TÀI LIỆU ÔN TẬP TIẾNG ANH B2 - CHƯƠNG TRÌNH ÔN TẬP 4 KỸ NĂNG ĐHSP HCM CÓ ĐẦY ĐỦ ĐÁP ÁN

TÀI LIỆU ÔN TẬP TIẾNG ANH ĐHSP HCM

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TÀI LIỆU ÔN TẬP TIẾNG ANH B2 - CHƯƠNG TRÌNH ÔN TẬP 4 KỸ NĂNG ĐHSP HCM CÓ ĐẦY ĐỦ ĐÁP ÁN ĐỌC - NGHE - NÓI - VIẾT (2018) WORD VERSION | 2021 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM

Tài liệu chuẩn tham khảo Phát triển kênh bởi Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú Đơn vị tài trợ / phát hành / chia sẻ học thuật : Nguyen Thanh Tu Group Hỗ trợ trực tuyến Fb www.facebook.com/DayKemQuyNhon Mobi/Zalo 0905779594

PHẦN 2: ĐỌC HIỂU – VSTEP Thời gian: 60 phút Số câu hỏi: 40 Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.

Example Read the following passage: FALL WEATHER One of the first things we look for in fall is the first frost and freeze of the season, killing or sending into dormancy the beautiful vegetation you admired all summer long.

For some locations along the Canadian border, and in the higher terrain of the West, the Line first freeze typically arrives by the middle part of September. Cities in the South may 5 not see the first freeze until November, though a frost is very possible before then. A few cities in the Lower 48, including International Falls, Minnesota and Grand Forks, North Dakota, have recorded a freeze in every month of the year.

0. When does the first freeze often arrive in the South?

A. Early September B. Mid September C. November D. Before November You will read in the passage that “Cities in the South may not see the first freeze until November”, so the correct answer is option C. November.

PASSAGE 1- Questions 1-10

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Aside from perpetuating itself, the sole purpose of the American Academy and Institute of Arts and Letters is to "foster, assist and sustain an interest" in literature, music, and art. This it does by enthusiastically handing out money. Annual cash awards are given to deserving artists in various categories of creativity: architecture, musical composition, theater, novels, serious poetry, light verse, painting, sculpture. One award subsidizes a promising American writer`s visit to Rome. There is even an award for a very good work of fiction that failed commercially ― once won by the young John Updike for the Poorhouse Fair and, more recently, by Alice Walker for In Love and Trouble.

The awards and prizes total about $750,000 a year, but most of them range in size from $5,000 to $12,500, a welcome sum to many young practitioners whose work may not bring in that much money in a year. One of the advantages of the awards is that many go to the struggling artists, rather than to those who are already successful.

Members of the Academy and Institute are not eligible for any cash prizes. Another advantage is that, unlike the National Endowment for the Arts or similar institutions throughout the world, there is no government money involved.

Awards are made by committee. Each of the three departments ― Literature (120 members), Art(83), Music(47) ― has a committee dealing with its own field.

Committee membership rotates every year, so that new voices and opinions are constantly heard.

The most financially rewarding of all the Academy-Institute awards are the Mildred and Harold Strauss Livings. Harold Strauss, a devoted editor at Alfred A. Knopf, the New York publishing house, and Mildred Strauss, his wife, were wealthy and childless.

They left the Academy-Institute a unique bequest : for five consecutive years, two distinguished (and financially needy) writers would receive enough money so they could devote themselves entirely to "prose literature"(no plays, no poetry, and no paying job that might distract). In 1983, the first Strauss Livings of $35,000 a year went to short-story writer Raymond Carver and novelist-essayist Cynthia Ozick. By 1988, the fund had grown enough so that two winners, novelists Diane Johnson and Robert Stone, each got $50,000 a year for five years.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A) Award-winning works of literature B) An organization that supports the arts C) The life of an artist D) Individual patrons of the arts 2. The word "sole" in line 1 is closest in meaning to A) only B) honorable C) common D) official 3. The word "subsidizes" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

A) assures B) finances C) schedules D) publishes 4. Which of the following can be inferred about Alice Walker`s book In Love and Trouble?

A) It sold more copies than The Poorhouse Fair.

B) It described the author`s visit to Rome.

C) It was a commercial success.

D) It was published after The Poorhouse Fair.

5. Each year the awards and prizes offered by the Academy-Institute total approximately A) $ 12,500 B) $ 35,000 C) $ 50,000 D) $ 750,000 6. The word "many" in line 13 refers to A) practitioners B) advantages C) awards D) strugglers 7. What is one of the advantages of the Academy-Institute awards mentioned in the passage?

A) They are subsidized by the government.

B) They are often given to unknown artists.

C) They are also given to Academy-Institute members.

D) They influence how the National Endowment for the Arts makes its award decisions.

8. The word "rotates" in line 19 is closest in meaning to A) alternate B) participates C) decides D) meets 9. The word "they" in line 25 refers to A) Mildred and Harold Strauss B) years C) writers D) plays 10. Where in the passage does the author cite the goal of the Academy-Institute?

A) Lines 1-3 B) Lines 12-13 C) Lines 19-20 D) Lines 22-23

PASSAGE 2- Questions 11-20

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Before the 1500’s, the western plains of North America were dominated by farmers. One group, the Mandans, lived in the upper Missouri River country, primarily in present-day North Dakota. They had large villages of houses built close together. The tight arrangement enabled the Mandans to protect themselves more easily from the attacks of others who might seek to obtain some of the food these highly capable farmers stored from one year to the next.

The women had primary responsibility for the fields. They had to exercise considerable skill to produce the desired results, for their northern location meant fleeting growing seasons. Winter often lingered; autumn could be ushered in by severe frost. For good measure, during the spring and summer, drought, heat, hail, grasshoppers, and other frustrations might await the wary grower.

Under such conditions, Mandan women had to grow maize capable of weathering adversity. They began as early as it appeared feasible to do so in the spring, clearing the land, using fire to clear stubble from the fields and then planting. From this point until the first green corn could be harvested, the crop required labor and vigilance.

Harvesting proceeded in two stages. In August the Mandans picked a smaller amount of the crop before it had matured fully. This green corn was boiled, dried, and shelled, with some of the maize slated for immediate consumption and the rest stored in animal-skin bags. Later in the fall, the people picked the rest of the corn.

They saved the best of the harvest for seeds or for trade, with the remainder eaten right away or stored for later use in underground reserves. With appropriate banking of the extra food, the Mandans protected themselves against the disaster of crop failure and accompanying hunger.

The women planted another staple, squash, about the first of June, and harvested it near the time of the green corn harvest. After they picked it, they sliced it, dried it, and strung the slices before they stored them. Once again, they saved the seed from the best of the year`s crop. The Mandans also grew sunflowers and tobacco ; the latter was the particular task of the older men.

11. What is the main topic of the passage ?

A) The agricultural activities of a North American Society B) Various ways corn can be used C) The problems encountered by farmers who specialize in growing one crop D) Weather conditions on the western plains 12. The Mandans built their houses close together in order to A) guard their supplies of food B) protect themselves against the weather C) allow more room for growing corn D) share farming implements 13. The word "enabled" in line 4 is closest in meaning to A) covered

B) reminded C) helped D) isolated 14. The word "considerable" in line 8 is closest in meaning to A) planning B) much C) physical D) new 15. Why does the author believe that the Mandans were skilled farmers ?

A) They developed effective fertilizers.

B) They developed new varieties of corn.

C) They could grow crops in most types of soil.

A) They could grow crops despite adverse weather.

16. The word "consumption" in line 19 is closest in meaning to A) decay B) planting C) eating D) conversion 17. Which of the following processes does the author imply was done by both men and women ?

A) Clearing fields B) Planting corn C) Harvesting corn D) Harvesting squash 18. The word "disaster" in line 23 is closest in meaning to A) control B) catastrophe C) avoidance D) history 19. According to the passage, the Mandans preserved their food by A) smoking B) drying C) freezing D) salting 20. Throughout the passage, the author implies that the Mandans A) planned for the future B) valued individuality C) were open to strangers D) were very adventurous

PASSAGE 3 – Questions 21-30

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No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By changing word sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to communicate tiny variations in meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken place or is soon to take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning. Nor is this complexity inherent to the English language. All languages, even those of so-called 'primitive' tribes have clever grammatical components. The Cherokee pronoun system, for example, can distinguish between 'you and I', 'several other people and I' and 'you, another person and I'. In English, all these meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun 'we'. Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is. So the question which has baffled many linguists is - who created grammar?

At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how grammar is created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's creation, documenting its emergence. Many historical linguists are able to trace modern complex languages back to earlier languages, but in order to answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to observe how languages are started from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is possible.

Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time, slaves from a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer's rule. Since they had no opportunity to learn each other's languages, they developed a makeshift language called a pidgin. Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the landowner. They have little in the way of grammar, and in many cases it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event happened, and who did what to whom. A Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood. B Interestingly, however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for a group of children to be exposed to it at the time when they learn their mother tongue. C Slave children did not simply copy the strings of words uttered by their elders, they adapted their words to create a new, expressive language. D Complex grammar systems which emerge from pidgins are termed creoles, and they are invented by children.

Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign languages are not simply a series of gestures; they utilise the same grammatical machinery that is found in spoken languages. Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide. The creation of one such language was documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all deaf people were isolated from each other, but in 1979 a new government introduced schools for the deaf. Although children were taught speech and lip reading in the classroom, in the playgrounds they began to invent their own sign system, using the gestures that they used at home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used the signs differently, and there was no consistent grammar.

However, children who joined the school later, when this inventive sign system was already around, developed a quite different sign language. Although it was based on the signs of the older children, the younger children's language was more fluid and compact, and it utilised a large range of grammatical devices to clarify meaning. What is more, all the children used the signs in the same way. A new creole was born.

Some linguists believe that many of the world's most established languages were creoles at first. The English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the verb 'do'. 'It

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ended' may once have been 'It end-did'. Therefore it would appear that even the most widespread languages were partly created by children. Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life when they are first trying to make sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve to create logical, complex structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.

21. In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee language?

A) To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures B) To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar C) To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees.

D) To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language 22. What can be inferred about the slaves' pidgin language?

A) It contained complex grammar.

B) It was based on many different languages.

C) It was difficult to understand, even among slaves.

D) It was created by the land-owners.

23. All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true EXCEPT: A) The language has been created since 1979.

B) The language is based on speech and lip reading.

C) The language incorporates signs which children used at home.

D) The language was perfected by younger children.

24. In which space in paragraph 3 (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit?

It included standardised word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the pidgin language, nor the language of the colonizers.

A. A B. B C. C D. D 25. 'From scratch' in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to: A) from the very beginning B) in simple cultures C) by copying something else D) by using written information 26. 'Make-shift' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to: A) complicated and expressive B) simple and temporary C) extensive and diverse D) private and personal 27. Which sentence is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence?

Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is.

A) All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain grammar.

B) Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a little.

C) Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages that contain a little.

D) The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved.

28. All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT: A) All children used the same gestures to show meaning.

B) The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language.

C) The hand movements were smoother and smaller.

D) New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities.

29. Which idea is presented in the final paragraph?

A) English was probably once a creole.

B) The English past tense system is inaccurate.

C) Linguists have proven that English was created by children.

D) Children say English past tenses differently from adults.

30. The word “consistent� in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by which of the following?

A) natural B) predictable C) imaginable D) uniform

PASSAGE 4 – QUESTIONS 31 – 40

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Ancient people probably assembled the massive sandstone horseshoe at Stonehenge more than 4,600 years ago, while the smaller bluestones were imported from Wales later, a new study suggests. The conclusion, detailed in the December issue of the journal Antiquity, challenges earlier timelines that proposed the smaller stones were raised first.

"The sequence proposed for the site is really the wrong way around," said study co-author Timothy Darvill, an archaeologist at Bournemouth University in England. "The original idea that it starts small and gets bigger is wrong. It starts big and stays big. The new scheme puts the big stones at the center at the site as the first stage."

The new timeline, which relies on statistical methods to tighten the dates when the stones were put into place, overturns the notion that ancient societies spent hundreds of years building each area of Stonehenge. Instead, a few generations likely built each of the major elements of the site, said Robert Ixer, a researcher who discovered the origin of the bluestones, but who was not involved in the study. "It's a very timely paper and a very important paper," Ixer said. "A lot of us have got to go back and rethink when the stones arrived."

The Wiltshire, England, site of Stonehenge is one of the world's most enduring mysteries. No one knows why prehistoric people built the enigmatic megaliths, although researchers over the years have argued the site was originally a sun calendar, a symbol of unity, or a burial monument.

Though only some of the stones remain, at the center of the site once sat an oval of bluestones, or igneous rocks (those formed from magma) that turn a bluish hue when wet or freshly cut.

Surrounding the bluestones are five giant sandstone megaliths called trilithons, or two vertical standing slabs capped by a horizontal stone, arranged in the shape of a horseshoe.

Around the horseshoe, ancient builders erected a circular ring of bluestones. The sandstone boulders, or sarsens, can weigh up to 40 tons (36,287 kilograms), while the much smaller bluestones weigh a mere 4 tons (3,628 kg).

Past researchers believed the bluestone oval and circle were erected earlier than the massive sandstone horseshoe. But when Darvill and his colleagues began excavations at the site in 2008, they found the previous chronology didn't add up. The team estimated the age of new artifacts from the site, such as an antler bone pick stuck within the stones. Combining the new information with dating from past excavations, the team created a new timeline for Stonehenge's construction.

Like past researchers, the team believes that ancient people first used the site 5,000 years ago, when they dug a circular ditch and mound, or henge, about 361 feet (110 meters) in diameter. But the new analysis suggests around 2600 B.C. the Neolithic people built the giant sandstone horseshoe, drawing the stone from nearby quarries. Only then did builders arrange the much smaller bluestones, which were probably imported from Wales. Those bluestones were then rearranged at various positions throughout the site over the next millennium, Darvill said. "They sort out the local stuff first, and then they bring in the stones from Wales to add to the complexity of the structure," Darvill told LiveScience.

The new dating allows the archaeologists to tie the structure to specific people who lived in the area at the time, Darvill said. The builders of the larger sandstone structures were pig farmers found only in the British Isles. In contrast, the bluestone builders would've been the Beaker people, sheep and cow herders who lived throughout Europe and are known for the distinctive, bell-shape pottery they left behind.

The new timeline "connects everything together, it gives us a good sequence of events outside, and it gives us a set of cultural associations with the different stages of construction," Darvill said. " 31. The new study described in this article suggests which sequence of events for the building of Stonehenge?

A) The bluestones were arranged in the horseshoe configuration and then accented with the larger stones B) Ancient peoples first arranged the small bluestone configuration and later ringed it with large, imported granite slabs C) The sandstone horseshoe was developed first, thousands of years ago, and the smaller bluestones were imported later from Wales D) All the stones were brought in at the same time and slowly arranged over centuries 32. Which type of methodology does the new study rely on to discern Stonehenge's timeline?

A) Mineralogy B) Statistical analysis C) Carbon dating D) DNA analysis 33. According to the article, a sarsen could weigh how much?

A) 38 tons B) 42 tons C) 56 tons D) 41 tons 34. Until the study that is discussed in the article, what was the accepted sequence of Stonehenge's construction?

A) Bluestone horseshoe, then sandstone oval B) Bluestone diamond, then sandstone square C) Bluestone square, then sandstone circle D) Bluestone oval, then sandstone horseshoe 35. None of the following were known artifacts in constructing the new Stonehenge timeline EXCEPT A) Arrowheads of the nearby civilizations B) Skeletons of ancient peoples C) An antler bone wedged between stones D) Stone eroded clearly enough to be dated

36. It is agreed between old and new studies that Stonehenge was first used by civilizations?

A) 5,000 years ago B) 6,000 years ago

C) 7,000 years ago D) 8,000 years ago 37. The later bluestones, believed to be imported from Wales, A) were originally arranged to outline the horseshoe shape of the sandstone boulders B) were arranged over the course of a millennium C) were actually recovered from local quarries D) were settled in their pattern within a year 38. According to Darvill, what effect did the bluestones have upon Stonehenge?

A) They allowed the dimensions of Stonehenge to be more aesthetically pleasing B) They provided an added complexity to the structure by using foreign material C) They represented strong cultural ties with the Welsh culture D) They were symbols of conquest of foreign lands 39. According to Darvill, what is the most important piece of knowledge obtained from this new timeline?

A) That sandstone and bluestone were both native to the region B) That Stonehenge became the model for future Scottish architecture C) That the original peoples who built Stonehenge were wealthy enough to acquire rare stones D) That the original builders of Stonehenge were different types of animal herders 40. What is the conclusion that Darvill draws in the quote in the final paragraph?

A) Stonehenge remains an inspiration for modern artists and architects B) The mysteries of Stonehenge are entirely clarified by the new research and timeline C) Previous timelines for Stonehenge may have given us a flawed interpretation of the civilizations and materials they had access to at the time D) Stonehenge was really a foreign project, made from materials outside of the country, and influenced by civilizations other than those who lived locally

This is the end of the reading paper.

Now please submit your test paper and your answer sheets.

PHẦN 2: ĐỌC HIỂU – VSTEP Thời gian: 60 phút Số câu hỏi: 40 Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.

Example Read the following passage: FALL WEATHER One of the first things we look for in fall is the first frost and freeze of the season, killing or sending into dormancy the beautiful vegetation you admired all summer long.

For some locations along the Canadian border, and in the higher terrain of the West, the Line first freeze typically arrives by the middle part of September. Cities in the South may 5 not see the first freeze until November, though a frost is very possible before then. A few cities in the Lower 48, including International Falls, Minnesota and Grand Forks, North Dakota, have recorded a freeze in every month of the year.

0. When does the first freeze often arrive in the South?

A. Early September B. Mid September C. November D. Before November You will read in the passage that “Cities in the South may not see the first freeze until November”, so the correct answer is option C. November.

PASSAGE 1- Questions 1-10

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YOUR ROOM AT A GLANCE INSTANT SERVICE To make your stay more enjoyable, Instant Service is available “around the clock” for any requests.

WAKE-UP SERVICE Please contact Instant Service.

IN-ROOM BAR Your private bar is stocked daily with a variety of drinks and snacks. Items removed are automatically charged to your account. A menu with pricing is located in your room.

THE INTERNET Your room is equipped with high speed Internet access. A daily access fee will be assessed to your account.

EXPRESS CHECK-OUT For a fast and effortless check-out, please utilize our voicemail check-out by dialing extension 4510 and leave your name and room number.

IN-ROOM COFFEE Complimentary coffee is replenished daily in your room. Keurig-makers have directions located on the front of the machine. If further assistance is required please dial Instant Service. Complimentary coffee and tea is also served in the Lobby from 6:00AM to 7:00AM. FITNESS CENTER The Fitness Center offers an assortment of cardio and weight training equipment.

Available 24 hours a day with a guestroom key card access on the third floor. Access to the steam room and sauna are available from 6:00AM to 8:00PM. IN-ROOM SAFE The safe can be programmed with a personalized four-digit pin code for each use.

Please see detailed instructions located in the safe. Alternatively, safe deposit boxes are available at the Reception Desk.

HOUSEKEEPING SERVICE Your room is serviced daily between 8:30AM and 2:30PM Monday through Friday; between 9:00AM and 3:00PM Saturday, Sunday and Holidays. For fresh towels after service hours, please dial Instant Service.

LAUNDRY & SHOE SHINE Please find instructions in your closet for Laundry, Pressing and Dry Cleaning Service.

For Shoe Shine service, please contact Instant Service for pick-up.

ENTERTAINMENT For your viewing pleasure we are pleased to offer a selection of pay per view movies and entertainment options. To view these and other options, press the menu button on the remote control.

1. You can contact Instant Service …

A. twelve hours a day B. twenty-four hours a day C. in the hotel lobby next to the clock

D. every hour on the hour: at 6 o‟clock, 7 o‟clock, etc 2. There is a variety of drinks and snacks ...

A. in the hotel‟s private bar B. that are removed from your room every day C. that you can have and pay with your room bill D. that are automatically charged to your bank account 3. There is ............. Internet access in your room.

A. fast B. free C. basic D. wireless 4. If you want a coffee, you can ...

A. dial Instant Service B. put money in a machine in your room C. follow the directions to the nearest coffee bar D. have it for free in the lobby early in the morning 5. To enter the Fitness Center you need ...

A. your room key card B. to ask for a specific key C. to be a guest on the third floor D. to go between 6:00AM and 8:00PM 6. The in-room safe is ...

A. an alarm system that you can program B. a box with a pin code to keep valuable things C. a deposit box that you can get at the Reception Desk D. a personalized four-digit pin code to enter each room 7. You can find that your room hasn‟t been cleaned yet if you come back at ...

A. 2:00AM on a Friday B. 2:00PM on a Friday C. 3:00AM on a Sunday D. 3:30PM on a Sunday 8. If you need to clean your shoes ...

A. you‟ll find instructions in your closet B. call Instant Service for instructions on how to clean them C. call Instant Service and they‟ll clean them for you in your room D. call Instant Service and they‟ll collect the shoes from your room 9. The hotel offers a selection of films that you can watch ...

A. for free

B. for a daily amount of money C. and pay for each film you watch D. in the hotel‟s entertainment area 10. Which one is NOT TRUE? You should contact Instant Service if you need …

A. to check out B. fresh towels C. to wake up early D. to clean your shoes PASSAGE 2- Questions 11-20

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A baby born today could live to be not only 100, but even 120 years old. Hard to believe? Apparently, there could be a gene for not only long life, but long and healthy life.

Even today, there are many, many people who have passed the landmark age of 100 – an age that seemed an impossible achievement only a few decades ago. In fact, there are now so many healthy, elderly people that a new term has been coined: the wellderly. These are people over the age of 80 who have no chronic diseases such as high blood pressure, coronary disease or diabetes and who have never taken medication for these conditions.

There have been quite a few scientific studies of communities where a healthy old age is typical. These include places like Calabria in southern Italy and the island of Okinawa in Japan.

The small village of Molochio in Calabria numbers about 2,000 inhabitants. And of these, there are at least eight centenarians. When researchers ask people like this what the secret of their long life is, the answer is invariably to do with diet and is almost always the same: „I eat a lot of fruit and vegetables.‟ „A little bit, but of everything.‟ „No smoking, no drinking.‟ But such evidence is now regarded as unreliable and these days scientists are looking beyond diet and lifestyle to genetic factors. Eric Topol is one researcher who questions the received wisdom, saying, „There must be genes that explain why some individuals are protected from the harmful genes that affect the aging process.‟ New research into long life, looking at groups of people who have a genetic connection, has taken scientists to Ecuador. In one small region there are a number of people with a genetic condition called Laron syndrome. The main effect of this condition is to restrict the individual‟s growth to little more than a metre, but it also seems to protect them against both cancer and diabetes. Ultimately, those with Laron‟s syndrome live longer than the rest of their families. Meanwhile, on the Hawaiian island of Oahu, there‟s a completely separate group of Japanese-American men who are particularly long-lived. And it turns out that they have a variant of the same gene as the Laron syndrome group.

Back in Calabria, scientists have been trying to work out exactly how much of the local longevity is due to genetics and how much to environmental factors. By checking public records going back to the 19th century, researchers have reconstructed the family trees of 202 nonagenarians and centenarians. They concluded that there were

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genetic factors which seemed to benefit the men more than the women – a surprising result because generally in Europe, women centenarians outnumber men by about five to one.

So what really makes people live longer? It seems likely that it is an interaction of genes, the environment and ultimately a third factor beyond our control – luck.

11. Research into long life ...

A. looks mainly at the influence of lifestyle.

B. has changed its focus in recent years.

C. suggests that luck is the key factor in reaching old age.

D. has made no significant progress.

12. The important factors in long life …

A. are mainly to do with people‟s daily habits.

B. include a person‟s genetic makeup.

C. seem to be connected to where people live.

D. are dependent solely on hereditary attributes.

13. According to the article, ...

A. people have been reaching the age of 100 for decades.

B. there are very few people over 80 who are healthy.

C. people could live to be 120 in the future.

D. globally, there are very few people over 80.

14. According to the article, …

A. the number of healthy old people is growing.

B. certain illnesses such as high blood pressure need no medication.

C. chronic diseases are not to be expected in elderly people.

D. elderly people suffer from withdrawal symptoms.

15. In certain parts of Italy and Japan, …

A. the majority of elderly people are not in good health.

B. about eight percent of people are over 100.

C. healthy elderly inhabitants are the norm.

D. elderly people receive sizable support grants.

16. Research in Italy and Japan has shown that …

A. old people tend to believe their age is due to what they eat.

B. most people can‟t explain what the secret to long life is.

C. there are many different factors influencing old age.

D. regular exercise is far from affecting longevity.

17. Some researchers ...

A. think that they‟ve found a gene responsible for old age.

B. have linked people‟s lifestyle to their genes.

C. find enough evidence against genetic influences.

D. doubt that diet is the key to old age.

8. Laron syndrome is a genetic condition which …

A. affects people in a number of ways.

B. only affects groups in Ecuador and Hawaii.

C. affects everyone in a family.

D. hardly have any effects on people.

9. Laron syndrome is interesting to scientists because …

A. it explains why some people don‟t grow tall.

B. it shows that there is a genetic reason for old age.

C. it only affects men.

D. it has not been discovered until recently.

10. Research into families in Calabria …

A. doesn‟t support the idea of a genetic basis for old age.

B. found that more women lived to old age than men.

C. showed unexpected old age patterns.

D. confirmed the only factor was the environment.

PASSAGE 3 – Questions 21-30

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What geologists call the Basin and Range Province in the United States roughly coincides in its northern portions with the geographic province known as the Great Basin. The Great Basin is hemmed in on the west by the Sierra Nevada and on the east Line by the Rocky Mountains; it has no outlet to the sea. The prevailing winds in the Great Basin are from the west. Warm, moist air from the Pacific Ocean is forced upward as it crosses the Sierra Nevada. At the higher altitudes it cools and the moisture it carriers is precipitated as rain or snow on the western slopes of the mountains. That which reaches the Basin is air wrung dry of moisture. What little water falls there as rain or snow, mostly in the winter months, evaporates on the broad, flat desert floors. It is, therefore, an environment in which organisms battle for survival. Along the rare watercourses, cottonwoods and willows eke out a sparse existence. In the upland ranges, pinon pines and junipers struggle to hold their own.

But the Great Basin has not always been so arid. Many of its dry, closed depressions were once filled with water. Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley were once a string of interconnected lakes. The two largest of the ancient lakes of the Great Basin were Lake Lahontan and Lake Bonneville. The Great Salt Lake is all that remains of the latter, and Pyramid Lake is one of the last briny remnants of the former.

There seem to have been several periods within the last tens of thousands of years when water accumulated in these basins. The rise and fall of the lakes were undoubtedly linked to the advances and retreats of the great ice sheets that covered much of the northern part of the North American continent during those times. Climatic changes during the Ice Ages sometimes brought cooler, wetter weather to midlatitude deserts worldwide, including those of the Great Basin. The broken valleys of the Great Basin provided ready receptacles for this moisture.

21. What is the geographical relationship between the Basin and Range Province and the Great Basin?

(A) The Great Basin is west of the Basin and Range Province.

(B) The Great Basin is larger than the Basin and Range Province.

(C) The Great Basin is in the northern part of the Basin and Range Province.

(D) The Great Basin is mountainous; the Basin and Range Province is flat desert.

22. According to the passage, what does the great Basin lack?

(A) Snow (B) Dry air (C) Winds from the west (D) Access to the ocean 23. The word "prevailing" in line 4 is closest in meaning to (A) most frequent (B) occasional (C) gentle (D) most dangerous 24. It can be inferred that the climate in the Great Basin is dry because (A) the weather patterns are so turbulent (B) the altitude prevents precipitation (C) the winds are not strong enough to carry moisture (D) precipitation falls in the nearby mountains 25. The word "it" in line 5 refers to (A) Pacific Ocean (B) air (C) west

(D) the Great Basin

26. Why does the author mention cottonwoods and willows in line 11?

(A) To demonstrate that certain trees require a lot of water (B) To give examples of trees that are able to survive in a difficult environment (C) To show the beauty of the landscape of the Great Basin (D) To assert that there are more living organisms in the Great Basin than there used to be 27. Why does the author mention Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley in the second paragraph?

(A) To explain their geographical formation (B) To give examples of depressions that once contained water (C) To compare the characteristics of the valleys with the characteristics of the lakes (D) To explain what the Great Basin is like today 28. The words "the former" in line 17 refer to (A) Lake Bonneville (B) Lake Lahontan (C) The Great Salt Lake (D) Pyramid Lake 29. The word "accumulated" in line 19 is closest in meaning to (A) dried (B) flooded (C) collected (D) evaporated

30. According to the passage, the Ice Ages often brought about (A) desert formation (B) warmer climates (C) broken valleys (D) wetter weather PASSAGE 4 – QUESTIONS 31 – 40

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Life originated in the early seas less than a billion years after the Earth was formed.

Yet another three billion years were to pass before the first plants and animals appeared on the continents. Life's transition from the sea to the land was perhaps as much of an evolutionary challenge as was the genesis of life.

What forms of life were able to make such a drastic change in lifestyle? The traditional view of the first terrestrial organisms is based on megafossils-relatively large specimens of essentially whole plants and animal. Vascular plants, related to modern seed plants and ferns, left the first comprehensive megafossil record. Because of this, it has been commonly assumed that the sequence of terrestrialization reflected the evolution of modern terrestrial ecosystems. In this view, primitive vascular plants first colonized the margins of continental waters, followed by animals that fed on the plants, and lastly by animals that preyed on the plant-eater. Moreover, the megafossils suggest that terrestrial life appeared and diversified explosively near the boundary between the Silurian and the Devonian periods, a little more than 400 million years ago.

Recently, however, paleontologists have been taking a closer look at the sediments below this Silurian-Devonian geological boundary. It turns out that some fossils can be extracted from these sediments by putting the rocks in an acid bath. The technique has uncovered new evidence from sediments that were deposited near the shores of the ancient oceans-plant microfossils and microscopic pieces of small animals. In many instances the specimens are less than one-tenth of a millimeter in diameter. Although they were entombed in the rocks for hundreds of millions of years, many of the fossils consist of the organic remains of the organism.

These newly discovered fossils have not only revealed the existence of previously unknown organisms, but have also pushed back these dates for the invasion of land by multicellular organisms. Our views about the nature of the early plant and animal communities are now being revised. And with those revisions come new speculations about the first terrestrial life-forms.

31. The word "drastic" in line 5 is closest in meaning to (A) widespread (B) radial (C) progressive

(D) risky

32. According to the theory that the author calls "the traditional view", what was the first form of life to appear on land?

(A) Bacteria (B) Meat-eating animals (C) Plant-eating animals (D) Vascular plants

33. According to the passage, what happened about 400 million years ago?

(A) Many terrestrial life-forms died out.

(B) New life-forms on land developed at a rapid rate.

(C) The megafossils were destroyed by floods.

(D) Life began to develop in the ancient seas.

34. The word "extracted" in line 18 is closest in meaning to (A) located (B) preserved (C) removed (D) studied 35. What can be inferred from the passage about the fossils mentioned in lines 17-20?

(A) They have not been helpful in understanding the evolution of terrestrial life.

(B) They were found in approximately the same numbers as vascular plant fossils.

(C) They are older than the magafossils.

(D) They consist of modern life forms.

36. The word "instances" in line 21 is closest in meaning to (A) methods (B) processes (C) cases (D) reasons 37. The word "they" in line 22 refers to (A) rocks (B) shores (C) oceans

(D) specimens

38. The word "entombed" in line 22 is closest in meaning to (A) crushed (B) trapped (C) produced (D) excavated 39. Which of the following resulted from the discovery of microscopic fossils?

(A) The time estimate for the first appearance of terrestrial life-forms was revised (B) Old techniques for analyzing fossils were found to have new uses.

(C) The origins of primitive sea life were explained.

(D) Assumptions about the locations of ancient seas were changed.

40. With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?

(A) The evolution of terrestrial life was as complicated as the origin of life itself.

(B) The discovery of microfossils supports the traditional view of how terrestrial life evolved.

(C) New species have appeared at the same rate over the course of the last 400 million years.

(D) The technology used by paleontologists is too primitive to make accurate determinations about ages of fossils.

This is the end of the reading paper.

Now please submit your test paper and your answer sheets.

Reading mock test 1 Passage 1 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. A Passage 2 11. A 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. A Passage 3 21 A 22 C 23 B 24 D 25 A 26 B 27 A 28 D 29 A 30 D Passage 4 31 C 32 B 33 A 34 D 35 C 36 A 37 B 38 B 39 D 40 C Reading mock test 2 1B 2C 3A 4D 5A 6B 7B 8D 9C 10A 11B 12B 13C 14A 15C 16A 17D 18A 19B 20C 21C 22D 23A 24D 25B 26B 27B 28B 29C 30D 31B 32D 33B 34C 35C 36C 37D 38B 39A 40A

LISTENING TEST Time: 30 minutes Number of questions: 35 Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts in this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording.

There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.

Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.

PART 1-Questions 1-8 Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.

Now, let’s listen to an example. On the recording, you will hear: Woman: Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call. You left a message about the holiday you’ve booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at Sunny Hotel. Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you order. Let me know if I can help you with any other information. Goodbye.

On the test book, you will read: Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday?

A. Breakfast B. Lunch C. Dinner D. All The correct answer is A. Breakfast. Now, let’s begin with the first question.

1. How can a caller make an appointment?

(A) Call back after 7:00 (B) Go online (C) Press 2

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(D) Visit the office 2. What will Dr. Swanson talk about?

(A) Small business (B) Tourism (C) Customer relations (D) Book promotion 3. How much is the discount?

(A) 15% (B) 16% (C) 20% (D) 50% 4. When will the weather change?

(A) This morning (B) This afternoon (C) Tonight (D) On Sunday 5. What does the speaker recommend eating?

(A) Salty or sweet food (B) A big breakfast (C) Fast food (D) Dessert 6. How can a caller make an appointment?

(A) Leave a message (B) Contact Dr. Rogers (C) Call during office hours (D) Phone 324-9014 7. What should people bring to the event?

(A) Tickets (B) Resumes (C) Newspapers 2

(D) Applications 8. How many hours will the trip last?

(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six PART 2-Questions 9-20 In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. Questions 9 to 12: Listen to a conversation between two college students.

9. Why are the man and woman upset?

(A) They may not be able to take their vacation.

(B) It may snow during their vacation.

(C) They are going to need more money.

(D) They may miss graduation.

10. What can be inferred about the man’s and woman’s vacation?

(A) They are going skiing.

(B) Their plans include other friends.

(C) They will drive together.

(D) Their reservations haw been cancelled.

11. Why can’t the semester be extended?

(A) Because of the possibility of bad weather.

(B) Because of the faculty’s contracts.

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(C) Because of the summer schedule of classes.

(D) Because of the date for graduation.

12. Why can’t the man miss classes?

(A) He might lose his financial aid.

(B) He doesn’t want to attend summer classes.

(C) He had already missed too many.

(D) He's afraid he might not graduate.

Questions 13 to 16: Listen to two students talking.

13. Why would Christine and Jim think that they would not be able to see drama series?

(A) They had to work during the performances.

(B) They couldn’t find time.

(C) They couldn’t afford to go.

(D) The tickets were sold out.

14. What did Jim learn when he called the theater?

(A) The performances haw been rescheduled.

(B) Student discount tickets are available.

(C) Prices for all tickets have been reduced.

(D) It's possible to see the plays without charge.

15. At the end of the conversation, how does Christine feel about Jim’s solution?

(A) She doubts it will work.

(B) She thinks they don’t have enough time.

(C) She’s enthusiastic about it.

(D) She’s happy to get so much money.

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16. How many night shifts do Christine and Jim have to work?

(A) Two. (B) Four.

(C) Six. (D) Eight.

Questions 17 to 20: Listen to a conversation between a professor and his assistant.

17. What is the purpose of this meeting?

(A) To renew a program (B) To review a subject (C) To reschedule a lecture (D) To revise a course 18. Why did the assistant go to Appalachia?

(A) For research (B) For fieldwork (C) For relaxation (D) For samples 19. Why will the professor give the students a reading?

(A) So they can hear Old English (B) So they can write Old English phonetically (C) To fill out his lecture (D) To satisfy the requirements of the course 20. What will the assistant probably do next?

(A) Go to the library

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(B) Return a book (C) Attend a meeting (D) Surf the Net PART 3-Questions 21-35 In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. The talks or lectures will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk or lecture. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Questions 21 to 25. Listen to a park ranger talking to a group of campers.

21. What is the main purpose of the talk?

(A)

They instruct campers how to use their equipment.

(B)

To provide park visitors with safety information.

(C)

To give directions to camping areas

(D)

To encourage people to visit the park.

22. What does the speaker tell hikers about drinking water?

(A)

They should carry plenty of water with them.

(B)

Drinking from the natural spring is prohibited.

(C)

The park service will supply a gallon of water per person.

(D)

The natural springs are polluted with soap.

23. What does the speaker tell hikers about camping?

(A)

They are not allowed to camp at weekends.

(B)

They should bring some special equipment.

(C)

They should beware of heavy rainfall.

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(D)

The might be disappointed due to heavy rainfall.

24. What information does the park service’s booklet contain?

(A)

The types of permits available this time of year.

(B)

A description of the park’s natural features.

(C)

A list of recommended clothing and equipment.

(D)

The location of hiking trails throughout the park.

25. What does the speaker say about rattlesnakes?

(A)

They are most often sighted on rock formations.

(B)

They are a protected species.

(C)

They are very active this time of year.

(D)

They are attracted to flashlights.

Questions 26 to 30. Listen to part of the lecture on child psychology.

26. What is the lecture mostly about?

(A)

Showing children how to behave.

(B)

Helping children overcome shyness.

(C)

Sewall causes of childhood Shyness.

(D)

How timid children become shy adults.

27. What does the speaker say about shyness?

(A)

Few people think that they are shy.

(B)

Hardly anyone overcomes shyness.

(C)

Few psychologists treat shyness.

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(D)

Almost half of the people surveyed said they are shy.

28. According to the speaker, which people are most likely to be shy?

(A)

Those who have suffered childhood trauma.

(B)

These with shy parents.

(C)

These whose parents have pressured them to succeed.

(D)

The who have been trained in social skills.

29. According to the speaker, what should parents of shy children do?

(A)

Protect them from other children.

(B)

Force them to smile.

(C)

Persuade them to try new things

(D)

Accept them as they are.

30. What might group session help shy children do?

(A)

Become more sociable.

(B)

Become inhabited.

(C)

Become more introspective.

(D)

Think logically.

Questions 31 to 35. Listen to part of a lecture in social science class 31. What is the main topic of the lecture?

(A) The characteristics of fads (B) The difference between fads and trends (C) The characteristics of trends (D) How fads and trends affect our lives

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32. How does the professor introduce fads?

(A) He gives a definition.

(B) He tells a personal story.

(C) He contrasts them with trends.

(D) He asks the class a question.

33. According to the professor, what is the main difference between a fad and a trend?

(A) The length of time that each one lasts (B) How quickly an industry accepts them (C) How well they cross over into other industries (D) How much money people earn from them 34. What does the student mean when she says this: "They're all stupid."?

(A) She thinks the people who started these fads are not intelligent.

(B) She thinks people who participate in these fads are foolish.

(C) She wants the professor to discuss a more humorous topic.

(D) She thinks all of her classmates are dumb.

35. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a fad?

(A) It has a definite beginning and ending.

(B) It can cross over into different industries.

(C) Large companies do not accept it right away.

(D) It usually has a short-term influence.

This is the end of the listening paper.

Now you have 05 MINUTES to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.

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LISTENING TEST Time: 30 minutes Number of questions: 35 Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts in this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording.

There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The recording will be played ONCE only.

Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.

PART 1-Questions 1-8 Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.

Now, let’s listen to an example. On the recording, you will hear: Woman: Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call. You left a message about the holiday you’ve booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at Sunny Hotel. Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you order. Let me know if I can help you with any other information. Goodbye.

On the test book, you will read: Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday?

A. Breakfast B. Lunch C. Dinner D. All The correct answer is A. Breakfast. Now, let’s begin with the first question.

1. What is the purpose of the announcement?

(A) To inform people of a policy change.

(B) To publicize a new product.

(C) To introduce the new sales manager.

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(D) To show appreciation for good work.

2. When will Susan leave her job?

(A) At the end of this week.

(B) Sometime next month.

(C) Later this year.

(D) Early next year.

3. Who most likely is listening to this talk?

(A) Journalists.

(B) Golfers.

(C) Security guards.

(D) Referees.

4. According to the speaker, where will the listeners be able to see the information?

(A) Next to the snack stand.

(B) In the lunchroom.

(C) On the Internet.

(D) In the staff room.

5. What is the talk mainly about?

(A) How to get a bargain during Christmas.

(B) How to overcome stress at a workplace.

(C) How to become closer to family members.

(D) How to drive safely during the holiday season.

6. What is mentioned about the place?

(A) It has recently opened.

(B) It has a long history.

(C) It has the best food in town.

(D) It is very busy.

7. When will the listeners tour the factory floor?

(A) 11.00 (B) 12.30 (C) 1.30 2

(D) 3.0 8. What does the result of the survey report?

(A) The place is beyond repairs.

(B) The building is need of repairs.

(C) The structure is in good condition.

(D) The gallery is due for paintjob.

PART 2-Questions 9-20 In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. Questions 9 to 12: Listen to a conversation between two college students.

9. What is the woman trying to do?

(A)

Convince the man to take a rock-climbing course with her.

(B)

Find a place to go rock-climbing.

(C)

Find out if a rock-climbing course will be offered.

(D)

Plan a rock-climbing trip over spring break.

10. What does the woman imply about rock-climbing at their college?

(A)

There is no one to teach them how to do it.

(B)

Not very many students are interested in it.

(C)

The college doesn’t have any rock-climbing equipment.

(D)

There are no appropriate places for rock-climbing nearby.

11. Why is the woman interested in rock-climbing?

(A)

Climbers deep skills useful in other activities.

(B)

Climbers have the °opportunity to be outside and enjoy the scenery.

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(C)

Climbing isn’t as expensive as other sports.

(D)

Learning to climb doesn’t take a very long time.

12. What will the first few classes focus on?

(A)

Selecting the necessary equipment.

(B)

Finding a climbing partner.

(C)

Increasing upper-body strength.

(D)

Discussing popular climbing sites.

Questions 13 to 16: Listen to a conversation 13. Why is Phil worried?

(A)

He failed his last test.

(B)

He can’t find his watch.

(C)

He’s taking examination soon.

(D)

He missed his medical check-up.

14. Why does Phil turn to Sally for advice?

(A)

She is older than he is.

(B)

She has been through a similar experience.

(C)

She is a medical student.

(D)

She has a sense of humor.

15. Why has Phil not contacted the student health services?

(A)

He has never heard of them.

(B)

He didn’t have their number.

(C)

He hasn’t had the time.

(D)

He couldn’t afford the fee.

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16. What does the university offer to students’ in Phil’s condition?

(A)

The home telephone number of the counselor

(B)

A lecture on “Students in distress”

(C)

A book on how to pass the examinations

(D)

A course on how to cope with stress

Questions 17 to 20: Listen to a conversation between two students in a campus dining hall.

17. What has the man been busy doing all week?

(A)

Writing papers for his classes

(B)

Meeting with his professors

(C)

Doing extra work in the chemistry lab

(D)

Working overtime as a librarian

18. What does the woman suggest the man to do to make his work easier?

(A)

Spend more time in the library

(B)

Write just one paper for all his classes

(C)

Drop one of his courses

(D)

Do his research on closely related topics

19. Why does the woman mention Romanticism?

(A)

She once wrote about it.

(B)

She thinks the man should write about it.

(C)

She’s been studying it recently.

(D)

She particularly likes romantic poetry.

20. Why doesn’t the woman want any help from the man?

(A)

She knows he’s very busy.

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(B)

He’s already helped her enough.

(C)

He doesn’t know enough chemistry.

(D)

She doesn’t need any help.

PART 3-Questions 21-35 In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. The talks or lectures will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk or lecture. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Questions 21 to 25. Listen to a talk by a resident adviser in a dormitory for first-year college students.

21. What aspect of student housing does the talk mainly focus on?

(A)

Possibilities for off-campus housing.

(B)

The method used to assign ham.

(C)

The impala of dormitory repairs on the housing situation.

(D)

The cost of student housing.

22. Why do the students attending the meeting need the information that is given?

(A)

They are going to have part-time jobs in the housing office.

(B)

They are trained to become resident advisers in dormitories.

(C)

They haven’t lived off campus before.

(D)

They haven’t selected housing before.

23. What determines which group the student is placed in to choose housing for the next year?

(A)

The dormitory the student currently lives in.

(B)

Whether the student is willing to live off campus.

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(C)

The students’ major

(D)

How long the student has been at the school.

24. Who is not expected to participate in housing lottery?

(A)

Students who want to live off campus.

(B)

Third-year students.

(C)

Students living in North Campus dormitories.

(D)

Students with older roommates.

25. What special problem will affect housing next year?

(A)

Older students will no longer be allowed to live off campus.

(B)

There will be an unusually large number of first-year students.

(C)

Some dormitories will be temporarily closed.

(D)

The housing office will have fewer employees.

Questions 26 to 30. Listen to a guest speaker being introduced to a local business group?

26. What is the topic of Ellen lambert’s talk be?

(A)

Technological changes in workplace.

(B)

Improving interpersonal communication in the workplace.

(C)

Developing technical writing skills.

(D)

Maiming time at work.

27. Why does the speaker ask people to raise their hands?

(A)

To see how many people are familiar with the research discussed.

(B)

To identify who communicates with their office electrically.

(C)

To find out how many people know Ellen Lambert.

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(D)

To see who has individual questions.

28. What does the telecommuting involve?

(A)

Listening to radio report to avoid traffic jams.

(B)

Using public transportation to get to work.

(C)

Communicating through computers.

(D)

Traveling long distances get to work.

29. According to the speaker, what is one effect of electronic mall?

(A)

Letter-writing skills are valued less.

(B)

More secretarial staff is required.

(C)

The location of a person’s work gains importance.

(D)

People have moo flexibility in managing their time

30. According to the speaker, what will happen after the talk?

(A)

Refreshments will be served.

(B)

All listeners are requested to go to the reception.

(C)

The floor will be swept.

(D)

There will be a feedback session.

Questions 31 to 35. Listen to part of a lecture from an arts class.

31. What aspect of USA Today does the professor mainly discuss?

(A) how it changed the newspaper industry (B) why its circulation has kept growing (C) the type of people who read the paper (D) how the paper gets late sports scores 32. What can be inferred about the professor when he says this: "Some of you might recognize it as the topic of this week's reading assignment."?

(A) He knows that all the students are familiar with the subject.

(B) He is angry at the students because he thinks they are lazy.

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(C) He thinks many students have not yet read the assignment.

(D) He doesn't think that any students have read the assignment.

33. Why does the professor mention McDonald's?

(A) to compare the quality of its food with the quality of USA Today's stories (B) to compare the design of its restaurants with the look of USA Today's pages (C) to compare the great success of McDonald's with the success of USA Today (D) to compare the early years of McDonald's with the early years of USA Today 34. What is a key feature of USA Today mentioned in the lecture?

(A) lots of international news (B) color photos and graphics (C) stories about crime and killing (D) stories that jump from page one 35. What can be inferred about circulation?

(A) It measures the number of people who buy each issue of the paper.

(B) It measures the number of people who read each issue of the paper.

(C) It measures how many people buy and read each issue of the paper.

(D) It measures neither how many people buy nor read each issue of the paper.

This is the end of the listening paper.

Now you have 05 MINUTES to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.

9

LISTENING TEST – ANSWER KEY PART 1 – Questions 1 -8 1.

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C A A D B C B D

PART 2 – Questions 9-20 Questions 9-12 9.

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A B D C

Questions 13-16 13.

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C D C A

Questions 17-20 17.

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D C A D

PART 3 – Questions 21-35 Questions 21-25 21.

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Questions 26-30 26.

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Questions 31-35 31.

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B D A B B

LISTENING TEST – ANSWER KEY PART 1 – Questions 1 -8 1.

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D C A D D B A B

PART 2 – Questions 9-20 Questions 9-12 9.

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A D A C

Questions 13-16 13.

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C B C D

Questions 17-20 17.

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A D B C

PART 3 – Questions 21-35 Questions 21-25 21.

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B D D A C

Questions 26-30 26.

27.

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A B C D D

Questions 31-35 31.

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A C A B D

SCRIPTS 3 1.

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17-20.

Listen to a conversation between a professor and his assistant.

Dr Abercrombie: Good morning, Hanna. Thanks for coming in. How was your holiday?

Mr Fitch: It was very good, Professor, thanks. A week in the Appalachians is really therapeutic. Nothing to do but eat, sleep, and listen to nature. It's beautiful up there in the spring- the countryside is so green-- and the people are so friendly and laid back. A good place to unwind.

Dr: I envy you. I've just got too much to get done to get away at all now. I must get this book finished, for one thing-- my publisher's getting impatient. I've outlined the last two chapters, though, finally, so it won't take me too much longer, I hope. Maybe I'll be able to go

somewhere at Christmas. But, um, what I wanted to talk to you about is our syllabus for this term, Hanna. I know this is short notice, but I'd like to make a couple of little changes to it.

Mr: Uh oh! I know your idea of "little" changes!

Dr: (laughs) No, no, I don't think it'll be that bad this time. What I'd like to do is, uh, cut Lectures Two and Three-- the ones on Old English and Middle English-- down to half their length and then meld them together into a single lecture. Then, with that extra ninety minutes, I want to add a lecture at the end on World Englishes. I think it's time we dealt with that more thoroughly, don't you?

Mr: Yessir, I certainly do. That's a good idea. So I guess I just need to cut down the quizzes to match and add a new one for World Englishes. Do you know when I'll be able to see your revised OE and ME notes?

Dr: I've already done a good bit of that revision, Hanna, and I think I'll have them ready for you before Lecture One. That's April eighth, I think?

Mr. Yes, Tuesday the eighth.

Dr: I've taken the segments on pronunciation out-- I think we can lose those easily enough. Nobody really needs to recite "Beowulf" or the "Canterbury Tales" any more-- no matter how much fun it is.

Mr: And that means you probably won't be discussing orthography much either?

Dr: I suppose not. I just want to be sure to point out clearly the main ways in which Modern English has developed from its predecessors. You know, the Great Vowel Shift, and so forth. Saving ninety minutes is not going to commit Old and Middle English to total oblivion, after all.

Mr: (laughs) Not if you can help it, certainly! So I can eliminate the phonetics quiz completely, then?

Dr: Yes, I think so. I'll still give them a reading just so they can get a flavour of their ancestral tongue, but they can get as much of the phonetics as they want out of the textbook-and it's rote learning anyway, really.

Mr: Now, what about your new lecture, then? Can I get started on any of that?

Dr: Yes, that's where I could really use your help in the next couple of weeks. I need you to research 'pidgins and creoles' for me. I've never paid enough attention to them, and I'd like an idea of the number there are, uh, their distribution, and uh, what linguists are saying about them these days-- are they English dialects? Derivative languages? What? See if you can find me some interesting examples and some specific quotes, will you?

Mr: Yes, of course. I think I know the kind of thing you're looking for. I'll take a look for internet sources this afternoon and then see what the library has later.

Dr: Thank you, Hanna, I'd appreciate that. And while you're there, would you see if they've got a copy of Burnley's source book on the history of English? I can't seem to find mine.

Mr: Oh. Uh... that's because you lent it to me last term... and erm, I haven't returned it yet.

Dr: Ah. Well. Get it back to me sometime soon, then, will you? I need to refer to it for my revisions.

Mr: Yessir, of course. Anything else on the syllabus?

Dr: Just that we'll need the student handout revised to reflect the changes. Who was in charge of that last time?

Mr: The department secretary has the file. I'll draft a revision, let you check it, and then give it to her, shall I? Shouldn't take long, and we just need to get photocopies before the first class.

Dr: All right, I'll leave that in your hands too then, Hanna. Just let me know if you need anything. And I'll see you at the faculty meeting tomorrow afternoon.

Mr: Oh, yes. Yes. The faculty meeting. Oh, and if you need any anecdotes on Appalachian English dialect, I'm your man-- I've just picked up a wealth of contemporary examples!

Dr: (laughs) I'll keep that in mind. Thanks, Hanna.

21-25

26-30.

31-35 Listen to part of a lecture in social science class.

Prof: Today we're going to begin with a short quiz. No, no, you don't need pencil and paper, just listen. It's only one question. Ready? OK. What do blogs, Pokemon, tattoos, Cabbage Patch Kids, pet rocks, and hula hoops have in common? Anybody?

S1: They're all stupid. [laughter]

S2: I know, Professor Morgan. They're all fads.

Prof: Correct. Now here's another question: How did you know that? In other words, what are the characteristics of a fad, and what's the difference between a fad and a trend? These are the questions we're going to consider together this afternoon. Well, the main difference, I

think, between a fad and a trend concerns time. A fad is something that seems to appear suddenly. It quickly becomes enormously popular, and then disappears just as suddenly as it came. A trend also appears rather suddenly, and it also becomes very popular, but it doesn't disappear. A trend can have a long-term influence on its particular market. Fads and trends often resemble each other at first glance, but a fad usually has a definite beginning and end. Um, Pokemon might be a fad, but the idea of fantasy playing cards for children might be a trend, for example.

Another difference is that fads usually stay within one industry. Trends can cross over into many industries. The hula hoop, for instance, has been called the greatest fad of all time.

Twenty five million [false start] In the late 1950s, 25 million hula hoops were sold in just four months. But a year later, sales had virtually stopped. The hula hoop was a toy. It was fun to play with, but that's about all. Now consider cell phones. They were designed to be portable telephones, but they crossed over into the worlds of fashion, wireless communication, and now even photography. People buy cell phones that match the latest clothes fashions. They use cell phones for wireless Internet access. They take photos with them. Cell phones have become a trend.

Ahem [clears throat or coughs] Here's a third difference between fads and trends: how well industries accept them. Fads are often promoted by smaller companies. They need the quick money that fads provide. Large companies don't accept fads right away. They can't afford to be wrong. If someone [false start] If a company is known as a trend-setter, and it promotes a fad, its reputation will be damaged. Large companies buy products in huge numbers. They don't want unsold products sitting on their shelves. So they wait to see if a fad becomes a trend. Then they will accept it in their stores. Now... yes?

S2: How long does a fad have to last before it becomes a trend? I mean, there are all these energy drinks now. There used to be only a couple, but now there's like, a hundred. Are they still a fad? Exercise is a trend, so wouldn't energy drinks be part of the exercise trend?

Prof: That's an excellent question! When exactly does a fad become a trend? You know, there are people who are paid a lot of money to answer that question. If they get it right, companies become rich and famous. If they get it wrong, companies go bankrupt and careers get ruined. The short answer is: nobody knows. Distinguishing between fads and trends is an art, not a science. If it were easy, there would be a lot more rich people in the world. Yes, in the back.

S1: Yeah, um...can't people get rich from fads, too? You said they sold 25 million hula hoops in four months. Someone must have made big money off that?

Prof: Yes, they did. Toy companies made, uh, $45 million off of hula hoops by the time the fad ended. And maybe some of you have heard of pet rocks, in the 1970s? A man bought a rock for a penny, put it in a gift box and marketed it as a pet. He became an instant millionaire.

But the problem [false start] The trouble with fads is, no one can predict them. This man had no idea that so many people would buy rocks as pets. He started it as kind of a joke. The Pokemon creators had no clue their cards would become instantly popular all over the world. That's the thing. Fads are mysterious to both their creators and to the public.

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9-12

13-16

17-20

21-25

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31-35 Listen to part of a lecture from an arts class.

Prof: Hello again. [ahem] Well, we're near the end of our unit on newspapers. I'm going to talk about our national newspaper, USA Today. Some of you might recognize it as the topic of this week's reading assignment. US [chuckles; false start] USA Today is now more than 25 years old. When it began, few expected it would last this long. Well, not only has it lasted, it has thrived. USA Today is the largest-selling daily newspaper in America. It is also distributed in many countries around the world. But that's only part of the story. The real success of USA Today is the way it changed the newspaper industry. USA Today changed the way papers look.

It changed the way reporters write. And it changed the way papers gather and deliver news.

USA Today set out to be different. Newspapers at that time were, um, in trouble. Fewer people were reading them. The papers were full of bad news about crime and killing. They had long stories. They didn't have color photos and graphics, and many could not include the latest

sports scores. USA Today changed all that. It had shorter stories, most of which did not jump, or continue, from one page to another. It used color photos, and colorful charts and graphics. It did not have much international news, but it did have lots of sports, entertainment and humaninterest stories. It was trying to appeal to younger readers. These readers had been raised watching television, so they had trouble, uh, paying attention to longer stories. They wanted, erm, to be entertained, not informed. At first, many people laughed at USA Today. Other newspapers called it "McPaper." They were comparing it to McDonald's fast food, which isn't, um, very healthy. It fills you up, but it doesn't have much nutrition. They said McPaper was the same way -- it looked good, but the news it had wasn't very important. People said USA Today "dumbed down" the news. Does anyone know what "dumb down" means?

S1: Yeah, I think it means to make things too simple. Like, you want to make it easy to understand, but you make it too easy. So it's like writing for a little child.

P: That's exactly right. If you make something too simple, people get mad. They think that the writer thinks they're stupid. But a funny thing happened. More and more people started reading USA Today. About a year after it started, it had a circulation of more than one million.

Today, its circulation is past two million. Question?

S2: Yo, what does circulation mean?

P: Circulation is the number of papers that are read each day. It means [false start] It means that USA Today distributes more than two million copies of each issue. When other papers saw this circulation grow, they became worried. So, they started to, uh, copy USA Today's style. Their stories got shorter, and they started using lots of color photos and charts.

They replaced quote unquote serious news with feature stories. Soon, it became normal for newspapers to look like USA Today. But it wasn't only appearance that made USA Today so popular. One very big reason for its success was timeliness. Timeliness means its ability to report the latest news. Daily newspapers have a deadline, which is the time they have to stop writing and start printing the paper. The deadline often caused papers to leave out news. This was especially true of East Coast papers and, erm, West Coast sports scores. Basketball, football and baseball games would end on the West Coast at 11 p.m. But that's 2 a.m. Eastern time. This was too late to put the score of the game in the next day's paper. USA Today, however, used satellites

to transmit news. It could set later deadlines, so it could include the West Coast scores. This, alone, caused many people to buy the paper. Yes? S3: But today most papers use satellites. So why has USA Today's circulation kept growing?

P: Excellent question. Uh, actually, USA Today has changed. It still looks colorful, but it's started to become more like traditional papers. It's stories are getting longer, and it has more international news. It changed because people are changing. The paper needed to appeal to more, um, educated readers, because they're the ones with money. Also, it needed to sell more papers overseas. International readers don't want "dumbed down" news.

SET 1 SPEAKING MOCK TEST 1 Part 1: Social Interaction (3’) Let’s talk about your free time activities.

- What do you often do in your free time?

- Do you watch TV? Which TV channel do you like best?

- Do you read books? What kinds of books do you like best? Why? - Tell me something about your favourite book.

Let’s talk about your neighborhood.

- Can you tell me something about your neighborhood?

- What do you like most about it?

- What do people in your neighborhood usually do during holidays?

Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’) Situation: A group of people is planning a trip from Danang to Hanoi. Three means of transport are suggested: by train, by plane, and by coach. Which means of transport do you think is the best choice?

Part 3: Topic Development (5’) Topic: Reading habit should be encouraged among teenagers.

increases knowledge

reduces stress

Reading improves memory

[your own ideas]

SPEAKING MOCK TEST 2 Can I have your name please?

Can you show me your ID card, please ?

How old are you?

Do you work or study?

Part 1: Social Interaction (3’) Let’s talk about your family.

- Do you live with your parents?

- Do you look more like your mother or your father?

- Do you have any brothers or sisters? How old are they?

- How many members are there in your family?

- How many brothers and sisters do you have?

- What do you and your family like to do together?

- Should children help with the housework?

Let’s talk about your neighborhood.

- What do you study?

- What’s your major?

- What is your favorite subject?

- Why do you choose that subject?

- What is interesting about your study?

- What do you hope to do after your graduation?

Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’) Which do you think is the most entertaining or relaxing way of spending your free time: going to the beach, dancing, or going to the cinema?

Part 3: Topic Development (5’) Topic: Cell phones are useful in many ways.

1. Can people use their cell phones while they are driving in your country?

2. Do you think people should be fined for using their cell phone in a no cell phone area?

3. What was life like before cell phones?

SPEAKING MOCK TEST 3 Can I have your name please?

Can you show me your ID card, please ?

How old are you?

Do you work or study?

Part 1: Social Interaction (3’) Let’s talk about your work.

- What do you do?

- Where do you work?

- How long have you worked?

- Can you describe your working day?/ What’s your daily routine on a working day?

- Why do you choose this job?

- What do you like/enjoy about your work? Why? Let’s talk about your hobbies.

- What do you like/enjoy doing in your free time?

- Why do you like doing these activities?

- Is there some other hobby or sport you would like to try? Why? - Which do you prefer: eating in restaurants or eating at home?

- Which are the best places to eat out?

Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’) Which of the following TV programmes is the best choice for you: talent shows, comedy series, or sports programmes?

Part 3: Topic Development (5’)

We should do more to stop people smoking and drinking.

1. Why do you think it is so difficult for people to give up and quit smoking?

2. What can we do to stop children smoking?

3. Do you think smoking will ever disappear?

SPEAKING MOCK TEST 4 Can I have your name please?

Can you show me your ID card, please ?

How old are you?

Do you work or study?

Part 1: Social Interaction (3’) Let’s talk about holidays.

- Where do you like to spend your holidays? Why? - Who do you usually spend holiday with?

- What do you do when you have a holiday?

- Why are holidays important to you?

- If you could take a holiday anywhere in the world, where would you go? Why? - What do people usually do during holidays in your town?

- Tell me about your last holiday.

Let’s talk about shopping.

- How much time do you spend shopping every week?

- Do you enjoy going shopping? Why (not)?

- What is your favourite shop? Why do you like it?

Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’) Which would be the best place to live for a family with children: a small town, a city centre, or a village?

Part 3: Topic Development (5’)

Everybody should learn English.

Learning English

1. Do you think English is more or less difficult than your language?

2. What's more important: speaking, reading, writing or listening?

3. Should people worry about making mistakes in English?

SPEAKING MOCK TEST 5 Can I have your name please?

Can you show me your ID card, please ?

How old are you?

Do you work or study?

Part 1: Social Interaction (3’) Let’s talk about your hometown.

- Where are you from?

- Tell me something about your hometown.

- What is the name of the street you live on?

- What do you like about your hometown?

- What is the weather like in your hometown?

- What place is famous in your town?

- Do you think it is better to live in the center of town or outside in the country? Why? Let’s talk about your family.

- Do you look more like your mother or your father?

- How many brothers and sisters do you have?

- What do you and your family like to do together?

- How many members does your family have?

Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’) Your foreign friend is considering visiting one of the following places in Vietnam: Ha Noi, Hue and Saigon. Which would you recommend to him/her?

Part 3: Topic Development (5’)

4. We should try to limit traffic in city centers.

Limiting traffic

1. What form of transport is worst for the environment?

2. What transportation problems are there in your country/area?

3. What will the transportation of the future be like?

SPEAKING MOCK TEST 6 Can I have your name please?

Can you show me your ID card, please ?

How old are you?

Do you work or study?

Part 1: Social Interaction (3’) Let’s talk about your study.

- What’s your major?

- What is your favorite subject?

- What is interesting about your study?

- What do you hope to do after your graduation?

Let’s talk about shopping.

- Do you enjoy going shopping? Why (not)?

- How much time do you spend shopping every week?

- What is your favourite shop? Wwhy do you like it?

Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’) Which of these jobs would you find the most interesting: a tour guide, a cook, or a businessperson?

Part 3: Topic Development (5’)

5. Examinations are the best form of assessment.

1. What’s the best way to prepare for a test?

2. Are there too many tests in school?

3. Do you think your test scores reflect your true ability and intelligence?

Speaking part 1 answer keys

1. Describe your family.  There are … people in my family. They are … (my parents, son, daughter, sister, brother, uncle, aunt, cousin, niece, nephew).

2. Do you have a large or small family?  People in the family// extended family// nuclear family (I live in a nuclear family, including my husband, wife, son, daughter and me) 3. How many brothers and sisters do you have? What do they like doing in their free time?  older (younger) sister/ brother. I have a younger sister and an older brother 4. Can you tell me about your family? (trùng lại câu 1) 5. What do your parents do?  My father is an engineer (businessman, teacher, farmer, worker, chemist) and my mother is a housewife

• Education 1. Describe your education.  I graduated from university in ….(_+ năm) and my major is ….(+Literature, Child Education, Education Management, Mathematics, Primary education, Information Technology IT, Biology, Geography, Linguistics) 2. What kind of school did you go to as a child?  public school/ private school. [I went to a public school in … (+ nơi chốn) when I was a child.]

3. What was your favorite subject as a child?  When I was a child, I loved …(+literature) the most/ the best because I got high scores (marks) on it.

4. Who was your favorite teacher? ďƒ My favorite teacher was my history teacher because she/ he always gave me good scores/ has taught me a lot of things.

5. What is the education system like in your country? ďƒ I think the education system in Vietnam is quite good (because it does not cost much for a child to get a good education// quality of teacher is becoming better and better.)

• Hometown 1. Can you describe your hometown or village to me?

2. Tell me something about your hometown.

3. Where are you from?

4. Where is your hometown?

5. What's special about it?  My hometown is …(+ Vinh Long province). It is (located) in the Southwest of Ho Chi Minh city. It is famous for ecotourism, rice fields and tropical fruits

• Travel 1. Do you like to travel?  Yes, I do because travelling helps me to relax.

2. What kind of places have you visited in your life?  I have visited some famous / historical places in Viet Nam, such as …(+Phong Nha cave, Hue citadel, Cu Chi tunnel; … fall; … highland) 3. Which place would you really like to visit? Why?  I really love to visit Ha Long Bay (Son Doong) because it is recognized as one of the seven wonders in the world.

4. What's the best place you've ever visited? (trùng câu 2) 5. Have you visited many foreign countries? What was your favorite place? Why?  Yes, I have. It was … Singapore because the air ticket is quite cheap.// I do not need a visa to come there.  No, I haven’t because I am so busy// I do not have enough time/ money.

• Email 1. Do you send and receive email regularly?  Yes, I do. I use emails in my workplace every day.

2. Who do you usually communicate with?  I usually use emails to communicate with my co-workers, my boss and my customers, students’ parents.

3. How often do you check your email?  I check my emails regularly because it is on my smartphone.

4. Do you think writing email has strengthened or weakened people's writing skills?  I think writing emails has strengthened our writing skills because actually we still improve writing skills by typing rather than writing on papers and we write emails many times every day. So our writing skills can be better.

5. What are some disadvantages of email?  The disadvantages of using emails are that we depend on internet connection, security problem/ violation and personal protection.

• The Internet 1. Do you use the Internet much during the day?  I use the internet a lot during the day because I need to contact with other people.

2. What do you usually do on the Internet?  I use the internet for learning, working, communicating, and entertaining.

3. What are some advantages of the Internet?  Internet saves people a lot of time and efforts to do things, such as we just need to find the information about something with a just a click of the mouse.

4. What are some disadvantages?  Sometimes the internet provides some incorrect information and our personal information can be easily violated/ taken when using the internet.

5. Do people in your country use the Internet a lot?  Yes, they do because we do not have to pay a lot for home internet connection. Sometimes free internet is everywhere.

• Hobby 1. Do you have any hobbies? /What are your hobbies?  Yes, I do.

2. Have you got any interests or hobbies?  Yes, I have.

3. What are some of your hobbies?  I like reading books, going shopping, playing sports (badminton, table tennis, volleyball, football) and watching movies (action movies, romance, horror, comedy).

4. What are some of the advantages (benefits) of having a hobby?  Having a hobby helps me to kill my free time and relax.

5. How much time do you spend on your hobby?  I like playing table tennis most so I usually spend around half an hour playing it everyday.

• Marriage 1. What is the attitude toward marriage in your country?  In Vietnam, marriage plays an important role (part) in our culture because it indicates (shows) the time when a person becomes an adult and he or she can start their own life or family.

2. Do most young people plan on getting married in your country?  Yes, they do. In modern time, they have a lot of chances to plan their own weddings/ they are independent of planning their own marriage.

3. What are some of the advantages of marriage?  We will have someone to share our feelings and troubles whenever we need and we become more responsible for our decisions or become more caring for our lives.

4. What are some of the disadvantages?  We usually have to take care of our family, including our wife or husband, and children. Sometimes, it is difficult to balance between our work and our family.[ You do not have time for yourself] 5. Is the divorce rate high in your country?  No, it isn’t because most of the Vietnamese people tend to bond (stick) with each other when they get married so they try to solve any problems they have within their marriages. So, the divorce rate is not very high in Viet Nam.  Yes, it is. According to the statistical data, 3 out of 5 couples tend to divorce when they cannot solve the problems within their marriages.

• Free Time 1. What do you enjoy doing in your free time?  I enjoy watching television, playing sports and going out with my friends when I have free time.

2. How much time do you have each week for doing these things?  I usually watch television every night and sometimes I go out with my friends at the weekends.

3. Why do you like doing these activities?  Because these activities help me to relax after my work.

4. How did you start doing this activity at first?  What do you like doing the most (= the best/ = your favorite) in your free time?  I like playing sports the most in my free time.  When I was young, I tended to play sports with my friends in my free time and it becomes a habit now.

5. Is there some other hobby or sport you would like to try? Why?  No, there is not because I do not have time/ I am very busy with my work.  Yes, I do. I also love travelling around the country or even going abroad because these activities not only enlarge my knowledge but also help me to relax.

• Shopping 1. How much time do you spend shopping every week? (When/ How often)  I usually go shopping every morning/ every evening/ every weekend/ once/ twice/ three times a week 2. Do you enjoy going shopping? Why (not)?  Yes, I do because going shopping helps me to know more about the new products on the market.  No, I don’t because going shopping takes a lot of time and I am very busy with my work.

3. How do you feel about shopping?  I enjoy going shopping because it helps me to know more about the new products on the market.  I don’t really like going shopping because it takes a lot of time and I am very busy with my work.

4. Do you like shopping on the Internet? (Do you like online shopping?)  Yes, I do because it is very convenient and all the products are delivered very quickly.  No, I don’t because I do not trust the quality of the online products.

5. Which is the most popular place to shop in your hometown?  I live in … city (province) so I tend to go to Coop Supermarket to do my shopping because it is very convenient.

• Neighborhood 1. Can you describe the house where you live to me?  I live in a small house with only 2 bedrooms in … city. It is quite old because it was built in 2001 and I have been living there since 2006. [flat/ apartment/ house/ villa/ penthouse] [living room/ bedroom/toilet/ kitchen/ bathroom/ garage/ garden] [city center, outskirt=suburb] 2. What is there to do in the area where you live?/ What do you like about the area where you live?  The place where I live is quite modern with a shopping mall so we can go shopping easily. Besides, there is a sport center nearby so it is also convenient for us when we want to play sports.  The place where I live is quite modern with a lot of facilities, such as sports centre, shopping mall, park, school and hospital nearby.

4. How do you think it could be improved?  I think it is quite good now but the road (drainage) system in the neighborhood can be improved every year.

5. Do you think it is better to live in the centre of town or outside in the country? Why?  I like living in the city centre because my workplace is right in the city centre so it doesn’t take a lot of time to get to work. [because there are a lot of facilities, such as sports centre, shopping mall, park, school and hospital nearby.]  I like living outside the city because it is peaceful and quiet so we do not need to worry about the traffic and pollution problems.

• Reading 1. Do you enjoy reading? Why?  Yes, I do. I love reading a lot because it helps me to update my knowledge about life and society.

2. What sort of things do you read?  I often read newspapers, magazines, novels and books.

3. What kind of books do you like to read?  I spend most of my time reading text books because I am a teacher.

4. Tell me something about your favorite book.  My favorite book is (+ tên sách). It is published in (+ năm).

It is about (+nội dung sách) 5. Where do you like to read?  I like to read in my bedroom/ my study room/ library because it is quite pleasant to read there.

• Sports 1. Do you like sports?  Yes, I do because sports help me to keep fit.

2. Do you enjoy watching sports?  No, I don’t because I do not have time/ it takes a lot of time to follow all of the sports programmes.

3. Do you enjoy participating in any sports?  Yes, I do. I love to join in a volleyball (football/ table tennis) team in my neighborhood.

4. How often do you participate in sports?  I often play sports three times a week/ at the weekend.

5. What equipment do you need for your favorite sport?  It is quite simple when playing volleyball because we only need a net and a ball [ table tennis – a bat and a ball; badminton – a racket; a shuttlecock; yoga- matress]

• Games 1. Do you enjoy playing any games?  No, I don’t because I do not have time to play games.  Yes, I do because it helps me to relax in my free time.

2. What kind of games do you play?  I usually play offline games / online games on my mobile phone.

3. Do you think adults should play games?  Yes, I think that adults should play games because sometimes they need to refresh their minds.

4. What do children learn from games?  Children can learn team building skills, logical thinking and strategic planning.

5. What kind of games did you play when you were a child?  When I was a child, the internet was not very popular. So I did not play any video games. I usually played traditional games; for example hide and seek, jumping rope (skipping rope), flying kites.

• Music 1. Do you like music?  Yes, I enjoy listening to music.

2. What kind of music do you like?  I like traditional/ pop/ country/ jazz/ rock/ R&B/ music.

3. When do you usually listen to music?  I usually listen to music when I feel stressful/ I have free time.

4. What kind of music did you like when you were younger?  I liked pop and rock music when I was young but when I get older I tend to like traditional music more.

5. What kind of music is popular in your country?  I think that pop music is popular in Viet Nam because it is enjoyed by both the old and the young generations.

• Celebrations 1. How do you usually celebrate your birthday?  I usually celebrate my birthday with my family, my friends and my co-workers at the workplace, at the restaurant or at my house.

2. How did you celebrate your last birthday?  I celebrated my last birthday with my family at home.

3. How do you think you will celebrate your next birthday?  I will celebrate my next birthday with my co-workers. I will invite them to a restaurant nearby.

4. What is the most important day of the year for you?

(Why?)  I think that Tet holiday is the most important day of the year because I have the longest vacation time. [wedding anniversary  remind me of my happy marriage]

• Tourism 1. Which places would you recommend to a visitor to your country?  I would recommend (suggest) visiting the Hanoi capital city, Hue citadel and Ha long bay because they are all favorites places in Viet Nam. 2. Do a lot of tourists visit your country?  Yes, Viet Nam is a very popular tourist destination.

3. What do they usually do there?  They can visit a lot historical places in Hanoi and Hue and they can enjoy the wonder of the world, Ha Long bay.

4. How has tourism changed your country?  It helps our country become richer because it offers more jobs for the society.

5. Is your country expensive for most tourists?  No, it isn’t. The tourist industry in Viet Nam is quite cheap in comparison with other countries.

SPEAKING PART 2 Situation 1: I think going to the cinema is the best choice because we just need to buy tickets and we do not need to arrange many things. So it is the most entertaining and relaxing way of spending my free time.

Going to the beach  because we need to arrange / prepare many things before going there. So it is quite inconvenient to go to the beach.

Dancing  not many people know how to dance professionally so they may not enjoy this activity.

Situation 2: I think that comedy series is the best choice because it is a great way to relax after hard-working hours at the workplace.

A talent show  it is mostly suitable for students who want to widen their knowledge.

Sports program ďƒ it takes a lot of time to follow a sporting channel on TV so it is not very comfortable to choose a sport program to watch.

Situation 3: I think that the city centre is the best choice because there are a lot of facilities for our children, for example, modern education, modern infrastructure, modern medical support and many different means of entertainment.

A small town ďƒ it is very difficult for a child to have contact with enough modern facilities. It is hard for parents to support their children because it takes a lot of time and effort to get these modern facilities.

Village ďƒ it is very hard for a child to be fully developed because he/ she might lack of certain support in terms of education, medical and entertainment.

Situation 4:

I think that air pollution has the worst effect on the environment because it affects the human beings directly.

Also, it also affects the whole world negatively and it is very difficult to solve this problem.

Deforestation  it is also a serious problem but we can prevent this by passing stricter laws.

Toxic waste  we can clear off toxic waste by raising people awareness of using them and banning people from using them.

Situation 5: I think swimming is the best choice because it helps him/ her to increase the height and the sport is good for his /her health, too.

Boxing  it is a very dangerous sport because he/she may get injured when playing this kind of sport.

Football  it is mainly for men and it is a dangerous sport as well. He/ she might get injured as well. Also, it takes a lot of time and effort to be a good player.

Situation 6: I think that online advertising is the best choice to advertise the new product because nowadays internet is very everywhere and people tend to use social network more often. So it is the best way to advertise.

TV commercials  not many people watch TV commercials these days. Instead they tend to watch films on online TV so it’s hard to get more views by this way.

Leaflets  it is a traditional way of advertising and people do not tend to read these leaflets so it is not very effective.

Situation 7: I think that joining outdoor activities is the best choice because young people will have more contact with the

outside world. They will have more relationships and it is good for their physical and mental health.

Cooking  it is a kind of hobby so not many young people enjoy cooking. So it is not very suitable for them.

Playing video games  it is not very good for their physical and mental health because they have to sit at the computers and stick their eyes on the screen so it’s not good for them.

Situation 8: I think the best prize to attract people to a competition is the camera because the camera is of highest value in comparison with smartphones or gift voucher.

Smartphones  smartphone is also a great present but it is less valuable than a camera and nowadays people can easily afford a smartphone for themselves.

Gift voucher  it is the least valuable present for a competition and it forces people to buy only that product so many people do not like it.

Situation 9: I think that I would like to have a laptop in my room most because I can play video games on my laptop and enjoy music by using it.

Guitar  It requires people to have knowledge on playing this musical instrument so not many people like to have a guitar in their rooms.

Video game console  nowadays people tend to play video game at the internet café because the games are more updated and more interesting than playing games at home.

Situation 10: I think that guitar is the thing that most people can live without having it because not many people know how to

play guitar. So it is only a special case for a small number of people.

Hair dryer  it is very important for our daily lives, especially for women. It keeps our hair dry after the shower.

Iron  people need to iron these clothes everyday for work or for study. So it is considered a must-have item for most families.

Situation 11: I think I would recommend my foreign friend to visit Hue city because it is the oldest city in Vietnam with a lot of historical places to visit, especially the citadel. It is also very peaceful and quiet.

Saigon  it is very crowded in Saigon with a lot of traffic jams. Also, Saigon seems to be a modern city with a lot of tall buildings (skyscrapers).

Hanoi  it is also one of the biggest city in Vietnam with a huge population. Also, the pollution and traffic jam in Hanoi are quite similar to Sai gon.

So I think Hue is the best choice for my foreign friend.

Situation 12: I think a cook is the most interesting job because working as a cook helps me know more about different kinds of food around the world. And sometimes, I can have a chance to work in many countries easily.

Tour-guide  it is very tiring because we have to travel a lot and take care of a lot of people when travelling Teacher  it is quite boring and tiring because we have to take care of the students and do the same things day by day.

Situation 13: I think that a history museum is very suitable for a group of high school students because it helps them to know

more about the history of their country during the war time or even since its development. And it is also useful for teaching history to students.

Art gallery ďƒ it is not very popular in Viet Nam and it is organized once or twice a year, usually go together with special event.

Science museum ďƒ it is not popular in Viet Nam, either.

There may be one or two of them around the country but most people do not know about that.

Situation 14: I would give a talk on drug addiction because teenagers are very young and they should know more about the bad effects of drugs. This talk can prevent teenagers from trying this bad thing.

Stress ďƒ I think at this age, stress may not be the problem for most teenagers.

Smoking ďƒ teenagers may try to smoke but smoking is not as dangerous as using drugs.

Situation 15: I think I would recommend my friends to register for the cooking class at the local college because working as a cook helps him/ her know more about different kinds of food around the world. And sometimes, he/ she can have a chance to work in many countries easily.

Photography ďƒ it takes a long time to study photography and sometimes working as a photographer is just for those who are really interested in the job.

Hairdressing ďƒ being a hairdresser is hard job and he/ she has to work with chemicals all the time so it is not very good.

SPEAKING PART 3 1. Cellphones are useful in many ways. a. It keeps me from getting bored. For example, during my free time, I usually use cellphones to play games, watch movies and listen to music. b. It

can

save

my

life.

In

emergency

(dangerous) situations, we need to contact certain

people

using

cellphones.

(use

cellphones to contact the police or the hospital or fire brigade) c. It is a good way to meet other people by using digital apps. For instance, we can use cellphones to talk face-to-face to people who are far away from us. d. [your own idea] Cellphones can be a tool for working.

We

can

carry

out

video-

conferencing using cellphone. You can use Microsoft office in your cellphones.  1) No, people in Viet Nam cannot use cellphones while they are driving because it is very dangerous and can cause accidents.  2) Yes, I think that people should be fined if they use cellphones in a nocellphone area because they have violated the laws and should be responsible for that.  3) Life is slow and people seem to be closer to each other before the invention of cellphones.

2. Early marriage is not a good idea a. It may have bad effect on a person’s professional life because if they get married

too early, they cannot finish their education.

This will affect their future jobs. b. People who get married early can easily get divorce because they do not know how to take of their families. c. Early marriage offers women little chance to work outside the kitchen because they lack of education so they just stay at home and do most of the housework. d. [your own idea] Early marriage can lead to bad effects on children since young parents are not experienced enough to handle family life. ďƒ¨ 1) No, they should not stay married if they no longer love each other because this will usually lead to family violence and family unhappiness.

ďƒ¨ 2) I think that no sex before marriage should be encouraged because it will maintain better mental and physical health for family life later and people can avoid some bad consequences. ďƒ¨ 3) Marriage will help people become more responsible because they have to take care of other people rather than themselves.

3. We should do more to stop people smoking and drinking. a. Smoking and drinking is a waste of money because we have to pay part of our monthly income for smoking and drinking. b. Smoking and drinking are unhealthy because it causes a lot of diseases which are bad for our health.

c. Smoking and drinking can cause problems for the society because people cannot control their mind if they drink a lot. d. [your own idea] Smoking and drinking can affect our jobs or our income. If people drink a lot, they cannot work effectively and this leads to bad performances at work.  1) I think that smoking and drinking have become a habit so it is very difficult to give up smoking and drinking.  2) Parents should pay attention to their children at school and at home and they should let them know about the danger of smoking and drinking.  3) No, I don’t think so because making tobacco and beer is becoming a good industry in many countries.

4. Everybody should learn English. a. It has become an official language in more than

60

countries

so

we

can

easily

communicate in 60 countries by English when travelling. b. It gives us more career and education choice.

If we are good at English, we can work and study in many English speaking countries. c. It is an ultimate tool for communication as we can easily listen and speak to a lot of people from different nationalities. d. [your own idea] It gives us more chance to be promoted in our jobs since we can work with foreign partners. ďƒ¨ 1) It is more difficult than Vietnamese because there are a lot of vocabularies and grammar to study.

ďƒ¨ 2) Speaking is more important because we learn English for communication. ďƒ¨ 3) No, we should not worry about that because native people do not pay attention to mistake when communicating.

5. We should try to limit traffic from the city center. a. Too much traffic can cause traffic congestion in city center. So we should reduce the traffic in the center b. A lot of cars and motorbikes can cause pollution in the city center. So in order to make the air quality better, we should ban vehicles from city center. c. Little traffic can improve the quality of lives in the city center since people do not worry about traffic problems.

d. [your own idea] Limiting traffic from city center helps people get away from noise pollution and make the city center more peaceful.  1) I think private motorbikes and cars are the worst for the environment because they emit thousands of tons of exhaust fumes every day.  2) There are a lot of traffic problems, such as traffic jams, traffic accidents and not enough public transport.  3) In the future, the traffic will be much better. We will have more undergrounds and the trains and planes will be much more modern.

6. We should continue to develop computer technology.

a. Computers can do jobs that humans do not want to do or they cannot do. For example, computers can work overnight and work continuously to process the information or data. b. Computers can educate people. For example, computers can be used to teach students instead of having a teacher in class. c. Computers can perform tasks much better and more efficiently. For example, computers can easily process hundreds of calculations at the same time and are faster than humans. d. [your own idea] Computer can save people time. For example, we can let computers do time-consuming jobs rather than do them by ourselves.

 1) Life would be much harder and more complicated because we have to do a lot of things and it will take a lot of time to finish.  2) Computers are often updated every year so we need to have a latest version of them. So it is very expensive to update our computers.  3) It depends. Sometimes we control the computers to work for us, like in factory.

Sometimes, computers can control our thinking

through

AI

(artificial

intelligence).

7. Social networking is an extremely useful tool. a. It gives us instant personal contact because we can talk to people who are faraway without waiting for too long.

b. It gives us unlimited relationships because we can make friends with anybody we like using social networking. c. It is a great source of information and advice.

For example, we can easily find information because people share information on these networks. d. [ your own idea] It improves online business since people can easily get their products known by using social networks. ďƒ¨ 1) Yes, it is a good way for people who do not like face-to-face communication because it can help these people become less stressful and shy. ďƒ¨ 2) It depends because there are a lot of bad social networking sites online so we

should educate children on how to use networking sites. ďƒ¨ 3) Yes, it changes our daily life a lot since we spend a lot of time chatting, working and shopping online rather than involve in real-life and face-to-face communication.

8. Exams are the best form of assessment. a. Exams measure students’ academic abilities.

For example, we use tests to identify who are excellent students and who are average students. b. Exams encourage students to work harder since students know that they need to study some knowledge to pass the tests in their class. c. Exams are a best way for colleges to choose their students because there are only a limited

number of places at university so exams can help to let students enter the university. d. Exams are a good way to assess teachers’ performances since good teaching qualities should go hand in hand with good results.  1) Usually the best way to prepare for an exam is to enter a preparation course because it will offer us test-taking methods.  2) Yes, there are a lot of tests at school.

On average, students have to learn at least 5 subjects. It means that they can have 5 midterm tests in the same week.  3)

No,

test

scores

just

give

us

information about students’ abilities at the time of testing, not about his/ her intelligence and overall ability.

9. We don’t need to go to college to be successful. a. People can be successful through having a lot of working and life experience. b. College does not really prepare you for a career since most college provides students with a lot of theories. c. The quality of degree is declining and most companies do not judge people based on their degree any more. d. [ your own idea] Colleges do not give students real-life experience and situations so they cannot work well in real-life situations. ďƒ¨ 1) No, people should pay for university education because it is the place where we train high-quality workers.

ďƒ¨ 2) Some universities are different from each

other

in term of

curriculum,

teaching, location and future prospects. ďƒ¨ 3) No, distance learning is still under construction and it shows a lot of problems such as exams, training and quality.

15 phrases for argumentative writing Para 1

1

Nowadays an increasing number of Giới thiệu bối cảnh people are concerned about …

2

However, whether … is a controversial Nêu chủ đề tranh luận issue.

3

As far as I am concerned, …

Trình bày quan điểm

My view is that…

Para 2

4

First, it is obvious that …

Câu chủ đề thứ 1 = nguyên nhân 1

5

This means that…

Giai thích rõ nguyên nhân này

In other words, …

6

Therefore, …

Dẫn dắt nguyên nhân đưa ra là có cơ sở

Para 3

7

Additionally,…

Nguyên nhân hay Lý do thứ 2

Moreover,…

8

For example,…

Cho ví dụ (cụ thể)

For instance, …

Para 4

9

It is clear from this example that …

Giải thích thêm ví dụ

10

This is not to say that … not

Không phủ định quan điểm đối lập

11

12

Actually, …

Chỉ ra điểm hợp lý của quan

In fact, …

điểm đối lập

However, …

Chỉ ra điểm bất hợp lý của quan điểm đối lập

Para 5

13

In sum,…

Nhắc lại quan điểm của mình và

To sum-up…

ý nghĩa của nó

In conclusion, …

14

Meanwhile, …

Đồng thời cũng không xem nhẹ quan điểm trái chiều

15

By doing so, we can make sure that…

Mở rộng vấn đề (gợi ý)

Paragraphs in Informal Letters A letter of 120 words can easily be organised around 3 paragraphs.

Paragraph 1 - the introduction. When we are replying to a letter we usually say something about what was in the original letter.

Paragraph 2 - the main content.

Paragraph 3 - the conclusion which usually ends with something like 'Write back soon'.

Here's the letter written with paragraphs.

Dear Mikel It was nice to hear from you. Of course I will help you with your school project!

You wanted to know about a typical morning. Well, on days when I go to college I usually get up about 7.00 o'clock. My mum always asks me to sit down and have breakfast before I leave.

Unfortunately, I don't have much time and I eat breakfast at college. I go to college by bus. It takes about 30 minutes but sometimes it's longer if there's a lot of traffic. As soon as I arrive I meet my friends and get the latest news.

Anyway, give my love to your family. Write back soon.

Best wishes Steve

Useful Phrases for Informal Letters Starting your letter (Paragraph 1) Thanks for your letter.

Lovely to hear from you.

How are you?

How are things?

Hope you're well.

Commenting on something (Paragraph 1) I'm sorry to hear/learn ...

I'm so pleased to hear ...

It's great to hear ...

What wonderful news about ...

Moving the topic on (Paragraph 2) Anyway, the reason I'm writing ...

I thought I'd write to tell/ask you Anyway, I was wondering ...

Ending your letter (Paragraph 3) Pre-closing Well, that's all for now Write back soon Looking forward to hearing from you again Closing All the best Best wishes See you soon Take care

Yours Love Lots of love

Writing task 1 This is part of a letter you receive from an English penfriend.

In your next letter, please tell me all about your favorite TV programme. Why do you like watching it? What’s it about?

Write a letter to your friend, Mary responding these questions.

Model answer 1 Hi Mary, How are you doing? I hope you are doing well with your study.

I am writing to tell you something about my favorite television programme.

I think the TV program I like best is “Sing my song�. It is shown at 8 p.m. on VTV3 channel.

The game includes 4 famous musicians who are also the judges of the candidates.

Each candidate has to perform the song which is written by himself or herself. For each performance, the judges had to decide to push the button to choose the candidate or not. If more than one judges choose the candidate, the candidate has to choose one judge he or she likes.

I think it is my favorite program because it is all about creativity and the candidates need to create a completely new song in order to be a winner of the game.

I am really looking forward to your reply.

Best wishes, David

Writing task 2 This is part of a letter you receive from an English penfriend.

In your next letter, please tell me about a popular holiday destination in your country. What can you do and see there? Is it a good place for young people to visit? Can I find cheap accommodation? What is the best way to travel around?

Write a letter to your friend, Peter responding these questions.

Model answer 2 Hi Peter, It is great to hear from you. How have you been? I hope that you and your family are doing well.

I am writing to tell you about the popular holiday destination in Vietnam. I think it is Dalat city, which is in the South of Vietnam.

When you visit Dalat, there are a lot of things to do there, such as visiting the flower farms, going sightseeing, enjoying the fresh air, going shopping for fruits. Also, there are a lot of interesting places to visit there, such as Bao Dai palace, the cathedral, and love valley. I think these places are suitable for the young people.

You can find many cheap accommodations by searching the websites, like Booking.com or Trivago. The best way to go around the city is hiring motorbikes.

If you need further information, please write to me.

All the best, Duy

You have received an email from your English-speaking friend, Chris. Read this part of the email below.

Hi! It's great to hear you're coming to the UK to work. And to answer your question, yes, of course I'll be happy to help you find a place to live. Let me know what kind of place you want, how long you want it for and if you want somewhere quiet or nearer the centre.

Write an email responding to Chris.

You should write at least 120 words. You do not need to include your name. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organisation, Vocabulary and Grammar.

Model answer 3 Hi Chris, Thank you very much for your reply.

I am writing to tell you more details about my trip so that it would be easier for you to help me find the accommodation.

First of all, I am coming to the UK for a two-week training course at London Imperial College. However, the rented room inside the campus is quite expensive so I would love to find a rented room outside the university for around 20 days. This is because I need to go sightseeing around the UK before returning to Vietnam.

Also, the accommodation should be near the university so that I can walk to school as the public transport in the UK is very expensive. Moreover, the place should be quiet because I have to work on a lot of assignments and projects during my stay there.

If you need further information, please write to me soon.

All the best, Phat

Writing task 4 You have received a letter from your friend in the US. In your next letter, tell me about your favorite meal. How often do you eat it? Do you eat fast food? Are you interested in cooking? Who is the best cook in your family? What’s the traditional food in your country?

Write an email responding to Pete.

You should write at least 120 words. You do not need to include your name. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organisation, Vocabulary and Grammar.

Model answer 4 Hi Pete, Thanks for your letter. How have you been recently? Are you doing well with your study?

I am writing to tell you that dinner is considered as the typical meal of most Vietnamese families. And my favorite meal during the day is also dinner because I can enjoy it with all of my family members and the food is usually more carefully prepared.

Moreover, I don’t eat fast food because it is not good for my health. It is said that fast food contains a lot of fat and chemicals. I don’t enjoy cooking very much because my mother does most of the cooking. I think she is the best cook in my house. There are a lot of traditional foods that you can try in Vietnam, such as Pho, pancake or spring rolls.

I am looking forward to hearing from you.

Lots of love,

Writing task 5 You have received an email from your friend Jane.

Do you feel like going to the movies next weekend? Can you please tell me about a film you like? What’s it about?

Why do you like it? What kinds of film do you generally like? And what genre do you hate?

Write an email responding to Jane.

You should write at least 120 words. You do not need to include your name. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organisation, Vocabulary and Grammar.

Model answer 5 Dear Jane Thank you very much for your invitation. I would love to go to the movies with you next weekend.

By the way, I am writing to tell you about my favorite film. I think one of the recently shown movies I like to watch is “The Conjuring 2”. The movie is about the story of the girl who is haunted by the monster in the house. The film is so thrilling and scaring. And it is full of all the unexpected, which turns on my attention all the time.

I generally like horror film because it helps us to overcome fear and become stronger and I really don’t like is science fiction movies because it is boring and untrue.

Looking forward to hearing from you again.

Love, Dave

Writing task 6 You have received an email from your friend Janet.

My sister’s getting married next week and we are all excited about the wedding. Tell me about weddings in your country. What do people usually do in a wedding?

What do they wear? Do they eat special food?

Write an email responding to Janet.

You should write at least 120 words. You do not need to include your name. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organisation, Vocabulary and Grammar.

Model answer 6 Hi Janet It’s great to hear from you. How have you been?

I am very happy to know that your sister is going to get married next week. Please give her my best wishes.

I am writing to tell you about a Vietnamese wedding ceremony. As for the costumes, the wedding costumes include ao dai and vest. The bride usually wears ao dai or wedding dress and the bridegroom usually wears suit or traditional costume.

The wedding usually takes place at a formal restaurant or hotel. The bride and the bridegroom attend the wedding ceremony in front of their friends and relatives.

They cut the cake, pour the champagne. Then, they invite the guest to have parties to cheer for their happy marriage.

The food includes the Vietnamese traditional cuisine, such as beef, seafood, hotpot, shrimp and salad mix, etc.

If you need further information, please write to me With love, Joana

MODEL ESSAYS FOR TASK 2 TASK 1: Read the following text from the student’ handbook Studying English in an English-speaking country is the best but not the only way to study a language.

Write an essay and discuss to what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement.

Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.

You should write at least 250 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organisation, Vocabulary and Grammar.

Nowadays, English is very important in almost every aspect of life. Therefore, learning English is considered to be very necessary. Studying English in a country where it is spoken has many advantages. However, whether studying English in Britain is the best way to learn the language is controversial. As far as I am concerned, I do not believe that it is the only way to study the language.

Firstly, it is obvious that English is selected to be a compulsory subject in most educational systems in non-English speaking countries. This is to say that students are provided with English classes mostly at secondary school or even earlier. Therefore, students can enhance their English proficiency effectively during their school years under the instruction of both native and non-native teachers of English.

Additionally, it is quite clear that students can have access to a lot of resources for studying English these days, even in non-English speaking countries. In other words, they can practise four skills of English by using free lessons online. For example, there are a lot of videos on You Tube which offer free tutorials on how to study English effectively. It is clear from this example that students can easily learn languages with the help of internet connection.

In sum, studying English in a non-English speaking is quite possible with the support of the online resources and the educational policies. Meanwhile, it is without doubt that learning English in an English-speaking country has many advantages. Still, by devoting time and effort

to their language study, students can easily master English without actually coming to an English-speaking country.

TASK 2: Read the following text from the newspaper It is believed that the mass media, including television, radio and newspapers have great influence on shaping people’s ideas.

Write an essay and discuss to what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement.

Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.

You should write at least 250 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organisation, Vocabulary and Grammar.

Nowadays, people seem to depend on mass media for entertainment and information. Therefore, the mass media, including television, radio and newspaper play an important part in almost every aspect of our lives. However, whether the mass media have a powerful influence on shaping our ideas is still controversial. My view is that the mass media can have a great impact on forming our opinions on lives and society.

Firstly, it is obvious that the mass media is very useful in providing people with updated information about events around the world. This is to say that most of the news reports and newspaper articles are processed based on how the reporters see, hear and view these events. In this respect, people’s views on these life events or global happenings are usually affected because of the ideas and opinions of the mass media rather than objective viewpoints. Therefore, mass media can be considered to have a great influence on how people view and think about the surroundings.

Moreover, it is quite clear that the mass media are very influential in the way of spreading lifestyles and cultures among different countries. In other words, certain cultural features and lifestyles can become widely known all over the world. For example, the so-called “global youth culture” which young teenagers these days share the same interest in fashion, music, film and hairstyle is quite noticeable around the world. It is clear from this example that the way people think and behave can be easily shaped by the media in both positive and negative way.

In sum, it is undeniable that mass media is a great means of spreading information around the world. With the technological development like the internet, the mass media seem to have greater impact on our lives and surroundings. Meanwhile, it is without doubt that people should have critical thoughts and their own judgements towards certain events. By observing and thinking carefully about these information, our thoughts and opinions can avoid being dependent too much on the mass media.

TASK 3: Read the following text from the newspaper The environment problems facing today's world are so great that there is little ordinary people can do to improve the situation. Governments and large companies should be responsible for reducing the amount of damage being done to the environment.

Write an essay and discuss to what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement.

Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.

You should write at least 250 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organisation, Vocabulary and Grammar.

In modern society, more often than not, environment-related issues have become a heated issue among government agencies, and the general public. However, whether protecting the environment is the responsibility of the government or of each citizen is still controversial. In my opinion, environmental protection can only be achieved by promoting people's environmental awareness.

To begin with, individual awareness of protecting the environment should be taken into consideration. All levels of education, especially primary and secondary schools, can be a good starting point to develop the realisation that whatever we do to the environment, it will return to ourselves. Also, the mass media are also responsible for raising the public's awareness of environmental problems.

In addition, unless all citizens of the world are fully aware of the environmental situation, ecological degradation, which is happening in their countries, can never be stopped. All too often, we tend to expect our scientists, engineers and governments to solve the environmental

problems while, in the meantime, households are dumping millions of tons of wastes into rivers, lakes and oceans. Similarly, fancy private vehicles are being crazily bought, emitting billions of tons of car exhaust into the atmosphere and causing the greenhouse effect.

To sum-up, if every member of the society is aware of the relationship between humans and the environment and stops their destructive behaviour, the environmental problems of the earth can be avoided and the benefits to all nations are enormous. Meanwhile, it is without doubt that the government should also pay attention to solving the environmental issues within each country.

TASK 4: Read the following text from an online magazine Some people prefer renting than buying a house.

Write an essay and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of renting a house. Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.

You should write at least 250 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organisation, Vocabulary and Grammar.

These days a lot of people choose to live and work in big cities. However, the prices of houses in big cities are not affordable to most people. Therefore, it is usually the case that most people choose to rent houses instead of buying one for themselves. There are a number of benefits and drawbacks relating to renting a house.

There are several advantages regarding renting a house in a big city. First of all, it is very fast, convenient and flexible for different people of different backgrounds, especially for students, workers and even government workers. Secondly, the maintenance fees are included in the rent fee so people do not need to pay for this kind of cost. Finally, it is cheaper for most people to rent a room or a house. For example, a rented house can be shared among a group of four students or can be rented by a family. Therefore, the cost seems to be affordable.

On the other hand, there are several disadvantages related to renting a house. Firstly, renting is a house is not a long-term investment since it is not our property although we have to pay a sum of money every month. Another drawback is that we have to follow the rules set by the landlords so renting a house sometimes makes us lack of freedom. For instance, people are not allowed to

make any changes or to redecorate the house for special occasions. Moreover, the rented fee sometime goes up and it is usually controlled by the landlord. So it is quite changeable. Finally, it is very tiring when we need to change the accommodation because we need to set up everything again.

To sum up, renting a house brings us both advantages and disadvantages so it is necessary that we should take into consideration certain benefits and drawbacks when we decide to rent a house for living.

TASK 5: Read the following text from an online magazine More and more people are migrating to cities in search of a better life, but city life can be extremely difficult.

Write an essay and discuss the difficulties of living in a city and how governments can make urban life better for everyone. Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.

You should write at least 250 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organisation, Vocabulary and Grammar.

Cities are often seen as places of opportunity, but there are also some major drawbacks of living in a large metropolis. In my opinion, governments could do much more to improve city life for the average inhabitants.

The main problem for anyone who hopes to migrate to a large city is that the cost of living is likely to be much higher than it is in a small town or village. Inhabitants of cities have to pay higher prices for housing, transport, and even food. Another issue is that urban areas tend to suffer from social problems such as high crime and poverty rates in comparison with rural areas.

Furthermore, the air quality in cities is often poor, due to pollution from traffic, and the streets and public transport systems are usually overcrowded. As a result, city life can be unhealthy and stressful.

However, there are various steps that governments could take to tackle these problems. Firstly, they could invest money in the building of affordable or social housing to reduce the cost of

living. Secondly, politicians have the power to ban vehicles from city centres and promote the use of cleaner public transport, which would help to reduce both air pollution and traffic congestion. In modern cities like London, the introduction of a congestion charge for drivers has helped to curb the traffic problem. A third option would be to develop provincial towns and rural areas, by moving industry and jobs to those regions, in order to reduce the pressure on major cities.

In conclusion, governments could certainly implement a range of measures to enhance the quality of life for all city residents.