TUYỂN CHỌN VÀ ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 8 (CÓ PHẦN NGHE)

ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH

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TUYỂN CHỌN VÀ ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 8 (CÓ PHẦN NGHE) prod. by Dạy Kèm Quy Nhơn WORD VERSION | 2021 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM

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UBND HUYỆN TAM DƯƠNG PHÒNG GD&ĐT ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KÌ THI GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI Năm học 2010- 2011 Môn: Tiếng Anh 8 Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Đề thi này gồm 04 trang

I - Listen to the tape twice, and fill in each blank with ONE missing word.

Nam: Mr. Nhat: Nam: Mr. Nhat: Nam: Mr. Nhat: Nam: Mr. Nhat: Nam: Mr. Nhat: Nam:

Dad, the printer isn’t working.

It is new. There shouldn’t be anything (1)___________with it. Have you turned it on yet?

Yes, I have already done it.

Have you connected it properly?

Oh, Dad. I know how to (2)____________a printer.

Has the plug come out of the socket?

No, it’s OK. I have no idea what the (3)____________is. This manual isn’t very helpful.

Can you call the store you (4)____________it from?

I can, but I bought it in Ho Chi Minh City. I don’t know what they can do. However, it’s under (5)____________so the company should do something with it.

Let’s phone them now.

II - Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others in each group.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

A. wharf A. conscious A. grind A. stretcher A. exhibition

B. award B. contact B. civil B. crutch B. overhead

C. carve C. comment C. compile C. brochure C. highlight

D. snorkel D. connect D. giant D. match D. behavior

III - Choose the best answer from the four choices (A or B, C, D) to complete each of the following sentences.

1. She advised me _________an apple everyday to stay healthy.

A. eating B. to eat C. I should eat 2. Sarah was driving too fast, so she _________to slow down.

A. is ask B. asks C. was asked 3. My teacher told me to study _________.

A. hard B. good C. lately 4. You needn’t ask for__________ , you can use it whenever you like.

A. permissibly B. permission C. permissible 5. He was very ill, __________he had to stay in bed.

A. but B. because C. however 6. He lives__________6 miles of London.

A. for B. in C. into 7. Do you _________my turning the TV on now?

A. mind B. want C. object 8. The letter arrived _________post.

A. with B. by C. through 9. His mother wouldn’t _________her ride a bicycle.

A. allow B. permit C. let 10. Lien can hardly speak any English,__________?

A. can she B. can’t Lien C. can’t she 11. I’ll remember _________him about the letters when I see him.

A. tell B. to tell C. telling

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D. Please, eat D. asked D. hardly D. permissive D. so D. within D. disapprove D. from D. accept D. can her D. having told

12. I wish you _________stop correcting every word I say.

A. should B. will C. would D. might 13. People have received information through the internet __________.

A. last week B. just C. recently D. yet 14. The salesperson showed us _________the washing machine.

A. for using B. how to use C. to work D. the working of 15. When I was a child, I _________play games with my friends in a big field.

A. often B. am used to C. use to D. used to 16. I take part __________most youth activities of my school.

A. on B. of C. in D. at 17. All of you who are successful Olympic athletes should be proud of __________.

A. herself B. ourselves C. himself D. yourselves 18. _________the fighting stopped, traveling across the country has been quite safe.

A. Since B. When C. After which D. Unless 19. My aunt _________us when my parents were away from home.

A. looked for B. looked after C. looked at D. looked up 20. You will become ill _________you stop working so hard.

A. whether B. until C. when D. unless IV - In each of the following sentences, there is a mistake. Choose the mistake (A or B, C, D).

1. He said that his mother was a good cooker.

A B C D 2. He learns hardly, so he gets good marks.

A B C D ’ 3. Don t forget to give Mr. John my message, do you?

A B C D 4. The book writing by Jack London is very popular in the world.

A B C D 5. Would you mind if I turned up the radio? It’s too loud.

A B C D V - Complete the following sentences with an appropriate form of the word in BLOCK CAPITALS. 1. You mustn’t be _________when you cross the road.

2. The police are interested in the sudden _________of the valuable painting.

3. She was very _________of the work she had done.

4. Your English _________is not very good. You should work harder.

5. A letter should always end with the _________of the writer.

CARE APPEAR PRIDE PRONOUNCE SIGN

VI - Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word.

A new university without a library (1)__________recently opened in the USA. All the information normally found in a (2)__________is now stored in the university’s computers.

(3)__________leaving their computers, users can send messages and (4)__________information through telephone lines. (5)__________, this means that each student must have access to a (6)__________, and many universities are making this a requirement for freshmen. College campuses now have computer jacks in every part of the university. Study is no longer restricted to just one location.

Computer bulletin boards are used in the same way (7)__________traditional ones in schools and colleges. The difference is that over 20 million people may have access (8)__________them. If students want to discuss math at 3 am, it is not a problem. They post messages on the bulletin board and find other people who want to talk about (9)__________ same topic.

Technology now means students can get a degree without being on campus. There are people (10)__________are skeptical about this new method of education, but their concerns have had little impact.

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VII - Read the passage and decide which word or phrase (A or B, C, D) best fits each space.

Many British people go abroad on holiday, to visit family, or on short business trips. People are (1) _______to find out how to get urgent treatment before leaving the UK. They have to (2)_______a form which explains what they (3)_______do if they fall ill or (4) _______an accident, and what arrangements exist in (5) _______country for medical treatment. The regulations are fairly simple but (6) _______people do not have this information, they may (7) _______that private medical care is extremely expensive. It is not unusual for people to discover that they do not have (8) _______money with them to (9) _______the total costs and (10) _______such circumstances an already difficult situation becomes even more complicated.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

A. advised A. put A. ought A. have A. their A. because A. look A. enough A. pay A. on

B. suggested B. get B. will B. get B. each B. like B. want B. little B. give B. in

C. said C. till C. should C. happen C. one C. as C. find C. few C. spend C. at

D. spoken D. bring D. may D. take D. this D. if D. know D. full D. have D. up

VIII - Read the passage and answer the questions.

After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man. However, he foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be remembered as the inventor of dynamite, so in 1895, just two weeks before his death, he created a fund to be used for awarding prizes to people who had made worthwhile contributions to humankind. Originally, there were five awards: literature, physics, chemistry, medicine and peace. Economics was added in 1968, just sixty-seven years after the first awards ceremony. Nobel's original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on this sum is used for the awards, which vary from $30,000 to $125,000.

Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel's death, the awards (gold medal, illuminated diploma, and money) are presented to the winners. Sometimes politics plays an important role in the judges' decisions. Americans have won numerous science awards, but relatively few literature prizes. No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War II. Some people have won two prizes, but this is rare; others have shared their prizes.

1. When did the first award ceremony take place? _________________________________________________________________________________ 2. Why did the Nobel create a fund? _________________________________________________________________________________ 3. In which area have Americans received the most awards? _________________________________________________________________________________ 4. Are ceremonies held on December 10 to commemorate Nobel's invention? _________________________________________________________________________________ 5. In how many fields are the prizes bestowed nowadays? _________________________________________________________________________________ IX - Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first.

1. She said, “I’m living in Hai Phong now”.

- She said________________________________________________________________________ 2. I last saw Mr. Tam six months ago.

- I haven’t________________________________________________________________________

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3. He’d rather play football than tennis.

- He prefers______________________________________________________________________ 4. It is such good weather that they are going for a picnic.

- The weather_____________________________________________________________________ 5. Somebody repaired his car yesterday.

- He had_________________________________________________________________________ X - Use the given words to make complete sentences.

1. first papermaking machine/ invent/ in/ late 1700s / by/ Frenchman. _________________________________________________________________________________ 2. There/ be/ different ways/ learn/ same number/ words. _________________________________________________________________________________ 3. new computer/ make/ Japan/ be/ six hundred dollars. _________________________________________________________________________________ 4. In Britain/ milkman/ bring/ bottles/ milk/ houses/ collect/ empty ones. _________________________________________________________________________________ 5. Christmas/ be/ important festival/ many countries around/ world. _________________________________________________________________________________ XI - Write a passage (80-100 words) about what you are going to do this summer vacation. _________________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________________

---------HẾT--------Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất kỳ loại tài liệu nào, kể cả từ điển Họ và tên thí sinh:………………………………………..………………………….SBD:…………..

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KÌ THI GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI- Năm học 2010- 2011 Môn: Tiếng Anh 8

UBND HUYỆN TAM DƯƠNG PHÒNG GD&ĐT

ĐÁP ÁN + HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM I – (5 điểm)

1. wrong

2. connect

3. problem

II – (5 điểm)

1C

2D

3B

4C

5A

III - (20 điểm)

1B 11B

2C 12C

3A 13C

4B 14B

5D 15D

IV– (5 điểm)

1D

2B

3D

4A

5C

V– (5 điểm)

1. careless

2. disappearance

VI– (10 điểm)

1. has 6. computer

2. library 7. as

3. Without 8. to

4. receive 9. the

5. However 10. who

VII– (10 điểm)

1A

3C

5B

7C

9A

VIII– (10 điểm)

1. It took place in 1901.

2. Because he preferred not to be remembered as the inventor of dynamite.

3. Americans have received the most awards in science.

4. No, they aren’t.

5. The prizes are bestowed in six fields nowadays.

IX– (5 điểm)

1. She said (that) she was living in Hai Phong then.

2. I haven’t seen Mr. Tam for six months.

3. He prefers playing football to (playing) tennis.

4. The weather is so good that they are going for a picnic.

5. He had his car repaired yesterday.

X– (5 điểm)

1. The first papermaking machine was invented in the late 1700s by a Frenchman.

2. There are different ways of learning the same number of words.

3. The new computer made in Japan is six hundred dollars.

4. In Britain, the milkman brings bottles of milk to houses and collects the empty ones.

5. Christmas is an important festival in many countries around the world.

2D

4A

6D 16C

3. proud

6D

4. bought

5. guarantee

7A 17D

9C 19B

8B 18A

4. pronunciation

8A

10A 20D 5. signature

10B

XI – (20 điểm) Học sinh viết được các dự định của mình về các hoạt động trong kỳ nghỉ hè này.

Cần đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ vựng, hợp logic, đúng ngữ pháp.

Sai mỗi lỗi chính tả trừ 0,5 điểm. Sai ngữ pháp không cho điểm.

Sử dụng đúng từ vựng, ngữ pháp cho tối đa 20 điểm.

Tổng điểm : 100 điểm - Sau đó quy ra thang điểm 10.

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PHÒNG GD & ĐT YÊN LẠC *********

KỲ THI GIAO LƯU HSG KHỐI 8.

NĂM HỌC: 2010 – 2011.

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh. Thời gian: 120 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

PART 1 : LISTENING You will hear a conversation between a secretary talking to a student. As you listen, fill in the appropriate information on the form below.

APPLICATION FORM. Student’s name :(1)____________________________ Sex : (2)_____________________________________ Date of birth : (3)______________________________ Home address : (4)_____________________________ Hobbies : (5)_________________________________ PART 2 : GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY I. Choose the correct answer to complete each following sentence and write your answers on the answer sheet.

1. His .................towards me is very strange.

A. behave B. behavior C. behaved D. behaving 2. We left at 6 a.m.....................late.

A. so as not to be B. so as not being C. so as to be D.in order to not be 3. Some people are very selfish. They only think of.................................

A. himself B. themself C. ourselves D. themselves 4. Tim’s teacher asked him to spend more time...................Spanish pronunciation.

A. in B. of C. at D. on 5. How much is the car..................in Japan?

A. makes B. making C. to make D. made 6. Of all my friends, Minh is ……….

A. the tallest B. the most tallest C. taller D. more taller 7. We used to wash clothes by hand. Now we have a…….

A. washing machine B. dishwasher C. hair dryer D. steamer.

8. It took me a long time to get used……… on the left.

A. to drive B. to driving C. driving D. drived.

9. Keep all dangerous things out of children’s …………. .

A. hands B. place C. reach D. head 10. Since we have to be there by 8.30, we………. take a taxi.

A. had better B. may C. ought D. are able to 11. It's very careless ………..…….. you to leave the books on the floor.

A. for B. at C. of D. with 12. He hates.......................to do something by others.

A. being to ask B. asking C. being asked D. to ask

13. Let’s go camping in the mountain, ........................?

A. do we B. can we C. will we D. shall we 14. Deaf-mutes can ......................speak ...................... hear.

A. both ... and B. neither ...nor C. not only... but also D. either ... or 15. Did you succeed...................... the problem?

A. to solve B. on solving C. in solving D. solving 16. Last week I ……………my children to the biggest zoo in town.

A. got B. brought C. fetch D. took 17. It is very dangerous ………….. in the polluted environment.

A. to live B. lives C. living D. live 18. Our ………….. resources are limited so we should recycle all used things.

A. nature B. natural C. naturing D. naturally 19. His car is the same color …………. my uncle’s.

A. alike B. as C. like D. to 20. They ……………me if I could speak Japanese.

A. told B. said C. asked D. talked II. Give the correct form of CAPITAL word to complete each following sentence and write your answers on the answer sheet .

1. Relax for some minutes and you’ll feel more ________________.

(COMFORT) 2. The child should be punished of his bad _________________.

(BEHAVE) 3. Mr. Minh has made an ________________to see us at 3 o’clock.

(ARRANGE) 4. Bell______________ demonstrated his invention.

(SUCCESS) 5. ________________, dark clouds appeared and it began to rain.

(FORTUNATE) 6. Every day, there are two ______ from Da Nang to Ho Chi Minh city. (FLY) 7. My country is rich in_________resources. (nature) 8. The __________ she gave last night was marvellous. ( PERFORM) 9. It's __________ to cross the avenue. (danger) 10. Could you give me some__________? (inform) PART 3 : READING I. Choose the correct answer to complete the passage and write your answers on the answer sheet .

VietNam is a country in the ........(1)..........Asia. It has an area of 329,566 sq km. Ha Noi is the .........(2)........ and Ho Chi Minh is the ...........(3) .........city. The population of Viet Nam is about 80..........(4) ............. It has an age - old culture and a long tradition of fighting against foreign invaders. Viet Nam is now a ...........(5)...........country of ASEAN and many other ......(6) ..........organizations such as APEC, WTO…etc. Vietnam .....(7)........ rice, coffee and many farm...........(8)......... Vietnam has ..........(9)..... of tourist attractions and World Heritage Sites such as Ha Long bay, Phong Nha cave, Hoi An ancient town...etc and is now known as a safe and attractive ......(10)...for tourists the world over. Vietnamese people are proud of their country. They have been trying hard to build it into a powerful and prosperous one.

1. A. South- East 2. A. city 3. A. large

B. South B. town B. larger

C. North C. old city C. largest

D. Northern.

D. capital D. wide

4. A. billion 5. A. member 6. A. national 7. A. exported 8. A. products 9. A. many 10. A. attraction

B. million B. friend B. international B. imported B. production B. some B. destination

C. billions C. classmate C. nation C. exports C. productive C. a lots C. departure

D. millions D. workmate D. internation D. imports.

D. producting D. lots D. department

II. Fill in the gaps to complete the passage and write your answers on the answer sheet.

Learning a language is, in some way, like (1) _____________ how to fly or play the piano. There (2) _________ important differences, but there is a very important similarity. It is this: learning how to do such things needs lots (3) _________ practice. It is never simply to “know” something. You must be able to “do” things with what (4) _________ know. For example, it is not enough simply to read a book on (5) ________ to fly an aeroplane. A (6) __________ can give you lots of information about how to fly, but if only read a book and then try to (7) ___________ without a great deal of practice first, you will crash and kill (8) __________ . The same is true of (9) _________ the piano. So you think it is enough simply to read about it? Can you play the piano without having lots of (10) ____________ first?

PART 4 : WRITING I. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first by using given words and write your answers on the answer sheet .

1. Keeping the environment clean is very important.

- It’s ………………………………………………………………………………..

2. The film was so interesting that we watched it several times - It was ……………………………………………………………………………..

3. He was delighted to receive his aunt’s letter.

- He was delighted that ……………………………………….……………………

4. Old car tires are recycled to make shoes and sandals.

- People ……………………………………………………………………………..

5. People think that computer games are harmful -It is ………………………………………………………….…………………….

6. It’s three years since I last spoke to her.

- I haven’t ……………………………………………………………………………

7. Tam doesn’t type as fast as she used to.

- Tam used …………………………………………………………………………..

8. “ Please turn down the radio for me”, said my father.

- My father asked ……………………………………………………………………

9. “Why don’t we go to Huong pagoda this weekend?” he said.

- He suggested ……………………………………………………….……………..

10. How long is it since you used the pen?

- When ……………………………………………………………………………….?

II. Write a paragraph (about 60 – 80 words) about the ways you learn English.

(Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất kỳ tài liệu gì) PHÒNG GD & ĐT YÊN LẠC ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM.

(Thang điểm: 10) NĂM HỌC: 2010 – 2011.

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh. Thời gian : 120 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

*********

PART 1 : LISTENING ( 1 Đ: 0,2/1đ.a) 1. Pham Mai Nga. 2. Female.

3. April 22, 1989 4. 5 Tran Phu street 5. Drawing, outdoor activities and acting.

PART 2 : GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (3Đ) I. (2 Đ: 0,1/1 đ.a) 1. B 11. C II.

2. A 12. C

3. D 13. D

4. D 14. B

5. D 15. C

6. A 16. D

7. A 17. A

8. B 18. B

9. C 19. B

10. A 20. C

(1 Đ: 0,1/1 đ.a)

1. COMFORTABLE 2. BEHAVIOR 3. ARRANGEMENT 4. SUCCESSFULLY 5. UNFORTUNATELY PART 3 : READING ( 3Đ) I. (2 Đ : 0,2/1đ.a) 1. A 3. C 2. D 4. B II. (1 Đ: 0,1/1 đ.a) 1. learning 2. are 6. book 7. fly

6. FLIGHTS 7. NATURAL 8. PERFORMANCE 9. DANGEROUS 10. INFORMATION

5. A 6. B

7. C 8.A

3. of 8. yourself

9. D 10. B

4. you 9. playing

PART 4 : WRITING (3 Đ) I. (1 Đ: 0,1/1đ.a) 1. It’s very important to keep the environment clean.

2. It was such an interesting film that we watched it several times.

3. He was delighted that his aunt sent him a letter.

4. People recycle old car tires to make shoes and sandals.

5. It is thought that computer games are harmful.

6. I haven’t spoken to her for three years.

7. Tam used to type faster than she can/ does now.

8. My father asked me to turn down the radio for him.

9. He suggested going to Huong pagoda that weekend.

10. When did you use the pen?

II. (2 Đ) :

5. how 10. practice

-

Đúng bố cục ( topic sentence, supporting sentences, concluding sentence) : 0,5 đ. Đúng nội dung, có liên kết chặt chẽ, mạch lạc : 1 đ.

Không có lỗi sai về chính tả, ngữ pháp và sử dụng tốt các liên từ : 0,5 đ.

*Practise four language skills: reading, speaking, writing and listening as much as possible - Reading newspapers, watching TV programs, listening to radio programs in English - Taking part in English speaking clubs where you can use English to communicate with other people …

- Accessing to the internet to attend on-line English courses, and use useful websites for learning and practicing English * Improve language competence not only in communication but also in grammar, vocabulary, and phonetics - Share experiences in learning English with your friends - Take notes new expressions, new structures and difficultly pronounced words …

-

PHÒNG GD&ĐT VĨNH TƯỜNG

ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT HSG NĂM HỌC 2013-2014 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP: 8 Thời gian làm bài:150 phút

I. Listening Question 1- 5: Choose the Correct letter A,B or C. Write your Answer (A,B, or C) on the answer sheet 1. What is the man’s name?

A. Craig B. Greg C. Gary 2. Where was the man born?

A. Arizona B. Kansas C. Colorado 3. Where did he grow up?

A. Arizona B. Kansas C. Colorado 4. He graduated from high school about …………..years ago A. two B. three C. four 5. He is majoring in…………… with a minor in Spanish at a university in his city A. economics B. electronics C. politics Question 6- 7. Complete the statements below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer 6. He enjoys …………,………… , and hanging out with friends in his free time.

7. When he graduates, He wants to work for a ……………….. in this area.

II. Choose one of word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. Write your answer (A,B,C or D) on the answer sheet.

1. A. sociable B. commercial C. receive D. special 2. A. speech B. March C. machine D. children 3. A. highlight B. although C. weigh D. laugh 4. A. ache B. chore C. school D. character 5. A. added B. subtracted C. omitted D. stopped III. Choose the word that has stressed syllable different from the others. Write your answer (A,B.,C or D) on the answer sheet.

1. a message B. furniture C. cousin D. invent 2. A. cooker B. folder C. destroy D. injure 3. A. invention B. agreement C. arrangement D. demonstrate 4. A. exhibition B. stationery C. emigration D. introduction 5. A. remember B. dangerous C. vegetable D. opposite IV. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answers(A,B,C or D) on the answer sheet.

1. He tried to give up smoking but couldn’t break the__________.

A. hobby B. habit C. pastime D. favor 2. The doctor__________he should take a few days off.

A. say B. said C. ask D. tell 3. He was more than a little proud __________himself.

A. about B. to C. of D. for 4. The Chinese team __________in the competition last week.

A. work very hard B. worked very hard C. work very hardly D. worked very hardly 5. James is seriously ill; he __________to the hospital.

A. need to go B. needs to go C. need going D. needs going 6. I was born in Vietnam; Vietnamese is my__________.

A. mother tongue B. first language C. foreign language D. a & b 7. I tried my __________not to laugh.

A. good B. well C. better D. best 8. We should learn this poem__________.

A. by heart b by soul C. by many times D. by millions

9. You must improve your spelling.

A. make something better C. become better B. make something worse D. become worse 10. We left at 6 A. m __________late.

A. so as not being C. so as not to be B. so as to be D. so as not being 11. He usually __________or highlights only the words he wants to learn.

A. underlines B. understands C. underlined D. understood 12. I can’t stand people who are cruel_________animals.

A. with B. to C. on D. about 13. The sun suddenly _________from behind a cloud.

A. appear B. appeared C. disappear D. disappeared 14. His wife gave birth to a_________a few days ago.

A. daughter B. niece C. nephew D. children 15. The dead have nothing to _________by telling the truth.

A. loose B. lose C. loss D. lost V. Give the correct form of the words in capital letter to complete the sentences. Write your answer on the answer sheet.

1. You’d better do some____________for the final exams.

(REVISE) (DECIDE) 2. You made a wise____________ when you chose to study Spanish.

3. She was____________ enough to believe him.

(FOOL) 4. You shouldn’t talk about her character only through her________.

(APPEAR) (SUCCEED) 5. Hard work always brings____________.

6. Most teenagers like taking part in_________ service.

(COMMUNAL) (DANGER) 7. This river is very____________ for swimmers.

(DESTROY) 8. The ____________of atom bomb is very terrible.

9. I love the ____________of summer evenings in the countryside.

(PEACEFUL) 10. Trung and his brother like____________ movies very much.

(ACT) VI. Find and correct the words or phrases that are not correct in standard English.

1. Would you like go to the concert with my friends tonight?

2. How about dinner this weekends with the old friends?

3. I don’t know what is he doing at the moment.

4. Let’s me help you with the housework so that you can have enough time for your homework.

5. There are a lot of books in the library but you ought buy some more from the bookshop.

6. The armchair is in the living room, among the TV and the sofa.

7. He learns hardly, so he gets good marks.

8. He said that his mother was a good cooker.

9. The shopkeeper asked the boys don’t lean their bikes against his window.

10. Mr. Nam used to travel a lot but now he didn’t.

VII. Choose the most suitable answer from the four options marked A,B,C, or D to complete each of the numbered gaps in the passage below. Write your answer (A,B,C or D) on the answer sheet.

If you want to prepare yourself for great achievement and have more to (1) ______ to your education or your work, try reading more books. (2) ______ up some of the interestingly informative books and search for well-researched material that can help you grow.

We should (3) ______ our children to read more books and (4) ______ less time watching TV. Some people have commented that this is inconsistent. "Why is the written word a superior way to get information than television?" That is (5) ______ interesting point of view worth further (6) ______.

Reading is a skill that is in much greater demand than the demand for watching TV. There are no jobs that (7) ______ a person to be able to watch TV but reading is an integral part of many jobs. The written word is an incredibly flexible and efficient way of communication. You can write something down and, in no time, it can be (8) ______ to many different people. Not only that, we can (9) ______ vast amounts of information through reading in a very short time. A good reader can acquire more information in reading for two hours than someone watching TV can acquire in a full day. You are able to gain a lot of

information quickly because you are a fast reader with good (10) ______ skills. It will save you massive amounts of time and you will be able to assimilate vast quantities of information.

1. A. contribute B. gather C. collect D. gain 2. A. Make B. Set C. Take D. Pick 3. A. discuss B. encourage C. suggest D. define 4. A. spend B. apply C. train D. waste 5. A. a B. an C. the D. no article 6. A. explore B. explorer C. exploration D. explorative 7. A. inquire B. tell C. require D. ask 8. A. submitted B. handed C. sent D. communicated 9. A. inhale B. breathe C. eat D. digest 10. A. apprehension B. enjoyment C. comprehension D. entertainment VIII. Read the passage below and choose the best answer from the four options marked A,B,C, or D. Write your answer (A,B,C or D) on the answer sheet.

STUDYING ABROAD Before applying to a foreign university, one should consider the disadvantages of studying abroad.

First, a student may feel lonely by being far from home and friends. Also, difficulty in understanding a foreign language can be very disappointing and can affect the student’s grades. It can be very expensive to pay the costs of travel and housing in a different country. Finally, if there is an emergency at home, it will be hard to get home in a hurry.

However, studying in another country is advantageous in many ways. A student is exposed to a new culture. This culture teaches him or her about other people and other ways of thinking, which can promote friendships among countries. He can learn a new language which may be beneficial for keeping up with research after the student has finished studying. He can learn experience not available in his country. The student may also get the opportunity to study at a university where a leading expert in his field may be teaching. The leading expert can introduce the student to the most up-to-date findings of the top researchers in the field. Exposure to such available knowledge and insights into the field can aid the student in becoming an expert as well.

1. ______ to study abroad.

A. There are only disadvantages B. There are only advantages C. There are both advantages and disadvantages D. There are neither advantages nor disadvantages 2. When studying abroad, a student ______.

A. is homesick and feels lonely B. spends a lot of money for accommodation and transportation C. cannot go home immediately in an emergency D. All are correct.

3. When studying abroad, a student is exposed to a new culture that ______.

A. has no advantages B. enriches his knowledge about people and other ways of thinking C. has no effects D. causes some trouble 4. At a foreign university, a student ______.

A. can learn a foreign language B. cannot learn a foreign language C. has to learn his mother tongue D. doesn’t have to learn a language 5. At a foreign university, a student may ______.

A. meet his neighbor B. travel a lot C. meet a leading expert in his field D. All are correct.

IX. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first. Write your answer on the answer sheet.

1. The water was so cold that the children couldn’t swim in it.

->The water wasn’t ...................................................

2. It is six-hour drive from London to Edinburgh.

->It takes………………………………………………

3. My brother stopped smoking cigarettes now.

->My brother used……………………………………

4. “You shouldn’t spend your weekend in the city” – She said to me ->She advised me...................................................…..

5. He spent all his money. He even borrowed some from me.

->Not only........................................................................................

X. Write a short passage (about 100 – 150 words) to tell how to become a good student of English.

Cánbộcoikhảosátkhônggiảithíchgìthêm Họvàtênhọcsinhdựthi:………………………………………;SBD:……………

PHÒNG GD&ĐT VĨNH TƯỜNG

HD CHẤM KHẢO SÁT HSG NĂM HỌC 2013-2014 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP: 8 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút Chấm theo thang điểm 10

I. Listening (1,5 đ) Question 1- 5 (1 đ- 0,2 điểm / 1 đápánđúng) 1B 2C 3A 4B Question 6- 7 (0,5 đ- 0,25 điểm / 1 đápánđúng) 6. hiking, reading 7. Company

5A

II. (0,5 đ - 0,1 điểm / 1 đáp án đúng)) 1C 2C 3D 4B

5D

III. (0,5 đ - 0,1 điểm / 1 đáp án đúng)) 1D 2C 3D 4B

5A

IV. (1,5 đ - 0,1 điểm / 1 đáp án đúng)) 1B 2B 3C 4B 9A 10C 11A 12B

5B 13D

6D 14A

V. (1 đ - 0,1 điểm / 1 đáp án đúng)) 1. revision 2. decision 3.foolish 4. appearance 6. community 7. dangerous 8. destruction 9. peace VI. (1 đ - 0,1 điểm / 1 đáp án đúng) 1. go to go 6.amongbetween 2.weekendsweekend 7.hardly  hard 3.is he doing -> he is doing.

8. cooker. cook 4.Let’sLet 9. don’t lean-> not to lean.

5.ought buyought to buy 10.didn’tdoesn’t VII. (1 đ - 0,1 điểm / 1 đáp án đúng) 1.A 2.D 3.B 4.A 5.B 6.C 7.C 8.D 9D 10C VIII. (1 đ – 02 điểm / 1 đáp án đúng) 1C 2.D 3.B 4.A 5.C IX. (0,5 đ - 0,1 điểm / 1 đáp án đúng) 1. The water wasn’t warm enough for the children to swim (in).

2. It takes six hours to drive from London to Edinburgh.

3. My brother used to smoke cigarettes.

4. She advised me not to spend my weekend in the city.

5. Not only did he spend all his money but she also borrowed some from me.

X. (1,5 đ) - Bố cục rõ ràng, chặt chẽ và đúng cấu trúc viết đoạn văn: 0,5 đ - Nội dung bài viết đầy đủ thông tin: 0,5 - Không có lỗi ngữ pháp và chính tả: 0,5 đ

7D 15D

8A

5. success 10.action

Tapescript Hi. My name’s Greg, and I’m originally from Denver, Colorado, but my family moved to Arizona when I was about 3, so I grew up there. I graduated from high school about three years ago, and I am currently attending a university in my city. I’m a junior, and I am majoring in economics with a minor in Spanish. I also work part time as a cashier at a grocery store. Life is really busy, but I enjoy hiking, reading, and hanging out with friends in my free time. When I graduate, I want to work for a company in this area.

PHÒNG GD&ĐT KRÔNG ANA ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN KHOÁ NGÀY 09/02/2015 Đề thi môn: Tiếng Anh 8 Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (Đề thi này có 06 trang- Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi)

Họ và tên thí sinh : ....................................

Học sinh trường : ......................................

Số báo danh : .....................

Chữ ký GT 1

Chữ ký GT 2

Chữ ký GK 1

Chữ ký GK 2

Số phách

 Điểm Bằng số

Số phách

Bằng chữ

I. LISTENING (3,0 pts). a. Listen to the conversation between Mark and Bob then choose the correct answers (1,0 pt).

1. What is Mark doing right now?

A. Playing basketball B. Watching TV C. Studying for an exam D. Eating lunch 2. What day of the week is it?

A. Wednesday B. Thursday C. Saturday D. Sunday 3. Where’s his girlfriend?

A. In the living room B. In the kitchen C. At the bus stop D. Out shopping with her friends 4. What are they planning on doing?

A. Planning to watch TV B. Planning to play basketball C. Planning on going to Starbucks D. Planning on shopping with their girl friends 5. When are they going to meet?

A. Tomorrow after lunch B. In 30 minutes C. In 1 hour D. On Sunday b. Listen to the passage carefully. Then fill the missing words you hear to complete the passage (2,0 pts).

I wake up every morning at about 6 o'clock or (1)..................... I do that automatically. The first (2)..........................I do is to turn on the radio to listen to the news and see what's happened. And then I (3)......................... to see what time it is. Then I get up and make coffee, and once I have my coffee I go back (4)....................... and I turn on my computer and I start writing in my journal while 1

THÍ SINH KHÔNG VIẾT VÀO KHUNG NÀY

 ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------I am drinking my coffee. And after I do that I pay my (5)...................... and take care of what other… Whatever household things I have to do, like I might (6) ......................... the floor or just clean up a little bit. Then I take a shower and get dressed. Then after I do that I go back downstairs and I cook something to bring for (7)............................. and sometimes I just bring leftovers from the night before. But sometimes I’ll make (8)............................ and vegetables. And then I get in my car and drive about (9)............................... minutes or so to work. I work at a (10)........................... publishing company outside of Princeton.

II. PHONETICS (3,5 pts). a. Circle the letter preceding the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced from those in each group (2,0 pts).

1. A.careful B. notice C. distance D. succeed 2. A. off B. wife C. knife D. of 3. A. blond B. socket C. volunteer D. sociable 4. A. character B. chore C. choose D.children 5. A. advised B. missed C. used D. raised 3. A. low B. slow C. allow D. own 5. A. nature B. natural C. native D. nation 6. A. this B. that C. these D. think 9. A. pour B. course C. resource D. court 10. A. son B. six C. suit D. sugar b. Group into columns according to the syllables of each word (1.5 pts).

Resouce, interest, peaceful, position, education, Vietnamese, sociable, facility, conduct, character, competition, enroll, prefer, peaceful, orphanage.

First syllable

Second syllable

Third syllable

2

THÍ SINH KHÔNG VIẾT VÀO KHUNG NÀY

 ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------III. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (5.0 pts). a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences (3,0 pts).

1. I ...............................my old friend for years A. didn’t see B. don’t see C. am seeing D. haven’t seen 2. ......................will shop in comfort in the mall.

A. Workers B. Patients C. Neighbors D. Customers 3. It will be much cheaper if we paint the house ......................

A. itself B. ourself C. ourselves D. Themselves 4. The cost of the hotel room doesn’t usually ..................the price of breakfast.

A. hold B. contain C. share D. include 5. I don’t think you can lift that case .....................I help you.

A. if B. without C. unless D. and 6. Mai and I live quite near ............................each other.

A. at B. from C. - O D. as 7. Each of us .............................a different character.

A. have B. is having C. has D. D. are having 8. What number have you just ................................?.

A. turned B. circled C. revolved D. dialed 9. Folk tales are ...................................stories A. tradition B. traditional C. tragic D. tragical 10. They didn’t have .............................to visit the whole city.

A. enough time B. time enough C. too time D. many time 11. Tomorrow is Saturday. We ...........................Math as timetable.

A. are going study B. study C. will study D. studied 12. We will plant trees and flowers along the...................... or in the parks.

A. sidewalks B. pavements C. sideways D. A and B 13.You should drive ........................ The traffic is heavy.

A. more carefull B.more carefully C. careful D. the most careful 14. Can you explain this math problem ..........................me, please?.

A. to B. for C. at D. with 15. Don’t trust him. He is a kind of person who doesn’t do what he says he will. He is so...................

A. realiable B. unrealiable C. friendly D. unfriendlly 3

b. Fill each gap in each sentence with the correct form of the word in capital letters (1,0 pt).

THÍ SINH KHÔNG VIẾT VÀO KHUNG NÀY



----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1. We should practice .........................................English everyday. ( speak) 2. He felt .....................................because he failed his examination ( happy) 3. He fell off the bike , but his ..................... were not serious . (injure) 4. Every week, there are two ................from Ha Noi to Ho Chi Minh city. (fly) 5. I haven’t seen him since he ……………this school. ( leave) c. Underline the letters that are incorrect and correct them (1,0 pt).

Ex: 0. She have a red car. ......... has ...........

1. Don’t tell him about this . _ No, I don’t. ...............................

2. He always gets good marks because he studies hardly. ...............................

3. She is more pretty than his sister ...............................

4. He has collected stamps in 2000. ...............................

5. You should ease pain with ice or hot water pack. ...............................

IV. READING (4 pts). a. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word (2,0 pts).

I (1)........................ in Bradford, which is in the north of land. It is not exactly Paris or Venice, but I like it all the (2).......................

We’ve got the National Museum of Photography, (3)........................ of the best museum in the country. And the artist David Hockey was(4)....................... here. There’s a Hockney gallery at Salt Mills, four miles north of the city.

The center is quite polluted, but (5)......................... are some very attractive buildings, (6)........................... the Alhambra Theater, among all the grimy ones.

There are loads of ethnic shops (7)........................ (restaurants. The city is famous (8)......................... its curries.

It has to be said, however, that the nightlife isn’t great. (9)......................... you are looking for a big night out, catch the train (10)...................... Leeds! b. Read the text carefully then answer the questions (2,0 pts).

We all know that recycling paper helps save trees but many of us may not know how waste paper is recycled. Once the paper is collected and sent to the factories, it has to be stored by hand by people trained to recognize various types of paper. The sorted paper then is repulped or mixed with water and broken down into its individual fibers. A variety of machinery is used to remove harmful 4

materials from the mixture. After passing through the repulping process, the fibers must be de-inked. It means that different chemicals and detergents are added to

THÍ SINH KHÔNG VIẾT VÀO KHUNG NÀY

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------whiten the fibers. Finally, in order to be made into paper, recycled fibers are refined or treated in such a way that they bond together.

1. What is the benefit of recycling paper? .......................................................................................................................

2. Where is the waste paper sent before recycling? .......................................................................................................................

3. Do machines or people store waste paper to recognize types of paper? .......................................................................................................................

4. What are added to whiten the fibers? .......................................................................................................................

5. How many materials do they use to recycle waste paper? What are they? .......................................................................................................................

V. WRITING (2,5 pts). a. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning (2,5 pts).

1. They will give her a present on her birthday next week.  A present .............................................................

2. She told her friends “ Please, practice speaking English. ” She asked ..............................................................

3. She went out for getting to the meeting on time . ( in order to )  ...................................................................................................

4. His daughter is not only beautiful but also good- natured. (both)  ...........................................................................................................

5. My father doesn’t type as fast as he used to. (used to)  ..............................................................................................................

6. He last came back to his home village five months ago. ( for)  He hasn’t ................................................................................................

7. Having a vacation abroad is very interesting. It is …………………………………………………………

8. Would you mind if I smoked cigarettes here? Do you mind……………………………………………

5

9. He is too weak to lift this suitcase ( enough) .............................................................................................

10. The boy is playing the guitar. He is John. The boy ..................................................................................................

THÍ SINH KHÔNG VIẾT VÀO KHUNG NÀY

 --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------b. Write a letter using the suggested words (2,0 pts).

1. Thank / the letter. I/ happy/ hear/ you/ have/ joyful/ New Year holiday.

2. I/ receive/ first semester report/ last week. I/ get/good grades/ Math/ Physic/Chemistry.

3. Literature/ English/ not/ bad/ but/ I / want/get/ high/ grades. I/ try/ hard/ next semester.

4. Tet/ almost/coming. I/ help/ parents/clean/ house/ prepare/ something/ Tet holidays.

5. I/ take/ photographs/ I/ send/ you.

Dear Hoa, .................................................................................................................................. ..................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................... .....................................................................................................................................

Write soon and tell me all about yourself.

Your friend Hien ----------------------------------The end --------------------------------------

6

PHÒNG GD&ĐT KRÔNG ANA ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN KHOÁ NGÀY 09/02/2015 Môn: Tiếng Anh 8 Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM I. LISTENING: a. Listen to the conversation between Mark and Bob then choose the correct answers ( 1 mark) 1. B 2. C 3.D 4.C 5.B c. Listen to the passage carefully. Then fill missing words you hear to complete the passage. ( 2 marks) 1. 6.30

2. thing

3. went

4. upstair

5. bills

6. sweep

7. lunch

8. rice

9. ten

10. small

II. PHONETICS: a. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from tbe others by circling A, B, C, or D ( 2 marks ) 1. A.careful 2. D. of 3. D. sociable 4. A. character 5. B. missed 6. C. allow 7. B. natural 8. D. think 9. A. pour 10. D. sugar b. Group into columns according to the syllables i each word:(1,5 marks) Firt syllable Second syllable Third syllable interest Resouce education peaceful position Vietnamese sociable facility competition character conduct orphanage peaceful enroll prefer III VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences (3 marks ) 1. D. haven’t see 6. C. - O 11. A. are going study 2. D. Customers 7.. C. has 12. D. A and B 3. C. ourselves 8. D. dialed 13.B. more carefully 4. D. include 9 B. traditional 14. A. to 5. C. unless 10. A. enough time 15. B. unrealiable b. Give the right form of the words in brackets to complete the sentences below.

(1 marks ) 7

1. speaking 2. unhappy 3. injuries 4. flights 5. left c. Underline the letters that are incorrect and correct them. ( 1 marks) 1. Don’t tell him about this . _ No, I don’t. → I won’t 2. He always gets good marks because he studies hardly. → hard 3. She is more pretty than his sister → prettier 4. He has collected stamps in 2000. → since 5. You should ease pain with ice or hot water pack. → cold IV. READING a. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word: ( 2 mark) 1 .live

2. same

3. one

6. like

7. and

8. for

4. born 9. If

5. There 10. to

b. Read the text carefully then answer the questions ( 2 marks) 1. The benefit of recycling paper is to save trees.

2. The waste paper is sent to the factories before recycling 3. People store waste paper by hand to recognize types of paper 4. Different chemicals and detergents are added to whiten the fibres 5. They use three materials to recycle waste paper. They are water, chemicals, detergents.

V. WRITING a. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. ( 2,5 marks) 1. A present will be given to her on her birthday next week 2. She asked her friends to practice speaking English.

3. She went out in order to get to the meeting on time .

4. His daughter is both beautiful and good- natured.

5. My father used to type fast.

6. He hasn’t come back to his home village for five months.

7. It is interesting to have a vacation abroad.

8. Do you mind if I smoke cigarette here 9. He is not strong enough to lift this suitcase 10. The boy playing the guitar is John. b. Write a letter using the suggested words ( 2 marks ) Dear Hoa, 1. Thank you for the letter. I am very happy to hear you had a joyful New Year holiday.

2. I received my first semester report last week. I got good grades on Math, Physic and Chemistry.

3. Literature and English were not so bad but I want to get higher grades. I ( must) will try harder next semester.

4. Tet is almost coming. I’m going to help my parents to clean up the house and prepare something for Tet holidays.

5. I’ll take some photograhs and I’ll send you.

Write soon and tell me all about yourself.

8

Your friend Hien ----------------------------------------------The end --------------------------------------

9

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN THANH OAI

ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 8 Năm học: 2014 - 2015 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 04 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 04.

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………...

Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi)

- Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: ………………….. ………………………... ………………………………………...

PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts) PART ONE: LISTENING (0.2x 10= 2.0) Listen to a song and fill in the missing words.

I love the (1)...................you changed my (2) ..................

You opened (3)...............my heart and (4)....................

You encouraged me to (5)...................my dream.

(6)................. love all those (7)....................

(8)......................you showed (9).................the way to trust in (10)....................... and learn well each (11)..................

How could I (12) ................. the (13).................that we shared You helped me grow(14) ................. to an (15)................. instead.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) I. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C, or D. (5 × 0,2=1,0 pt) 16. A. christmas B. character C. school D. church 17. A. traveled B. surprised C. worked D. climbed 18. A. tour B. pour C. your D. course 19. A. towel B. down C. window D. flower 20. A. cook B. food C. too D. pool II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. pencil B. raincoat C. arrive D. notebook 1

22. A. enjoyable 23. A. photography 24. A. translation 25. A. Vietnamese

B. power B. minority B. difficult B. engineer

C. permission C. heroic C. unluckily C. celebration

D. explore D. visit D. agree D. product

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts) 26. ______ he is rich and famous, he lives in a modest house in the village. a. Because b. However c. Therefore d. Although 27. Bill Gates is probably the best known and most successful ______in computer software. a. pioneer b. volunteer c. generator d. inventor 28. If you are a student, you can get 20 percent _______ in this shop. a. discount b. effect c. selection d. resident 29. The alarm clock didn’t________ so Uyen got up late. a. rang b. go on c. go up d. go off 30. On Sunday in England, most shops were closed and _________ the theaters and cinemas. a. so were b. neither were c. were too d. so weren’t 31. Could you do me a favor?

- __________. a. Yes, that’s very kind of you b. No problem c. No, thank you d. Yes, please 32. Horace went home and went to ________bed to change the sheets. a. the b. ø c. a d. a 33. How long ago ________ Mai? a. have you seen b. you saw c. would you see d. did you see 34. Household and garden waste _____collected____ compost. a. is / to make b. are/ to do c. is/ to do d. are/ to make 35. I don’t mind _______ the phone as long as you pay for your calls. a. you used b. you to use c. your to using d. your using 26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (0,2 x10 = 2,0 pts) 36. I know all the boys who live in my …………………… (NEIGHBOR) 37. People in the countryside is…………………… (FRIEND) 38. All ……………………between Paris and Hanoi have been cancelled due to fog ( FLY) 39. Do you know the ……………………of S.t Paul’s Cathedral ?( HIGH) 40.Taxi drivers have to have a very good …………………….on the street names (KNOW).

III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets.

(5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 41. Would you mind if I (smoke) __________?

42- I don't enjoy (laugh)___________ at by other people.

43- He (live) __________in this city since 2000.

44- Most of the NOKIA mobile phones (sell) ___________in this shop are imported from China.

45- The children (play)_____________soccer when it started to rain.

2

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. I write letters _____________ my right hand.

47. He congratulated me _____________ winning the competition.

48. Mr. Foster lives _____________ 667E 76th street _____________ New York.

49. I prefer coffee _____________ tea.

50. This area is famous _____________ apples PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) Air pollution is caused ________(51) ill health in human beings. In a lot of countries, there are ________(52) limiting the amount of smoke factories can produce although there is not enough _______(53) on the effects of smoke on the atmosphere. Doctors have ________(54) that air pollution causes ________ (55) diseases. The gases from the exhausts of cars _______(56) also increased air pollution in most cities. The ________ (57) of petrol produces a poisonous gas, which is often collected in busy streets circled by high buildings.

Children _______(58) in areas where there is a lot of lead in the atmosphere can not think as ________(59) as other children, and are clumsy when they _______(60) their hands.

51. A. from B. on C. over D. of 52. A. laws B. ideas C. problems D. regulations 53. A. news B. article C. information D. newspaper 54. A. agreed B. pointed C. disagreed D. proved 55. A. lung B. heart C. liver D. stomach 56. A. had B. have C. has D. having 57. A. water B. lead C. gas D. exhaust 58. A. lived B. live C. to live D. living 59. A. quick B. slowly C. quickly D. slow 60. A. touch B. use C. handle D. collect 51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) As a student I have to learn a lot of subjects and English is one of them. We have English lessons (61)…………………Tuesday and Friday mornings. My English class (62)………………..very big with 50 students (63)……………….different cities in Viet Nam. My teacher often gives us a lot of homework so I try (64)………………..it carefully before I go to class. In class, I listen to the teacher attentively, answer the teacher’s (65)……………………..in English and practise English (66)…………………my classmates. I think (67)………………..isn’t easy to learn English because you speak it in one way and write it in the (68)…………………..way. That is why at first I found it difficult to learn English. But day after day, thanks (69)………………..our teacher’s help and my great effort, I have made some progress in my English now and I hope that one day I can read English books in the 3

originals and communicate (70) ……………………English 61..................... 6 2....................

63....................

64....................

65.....................

66.................... 67.................... 68.................... 69.................... 70....................

III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt): Ha Long- Bay of the Descending Dragon – is popular with both Vietnamese and international tourists. One of the attractions of Ha Long is the Bay’s calm water with limestone mountains.The Bay’s water is clear during the spring and early summer. Upon arriving in Ha Long city,visitors can go along Chay Beach. From the beach, they can hire a boat and go out to the Bay. It is heard that the visitors can find some of Southest Asia’s most beautiful sites. Dau Go Cave is one of the most beautiful caves at Ha Long. It was the cave in which General Tran Hung Dao hid wooden stakes to beat the Mongols on Bach Dang River in 1288.

71. Ha Long is popular with both Vietnamese and international tourists 72. One of the attractions of Ha Long isn’t the Bay’s calm water with limestone mountains.

73. The Bay’s water is dirty during the spring and early summer.

74. Dau Go Cave is one of the most beautiful caves at Ha Long.

75. General Tran Hung Dao hid wooden stakes to beat the Mongols on Bach Dang River in Dau Go Cave in 1288.

PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts) I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt) Your corrections 1…………………….

76. Every morning I spend about an hour to read the newspaper A B C D 77.Once when I was ten, I used to get sick and went to the A B C D hospital.

2…………………….

78. Her grandmother has a big beautiful old brown table.

A B C D

3…………………….

79. I washed my hands, although they still looked dirty.

A B C D

4……………………..

80. Keep the cheeses freshly by wrapping each one individually.

A B C D

5…………………….

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words given in any way. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. We must pay the bill at once.

The bill................................................................................................................................

82.Working in those conditions is impossible.

It's.........................................................................................................................................

4

83." Don't throw things away", Miss Linda said to the students.

Miss Linda asked..................................................................................................................

84. May I turn off the television?

Would you...............................................................................................................................

85.The girls who are playing chess are Nga and Hoa. The girls....................................................................................................................................

III. It is said that English is a useful language. Do you think so ? Write a passage (not more than 150 words) about your idea.: (3,0pts)

5

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 8 NĂM HỌC: 2014 – 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts) Listen to a song and fill in the missing words.

I love the (1) way you changed my (2.................)life.

You opened (3) up my heart and (4) mind.

You encouraged me to (5) follow my dream.

(6)I love all those (7) days.

(8) When you showed (9)me the way to trust in (10) myself and learn well each (11)day.

How could I (12) forget the (13) time that we shared You helped me grow (14) up to an (15) adult instead.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 16. D 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. A II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. C

22. B

23. D

24. B

25. D

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts) 26. 1 d. Although 27. a. pioneer 28. a. discount 29. d. go off 31. b. No problem 32. a. the 33. d. did you see 34. a. is / to make

30. a. so were 35. d. your using

II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 6

36. neighborhood 37. friendly 38. flights 39. height 40. knowledge III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets.

(5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 41- smoked 42- being laughed 43- has lived 44- sold 45- was playing IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. with 47. on 48. at, in 49. to 50. for PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 51. D 52. A 53. C 54. D 55. A 56. B

57. B

58. D

59. C

60.B

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 61. on 62. is 63. from 64. to do 65. questions 66. with 67. it 68. other 69. to 70. in III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt): 71-T 72-F 73-F 74-T 75-T PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts) I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt) 76.C -> reading

77.B -> got

78.C -> beautiful big

89.C -> but

80.B -> fresh

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words given in any way. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. The bill must be paid at once by us.

82. It's impossible to work in those conditions.

83. Miss Linda asked the students not to throw things away.

84. Would you mind if I turned off the television?

85. The girls playing chess are Nga and Hoa. III. In about 150 words write about the person you like most (3.0 pts) - Đúng chủ đề :0,5đ - Đảm bảo nội dung :0,5đ - Đúng chính tả , ngữ pháp: 0,5 đ - Diễn đạt trôi chảy, có kết nối : 0,5đ 7

UBND HUYỆN BÌNH XUYÊN PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH, LỚP 8 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút ( không kể thời gian giao đề)

(Đề bài gồm 04 trang) PART A: LISTENING Section 1: Questions 1-7. You will hear a telephone conversation between a hotel receptionist and a caller making a reservation. Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Silver TuLip Hotel Number of nights Example: 1 Type of room: (choose one) (1) Single / Double - twin beds / Double - king-sized bed Name (2)………………………………..

Home address (3) .................................................... Avenue, Cambridge Postcode (4)……………………………..

Transport (5)……………………………..

Meals (6)……………………………..

Date of arrival (7)………………………………..

Questions 8 -10: Listen to the next part of the conversation and choose the correct letter A, B or C. 8. The customer's mobile phone number is: A. 07976 122577.

B. 07961 122577.

C. 07961 121597.

9. The customer would also like to: A. receive tourist information, B. make a restaurant booking, C. book tickets for the theatre.

10. He leaves a message for: A. Mr. Alami.

B. Mr. El Fassi.

C. Mr. Alaoui.

Section 2: You will hear a conversation between two friends planning a visit. Listen and fill in the information in the blanks from number 1 to 5. You will hear the conversation twice.

Sam arrives at: (1)…………….

On: (2)…………………….

Airline: (3)…………………….…Airway Flight number: (4)………………….

His friend will meet him at the: (5)……………….

PART B: PRONUNCIATION-LEXICO-GRAMMAR Section 1: Choose the word whose main stress is different from that of the others.

1.

A. behavior B. oceanic C. increase 2.

A. decompose B. demonstrate C. emigrate 3.

A. fertilizer B. language C. ability 4.

A. education B. accommodation C. satisfactory 5.

A. canoe B. assistant C. citizenship

D. realize D. separate D. magically D. souvenir D. itinerary

Section 2: Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

1. Last year, Mary paid a ______ to Huong pagoda.

A. attendance B. intention C. visit D. attention 2. Nowadays children like history ______ in a more practical way.

A. teaching B. to teach C. to be taught D. teach 3. - Mother: “Could you do me a favor?”

- Kate: “______.”

A. Yes, sure B. Yes, that’s kind of you C. Yes, thank you D. No, thanks. I’m fine 4. ______ to understand the lesson better, our teacher explained it once again.

A. So as B. So as for C. So as for us to D. So as for us

5. Tay Thien Temple and Binh Son Tower in Vinh Phuc Province have been _____________ as National place of historic interests.

A. recognized B. collected C. signed D. realized 6. Mrs Lan ______ just ______her car ______.

A. have-had - sevice B. has – had – to service C. has- had - serviced D. had- hadserviced 7. Whenever we meet, we stop________________ A. talking B. to talk C. to talking D. talk 8. We always spend our summer holidays_________ A. in the sea B. in the beach C. at the country D. at the seaside 9. John: “I had a really good time. Thanks for the lovely evening.”

Maria: “_________.”

A. I’m glad you enjoyed it B. Yes, it’s really good C. Oh, that’s right D. No, it’s very kind of you 10. It is a ______ skirt.

A. beautiful Japanese cotton flowered B. beautiful cotton Japanese flowered C. flowered cotton Japanese beautiful D. beautiful flowered Japanese cotton 11. She wants to go shopping, but she has hardly__________.

A. money B. any money C. no money D. some money 12. There’s a strange man behind us. I think we______.

A. are followed B. are being followed C. are following D. are being following 13. “I think computers are useful.” - “ _________.”

A. I’m not agree B. I disagree too C. So do I D. So are they 14. Have you had any experience ________ computer.

A. on B. with C. in D. about 15. I think I hear someone ______ the back window. Do you hear it, too?

A. trying open B. trying to open C. try opening D. try to open Sections 3: Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. a. The shopkeeper asked the boys (1.not lean) _______________ their bicycles against his window. b. My room ____________ (2. not clean) yet. c. At this time yesterday, we (3. read)__________books in the library with some classmates d. When we went out, it (4. not/rain) _____________. e. Why are you looking under the bed? You (5. lose) ______________something?

Sections 4: Supply the correct preposition in each space to complete the following sentences 1. _______________ the age of 40, he had written three best-selling novels.

2. William Shakespeare is known ________________ the most famous playwright.

3. I wish you'd stop complaining _______________ your job. Try to finish it.

4. We both thank you _______________ the bottom of our hearts.

5. There is no point _______________ asking Sam for help.

Sections 5: Supply the appropriate form of the CAPITAL words to complete the passage: 1. She’d rather have a job involving creative work or ______________skills.

(ART) 2. He received the award in _________________ of his success over the past year. (RECOGNIZE) 3. Nam’s listening skill is and he really needs to improve it.

(SATISFY) 4. The Scouting Association is the largest _________ youth organization in the world.

(VOLUNTEER) 5. There’s an international _______ between Vietnam and Laos this evening.

(FRIEND) 6. He made quite a number of _______ in his career as a footballer.

(SUCCEED) 7. Would you like to go ________ with us this Sunday?

(PICNIC) 8. The principal always ________________his pupils before the exam.

(COURAGE) 9. The _______ of knowledge for the young is a policy to follow.

(RICH) 10. No ________ details about the celebration have been given.

(FAR)

PART C: READING Section 1: For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word for each space. There is an example at the beginning.

Do you ever stop and think about how much electricity we use every day? Picture a normal family on a typical morning. Dad is switching (0) on the dishwasher, Mum is 1) __________ in her computer – she’s working already. Big sister Wendy is straightening her curly hair with her 2) ___________straightener and little brother Bobby is 3) ___________ up his music as loud as he can – no one can hear him though because he’s wearing 4) ____________ . This typical family uses a lot of electricity – and it’s only eight o’clock in the morning! When this typical family come home from their days at school and work, they will use even more electricity – maybe they will 5) ____________ on their 3D 6) _____________ and watch a film. If Bobby is late home from school, he will heat his food in the 7) _____________ . We all like using technology, but we need to stop and think what it is doing to our planet. We can use less energy and help the planet at the same time. We can turn 8) _______________ the heating and we can switch 9) _______________ lights when we leave a room.

We can also open windows on hot days, instead of 10)____________ expensive air conditioning.

Section 2: Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question from the four choices (A or B, C, D).

Ever since humans have inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot.

Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction.

Other forms of non-linguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people.

While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.

1. Which of the following best summarizes this passage?

A. Non-linguistic language is invaluable to foreigners.

B. Everybody uses only one form of communication.

C. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest.

D. When language is a barrier; people will find other forms of communication.

2. The word “these” refers to__________.

A. tourists B. sign language motions C. thoughts and feelings D. the deaf and the mute 3. The word “wink” means most nearly the same as__________.

A. bob the head up and down B. close one eye briefly C. shake the head from side to side D. close two eyes briefly 4. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT_________.

A. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication.

B. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language.

C. verbalization is the most common form of communication.

D. there are many forms of communication in existence today.

5. Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people?

A. Body language B. Picture signs C. Braille D. Signal flags 6. How many different forms of communication are mentioned here?

A. 11 B. 9 C. 7 D. 5 7. Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact can be used internationally EXCEPT for____.

A. ideas B. spelling C. whole words D. expressions 8. People need to communicate in order to__________.

A. create language barriers B. be picturesque and exact C. express thoughts and feelings D. keep from reading with their fingertips 9. What is the best title for the passage?

A. The Importance of Sign Language B. Ways of Expressing Feelings C. Picturesque Symbols of Communication D. The Many Forms of Communication 10. Who would be MOST likely to use Morse code?

A. A telegrapher B. A spy C. An airline pilot D. A scientist PART D: WRITING Section 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given in capital letters at the end. Do not change the word given.

1. The village is the same as it was in the 1950s. CHANGED The village ………………………………………………………………………

2. Our cat was sleeping on the sofa all afternoon. SPENT  Our cat……………………………………………………………………………

3. Peter woke up early because he didn’t want to miss his flight. THAT  Peter woke up early ………………………………………………………

4. Our teacher always makes us do our homework before we leave the class. ALLOWS Our teacher ………………………………………. until we’ve done our homework.

5. “You’d better not go for a walk”. said my father. ADVISED My father …………………………….

Section 2: Write an essay of around 200-250 words on the following topic :

English learners have different ways to learn vocabulary. As a secondary school student, in what ways you choose to learn and practice vocabulary effectively? Write an essay about 200 to 250 words to support your idea.

--------- END OF THE TEST ---------

UBND HUYỆN BÌNH XUYÊN PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 8 CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2015-2016 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

PART A: LISTENING (20pts) Section 1: 15 pts – 1,5pt /item

1. Double - king-sized bed 2. (Edward) Francis 3. 23 Cypress 4. CB39NF 5. taxi Section 2: 5pts – 1 pt /item 1. 6.50 p.m 2. Wednesday 6th July 3. British(Airway) 4. BA 3025 5. airport PART B: PRONUNCIATION-LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 pts) Section 1: 5 pts – 1 pt /item 1D 2A 3C Section 2: 15 pts – 1 pt /item 1C 2C 3A 6C 7B 10A 11B 12B 15B

6. breakfast 7. Friday 16th April 8. C 9. B 10. C

4B 4D 8D

9A 13C

Section 3: 5 pts – 1 pt /item

1. not to lean 3. were reading 5. Have you lost

2. has not been cleaned 4. was not raining

Sections 4: 5pts – 1 pt /item

1. By

3. about

Section 5: 10 pts – 1 pt /item

1. artistic; 2. recognition; 3. unsatisfactory; 4. voluntary; 5. friendship;

PART C: READING (20 pts) Section 1: 10 pts – 1 pt /item 1. plugging 2. hair 6. TV 7. microware

2. as

3. turning 8. down/off

5C 5A

4. from

14C

5. in

6. successes; 7. picnicking; 8. encourages; 9. richness; 10. further.

4. headphone 5. turn 9. off 10. Using

Section 2:

10 pts – 1 pt /item 1D 2B 3B 4A 5C 6B 7B 8C 9D 10A PART D: WRITING (20 pts) Section 1: (5 pts) 1. The village has not changed since 1950s.

2. Our cat spent the whole afternoon sleeping.

3. Peter woke up early so that he would not miss his flight.

4. Our teacher never allows us to leave the class until we’ve done our homework.

5. My father advised me not to go for a walk.

Section 2: (15pts) Organization 5pts

5

-

topic sentence- supporting sentences (two or more ideas) and concluding sentence; linking words; Lenght: about 220 -250 words

3 2

-

topic sentence- supporting sentences (one idea) and concluding sentence;

-

Grammar 5 pts

Vocabulary and content 5 pts

linking words; Lenght: about 150 - 180 words topic sentence- (one idea) and concluding sentence; linking words; Lenght: about 100 words Mastery of grammar taught on course (grade 8)– only 1 or 2 minor mistakes; free of spelling mistakes

5

-

4 3 2

-

A few minor mistakes only (preposition, articles, etc.); clear, logical…

1

-

Only 1 or 2 major mistakes but a few minor ones.

-

Major mistakes which lead to difficulty in understanding – lack of mastery of sentence construction.

-

Numerous serious mistakes – no mastery of sentence construction- almost unintelligible.

Use of wide range of vocabulary. Content: should be clear, logical and creative with explanations…

5

-

4 3

-

Good use of new words acquired – use of appropriate synonyms, circumlocution, etc.

2 1

-

Attempts to use words acquired – fairly appropriate vocabulary on the whole but sometimes restricted

-

Restricted vocabulary

-

Very restricted vocabulary

The candidate’s essay should include the following points: 5 pts- Organization: Introduction- body- ending- linking words…

5 pts - Content: should be clear, logical and creative with explanations…

5 pts - Language skills: should be free of grammatical and spelling errors…

---------HẾT--------Tổng điểm toàn bài: 100 điểm- Sau đó quy ra thang điểm 10 Typescript: Section one: Receptionist: Silver Tulip Hotel. Good afternoon. How can I help you?

Edward: Ah, yes. Good afternoon. I’d like tobook a room fo r next Friday.

Receptionist: Certainly, sir. How many nights will you be staying?

Edward: Just one, please.

Receptionist: And would you like a single or double room?

Edward: A double room, p lease.

Receptionist: A double room. And would you like twin beds or a king sized bed?

Edward: A king sized bed, p lease.

Receptionist:

Let me see. Yes, we do have a double room available for next Friday. Would you like me to book it fo r you?

Edward: Yes, please.

Receptionist: Could I have your name, please?

Edward Yes, it’s Edward Francis.

Receptionist: Is th a t F-R-A-N-C-E-S? Edward: No. It’s F-R-A-N-C-l-S. Receptionist: F-R-A-N-C-l-S? Edward Yes. T h a t’s right.

Receptionist: And your home address please, sir.

Edward: Yes, it’s 23. Cypress Avenue, Cambridge Receptionist: Is th a t C-Y-P-R-U-S? Edward: No. C-Y-P-R-E-S-S. Like the tree.

Receptionist: Oh, I see. And your postcode is?

Edward: CB3 9NF. Receptionist: And it ’s fo r ju s t one night?

Edward: Yes, th a t’s right.

Receptionist: We can reserve a parking space for you. Are you coming by car?

Edward: Actually, I’ll be taking a taxi from the s ta tio n .

Receptionist: T h a t’s fine. And one las t question: would you like dinner and breakfast?

Edward: No dinner, thank you. But I’d like breakfast.

Receptionist: Just breakfast. So, to confirm. You’re arriving on Friday 16th April and leaving on Saturday 1 7th. Th a t’s one night in adouble room with a king sized bed with breakfast.

Edward: T h a t’s right. Thank you very much.

Receptionist: And could I have your mobile number?

Edward: Yes. It’s 0 7 9 7 6122577 , Oh no sorry, it ’s been changed! It’s 0 7 9 6 1 1 2 1 5 9 7 .

Receptionist: 0 7 9 6 1 1 2 1 5 9 7 . Thank you. Is there anything else I can help you with?

Edward: Yes, I’m having dinner with a friend. Could vou recommend the best restaurant near here?

Receptionist: That would be the Winston Churchill. It’s about a mile from here.

Receptionist: Perfect. Could you please make a reservation fo r 7 p.m. and leave a message with th e d e ta ils fo r my friend when he arrives?

Receptionist: Certainly. What is th e g e n tlem a n ’s name?

Edward: Mr Alaoui. T h a t’s A L A 0 U I. Receptionist: No problem. We look forward to seeing you next week.

Edward: Thank you.

Section two: Ali: Hello?

Sam: Hello. Is th a t Ali? Ali Yes. Who’s calling?

Sam: Hi Ali. It's me, Sam! Ali Hey, Sam. How are you? When are you arriving?

Sam: I’m fine. Really looking forward to seeing you. I’ve booked my flight for Wednesday morning, arriving at 6 .5 0 in the evening.

Ali Great! T h a t’s Wednesday 6 th July. And w hat airline are you flying on?

Sam: British Airways, flig h t number BA3025 Ali B A1325?

Sam: No. Three oh two five. 3 0 -25.

Ali Ah ... OK. And it gets in a t 6 .1 5 , right?

Sam: No. At 6 .5 0 . Ten to seven.

Ali Right. Sorry, th is lin e ’s n o t very good. So you’ll be on flig h t B A3025 on Wednesday 6 th arriving a t 6 .5 0 p.m.

Sam: T h a t’s right.

Ali Good. Well, don’t worry. I’ll be there to meet you at the airport. We’re going to have a fa n ta s tic time. I can show

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN THANH OAI

ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 8 Năm học: 2015 - 2016 Môn: Tiếng Anh

Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06.

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………...

- Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: ………………………... ………………………………………...

Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi) …………………..

PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts) HOMEWORK Sometimes, my teacher gives us homework.

I don't (1)…………………. doing my homework except when the weather is really nice, and all my friends are outside. On those nights, I'd rather be (2)…………………. with them, so I try to get my homework done quickly.

Tonight, I have some English homework. We have been reading a book.

We have to read a (3)…………………. of the book and answer the questions at the end of the chapter. It is an interesting book, so the homework for this is quite easy.

My math homework is not so (4)…………………..

I have to do some addition and subtraction.

I don't mind that, but there are some (5)…………………. that need to be solved.

The problems involve addition, subtraction and multiplication.

I am not too good with numbers. I need to work (6)…………………. on my math.

I just finished a project for history. I had to make a map of Canada with diagrams showing the (7)…………………. of all the explorers.

It was an interesting project because I have been to some of the places that the explorers went to. I don't have any (8)…………………. homework.

At school, we are growing bean plants. We go in every day and see how the plants have (9)…………………..

We write down all the changes that occur in the plant every day.

The (10)…………………. other homework that I have is geography.

I have a map of Canada, and I have to write the names of all the provinces and their (11)…………………. on it.

It won't take me long to do that because I know all the provinces.

When my homework is all (12)…………………., I will go outside and play ball with my friends (13)…………………. it is time to come in.

I am a good student. I get good marks because I like school.

My favorite subjects are physical education, (14)…………………. and history.

Math is my least favorite subject, but I'm trying to improve my (15)…………………. in that.

1.....................

6.....................

2.....................

7.....................

3.....................

8.....................

4.....................

9.....................

5.....................

10....................

1

11.....................

12.....................

13.....................

14.....................

15....................

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 16. A. surrounding B. rubbish C. plumber D. husband 17. A. revive B. victim C. tight D. describe 18. A. comment B. equipment C. development D. improvement 19. A. luggage B. heritage C. teenage D. shortage 20. A. underline B. university C. unite D. uniform -> Keys: 16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from or D: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. excellent B. existent C. extensive 22. A. chemistry B. physics C. literature 23. A. festival B. semester C. memory 24. A. tendency B. charity C. collection 25. A. preference B. convenience C. mechanic -> Keys: 21.

22.

23.

24.

the others by circling A, B, C D. exciting D. geography D. excellent D. tropical D. official 25.

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts) Nowadays, (26). …………………. are so many simple things we can do to stop the (27).…………………. of the invironment around us.

First of all, we should not dump our rubbish without thinking which things, (28).……..………. as bottles and paper can (29).……………….. with great amounts.

We should put objectives that we can recycle in recycling bins.

Secondly, (30).………………. of talking our car wherever we go, we ought to leave it at home (31).……………….possible, and go to work or go to school on foot or (32).……………….public transport. When we have to drive to the market (33).……………….our shopping, we should always remember (34).……………….our own bags (35).……………….we don't need to use the supermarket's plastic bags.

26. A. The B. There C. They D. Their 27. A. destroy B. destroyed C. destructive D. destruction 28. A. such B. so C. but D. through 29. A.be recycled B. recycle C. recycling D. being recycled 30. A. fond B. instead C. tired D. behalf 31. A. where B. whenever C. when D. wherever 32. A. by B. in C. on D. to 33. A. do B. to do C. to make D. making 34. A. taking B. take C. to take D. took 35. A.so B. so that C. that D. so as 2

-> Keys: 26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 36. I have read the …………………….on the newspaper recently.

(ADVERTISE) 37. There are a lot of …………………….in the competition yesterday.

(CONTEST ) 38. My uncle didn’t win the championship, so he felt very……………………. (HOPE) 39. This morning, my car keys were locked indide the car. ……………………., the aside window was open.

(LUCK) 40. ……………………., so many dark clouds appeared and it began to rain. (FORTUNATE) -> Keys: 36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs in the brackets.

(5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 41. Mary and Tom are neighbors. They (know) ……………………. each other for a long time.

42. My grandfather would rather (walk) …………………….than go by car or by motorbike.

43. Three days ago, my family doctor advised me and my brother (give) ……………………. up smoking as soon as possible.

44. Soccer (play) …………………….by the boys in our school yard at the moment.

45. This morning, my elder sister went to the market without (buy)……………………. anything.

-> Keys: 41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

IV. Fill in each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. Young children, not only in our city but also in other cities, are really looking forward …………………….Tet holiday.

47. Our parents always pick us …………………….at four – thirty in the afternoon.

48. How many members participated …………………….the rice cooking contest?

49. My mother is very keen …………………….growing fruit trees and vegetables.

50. The new teacher was very surprised…………………….our English Speaking Contest.

-> Keys: 46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) For many young people sport is a popular part of school life and being in one (51)…………………….the school teams and playing in matches is very important.

(52)…………………….someone is in a team it means a lot of extra practice and often 3

spending a Saturday or Sunday away(53) …………………….home, as many matches are played then.

It (54) …………………….also involve travelling to other towns to play against other school teams and then staying on after the (55) ……………………. for a meal or a drink.

Sometimes parents, friends or other students will travel with the team to support (56)…………………….own side.

When a school team wins a match, it is the whole school which feels proud, (57)…………………….only the players. It can also mean that a school (58)…………………….well-known for being good at certain sports and students from that school may end up playing (59) …………………….national and international teams so that the school has some really (60) …………………….names associated with it!

51. A. at B. of C. from D. about 52. A. So B. As C. Then D. If 53. A. at B. on C. from D. for 54. A. ought B. is C. can D. has 55. A. lesson B. match C. time D. school 56. A. whose B. its C. our D. their 57. A. not B. however C. and D. but 58. A. turns B. becomes C. comes D. makes 59. A. up B. for C. to D. beside 60. A. old B. famous C. common D. new -> Keys: 51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) One of the most urgent environmental (61)……………………. in the world today is the shortage of clean water. Having clean drinking (62)……………………. is a basic human right.

But acid rain, industrial pollution and garbage (63)……………………. made many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes, reservoirs and even entire seas have become vast pools of poison.

Lake Baikal in Russia is one of the largest (64)……………………. in the world. It contains a rich variety of animals and plants, (65)……………………. 1,300 rare species that do not exist anywhere else in the world. But they are (66)……………………. destroyed by the massive volumes of industrial wastes which pour into the lake every day. Even where law existed, the government (67)……………………. not have the power to enforce them. Most industries simply ignores the regulations. The Mediterranean Sea occupies 1% of the world’s water surface. But it is the dumping ground for 50% of all marine (68)…………………….. Almost 16 countries regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles off shore.

Water is free to everyone. A few years ago people thought that the supply of (69)……………………. water in the world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have 4

been ruined by pollution and sewage. Clean water is now scarce, and we are at last beginning to respect this precious source. We should do (70)……………………. now.

-> Keys: 61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt): BIRTH OF THE COMPUTER Most people think of computers as very modern inventions, products of our new technological age. But actually, the idea of a computer was worked out over two centuries ago by a man called Charles Babbage.

Babbage was born in 1971 and grew up to be a brilliant mathematician. He drew up plans for several calculating machines which he called “engines”. But despite the fact that he started building some of these, he never finished any of them. Over the years, people have argued if his machines would ever worked. Recently, however, the Science Museum in London has finished building an engine based on one of Babbage’s designs. It has taken six years to complete and more than four thousand parts have been specially made. Whether it works or not, the machine will be on show at a special exhibition in the Science Museum to remind of Babbage’s work.

Statements T F 71. Charles Babbage was the second person who had an idea for the computer.

72. Babbage studied mathematics well.

73. Babbage designed some calculating machines.

74. His machines were widely used over the years.

75. An engine with more than four thousand parts has been built on Babbage’s ideas and designs for six years and will be sent to the Science Museum.

-> Keys: 71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts) I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt) Statements Your corrections 76. Do you mind to help me open the lights and fans over there?

- No. Never mind.

76. ……………… …………………..

77. A flower grows in the garden is more beautiful than a flower standing in a vase.

77……………….. …………………..

78. Language learners should try different ways of learning words so

78. ………………

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that to find out the best way for themselves.

79. Have you decided up your mind to buy a new car yet?

- Oh, no. Not yet!

…………………..

79. ……………….. ………….………..

80. Mrs. Linh’s bicycle stole three days ago while she was in the book 80. …….………… store with her daughter. ……………………

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, beginning with the words given: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. I haven’t eaten this kind of food before.

-> This is the first ..………………………………………………….…………….…………..

82. My brother started working in that factory five years ago.

-> My brother has……………………………..

83. How long is it since they built the house?

-> When ………………………………………………………………………………………..

84. “ You shouldn’t spend your weekend in this city next month.” She said.

-> She advised me……………………………………………………………………………

85. A very famous architect designed our house.

-> Our house……………………………… ...............................................................................

III. Write a passage (at least 180 words) tell about your Tet holiday: (3,0pts) (Don’t show your proper name, your address or your school)

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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 8 NĂM HỌC: 2015 – 2016 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts) 1. mind

2. outside

3. chapter

4. easy

5. problems

6. harder

7. routes

8. science

9. grown

10. only

11. capitals

12. done

13. until

14. English

15. marks

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 16. A.surrounding

17. B. victim

18. A. comment

19. C. teenage

20. A. underline

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. excellent

22. D. geography 23. B. semester

24. C. collection

25. A. preference

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences.

(10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts) 26. B. There

27. D.destruction

28. A. such

29. A. instead

30. B. recycling

31. B. whenever

32. A. by

33. B. to do

34. C. to take

35. B. so that

II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space.

(5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 7

36. advertisement

37. contestants

38. hopeless

39. Luckily

40. Unfortunately

III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets.

(5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 41. have known

42. walk

43. to give

44. is being played

45. buying

IV. Fill in each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. to

47. up

48. in

49. on

50. at

PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 51. B. of

52. D. If

53. C. from

54. C. can

55. B. match

56. D. their

57. A. not

58. B. becomes

59. B. for

60. B. famous

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 61. problems

62. water

63. have

64. lakes

65. including

66. being

67. did

68. pollution

69. clean

70. something

III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt): 71. F

72. T

73. T

74. F

75. T

PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts) I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt) 76. to help -> helping

77. grows -> growing

78. that -> as

79. decided -> made

80. stole -> was stolen

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, beginning with the words given: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. This is the first time I have eaten this kind of food.

82. My brother has worked/ (has been working) in that factory for five years.

83. When did they begin building the house?/ When did they build the house?

84. She advised me not to spend my weekend in that city the next/following month.

85. Our house was designed by a very famous architect.

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III. Write a passage (at least 180 words) tell about your Tet holiday: (3,0pts) Bài viết phải bao gồm những ý sau: 1. Mở bài: Phải có tiêu đề bài viết và nêu được những ý chung về chủ đề ngày Tết như: Nêu được Tết diễn ra vào thời gian nào ở Việt Nam. (được 0,25 điểm) 2. Thân bài: Kể được một số hoạt động trong dịp Tết như việc đi chúc tết người thân hay họ hàng…, những món ăn đặc biệt trong ngày Tết như bánh trưng, mứt…. (được 1,5 điểm) 3. Kết luận: Nêu được cảm xúc về ngày Tết truyền thống đó….. (được 0,25 điểm) Chú ý: Bài viết không được nêu tên riêng của học sinh, tên giáo viên dạy, tên nơi ở, tên trường học. Nếu có thì bài sẽ không được tính điểm.

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ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8 Môn: Tiếng Anh Năm học: 2016-2017 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi gồm 06 trang) Họ và tên: …………………………………Số báo danh:…………

Ngày sinh:..…………………………….........................…………..

Trường THCS: ……………….…………………………………….

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC – ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN NAM TRỰC

Giám thị 1:.........................................

Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi này

Số phách

Giám thị 2:......................................... ______________________________________________________________________

Điểm bài thi Bằng số: ….....................

Họ, tên và chữ ký 2 Giám khảo Giám khảo 1:………………………..

Bằng chữ:………......….

Giám khảo 2:………………………..

Số phách

PART I: LISTENING (3.0 points) Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu: -

Phần nghe gồm 2 bài, mỗi bài thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, đĩa CD tự chạy 2 lần.

-

Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.

-

Hướng dẫn làm bài chi tiết cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

SECTION 1: (2.0 points) You’re a member of the staff in a lost property office in a department store. A woman comes to your office to report that she has lost something. As you listen, fill in the report form with the information she gives you.

LOST PROPERTY REPORT Item 1.__________________________________ Total value 2.__________________________________ Shape 3.__________________________________ Material 4.__________________________________ Color 5.__________________________________ Last time noted 6.__________________________________ Last place noted 7.__________________________________ If found, notify: Name 8.__________________________________ Address 9.__________________________________ Phone No 10._________________________________

1

SECTION 2: (1.0 point) You are going to listen to a conversation. As you listen, complete the notes below, using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in each space.

Napoleon was born in (1)______________on the island of Corsica. When he was ten, his father sent him to a military school. Napoleon was not a brilliant student but he excelled in (2)______________and military science. When he was 16 years old he joined the French army. His military career brought him fame, (3) ______________ and riches. He became a general when he was only(4) ______________years old and a few later he became an emperor of France. His coronation ceremony was at Notre Dame on(5)______________. Napoleon won many military victories because his soldiers were ready to die for him. He was a great military leader.

PART II- PHONETIC (1.0 point) I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 pt) 1. A. unite B. underline C. university D. uniform 2. A. school B. chemist C. machine D. ache 3. A. nature B. natural C. suitcase D. baseball 4. A. exercise B. excited C. experiment D. example 5. A. teammate B. speaker C. meaning D. overhead II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 point) 1. A. comprise B. depend C. design D. novel 2. A. tropical B. collection C. difficult D. charity 3. A. friendliness B. occasion C. pagoda D. deposit 4. A. importing B. specific C. impolite D. important 5. A. celebration B. unpolluted C. disappearing D. profitable PART III- VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6.0 points) I. Circle the word or phrase that best complete each sentence (2.0 points).

1. He is getting married _______ a famous film star this weekend.

A. with B. to C. for D. after 2. The heavy rain has caused _______in many parts of the country.

A. storms B. droughts C. typhoon D. floods 2

3. Deaf-mutes can_______ speak_______ hear.

A. both/ and B. either/ or C. neither/ nor

D. not only/ but also

4. He hates_______to do something by others.

A. to be asked B. asking C. being asked D. to ask 5. Hoa is reading short stories _______ Jack London.

A. of B. from C. by D. with 6. We are going to _______ a small plane to Ha Long Bay this weekend.

A. drive B. ride C. take D. give 7. Thanks _______ Alexander Graham Bell’s invention, I can communicate with each other easily.

A. for B. from C. on D. to 8. We must _______the environment from the pollution every day.

A. save B. protest C. protect D. waste 9. In our opinion, there are a lot of differences _______ two twins.

A. from B. without C. with D. between 10. Practising _______English anywhere you can is a way to better your speaking skill.

A. speak B. speaking C. to speak D. for speaking II. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets (2.0 points).

1. You must read the following_______precaution carefully.

2. My brother and Trung like_______movie very much.

3. Although he tried his best to do it, he was_______.

4. This stadium looks larger. It has been_______.

5. Lan fell off the bike, but her_______were not serious.

6. We watch the news everyday because it's very_______.

7. The police are interested in the sudden _______of the valuable painting.

8. Let me get an _______form and I can fill out.

9. Phuong Linh arranged flowers the most_______in the contest.

10. It is a contest in which_______have to read two poems in English.

Your answers: 1 2 3 4 6 7 8 9

(SAFE) (ACT) (SUCCESS) (LARGE) (INJURE) (INFORM) (APPEAR) (APPLY) (ATTRACT) (PARTICIPATE) 5 10

III. Complete each space in the following sentence with a suitable preposition (2.0 points).

1. Could I help you ______________ your bag?

2. Na got up late this morning because her alarm clock didn’t go ___________ .

3. I’m looking forward ____________ seeing you in June.

4. In the competition, everyone fell ______________ the deep and dangerous water.

5. Ha Long Bay is recognized _____________ UNESCO as a World Heritage Site 6. They have a meeting ___________ 6.30 and 9.30.

7. My mother often picks me ___________ from the school.

8. I’m going to invite my friends to come over ___________ dinner tonight.

9. Next summer, my family will have a vacation _________Thailand and stay there ________ one week.

PART IV: READING (5.0 points) I. Read the passage carefully then choose the best answer A, B or C for each question.(1.0 point) In order to help solve the problem of pollution, people have to be aware of its causes, some of 3

which are quite obvious in everyday life. In many cities people are forced to breathe in polluted air, commonly known as smog, which is a mixture of gases sent out by car exhausts and factory chimneys.

What can be done to reduce air pollution is to remove factories from cities and use lead-free petrol in cars.

The pollution of rivers, lakes and seas leads to the death of the creatures that live in them. Factories are largely responsible for the present situation, which is expected to worsen if governments do not make them to obey the law against pollution and punish industries which pollute water.

Finally, all over the world, especially in cities, we see huge amounts of rubbish in the streets, which we are responsible for. The rubbish collection system often does not work properly and people themselves add to the problem by dropping litter in the streets. There is so much we could do to help solve the problem. The point is how willing are we to do something about it?

1. In order to help solve the problem of pollution, A. People need to know what causes it.

B. People don’t need to know what causes it.

C. People have to do something immediately.

D. People don’t need to do anything about it.

2. Smog is caused by A. cars only B. factories only.

C. cars and factories.

D. air 3. The pollution of rivers, lakes and seas is largely caused by A. car exhausts.

B. lead-free petrol in cars.

C. factories.

D. creatures.

4. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. People add to the problem of pollution by collecting rubbish.

B. People add to the problem of pollution by dropping litter.

C. Huge amounts of rubbish in the cities cause pollution.

D. We are responsible for huge amounts of rubbish in the cities.

5. The opposite of the word properly in the passage is A. unproperly B. disproperly C. improperly D. inproperly II. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (2.0 points) Rivers are on of the world’s most important natural resources. Many cities are on the large rivers, and (1)………….. every country has a least one river that (2)……….. an important part in the lives of its people. Besides transportation, rivers (3)………………..water for crops, water to drink , and recreation for people who live along their (4)………….. And in (5)………….to get water for crops, engineers sometimes build a dam (6)…………a river and let water become a lake behind the dam. Then people can use their water not (7)……………..to irrigate fields but also to make electricity for homes and industries.

(8)………….the water often becomes polluted when cities on river bank grow (9)…………….and the number of industries increases. We are learning that it is necessary to (10)…………rivers clean if we want to enjoy the benefits of the natural resources.

Your answers: 1 6

2 7

3 8

4 9

5 10 4

III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to complete it by circling A, B, C, or D.(2.0 points) Have you ever been to Britain? I’ve dreamed of going there (1) ______ I was a little girl and finally, (2) ______ the spring of 2012, it happened. I was there three weeks and (3) ______ much of that time soaking up the culture, history, and scenery of this incredible island. I visited several districts in England, Wales and Scotland and even (4) ______ a site trip to Ireland. Every place I went to seemed to be more interesting and more beautiful (5) ______ the last.

The tour I was with began in London. Of all the sights I saw there, the Tower of London was the most (6) ______. The Tower is a building complex of incredibly rich history.

Also on the Thames are the Houses of Parliament and, of course, the clock tower housing “Big Ben”. I saw so many landmarks I can hardly remember them all. Although it was just a glimpse of London I did, (7) ______, get a chance to see all the (8)______ famous places.

After (9) ______ of days in London we traveled to the south of England stopping to visit Stonehenge. If you don’t know about Stonehenge there are a couple of links on my links page that will (10) ______ you to sites that can fill you in.

1. A. for B. while C. since D. because 2. A. on B. in C. at D. to 3. A. spent B. took C. did D. used 4. A. did B. got C. spent D. made 5. A. then B. as C. with D. than 6. A. interesting B. interested C. interest D. interestingly 7. A. at first B. at all C. at least D. at that 8. A. more B. much C. most D. many 9. A. few B. some C. a couple D. little 10. A. reach B. take C. make D. send PART V: WRITING (5.0 points) I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before (2.0points).

1. He failed the exam because of his laziness.

-> Because he .....................................................................................................................

2. How long is it since he learnt French ?

->When……………………………………………………………………………………

3. “Don’t forget to bring your passports with you when you go abroad.”

-> She reminded …………………………………………………………………………..

4. My neighbor repaired my bike yesterday.

-> I had ................................................................................................................................

5. My grandma used to tell me folktales when I was young.

-> I ………………………………………………………………………………………...

6. She is proud of being such a good cook.

-> She prides........................................................................................................................

7. Do you want me to empty the basket?

-> Would …….................…………………………………………………..……………..

8. When you phoned me, it was my lunchtime.

-> I was ..............................................................................................................................

5

9. Daisy finds it easy to make friends.

-> Daisy has no ..................................................................................................................

10. We haven’t met one another since we left school.

-> The last time...................................................................................................................

II. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first. Do not change the given bold word form and do not write more than 5 words. (1.0 point) 1. May I turn on the television? (mind) Do you ……………………………………….. the television?

2. It has rained for three hours . (started) It …………………………………………………three hours ago.

3. “Don’t open the door.” - Mrs. Thanh said to the students. (asked) Mrs. Thanh……………………………………. the door.

4. Doing morning exercise every day is good for us. (do) It is ……………………………………………morning exercise.

5. “Why don’t you take a long rest, Peter?” said Ann. (suggested) Ann ……………………………………………a long rest.

III. Composition. (2.0 points) Write a letter to your friend to share your experiences about the ways to learn English vocabulary (within 120-150 words). ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................................

6

............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................................

The end!

PHÒNG GD - ĐT NAM TRỰC

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8 Môn: TIẾNG ANH Năm học 2016-2017 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút PART I. LISTENING (3.0 points)

SECTION 1. (2.0 points) - 0.2p for each correct answer.

1. handbag 6. 2.30pm

2. £250 7. Coffee shop / 6th floor

3. oval 8. Janet Thomas

4. Leather 9. 25 King Street

5. black and white 10. 4237689

SECTION 2. (1.0 point) - 0.2p for each correct answer.

1. 1769

2. Mathematics/ math(s)

3. power

4. 24

December 2nd/ the second of December

PART II- PHONETIC (1.0 point) I. Choose the word which is pronounced differently from the others. (0.5 point) 0.1p for each correct answer.

1.B 2.C

3.B

4.A

5.D

II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 point) 0.1p for each correct answer.

1.D. 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.D PART III- VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6.0 points) I. Circle the word or phrase that best complete each sentence (2.0 points).

0.2p for each correct answer.

1.B 6.C

2.D 7.D

3.C 8.C

4.C 9.D

5.C 10.B 7

II. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets(2.0 points) .

0.2p for each correct answer.

1.SAFETY 2. ACTION 3. UNSUCCESSFUL 4. ENLARGED 5.INJURIES 6. INFORMATIVE 7. DISAPPEARANCE/REAPPEARANCE 8.APPLICATION 9.ATTRACTIVELY 10.PARTICIPANTS III. Complete each space in the following sentence with a suitable preposition (2.0 points) 0.2p for each correct answer.

1. with 2. off 3. to 4. into 5.by 6. between 7. up 8. for 9. in / for PART IV: READING (5.0 points) I. Read the passage carefully then choose the best answer A, B or C for each question.(1.0 point) 0.2p for each correct answer.

1.A 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.A II. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (2.0 points) 0.2p for each correct answer.

1. almost 2. plays 3. provide/ supply 4. banks 5. order 6. across 7. only 8. However 9. inside 10. keep III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to complete it by circling A, B, C, or D.(2.0 points) 0.2p for each correct answer.

1. C 6. A

2. B 7. C

3. A 8. C

4. D 5. D 9. C 10. B PART V : WRITING ( 5.0 points) I.Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before(2.0points).

0.2p for each correct answer.

1. Because he was lazy, he failed the exam.

2. When did he start to learn / learning French?

3. She reminded me to bring my passports with me when I went abroad.

4. I had my neighbor repair my bike yesterday. / I had my bike repaired by my neighbor yesterday.

5. I used to be told folktales by my grandma when I was young.

6. She prides herself on her cooking.

7. Would you mind if I emptied the basket?

8. I was having lunch when you phoned me.

9. Daisy has no difficulties / difficulty (in) making friends.

10. The last time we met one another was when we left school.

II. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first. Do not change the given bold word form and do not write more than 5 words. (1.0 point) 0.2p for each correct answer.

1. Do you mind if I turn on the television?

2. It started raining/ to rain three hours.

8

3. Mrs. Thanh asked the students not to open the door.

4. It is good for us to do morning exercise every day.

5. Ann suggested (that) Peter (should) take a long rest.

III. Composition. (2.0 points).

Write a letter to your friend to share your experiences about the ways to learn English vocabulary (within 120-150 words) - Học sinh viết đúng format của 1 bức thư.

- Nội dung đảm bảo đủ ý về 1 số phương pháp học từ vựng hiệu quả trong tiếng Anh. - Sử dụng đa dạng từ vựng và các cấu trúc.

- Sai ngữ pháp không cho điểm. Điểm toàn bài làm tròn đến 0.25 đ

9

TRƯỜNG THCS TAM DƯƠNG

ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (Đề thi gồm 05 trang)

PART I: LISTENING (3.0 points) SECTION 1: (2.0 points) You’re a member of the staff in a lost property office in a department store. A woman comes to your office to report that she has lost something. As you listen, fill in the report form with the information she gives you.

Item Total value Shape Material Color Last time noted Last place noted If found, notify: Name Address Phone No

LOST PROPERTY REPORT 1.__________________________________ 2.__________________________________ 3.__________________________________ 4.__________________________________ 5.__________________________________ 6.__________________________________ 7.__________________________________ 8.__________________________________ 9.__________________________________ 10._________________________________

SECTION 2: (1.0 point) You are going to listen to a conversation. As you listen, complete the notes below, using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in each space.

Napoleon was born in (1)______________on the island of Corsica. When he was ten, his father sent him to a military school. Napoleon was not a brilliant student but he excelled in (2)______________and military science. When he was 16 years old he joined the French army. His military career brought him fame, (3) ______________ and riches. He became a general when he was only(4) ______________years old and a few later he became an emperor of France. His coronation ceremony was at Notre Dame on(5)______________. Napoleon won many military victories because his soldiers were ready to die for him. He was a great military leader.

PART II- PHONETIC (1.0 point) I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 pt) 1. A. unite B. underline C. university D. uniform 2. A. school B. chemist C. machine D. ache 3. A. nature B. natural C. suitcase D. baseball 4. A. exercise B. excited C. experiment D. example 5. A. teammate B. speaker C. meaning D. overhead II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 point) 1. A. comprise B. depend C. design D. novel 2. A. tropical B. collection C. difficult D. charity 3. A. friendliness B. occasion C. pagoda D. deposit 4. A. importing B. specific C. impolite D. important 5. A. celebration B. unpolluted C. disappearing D. profitable PART III- VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6.0 points) I. Circle the word or phrase that best complete each sentence (2.0 points).

1. He is getting married _______ a famous film star this weekend.

A. with B. to C. for D. after 2. The heavy rain has caused _______in many parts of the country.

1

A. storms B. droughts 3. Deaf-mutes can_______ speak_______ hear.

A. both/ and B. either/ or

C. typhoon

D. floods

C. neither/ nor

D. not only/ but also

4. He hates_______to do something by others.

A. to be asked B. asking C. being asked D. to ask 5. Hoa is reading short stories _______ Jack London.

A. of B. from C. by D. with 6. We are going to _______ a small plane to Ha Long Bay this weekend.

A. drive B. ride C. take D. give 7. Thanks _______ Alexander Graham Bell’s invention, I can communicate with each other easily.

A. for B. from C. on D. to 8. We must _______the environment from the pollution every day.

A. save B. protest C. protect D. waste 9. In our opinion, there are a lot of differences _______ two twins.

A. from B. without C. with D. between 10. Practising _______English anywhere you can is a way to better your speaking skill.

A. speak B. speaking C. to speak D. for speaking II. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets (2.0 points).

1. You must read the following_______precaution carefully.

(SAFE) 2. My brother and Trung like_______movie very much.

(ACT) 3. Although he tried his best to do it, he was_______.

(SUCCESS) 4. This stadium looks larger. It has been_______.

(LARGE) 5. Lan fell off the bike, but her_______were not serious.

(INJURE) 6. We watch the news everyday because it's very_______.

(INFORM) 7. The police are interested in the sudden _______of the valuable painting.

(APPEAR) 8. Let me get an _______form and I can fill out.

(APPLY) 9. Phuong Linh arranged flowers the most_______in the contest.

(ATTRACT) 10. It is a contest in which_______have to read two poems in English.

(PARTICIPATE) Your answers: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 III. Complete each space in the following sentence with a suitable preposition (2.0 points).

1. Could I help you ______________ your bag?

2. Na got up late this morning because her alarm clock didn’t go ___________ .

3. I’m looking forward ____________ seeing you in June.

4. In the competition, everyone fell ______________ the deep and dangerous water.

5. Ha Long Bay is recognized _____________ UNESCO as a World Heritage Site 6. They have a meeting ___________ 6.30 and 9.30.

7. My mother often picks me ___________ from the school.

8. I’m going to invite my friends to come over ___________ dinner tonight.

9. Next summer, my family will have a vacation _________Thailand and stay there ________ one week.

PART IV: READING (5.0 points) I. Read the passage carefully then choose the best answer A, B or C for each question.(1.0 point) In order to help solve the problem of pollution, people have to be aware of its causes, some of which are quite obvious in everyday life. In many cities people are forced to breathe in polluted air, commonly known as smog, which is a mixture of gases sent out by car exhausts and factory chimneys. What can be done to reduce air pollution is to remove factories from cities and use lead-free petrol in cars.

The pollution of rivers, lakes and seas leads to the death of the creatures that live in them. Factories are largely responsible for the present situation, which is expected to worsen if governments do not make them to 2

obey the law against pollution and punish industries which pollute water.

Finally, all over the world, especially in cities, we see huge amounts of rubbish in the streets, which we are responsible for. The rubbish collection system often does not work properly and people themselves add to the problem by dropping litter in the streets. There is so much we could do to help solve the problem. The point is how willing are we to do something about it?

1. In order to help solve the problem of pollution, A. People need to know what causes it.

B. People don’t need to know what causes it.

C. People have to do something immediately.

D. People don’t need to do anything about it.

2. Smog is caused by A. cars only B. factories only.

C. cars and factories.

D. air 3. The pollution of rivers, lakes and seas is largely caused by A. car exhausts.

B. lead-free petrol in cars.

C. factories.

D. creatures.

4. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. People add to the problem of pollution by collecting rubbish.

B. People add to the problem of pollution by dropping litter.

C. Huge amounts of rubbish in the cities cause pollution.

D. We are responsible for huge amounts of rubbish in the cities.

5. The opposite of the word properly in the passage is A. unproperly B. disproperly C. improperly D. inproperly II. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (2.0 points) Rivers are on of the world’s most important natural resources. Many cities are on the large rivers, and (1)………….. every country has a least one river that (2)……….. an important part in the lives of its people.

Besides transportation, rivers (3)………………..water for crops, water to drink , and recreation for people who live along their (4)………….. And in (5)………….to get water for crops, engineers sometimes build a dam (6)…………a river and let water become a lake behind the dam. Then people can use their water not (7)……………..to irrigate fields but also to make electricity for homes and industries. (8)………….the water often becomes polluted when cities on river bank grow (9)…………….and the number of industries increases. We are learning that it is necessary to (10)…………rivers clean if we want to enjoy the benefits of the natural resources.

Your answers: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to complete it by circling A, B, C, or D.(2.0 points) Have you ever been to Britain? I’ve dreamed of going there (1) ______ I was a little girl and finally, (2) ______ the spring of 2012, it happened. I was there three weeks and (3) ______ much of that time soaking up the culture, history, and scenery of this incredible island. I visited several districts in England, Wales and Scotland and even (4) ______ a site trip to Ireland. Every place I went to seemed to be more interesting and more beautiful (5) ______ the last.

The tour I was with began in London. Of all the sights I saw there, the Tower of London was the most (6) ______. The Tower is a building complex of incredibly rich history.

Also on the Thames are the Houses of Parliament and, of course, the clock tower housing “Big Ben”. I saw 3

so many landmarks I can hardly remember them all. Although it was just a glimpse of London I did, (7) ______, get a chance to see all the (8)______ famous places.

After (9) ______ of days in London we traveled to the south of England stopping to visit Stonehenge. If you don’t know about Stonehenge there are a couple of links on my links page that will (10) ______ you to sites that can fill you in.

1. A. for B. while C. since D. because 2. A. on B. in C. at D. to 3. A. spent B. took C. did D. used 4. A. did B. got C. spent D. made 5. A. then B. as C. with D. than 6. A. interesting B. interested C. interest D. interestingly 7. A. at first B. at all C. at least D. at that 8. A. more B. much C. most D. many 9. A. few B. some C. a couple D. little 10. A. reach B. take C. make D. send PART V: WRITING (5.0 points) I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before (2.0points).

1. He failed the exam because of his laziness.

-> Because he .....................................................................................................................

2. How long is it since he learnt French ?

->When……………………………………………………………………………………

3. “Don’t forget to bring your passports with you when you go abroad.”

-> She reminded …………………………………………………………………………..

4. My neighbor repaired my bike yesterday.

-> I had ................................................................................................................................

5. My grandma used to tell me folktales when I was young.

-> I ………………………………………………………………………………………...

6. She is proud of being such a good cook.

-> She prides........................................................................................................................

7. Do you want me to empty the basket?

-> Would …….................…………………………………………………..……………..

8. When you phoned me, it was my lunchtime.

-> I was ..............................................................................................................................

9. Daisy finds it easy to make friends.

-> Daisy has no ..................................................................................................................

10. We haven’t met one another since we left school.

-> The last time...................................................................................................................

II. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first. Do not change the given bold word form and do not write more than 5 words. (1.0 point) 1. May I turn on the television? (mind) Do you ……………………………………….. the television?

2. It has rained for three hours . (started) It …………………………………………………three hours ago.

3. “Don’t open the door.” - Mrs. Thanh said to the students. (asked) Mrs. Thanh……………………………………. the door.

4. Doing morning exercise every day is good for us. (do) It is ……………………………………………morning exercise.

5. “Why don’t you take a long rest, Peter?” said Ann. (suggested) 4

Ann ……………………………………………a long rest.

III. Composition. (2.0 points) Write a letter to your friend to share your experiences about the ways to learn English vocabulary (within 120-150 words).

............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ........................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................

5

====== THE END ======

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8 Môn: TIẾNG ANH Năm học 2016-2017 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút PART I. LISTENING (3.0 points) SECTION 1. (2.0 points) - 0.2p for each correct answer.

1. handbag 6. 2.30pm

2. £250 7. Coffee shop / 6th floor

3. oval 8. Janet Thomas

4. Leather 9. 25 King Street

5. black and white 10. 4237689

SECTION 2. (1.0 point) - 0.2p for each correct answer.

1. 1769

2. Mathematics/ math(s)

3. power

4. 24

December 2nd/ the second of December

PART II- PHONETIC (1.0 point) I. Choose the word which is pronounced differently from the others. (0.5 point) 0.1p for each correct answer.

1.B 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.D II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 point) 0.1p for each correct answer.

1.D. 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.D PART III- VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6.0 points) I. Circle the word or phrase that best complete each sentence (2.0 points).

0.2p for each correct answer.

1.B 2.D 3.C 4.C 5.C 6.C 7.D 8.C 9.D 10.B II. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets(2.0 points) .

0.2p for each correct answer.

1.SAFETY 2. ACTION 3. UNSUCCESSFUL 4.

ENLARGED 5.INJURIES 6. INFORMATIVE 7. DISAPPEARANCE/REAPPEARANCE 8.APPLICATION 9.ATTRACTIVELY 10.PARTICIPANTS 6

III. Complete each space in the following sentence with a suitable preposition (2.0 points) 0.2p for each correct answer.

1. with 2. off 3. to 4. into 5.by 6. between 7. up 8. for 9. in / for PART IV: READING (5.0 points) I. Read the passage carefully then choose the best answer A, B or C for each question.(1.0 point) 0.2p for each correct answer.

1.A 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.A II. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (2.0 points) 0.2p for each correct answer.

1. almost 2. plays 3. provide/ supply 4. banks 5. order 6. across 7. only 8. However 9. inside 10. keep III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to complete it by circling A, B, C, or D.(2.0 points) 0.2p for each correct answer.

1. C 6. A

2. B 7. C

3. A 8. C

4. D 5. D 9. C 10. B PART V : WRITING ( 5.0 points) I.Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before(2.0points).

0.2p for each correct answer.

1. Because he was lazy, he failed the exam.

2. When did he start to learn / learning French?

3. She reminded me to bring my passports with me when I went abroad.

4. I had my neighbor repair my bike yesterday. / I had my bike repaired by my neighbor yesterday.

5. I used to be told folktales by my grandma when I was young.

6. She prides herself on her cooking.

7. Would you mind if I emptied the basket?

8. I was having lunch when you phoned me.

9. Daisy has no difficulties / difficulty (in) making friends.

10. The last time we met one another was when we left school.

II. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first. Do not change the given bold word form and do not write more than 5 words. (1.0 point) 0.2p for each correct answer.

1. Do you mind if I turn on the television?

2. It started raining/ to rain three hours.

3. Mrs. Thanh asked the students not to open the door.

4. It is good for us to do morning exercise every day.

5. Ann suggested (that) Peter (should) take a long rest.

III. Composition. (2.0 points).

Write a letter to your friend to share your experiences about the ways to learn English 7

vocabulary (within 120-150 words) - Học sinh viết đúng format của 1 bức thư.

- Nội dung đảm bảo đủ ý về 1 số phương pháp học từ vựng hiệu quả trong tiếng Anh. - Sử dụng đa dạng từ vựng và các cấu trúc.

- Sai ngữ pháp không cho điểm. Điểm toàn bài làm tròn đến 0.25 đ

8

aif GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÒNG HUYỆN THANH OAI ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8 NĂM HỌC: 2016 - 2017 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 09 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06.

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………...

- Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: ………………………... ………………………………………...

Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi) …………………..

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts) Digital cameras have changed the way that we look at (1)………………... Now there’s a device that changes the way we (2)……………….. them. This is the LytroIllum, a digital camera that lets you refocus your (3)……………….. after you’ve taken them.

The camera uses something called light-field (4)……………….., which helps it catch millions of light rays with each image. Once you snap your photo, you (5)……………….. the camera’s software to choose what you want to focus on. You can also use it to shift perspective, create 3D images, and even animate still photos; (6)……………….. what Lytro calls ‘living pictures.’

The Illum is (7)……………….. to look like a DSLR camera. It comes equipped with a fast and (8)……………….. zoom lens and LCD touch-screen monitor… but all of this doesn’t come cheap. The Illum goes for 1600 dollars.

So, is this the (9)……………….. of photography? That’s still up for debate. Lytro released an earlier and much cheaper model in 2011 but the camera never (10)……………….. off. After all, the LytroIllum’s 2d processed image is only about five megapixels, a far cry from (11)……………….. some of today’s smart phones can shoot. And a number of smart (12)……………….. apps claim to imitate what light-field photography with varying success, for only a few (13)………………...

Still, other smart phone manufacturers are working on similar technology – but as they say, imitation is the sincerest form of flattery. And (14)……………….. year, Apple, patented its own light-field camera. So, (15)……………….. Lytro really is on to something.

-> Your answers: 1..................................

2..................................

3..................................

4..................................

5..................................

6..................................

7..................................

8..................................

9..................................

10..................................

1

11..................................

12..................................

13..................................

14..................................

15..................................

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 16. A. minority B. robbery C. gramophone D. monument 17. A. ploughed

B. prayed

C. ordered

D. published

18. A. character

B. headache

C. stretcher

D. chemistry

19. A. guitarist

B. passenger

C. generous

D. village

20. A. physics

B. disease

C. useful

D. rehearse

-> Your answers: 16..................................

17..................................

18..................................

19..................................

20..................................

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. humorous B. generous C. mysterious D. precious 22. A. favorite

B. identify

C. influence

D. government

23. A. orchestra

B. collector

C. teenager

D. moderate

24. A. biology

B. effective

C. experience

D. chemical

25. A. veteran

B. lifeguard

C. campaign

D. harvest

-> Your answers: 21..................................

22..................................

23..................................

24..................................

25..................................

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. My family has decided to use .....................electricity by using more solar energy instead.

A. more B. less C. much D. fewer 27. Like Bob, his wife prefers clothes made .....................silk .....................those of cotton.

A. of/ to B. in/ to C. from/ more D. from/ than 28. When my mother came to see my little sister last night, she ......................

A. have cried B. was crying C. were crying D. is crying 29. The harder your brother works, the .....................money he earns.

A. better B. much C. more D. less 30. After a month, my new classmate got used to .....................in my new school.

A. study B. is studying C. studying D. studied 31. At first I found .....................to get used to .....................on the other side of the road.

A. it difficult - drive B. it difficult - driving C. difficult- driving D. difficulty-drive 2

32. Yesterday evening, we were having dinner .....................

A. when the B. then the C. when the D. then the phone phone was ringing was ringing phone rang phone rang 33. You shouldn’t talk about her character only through her .....................

A. appearance B. appear C. appeared D. appearing 34. Two teams try to make a fire .....................rubbing pieces .....................bamboo together.

A. by / of B. of / by C. with / by D. by / with 35. The film was .....................There was so much blood in it.

A. being B. horrify C. horrifying D. horrified -> Your answers: 26..................................

27..................................

28..................................

29..................................

30..................................

31..................................

32..................................

33..................................

34..................................

35..................................

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 36. Vinamilk company has served customers a lot of ………………….recently. (PRODUCE) 37. Linda and he family love all Vietnamese dishes, …………………. Nem. 38. There are a lot of …………………. in the competition.

(SPECIAL) (CONTEST)

39. My keys were locked inside the car…………….…., the aside window was open. (LUCK) 40. All the………………….between Paris and Ha Noi have been cancelled due to fog. (FLY) 41. Hoa’s aunt has cut herself and it’s …………………. quite badly.

(BLOOD)

42. Bell …………………. demonstrated his invention.

(SUCCESS)

43. There is no easy ………………….to this problem.

(SOLVE)

44. I wrote ………………….letters of application but I got no reply.

(END)

45. …………………. dark clouds appeared and it began to rain.

-> Your answers:

(FORTUNATE)

36 ..................................

37 ..................................

38 ..................................

39 ..................................

40 ..................................

41 ..................................

42 ..................................

43 ..................................

44 ..................................

45 ..................................

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. I’d rather you (not use) …………………….the office phone too often.

47. Let all of dirty clothes (collect) ……………………. by 8 o’clock tommorow morning.

48. Mrs. Van Anh and some of her friends felt that they (follow) ……………………. on the way to her office this morning.

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49. Going fishing with friends at weekends is very (interest) …………………….

50. Hoang was delighted (receive) ……………………. his mother’s letter this afternoon.

-> Your answers: 46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) For many people, traveling by plane is an exciting experience. Others, however, find the whole idea quite terrifying, (51)………….……….. flying is no more dangerous (52)………….……….. any other form of travel and some expects say it is considerably safer.

It is known, however, that most accident occurs (53)………….……….. taking off and landing when a (54)………….……….. decisions are vitally important. The people (55)………….……….. job is to look (56)………….……….. the passengers, the stewards and stewardnesses play an important part in helping passengers to (57)………….……….. safe and comfortable. Indeed for many passengers being (58)………….……….. such care of is all part of the total experience. (59)………….……….. other form of travel involves waiting for people in quite the same (60)………….……….., with food, drink, newspapers, magazines, music, and even video films.

51. A. although 52. A. than 53. A. while 54. A. leader’s 55. A. whose 56. A. for 57. A. feel 58. A. given 59. A. Any 60. A. way -> Your answers: 51.

52.

56.

57.

B. too B. as B. during B. chief’s B. which B. up B. rest B. kept B. No B. kind

C. and C. then C. for C. driver’s C. their C. after C. experience C. shown C. All C. sort

D. because D. with D. through D. pilot’s D. that D. round D. lie D. taken D. Not D. part

53.

54.

55.

58.

59.

60.

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts) Christmas is always held (61)………….……….. December the twenty fifth every year.

Every family in England decorates a Christmas tree and puts (62)………….……….. in the middle of the living room. And Santa Claus plays an important (63)………….……….. in the festival. There is a poem to relate him. In 1823, the patron saint of children, Saint Nicholas appeared in a poem (64)………….……….. A Visit Saint Nicholas. The character in the poem (65)………….……….. a fat jolly man who wore a (66)………….……….. suit and gave children (67)………….……….. on Christmas Eve. The poem, which was 4

(68)………….……….. by Clement Clarke Moore, an American professor, became popular (69)………….……….. the USA. Santa Claus is based (70)………….……….. the description of Saint Nicholas in this poem.

-> Your answers: 61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

III. Read the text then answer the questions below: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) Every year people in many countries learn English. Some of them are young children. Others are teenagers. Many are adults. Some learn at school. Others study by themselves. A few learn English just by hearing the language in films, on television, in the office or among their friends.

Most people must work hard to learn English.

Why do all these people learn English? It’s not difficult to answer this question. Many boys and girls learn English at school because “it” is one of their subjects. Many adults learn English because it is useful for their work. Teenagers often learn English for their higher studies because some of their books are written in English at the college or university. Other people learn English because they want to read newspapers or magazines in English.

71. Accoding to/ writer/ who/ learn/ English?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

72. In line two/ second paragraph/ what/ word/ “it” refer to?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

73. Where/ many boys/ girls/ learn English?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

74. Why/ adults/ learn English?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

75. What/ teenagers/ often learn/ English for?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. Quang Huy was very sad that he wasn’t accepted in our soccer team.

-> Quang Huy is very sad not ……………………………………………………………

77. When the prisoner was asked about his childhood, he hates it.

-> The prisoner hates ………..……………………………………………..…………….

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78. “How many cars are there in front of your house, Thuy Dung?”, Tung said -> Tung asked …………………..........................................................................................

79. John and Mary haven’t seen each other for over five months.

-> The last time ……………………………………………………………………….…

80. My new classmate, Ngoc Anh, found it easy to translate that text into English.

-> My new classmate, Ngoc Anh, had no ……………………………………………….

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. Your father/ look/ thinner now. he/ lose/ weight?

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

82. When/ I/ see/ our form teacher/ early this morning/ he/ drive/ car.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

83. This/ be/ first time/ these foreigners/ see/ rice paddies.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

84. Would/ mind/ if/ I/ borrow/ your pen? – Sorry./ use/ it.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

85. There/ no point/ persuading/ Nam/ join/ my chess club.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

III. Write (over 150 words) about the festival(s) that you have joined recently: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…, and has about 150 words or more) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8 NĂM HỌC: 2016 - 2017 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts) 1. pictures 2. focus 3. photographs 4. technology 6. creating 7. designed 8. powerful 9. future 11. what 12. phone 13. dollars 14. last

5. use 10. took 15. maybe

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 16. C. gramophone 17. D. published 18. C. stretcher 19. A. guitarist 20. B. disease II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: 23. B. collector 24. D. chemical 25. C. campaign 21. C. mysterious 22. B. identify PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 27. A. of/ to 28. B. was crying 29. C. more 30. C. studying 26. B. less 31. B. it difficult 32. C. when the 33.

A. 34. A. by / of 35. C. horrifying - driving phone rang appearance II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts) 36. products 37. especially 38. contestants 39. luckily 40. flights 41. bleeding 42. successfully 43. solution 44. endless 45. unfortunately III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. did not use 47. be collected 48. were being followed 49. interesting

50. to receive

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 7

51. A. although

52. A. than

53. B. during

54. D. pilot’s

55. A. whose

56. C. after

57. A. feel

58. D. taken

59. B. No

60. A. way

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts) 61. on 62. it 63. part/ role 64. called 65. was 66. red 67. presents 68. written 69. with 70. on III. Read the text then answer the questions below: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 71. Accoding to the writer, who learn English?

-> English is learnt by young children, teenagers and adults./ (Or) Young children, teenagers, adults learn English.

72. In line two of the second paragraph, what does the word “it” refer to?

-> In line two of the second paragraph, the word “it” refers to “English”.

73. Where do many boys and girls learn English?

-> Many boys and girls learn English/ They learn English at school.

74. Why do adults learn English?

-> Because they need it for their job/ It is useful for their work.

75. What do teenagers often learn English for?

-> Teenagers often learn English for their higher studies.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. Quang Huy was very sad not to be accepted in our soccer team.

77. The prisoner hates being asked about his childhood.

78. Tung asked Thuy Dung how many cars there were in front of her/his house.

79. The last time John and Mary saw each other was over five months ago.

80. My new classmate, Ngoc Anh, had no difficulty in translating that text into English.

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. Your father looks thinner now. Has he losen weight?

82. When I saw our form teacher early this morning, he was driving a car.

83. This is the first time these foreigners have seen (the) rice paddies.

84. Would you mind if I borrowed your pen? - Sorry. I am using it.

85. There is no point in persuading Nam to join in my chess club.

III. Write (over 150 words) about the festival(s) that you have joined recently: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show any of the student’s proper names/ school/ village…)

- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “The name of the festival…”.

(0.5pt)

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- The body: Write about: Where is was held; how long it lasted; the activities/ competitions; how was it organized; the people taking part in; the sentences must have connectors and link words...

(2,0) - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas or what they thought about the festival (s).

(0.5 pt) * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have: - Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more).

- Correct vocabulary and structures.

- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

Họ tên, chữ ký của người coi thi

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8 Năm học: 2016 - 2017

- Giám thị số 1: ……………………… ………………………

- Giám thị số 2: ……………………… ………………………

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH Ngày thi: ……….tháng……….năm 2017

Số báo danh: ……….

Họ và tên thí sinh: ………………………………………………………..

Sinh ngày: ……….tháng……….năm ……….

Nơi sinh:…………………………………………………………… Nam (nữ)……….

Học sinh trường THCS…………………………………………………………………..

Chú ý: - Thí sinh phải ghi đầy đủ các mục ở phần trên theo sự hướng dẫn của giám thị.

- Thí sinh không được ký tên hay dùng bất cứ ký hiệu gì để đánh dấu bài thi (ngoài việc làm bài theo yêu cầu của đề thi).

- Bài thi không được viết bằng mực đỏ, bút chì, không được viết bằng hai thứ mực.

- Phần viết hỏng, ngoài cách dùng thước để gạch chéo, không được tẩy xóa bằng bất kỳ cách gì khác (kể cả bút xóa).

- Trái với các điều trên, bài làm của thí sinh sẽ bị loại.

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UBND HUYỆN YÊN LẠC PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG LỚP 8 CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2016 -2017 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH ( Thời gian làm bài 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề)

(Đề thi gồm có 06 trang – Thí sinh làm bài ra tờ giấy thi) PART A: LISTENING. I. You will hear a telephone conversation between a passenger and an officer at the London Heathrow airport.

Listen to the conversation TWICE and complete the booking form below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

AIRPORT SHUTTLE BOOKING FORM To: Milton Date: (1) .....................

No. of passengers: One Bus time: (2) .....................p.m Type of ticket: (3) .....................

Name: Jane Thomson Flight No: AC936 From: London Heathrow Address in Milton: Vacation Motel, 24, (4) ..................... Street Fare: $ 35 Credit Card No: (Visa) (5) .....................

II. You will hear people talking about different situations. For each question, choose the best answer A, B or C. 1. What does the woman say about learning Chinese?

A. It's more difficult to speak than write.

B. She finds the pronunciation easy to learn.

C. The grammar is not so difficult.

2. What does the woman say about her current job?

A. She is able to focus on her work.

B. She finds her colleagues very chatty.

C. She likes the atmosphere in the office.

3. What does the man say about travelling alone?

A. There is always someone to talk to.

B. It can be a problem if you are ill.

C. Decisions are easier to make.

4. What does the man plan to do after his voluntary work?

A. Find a job in a zoo.

B. Do a journalism course.

C. Work in Borneo.

5. Why is the woman calling?

A. To explain changes in arrangements.

B. Because she's run out of money.

C. To avoid being late for an interview.

PART B: PHONETICS. I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others 1. A. surprise B. promise C. devise D. realise 2. A. health B. heal C. stealth D. dealt 3. A. hopeful B. postal C. local D. opposite 4. A. cherish B. chorus C. chaos D. scholar 5. A. southern B. account C. south D. amount

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II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question.

6. A. industry B. poisonous C. atmosphere D. awareness 7. A. generous B. extensive C. accomplish D. eternal 8. A. medicine B. decide C. distance D. patient 9. A arrangement B. relationship C. scientist D. improve 10. A. discount B. compile C. locator D. website PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the right word or phrase to complete the sentences.

1. What Marilyn did at the party was certainly ______ bad taste.

A. of B. about C. in D. Under 2. Your room is messy. Please ______ as much junk as possible and clean it up.

A. get rid of B. make clean of C. drop a line D. stop over 3. Sorry, but that book is ______ . We’ll get some copies from the publisher next Monday.

A. out of print B. out of order C. off shelf D. out of stock 4. We ______ gas, so we have to wait until a car passes by.

A. gave out on B. ran out of C. walked out on D. disposed of 5. Politicians should never lose ______ of the needs of the people they represent.

A. view B. sight C. regard D. prospect 6. The move to a different environment had brought about a significant _ in Mary’s state of mind.

A. impact B. effect C. influence D. chance 7. She ______ regretted having been so unkind.

A. bitterly B. severely C. fully D. awfully 8. The color of the handle does not ______ so long as it is the right size.

A. worry B. affect C. matter D. concern 9. In some countries environmental organizations have been ______ to inform people and gain their support.

A. put up B. made up C. carried out D. set up 10. This clock ______ on two small batteries.

A. goes B. works C. runs D. moves.

11. ______ Jenny, everyone admires him for fine sense of humor.

A. Except for B. Apart C. Except D. Unless 12. After police found drugs there, the disco was ______ A. closed down B. banned C. ignored D. abolished 13. The injured man was taken to hospital and ______ for international injures.

A. cured B. healed C. operated D. treated.

14. According to the __ of the contract, tenants must give six months notice if they intend to leave.

A. laws B. rules C. terms D. details 15. Picasso was a ______ cubist painter.

A. artistic B. celebrated C. colorful D. knowledgeable.

II. There are 8 mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them.

PREPARING A DINNER PARTY Giving a dinner party is a wonderful way of entertain people. You can also make new friends and give other the chance to get to know each other better.

It needs plan, though. First, make a guest list, with different kinds of people and a mixture of women and men. Don’t invite couples because of they aren’t so much fun.

When you know that can come, find out what they like to eat and drink. Note down any who are vegetarians, or who can’t eat or drink certain things for religious reasons.

Then plan their menu. Included a first course, a choice of main courses and a dessert, plus lots of people’s favorite drinks.

The next thing to do is the shopping. Make sure you buy more than enough of everything, but that someone can help you carry it!

On the day, start cooking early. Give people appetizers like Greek mezze or Spanish tapas, such they don’t get hungry if they have to wait. Serve the delicious meal, sit down with your guests and have a good time – you’ve earned them!

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III. Complete the following sentences by giving the correct form of the words in the blanks.

1. How are you getting on with your (CORRESPOND) ______ course in Russia?

2. What time do you (USE) ______ start work?

3. There was ice on the pavement, which made it very difficult to walk as it was so (SLIP) ______.

4. I could never be a teacher. I am far too (PATIENT) ______.

5. I don’t know what the matter with Tommy is lately. His (BEHAVE) ______ seem to be getting worse and worse.

6. It is becoming (INCREASE) ______ difficult to find a job nowadays.

7. Why money can’t exactly buy you (HAPPY) ____at least it helps you suffer in comfort.

PART D: READING I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage.

MUSIC - A UNIVERSAL LANGUAGE Music is universal - it is produced by all cultures. Some scientists believe that music came before speech and (1) ______ as a development of mating calls. In fact, there is one theory that the (2) ______ languages were chanted or sung, rather than spoken. Indeed, in some cultures, music is a form of (3) ______ history. The Aboriginal Australians, for example, use music as a means to (4) ______ on stories of the land and spirits to the next generation.

New evidence suggests that music does not just (5) ______ the feel - good factor but it is also good for the brain. A study of intellectually (6) ______ children showed that they could recall more information after it was given to them in a song than after it was read to them as a story.

Researchers also report that people (7) ______ better on a standard intelligence test after listening to Mozart. The so-called “Mozart effect” has also been (8) ______ by findings that rats brought up on Mozart run faster through a complex network of paths or passages, (9) ______ as a maze. Overall, it seems that in most instances people who suffer from any form of mental (10) ______ benefit from listening to music.

1. A. was B. swelled C. arose D. reacted 2. A. earliest B. newest C. easiest D. simplest 3. A. enjoying B. making C. recording D. stating 4. A. move B. pass C. hand D. happen 5. A. convince B. satisfy C. please D. prefer 6. A. disabled B. inactive C. incapable D. disordered 7. A. examine B. prepare C. achieve D. score 8. A. supported B. given C. marked D. remembered 9. A. called B. heard C. regarded D. known 10. A. badness B. hurt C. illness D. pain II. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. In Death Valley, California, one of the hottest, most arid places in North America, there is much salt, and salt can damage rocks impressively. Inhabitants of areas elsewhere, where streets and highways are salted to control ice, are familiar with the resulting rust and deterioration on cars.

That attests to the chemically corrosive nature of salt, but it is not the way salt destroys rocks. Salt breaks rocks apart principally by a process called crystal prying and wedging. This happens not by soaking the rocks in salt water, but by moistening their bottoms with salt water. Such conditions exist in many areas along the eastern edge of central Death Valley. There, salty water rises from the groundwater table by capillary action through tiny spaces in sediment until it reaches the surface.

Most stones have capillary passages that suck salt water from the wet ground. Death Valley provides an ultra-dry atmosphere and high daily temperatures, which promote evaporation and the formation of salt crystals along the cracks or other openings within stones. These crystals grow as long as salt water is available. Like tree roots breaking up a sidewalk, the growing crystals exert pressure on the rock and eventually pry the rock apart along planes of weakness, such as banding in metamorphic rocks, bedding in sedimentary rocks, or preexisting or incipient fractions, and along boundaries between individual mineral crystals or grains. Besides crystal growth, the expansion of halite crystals (the same as everyday table salt) by heating and of sulfates and similar salts by hydration can contribute additional stresses. A rock durable enough to have withstood natural

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conditions for a very long time in other areas could probably be shattered into small pieces by salt weathering within a few generations.

The dominant salt in Death Valley is halite, or sodium chloride, but other salts, mostly carbonates and sulfates, also cause prying and wedging, as does ordinary ice. Weathering by a variety of salts, though often subtle, is a worldwide phenomenon. Not restricted to arid regions, intense salt weathering occurs mostly in salt-rich places like the seashore, near the large saline lakes in the Dry Valleys of Antarctica, and in desert sections of Australia, New Zealand, and central Asia.

1. What is the passage mainly about?

A. The destructive effects of salt on rocks.

B. The impressive salt rocks in Death Valley.

C. The amount of salt produced in Death Valley.

D. The damaging effects of salt on roads and highways.

2. The word "it" in bold refers to _______.

A. salty water B. groundwater table C. capillary action D. sediment 3. In paragraph 2, why does the author compare tree roots with growing salt crystals?

A. They both force hard surfaces to crack.

B. They both grow as long as water is available.

C. They both react quickly to a rise in temperature.

D. They both cause salty water to rise from the groundwater table.

4. The word "durable" in bold is closest in meaning to_________.

B. strong C. flexible D. pressured A. large 5. The word "shattered" in bold is closest in meaning to_________.

A. arranged B. dissolved C. broken apart D. gathered together 6. The word "dominant" in bold is closest in meaning to__________.

A. most recent B. most common C. least available D. least damaging 7. According to the passage, which of the following is true about the effects of salts on rocks?

A. Only two types of salts cause prying and wedging.

B. Salts usually cause damage only in combination with ice.

C. A variety of salts in all kinds of environments can cause weathering.

D. Salt damage at the seashore is more severe than salt damage in Death Valley.

8. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about rocks that are found in areas where ice is common?

A. They are protected from weathering.

B. They do not allow capillary action of water.

C. They show similar kinds of damage as rocks in Death Valley.

D. They contain more carbonates than sulfates.

III. Read the following passage and choose the most suitable heading from the list A-I for each part (1-7) of the passage. There is one extra heading which you do not need to use. One example has been done for you.

A. Indoor climbing is preferred B. Early imperfections C. Putting up with nature D. Useful attachments E. Something in common F. The demand for indoor practice G. The inventor of the wall H. A lighter construction method I. Watching the expert

GOING UP THE WALL

4

0 I The crowd holds its breath. High above them on the climbing wall, hanging upside down by the tips of two fingers, is the French climber Francois Lombard. He is competing in the World Cup Climbing Championships at Birmingham’s National Indoor Arena.

1 The National Indoor Arena is more famous for staging the TV show Gladiators, but the television programme and the World Cup Climbing Championships share at least one feature - The Wall. And the fact that either event is possible is the result of a new and rapidly developing technology.

2 Until the mid- 1960s, climbers practiced their skills on cliffs in areas where there was a plentiful supply of good climbing angles. During the winter they would either tolerate the cold weather, go walking instead or climb on snow and ice in Scotland.

3 However, as the sport developed it was increasingly important for top climbers to keep fit. With the cliffs unusable for much of the year, they used brick-edges or stone buildings to ‘work out’ on. This allowed them to keep their fingers strong and beat off the boredom of not being able to climb. It wasn’t long before many sports centre started building walls specifically for the task, using bricks with special edges to cling on to.

4 Many of these early walls followed the example set by Don Robison, a teacher of physical education who, during the mid- 1960s, constructed a climbing wall in corridor of his department at Leeds University. Robison developed the idea of setting natural rock in a block of concrete, which could then be included in a wall.

5 Scores of climbing walls of this kind were built in sports halls up and down the country throughout the 1970s but they had obvious design problems. Walls could only be built in a vertical plane, whereas cliffs outside have features like overhangs and angled slabs of rock. There was the added drawback that once the walls were up they couldn’t be altered and climbers would eventually tire of their repetitive nature, despite thinking of every combination of holds possible.

6 In 1985, a Frenchman, Francois Savigny, developed a material which he moulded into shapes like those that climbers would find on the cliffs. These could be fixed onto any existing wall and then taken off when climbers got bored with a particular combination.

7 French manufactures also began to experiment with panels on steel framework. Concrete had proved too heavy to create overhanging walls without major building work, but steel frames could be erected anywhere as free - standing structures. A system of interchangeable fixtures gave climbers an endless supply of new holds.

PART E: WRITING I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar meaning to the original one. You must not change the word given.

1. There is no point in waiting any longer. He’s not going to come.

(WORTH) → It ___________________________________________________________.

2. They said he wasn’t tall enough to play basketball in the national team. (TOO) → According ____________________________________________________.

3. The number of students applying for our scholarship has increased dramatically. (INCREASE) → There has ____________________________________________________.

5

4. “You broke my bicycle, Minh!” said Hoa. (ACCUSED) → Hoa _______________________________________________________.

5. He was so angry that he was lost for words.

(ANGER) → Such was ____________________________________________________.

II. Write a paragraph within 150 words on the following topic.

“Social network sites like Facebook are not good for teenagers, especially students at lower secondary schools.”

Do you agree or disagree with the following statements?

Use specific reasons and details to support your answer

---------------The and--------------( Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm) Họ và tên thí sinh:................................................................... Số báo danh:..................

6

HDC ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG LỚP 8 CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2016 -2017 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH ( Thời gian làm bài 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề)

UBND HUYỆN YÊN LẠC PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

PART A: LISTENING (10 points – 1p/ item) I. 1. 17th October 2. 12.30 3. Single/ one-way 4. Kitchener 5. 3303 8450 2045 6837 II. 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A

5. A

PART B: PHONETICS (10pt – 1p/ item) I. 1. B 2. B 3. D II. 6. D 7. A 8. B

4. A

5. A

9. C

10. B

4. B 9. D 14. C

5. B 10. C 15. B

PART C: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (30 points) I. (15 points -1p/ item) 1. C 6. D 11. A

2. A 7. D 12. A

II. (8 points – 1p/ item) Mistake 1 other 2 plan 3 because of 4 that

3. D 8. C 13. D

Correction others planning because who

III. (7points – 1p/ item) 1. correspondence 2. usually 3. slippery 4. impatient PART D: READING (25 points) I. (10 points – 1p/ item) 1. C 2. A 6. A 7. D II. (8 points – 1p/ item) 1. A 2. A 3. A

4. B

5 6 7 8

Mistake Included but such them

Correction Include and so it

5. behavior 6. increasingly 7. happiness

3. C 8. A

4. B 9. D

5. C

6. B

5. B 10. C

7. C

8. C

7

III. (7points – 2p/ item) 1. B 2. G 6. C 7. H

3. C

4. F

5. A

PART E: WRITING (25 points) I. 5 points – 1p/ item 1. It is not worth waiting any longer. He’s not going to come.

2. According to them, he was too short to play basketball in the national team.

3. There has been a dramatic increase in the number of students applying for our scholarship.

4. Hoa accused Minh of breaking her bicycle/ Hoa accused Minh of having broken her bicycle 5. Such was his anger that he was lost for words.

II. 20 points Correct form paragraph writing (20 points)

Incorrect form paragraph writing (15points)

of - Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting ideas and relevant examples (10pts) - Language: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures (5pts) - Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (5pts) of - Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting ideas and relevant examples (8pts) - Language: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures (4pts) - Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (3p)

* Total: 100 points.

8

TRƯỜNG THCS TAM DƯƠNG ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8 LẦN 1 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 Môn: TIẾNG ANH 8 Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Đề thi này gồm 04 trang

SECTION A: LISTENING

Listen twice and write down the missing information.

GALA CINEMA Week beginning (1) Studio One (2) Programs at (3) Seat prices: $ 3- (5) $1.50- children, students, and (6) Studio Two THE MARVELOUS (7) Special offer this week only- all seats are (8) Studio Three MASTER DRAGON One performance daily at (9) Contact at (10)

22

and (4)

TO JUPITER __ __ citizens

SECTION B: PHONETICS I. Choose the word that has the underline pronounced differently from the others. Identify your answer by writing the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer paper.

1. A. exchange B. champagne C. teacher D. children 2. A. sensitive B. benefit C. pretty D. remedy 3. A. weigh B. enough C. cough D. rough II. Choose the word whose main stress is different from that of the others. Identify your answer by writing the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer paper.

4. A. important B. population C. occasionally D. immediately 5. A. recycle B. reduce C. visit D. protect SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. Identify your answer by writing the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer paper.

1. If you want to see the dentist, it’s best to make a/ an _________.

A. interview B. appointment C. opportunity D. arrange 2. “I am __________on rice- cooking contest. It’s really exciting.” Peter said.

A. keen B. concerned C. fond D. interested 3. Tom is_________ forgetting to bring his textbooks to class.

A. all the time B. usually C. never D. always 4. I cannot help _________ anxious about the exam results.

A. to feel B. feel C. feeling D. felt 5. Nobody called on the phone, ___________ A. did he B. didn’t he C. did they D. didn’t they 6. Helen: “Congratulations!

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Jane: - “___________”

A. You are welcome B. What a pity!

C. Thank you D. I’m sorry 7. We didn’t ___________ at the station in time to catch the train.

A. get B. reach C. arrive D. come 8. I use my mobile to keep in touch ___________ my friends.

A. in B. with C. about D. on 9. Are there enough apples for us to have one ___________?

A. every B. each C. individually D. self 10. The flight from Jakarta to New Delhi has been cancelled ___________the heavy fog.

A. as a result B. despite C. because D. because of 11. I opened the door quietly ___________my father up.

A. to not wake B. so as not to wake C. so that I don’t wake D. in order to not wake 12. A jellyfish doesn’t have ___________a mouth or a sense of smell.

A. neither B. either C. so D. such 13. . I think he is ___________his time looking for a job there, they are not taking any staff on at present.

A. losing B. wasting C. spending D. missing 14. All of us were___________ that he was successful in the final exam.

A. surprise B. surprised C. surprising D. surprisingly 15. . It was clear that the young couple were _________of taking charge of such a big restaurant.

A. able B. capable C. reliable D. responsible 16. He hates ___________to do something by others.

A. being to ask B. asking C. being asked.

D. to ask.

17. I’ve ___________to Paris. I went there in March.

A. gone B. been C. just D. yet 18. E-mail is an effective form of communication ___________many busy businesses rely.

A. which B. on that C. on which D. that 19. - “Would you mind ___________next to you?” - “Not at all.”

A. if I sit B. to sit C. sitting D. if I sat 20. What are you going to do? - I don’t know. I haven’t made ___________my mind yet.

A. on B. at C. in D. up II. Complete the following sentences with the correct forms of the words in the brackets.

1. Hard work always brings _________________.

(SUCCEED) 2. It has become ___________ difficult to find a job nowadays.

(INCREASE) 3. The boss got angry as her work result was _________.

(SATISFY) 4. In my city, there is always a serious ____________ of water in summer. (SHORT) 5. Advertising __________ us to buy things that we don’t really need.

(COURAGE) 6. Conservationists believe that we should preserve the __________rainforests in the world.

(TROPIC) 7. The President’s New Year Speech is going to broadcast__________ .

(NATION) 8. The ____________ of the new guest caused trouble to my aunt.

(ARRIVE) 9. She cut herself and it's ____________quite badly.

(BLOOD) 10. You can buy electrical ____________at the shop over there.

(APPLY) SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION I. Read the text below and select the best option for each blank.

Here are some ways to help you to get a good night’s sleep. Firstly, don’t try too hard to (1) ___________ asleep because this will make you anxious and keep you awake. Secondly, don’t go to bed until you (2) ___________sleepy. Sitting in bed awake just (3) ___________ you awake. If you cannot sleep (4) ___________you go to bed, get up and do something relaxing for a while until you feel sleepy. (5) ___________a boring book, watching TV or writing a letter can all help to relax you.

You shouldn’t keep (6) ___________ at the clock, either. If you know how much sleep you have lost, you will become worried and less able to sleep. It is better to turn the clock around so (7) ___________ you cannot see. Lastly, it is a good (8) ___________to exercise during the day. A 20minute walk (9) ___________ the morning will help you feel sleepier (10) ___________bedtime.

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II. Complete the letter by choosing the best answer to fill in each blank. Identify your answer by writing the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer paper.

Dear Mom and Dad, This is just a quick letter to let you know that I'm fine. We're all working quite hard because the exams are only a few weeks away. Our teacher says he thinks we'll do well. However, my landlady’s not so sure – she keeps telling me I should stop watching so much TV and do a bit more reading.

Anyway, we had a wonderful time at half term. I went off to Paris for a few days (1) ________ other students from the school, and we went on a guided (2)____________ of the city. We saw most of the famous (3)_________ like the Louvre, where they have an amazing (4) ________of paintings, and the Eiffel Tower. Then we went down to the south of France (5)_________train. It was so fast - the whole (6)________ was only about four hours. We spent (7) _______ time in Nice and in Cannes as well, and we all really enjoyed it. On our last day we went to a small island called the Ile des Pelerins, and we saw the castle (8)_________ the 'Man in the Iron Mask'. All in all, we had a great time and the weather was really good as well. The only thing I felt (9) __________about was that we didn't have enough time to spare to go swimming - maybe next time.

Anyway, I must go now as I've got to do a lot of (10) ________ for tomorrow. Will you write soon?

Love, 1. A. by B. to C. with D. together 2. A. trip B. visit C. tour D. excursion 3. A. shows B. sights C. views D. looks 4. A. set B. group C. gallery D. collection 5. A. in B. by C. with D. on 6. A. voyage B. travel C. drive D. journey 7. A. little B. a little C. few D. a few 8. A. are used to keeping B. are used to keep C. used to keep D. used to keeping 9. A. sorry B. apologetic C. displeased D. anxious 10. A. homework B. home work C. homeworks D. home works III. Read the following passage and choose the best answers to the questions below. Identify your answer by writing the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer paper.

My village is generally called Langde which consists of Upper Langde and Lower Langde.

My own village is in Upper Langde, 32 km away from Kaili city and 17 km away from Leishan Country. My hometown is located at the foot of a scenic mountain with a murmuring crystal clear river in front. Groups of waterwheels by the river side produce beautiful folk songs day and night.

My father says that we have a festival every thirteen years and the festival runs for three consecutive years. People don’t kill fattened pigs during the first and second years but only in the final year. So the most special year is the last one, namely the 13th year. As you can imagine, it is not easy to see many in one’s lifetime. I can’t remember what the last one, 13 years ago, was like.

Fortunately my village held the festival from 22nd February to 2nd March 2009 and the one this year was a very spectacular one.

1. The writer’s village is ______________.

A. in Upper Langde C. 32 km away from Leishan Country B. in Lower Langde D. 17 km away from Kaili city 2. What is not mentioned in the description of the author’s hometown?

A. Waterwheels produce beautiful folk songs C. You can go there on foot B. It is near a river D. It is near a mountain 3. When are the fattened pigs killed?

A. Every thirteen years of the festival C. During the second year of the festival B. During the first year of the festival D. In the final year of the festival 4. The word “namely” can be best replaced by ______________.

A. such as B. that is C. like D. for example 5. When will the next festival be held ?

A. in 2010 B. in 2011 C. in 2012 D. in 2022 SECTION E: WRITITNG Page |3

I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.

1. Winning the football pools meant we could buy a new car.

Winning the football pools enabled_____________________________________________ 2. Sam didn’t celebrate until he received the prize.

It was not _________________________________________________________________ 3. The last time he performed live was 5 months ago.

It ________________________________________________________________________ 4. In spite of his illness, he managed to get the work done on time.

Although _________________________________________________________________.

5. Our parents have just sold our old house in the city center.

Our old house ______________________________________________________________ 6. My protests were ignored.

Nobody ___________________________________________________________________ 7. I prefer going out for a meal to eating at home.

I’d rather __________________________________________________________________ 8. Thank you for visiting and comforting me while I was in trouble.

It ________________________________________________________________________ 9. It’s extremely difficult for us to make ends meet these days.

We find ___________________________________________________________________ 10. They had such a fierce dog that nobody would visit them.

The dog ___________________________________________________________________ II. Write a paragraph of 150 words about one skill of learning English you are interested in most OR the one that causes you a lot of trouble and the ways you improve it. Use specific reasons and examples to support your choice.

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm! ====== HẾT ===== Họ tên học sinh: ………………….…………… SBD: ………… Phòng thi số: ………….

Page |4

TRƯỜNG THCS TAM DƯƠNG -----------------

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT HSG LỚP 8 LẦN 1 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian thi: 120 phút ( không kể thời gian giao đề ) --------------------------------------------------

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 points)

1/ October 6/ senior

2/ voyage 7/ Mountain

3/ 2. 30 8/ reduced

4/ 8.45 9/ 7.30

5/ adults 10/ 03425791

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 points) I. Choose the word that has the underline pronounced differently from the others. (3 points) 1. B 2. C 3. A II. Choose the word whose main stress is different from that of the others. (2 points) 6. B 7. C SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points) I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (20 points) 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. D II. Complete the following sentences with the correct forms of the words in the brackets. (10 points) 1. success 2. increasingly 3. unsatisfactory 4. shortage 5. encourages 6. tropical 7. nationwide 8. arrival/arriving 9. bleeding 10. appliances SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (25 points) I. Read the text below and select the best option for each blank. (10 points) 1. fall 2. feel 3. makes 4. when/as 6. looking 7. that 8. idea 9. in

5. Reading 10. at

II. Complete the letter by choosing the best answer to fill in each blank. (10 points) 1. C 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. A III. Read the following passage and choose the best answers to the questions below. (5 points) 1. A

2. C

3. D

SECTION E: WRITITNG (25 points) Page |5

4. B

5. D

I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points) 1. Winning the football pools enabled us to buy a new car.

2. It was not until he received the prize that Sam celebrated.

3. It is five months since he last performed live.

4. Although he was ill, he managed to get to work on time.

5. Our old house in the city center has just been sold by our parents.

6. Nobody paid attention to/ took notice of my protests.

7. I’d rather go out for a meal than eat at home.

8. It was kind /nice of you to visit and comfort me while I was in trouble.

9. We find it difficult to make ends meet these days.

10. The dog (they had) was so fierce that nobody would visit them.

II. Write a paragraph of 150 words about one skill of learning…….. (15 points) 1. Content: 8 points. Students must include the following points in their writing: - The skill they are interested in/ or the skill that cause them trouble.

- Explain the reasons why.......

- The ways they improve the skill.

2. Format: A cohesive paragraph (a topic sentence; supporting ideas anc conclusion with transitional phrases): 4 points 3. Language: few spelling and grammartical mistakes. 3 points

Page |6

UBND HUYỆN YÊN LẠC PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO (Đề thi gồm 05 trang)

ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG CẤP HUYỆN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 8 NĂM HỌC 2017- 2018

(Thời gian làm bài 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề)

I. Listen and complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Questions 1 – 5 PAN ASIAN AIRWAYS LOST PROPERTY REPORT FORM First name Kirsty Surname Allen Address (1) ___________Windham Road, Richmond Postcode (2)___________________ Home. Tel 020 8927 7651 Mobile. Tel (3)___________________ Flight number (4)___________________ Seat number (5)___________________ From New York To London Heathrow Questions 6-8: Choose THREE letters from A to F What items did Kirsty’s bag contain?

A. 17 pounds B. Pens C. Her passport D. A book E. 200 dollars F. Her house keys Questions 9-10: Choose a letter (A, B, C or D) that correctly answer questions 9 and 10.

9. What has Kirsty done regarding to the loss of her credit card?

A. informed the police but not the credit card company.

B. informed the credit card company but not the police.

C. informed both the police and the credit card company.

D. informed neither the police nor the credit card company.

10. What must Kirsty do after the call regarding to her lost handbag?

A. call back after one hour and a half.

B. Just wait for a call back.

C. call back after one hour and a half if she has heard nothing.

D. call back the next day if she has heard nothing.

II. * Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others .

1. A. action B. national C. partial D. question 2. A. tidal B. sight C. describe D. cinema 3. A. connect B. comfort C. computer D. contest 4. A. cough B. though C. rough D. tough 5. A. pleased B. erased C. increased D. amused * Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others.

6. A. medical B. restaurant C. remember D. government 7. A. household B. homework C. garbage D. throughout 8. A. electrical B. interesting C. necessary D. beautifully 9. A. celebrate B. consider C. expression D. criteria 10. A. partner B. between C. visit D. program III. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete the sentences.

1. I don’t like my nextdoor neighbor, who often ………..ill of everyone behind his back A. says B. speaks C. tells D. whispers 2. There was nothing they could do ………..leave the car at the roadside where it had broken down.

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A. unless B. than C. but D. in stead of 3. I have to get my picture ………..for my website.

A. take B. taken C. taking D. took 4. The staff are working at weekend………..delay the project any further.

A. so that not to B. so not to C. so as not to D. for not 5. We were so disappointed that most of the guests………..when we arrived at the party.

A. leave B. left C. have left D. had left 6. Because his argument was so confusing………..people understood it.

A. a few B. much C. few D. many 7. There are a lot of letters………...right now.

A. to be written B. to have written C. to be writing D. to write 8. Many people like the slow ………..of life in the countryside.

A. step B. pace C. speed D. space 9. I am tired of my neighbours ………...noise every night.

A. to make B. make C. having made D. making 10. Doctors advise us.………...too many hours watching television.

A. not to spend B. not being spend C. not spend D. not spending 11. There are chances that Manchester United………..the last match against Juventus.

A. will win B. won C. has won D. would win 12. I like detective stories where I can’t ……….. who committed the murder!

A. work up B. work for C. work out D. work on 13. I am leaving the keys under the pot in the garden ………..you should be home earlier than usual.

A. because B. in case C. so that D. though 14. I was made ………..hard when I was at high school.

A. studying B. studied C. to study D. study 15. I regret………...you the story. I really didn’t know it would make you disappointed.

A. tell B. telling C. to tell D. told 16. She is a ...............girl with ..............

A. green-eyes/red hair B. green-eyed/red hairs C. green-eye/ared hair D. green-eyed/red hair IV. Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition.

1. We should cover the burned area ________ a thick sterile dressing.

2. They fell ________ love ________ each other almost immediately and were married in a few weeks.

3. Next month I’m going to Scotland ________ a short holiday.

4. Their parents are very proud ________ their results.

5. What is the difference ________ “clean up” and “clean out”?

6. We are going to hold a discussion ________ recycling.

7. The boy fell ________ his bike and hit his head ________ the road.

8. Santa Claus is based ________ the description of Saint Nicholas.

V. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in capital letters.

1. The gold, silver, and bronze_____________ took their places on the podium for the presentation ceremony. (MEDAL) 2. ____________, dark clouds soon appeared and it began to rain. (FORTUNE) 3. Laura blames her______________on being single, but I’m not so sure. (HAPPY) 4. Many ____________ of the older generation were there. (REPRESENT) 5. She has cut herself, and it is ____________ quite badly. (BLOOD) 6. His health was seriously affected and he suffered from constant ____________. (SLEEP) 7. Bao is ______________ kind and generous to everyone. (EXTREME) 8. I’m pleased to hear that you had an ____________ Christmas vacation. (ENJOY) 9. This knife is ______________ - it can cut everything. (USE) 10. The Scouting Association is the largest ________ youth organization in the world.(VOLUNTEER) VI. Put the sentences (A – J) in the correct order (1 – 10 ) to make a meaningful conversation.

A. Goodbye.

B. Yes, can you come at ten to three on Wednesday afternoon?

C. What name is it, please?

Page 2 of 7

D. Yes, that’s fine.

E. It’s Tom Smith.

F. Yes, can I make an appointment with doctor Wall, please?

G. No, I’m sorry, I can’t. What about the evening?

H. Good morning. Can I help you?

I. Thank you Mr. Smith. Goodbye.

J. Doctor Wall isn’t here in the evening on Wednesday, I’m afraid. I can put you in at half past six on Thursday evening.

Your answers: 1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. ________ 6. _______ 7. _______ 8. _______ 9. _______ 10. _______ VII. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences.  _____________________ 1. How many times you (be) to London this year?  _____________________ 2. The two girls (play) chess over there are my classmates.  _____________________ 3. We must take an umbrella. It (rain).  _____________________ 4. The guests (arrive) while I (still / cook).  _____________________ 5. The rice-cooking festival (hold) every two years.  _____________________ 6. I often (climb) trees when I was a little girl.  _____________________ 7. Two miles (be) enough for her to go jogging every morning.

8. I’m very bored. My mother always (complain) about her housework.  _____________________ VIII. Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet t indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

It was once believed that being overweight was healthy, but nowadays few people subscribe to this viewpoint. While many people are fighting the battle to reduce weight, studies are being conducted concerning the appetite and how it is controlled by both emotional and biochemical factors.

Some of the conclusions of these studies may give insights into how to deal with weight problems. For example, when several hundred people were asked about their eating habits in times of stress, 44 percent said they reacted to stressful situations by eating. Further investigations with both humans and animals indicated that it is not food which release tension but rather the act of chewing.

A test in which subjects were blindfolded showed that obese people have a keener sense of taste and crave more flavorful food than non- obese people. When deprived of the variety and intensity of taste, obese people are not satisfied and consequently eat more to fulfill this need. Blood samples taken from people after they were shown a picture of food revealed that overweight people reacted with an increase in blood insulin, a chemical associated with appetite. This did not happen to averageweight people.

In another experiment, results showed that certain people have a specific, biologically induced hunger for carbohydrates subsides. Eating carbohydrates raises the level of serotonin, a neurotransmitter in the brain. Enough serotonin produces a sense of satiation, and hunger for carbohydrates subsides.

Exercise has been recommended as an important part of a weight-loss program. However, it has been found that mild exercise, such as using stairs instead of the elevator, is better in the long run than taking on a strenuous program, such as jogging, which many people find difficult to continue over a long periods of time and which also increases appetite.

1. Years ago being overweight meant_______.

A. being rich B. being stylish C. being physically strong D. being unhealthy 2. The word “crave” in line 8, can be best replaced with A. devour B. absorb C. season D. desire.

3. It can be inferred from the passage that_______.

A. overweight people are tense B. These of people don’t eat when under stress C. Weight watchers should chew of something inedible when tense D. 56 percent of the population isn’t overweight.

4. It can be inferred from the passage that_______.

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A. Thin people don’t enjoy food B. A variety of foods and strong flavors satisfies heavy people.

C. Overweight people have an abnormal sense of taste.

D. Deprivation of food makes people fat.

5. According to the passage, Insulin A. increase in the bloodstream when people eat large amounts of food B. Can be used to lessen the appetite.

C. Causes a chemical reaction when food is seen.

D. levels don’t change in average weight people who see food.

6. It can be inferred that for certain people.

A. Eating carbohydrates eliminates hunger.

B. Carbohydrates biologically induce hunger.

C. Carbohydrates don’t satisfy a hunger person.

D. Carbohydrates subside when serotonin is produced.

7. What can be said about serotonin?

A. it is a chemical that increase the appetite B. Only certain people produce it in their brain.

C. it tells the brain when a person is full D. It neurotransmits carbohydrates to the train.

8. In order to lose weight, it would be a good idea for heavy people to A. jog 3 miles a day and chew on carrot sticks B. walk up stairs and look a t pictures of food.

C. Eat plenty of chewy carbohydrates D. Avoid stressful situation and eat spicy foods.

9. Which of the following exercises might be best for an overweight person to engage in daily?

A. an evening walk B. along swim C. cross-country skiing D. 10 mile bicycle rides.

10. Strenuous programs are believed A. to make people feel like eating B. To be favorite exercise for many people in their attempt at losing weight in the long run.

C. To be as good as mild exercises for gaining weight D. to be as easy as mild exercise to continue over long periods of time IX. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word.

The video to the global smash hit song Gangnam Style has become the most-watched clip (1)_______Youtube’s history. It has had almost 825 million views in the past five months and is moving quickly towards one billion. The video currently has 5,473,726 likes and 338,504 (2)_______.

Canadian teen idol Justin Bieber previously held the record for the most Youtube views with his 2010 blackbuster Baby. Gangnam Style is by 34-year-old South Korean (3)_______,Psy. His iconic dance and catchy tune (4)_______captured the imagination of millions of people (5)______. The video pokes fun at the glitzy Gangnam district of South Korea’s capital Seoul. In it, he is seen dancing around the city pretending to ride a (6)_______and twirl a lasso.

Gannam Style first appeared on Youtube in July. It (7)_______just five month to reach the 800-million mark, over two year quicker than Bieber’s song. A statement from Youtube Tends called the rise (8)_______popularity of the video as “unprecedented”. It said “The video has been a massive hit at a global level unlike anything we’ve ever seen before. Each day, Gangnam Style is still being watched (9)_______7 and 10 million times”. The dance has led to thousands of copycat videos being posted online, each with their own version of it. Even U.N Secrectary-General Ban Ki-Moon attempted it. Mr. Ban joked: “I’m a bit jealous. Until two days (10)______, someone told me I was the most famous Korean in the world. Now I have to relinquish that”.

X. Read the following text then choose from the list A-F the best sentence to fill each of the spaces. There is one extra sentence which you do not need.

I have recently become very worried about my 15-year-old son, Nick. Although he was never brilliant at school, he used to get reasonable good marks. (1) ______.

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He used to be such a good swimmer that he won several prizes. But now he has given up training. And instead of neat clothes he used to wear, all he ever puts on is the same pair of shabby of old jeans and a dirty sweatshirt.

(2) ______. Nick was in the kitchen. The radio was so loud that he didn’t hear me come behind him. My handbag was on the table. (3) ______.

We had a terrible row. Finally, he broke down and confessed everything. He has been going every day to a big amusement arcade near his school and playing electronics games with nick names like Space Warrior and Alien Invaders. I had always thought they were harmless. (4) ______.

He has promised he won’t go there again, but I think he’s too addicted to stop. (5) ______.

What can I do to help him?

A. But now I realize that he’s so hooked on them, he’ll even steal from his own mother in order to pay for the habit.

B. Even if he wanted to, he couldn’t - and he doesn’t .

C. I often leave it there so that I won’t forget it when I go out.

D. He had taken some money out of it and was just about to put it in his pocket.

E. But that isn’t all. Last Sunday, I got up earlier than usual.

F. But now his work has become so bad that his teachers say he is just wasting his time there.

Your answers: 1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. ________ XI. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means the same as the first one, beginning with the given words.

1. “You shouldn’t lend him any more money,” Mrs. Tuyet said to Nga.  Mrs. Tuyet advised ______________________________________________________________.

2. Everyone was surprised to see Geoff leave the party early.  To ____________________________________________________________________________.

3. It was so late that nothing could be done.  It was too ______________________________________________________________________.

4. Is this the best price you can offer?  Can’t you ______________________________________________________________________?

5. They never made us do anything we didn’t want to do.  We____________________________________________________________________________.

6. If the hole on the ozone layer had been discovered sooner, fewer people would have got skin cancer.  Had ___________________________________________________________________________ 7. I last saw him when I was a student.  I haven’t _______________________________________________________________________.

8. “Don’t forget to bring your passports with you when you go abroad.”  She reminded ___________________________________________________________________.

9. Smoking is not allowed in the ward.  Would you _____________________________________________________________________?

10. He failed the exam because of his laziness.  Because he______________________________________________________________________.

XII. Paragraph wiriting.

Today, many young people go to such countries as America, England, Australia, France, Japan, Korea.... for their studies because they can gain a lot but still some drawbacks are definitely not avoided.

Within 140-160 words, write a paragragh to show your ideas about the advantages and disadvantanges of studying overseas.

- THE END –

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UBND HUYỆN YÊN LẠC PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

HDC ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG CẤP HUYỆN MÔN : TIẾNG ANH 8 NĂM HỌC 2017- 2018 Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

(Tổng điểm: 200 điểm, sau đó quy đổi về thang điểm 10) I: 20 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 2 điểm 1. 48 2. R16 GH7 3. 07754 897 432 4. PA 365 5. E6 6 – 8. B, D, E in any order 9. C 10. C II: 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. C 8. A 9. A 10. B 6. C 7. D III: 16 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. A 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. C 16. D 15. B IV: 8 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. with 5. between 2. in - with 6. about 3. for 7. off - on 4. of 8. on V: 20 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 2 điểm 1. medallists/ medalists 6. sleeplessness 2. Unfortunately 7. extremely 3. unhappiness 8. enjoyable 4. representatives 9. useful 5. bleeding 10. voluntary VI: 20 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 2 điểm 1. H 2.F 3. B 4. G 5. J 6. D 7. C 8. E 9. I 10. A VII: 16 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 2 điểm 1. have (you) been / have … been 2. playing 3. is going to rain 4. arrived / was still cooking 5. is held 6. climbed 7. is 8. is always complaining VIII: 20 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 2 điểm 1. C 2.D 3.C 4.B 5.D 6.A 7.C 8.D 9.A 10.A. IX. 20 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 2 điểm 1. in 2. dislikes 3. singer 4. have 5. worldwide 6. horse 7. took 8. in 9. between 10. ago X: 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 2 điểm 1. F 2. E 3. D 4. A 5. B XI: 20 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 2 điểm 1. Mrs. Tuyet advised Nga not to lend him any more money.

2. To everyone’s surprise, Geoff left the party early.

3. It was too late to do anything.

(Or: It was too late for anything to be done.)

4. Can’t you offer a better price?

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5. We were never made to do anything we didn’t want to.

6. Had the hole in the ozone layer been discovered sooner, fewer people would have got skin cancer.

7. I haven’t seen him since I was a student.

8. She reminded me to bring my passports with me when I went abroad.

9. Would you mind not smoking in the ward?

10. Because he was lazy, he failed the exam.

XII: 20 điểm.

1. Mở bài: Nêu được chủ đề của bài viết.(được 3 điểm) 2. Thân bài: Nêu và trình bày được một số thuận lợi cũng như bất lợi của việc du học một cách rõ ràng, rành mạch, có lô-gic, có minh chứng và ví dụ. Ngôn ngữ đa dạng, dùng từ hay mang tính chất học thuật, có sự liên kết (được 14 điểm) 3. Kết luận: Tóm tắt, khẳng định lại tất cả lý do đã trình bày ở hai phần trước (khuyến khích hs đưa ra đánh giá và quan điểm cá nhân). (được 3 điểm)

- THE END -

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UBND HUYỆN YÊN LẠC

ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN

PHÒNG GD&ĐT YÊN LẠC

NĂM HỌC 2018- 2019 MÔN : TIẾNG ANH 8 Thời gian: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề.

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC.

(Đề thi gồm 05 trang) PART A. LISTENING Section 1: You are going to hear a radio news programme. Complete the gaps 1-4 with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER. You will hear the recording twice.(1 pt) Politics: Mr Jack Prune is said to have spent public money during his Italian (1)___________.

Economy: The scientists have found that we are wealthier now and enjoy (2)_________________.

Entertainment: The Rolling Stones concert is supposed to begin at (3)____________p.m.

Weather: The roads in the northern parts of the country may be (4)____________ and blocked by fallen trees.

Section 2: Listen to the recording and match the speakers 1-5 to the places A-F. There is one extra place that you don’t need to use. You will hear the recording twice.(0,5 pt) Where is each of the speakers?

Speaker 1 ________ Speaker 2 ________ Speaker 3 ________ Speaker 4 ________ ________ Speaker 5 A. in the classroom B. at the post office C. at the tourist agency D. at a restaurant E. in a clothes store F. at the airport PART B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete the sentences.

1. Many women today prefer wearing modern clothing __________traditional clothing.

A. than B. to C. with D. rather than 2. Ok. I’ll meet you at the main __________to the Plaza at six o’clock.

A. arrival B. access C. entrance D. way 3. When he __________the top of the stairs, his heart was pounding.

A. reached B. went C. arrived D. traveled 4. The station clock is not as _________as it should be; it is usually between one and two minutes fast.

A. certain B. strict C. accurate D. true 5. Be alert while enjoying surfing, __________?

A. shall we B. aren’t you C. don’t you D. will you

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6. The fox used his tricks to get food from the crow. What a ______ fox.

A. fierce B. cunning C. mean D. stupid 7. Children with ___________diseases should not be allowed to go to school.

A. constant B. infectious C. contact D. influential 8. Lan is interested in reading the books __________in English.

A. write B. writing C. wrote D. written 9. “How is your holiday in Nha Trang ?” - “_________”.

A. Absolutely right B. Really C. Awesome D. Sure 10. I didn’t do well in the last test, __________disappointed me.

A. that B. which C. this D. it 11. A tornado lifted a baby, who was asleep in its baby carriage, into the air and __________safely 100 meters away.

A. let it off B. take it on C. put it down D. suck it up 12. Don’t be late for the interview; __________, people will think you are a disorganized person.

A. otherwise B. unless C. however D. or so 13. Air pollution, together with littering, has ______ many problems in our large cities today.

A. brought B. affected C. made D. caused 14. What we heard was quite __________. She will get well soon.

A. encouraged B. encouraging C. discouraged D. discouraging 15. We will go out as soon as it ___________raining.

A. has stopped B. will stop C. is stopping D. will have stopped 16. Were you __________in the city or the country?

A. put down B. took up C. brought up D. thought of 17. I’d rather not __________absent from class yesterday.

A. be B. to have been C. to be D. have been 18. Would you mind my __________on the television?

A. to turn B. turning C. turn D. turned 19. Study harder ,___________.

A. and you will pass your exam B. or you will pass your exam C. if you will pass your exam D. unless you pass your exam 20. Australia is a __________ place where kangaroos and koalas are found.

A. exceptional B. scenic C. unique D. iconic II. Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick ( ) by the number on your answer sheet. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word on your answer sheet. There are two examples at the beginning.

0 00 1 2 3 4 5 6

The authorities of Bangladesh are doing their best for the victims of the floods which have been covered many of low-lying coastal villages. The floods were caused by a combination of very high spring tides and too heavy rainfall in the mountains, which, according to government sources, could not to have been predicted.

The government has called in the army to the affected areas, and they are handing out a food to the people

0. _____ ______ 00. ____been____ 1. _____________ 2. _____________ 3. _____________ 4. _____________ 5. _____________ 6. _____________

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7 who could have managed to get away from the flood 7. _____________ 8 by moving to more higher ground. The authorities 8. _____________ 9 estimate that there are must be several thousand 9. _____________ 10 people who are in need of urgent medical attention.

10. ____________ III. Complete the following paragragh by filling in each numbered gap with an appropriate form of the word in block capitals : The clothes we wear can be a form of communication. Clothes, like a ______ (1) language, give out a message. This can be very simple, for example, when we wear clothing for keeping warm, or perhaps to attend a ________ (2) ceremony, announce our ______(3) views or just look sexy, it isn’t always this simple, however ______ (4), as with speech, our reasons for making any statement have a _______ (5) to be double or multiple. The man who buys an expensive coat may simultaneously want it to offer ______(6) from bad weather, and magically surround him with the qualities of an _________(7) film star. _______ (8), people rarely succeed in satisfying both these requirements at once. Even _______(9) both these could actually be made by one single coat, this _______(10) item of clothing may not be available, and if it is, we may not be able to afford it.

1. SPEAK 2.

3.

4.

5.

GRADUATE POLITICS FORTUNE TEND

6. PROTECT 7. NATION 8. NATURE 9. SUPPOSE 10. IDEA

PART C. READING I. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question from the four choices (A, B, C or D).

Every year people in many countries learn English. Some of them are young children. Others are teenagers. Many are adults. Some learn at school. Others study by themselves. A few learn English just by hearing the language in films, on television, in the office or among their friends. But not many are lucky enough to do that. Most people must work hard to learn English.

Why do all these people learn English? It's not difficult to answer this question. Many boys and girls learn English at school because it is one of their subjects. Many adults learn English because it is useful for their work. Teenagers often learn English for their higher studies because some of their books are in English at the college or university. Other people learn English because they want to read newspapers or magazines in English.

1. According to the writer, ____________.

A. only young people learn English B. English is useful only for university students C. all people learn English at school D. English is popular all over the world 2. Most people learn English by ____________.

A. watching films B. hearing the language on television C. working hard on the lessons D. speaking English to their friends 3.

Many boys and girls learn English because ____________.

A. it is included in their study courses B. it's useful for their higher studies C. it's their own language D. they are forced to learn it 4. Many adults learn English ____________.

A. in order to be able to read newspapers in English B. because it helps them in their work

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C. because of their higher studies D. to communicate with their colleagues in the office 5. Which of the following isn't mentioned?

A. English is widely used.

B. English is a compulsory subject.

C. English is spoken in the office.

D. English is the language of diplomacy II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage.

MUSIC - A UNIVERSAL LANGUAGE Music is universal - it is produced by all cultures. Some scientists believe that music came before speech and (1) ______ as a development of mating calls. In fact, there is one theory that the (2) ______ languages were chanted or sung, rather than spoken. Indeed, in some cultures, music is a form of (3) ______ history. The Aboriginal Australians, for example, use music as a means to (4) ______ on stories of the land and spirits to the next generation.

New evidence suggests that music does not just (5) ______ the feel - good factor but it is also good for the brain. A study of intellectually (6) ______ children showed that they could recall more information after it was given to them in a song than after it was read to them as a story.

Researchers also report that people (7) ______ better on a standard intelligence test after listening to Mozart. The so-called “Mozart effect” has also been (8) ______ by findings that rats brought up on Mozart run faster through a complex network of paths or passages, (9) ______ as a maze. Overall, it seems that in most instances people who suffer from any form of mental (10) ______ benefit from listening to music.

1. A. was B. swelled C. arose D. reacted 2. A. earliest B. newest C. easiest D. simplest 3. A. enjoying B. making C. recording D. stating 4. A. move B. pass C. hand D. happen 5. A. convince B. satisfy C. please D. prefer 6. A. disabled B. inactive C. incapable D. disordered 7. A. examine B. prepare C. achieve D. score 8. A. supported B. given C. marked D. remembered 9. A. called B. heard C. regarded D. known 10. A. badness B. hurt C. illness D. pain III. Fill in each numbered blank with a correct word to complete the following passage.

The Internet is the world’s largest computer network with over 100 million users worldwide and this number (1)__________ doubling from year to year. The Internet is like an international highway of information. Now, you can sit at your computer, choose a route and (2) _____________ at your destination - that is, the information you need. Today, from your computer, you (3) __________ access a library in one country, talk to an expert on a certain topic in a second country and send your (4)___________information to someone doing research in a third. So, we don’t know what will be (5) ________ in the not - too - distant future.

The Internet was born (6) _________ scientists attempted to connect the American Defence Network to other satellite networks in (7)___________ to change information. Soon, scientific and educational institutions as well as research departments became interested (8)__________ linking up, and, before long, the Internet had expanded into an international informtaion and communication network.

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The Internet now (9) ______ all the countries in the world. You can be connected to the Internet directly through your own computer or you can hook up to (10) ___________ access system which allows you to use some of the Internet’s service.

PART D. WRITING I. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means the same as the first one, beginning with the given words.

1. You can eat as much as you like for $5 at the new lunch-bar.

There is no……………………………………………………………...………

2. The workers only called off the strike after a new pay offer Only after ………………………………………………………………………

3. It’s a long time since our last conversation..

We ………………………………………………………………...…………..

4. Collect all of dirty clothes by 8 o’clock tomorrow morning.

Let ……………………………………………...……………………………...

5. It’s no use persuading her to join in that activity.

There is ……………………………………………………....………………..

II. Paragraph wiriting.

Within 150-200 words, write a paragragh about the ways to prevent violence among students at secondary schools.

- THE END –

Page 5

UBND HUYỆN YÊN LẠC

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HDC ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI

PHÒNG GD&ĐT YÊN LẠC

NĂM HỌC 2018- 2019 MÔN : TIẾNG ANH 8

(Tổng điểm: 100 điểm, sau đó quy đổi về thang điểm 10) PART A. LISTENING ( 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 1điểm) Section 1: 1. holiday 2. spending money 3. 9/nine 4. slippery Section 2: 1. B 2. E 3. A 4. F 5. D PART B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR ( 40 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 1điểm) I. 1.B 2.C 3.A 4.C 6.B 7.B 8.D 9.C 11.C 12.A 13.D 14.B 16.C 17.D 18.B 19.A

5.D 10.B 15.A 20.C

II. 1. of 2.

3. too 4. to 5.

6. a 7. could 8. more 9. are 10.

III. 1. spoken 5. tendency 9. supposing

2. graduation 6. protection 10. ideal

3. political 7. international

4. unfortunately 8. Naturally

PART C. READING ( 25 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 1điểm) I.

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1.D

2.C

3.A

4.B

5.D

II. 1. C 6. A

2. A 7. D

3. C 8. A

4. B 9. D

5. B 10. C

III. 1. is 6. when

2. arrive 7. order

3. can 8. in

4. own 9. reaches

5. next 10. an

PART D. WRITING ( 25 điểm) I.( 5 điểm, mỗi câu đúng HS được 1điểm) 1. There is no matter/problem for you to eat as much as you like for $5 at the new lunch-bar.

2. Only after a new pay offer did the workers call off the strike 3. We haven’t spoken (to each other) for a long time.

4. Let all of dirty clothes be collected by 8 o’clock tomorrow morning.

5. There is no point in persuading her to join in that activity

II. ( 20 điểm) 1. Content: (50% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and as details as appropriate.

2. Organization & Presentation: (25% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students.

3. Language: (25% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students.

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