for screen-film contact? a. daily b. weekly c. monthly d. semiannually ANS: D

The mammographer performs the quality control test for screen-film contact semiannually.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 395 OBJ: Itemize the mammographer’s quality control duties on a weekly, monthly, and annual basis.

16. The first step in quality control is the daily a. darkroom cleaning b. sensitometric strip c. screen cleaning d. phantom image

.

ANS: A

The first step in quality control is the daily darkroom cleaning.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 387

OBJ: List the processor quality control steps.

17. Every daily sensitometry strip should be fed into the processor

.

a. b. c. d.

emulsion side down on the same edge of the feed tray with the least exposed end first all of the above

ANS: D

Every daily sensitometry strip should be fed into the processor under identical conditions each time.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 388

OBJ: List the processor quality control steps.

18. Once control values are set, the daily speed index (mid density) and contrast index (density

difference) should not vary more than a. 0.10 b. 0.15 c. 0.20 d. 0.25

from the control.

ANS: B

Once control values are set, the daily speed index (mid density) and contrast index (density difference) should not vary more than 0.15 from the control.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 388

OBJ: List the processor quality control steps.

19. The processor quality control begins with daily tests for a. developer temperature and darkroom fog b. fixer retention and darkroom fog c. developer temperature and N seUnR siS toI mN etG riT cB va.luCeO sM d. fixer retention and sensitometric values

.

ANS: C

The processor quality control begins with daily tests for developer temperature and sensitometric values.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 388

OBJ: List the processor quality control steps.

20. The sensitometry strip step with the optical density closest to, but not less than,

is the

speed index (mid density) step. a. 1.2 b. 1.5 c. 2.2 d. 2.5 ANS: A

The speed index (mid density) is the sensitometry strip step with the optical density closest to 1.2.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 388

OBJ: List the processor quality control steps.

Chapter 25: Fluoroscopy Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Fluoroscopy was developed so that radiologists could view a. static b. dynamic c. magnified d. darkened

images.

ANS: B

Fluoroscopy was developed so that radiologists could view dynamic images.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 402

OBJ: Discuss the development of fluoroscopy.

2. What is the milliamperage used during fluoroscopy? a. 100 mA b. 50 mA c. 5 mA d. 1 mA ANS: C

During fluoroscopy, the x-ray tube is operated at less than 5 mA. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 402

OBJ: Discuss the development of fluoroscopy.

3. The image intensifier improved fluoroscopy by increasing image a. brightness b. resolution c. magnification d. contrast

.

ANS: A

The image intensifier improved fluoroscopy by increasing image brightness.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 402

OBJ: Discuss the development of fluoroscopy.

4. Image intensified fluoroscopy is performed at illumination levels similar to a. star gazing b. darkened theaters c. night driving d. radiograph viewing

.

ANS: D

Image intensified fluoroscopy is performed at illumination levels similar to radiograph viewing.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 402

5. Visual acuity in the eye is greatest at the

OBJ: Discuss the development of fluoroscopy.

, where

are concentrated.

a. b. c. d.

retinal periphery, cones fovea centralis, cones retinal periphery, rods fovea centralis, rods

ANS: B

Visual acuity in the eye is greatest at the fovea centralis, where cones are concentrated.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 403 OBJ: Explain visual physiology and its relationship to fluoroscopy.

6. The ability of the eye to detect differences in brightness levels is termed a. visual acuity b. scotopic vision c. photopic vision d. contrast perception

.

ANS: D

The ability of the eye to detect differences in brightness levels vision is termed contrast perception.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 404 OBJ: Explain visual physiology and its relationship to fluoroscopy.

7. The

in the retina are stimulated by

light; the

are stimulated by

light. a. rods, bright; cones, low b. rods, low; cones, low c. rods, low; cones, bright d. rods, bright; cones, bright ANS: C

The rods in the retina are stimulated by low light; the cones are stimulated by bright light.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 403 OBJ: Explain visual physiology and its relationship to fluoroscopy.

8. With image intensification the light level is raised to a. photopic b. scotopic c. night d. twilight

vision.

ANS: A

With image intensification the light level is raised to photopic vision.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 403 OBJ: Explain visual physiology and its relationship to fluoroscopy.

9. X-rays that exit the patient and enter the image intensifier first interact with the a. output phosphor b. input phosphor

.

c. photocathode d. anode ANS: B

X-rays that exit the patient during fluoroscopy first interact with the input phosphor.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 405

OBJ: Describe the components of an image intensifier.

10. The output phosphor of the image intensifier is composed of a. cesium iodide b. antimony c. zinc cadmium sulfide d. graphite

.

ANS: A

The output phosphor of the image intensifier is composed of cesium iodide.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 406

11. The input phosphor converts a. x-rays, electrons b. light, electrons c. electrons, light d. x-rays, light

OBJ: Describe the components of an image intensifier.

to

.

ANS: D

The input phosphor converts x-rays to light.

DIF:

Difficult

GBTJB REF: pageN4U 15RSINO : .DCeO scM ribe the components of an image intensifier.

12. The in the image intensifier emits electrons when it is stimulated by light photons. a. input phosphor b. output phosphor c. photocathode d. electron gun ANS: C

The photocathode in the image intensifier emits electrons when it is stimulated by light photons.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 405

OBJ: Describe the components of an image intensifier.

13. The number of light photons emitted within the image intensifier is

to the amount of

x-ray photons exiting the patient. a. equal b. unrelated c. inversely proportional d. directly proportional ANS: D

The number of light photons emitted within the image intensifier is directly proportional to the amount of x-ray photons exiting the patient.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 405

OBJ: Describe the components of an image intensifier.

14. The kinetic energy of photoelectrons in the image intensifier is greatly increased by the a. b. c. d.

. mAs of the exposure potential difference across the tube cesium iodide at the input phosphor zinc cadmium sulfide at the output phosphor

ANS: B

The kinetic energy of photoelectrons in the image intensifier is greatly increased by the potential difference across the tube.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 406

OBJ: Describe the components of an image intensifier.

15. Light produced at the output phosphor of the image intensifier has been increased

times

in intensity. a. 5-10 b. 20-35 c. 50-75 d. 100-300 ANS: C

Light produced at the output phosphor has been increased 50-75 times in intensity.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 406

OBJ: Calculate brightness gain and identify its units.

after exNitU inRgSthIeNaG noTdB e..COM

16. Electrons hit the a. output phosphor b. tube housing c. photocathode d. focusing lenses ANS: A

Electrons hit the output phosphor after exiting the anode.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 406

OBJ: Describe the components of an image intensifier.

17. The is the product of the minification gain and the flux gain. a. horizontal resolution b. brightness gain c. contrast resolution d. flux gain ANS: B

The brightness gain is the product of the minification gain and the flux gain.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 406

OBJ: Calculate brightness gain and identify its units.

18. The ratio of x-rays incident on the input phosphor to light photons exiting the output phosphor

is called gain. a. magnification

b. minification c. brightness d. flux ANS: D

The ratio of x-rays incident on the input phosphor to light photons exiting the output phosphor is called flux gain.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 406

OBJ: Calculate brightness gain and identify its units.

19. The capability of an image intensifier to increase the illumination level of the image is called

its a. b. c. d.

. flux gain conversion factor brightness gain veiling glare

ANS: C

The ability of the image intensifier to increase the illumination level of the image is called its brightness gain.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 406

OBJ: Calculate brightness gain and identify its units.

20. An image intensifier tube is identified by the diameter of its a. input phosphor b. glass housing c. output phosphor d. focusing lenses

.

ANS: A

An image intensifier tube is identified by the diameter of its input phosphor.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 407

OBJ: Describe the components of an image intensifier.

21. Brightness gain is typically in the range of a. 50-75 b. 100-1,000 c. 3,000-4,000 d. 5,000-30,000

.

ANS: D

Brightness gain is typically in the range of 5,000-30,000.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 407

OBJ: Calculate brightness gain and identify its units.

22. Fluoroscopy for an air contrast barium enema is generally done at a. 65-75 b. 70-80 c. 80-90 d. 100-110

kVp.

ANS: C

Fluoroscopy for an air contrast barium enema is generally done at 80-90 kVp.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 405 OBJ: List the approximate kVp levels for common fluoroscopic examinations.

23. Viewing the fluoroscopic image in magnification mode increases a. contrast resolution b. spatial resolution c. patient dose d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Viewing the fluoroscopic image in magnification mode increases contrast resolution, spatial resolution, and patient dose.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 407

24. Television monitoring allows a. brightness b. contrast c. bandwidth d. both A and B

OBJ: Describe the components of an image intensifier.

to be controlled electronically.

ANS: D

Television monitoring allows brightness and contrast to be controlled electronically.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 408 OBJ: Discuss the role of the television monitor and the television image in forming fluoroscopic images.

25. Automatic brightness control (ABC) maintains the brightness of the image by varying a. monitor settings b. kVp and mA c. monitor bandwidth d. all of the above ANS: B

Automatic brightness control (ABC) maintains the brightness of the image by varying kVp and mA. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 402

OBJ: Calculate brightness gain and identify its units.

.

Chapter 26: Digital Fluoroscopy Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Digital fluoroscopy uses at least a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

monitor(s).

ANS: B

Digital fluoroscopy uses at least 2 monitors.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 418 OBJ: Describe the monitors of a digital fluoroscopy system.

2. The time it takes to turn on the digital fluoroscopy x-ray tube and reach the selected mA and

kVp is the time. a. interrogation b. extinction c. radiographic d. acquisition ANS: A

The time it takes to turn on the digital fluoroscopy x-ray tube and reach the selected mA and kVp is the interrogation time.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 419 OBJ: Describe the functions of a digital fluoroscopy system.

3. A charge-coupled device used in digital fluoroscopy provides high a. spatial resolution b. signal-to-noise ratio c. detective quantum efficiency d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

A charge-coupled device used in digital fluoroscopy provides high spatial resolution, high signal-to-noise ratio, and high detective quantum efficiency.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 420 OBJ: Describe the charge-coupled device of a digital fluoroscopy system and its functions.

4. Digital fluoroscopy with a charge-coupled device has lower

conventional fluoroscopy. a. light sensitivity, patient dose b. patient dose, light sensitivity c. detective quantum efficiency, maintenance d. signal-to-noise ratio, patient dose

and higher

than

ANS: B

Digital fluoroscopy with a charge coupled device has lower patient dose and higher light sensitivity than conventional fluoroscopy.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 422 OBJ: Compare the digital fluoroscopy with a charge-coupled device to the conventional fluoroscopy machine.

5. A principal advantage of digital fluoroscopy is the a. dynamic range b. image acquisition rate c. image subtraction d. progressive mode

.

ANS: C

A principal advantage of digital fluoroscopy is the image subtraction technique.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 422 OBJ: Discuss the advantages of a digital fluoroscopy system.

6. Digital fluoroscopy energy subtraction has less _ a. complexity b. x-ray intensity c. kVp switching d. motion artifact

than temporal subtraction.

ANS: D

Digital fluoroscopy energy subN trU acRtiS onIhNaG sT leB ss.m CoOtiMon artifact than temporal subtraction.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 424 OBJ: Compare digital fluoroscopy energy subtraction to temporal subtraction.

7. Image integration results in . a. increased patient dose b. decreased patient dose c. decreased contrast resolution d. increased noise artifact ANS: A

Image integration results in increased patient dose.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 425

OBJ: Relate image integration to patient dose.

8. Energy subtraction technique takes advantage of the difference in

injection. a. tissue density b. K-edge absorption c. Compton scatter d. patient thickness ANS: B

during contrast

Energy subtraction technique takes advantage of the difference in K-edge absorption during contrast injection.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 427

OBJ: Describe the process of energy subtraction.

9. Digital fluoroscopy systems with hybrid capabilities use both a. interlace and progressive modes b. high mAs and low mass techniques c. temporal and energy subtraction d. charge coupled devices and TV monitors

.

ANS: C

Digital fluoroscopy systems with hybrid capabilities use both temporal and energy subtraction.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 428 OBJ: Describe the digital fluoroscopy system with hybrid capabilities.

10. Remasking may be required due to a. noise artifacts b. motion artifacts c. technical factors d. any of the above

.

ANS: D

Remasking may be required due to noise, motion, or technical factors.

DIF:

Moderate

REF: pageN4U 25RSINO : .DCisOcuMss the use of remasking.

GBTJB

11. In mask mode, the

image is shown on monitor B, and the

image is shown on

monitor A. a. mask, subtracted b. subtracted, mask c. hybrid, mask d. subtracted, hybrid ANS: A

In mask mode, the mask image is shown on monitor B, and the subtracted image is shown on monitor A. DIF: Moderate REF: page 425 OBJ: Describe the picture archiving and teleradiology systems used in diagnostic imaging departments.

12. The combination of temporal and energy subtraction techniques is called _ a. interlacing mode subtraction b. hybrid subtraction c. dual subtraction d. superimposition

.

ANS: B

The combination of temporal and energy subtraction techniques is called hybrid subtraction.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 428

OBJ: Define hybrid subtraction.

13. The time-interval delay mode is principally used in a. renal angiography b. barium enema c. cardiac d. run-off

imaging.

ANS: C

The time-interval delay mode is principally used in cardiac imaging.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 426 OBJ: Explain the principal use of time-interval delay mode.

14. Digital fluoroscopic dose rate is lower than that for continuous analog fluoroscopy. a. True b. False ANS: A

Digital fluoroscopic dose rate is lower than that for continuous analog fluoroscopy because the images are discrete, not continuous.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 429 OBJ: Understand the difference in dose rate between digital fluoroscopic and continuous analog fluoroscopy.

15. Hybrid imaging can produce the highest-quality digital fluoroscopy images only if a. remasking is employed b. energy subtraction is used c. patient motion is controlled d. remasking is completed

.

ANS: C

Hybrid imaging can produce the highest-quality digital fluoroscopy images only if patient motion is controlled.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 428 OBJ: Understand the importance of controlling patient motion when employing subtraction techniques.

Chapter 27: Interventional Radiography Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The 18-gauge hollow

needle with a stylet, developed in 1953, is used to puncture the

femoral artery. a. Judkins b. Seldinger c. Dotter d. Jones ANS: B

The 18-gauge hollow Seldinger needle with a stylet, developed in 1953, is used to puncture the femoral artery.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 431 OBJ: Describe the special equipment in the interventional suite.

2. The most common risk for the angiography patient is a. bleeding at the puncture site b. arterial puncture or tear c. drug reaction to contrast d. blood-clot formation

.

ANS: A

The most common risk for the N anUgR ioSgI raN phGyTpBat.ieCnO t iM s bleeding at the puncture site.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 433

OBJ: Identify the risks of arteriography.

3. During an interventional procedure, a. pulse oximetry b. blood pressure measurement c. electrocardiography d. all of the above

must be maintained on the patient.

ANS: D

During an interventional procedure, pulse oximetry, blood pressure measurement, and electrocardiography must be maintained on the patient.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 433

OBJ: Identify the risks of arteriography.

4. The x-ray tube used for interventional radiologic procedures has a a. small diameter anode b. small target angle c. large focal spot d. low power rating

.

ANS: B

The x-ray tube used for interventional radiologic procedures has a small target angle.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 434 OBJ: Describe the special equipment in the interventional suite.

5. Serial radiography requires x-ray equipment with a a. large target angle b. small anode disk c. low heat capacity d. high power rating

.

ANS: D

Serial radiography requires x-ray equipment with a high power rating.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 435 OBJ: Describe the special equipment in the interventional suite.

6. The focal spot used for magnification of small vessels cannot be larger than a. 0.3 b. 0.4 c. 0.7 d. 1.0

mm.

ANS: A

The focal spot used for magnification of small vessels cannot be larger than 0.3 mm.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 434 OBJ: Describe the special equipment in the interventional suite.

7. The size and construction of the a. tube housing b. cathode wire c. bearing assembly d. anode disk

determines the anode heat capacity.

ANS: D

The size and construction of the anode disk determines the anode heat capacity.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 434 OBJ: Discuss the advantages that nonionic (water soluble) contrast media offer over ionic contrast media.

8. The power rating for an interventional radiography tube should be at least a. 20 b. 40 c. 80 d. 100

kW.

ANS: C

The power rating for an interventional radiography tube should be at least 80 kW. DIF: Moderate REF: page 435 OBJ: Describe the special equipment in the interventional suite.

9. When imaging a flow of contrast from the abdomen to the feet, a

is used.

a. b. c. d.

tilting table stepping table sliding tube cine camera

ANS: B

When imaging a flow of contrast from abdomen to feet, a stepping table is used.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 436 OBJ: Describe the special equipment in the interventional suite.

10. The patient table is moved with a floor switch to maintain a a. better motion control b. smooth movement c. low exposure rate d. sterile field

.

ANS: D

The patient table is moved with a floor switch to maintain a sterile field.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 435 OBJ: Describe the special equipment in the interventional suite.

11. The artery is the one most often accessed for arteriograms. a. pulmonary b. carotid c. femoral d. brachial ANS: C

The femoral artery is the one most often accessed for arteriograms.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 432 OBJ: Describe the reasons why minimally invasive (percutaneous) vascular procedures often benefit over traditional surgical procedures.

12. A patient must have prior to having an angiography or interventional procedure. a. a history and physical examination b. orders for IV hydration c. a diet of clear liquids d. all of the above ANS: D

A patient must have a history and physical examination, orders for IV hydration, and a diet of clear liquids prior to having an angiography or interventional procedure.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 432

OBJ: Identify the risks of arteriography.

13. The use of reduces the risk of a drug reaction during angiographic procedures. a. hydrophilic catheters b. ionic contrast c. nonionic contrast

d. heparin coating ANS: D

The use of nonionic contrast reduces the risk of a drug reaction during interventional and angiographic procedures.

DIF: Moderate 14. a. b. c. d.

REF: page 432

OBJ: Identify the risks of arteriography.

is an example of an interventional procedure.

Cardiac catheterization Myelography Angioplasty Angiography

ANS: C

Angioplasty is an example of an interventional procedure.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 431 OBJ: Describe the special equipment in the interventional suite.

15. A technologist who passes the ARRT exam in cardiovascular and interventional radiography

may add a. (VT) b. (CI) c. (IR) d. (CV)

after the RT (R).

ANS: D

A technologist who passes the ARRT exam in cardiovascular and interventional radiography may add (CV) after the RT (R).

DIF: Moderate REF: page 436 OBJ: State the credentials for cardiovascular and interventional technologists.

Chapter 28: Computed Tomography Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Each sweep of the source-detector around the body during CT is called a _ a. rotation b. reconstruction c. translation d. projection

.

ANS: C

Each sweep of the source-detector around the body during CT is called a translation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 439 OBJ: Discuss the concepts of transverse tomography, translation, and reconstruction of images.

2. Each CT projection records variations in . a. density and contrast b. motion and noise c. spatial resolution and contrast resolution d. mass density and effective atomic number ANS: D

Each CT projection records variations in mass density and effective atomic number.

DIF: Moderate REF: pageN4U 39RSINGTB.COM OBJ: Discuss the concepts of transverse tomography, translation, and reconstruction of images.

3. a. b. c. d.

Each CT projection is . displayed on the monitor stored on the computer printed on film all of the above

ANS: B

Each CT projection is stored on the computer.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 439 OBJ: Discuss the concepts of transverse tomography, translation, and reconstruction of images.

4. The cross-sectional anatomy is translated into a. an intensity profile b. attenuation patterns c. a matrix of values d. effective atomic numbers

during CT reconstruction.

ANS: C

The cross-sectional anatomy is translated into a matrix of values during CT reconstruction.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 439

OBJ: Discuss the concepts of transverse tomography, translation, and reconstruction of images.

5. The first generation of computed tomography used a. one b. two c. three d. four

detector(s).

ANS: A

The first generation of computed tomography used one detector.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 439 OBJ: List and describe the various generations of CT imaging systems.

6. The principal drawback of the first-generation CT scanner was the a. high patient dose b. long scanning time c. translate-rotate assembly d. degree of rotation

.

ANS: B

The principal drawback of the first-generation CT scanner was the long scanning time.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 440 OBJ: List and describe the various generations of CT imaging systems.

7. The second-generation CT scanners had the disadvantage of increased a. beam scatter b. scanning time c. ring artifacts d. number of translations

.

ANS: A

The second-generation CT scanners had the disadvantage of increased beam scatter.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 440 OBJ: List and describe the various generations of CT imaging systems.

8. The reduction in a. image noise b. patient dose c. scanning time d. scatter radiation

was the principal advantage of the second-generation CT scanners.

ANS: C

The reduction in scanning time was the principal advantage of the second-generation CT scanners.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 440 OBJ: List and describe the various generations of CT imaging systems.

9. The third generation of CT scanners allowed for further reduction in a. scanning time

.

b. scattered radiation. c. fan-beam width d. both A and B ANS: D

The third generation of CT scanners allowed for further reduction in scanning time and scattered radiation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 440 OBJ: List and describe the various generations of CT imaging systems.

10. The

generation of CT scanners was the first to have the fan beam transect the entire patient at all times. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANS: C

The third generation of CT scanners was the first to have the fan beam transect the entire patient at all times.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 440 OBJ: List and describe the various generations of CT imaging systems.

11. What is the principal disadvantage of third generation CT scanners? a. slow speed b. ring artifacts c. patient dose d. poor reconstruction ANS: B

The principal disadvantage of third generation CT scanners is the occasional presence of ring artifacts.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 440 OBJ: List and describe the various generations of CT imaging systems.

12. The new development in the fourth generation CT scanner is the a. stationary detector array b. fan beam c. reduced patient dose d. ring artifact

.

ANS: A

The new development in the fourth generation CT scanner is the stationary detector array.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 441 OBJ: List and describe the various generations of CT imaging systems.

13. Many CT x-ray tubes have the capacity for millions of a. heat units

with each exam.

b. rotations c. volts d. Hertz ANS: A

Many CT x-ray tubes have the capacity for millions of heat units with each exam.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 447 OBJ: Relate the CT system components and their functions.

14. The concentration of scintillation detectors affects the a. spatial resolution b. contrast resolution c. overall density d. motion artifact

of the CT image.

ANS: A

The concentration of scintillation detectors affects the spatial resolution of the CT image.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 447 OBJ: Relate the CT system components and their functions.

15. The patient dose in CT is determined by the a. predetector b. prepatient c. postpatient d. both A and B

collimator.

ANS: B

The patient dose in CT is determined by the prepatient collimator.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 448 OBJ: Relate the CT system components and their functions.

16. CT scanners operate on a. single-phase b. three phase c. high frequency d. twelve-pulse

voltage generation.

ANS: C

CT scanners operate on high frequency voltage generation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 448 OBJ: Relate the CT system components and their functions.

17. The time from the end of CT imaging to image appearance is called the a. reconstruction b. translation c. projection d. Hounsfield ANS: A

time.

The time from the end of CT imaging to image appearance is called the reconstruction time.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 446 OBJ: Relate the CT system components and their functions.

18. Each pixel of information in the CT image contains numerical information in a. voxel b. reconstruction c. Hounsfield d. pixel

units.

ANS: C

Each pixel of information in the CT image contains numerical information in Hounsfield units.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 449 OBJ: Describe CT image characteristics of image matrix and Hounsfield unit.

19. The pixel size is reduced when the a. field of view, matrix b. matrix, field of view c. Hounsfield unit, field of view d. field of view, Hounsfield unit

size is increased and the

size is fixed.

ANS: B

The pixel size is reduced when the matrix size is increased and the field of view size is fixed.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 449 OBJ: Describe CT image characteristics of image matrix and Hounsfield unit.

20. Filtered back projection in CT refers to a. spatial resolution b. pre-patient collimation c. beam filtration d. image reconstruction

.

ANS: D

Filtered back projection in CT refers to image reconstruction.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 451

21. CT imaging has excellent a. spatial frequency b. noise reduction c. contrast resolution d. spatial resolution

OBJ: Review image reconstruction.

because of the narrow beam collimation.

ANS: C

CT imaging has excellent contrast resolution because of the narrow beam collimation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 455 OBJ: Discuss image quality as it relates to spatial resolution, contrast resolution, noise, linearity, and uniformity.

22. The degree of spatial resolution in any CT imaging system is limited to the size of the a. voxel b. FOV c. matrix d. pixel

.

ANS: D

The degree of spatial resolution in any CT imaging system is limited to the size of the pixel.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 455 OBJ: Discuss the concepts of transverse tomography, translation, and reconstruction of images.

23. The CT scanner must be calibrated so that a. water b. Plexiglas c. nylon d. polyethylene

is at CT number zero.

ANS: A

The CT scanner must be calibrated so that water is at CT number zero.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 457 OBJ: Discuss image quality as it relates to spatial resolution, contrast resolution, noise, linearity, and uniformity.

24. A high variation in pixel values in a homogenous phantom is a measure of a. spatial resolution b. image noise c. contrast resolution d. motion artifact

.

ANS: B

A high variation in pixel values in a homogenous phantom is a measure of image noise.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 455 OBJ: Discuss image quality as it relates to spatial resolution, contrast resolution, noise, linearity, and uniformity.

25. Image noise in CT scanning depends on a. pixel size b. detector efficiency c. slice thickness d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Image noise in CT scanning depends on kVp and filtration, pixel size, slice thickness, detector efficiency, and, ultimately, patient dose.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 455 OBJ: Discuss image quality as it relates to spatial resolution, contrast resolution, noise, linearity, and uniformity.

Chapter 29: Human Biology Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The is the basic functional unit of all plants and animals. a. DNA b. cell c. macromolecule d. lipid ANS: B

The cell is the basic functional unit of all plants and animals.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 469

OBJ: Discuss the cell theory of human biology.

2. The human body is composed of about 80% a. carbohydrates b. protein c. nucleic acids d. water

.

ANS: D

The human body is composed of about 80% water.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 469

OBJ: Discuss the cell theory of human biology.

3. The in the body provide fuel for cell metabolism. a. protein b. water c. carbohydrates d. hormones ANS: C

The carbohydrates in the body provide fuel for cell metabolism.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 469

4. The endocrine glands produce a. hormones b. lipids c. antigens d. glycerol

OBJ: Discuss the cell theory of human biology.

.

ANS: A

The endocrine glands produce hormones.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 470

5. The in the cell are nucleic acids. a. DNA

OBJ: Discuss the cell theory of human biology.

b. RNA c. lipids d. both A and B ANS: D

The DNA and RNA in the cell are nucleic acids.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 471

OBJ: Discuss the cell theory of human biology.

6. The most radiosensitive target molecule in the human cell is the a. protein b. DNA c. hormone d. glucose

.

ANS: B

The most radiosensitive target molecule in the human cell is the DNA. DIF: Moderate REF: page 471 OBJ: List and describe the molecular composition of the human body.

7. DNA is located in the a. nucleus b. cytoplasm c. wall d. both A and B

of the cell.

ANS: A

DNA is located in the nucleus of the cell.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 471 OBJ: List and describe the molecular composition of the human body.

8. The only principal molecules in the body which are simple molecules are _ a. carbohydrate b. water c. lipid d. protein

molecules.

ANS: B

The only principal molecules in the body which are simple molecules are water molecules.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 469 OBJ: List and describe the molecular composition of the human body.

9. The metabolic process of building large molecules from smaller ones is called a. synthesis b. catabolism c. anabolism d. homeostasis ANS: C

The process of building large molecules from smaller ones is called anabolism.

.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 469 OBJ: List and describe the molecular composition of the human body.

10. All the hereditary information about an individual is contained in the a. germ b. brain c. blood d. skin

cells.

ANS: A

All the hereditary information about an individual is contained in the germ cells.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 471 OBJ: List and describe the molecular composition of the human body.

11. The two major parts of the cell are the nucleus and the a. mitochondria b. cell wall c. nucleolus d. cytoplasm

.

ANS: D

The two major parts of the cell are the nucleus and cytoplasm.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 472

12. The cell “engines” are the a. ribosomes b. lysosomes c. mitochondria d. nucleoli

OBJ: Explain the parts and function of the human cell.

NU. RSINGTB.COM

ANS: C

The cell “engines” are the mitochondria.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 472

OBJ: Explain the parts and function of the human cell.

13. The have the function of cleaning contaminants from the cell. a. mitochondria b. lysosomes c. ribosomes d. chromatids ANS: B

The lysosomes have the function of cleaning contaminants from the cell.

DIF: Difficult 14.

A codon is a

REF: page 473

.

a. protein molecule b. cell organelle

OBJ: Explain the parts and function of the human cell.

c. genetic message d. somatic cell ANS: C

A codon is a genetic message.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 473

OBJ: Explain the parts and function of the human cell.

15. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is located primarily in the a. cytoplasm b. nucleus c. cell wall d. ribosomes

.

ANS: A

Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is located primarily in the cytoplasm.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 471

OBJ: Explain the parts and function of the human cell.

16. Meiosis is the process of cell division for a. muscle b. skin c. somatic d. genetic

cells.

ANS: D

Meiosis is the process of cell division for genetic cells.

DIF:

Moderate

17. A cell is in a. prophase b. anaphase c. interphase d. telophase

GBTJB REF: pageN4U 74RSINO : .DCeO scM ribe the processes of mitosis and meiosis. when it is not undergoing mitosis or meiosis.

ANS: C

A cell is in interphase when it is not undergoing mitosis or meiosis.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 474

OBJ: Describe the processes of mitosis and meiosis.

18. Any chromosome damage induced by radiation could be seen during the a. metaphase b. telophase c. anaphase d. prophase

.

ANS: A

Any chromosome damage induced by radiation could be seen during the metaphase.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 474

OBJ: Describe the processes of mitosis and meiosis.

19. During the

phase of cell life, each DNA molecule is replicated into two identical daughter DNA molecules. a. G1 b. G2 c. M d. S ANS: D

During the S phase of cell life, each DNA molecule is replicated into two identical daughter DNA molecules.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 474

OBJ: Describe the processes of mitosis and meiosis.

20. The process of cell meiosis results in cells with a. 22 b. 23 c. 46 d. 48

chromosomes each.

ANS: B

The process of cell meiosis results in cells with 23 chromosomes each.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 475

OBJ: Describe the processes of mitosis and meiosis.

21. The tissue in the is more radiosensitive than a. bone marrow, skin b. brain, cornea c. muscle, gonadal d. brain, lymphoid

tissue.

ANS: A

The tissue in the bone marrow is more radiosensitive than skin tissue.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 476

22. Before cells mature, they are called a. stem b. precursor c. undifferentiated d. all of the above

OBJ: Evaluate the radiosensitivity of tissues and organs.

cells.

ANS: D

Before cells mature they are called stem, precursor, or undifferentiated cells.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 476

OBJ: Evaluate the radiosensitivity of tissues and organs.

23. Most of the tissue in the average human body is composed of a. blood b. skin c. muscle d. fat ANS: C

.

Most of the tissue in the average human body is composed of muscle.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 476

OBJ: Evaluate the radiosensitivity of tissues and organs.

24. Lymphoid tissue begins to atrophy at what amount of radiation dose? a. 5 Gy b. 2 Gy c. 10 Gy d. 30 Gy ANS: B

The lowest amount of radioactivity to which lymphoid tissues will respond is 2 Gy. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 477

OBJ: Evaluate the radiosensitivity of tissues and organs.

25. One of the most radiosensitive tissues in the body is a. spinal b. muscle c. lymphoid d. thyroid

tissue.

ANS: C

One of the most radiosensitive tissues in the body is lymphoid tissue.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 477

OBJ: Evaluate the radiosensitivity of tissues and organs.

Chapter 30: Fundamental Principles of Radiobiology Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The law of

states that the radiosensitivity of living tissue is a function of the metabolism and maturation of that tissue. a. Watson and Crick b. Roentgen and Plank c. Hurter and Driffield d. Bergonie and Tribondeau ANS: D

The Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau states that the radiosensitivity of living tissue is a function of the metabolism and maturation of that tissue.

DIF: Moderate 2. Tissues that are a. immature, low b. immature, high c. mature, low d. mature, high

REF: page 480

with a

OBJ: State the law of Bergonie and Tribondeau.

metabolic rate are more radiosensitive.

ANS: B

Tissues that are immature with a high metabolic rate are more radiosensitive.

DIF: Difficult 3. a. b. c. d.

REF: page 480

OBJ: State the law of Bergonie and Tribondeau.

is a measure of the rate that energy is transferred from ionizing radiation to soft tissue.

LET RBE MeV OER

ANS: A

LET is a measure of the rate that energy is transferred from ionizing radiation to soft tissue.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 480 OBJ: Describe the physical factors affecting radiation response.

4. As LET , the RBE . a. increases, remains the same b. decreases, remains the same c. increases, increases d. increases, decreases ANS: C

As LET increases, the RBE increases.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 480

OBJ: Describe the physical factors affecting radiation response.

5. A protracted dose of radiation is given a. over a long period of time b. all at one short exposure c. in a series of separate doses d. in two large doses

.

ANS: A

A protracted dose of radiation is given over a long period of time.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 481 OBJ: Describe the physical factors affecting radiation response.

6. A dose of 10 Gy given to a patient in 5 doses of 2 Gy per day is a a. protracted b. fractionated c. diagnostic d. fatal

dose.

ANS: B

A dose of 10 Gy given to a patient in 5 doses of 2 Gy per day is a fractionated dose.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 481 OBJ: Describe the physical factors affecting radiation response.

7. The LET of diagnostic x-rays is a. 0.2 b. 0.3 c. 3.0 d. 50

keV/ m.

ANS: C

The LET of diagnostic x-rays is 3.0 keV/ m.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 481 OBJ: Describe the physical factors affecting radiation response.

8. The RBE of diagnostic x-rays is equal to a. 20 b. 10 c. 5 d. 1

.

ANS: D

The Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau states that the radiosensitivity of living tissue is a function of the metabolism and maturation of that tissue.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 481 OBJ: Describe the physical factors affecting radiation response.

9. Tissue is

radiosensitive under high oxygen conditions and hypoxic conditions. a. less, equally b. less, more c. more, less d. more, equally

radiosensitive under

ANS: C

Tissue is more radiosensitive under high oxygen conditions and less radiosensitive under hypoxic conditions.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 481 OBJ: Describe the biological factors affecting radiation response.

10. Fractionation and protraction are used for radiation therapy because they allow the patient to a. b. c. d.

. recover between doses have higher total doses repair damaged tissues all of the above

ANS: D

Fractionation and protraction are used for radiation therapy because they allow the patient to recover between doses, repair damaged tissues, and have higher total doses.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 481 OBJ: Describe the physical factors affecting radiation response.

11. Humans are most radiosensitive during a. fetal stages b. infancy c. adulthood d. old age

.

ANS: A

Humans are most radiosensitive during fetal stages.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 482 OBJ: Describe the biological factors affecting radiation response.

12. The human application of radioprotective agents would a. double radiation damage b. be fatally toxic c. reduce radiation effects by half d. reduce radiation effects by one fourth

.

ANS: B

The human application of radioprotective agents would be fatally toxic.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 483 OBJ: Describe the biological factors affecting radiation response.

13. Human cells cannot recover from radiation damage after there is a. cellular repair b. cellular repopulation c. interphase death d. sublethal damage

.

ANS: C

Human cells cannot recover from radiation damage after there is interphase death.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 482 OBJ: Describe the biological factors affecting radiation response.

14. Studies of the effects of radiation show that low doses may a. stimulate the immune system b. extend the life span c. stimulate hormonal responses d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Studies of the effects of radiation show that low doses may stimulate the hormonal and immune system responses to toxins and extend the life span.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 483 OBJ: Describe the biological factors affecting radiation response.

15. The possible beneficial effect of a small amount of radiation is called a. radiosensitizing b. hormesis c. radioprotection d. protraction

_.

ANS: B

The possible beneficial effect of a small amount of radiation is called hormesis.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 483 OBJ: Describe the biological factors affecting radiation response.

16. A a. b. c. d.

response to radiation is directly proportional to the dose received. linear nonlinear curvilinear non-threshold

ANS: A

A linear response to radiation is directly proportional to the dose received.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 483

OBJ: Explain radiation dose-response relationships.

17. If a response to radiation is expected, no matter how small the dose, then that dose-response is

. a. linear b. nonlinear

c. nonthreshold d. threshold ANS: C

If a response to radiation is expected, no matter how small the dose, then that dose-response is nonthreshold.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 483

OBJ: Explain radiation dose-response relationships.

18. Radiation induced genetic damage follows a a. linear-nonthreshold b. linear-threshold c. nonlinear-nonthreshold d. nonlinear-threshold

_ dose-response relationship.

ANS: A

Radiation induced genetic damage follows a linear-nonthreshold dose-response relationship.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 483

OBJ: Explain radiation dose-response relationships.

19. Which dose-response relationship can follow a sigmoid curve? a. linear-nonthreshold b. linear-threshold c. nonlinear-nonthreshold d. nonlinear-threshold ANS: D

A nonlinear-threshold dose response can follow a sigmoid curve.

NURSINGTB.COM

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 484

OBJ: Explain radiation dose-response relationships.

20. The human dose-response relationship at low ranges of radiation is calculated using a. known responses from low doses b. extrapolation from high ranges c. human experiments d. all of the above ANS: B

The human dose-response relationship at low ranges of radiation is calculated using extrapolation from high ranges.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 485

OBJ: Explain radiation dose-response relationships.

.

Chapter 31: Molecular Radiobiology Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. If a macromolecule has (a) a. main-chain scission b. point lesion c. cross-linking d. point mutation

, it will break down into smaller molecules.

ANS: B

A main-chain scission of a macromolecule results in a breakdown into smaller molecules.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 488 OBJ: Discuss three effects of in vitro irradiation of macromolecules.

2. In vitro irradiation of macromolecules causes a. repairable b. reversible c. irreversible d. both A and B

damage to macromolecules.

ANS: D

In vitro irradiation to macromolecules causes repairable and reversible damage to macromolecules.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 488 OBJ: Discuss three effects of in vitro irradiation of macromolecules.

3. The most radiosensitive macromolecule is a. protein b. DNA c. mRNA d. tRNA

.

ANS: B

The most radiosensitive macromolecule is DNA. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 489

4. DNA is contained in the a. proteins b. cytoplasm c. chromosomes d. RNA

OBJ: Explain the effects of radiation on DNA.

of the cell nucleus.

ANS: C

DNA is contained in the chromosomes of the cell nucleus.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 489

OBJ: Explain the effects of radiation on DNA.

5. A type of DNA damage that may not be reversible is a a. cross-linking b. base change or loss c. rung breakage d. severed side rail

.

ANS: B

A type of DNA damage that may not be reversible is base change or loss.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 490

OBJ: Explain the effects of radiation on DNA.

6. Radiation damage to DNA can result in a. cell death b. malignant disease c. genetic changes d. any of the above

.

ANS: D

Radiation damage to DNA can result in malignant disease, genetic changes, or cell death.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 490

7. Molecular lesions of DNA are called a. point mutations b. broken side rails c. cross-linking d. rung breaks

OBJ: Explain the effects of radiation on DNA.

.

ANS: A

Molecular lesions of DNA are called point mutations.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 490

OBJ: Explain the effects of radiation on DNA.

8. The principal radiation interaction within the human body is with a. DNA b. macromolecules c. water d. RNA

.

ANS: C

The principal radiation interaction within the human body is with water.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 491 OBJ: Identify the chemical reactions involved in the radiolysis of water.

9. The disassociation of water molecules following irradiation is termed a. radiolysis b. ionization c. cross-linking d. point mutation ANS: A

.

The disassociation of water molecules following irradiation is termed radiolysis.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 491 OBJ: Identify the chemical reactions involved in the radiolysis of water.

10. When an atom of water is irradiated it first dissociates into a. two water atoms b. an ion pair c. free radicals d. hydrogen peroxide

_.

ANS: B

When an atom of water is irradiated it first dissociates into an ion pair.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 491 OBJ: Identify the chemical reactions involved in the radiolysis of water.

11. Two OH* free radicals can join to form a. organic free radical b. hydroperoxyl c. hydrogen peroxide d. DNA

molecules.

ANS: C

Two OH* free radicals can join to form hydrogen peroxide molecules.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 491 OBJ: Identify the chemical reactions involved in the radiolysis of water.

NURSINGTB.COM

12. Free radicals can be damaging because they are _ a. unstable b. highly reactive c. radioactive d. both A and B

.

ANS: D

Free radicals can be damaging because they are unstable and highly reactive.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 491 OBJ: Identify the chemical reactions involved in the radiolysis of water.

13. An indirect effect from ionizing radiation occurs on a a. target b. DNA c. water d. free radical

molecule.

ANS: C

An indirect effect from ionizing radiation occurs on a water molecule.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 492

OBJ: Describe the principles of target theory.

14. Ionizing events from irradiation are considered to be direct effects if they occur with

molecules. a. water b. DNA c. protein d. both A and B ANS: B

Ionizing events from irradiation are considered to be direct effects if they occur with DNA molecules.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 492

OBJ: Describe the principles of target theory.

15. The principal radiation interactions within the human body are assumed to be a. indirect effects b. direct effects c. DNA damage d. cell destruction

.

ANS: A

The principal radiation interactions within the human body are assumed to be indirect effects.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 492

OBJ: Describe the effects of in vivo irradiation.

Chapter 32: Cellular Radiobiology Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Irradiation hits occur through a. indirect effects b. direct effects c. excitation events d. both A and B

.

ANS: D

Irradiation hits occur through both indirect and direct effects.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 495

OBJ: Describe the principles of target theory.

2. According to target theory, the target molecule of a cell is a. any molecule in the cell b. the DNA in the nucleus c. a water molecule d. a protein macromolecule

.

ANS: B

According to target theory, the target molecule of a cell is the DNA in the nucleus.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 495

3. A target molecule that is a. inactivated b. damaged c. hit d. ionized

OBJ: Describe the principles of target theory.

will always cause cell death.

ANS: A

A target molecule that is inactivated will always cause cell death.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 495

OBJ: Describe the principles of target theory.

4. A hit to a cell target can occur from a(n) _ a. indirect b. direct c. oxygen d. both A and B

effect.

ANS: D

A hit to a cell target can occur from an indirect or direct effect.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 495

5. The probability of a hit is increased with a. high, low

OBJ: Describe the principles of target theory.

oxygen and

LET radiation.

b. low, low c. high, high d. low, high ANS: C

The probability of a hit is increased with high oxygen and high LET radiation.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 495

OBJ: Describe the effects of in vivo irradiation.

6. The lethal effects of cell irradiation are measured by cell a. death b. survival c. damage d. mutation

.

ANS: B

The lethal effects of cell irradiation are measured by cell survival.

DIF: Moderate 7. a. b. c. d.

REF: page 496

The -target, single, single multiple, multiple multiple, single single, multiple

OBJ: Describe the principles of target theory.

-hit model of radiation induced cell death applies to simple cells only.

ANS: A

The single-target, single-hit model of radiation induced cell death applies to simple cells only.

NURSINGTB.COM

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 496

8. The DO represents the _ a. mean survival b. mean lethal c. 50% survival d. 50% lethal

OBJ: Describe the principles of target theory.

dose for human cells.

ANS: B

The DO represents the mean lethal dose for human cells.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 499 OBJ: Discuss the kinetics of cell survival following irradiation.

9. Human cells are most radiosensitive during the a. gap2 b. gap1 c. mitosis d. synthesis

phase of the cell cycle.

ANS: C

Human cells are most radiosensitive during the mitosis phase of the cell cycle.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 501

OBJ: Discuss the kinetics of cell survival following irradiation.

10. The DQ is the a. single-target b. multi-hit c. lethal d. threshold

dose for irradiation of human cells.

ANS: D

The DQ is the threshold dose for irradiation of human cells.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 499 OBJ: Discuss the kinetics of cell survival following irradiation.

11. Which of the following types of radioactive particle has the highest LET? a. Alpha particle b. x-ray c. gamma-ray d. proton ANS: A

Alpha particles have the highest LET of any of the listed particles DIF: Moderate

REF: page 501

OBJ: Understand LET, RBE, and OER.

12. The mean lethal dose for high LET radiation is a. higher b. lower c. the same d. unknown

than after low LET radiation.

ANS: B

.

Higher LET radiation is more lethal than lower LET radiation thus the mean lethal dose for high LET radiation is lower than for low LET radiation.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 501

OBJ: Understand LET, RBE, and OER.

13. If oxygen is present during low-LET radiation the effect of radiation is? a. reduced b. minimal c. maximal d. the same ANS: C

Oxygen is well studied and its presence maximizes the effect of low-LET radiation.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 501

OBJ: Understand LET, RBE, and OER.

14. If oxygen is present during high-LET radiation the effect of radiation is? a. reduced b. minimal

c. maximal d. the same ANS: D

Oxygen is well studied and its presence does not noticeably increase or decrease the effect of high-LET radiation.

DIF: Easy

REF: page 501

OBJ: Understand LET, RBE, and OER.

15. The x-intercept of a low LET cell-survival curve is

larger than a similar high LET

cell-survival curve. a. the same b. larger c. smaller d. none of the above ANS: B

Low LET cell survivals curves always have larger x-intercepts than high LET cell survival curves.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 501

OBJ: Understand LET, RBE, and OER.

Chapter 33: Deterministic Effects of Radiation Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The minimum dose lethal to humans is a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4

Gy to the whole body.

ANS: C

The minimum dose lethal to humans is 2 Gy to the whole body.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 504

2. Some radiation victims of a. central nervous system b. gastrointestinal c. hematologic d. all of the above

OBJ: Describe the three acute radiation syndromes.

syndrome(s) may recover completely.

ANS: C

Some radiation victims of hematologic syndrome may recover completely.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 505

OBJ: Describe the three acute radiation syndromes.

3. The central nervous system syndrome occurs following a whole body dose of

Gy or

more. a. 50 b. 20 c. 10 d. 5 ANS: A

The central nervous system syndrome occurs following a whole body dose of 50 Gy or more.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 506

OBJ: Describe the three acute radiation syndromes.

4. Immediately following a whole body dose of 10 Gy the victim would experience (a) a. sudden death b. latent period c. prodromal symptoms d. hair loss

.

ANS: C

Immediately following a whole body dose of 10 Gy the victim would experience prodromal symptoms.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 506 OBJ: Identify the two stages leading to acute radiation lethality.

5. A dose of a. 0.25 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. 2

Gy or more to a small area of the body can cause skin erythema.

ANS: D

A dose of 2 Gy or more to a small area of the body can cause skin erythema.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 508 OBJ: Discuss local tissue damage following high dose irradiation.

6. There is usually a a. latent period b. recovery period c. prolonged illness d. loss of hair

before the symptoms of acute radiation syndromes appear.

ANS: A

There is usually a latent period before the symptoms of acute radiation syndromes appear.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 505 OBJ: Identify the two stages leading to acute radiation lethality.

7. The destruction of a. muscle b. stem c. mature d. blood

cells in the intestinal lining causes death from GI syndrome.

ANS: B

The destruction of stem cells in the intestinal lining causes death from GI syndrome.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 506

OBJ: Describe the three acute radiation syndromes.

8. A person subjected to 50 Gy to the whole body may survive for a. 3 hours b. 24 hours c. 3 days d. 2 weeks

before death occurs.

ANS: C

A person subjected to 50 Gy or more to the whole body may survive for 3 days before death occurs.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 507

OBJ: Describe the three acute radiation syndromes.

9. During the latent period, the radiation victim experiences a. hair loss b. nausea and vomiting c. skin erythema

.

d. well-being ANS: D

During the latent period, the radiation victim experiences well-being.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 505 OBJ: Identify the two stages leading to acute radiation lethality.

10. A local dose of a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 100

rad(s) or more can cause gonadal dysfunction.

ANS: C

A local dose of 10 rads or more can cause gonadal dysfunction.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 509 OBJ: Discuss local tissue damage following high dose irradiation.

11. What would be the most likely immediate response to a whole body dose of 2 Gy? a. a sense of well-being b. diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting c. convulsive seizures and edema d. increased strength ANS: B

The most likely immediate response to a whole body dose of 2 Gy would be diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 505 OBJ: Identify the two stages leading to acute radiation lethality.

12. A subject would not experience a. hematologic syndrome b. gastrointestinal syndrome c. prodromal syndrome d. both A and B

following a dose high enough to cause CNS syndrome.

ANS: A

A subject would not experience hematologic or gastrointestinal syndrome following a dose high enough to cause CNS syndrome.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 505

OBJ: Describe the three acute radiation syndromes.

13. The LD50/60 is the dose of radiation to the whole-body that will result in death within a. b. c. d.

% of the irradiated population.

50 days, 60 60 days, 50 60 minutes, 50 50 minutes, 60

ANS: B

to

The LD50/60 is the dose of radiation to the whole-body that will result in death within 60 days to 50% of the irradiated population.

DIF: Difficult 14. a. b. c. d.

REF: page 506

OBJ: Define LD50/60.

are among the most radioresistive species.

Birds Dogs Humans Cockroaches

ANS: D

Cockroaches are among the most radioresistive species.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 507

OBJ: Define LD50/60.

15. Death from acute radiation exposure follows a a. nonlinear, threshold b. linear, threshold c. linear, nonthreshold d. nonlinear, nonthreshold

dose-response relationship.

ANS: A

Death from acute radiation exposure follows a nonlinear, threshold dose-response relationship.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 507

OBJ: Define LD50/60.

16. The LD50/60 for humans is approximately a. 1 b. 2.5 c. 3.5 d. 10

Gy.

ANS: C

The LD50/60 for humans is approximately 3.5 rads.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 507

OBJ: Define LD50/60.

17. High doses of radiation to a localized area can lead to a. reduction in size b. shrinkage c. total loss of function d. all of the above

of tissues and organs in that area.

ANS: D

High doses of radiation to a localized area can lead to shrinkage, reduction in size, or total loss of function of tissues and organs in that area.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 507 OBJ: Discuss local tissue damage following high dose irradiation.

18. About half of the population will experience skin erythema following a localized dose of

Gy. a. 5 b. 3.5 c. 1 d. 0.5 ANS: A

About half of the population will experience skin erythema following a localized dose of 5 Gy. DIF: Moderate REF: page 509 OBJ: Discuss local tissue damage following high dose irradiation.

19. Skin effects from localized doses of radiation follow a a. linear, threshold b. nonlinear, nonthreshold c. nonlinear, threshold d. linear, nonthreshold

dose-response relationship.

ANS: C

Skin effects from localized doses of radiation follow a nonlinear, threshold dose-response relationship.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 508 OBJ: Discuss local tissue damage following high dose irradiation.

20. Localized doses of 7 Gy to the N skUinRcSaI nNcaGuT seB.COM. a. death b. permanent hair loss c. gastrointestinal syndrome d. all of the above ANS: B

Localized doses of 7 Gy to the skin can cause permanent hair loss.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 509 OBJ: Discuss local tissue damage following high dose irradiation.

21. Ovaries are most radiosensitive during a. fetal growth b. early childhood c. early adulthood d. both A and B

.

ANS: D

Ovaries are most radiosensitive during fetal growth and early childhood.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 510 OBJ: Discuss local tissue damage following high dose irradiation.

22. Gonadal responses to radiation have been observed at doses as low as

_ Gy.

a. b. c. d.

1 0.5 0.2 0.1

ANS: D

Gonadal responses to radiation have been observed at doses as low as 0.1 Gy. DIF: Difficult REF: page 509 OBJ: Discuss local tissue damage following high dose irradiation.

23. The stem cells of the ovaries multiply during a. fetal growth b. early childhood c. puberty d. both A and B

.

ANS: A

The stem cells of the ovaries multiply during fetal growth.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 509 OBJ: Discuss local tissue damage following high dose irradiation.

24. A single chromosome aberration represents a. a single hit b. severe damage c. little damage d. no damage

to the DNA within the chromosome.

ANS: B

A single chromosome aberration represents severe damage to the DNA within the chromosome.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 513 OBJ: Review the cytogenetic effects following radiation exposure.

25. The most radiosensitive cells in the hematopoietic system of the human body are the a. granulocytes b. erythrocytes c. lymphocytes d. platelets ANS: C

The most radiosensitive cells in the hematopoietic system of the human body are the lymphocytes.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 517 OBJ: Discuss local tissue damage following high dose irradiation.

.

Chapter 34: Stochastic Effects of Radiation Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Radiation protection guidelines are based on a. stochastic effects of radiation b. deterministic effects of radiation c. lethal effects of radiation d. both A and B

_.

ANS: A

Radiation protection guidelines are based on stochastic effects of radiation.

DIF: Moderate 2. a. b. c. d.

REF: page 519

OBJ: Discuss radiation protection guidelines.

is a stochastic effect of radiation exposure.

Erythema Epilation Cancer Nausea

ANS: C

Cancer is a stochastic effect of radiation exposure.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 526

OBJ: Define stochastic effects of radiation exposure.

3. An epidemiological study of the stochastic effects of very low doses of radiation requires a

population of a. millions b. thousands c. hundreds d. dozens

of people.

ANS: A

An epidemiological study of the stochastic effects of very low doses of radiation requires a population of millions of people.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 523 OBJ: Discuss the results of epidemiologic studies of persons exposed to radiation.

4. A a. b. c. d.

effect increases in incidence but not severity as the dose increases. non-stochastic stochastic deterministic localized

ANS: B

A stochastic effect increases in incidence but not severity as the dose increases.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 519

OBJ: Discuss stochastic and non-stochastic effects of radiation exposure.

5. Low doses of radiation have been shown to cause a. chromosome damage b. loss of fertility c. cataracts d. radiodermatitis

.

ANS: A

Low doses of radiation have been shown to cause chromosome damage.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 519 OBJ: List the local tissue effects of low dose radiation to various types of organs.

6. Chronic low doses of radiation have a. no b. an increasing c. a strong d. a weak

effect on fertility.

ANS: A

Chronic low doses of radiation have no effect on fertility.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 531 OBJ: Identify the radiation dose needed to produce stochastic effects.

7. Studies of A-bomb survivors indicate that leukemia has a

dose-response relationship to

radiation. a. nonlinear, threshold b. linear, threshold c. linear, nonthreshold d. nonlinear, nonthreshold ANS: C

Studies of A-bomb survivors indicate that leukemia has a linear, nonthreshold dose-response relationship to radiation.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 531

OBJ: Analyze radiation-induced leukemia and cancer.

8. Radiation-induced leukemia has a latent period of _ a. 1-2 b. 4-7 c. 5-10 d. 15-20

years.

ANS: B

Radiation-induced leukemia has a latent period of 4-7 years.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 525

OBJ: Analyze radiation-induced leukemia and cancer.

9. Ankylosing spondylitis patients treated with radiation showed an increased incidence of

.

a. b. c. d.

leukemia cancer early death infertility

ANS: A

Ankylosing spondylitis patients treated with radiation showed an increased incidence of leukemia.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 526 OBJ: Discuss the results of epidemiologic studies of persons exposed to radiation.

10. It is difficult to link cancer to radiation exposure because it occurs a. with severity b. very rarely c. in high proportion d. only in the elderly

in the population.

ANS: C

It is not possible to link cancer to radiation exposure because it occurs in high proportion in the population.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 526 OBJ: Discuss the results of epidemiologic studies of persons exposed to radiation.

11. People who had radiation treatments to their thymus gland as children later showed excess

risk for . a. bone cancers b. skin cancers c. leukemia d. thyroid cancers ANS: D

People who had radiation treatments to their thymus gland as children later developed thyroid cancers.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 527 OBJ: Discuss the results of epidemiologic studies of persons exposed to radiation.

12. People who were employed painting radium watch dials later showed excess risk for

cancer. a. bone b. stomach c. thyroid d. mouth ANS: A

People who were employed painting radium watch dials later showed excess risk for bone cancer.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 527 OBJ: Discuss the results of epidemiologic studies of persons exposed to radiation.

13. Relative risk is . a. expected cases/observed cases b. observed cases/expected cases c. observed cases – expected cases d. expected cases – observed cases ANS: B

Relative risk is observed cases/expected cases.

DIF: Difficult

REF: page 523

OBJ: Explain the estimates of radiation risk.

14. Radiation induced skin cancer in radiotherapy patients has occurred with _ a. a threshold dose-response b. a nonthreshold dose-response c. 100% of the patients treated d. 50% of the patients treated

.

ANS: A

Radiation induced skin cancer in radiotherapy patients has occurred with a threshold dose-response.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 527

OBJ: Analyze radiation-induced leukemia and cancer.

15. The theory of radiation hormesis suggests that radiation doses below 0.1 mGy are a. carcinogenic b. beneficial c. lethal d. harmful

.

ANS: B

The theory of radiation hormesis suggests that radiation doses below 10 rads are beneficial.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 523 OBJ: Discuss the results of epidemiologic studies of persons exposed to radiation.

16. A study of an irradiated population which showed a relative risk factor below 1.0 would

indicate that the population had a a. slight b. no c. reduced d. very high

risk.

ANS: C

A study of an irradiated population which showed a relative risk factor below 1.0 would indicate that the population had a reduced risk.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 523

OBJ: Explain the estimates of radiation risk.

17. The most radiosensitive period during pregnancy for radiation induced congenital

abnormalities is during the a. first 2 weeks

.

b. first trimester c. second trimester d. third trimester ANS: B

The most radiosensitive period during pregnancy for radiation induced congenital abnormalities is during the first trimester.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 531 OBJ: Review the risks of low dose radiation to fertility and pregnancy.

18. Data showing radiation-induced human genetic abnormalities a. does not exist b. indicates responses to low doses c. indicates responses to high doses d. is being studied by the BEIR

.

ANS: A

Data showing radiation-induced genetic abnormalities in humans does not exist.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 534 OBJ: Review the risks of low dose radiation to fertility and pregnancy.

19. Our information on the genetic effects of radiation has come from studies of a. mice b. fruit flies c. humans d. both A and B

.

ANS: D

Our information on the genetic effects of radiation has come from studies of mice and fruit flies.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 534 OBJ: Review the risks of low dose radiation to fertility and pregnancy.

20. The threshold dose for cataract formation is known to be

mSv of acute exposure to the

eyes. a. 2 b. 4 c. 10 d. 20 ANS: A

The threshold dose for cataract formation is known to be 2 mSv of acute exposure to the eyes.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 521 OBJ: List the local tissue effects of low dose radiation to various types of organs.

Chapter 35: Health Physics Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Health physics is concerned with minimizing radiation dose to a. radiation physicists b. radiation workers c. the public d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Health physics is concerned with providing occupational radiation protection and minimizing radiation dose to the public.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 539

OBJ: Define health physics.

2. The first radiation health physicists worked with a. the atom bomb b. x-ray tubes c. CT scanners d. nuclear medicine

.

ANS: A

The first radiation health physicists worked with the atom bomb.

DIF:

Moderate

REF: pageN5U 39RSINO GBTJB : .DCisOcuMss the work of early health physicists.

3. The three cardinal principals of radiation protection involve a. dose, shielding, and exposure b. exposure, shielding, and ALARA c. time, distance, and shielding d. ALARA, time, and distance

.

ANS: C

The three cardinal principals of radiation protection involve time, distance, and shielding.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 539

4. Exposure is measured by multiplying a. shielding thickness, exposure time b. exposure rate, exposure time c. exposure rate, shielding thickness d. exposure time, distance

OBJ: List the cardinal principles of radiation protection.

by

.

ANS: B

Exposure is measured by multiplying exposure rate by exposure time.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 539

OBJ: Understand how to calculate exposure.

5. If a technologist is exposed to 4 mGyt/hr for 45 minutes during a fluoroscopy exam, what will

be her total exposure? a. 1 mGyt b. 2 mGyt c. 3 mGyt d. 4 mGyt ANS: C

Exposure = exposure rate  exposure time; therefore, her total exposure is 4 mGyt/hr  3/4 hr., which equals 3 mGyt. DIF: Difficult

REF: page 539

OBJ: Understand how to calculate exposure.

6. When using the inverse square law during fluoroscopy, the patient should be considered a(n) a. b. c. d.

source of radiation. area linear round point

ANS: D

When using the inverse square law during fluoroscopy, the patient should be considered a point source of radiation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 541 OBJ: List the cardinal principles of radiation protection and discuss the ALARA concept.

mU GR yS rN stG anTdB in.gC1OfoMot from the patient during fluoroscopy, 7. If a technologist is receiving 2 N t/hI what is his rate of exposure when he steps back to a distance of 2 feet from the patient? a. 0.50 mGyt/hr b. 0.74 mGyt/hr c. 1 mGyt/hr d. 1.75 mGyt/hr ANS: A

Using the inverse square law, doubling the distance will reduce the dose rate to one fourth of what it was. His exposure rate at a distance of 2 feet will be 50 mR/hr.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 541 OBJ: List the cardinal principles of radiation protection and discuss the ALARA concept.

8. A tenth-value layer is equal to a. 1.2 b. 3.3 c. 5.5 d. 10.0

half-value layers.

ANS: B

A tenth-value layer is equal to 3.3 half-value layers.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 542 OBJ: List the cardinal principles of radiation protection and discuss the ALARA concept.

9. If the HVL in a radiology department is 0.25 mm Pb, then how thick should a shield be to

reduce the technologists’ exposure to one fourth the incident scatter? a. 0.125 mm Pb b. 0.25 mm Pb c. 0.5 mm Pb d. 1.0 mm Pb ANS: C

The shield should be 2 HVLs, or 0.5 mm Pb. DIF: Moderate REF: page 542 OBJ: List the cardinal principles of radiation protection and discuss the ALARA concept.

10. What is the NCRP? a. National Council of Radiation Protection b. National Council of Radiology Personnel c. National Committee on Radiation Prevention d. National Committee on Random Particles ANS: A

The NCRP is the National Council of Radiation Protection.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 539 OBJ: Explain the meaning of NCRP and the concept of dose limits.

11. The NCRP makes a. laws b. recommendations c. requirements d. measurements

regarding dose limits.

ANS: B

The NCRP makes recommendations regarding dose limits.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 539 OBJ: Explain the meaning of NCRP and the concept of dose limits.

12. The dose limits established by the NCRP are derived from a. government laws b. newspaper articles c. NCRP research d. BEIR and NSC reports

.

ANS: D

The dose limits established by the NCRP are derived from BEIR reports.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 539 OBJ: Explain the meaning of NCRP and the concept of dose limits.

13. The NCRP publishes annual dose limits for a. public

exposure.

b. occupational c. prenatal d. all of the above ANS: D

The NCRP publishes annual dose limits for public, occupational, and prenatal exposure.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 539 OBJ: Explain the meaning of NCRP and the concept of dose limits.

14. Dose limits are based on a a. nonlinear, nonthreshold b. linear, nonthreshold c. linear, threshold d. nonlinear, threshold

dose-response relationship to radiation.

ANS: B

Dose limits are based on a linear, nonthreshold dose-response relationship to radiation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 539 OBJ: Name the recommended dose limits for radiation workers and the public.

15. The dose limit for the general public is a. 1/10 b. 1/5 c. 1/2 d. 3/4

the dose limit for occupational exposure.

ANS: A

The dose limit for the general public is 1/10 the dose limit for occupational exposure.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 539 OBJ: Name the recommended dose limits for radiation workers and the public.

16. The concept of effective dose accounts for the . a. different types of radiation and RBE b. relative radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs c. the person’s distance from the source d. both A and B ANS: D

Effective dose accounts for the different types of radiation and relative radiosensitivity of tissues and organs.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 543 OBJ: Name the recommended dose limits for radiation workers and the public.

17. What is the best approach to occupational radiation exposure? a. Maintain the annual dose limits. b. Follow the concept of ALARA. c. Reduce your exposure to half the NCRP dose limits. d. Wear protective apparel at all times.

ANS: B

The best approach to occupational radiation exposure is to follow the concept of ALARA. DIF: Moderate REF: page 545 OBJ: List the cardinal principles of radiation protection and discuss the ALARA concept.

Chapter 36: Designing for Radiation Protection Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The leakage radiation limit for x-ray tubes is less than

mGy/hr at 1 meter from the tube

housing. a. 0.50 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 ANS: B

The leakage radiation limit for x-ray tubes is less than 1 mGy/hr at 1 meter from the tube housing.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 549

2. The x-ray control panel must show a. beam on time b. mAs used c. positive beam limitation d. automatic exposure controls

OBJ: State the leakage radiation limit for x-ray tubes.

.

ANS: A

The x-ray console must show beam on time.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 552 OBJ: Understand the radiation protection features of the radiographic control panel.

3. The collimator light must be accurate to within a. 10 b. 5 c. 2 d. 1

% of the SID.

ANS: C

The collimator light must be accurate to within 2% of the SID. DIF: Moderate REF: page 549 OBJ: Understand the radiation protection features of a collimator.

4. Positive beam limitation must be accurate to within a. 10 b. 5 c. 2 d. 1

% of the SID.

ANS: C

Positive beam limitation must be accurate to within 2% of the SID.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 549 OBJ: Understand the radiation protection features of a radiographic positive beam limitation.

5. What is the minimum requirement for filtration on x-ray equipment operating above 70 kVp? a. 1.5 mm Al equivalent b. 2.0 mm Al equivalent c. 2.5 mm Al equivalent d. 3.5 mm Al equivalent ANS: C

The minimum requirement for filtration on x-ray equipment operating above 70 kVp is 2.5 mm Al equivalent.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 550 OBJ: Understand the radiation protection standards of filtration.

6. The output intensities of reproduced exposures should not vary more than

% from each

other. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: A

The output intensities of reproduced exposures should not vary more than 5% from each other.

DIF: Moderate REF: pageN5U 50RSINGTB.COM OBJ: Understand the radiation protection standards of exposure reproducibility.

7. Measuring the relationship between the output intensities of adjacent mA stations is a test of a. b. c. d.

.

HVL beam limitation reproducibility linearity

ANS: D

Measuring the relationship between the output intensities of adjacent mA stations is a test of linearity.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 550 OBJ: Understand the radiation protection standards of linearity.

8. The source-to-skin distance must be no less than _ a. 30 b. 38 c. 42 d. 48

cm on stationary fluoroscopes.

ANS: B

The source-to-skin distance must be no less than 38 cm on stationary fluoroscopes.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 551 OBJ: Understand the radiation protection standards of a fluoroscopic imaging system.

9. The is the primary protective barrier for the fluoroscopic x-ray tube. a. ceiling b. floor c. image intensifier d. table top ANS: C

The image intensifier is the primary protective barrier for the fluoroscopic x-ray tube.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 551 OBJ: Understand the radiation protection features of a fluoroscopic imaging system.

10. A fluoroscopy system with automatic collimation must provide an unexposed border around

the image at a. all heights b. 35 cm c. 25 cm d. 18 cm

above the table top.

ANS: A

A fluoroscopy system with automatic collimation must provide an unexposed border around the image at all heights.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 552 OBJ: Understand the radiation protection standards of fluoroscopic imaging system collimation.

11. The fluoroscopic exposure control switch is always a(n) a. rheostat b. automatic c. deadman d. on-off

type.

ANS: C

The fluoroscopic exposure control switch is always a deadman type.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 552 OBJ: Understand the radiation protection features of a fluoroscopic exposure controls.

12. The bucky slot opening in the side of the table must be automatically covered with

mm

Pb during fluoroscopy. a. 1.25 b. 1.0 c. 0.5 d. 0.25 ANS: D

The bucky slot opening in the side of the table must be automatically covered with 0.25 mm Pb during fluoroscopy.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 552 OBJ: Understand the radiation protection features of a fluoroscopic imaging system table.

13. A cumulative timer is designed to of fluoroscopy beam-on time. a. make the radiologist aware b. turn off the radiation every 5 minutes c. prevent more than 10 minutes d. shut down the system after 15 minutes ANS: A

A cumulative timer is designed to make the radiologist aware of fluoroscopy beam-on time.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 552 OBJ: Understand the radiation protection features of a fluoroscopic imaging system timer.

14. Primary radiation is a. leakage radiation b. the scattered beam c. the useful beam d. all of the above

.

ANS: C

Primary radiation is the useful beam.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 553 OBJ: Discuss the design of primary and secondary radiation barriers.

NURSINGTB.COM

15. The intensity of scatter radiation 1 meter from the patient is approximately

of the

intensity of the incident beam at the patient. a. 0.01% b. 0.1% c. 10% d. 50% ANS: B

The intensity of scatter radiation 1 m from the patient is approximately 0.1% of the intensity of the incident beam at the patient.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 553 OBJ: Discuss the design of primary and secondary radiation barriers.

16. At the level of the tabletop, the intensity of the fluoroscopic beam should not exceed

for each mA of operation at 80 kVp. a. .02 mGy/hr b. 0.2 mGy/hr c. 21 mGy/min d. 0.21 mGy/min ANS: C

At the level of the tabletop, the intensity of the fluoroscopic beam should not exceed 21 mGy/min for each mA of operation at 80 kVp.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 553 OBJ: State the standard for limits on fluoroscopy operation.

17. A controlled area is one occupied primarily by a. radiology personnel b. patients c. the general public d. both A and B

.

ANS: D

A controlled area is one occupied primarily by radiology personnel and patients.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 555 OBJ: Discuss the design of primary and secondary radiation barriers.

18. A secondary barrier is designed to absorb a. leakage b. scattered c. primary d. both A and B

radiation

ANS: D

A secondary barrier is designed to absorb both leakage and scattered radiation.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 555 OBJ: Discuss the design of primary and secondary radiation barriers.

NURSINGTB.COM

19. A quantity that reflects both dose and volume of tissue irradiated is the a. estimated skin exposure b. dose area product c. proportional region d. rem

.

ANS: B

A quantity that reflects both dose and volume of tissue irradiated is the dose area product.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 552

OBJ: Define dose area product.

20. The design of an uncontrolled area in radiology is based on the NCRP recommended limit of a. b. c. d.

mGy/yr for the public.

50 10 1 0.5

ANS: C

The design of an uncontrolled area in radiology is based on the NCRP recommended limit of 1 mGy/yr for the public.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 555 OBJ: Understand the basis for the design of radiation protection in uncontrolled areas.

21. Devices designed to measure total accumulated radiation intensity are called a. dosimeters b. integrators c. scintillation detectors d. photo cathodes

.

ANS: A

Devices designed to measure total accumulated radiation intensity are called dosimeters.

DIF: Easy REF: page 556 OBJ: Name the device used to measure radiation intensity.

22. Gas-filled radiation detectors are based on the a. thermoluminescence of crystals b. photoemission of electrons c. ionization of gas d. scintillation of phosphors

.

ANS: C

Gas-filled radiation detectors are based on the ionization of gas.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 557 OBJ: Understand the basis for gas-filled radiation detectors.

23. The is used for precise calibration of the output intensity of diagnostic x-ray tubes. a. G-M counter b. ion chamber c. scintillation detector d. proportional counter ANS: B

The ion chamber is used for precise calibration of the output intensity of diagnostic x-ray tubes.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 557 OBJ: Describe the three types of radiation dosimeters used in diagnostic imaging.

24. A Geiger-Muller counter is a(n) a. scintillation detector b. optically stimulated dosimeter c. gas-filled detector d. thermoluminescent dosimeter

.

ANS: C

A Geiger-Muller counter is a gas-filled detector.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 557 OBJ: Describe the three types of radiation dosimeters used in diagnostic imaging.

25. The advantage(s) of using thermoluminescent dosimeters is/are:

I. II.

small size immediate results

III. tissue equivalent response a. I & II. b. II only c. II & III d. I & III ANS: D

Some of the advantages of using thermoluminescent dosimeters are small size and tissue equivalent response.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 562 OBJ: Describe the advantages of thermoluminescent dosimeters.

Chapter 37: Patient Radiation Dose Management Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Patient dose is usually estimated by conducting simulated x-ray examinations with a. human subjects. b. laboratory animals. c. human phantoms and test objects. d. all of the above

.

ANS: C

Patient dose is usually estimated by conducting simulated x-ray examinations with human phantoms and test objects.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 566

OBJ: Define health physics.

2. The frequency of x-ray examinations being performed is increasing in all age groups. a. True b. False ANS: A

The frequency of x-ray examinations being performed is increasing in all age groups.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 566 OBJ: Understand the importance of reducing patient dose.

3. Patient dose from diagnostic x-rays is most often reported in a. bone marrow dose b. gonadal dose c. entrance skin exposure d. none of the above

.

ANS: C

Patient dose from diagnostic x-rays is most often reported in entrance skin exposure.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 566

OBJ: List the cardinal principles of radiation protection.

4. Patient skin exposure can be measured indirectly by using a a. thermoluminescent dosimeter b. nomogram c. G-M counter d. stop watch

.

ANS: B

Exposure can be measured indirectly by using a nomogram.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 567

OBJ: Describe how exposure is measured.

5. If the radiographic technique for a KUB calls for 40 mAs, what is the ESE when the output

intensity is 0.075 mGy/mAs?

a. b. c. d.

0.40 mGy 0.475 mGy 3 mGy 30 mGy

ANS: C

Entrance skin exposure = output intensity  mAs; therefore, the ESE is 0.075 mGy/mAs  40 mAs., which equals 3 mGy. DIF: Difficult REF: page 567 OBJ: Describe how ESE is calculated using a nomogram.

6. Acute skin effects from radiation exposure have been reported following _ a. lumbar spine b. GI fluoro c. mammography d. angiointerventional

exams.

ANS: D

Acute skin effects from radiation exposure have been reported following angiointerventional exams.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 566 OBJ: Understand the sources of high radiation exposure to patients.

7. For the average fluoroscopy exam the ESE is a. 40 mGy/min b. 80 mGy/min c. 400 mGy/hr d. 250 mGy/hr ANS: A

The average ESE during fluoroscopy is 40 mGy/min.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 569 OBJ: Understand the average entrance skin exposure to the patient during fluoroscopy exams.

8. An estimation of patient dose is reported as a. entrance skin exposure b. bone marrow dose c. gonadal dose d. any of the above

.

ANS: D

An estimation of patient dose is reported as entrance skin exposure, bone marrow dose, or gonadal dose.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 566

9. Bone marrow dose is measured a. directly from bone marrow b. as an estimate from ESE

OBJ: Understand how patient dose can be reported.

.

c. as an estimate from gonadal dose d. directly from the beam ANS: B

Bone marrow dose is measured as an estimate from ESE. DIF: Difficult

REF: page 566

OBJ: Understand how bone marrow dose is measured.

10. The most important variables in determining x-ray dose are the

I. II. III. IV. a. b. c. d.

and the

.

receptor speed patient thickness x-ray production efficiency technique used I & III I & II II & IV I & IV

ANS: A

The most important variables in determining x-ray dose are the receptor speed and the x-ray production efficiency.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 566 OBJ: Understand the most important variables in determining x-ray dose.

11. The simplest way to measure patient dose is to measure the a. bone marrow dose b. gonadal dose c. entrance skin exposure d. genetically significant dose

.

ANS: C

The simplest way to measure patient dose is to measure the entrance skin exposure.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 566 OBJ: Understand the simplest way to measure patient dose.

12. The radiation dose monitor most frequently used to measure patient exposure is the a. film badge b. G-M meter c. nomogram d. thermoluminescent dosimeter

.

ANS: D

The radiation dose monitor most frequently used to measure patient exposure is the thermoluminescent dosimeter.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 567 OBJ: Explain the meaning of NCRP and the concept of dose limits.

13. If the output intensity of an x-ray machine is 0.064 mGy/mAs at 80 kVp, what is the patient’s

ESE for an exam done at 20 mAs at 80 kVp?

a. b. c. d.

1.6 mGy 1.28 mGy 0.64 mGy 0.064 mGy

ANS: B

The ESE is the output intensity times the mAs. DIF: Difficult REF: page 568 OBJ: Understand how to calculate ESE given output intensity and mAs. 14. The approximate average bone marrow dose to the population of the United States is

mGy/yr. a. 0.01 b. 0.1 c. 1 d. 10 ANS: C

The approximate average bone marrow dose to the population of the United States is 1 mGy/yr.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 569 OBJ: State the approximate average bone marrow dose to the population of the United States.

15. The genetically significant dose for the general public is important because of the risk of a. b. c. d.

. increasing skin cancer effects on the gene pool damage to the fetus all of the above

ANS: B

The genetically significant dose for the general public is important because of the risk of effects on the gene pool.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 569 OBJ: Describe the importance of establishing the genetically significant dose.

16. What are the only acceptable techniques for mammography?

I. screen/film II. digital III. xerography a. I only b. II only c. I & II d. I, II, & III ANS: C

The only acceptable techniques for mammography are screen/film and digital mammography.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 570

OBJ: Name the only acceptable techniques for mammography.

17. Glandular dose from mammography is approximately a. 5% b. 15% c. 100% d. 200%

of the ESE.

ANS: B

Glandular dose from mammography is approximately 15% of the ESE. DIF: Difficult REF: page 570 OBJ: Understand how much glandular dose is received during a mammogram.

18. Digital mammography results in lower doses than screen/film mammography. a. True b. False ANS: A

Digital mammography results in lower doses than screen/film mammography.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 570 OBJ: Understand the difference in dose between screen/film and digital mammography.

19. CT is considered a low-dose procedure. a. True b. False ANS: B

CT is considered a high-dose procedure.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 570 OBJ: Understand that CT is a high dose procedure compared to a single radiograph.

20. The period of major organogenesis is during the a. first 2 weeks b. second to tenth week c. 2nd trimester d. 3rd trimester

of pregnancy.

ANS: B

The period of major organogenesis is during the second to tenth week of pregnancy.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 576 OBJ: Understand the periods of greatest risk to the fetus from radiation exposure during pregnancy.

21. Performing routine x-ray exams without indication is acceptable for a. preemployment physicals b. all hospital admissions c. annual routine physicals d. none of the above ANS: D

.

Performing routine x-ray exams without indication causes unnecessary radiation exposure.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 573 OBJ: Understand how unnecessary x-ray exams cause unnecessary patient dose.

22. Which exam does not have one of the highest repeat rates? a. lumbar spine b. KUB c. chest x-ray d. thoracic spine ANS: C

The exams with the highest repeat rates are lumbar spine, thoracic spine, and KUB. DIF: Moderate

REF: page 573

23. Patient dose can be reduced by using

OBJ: List the three exams with the highest repeat rates.

.

I. faster screens II. higher kVp III. increased distance a. I only b. II only c. I & II d. I, II, & III ANS: C

Patient dose can be reduced by using faster screens and/or higher kVp. DIF: Difficult REF: page 574 OBJ: Name the recommended dose limits for radiation workers and the public.

24. Breast dose from a scoliosis exam can be reduced by using the

.

I. AP projection II. PA projection III. lead shielding a. I b. II c. I & III d. II & III ANS: D

Patient dose to the breasts during a scoliosis exam can be reduced by using a PA projection and shielding.

DIF: Difficult REF: page 574 OBJ: Understand how scoliosis patient dose to the breasts can be reduced by using a PA. 25. The dose in CT is lower if the multislice number is higher. a. True b. False ANS: A

The dose in CT is lower if the multislice number is higher.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 570 OBJ: Understand that CT dose decreases as slice number increases.

Chapter 38: Occupational Radiation Dose Management Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. For diagnostic x-ray personnel, the highest occupational exposure occurs during

I. II. III. IV. a. b. c. d.

exams.

fluoroscopy mobile radiography spinal dental I & II I & III I & IV III & IV

ANS: A

For diagnostic x-ray personnel, the highest occupational exposure occurs during fluoroscopy and mobile radiography.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 582 OBJ: Recognize areas of higher exposure in diagnostic imaging.

2. Personnel working in interventional radiography should be provided with a. collar monitoring only b. waist monitoring under the apron c. extremity monitoring d. gonadal monitoring

.

ANS: C

Personnel working in interventional radiography should be provided with extremity monitoring.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 583 OBJ: Recognize areas of higher exposure in diagnostic imaging.

3. The lens of the eye should never receive more than a. 10 mSv (1 rem) b. 150 mSv (15 rem) c. 50 mSv (5 rem) d. 500 mSv (50 rem)

per year.

ANS: B

The lens of the eye should never receive more than 150 mSv (15 rem) per year.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 586

4. Dose limits are described as a. exposure dose b. threshold dose c. effective dose d. dose equivalent

.

OBJ: Discuss the units of radiation exposure to patients.

ANS: C

Dose limits are described as effective dose.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 584

5. Occupational dose is described as a. exposure dose b. threshold dose c. effective dose d. dose equivalent

OBJ: Understand the basis for describing dose limits.

.

ANS: D

Occupational dose is described as dose equivalent.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 586 OBJ: Discuss the concepts of occupational radiation exposure.

6. The tissue weighting factor has a higher value for tissues with more a. density b. thickness c. radiosensitivity d. radioresistance

.

ANS: C

The tissue weighting factor has a higher value for tissues with more radiosensitivity.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 587 OBJ: Understand the concept ofN thU eR raS diI atN ioG nT wB ei. ghCtiO ngMfactor.

7. For nursing personnel present during mobile x-ray imaging, a personnel monitoring device is

required . a. at all times b. not at all c. during exposures d. only for C-arms ANS: B

For nursing personnel present during mobile x-ray imaging a personnel monitoring device is not required at all.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 583

8. The dose limit to the extremities is a. 5000 mSv/yr (500 rem/yr) b. 500 mSv/yr (50 rem/yr) c. 50 mSv/yr (5 rem/yr) d. 5 mSv/yr (50 rem/yr)

OBJ: Explain the use of occupational radiation monitors.

.

ANS: B

The dose limit to the extremities is 500 mSv/yr (50 rem/yr).

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 587

OBJ: Describe the dose limits to the extremities.

9. The lowest occupational exposure of diagnostic x-ray personnel occurs during a. CT b. mammography c. fluoroscopy d. both A and B

.

ANS: D

The lowest occupational exposure of diagnostic x-ray personnel occurs during CT and mammography.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 583 OBJ: Recognize the lowest areas of occupational radiation exposure in diagnostic imaging.

10. The dose limit to the general public is a. 1 mSv/yr (100 mrem/yr) b. 10 mSv/yr (1000 mrem/yr) c. 100 mSv/yr (10 rem/yr) d. 1 Sv/yr (100 rem/yr)

.

ANS: A

The dose limit to the general public is 1 mSv/yr (100 mrem/yr).

DIF: Moderate REF: page 588 OBJ: Discuss ways to reduce occupational radiation exposure during C-arm use.

11. The best way for technologists to reduce occupational exposure is to follow the principals of

.

I. ALARA II. time and distance III. shielding a. I only b. II & III c. III only d. I, II, & III ANS: D

The best way for technologists to reduce occupational exposure is to follow the principals of time, distance, shielding, and ALARA. DIF: Moderate REF: page 588 OBJ: Discuss ways to reduce occupational radiation exposure.

12. Technologists working fluoroscopy should use the radiologist as shielding whenever possible

in addition to the apron and curtain. a. True b. False ANS: A

Technologists working fluoroscopy should use the radiologist as shielding whenever possible in addition to the apron and curtain.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 588 OBJ: Discuss ways to reduce occupational radiation exposure.

13. Occupational radiation monitoring is required if the individual may get

of the

recommended dose limit. a. 100% b. 50% c. 25% d. 10% ANS: D

Occupational radiation monitoring is required if the individual may get 10% of the recommended dose limit.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 595 OBJ: Discuss ways to reduce occupational radiation exposure.

14. Optically stimulated luminescent (OSL) monitors are superior to the thermoluminescent

dosimeters in that they are . a. lighter weight b. less sensitive to moisture c. more sensitive to low exposure d. both A and B ANS: C

Optically stimulated luminescent (OSL) monitors are superior to the thermoluminescent dosimeters in that they are more sensitive to low exposure.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 589

OBJ: Discuss personnel radiation monitoring devices.

15. During fluoroscopy the exposure to the collar is _

times greater than exposure to the

trunk of the body under a protective apron. a. 50 b. 20 c. 10 d. 2 ANS: B

Exposure to the collar is 20 times greater than exposure to the trunk of the body under a protective apron.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 591 OBJ: Understand level of protection provided by lead aprons.

16. A protective apron with a thickness of 0.25 mm lead equivalent is the minimum required. a. True b. False ANS: A

A protective apron with a thickness of 0.25 mm lead equivalent is the minimum required.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 592

OBJ: State the minimum requirement for protective lead apron thickness.

17. The preferred way to hold patients who are unable to support themselves is to use a a. restraining device b. family member c. nurse d. technologist

.

ANS: A

The best way to hold patients who are unable to support themselves is to use a restraining device.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 593 OBJ: Discuss ALARA principles applied to holding patients during exposures.

18. The dose limit for a technologist during pregnancy is a. 0.05 mSv/mo (5 mrem/mo). b. 0.5 mSv/mo (50 mrem/mo). c. 5 mSv/mo (500 mrem/mo). d. 50 mSv/mo (5000 mrem/mo).

.

ANS: B

The dose limit for a technologist during pregnancy is 0.5 mSv/mo (50 mrem/mo).

DIF: Moderate REF: page 593 OBJ: Understand the dose limits for the pregnant technologist.

19. Every radiology department shN ouUldRpSrI ovNide GTaBr.adCiaOtiMon safety program that includes a. training new employees b. periodic in-services for all employees c. counseling during pregnancy d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

Every radiology department should provide a radiation safety program that includes training new employees, periodic in-services for all employees and counseling during pregnancy.

DIF: Moderate REF: page 594 OBJ: Understand what makes a good radiation safety program.

20. There are no circumstances under which a technologist should be given an involuntary leave

of absence due to pregnancy. a. True b. False ANS: A

There are no circumstances under which a technologist should be given an involuntary leave of absence due to pregnancy.

DIF: Moderate

REF: page 595

OBJ: Explain when to use gonadal shields.