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Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition Tortora Test Bank Package Title: Testbank Course Title: PAP14 Chapter Number: 01

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which term describes the study of the functions of body structures? a) anatomy b) physiology c) endocrinology d) histology e) immunology Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.1 Define anatomy and physiology, and name several branches of these sciences. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy and Physiology Defined

2) Which term defines a group of cells that work together to perform a particular function? a) tissue b) organ c) molecules d) compounds e) organism Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the body’s six levels of structural organization. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization and Body Systems.

3) Which term refers to the sum of all chemical processes that occur in the body? a) metabolism b) anabolism c) catabolism

d) auscultation e) palpation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.3.1 Define the important life processes of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Characteristics of the Living Human Organism

Question type: Essay

4) List the basic processes of life. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.3.1 Define the important life processes of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Characteristics of the Living Human Organism Solution: The basic processes of life include metabolism, responsiveness, movement, growth, differentiation and reproduction.

Question type: Multiple Choice

5) The two organ systems that regulate and maintain homeostasis are the a) cardiovascular and integumentary systems. b) nervous and endocrine systems. c) cardiovascular and respiratory systems. d) respiratory and muscular systems. e) urinary and integumentary systems. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Understand the importance of homeostatic feedback systems and how imbalances are related to disorders. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.1 Define homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis

6) Which body fluid fills the narrow spaces between cells and tissues and directly affects the proper functioning of cells?

a) lymph b) blood plasma c) interstitial fluid d) intracellular fluid e) vitreous body Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.3 Define the important processes of the human body. Study Objective 2: SO 1.3.2 Define homeostasis and explain its relationship to interstitial fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Characteristics of the Living Human Organism

Question type: Essay

7) Describe the differences between positive and negative feedback systems. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Understand the importance of homeostatic feedback systems and how imbalances are related to disorders. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.3 Contrast the operation of negative and positive feedback systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Solution: A positive feedback system will strengthen or reinforce a change in one of the body’s controlled conditions while a negative feedback system will reverse a change in a controlled condition.

Question type: Multiple Choice

8) Which feedback system structure receives output from the control center? a) receptor b) stimulus c) response d) effector e) efferent pathway Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Understand the importance of homeostatic feedback systems and how imbalances are related to disorders. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Describe the components of a feedback system. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis

9) Which feedback system structure provides input to the control center? a) receptor b) muscle c) response d) effector e) efferent pathway Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Understand the importance of homeostatic feedback systems and how imbalances are related to disorders. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Describe the components of a feedback system. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis

10) A condition NOT regulated by a negative feedback loop would be: a) childbirth b) body temperature c) blood pressure d) heart rate e) blood sugar Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Understand the importance of homeostatic feedback systems and how imbalances are related to disorders. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.3 Contrast the operation of negative and positive feedback systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis 11) Objective changes in a patient’s normal body function that can be directly observed or measured by a clinician are referred to as a) symptoms. b) disorders. c) disturbance.

d) diseases e) signs. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Understand the importance of homeostatic feedback systems and how imbalances are related to disorders. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.4 Explain how homeostatic imbalances are related to disorders Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis

Question type: Essay

12) Describe the anatomical position. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.1 Describe the anatomical position. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Solution: In the anatomical position, the subject stands erect facing the observer with the head level and the eyes facing forward. The feet are flat on the floor and directed forward and the arms are at the sides with the palms turned forward.

Question type: Multiple Choice

13) The lungs are located in the a) cranial cavity. b) vertebral cavity. c) abdominal cavity. d) pericardial cavity. e) pleural cavity. Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

14) Which cavity is located inferior to the abdominal cavity? a) vertebral canal b) cranial cavity c) abdominal cavity d) pericardial cavity e) pelvic cavity Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

15) Which cavity contains the heart? a) cranial cavity b) vertebral cavity c) abdominal cavity d) pericardial cavity e) pleural cavity Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology 16) The function of the secretions of a serous membrane, like the pleura, is to a) separate the thoracic and abdominal cavities. b) protect the central nervous system. c) prevent infection. d) reduce friction between neighboring organs.

e) carry nervous impulses. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

17) Which plane divides the body into equal right and left halves? a) frontal b) midsagittal c) transverse d) oblique e) coronal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

18) Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions? a) frontal b) sagittal c) transverse d) oblique e) midsagittal Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

19) A transverse plane will cut a body or organ into a) anterior and posterior portions. b) left and right portions. c) superior and inferior portions. d) portions separated at an angle to its longitudinal axis. e) unequal left and right portions. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

20) Which directional term means farther from the midline? a) medial b) anterior c) proximal d) deep e) lateral Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

21) Which directional term means farther from the attachment of a limb to the trunk or farther from the origination of a structure? a) deep b) contralateral c) lateral d) cephalic e) distal

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

22) Choose the directional term that would make the following sentence correct. The heart is to the liver. a) inferior b) anterior c) contralateral d) superior e) superficial Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

23) Choose the directional term that would make the following sentence correct. The sternum is to the heart. a) posterior b) anterior c) inferior d) superior e) lateral Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

24) Which of the following organs is not found in the abdominal cavity? a) stomach b) spleen c) liver d) gallbladder e) diaphragm Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

25) Which serous membrane covers the viscera within the abdominal cavity, and lines the abdominal wall and the inferior surface of the diaphragm? a) pericardium b) pleura c) mediastinum d) dura mater e) peritoneum Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

26) Where on the diagram is the femoral area?

a) D b) E c) F d) J e) K Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

27) Where on the diagram is the cervical area?

a) C b) E c) J d) K e) B Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

28) The ribs are

to the sternum.

a) lateral b) medial c) proximal d) distal e) superior Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

29) The stomach is

_ to the urinary bladder.

a) lateral b) medial c) distal d) inferior e) superior Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

30) Which plane is parasagittal?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

31) Which plane is frontal?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

Question type: Essay

32) Name the cavities of the trunk and the serous membranes that line them. Answer: Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 3: 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Solution: The two main cavities of the trunk are the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities. The thoracic cavity can be divided into three smaller cavities called the pericardial cavity, and two fluid-filled spaces called pleural cavities. The pericardial cavity is lined by the pericardium. The pleural cavity is lined by the pleura. The central part of the thoracic cavity is an anatomical region called the mediastinum. It is between the lungs, extending from the sternum to the vertebral column and from the first rib to the diaphragm. The abdominopelvic cavity can be divided into the abdominal and pelvic cavities, both of which are lined by the peritoneum.

33) List the eleven organ systems of the human body. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 List the 11 systems of the human body, representative organs present in each, and their general functions Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization body systems. Solution: The eleven organ systems of the human body include the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, nervous, digestive, urinary, respiratory, immune and lymphatic, cardiovascular, endocrine, and reproductive systems.

34) Name the structural levels of the body and briefly describe each level. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the body’s six levels of structural organization. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization body systems. Solution: The chemical level consists of atoms and molecules. The cellular level consists of cells which are the smallest form of life. The tissue level consists of groups of cells that work to provide a single function. The organ level consists of organs, constructed from different types of tissue that can provide several different specific functions. The organ systems consist of one or more organs that are interlinked in general functions. The organism is made up of all the organ systems, which work to provide homeostasis.

35) List and briefly describe the six basic life processes. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.3.1 Define the important life processes of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Characteristics of the Living Human Organism Solution: The six basic life processes include: 1) Metabolism is the sum of all chemical processes in the body. 2) Responsiveness is the body’s ability to detect and respond to internal and external stimuli. 3) Movement includes motions that range from movements within individual cells to movement of the entire body. 4) Growth means an increase in body size or an increase in the number of cells. 5) Differentiation is the process that converts a cell from unspecialized to specialized. 6) Reproduction refers to formation of new cells for growth and repair or production of a new individual.

36) Describe a feedback system and list its general components. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Understand the importance of homeostatic feedback systems and how imbalances are related to disorders. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Describe the components of a feedback system Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Solution: A feedback loop is a cycle of events in which the status of the body condition is monitored, evaluated and changed to maintain homeostasis. A feedback system will include a receptor that detects the stimuli, a control center that receives the input from the receptor and generates an output, and an effector that receives the output and produces a response.

Question type: Multiple Choice

37) Which of the following noninvasive diagnostic techniques is an example of inspection? a) tapping and listening for an echo to detect fluid in the lungs b) feeling the abdomen to detect tender organs c) listening for crackling sounds during breathing d) examining the surface of patient’s skin for presence of a rash e) feeling the gonads to detect abnormal masses Answer: d Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 List the 11 systems of the human body, representative organs present in each, and their general functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization body systems.

38) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of the functional properties of nerve cells? a) endocrinology b) cardiovascular physiology c) neurophysiology d) immunology e) pathophysiology Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.1 Define anatomy and physiology, and name several branches of these sciences. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy and Physiology Defined

39) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of the chemical regulators in the blood? a) endocrinology b) cardiovascular physiology c) neurophysiology d) immunology e) pathophysiology Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.1 Define anatomy and physiology, and name several branches of these sciences. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy and Physiology Defined

40) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of functional changes associated with disease and aging? a) exercise physiology b) renal physiology

c) pathophysiology d) cardiovascular physiology e) immunology Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.1 Define anatomy and physiology, and name several branches of these sciences. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy and Physiology Defined 41) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of the body’s defense against diseasecausing agents? a) exercise physiology b) renal physiology c) pathophysiology d) cardiovascular physiology e) immunology Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.1 Define anatomy and physiology, and name several branches of these sciences. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy and Physiology Defined

42) Which subspecialty of anatomy deals with the study of structural changes associated with disease? a) embryology b) developmental biology c) radiographic anatomy d) pathological anatomy e) immunology Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.1 Define anatomy and physiology, and name several branches of these sciences. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy and Physiology Defined

43) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the groin? a) pelvic b) umbilical c) sternal d) otic e) inguinal Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

44) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the front of the elbow? a) olecranal b) antecubital c) carpal d) digital e) antebrachial Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

45) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the ear? a) otic b) orbital c) ocular d) oral e) occipital Answer: a

Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

46) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the great toe? a) pollex b) tarsal c) hallux d) pedal e) carpal Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

47) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the thumb? a) pollex b) tarsal c) hallux d) volar e) carpal Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

48) The section shown in (c) results from cutting through a brain?

plane extending through the

a) frontal b) sagittal c) oblique d) midsagittal e) transverse Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body . Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

49) The section shown in (b) results from cutting through a brain?

plane extending through the

a) frontal b) sagittal c) oblique d) midsagittal e) transverse Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

50) Which cavity contains the small intestine?

a) (A) b) (B) c) (C) d) (D) e) (E) Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

51) Which cavity contains the liver?

52) Which contains the spinal cord?

a) (A) b) (B) c) (C) d) (D) e) (E) Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the anatomical position and how anatomical terms are used to describe the human body. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

53) Which cavity contains the internal organs of reproduction?

a) (A) b) (B) c) (C) d) (D) e) (E) Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the anatomical position and how anatomical terms are used to describe the human body. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5 4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

54) What is the name of the serous membrane in closest proximity to the lungs? a) parietal pleura b) visceral pleura c) parietal pericardium d) visceral pericardium e) mediastinum

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

55) What is the name of the outer layer of the serous membrane that surrounds the heart? a) diaphragm b) visceral pleura c) parietal pericardium d) visceral pericardium e) mediastinum Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

56) Which region is the epigastric region?

a) (A) b) (B) c) (C) d) (D) e) (E) Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

57) Which region is the hypogastric region?

a) (A) b) (B) c) (C) d) (D) e) (E) Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the anatomical position and how anatomical terms are used to describe the human body. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

58) Which radiographs were obtained using low-dose x-rays?

a) (A) and (B) b) (B) and (C) c) (C) and (D) d) (A) and (C) e) (B) and (E) Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Describe the principles and importance of medical imaging procedures in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Medical Imaging

Question type: Essay 59) Discuss the importance of body fluids and which one is considered to be the body’s internal environment. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.3 Define the important processes. Learning Objective 2 LO 1.3.2 Define homeostasis and explain its relationship to interstitial fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis

Solution: An important aspect of homeostasis is maintaining the volume and composition of body fluids, which are dilute, watery solutions containing the dissolved substances needed to sustain life. The fluid within cells is intracellular fluid (ICF) and the fluid found outside of cells is extracellular fluid (ECF). The ECF consists of interstitial fluid, blood plasma, lymph, cerebrospinal fluid, synovial fluid, aqueous humor, and vitreous. The ECF called interstitial fluid, which is the fluid found in the narrow spaces between cells and tissues, is also known as the body’s internal environment. This is due to the fact that the proper functioning of body cells depends on precise regulation of the composition of the interstitial fluid surrounding them.

Question type: Multiple Choice

60) Which of the following is an example of the basic life process called growth? 1. muscle contraction 2. digestion of proteins 3. lifting weights and gaining muscle mass 4. mineral deposits accumulating between bone cells to cause a bone to lengthen a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 3 and 4 Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.3 Define the important processes of the human body. Study Objective 2: SO 1.3.1 Define the important life processes of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Characteristics of the Living Human Organism

61) Feeling the presence of a mosquito biting your arm is an example of a) growth. b) movement. c) responsiveness. d) reproduction. e) differentiation. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.3 Define the important life processes. Study Objective 2: SO 1.3.1 Define the important life processes of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Characteristics of the Living Human Organism

62) During a visit to your doctor, you complain about headache and nausea. These changes in your body functions are considered to be a) signs. b) symptoms. c) pharmacology. d) controlled condition. e) epidemiology. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Understand the importance of homeostatic feedback systems and how imbalances are related to disorders. Study Objective 1: SO 1.4.4 Explain how homeostatic imbalances are related to disorders. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis

63) An embryonic stem cell undergoes

to become a neuron.

a) catabolism b) growth c) reproduction d) anabolism e) differentiation Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.3 Define the important processes of the human body Study Objective 2: SO 1.3.1 Define the important life processes of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Characteristics of the Living Human Organism

64) Which of the following describes a body process that is controlled using a positive feedback loop? a) increasing body temperature in response to a drop in body temperature b) decreasing body temperature in response to elevated body temperature c) decreasing blood [glucose] in response to elevated blood [glucose] d) increasing strength of uterine contractions in response to cervical stretch e) decreasing heart rate in response to elevated blood pressure

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Understand the importance of homeostatic feedback systems and how imbalances are related to disorders. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.3 Contrast the operation of negative and positive feedback systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis

65) Which of the following organs contains the control center for the feedback system that regulates blood pressure? a) skin b) arteries c) brain d) heart e) pituitary gland Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Understand the importance of homeostatic feedback systems and how imbalances are related to disorders. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Describe the components of a feedback system. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis

66) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of a negative feedback system? a) regulates conditions in body that remain fairly stable over long periods b) important in maintaining homeostasis c) involves control centers in the nervous or endocrine systems d) stimulates changes that reverse the direction of the stimulus e) usually requires an event outside the feedback system to shut it off Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Understand the importance of homeostatic feedback systems and how imbalances are related to disorders. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.3 Contrast the operation of negative and positive feedback systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis

67) Which of the following represents the largest and most complex level of structural organization in the human body?

a) chemical level b) cellular level c) tissue level d) organ level e) organismal level Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organs systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the body’s six levels of structural organization. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization body systems.

68) Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic types of tissues found in the human body? a) epithelial tissue b) connective tissue c) muscular tissue d) necrotic tissue e) nervous tissue Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the body’s six levels of structural organization. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization and Body Systems.

69) Which of the following correctly list the levels of structural organization in the human body from largest to smallest? a) chemical - cellular - tissue - organ - organ system - organism b) cellular - chemical - tissue - organ - organ system - organism c) organism - organ system - organ - tissue - cellular - chemical d) organ - organ system - organism - tissue - cellular - chemical e) tissue - cellular - organ - organ system - organism - chemical Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the body’s six levels of structural organization.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization body systems.

70) Which of the following structures or regions could you clearly see when you are viewing the anterior side of an individual standing in the standard anatomical position? a) shoulder blade b) palm of the hand c) plantar surface of foot d) popliteal region of the knee e) gluteal region Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.1 Describe the anatomical position. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

71) Which of the following structures or regions could you clearly see when you are viewing the anterior side of an individual standing in the standard anatomical position? a) shoulder blade b) palm of the hand c) plantar surface of foot d) popliteal region of the knee e) gluteal region Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.5.1 Describe the anatomical position. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

72) Which of the following is a safe non-invasive imaging technique that uses the reflection of high frequency sound waves off of body tissues to visualize a fetus during pregnancy? a) computed tomography b) magnetic resonance imaging c) ultrasound scanning d) radionuclide scanning

e) amniocentesis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Describe the principles and importance of medical imaging procedures in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Medical Imaging

73) Mammography and bone densitometry are good examples of which of the following types of medical imaging? a) computed tomography b) magnetic resonance imaging c) ultrasound scanning d) radionuclide scanning e) low-dose radiography Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Describe the principles and importance of medical imaging procedures in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Medical Imaging

74) Which of the following is a safe non-invasive imaging technique that uses the reflection of high frequency sound waves off of body tissues to visualize a fetus during pregnancy? a) computed tomography b) magnetic resonance imaging c) ultrasound scanning d) radionuclide scanning e) amniocentesis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Describe the principles and importance of medical imaging procedures in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Medical Imaging

75) Mammography and bone densitometry are good examples of which of the following types of medical imaging.

a) computed tomography b) magnetic resonance imaging c) ultrasound scanning d) radionuclide scanning e) low-dose radiography Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Describe the principles and importance of medical imaging procedures in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Medical Imaging

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: PAP14 Chapter Number: 02

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) What are the four major elements found in the chemicals that comprise the human body? a) nitrogen, oxygen, calcium, sodium b) hydrogen, carbon, phosphorus, calcium c) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen d) oxygen, nitrogen, potassium, calcium e) potassium, phosphorus, sodium, hydrogen Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds. Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.1 Identify the main chemical elements of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

2) The three types of subatomic particles that are important for understanding chemical reactions in the human body are a) neutrons, quarks, and muons. b) protons, neutrons, and electrons. c) muons, positons, and neutrons. d) electrons, quarks, and protons. e) positons, protons, and neutrons. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds. Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.1 Identify the main chemical elements of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

3) Which of the following subatomic particles has a neutral charge? a) neutron

b) electron c) proton d) Both neutron and electron. e) All of these choices. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds. Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

4) What region of an atom contains the protons and neutrons? a) cloud b) nucleus c) element d) ring e) shell Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds. Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized 5) The number of protons in an atom is represented by an element’s a) mass number. b) atomic number. c) atomic mass. d) valence number. e) None of these choices. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

6) The nucleus of unstable

of an element will decay leading to emission of radiation.

a) compounds b) cations c) anions d) isotopes e) molecules Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds. Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

7) This refers to a weighted average of the atomic weights of all naturally occurring isotopes of an element. a) mass number b) atomic number c) atomic mass d) ionic mass e) covalent mass Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds. Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

Question type: Essay

8) Briefly describe the octet rule. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds. Study Objective 3: SO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds Solution: One atom is more likely to combine with another atom if doing so will leave both atoms with eight electrons in their valence shells.

Question type: Multiple Choice

9) Which of the following subatomic particles are shared by two atoms to form covalent bonds? 1. neutron 2. electron 3. proton a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 2 & 3 only e) 1, 2 & 3 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds. Study Objective 3: SO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

10) What is the name given to a negatively charged atom? a) superoxide b) isotope c) catalyst d) anion e) cation

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

11) A chemical that can conduct electrical current when dissolved in water is called a(n) a) isotope. b) isomer. c) compound. d) electrolyte e) valence molecule. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

12) Which type of chemical bond involves the sharing of valence electrons between two atoms? a) covalent b) ionic c) hydrogen d) atomic e) electronic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds. Study Objective 3: SO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

13) The chemical bonds formed between the atoms in a water molecule are called

a) nonpolar covalent bonds. b) polar covalent bonds. c) hydrogen bonds. d) ionic bonds. e) atomic bonds. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds. Study Objective 3: SO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

Question type: Essay

14) Describe a hydrogen bond. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds. Study Objective 3: SO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds Solution: Hydrogen bonds form between a hydrogen atom that has partial positive charge and another atom, like oxygen or nitrogen, carrying partial negative charge.

Question type: Multiple Choice

15) Which relatively weak type of bond helps stabilize the three dimensional structure of large molecules like proteins and DNA? a) nonpolar covalent b) polar covalent c) hydrogen d) ionic e) atomic Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds. Study Objective 3: SO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

16) A chemical reaction involves interactions between the

of two different atoms.

a) neutrons b) protons c) isotopes d) valence electrons e) ions Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds. Study Objective 3: SO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

17) Which term is defined as the capacity to do work? a) metabolism b) electrolytes c) chemical reaction d) concentration e) energy Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction. Study Objective 2: SO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction. Study Objective 3: SO 2.3.2 Describe the various forms of energy. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions

Question type: Essay

18) Describe the law of conservation of energy. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction. Study Objective 2: SO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction. Study Objective 3: SO 2.3.2 Describe the various forms of energy. Section Reference 21: 2.3 Chemical Reactions Solution: Energy cannot be created or destroyed but it may be converted from one form to another form.

Question type: Multiple Choice

19) Which type of chemical reaction will absorb more energy than it releases? a) exergonic b) endergonic c) potential d) kinetic e) activation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction. Study Objective 2: SO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction. Study Objective 3: SO 2.3.2 Describe the various forms of energy. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions

20) An enzyme acts to a) raise the activation energy needed to start the reaction. b) lower the activation energy needed to start the reaction. c) convert the activation energy into potential energy. d) convert the activation energy into kinetic energy. e) stop a chemical reaction. Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction. Study Objective 2: SO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction. Study Objective 3: SO 2.3.2 Describe the various forms of energy. Study Objective 4: SO 2.3.4 Describe the role of activation energy and catalysts in chemical reactions. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions

Question type: Essay

21) List three factors that increase the rate of chemical reactions. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction. Study Objective 2: SO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction. Study Objective 3: SO 2.3.2 Describe the various forms of energy. Study Objective 4: SO 2.3.4 Describe the role of activation energy and catalysts in chemical reactions. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions Solution: Three factors that increase reaction rates are the presence of enzymes (catalysts), increased concentration of reactants, and increased temperature.

Question type: Multiple Choice

22) Which type of chemical reaction combines reactants to produce larger products? a) synthesis b) decomposition c) potential d) exchange e) activated Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction. Study Objective 3: SO 2.3.5 Describe synthesis, decomposition, exchange, and reversible reactions. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions

23) Which type of chemical reaction breaks larger reactants into smaller products? a) synthesis b) decomposition c) potential d) exchange e) activated Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction. Study Objective 2: SO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction. Study Objective 3: SO 2.3.5 Describe synthesis, decomposition, exchange, and reversible reactions. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions

24) What is the most abundant and most important inorganic compound in the body? a) water b) oxygen gas c) carbon dioxide d) glucose e) DNA Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body. Study Objective 2: SO 2.4.1 Describe the properties of water and those of inorganic acids, bases, and salts. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions

25) A solute that readily dissolves in water is a) hydrophobic.

b) hydrostatic. c) lipophilic. d) hydrophilic. e) hydrozone. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body. Study Objective 2: SO 2.4.1 Describe the properties of water and those of inorganic acids, bases, and salts. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions

26) In the body fluid compartments found in the human body, the solvent is a) glucose. b) lipids. c) carbon dioxide. d) water. e) electrolyte. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body. Study Objective 2: SO 2.4.1 Describe the properties of water and those of inorganic acids, bases, and salts. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions

Question type: Essay

27) Describe the functions of water in the body. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body. Study Objective 2: SO 2.4.1 Describe the properties of water and those of inorganic acids, bases, and salts. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions

Solution: Water is a solvent that allows transportation of solutes. Water acts in hydrolysis reactions to split reactants. Water can transport heat in the body and can be used to release heat from the body as occurs in sweating. Water is used as a lubricant, particularly in serous fluids like those surrounding the lungs and on mucosal membranes like those lining the gastrointestinal tract.

Question type: Multiple Choice

28) A solution with a pH value less than 7 is a) basic. b) neutral. c) acidic. d) alkaline. e) concentrated. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body. Study Objective 2: SO 2.4.3 Define pH and explain the role of buffer systems in homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions

29) A chemical compound that helps control the pH of a solution by adding or removing hydrogen ions is a(n) a) electrolyte. b) salt. c) cation. d) colloid. e) buffer. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body. Study Objective 2: SO 2.4.3 Define pH and explain the role of buffer systems in homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions

30) Which of the following is a proton donor?

a) acid b) base c) salt d) organic compound e) colloid Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body. Study Objective 2: SO 2.4.3 Define pH and explain the role of buffer systems in homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions

31) Specific arrangements of atoms within an organic molecule that confer characteristic chemical properties upon that molecule are called a) hydrocarbon chains. b) polymers. c) carbon skeleton. d) functional groups. e) isomers. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Describe the functional groups of organic molecules. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

32) Which of the following is a monosaccharide that is used by cells to produce energy? a) glucose b) sucrose c) lactose d) glycogen e) maltose Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

33) Which of the following is a polysaccharide that serves as a storage form of energy in muscle and liver cells? a) cellulose b) ribose c) lipids d) glucose e) glycogen Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

34) This type of fatty acid contains more than one double bond in its hydrocarbon chain. a) saturated b) monounsaturated c) polyunsaturated d) volatile e) short chain Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds 35) This type of lipid is the body’s primary long-term energy storage molecule.

a) steroid b) phospholipid c) cholesterol d) triglyceride e) lipoprotein Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

36) This lipid is used by the body as a precursor for the production of steroid hormones. a) arachidonic acid b) phospholipid c) cholesterol d) triglyceride e) lipoprotein Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

37) Which of the following is NOT true about phospholipids? a) They contain a glycerol backbone. b) The head group is polar. c) The molecule is an important part of cell membranes. d) The tail groups are nonpolar. e) They are a major form of energy storage. Answer: e Difficulty: Hard

Question type: Essay

38) Describe the structural characteristics of an amino acid. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds Solution: Amino acids contain a central carbon atom with 1) a hydrogen atom, 2) an amino group, 3) an acidic carboxyl group, and 4) a side chain attached to it.

39) List the six major functions of proteins. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds Solution: Proteins have 1) structural, 2) regulatory, 3) contractile, 4) immunological, 5) transport, and 6) catalytic functions.

Question type: Multiple Choice

40) The primary structure of a protein consists of a) alpha helices. b) beta-pleated sheets. c) three dimensional folded conformation.

d) a sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds. e) the overall folded conformation of the protein’s subunits. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

41) Which of the following is NOT a property of enzymes? a) Enzymes are catalytic proteins. b) Enzymes are highly specific. c) Enzymes are efficient. d) Enzymes are subject to a variety of cellular controls. e) Enzymes are irreversibly changed by the reactions that they catalyze. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

Question type: Essay 42) Describe what happens to a protein’s structure and function when it is denatured. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds Solution: During denaturation, the folded conformation of a protein unravels and loses its unique shape. Loss of that shape destroys the protein’s ability to accomplish its function.

Question type: Multiple Choice

43) Which of the following is a common function of RNA? a) produce electrical impulses b) storage of energy c) transfer information for protein synthesis d) long-term storage of information for protein synthesis e) transport of fluids Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.3 Describe the structure and functions of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), ribonucleic acid (RNA), and adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

44) Which of the following is the major function of DNA? a) catalyzes metabolic reactions b) storage of energy c) transfer information for protein synthesis d) long-term storage of information for protein synthesis e) transport of electrolytes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.3 Describe the structure and functions of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), ribonucleic acid (RNA), and adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

45) Which of the following describes the major function of ATP in cells? a) building block for the synthesis of proteins. b) transfers energy for cell functions c) transfers information for protein synthesis

d) stores information for protein synthesis e) transports fluids Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.3 Describe the structure and functions of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), ribonucleic acid (RNA), and adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

46) Which monomer is used to build RNA and DNA? a) fatty acid b) amino acid c) monosaccharide d) glycerol e) nucleotide Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.3 Describe the structure and functions of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), ribonucleic acid (RNA), and adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

47) In the diagram which particles are negatively charged?

a) A b) B c) C d) All of these choices. e) None of these choices. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds. Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

48) In the diagram, removal of one or more of this type of subatomic particle would result in the formation of a cation?

a) A b) B c) C d) All of these choices. e) None of these choices. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds. Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

Question type: Essay

49) What type of molecule is shown in the diagram? Where in a eukaryotic cell would this type of molecule be commonly found? What special chemical properties does this molecule possess

that allows it to accomplish its functions?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic compounds. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Describe the functional groups of organic compounds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds Solution: This is a phospholipid found in the plasma membranes of eukaryotic cells. It has a polar hydrophilic head group and a nonpolar hydrophobic tail group making it amphipathic. This chemical property allows it to form the lipid bilayer of the membrane with its polar group oriented on the surface of the membrane and its hydrophobic tails oriented away from the surrounding water in the interior of the lipid bilayer.

50) Describe what is happening at places 1, 2 and 3 in the diagram.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Describe the functional groups of organic molecules. Section Reference: 1. 2.5 Organic Compounds Solution: This figure represents how an enzyme works. At number one, the enzyme and substrate come together at the active site of the enzyme forming the enzyme-substrate complex. At number two, the enzyme catalyzes the reaction and transforms the substrate into products, which are then released from the enzyme. At number three, the reaction is complete and the enzyme remains unchanged and free to catalyze the same reaction again on a new substrate.

Question type: Multiple Choice

51) Which of the labeled structures are found in DNA but not RNA?

1A 2B 3C 4E a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 4 Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Describe the functional groups of organic molecules. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

Question type: Essay

52) What is the difference between atomic mass, mass number and atomic number? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized Solution: Atomic number is the number of protons found in the nucleus of an atom. Atomic mass is the weighted average mass of all naturally occurring isotopes of the atom. Mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons found in an atom.

53) In the diagram, what pH value represents an acidic solution?

a) 12 b) 10 c) 8 d) 6 e) None of these choices. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body. Study Objective 2: SO 2.4.3 Define pH and explain the role of buffer systems in homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions

54) In the diagram, what would happen to the concentration of C if the concentration of A increases?

a) increases b) decreases c) no change Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Describe the functional groups of organic molecules. Section Reference: 1. 2.5 Organic Compounds

Question type: Multiple Choice

55) Which of the following describes the major significance of the element carbon in the human body? a) ionized form makes body fluids acidic b) constituent of water c) forms backbone of all organic molecules d) required to harden the structure of bones and teeth

e) ionized form is the part of hemoglobin that carries oxygen Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds. Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.1 Identify the main chemical elements of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

56) Which of the following describes the major significance of the element chlorine in the human body? a) ionized form makes body fluids acidic b) ionized form is most plentiful anion in extracellular fluid c) forms backbone of all organic molecules d) required for bone and tooth structure e) ionized form is most plentiful cation in extracellular fluid Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds. Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.1 Identify the main chemical elements of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

57) Which of the following describes the major significance of the element nitrogen in the human body? a) ionized form makes body fluids acidic b) ionized form is most plentiful anion in extracellular fluid c) ionized form is needed for action of many enzymes d) is a component of all proteins and nucleic acids e) ionized form is most plentiful cation in extracellular fluid Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds. Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.1 Identify the main chemical elements of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

58) Which of the following can lower the amount of free radicals in the body? a) x-rays b) ultraviolet radiation c) oxygen d) carbon tetrachloride e) antioxidants Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds. Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

59) Which of the following substances has a pH closest to 7.0? a) lye b) vaginal fluid c) gastric juice d) cerebrospinal fluid e) milk of magnesia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Apply the properties of water, inorganic acids, bases and salts to the properties of solutions, colloids and suspensions and the role of pH in buffer systems. Study Objective 2: SO 2.4.3 Define pH and explain the role of buffer systems in homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions

60) Which of the following carbohydrates is a disaccharide? a) ribose b) lactose c) galactose d) glycogen e) cellulose Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

61) Which of the following carbohydrates is a polysaccharide? a) ribose b) lactose c) glycogen d) maltose e) galactose Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

62) This type of lipid is used by the body for insulation. a) phospholipids b) triglycerides c) bile salts d) sex hormones e) carotenes Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

63) This type of protein is involved with shortening of muscle cells to produce movement. a) contractile

b) structural c) regulatory d) catalytic e) transport Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

64) This type of protein protects against pathogens. a) contractile b) immunological c) regulatory d) catalytic e) transport Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

65) Surface tension of an aqueous solution is generated by the presence of molecules. a) covalent bonds b) ionic bonds c) hydrogen bonds d) ester links e) None of these choices. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

between water

Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds. Study Objective 3: SO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

Question type: Essay

66) Define mixture and then distinguish between the three types of mixtures called solutions, colloids and suspensions. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body. Study Objective 2: SO 2.4.2 Distinguish among solutions, colloids, and suspensions. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions Solution: A mixture is a combination of elements or compounds that are physically blended together but not bound by chemical bonds. A solution is a mixture where the solutes are evenly dispersed among the solvent molecules. Solutions have a clear appearance. Colloids are like solutions except the solutes are big enough to scatter light. A colloid appears translucent or opaque. Suspensions are mixtures where the suspended material will eventually settle out.

Question type: Multiple Choice

67) An atom or group of atoms with an unpaired electron in the outermost shell is called a(n) a) compound. b) free radical. c) ion. d) molecule. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds. Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

Question type: Essay

68) Why is the human digestive system unable to digest cellulose? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Identify the building blocks and functions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds Solution: Human digestive system lacks the enzyme to recognize the structure and break the bonds that hold this polysaccharide together.

Question type: Multiple Choice

69) A triple covalent bond is formed between atoms sharing

valence electrons.

a) one b) two c) three d) six e) eight Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds. Study Objective 3: SO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

70) In a polar covalent bond, the atom that has the most electronegativity will have a a) full negative charge (-1). b) full positive charge (+1). c) partial negative charge. d) partial positive charge. e) neutral charge.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds. Study Objective 3: SO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

71) Which of the following is a general term used to refer to the sum of all the chemical reactions occurring in the body? a) anabolism b) catabolism c) metabolism d) catalysis e) homeostasis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.2. Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds. Study Objective 3: SO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

72) The energy stored in the bonds of the molecules in the foods that humans eat is 1. a form of kinetic energy. 2. a form of potential energy. 3. referred to as chemical energy. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 2 and 3 e) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions 73) The initial energy “investment” needed to start a chemical reaction in a cell is called the a) energy of products. b) energy of reactants. c) potential energy. d) Gibb’s free energy. e) activation energy. Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical reactions

74) All of the following are characteristics of anabolism EXCEPT: a) It involves synthesizing new biomolecules. b) It primarily involves endergonic reactions. c) It releases large amounts of energy. d) An example of anabolism is linking amino acids together to form proteins. e) An example is the formation of two ammonia molecules from one nitrogen molecule and three hydrogen molecules. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical reactions 75) AB + CD → AD + BC is a general example of a(n) a) decomposition b) synthesis c) exchange d) reversible e) catalyzed

reaction.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction. Study Objective 2: SO 2.3.5 Describe synthesis, decomposition, exchange, and reversible reactions. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical reactions

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: PAP 14 Chapter Number: 03

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) What are the three main parts of a eukaryotic cell? a) plasma membrane, organelles, cytoplasm b) plasma membrane, organelles, nucleus c) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, organelles d) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus e) plasma membrane, cytosol, organelles Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.1 Name and describe the three main parts of a cell. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.1 Parts of a Cell

Question type: Essay

2) Briefly describe the fluid mosaic model. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: The fluid mosaic model states that the molecular arrangement of the plasma membrane resembles an ever-moving sea of fluid lipids containing a mosaic of many different proteins.

Question type: Multiple Choice

3) The three main components of the lipid bilayer portion of a plasma membrane are a) phospholipids, glycoproteins, and water. b) proteins, cholesterol, and fatty acids. c) cholesterol, triglycerides, and glycolipids. d) phospholipids, cholesterol, and glycolipids.

e) phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

4) What are the nonpolar parts of phospholipids? a) phosphate-containing head groups b) fatty acid tail groups c) Both the head and tail groups are nonpolar. d) Neither the head nor tail groups are nonpolar. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

5) The polar portion of a cholesterol molecule, which forms hydrogen bonds with the polar heads of neighboring phospholipids and glycolipids, consists of a a) –OH group. b) –CH3 group. c) –CH4 group d) –COOH group e) None of these choices is correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

6) This type of membrane protein extends across the entire lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane touching both intracellular fluid and the extracellular fluid. a) complement protein

b) transmembrane protein c) peripheral protein d) lipoprotein e) All of these choices are correct. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

Question type: Essay

7) Describe five different functions of integral membrane proteins. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: Some membrane proteins act as ion channels or carriers that transport substances across the membrane. Other membrane proteins act as receptors that allow the cell to respond to various types of ligands. Other membrane proteins are enzymes that catalyze specific chemical reactions. Still other membrane proteins act as linker proteins that anchor cells to neighboring structures including other cells. Lastly, some membrane proteins serve as cell identity molecules.

Question type: Multiple Choice

8) This type of membrane protein enables cells to catalyze specific chemical reactions at the inner or outer surface of their plasma membrane. a) receptors b) phospholipids c) cholesterol d) enzymes e) ligands Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

9) Which of the following types of membrane proteins function by recognizing and binding to hormones and neurotransmitters? a) transporters b) receptors c) enzymes d) linkers e) cell identification markers Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

10) This type of membrane protein anchors cells to neighboring cells and to protein filaments found outside or inside the cell. a) transporters b) receptors c) ligands d) ion channels e) linkers Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

11) Plasma membranes are , which means that some chemicals move easily through plasma membrane while other chemicals do not. a) selectively permeable b) concentration graded c) electrically graded d) selectively soluble

e) electrical insulators Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the plasma membrane structural and functional properties. Study Objective 2: SO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

12) Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of diffusion of a chemical across a plasma membrane? a) concentration gradient of the chemical across the membrane b) mass of the diffusing chemical c) distance that the chemical has to diffuse d) amount of ATP available e) temperature Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

Question type: Essay

13) Briefly describe the driving force for the movement of water across plasma membranes. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane Solution: Water moves across membranes by osmosis, which is driven by solute concentration differences across the membrane. Water moves from the area of low solute concentration to the area of high solute concentrations.

Question type: Multiple Choice

14) This is a measure of a solution’s ability to change the volume of cells by altering their water content. a) filtration b) normality c) tonicity d) equivalency e) facilitation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

15) This is the transport process by which gases, like O2 and CO2, move through a membrane. a) osmosis b) active transport c) secondary active transport d) simple diffusion e) endocytosis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

16) In this type of transport process, a solute (e.g. glucose) binds to a specific carrier protein on one side of the membrane. This binding induces a conformational change in the carrier protein that results in the solute moving down its concentration gradient to the other side of the membrane. a) osmosis b) active transport c) secondary active transport d) facilitated diffusion e) endocytosis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

17) In this transport process, the energy from hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients. a) primary active transport b) secondary active transport c) facilitated diffusion d) passive diffusion e) osmosis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

18) If the solute concentration is greater inside of the cell than outside the cell, water will move by osmosis a) into the cell. b) out of the cell. c) into and out of the cell at the same rate resulting in no net water movement. d) All of these answer choices are correct. e) None of these answers are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 19) What transport process uses the energy stored in a Na+ or H+ concentration gradient to drive other substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients? a) primary active transport b) secondary active transport c) facilitated diffusion d) passive diffusion

e) osmosis Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

20) Which of the following transport processes uses vesicles that fuse with the plasma membrane to secrete materials into the extracellular fluid? a) endocytosis b) exocytosis c) facilitated diffusion d) osmosis e) Both endocytosis and exocytosis. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

21) Which of the following transport process uses vesicles formed at the plasma membrane to take up extracellular substances and import them into the cell? a) endocytosis b) exocytosis c) facilitated diffusion d) osmosis e) Both endocytosis and exocytosis. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

Question type: Essay

22) List the steps involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane Solution: The steps involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis include 1)ligand binding, 2)vesicle formation, 3)uncoating of the vesicle, 4)fusion of the vesicle with endosome, 5)recycling of receptors to the plasma membrane, and 6)degradation of the ligand in the lysosome.

Question type: Multiple Choice

23) During phagocytosis, binding of a particle to a plasma membrane receptor triggers formation of , which are extensions of the plasma membrane of the phagocyte that eventually surround the particle forming a phagosome. a) podocytes b) exterior vesicles c) interior vesicles d) pseudopods e) lysosomes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

24) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the cytosol? a) primarily consists of water b) cation of electron transport chain carrier proteins c) site of many important chemical reactions d) often contains aggregates of triglycerides that form lipid droplets e) contains the enzymes of glycolysis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

25) Specialized structures within a cell that have a characteristic shape and perform specific functions in cellular growth, maintenance and reproduction are called a) organelles. b) cytoskeletons. c) cytoplasm. d) cytosol. e) nuclei. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm 26) Microfilaments, intermediate filaments and microtubules are all components of a cell’s a) cytoskeleton. b) nucleus. c) plasma membrane. d) flagella. e) ribosome. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

27) This cellular organelle is comprised of a pair of centrioles and the surrounding pericentriolar material. a) cytoskeleton b) cilia c) centrosome d) flagella e) peroxisomes

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

28) Spermatozoa is the only type of human cell that contains a structure that helps propel the sperm towards an oocyte.

, which is a whip-like

a) cilium b) flagellum c) mitochondria d) centrosome e) microvillus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

29) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles is the site of synthesis of membrane proteins and secretory proteins? a) rough endoplasmic reticulum b) smooth endoplasmic reticulum c) nucleus d) centrosome e) Golgi complex Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

30) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles modifies, sorts, and packages proteins destined for other regions of the cell?

a) endoplasmic reticulum b) Golgi complex c) peroxisomes d) nucleus e) proteasome Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

Question type: Essay

31) Briefly state the functions of the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm Solution: The rough endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes glycoproteins, phospholipids and digestive enzymes that are transferred to other cellular organelles, inserted into the plasma membrane, secreted during exocytosis or stored in the lysosomes. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes fatty acids and steroids, detoxifies harmful substances, removes phosphate groups from glucose-6-phosphate, and stores and releases calcium ions that trigger contractions in muscle fibers.

32) Briefly describe how proteins move through the Golgi complex. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm Solution: Proteins are packaged into transport vesicles by the rough endoplasmic reticulum membrane. These vesicles enter on the (cis) face of the Golgi complex, and the proteins move through the cisternae, from (cis) face through to exit (trans) face. Proteins will leave from the (trans) face of the Golgi complex in vesicles that will deliver the protein to plasma membrane, secretory vesicles, or to other organelles in the cell.

Question type: Multiple Choice

33) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles contains several oxidases that are involved in oxidation of fatty acids and amino acids during normal metabolism and in detoxification of chemicals like alcohol in the liver? a) peroxisomes b) mitochondria c) proteasome d) ribosomes e) lysosomes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

34) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles can engulf a worn-out organelle, digest its chemical components, and recycle those digested components? a) peroxisomes b) mitochondria c) proteasome d) ribosomes e) lysosomes Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

35) The major function of mitochondria is to a) move the cell. b) generate ATP. c) produce proteins. d) oxidize organelles. e) synthesize glycolipids.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

36) Which of the following protects the contents of the nucleus? a) nucleic acids b) nuclear membrane c) centrosome d) cilia e) Golgi complex Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the structure and function of the nucleus. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Nucleus

37) What is the major function of histones? a) needed for helix formation of the DNA b) add negative charge to the DNA c) help organize coiling and folding of the DNA d) degrade faulty proteins in the nucleus e) catalyze methylation of the DNA Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the structure and function of the nucleus. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Nucleus

Question type: Essay

38) Briefly explain the difference between transcription and translation. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis Solution: Transcription is making mRNA from DNA and it occurs in the nucleus, while translation is making a protein from the information in mRNA and happens in the cytosol of the cell.

Question type: Multiple Choice

39) This portion of a DNA segment does not code for a protein. a) RNA b) introns c) exons d) polyribosome e) ribosome Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis

Question type: Essay

40) Briefly describe alternative splicing. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis Solution: Alternative splicing of mRNA is a process in which the pre-mRNA transcribed from a gene is spliced in different ways to produce several different mRNAs. The different mRNAs are used to make different proteins.

Question type: Essay

41) Define homologous chromosomes. Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Understand the events and processes involved in cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division Solution: Homologous chromosomes contain similar genes arranged in the same (or almost the same) order.

Question type: Multiple Choice

42) During this phase of cell division, organelles duplicate and centrosome replication begins. a) interphase b) prophase c) metaphase d) anaphase e) telophase Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Understand the events and processes involved in cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division

43) During this phase of cell division, the centromeres split leading to separation and subsequent migration of the two members of a chromatid pair to opposite poles of the cells. The cleavage furrow also begins to develop during this phase. a) interphase b) prophase c) metaphase d) anaphase e) telophase Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Understand the events and processes involved in cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division

44) In the diagram, which organelle is responsible for autophagy and autolysis?

a) C b) B c) F d) J e) D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

45) In the diagram, which organelle is used to modify, sort and transport proteins?

a) D b) I c) A d) J e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

46) In the diagram, which organelle aids movement of the cell?

a) A b) G c) H d) D e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

47) In the diagram, this structure directs cellular activities.

a) D b) F c) G d) A e) H Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the structure and function of the nucleus. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Nucleus

48) In the diagram, which one represents carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion?

a) A b) B c) C d) Both A and C e) Both B and C Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

49) In the diagram, which one represents a hypertonic solution

a) A b) B

c) C d) Both B and C e) All of these choices are correct. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

Question type: Essay

50) Describe briefly what is occurring at each step in the figure.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis Solution: This figure represents protein synthesis. Step one, the initiator tRNA attaches to a start codon. In step two, the large and small ribosomal subunits join to form a functional ribosome and initiator tRNA fits into P site. In step three, the anticodon of an incoming tRNA pairs with the next mRNA codon at A site. Step four, the amino acid on the tRNA at P site forms a peptide bond with the amino acid at A site. Step five, the tRNA at the P site leaves the ribosome and the ribosome shifts down by one codon. The tRNA previously at the A site is now at the P site. Step six is when protein synthesis stops when the ribosome reaches one of three potential stop codons on the mRNA strand.

Question type: Multiple Choice

51) In the diagram, which panel shows events occurring during anaphase?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Understand the events and processes involved in cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division

52) In the diagram, which panel shows the kinetochore of the centromeres aligning along the center of the mitotic spindle of the cell?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Understand the events and processes involved in cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division

53) In the diagram, which panel shows cells that are in interphase?

1A 2C 3F a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 e) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Understand the events and processes involved in cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division

Question type: Essay

54) Compare and contrast primary and secondary active transport. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

Solution: Both are energy requiring transport processes that are capable of moving substances against their concentration gradients. Energy obtained from hydrolysis of ATP drives primary active transport, while energy stored in an ionic concentration gradient drives secondary active transport.

55) Compare mitosis to meiosis. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Understand the events and processes involved in cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division Solution: Mitosis is somatic cell division that produces two identical cells with the same number (diploid) and kinds of chromosomes as the original cell. Meiosis is reproductive cell division that produces cells in which the number of chromosomes in the nucleus is reduced in half (haploid)

Question type: Multiple Choice

56) What structural component of the membrane is labeled (E) in the diagram?

a) glycoprotein b) cholesterol

c) channel protein d) glycolipid e) phospholipid Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

57) What structural components of the membrane are labeled (C) in the diagram?

a) peripheral proteins b) cholesterol molecules c) pores d) integral proteins e) phospholipids Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

58) What structural component of the membrane is labeled (B) in the diagram?

a) glycoprotein b) cholesterol c) glycolipid d) channel protein e) phospholipid Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

58) Which of the following represents an ion channel?

a) F b) C c) D d) A e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

59) Which of the following shows ligand binding at the cell surface?

a) B b) C c) D d) A e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

60) Most intravenous solutions are

with respect to blood cells?

a) tonicity b) isotonic c) hypertonic d) osmotic e) hypotonic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

61) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in receptor-mediated endocytosis shown in the figure?

a) binding > degradation in lysosomes > vesicle formation > uncoating > recycling of receptors to plasma membrane > fusion with endosome b) degradation in lysosomes > fusion with endosome > recycling of receptors to plasma membrane > uncoating > vesicle formation > binding

c) degradation in lysosomes > recycling of receptors to plasma membrane > fusion with endosome > uncoating > vesicle formation > binding d) binding > vesicle formation > uncoating > fusion with endosome > recycling of receptors to plasma membrane > degradation in lysosomes e) binding > uncoating > vesicle formation > fusion with endosome > degradation in lysosomes > recycling of receptors to plasma membrane Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

62) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis shown in the figure?

a) pseudopods surround particle > phagosome formed > fusion of lysosome and phagosome > digestion by lysosomal enzymes > residual body formed b) phagosome formed > pseudopods surround particle > fusion of lysosome and phagosome > digestion by lysosomal enzymes > residual body formed c) phagosome formed > pseudopods surround particle > fusion of lysosome and phagosome > residual body formed > digestion by lysosomal enzymes d) residual body formed > phagosome formed > pseudopods surround particle > fusion of lysosome and phagosome > digestion by lysosomal enzymes

e) fusion of lysosome and phagosome > residual body formed > phagosome formed > pseudopods surround particle > digestion by lysosomal enzymes Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

63) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in bulk-phase endocytosis shown in the figure?

a) plasma membrane forms vesicle around extracellular droplets > fusion of lysosome and vesicle > vesicle formed pinches off into cytosol > digestion by enzymes > solutes released b) solutes released > plasma membrane forms vesicle around extracellular droplets > fusion of lysosome and vesicle > vesicle formed pinches off into cytosol > digestion by enzymes c) vesicle formed pinches off into cytosol > solutes released > plasma membrane forms vesicle around extracellular droplets > fusion of lysosome and vesicle > digestion by enzymes d) vesicle formed pinches off into cytosol > plasma membrane forms vesicle around extracellular droplets > fusion of lysosome and vesicle > digestion by enzymes > solutes released

e) plasma membrane forms vesicle around extracellular droplets > vesicle formed pinches off into cytosol > fusion of lysosome and vesicle > digestion by enzymes > solutes released Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

64) Which of the following transport processes moves substances through cells using endocytosis on one side of a cell and exocytosis on the opposite side of the cell? a) phagocytosis b) secondary active transport c) transcytosis d) osmosis e) simple diffusion Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

65) Which disease below is an inherited condition characterized by the absence of a single lysosomal enzyme called Hex A? a) Tay-Sachs disease b) leukemia c) progeria d) lymphoma e) Werner syndrome Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

66) Which organelle is responsible for synthesis of steroids, phospholipids and functions as a reservoir for Ca2+? a) mitochondrion b) secretory vesicle c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum d) rough endoplasmic reticulum e) lysosome Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

67) What other organelle besides the nucleus contain DNA? a) Golgi complex b) lysosome c) ribosomes d) mitochondrion e) centrosome Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

68) This is the site of synthesis of rRNA and assembly of rRNA and proteins into ribosomal subunits. a) nucleus b) nucleolus c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum d) rough endoplasmic reticulum e) Golgi complex Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the structure and function of the nucleus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Nucleus

69) What compound would a cell lacking ribosomes be unable to make? a) lipids b) nucleotides c) proteins d) carbohydrates e) phospholipids Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis

70) The following is a particular sequence of base triplet on a DNA molecule: ATG. What is the corresponding codon for the mRNA? a) TAC b) GUA c) GTA d) CTA e) UAC Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis

71) The following is a particular sequence of codon on mRNA: ACU. What is the corresponding anti-codon for the tRNA? a) UGA b) UCA c) TGA d) TCA e) AUC

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis

Question type: Essay

72) Describe the difference between the cytoplasm and the cytosol. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm Solution: The cytoplasm is all the cellular material (organelles and fluid) between the plasma membrane and the nucleus, while the cytosol is only the fluid portion of the cytoplasm.

Question type: Multiple Choice

73) The difference in concentration of a specific chemical, like Na+, on the inside and outside of a plasma is referred as a(n) a) electrochemical potential. b) membrane potential. c) electrical gradient. d) concentration gradient. e) biological capacitance. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 3.2.3 Define the electrochemical gradient and describe its components. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

74) An orderly, genetically programmed cell death is referred to as pathological cell death is referred to as _. a) apoptosis; synapsis

, while disorganized

b) apoptosis; necrosis c) necrosis; apoptosis d) synapsis; necrosis e) necrosis; synapsis Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.9 Describe the cellular changes that occur with aging. Section Reference 2: Sec 3.9 Aging and Cells

75) Which of the cells in the diagram contains structural adaptations that increase surface area for absorption?

1B 2C 3D 4E a) 3 and 4 b) 1 only c) 2 only d) 3 only e) 4 only

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.8 Describe how cells differ in size and shape. Section Reference 2: Sec 3.8 Cellular Diversity

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: PAP 14 Chapter Number: 04

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT one of the main tissue types found in the human body? a) epithelial b) connective c) myocardial d) muscle e) nervous Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Name the four basic types of tissues that make up the human body, and state the characteristics of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Types of Tissues

2) These types of cell junctions anchor adjacent cells together and resist their separation during contractile activities. a) tight junctions and hemidesmosomes b) gap junctions and tight junctions c) adherens junctions and desmosomes d) desmosomes and gap junctions e) hemidesmosome and tight junctions Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Cell Junctions

3) The thin extracellular layer, consisting of the basal and reticular lamina, that anchors epithelial cells to underlying connective tissue is called the a) basement membrane. b) tunica adventitia.

c) tight junction. d) adherens junctions. e) gap junctions. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.3 State the main differences between epithelial and connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.3 Comparison between epithelial and connective tissue

4) Epithelial tissue a) is used as a covering of body surfaces. b) is used as a lining of body cavities and hollow organs. c) is used to form glands. d) usually has a free surface that interacts with external environment. e) All of these answer choices are correct. Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

Question type: Essay

5) Name and briefly describe the different categories of epithelial tissues based on cell shape and number of layers of cells found in the tissue. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue Solution: Based on cell shape, epithelial tissues can be divided into four categories including: 1)squamous which are thin and flat, 2)cuboidal which are similar in width and height, 3)columnar are taller than they are wide and 4)transitional which can change shape from cuboidal to squamous and back again. Epithelial tissues can also be categorized based on the number of layers of cells found in the tissue. These categories include: 1)simple which means a single layer of cells, 2)stratified which is two or more layers of cells and 3)pseudostratified

which is one layer of cells that appears multi-layered due to the arrangement of the nuclei in the cells.

Question type: Multiple Choice

6) Which type of epithelial tissue is found lining the heart, blood vessels and lymphatic vessels? a) Simple squamous epithelium b) Simple cuboidal epithelium c) Stratified squamous epithelium d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium e) Simple columnar epithelium Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

7) Which type of epithelial tissue forms the most superficial layer of the skin? a) Simple squamous epithelium b) Simple cuboidal epithelium c) Stratified squamous epithelium d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium e) Simple columnar epithelium Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

8) Which type of epithelial tissue lines the ducts of sweat glands and esophageal glands? a) Simple squamous epithelium b) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium c) Stratified squamous epithelium

d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium e) Transitional epithelium Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

9) Which type of epithelial tissue lines the fallopian tubes, uterus, and some bronchioles of the respiratory tract? a) Simple cuboidal epithelium b) Simple columnar epithelium c) Stratified columnar epithelium d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium e) Transitional epithelium Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

10) In which of the following locations would you most likely find transitional epithelial cells? a) Lining of the esophagus b) Outer layer of skin c) Lining of the urinary bladder d) On the surface of the heart e) Covering skull bones Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

11) Which of the following types of glands are categorized by whether their ducts are branched or unbranched? a) Unicellular exocrine glands b) Multicellular exocrine glands c) Unicellular endocrine glands d) Multicellular endocrine glands e) All of these answer choices are correct. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

12) Which type of multicellular exocrine gland has a branched rounded secretory part attached to a single unbranched duct and is found mainly in sebaceous glands? a) Simple coiled tubular gland b) Compound tubular gland c) Compound tuboloacinar gland d) Simple branched acinar gland e) Simple branched tubular gland Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

13) Functional classification of exocrine glands is based on a) shape of the gland. b) size of the gland. c) how the gland release its secretory product. d) how the gland synthesizes its secretory product. e) All of these answer choices are correct. Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

14) Which type of exocrine gland accumulates its secretory product in the cytosol of its cells until the cell ruptures and becomes part of the secretory product? a) Apocrine b) Exocrine c) Holocrine d) All of these answer choices are correct. e) None of these answer choices are correct. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

15) The extracellular matrix of connective tissue consists of a) enzymes and membranous organelles. b) plasma membranes and ground substance. c) keratinized cells and protein fibers. d) calcified crystals of minerals and enzymes. e) protein fibers and ground substance. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

16) Which of the following is NOT a connective tissue? a) Bone b) Blood

c) Cartilage d) Tendons e) Epidermis Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

17) Which component of connective tissue is found between the cells and fibers, and functions to support and bind cells in the tissue together? a) Matrix b) Formed elements c) Ground substance d) Basement membrane e) Plasma membrane Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

18) Which of the following is a polysaccharide commonly found in the ground substance of connective tissues? a) Hyaluronic acid b) Melatonin c) Cholesterol d) Glycogen e) Starch Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

19) Which of the following types of fibers are commonly found in the extracellular matrix of connective tissue? a) Elastic b) Reticular c) Collagen d) All of these answer choices are correct. e) None of these answer choices are correct. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

20) Reticular fibers in soft organs like the spleen and liver form a supporting framework called the a) matrix. b) ground substance. c) basement membrane. d) stroma. e) glycosaminoglycans. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

21) Which of the following is classified as loose connective tissue? a) Blood b) Spongy bone c) Areolar connective tissue d) Elastic connective tissue e) Hyaline cartilage Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

22) Which of the following is a location where adipose tissue is commonly found? a) Subcutaneous layer deep to the skin b) Lining the chambers of the heart c) Surrounding the brain d) Inside the ear canal e) In the cartilage found in joints Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

23) The main function of dense regular connective tissues is a) storing minerals for later use. b) forming stroma of soft organs. c) reducing heat loss from the body surface. d) providing strong attachment between structures like muscle and bones. e) providing elasticity to stretchable organs. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

24) The pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs are composed of which type of connective tissue? a) Adipose tissue b) Elastic cartilage c) Fibrocartilage

d) Dense irregular connective tissue e) Reticular connective tissue Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

Question type: Essay

25) Name and briefly describe the two types of growth seen in cartilage. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Solution: Growth of cartilage can be classified as interstitial or appositional. In interstitial growth, the cartilage increases rapidly in size due to the division of existing chondrocytes and the continuous deposition of increasing amounts of matrix by the chondrocytes. In appositional growth, activity of the cells in the inner chondrogenic layer of the perichondrium leads to growth. Deeper layers divide and cells mature resulting in the matrix accumulating beneath the perichondrium on the outer surface of the cartilage causing it to grow in width.

Question type: Multiple Choice

26) What is the basic structural unit of compact bone tissue? a) osteon b) stroma c) lamellae d) chromosome e) lacunae Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

27) Spongy bone tissue lacks a) lamellae. b) lacunae. c) osteocytes. d) osteons. e) canaliculi. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

28) The extracellular matrix of blood tissue consists of a) red blood cells. b) white blood cells. c) plasma. d) lymph. e) albumin. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

29) Which of the following types of membranes found in the human body does NOT contain epithelial tissue? a) Mucous membrane b) Serous membrane c) Cutaneous membrane

d) Synovial membrane Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.6 Describe the properties of various types of membranes. Study Objective 2: SO 4.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.6 Membranes

30) Which type of membrane lines a body cavity that does not open directly to the exterior and the organs contained in that body cavity? a) Cutaneous membrane b) Serous membrane c) Mucous membrane d) Basement membrane e) Synovial membrane Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.6 Describe the properties of various types of membranes. Study Objective 2: SO 4.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.6 Membranes

31) Immature, undifferentiated cells that can divide to replace lost or damaged cells are called a) stem cells. b) parenchymal cells. c) fibrotic cells. d) granulocytes. e) agranulocytes. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.10 Describe the role of tissue repair in restoring homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.10 Tissue Repair: Restoring Homeostasis

32) In the diagram shown below, which cell junction is a desmosome?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Cell Junctions

33) In the diagram shown below, which cellular junction is a tight junction?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Cell Junctions

34) In the diagram shown below, where is the apical surface of the epithelial cell?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

35) In the diagram shown below, which of the indicated structures is composed of basal lamina and reticular lamina?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

36) Which of the light micrographs in the figure below shows a simple columnar epithelium?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

37) Which of the light micrographs in the figure below shows a stratified cuboidal epithelium?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

38) Which of the light micrographs in the figure below shows a pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

39) In the figure shown, which light micrograph shows the type of cartilage that is most abundant in the human body?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

40) In the figure shown, which light micrograph shows areolar connective tissue?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

41) In the figure shown, which light micrograph shows reticular connective tissue?

a) J b) C c) E d) F e) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissues

42) In the figure shown, which light micrograph shows fibrocartilage?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

43) In the figure shown, which light micrograph shows dense regular connective tissue?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

44) In the figure shown, which light micrograph shows blood?

a) J b) I c) H d) G e) F Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

45) In the figure shown, which light micrograph shows the type of connective tissue that contains the Hardest matrix of all connective tissues?

a) J b) I c) G d) B e) D Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

46) In the figure shown, which light micrograph shows a muscle tissue that is under involuntary control?

1A 2B 3C a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1 and 3 Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.7 Contrast the properties of the different types of muscle tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 4.7.2 Contrast the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.7 Muscular Tissue

47) In the figure shown, which light micrograph shows cardiac muscle?

a) A b) B

c) C d) All of these answer choices are correct. e) None of these answer choices are correct. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.7 Contrast the properties of the different types of muscle tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 4.7.2 Contrast the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.7 Muscular Tissue

Question type: Essay

48) Briefly describe the four parts of an osteon. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Solution: Each osteon includes lamellae, lacunae, canaliculi and a Haversian canal. The lamellae are concentric rings of matrix that consist of mineral salts and collagen fibers. Lacunae are small spaces between lamellae that contain mature bone cells called osteocytes. Projecting from the lacunae are canaliculi, which are networks of minute canals containing the processes of osteocytes. Canaliculi provide routes for nutrients to reach osteocytes and for wastes to leave them. A central Haversian canal contains blood vessels and nerves.

49) Name and describe the types of cells commonly found in connective tissue. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Solution: Connective tissue can contain fibroblasts, which are large, flat cells with branching projections that secrete the fibers and ground substance of the matrix. Macrophages develop from monocytes and are irregular shaped with short branching projections and are capable of engulfing bacteria and cellular debris by phagocytosis. Plasma cells secrete antibodies that attack or neutralize foreign substances in the body. Mast cells produce histamine that dilates small

blood vessels. Adipocytes store triglycerides. White blood cells migrate from blood to connective tissue in response to certain immune system conditions.

Question type: Multiple Choice

50) Which of the following types of tissues is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body? a) skeletal muscle b) smooth muscle c) cardiac muscle d) intercalated cells e) myoblasts Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.7 Contrast the properties of the different types of muscle tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 4.7.2 Contrast the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.7 Muscular Tissue

51) Which of the following types of tissues is made up of small spindle-shaped cells and is commonly found in the walls of hollow organs? a) skeletal muscle b) smooth muscle c) cardiac muscle d) transitional epithelium e) areolar tissue Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.7 Contrast the properties of the different types of muscle tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 4.7.1 Describe the general features of muscular tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.7 Muscular Tissue

52) Which of the following types of tissues contains multinucleated cells whose movements are under voluntary control? a) skeletal muscle

b) smooth muscle c) cardiac muscle d) transitional epithelium e) areolar tissue Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.7 Contrast the properties of the different types of muscle tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 4.7.1 Describe the general features of muscular tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.7 Muscular Tissue

Question type: Essay

53) Compare and contrast the functional and structural characteristics of the three types of muscle tissue. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.7 Contrast the properties of the different types of muscle tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 4.7.1 Describe the general features of muscular tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.7 Muscular Tissue Solution: Both cardiac and skeletal muscle tissues are striated and smooth muscle is not, hence its name. Skeletal muscle cells have more than one nucleus and are large and run parallel to each other. Cardiac muscle cells usually have only one nucleus and are branched. They also are connected to each other via gap junctions and desmosomes. This area is known as the intercalated discs. Smooth muscle cells are small spindle-shaped cells that form thick layers around the hollow organs. Like cardiac muscle cells, some smooth muscle cells communicate via gap junctions. Skeletal muscle is voluntarily controlled while both cardiac and smooth muscle tissue are involuntary.

Question type: Multiple Choice

54) Which following types of cells are considered excitable cells because they are able to produce electrical signals? a) neuroglial cells and myofibers b) myofibers and connective tissue cells c) neuroglial cells and neurons d) neurons and epithelial cells e) myofibers and neurons

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.9 Explain the concept of electrical excitability. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.9 Excitable Cells

55) Which of the light micrographs in the figure below shows the type of epithelial tissue whose functions include filtration, diffusion, osmosis, and secretion in serous membranes?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

56) Which of the light micrographs in the figure below shows the type of epithelial tissue that lines the kidney tubules?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

57) Which of the following figures shows tissue whose functions are secretion and absorption?

a) B b) C c) D d) G e) H

58) Which of the light micrographs in the following figure shows a type of epithelial tissue whose functions include movement of mucus over their apical surface by ciliary action?

1B 2C 3E

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 2 and 3 only e) All of these Answer choices are correct. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

59) Which of the light micrographs in the following figure shows the type of epithelial tissue found lining the large excretory ducts of esophageal gland and whose functions include

protection and secretion?

a) A b) D c) E d) G e) H Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

60) Which of the light micrographs in the following figure shows the type of epithelial tissue whose structure allows it to be stretched or distended?

a) A b) D c) E d) G e) H Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

61) Which of the light micrographs in the following figure shows the type of epithelial tissue that lines the urinary bladder walls?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) H Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

62) Which of the following figures shows tissue found along the developing bones of the embryo?

a) A b) B c) C d) E e) F Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

63) Which of the following figures shows tissue that is found in tendons and ligaments?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

64) Which of the following figures shows tissue that is found in the trachea?

a) B b) C c) E d) F e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue

65) Which is a function of the tissue shown in diagram A?

a) heat production b) pumping of blood c) propulsion of food d) contraction of bladder e) conduct nerve impulses to muscle fibers Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.7 Contrast the properties of the different types of muscle tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 4.7.2 Contrast the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.7 Muscular Tissue

66) Which is a function of the tissue shown in diagram D?

a) heat production b) pumping of blood c) propulsion of food d) contraction of bladder e) conduct nerve impulses to muscle fibers Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.8 Describe the structural features and functions of nervous tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.8 Nervous Tissue

67) Which of the following is an abnormal joining of tissues resulting from the formation of scar tissue at a previous site of inflammation or surgical repair? a) adhesions b) articulations c) cysts d) granulomas e) osteophytes

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.10 Describe the role of tissue repair in restoring homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.10 Tissue Repair: Restoring Homeostasis

68) Which of the following is a term used to describe a decrease in the size of cells within a tissue or organ that ultimately results in reduction in the overall size of the tissue or organ? a) atrophy b) hyperplasia c) hypertrophy d) adhesion e) anorexia Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.11 Describe the effects of aging on tissues. Study Objective 1: SO 4.12 Describe the disorders that affect tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec11 Aging and Tissues Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Tissues

Question type: Essay

69) Discuss how a damaged tissue is repaired. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.10 Describe the role of tissue repair in restoring homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.10 Tissue Repair: Restoring Homeostasis Solution: In order to replace the worn-out, damaged or dead cells, new cells arise from stroma, supporting connective tissue, or the parenchyma for replacement. In some cases stem cells, which are the immature and undifferentiated cells, will divide to replace the lost or damaged cells.

Question type: Essay

70) Discuss the difference(s) between an endocrine and an exocrine gland.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues. Section Reference 4: 4.4 Epithelial Tissue Solution: The secretory product (hormones) of endocrine glands enters the interstitial fluid and then diffuses into the blood without going through a duct. Exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts that empty onto the surface of a covering or the lumen of a hollow organ. Sweat, oil, earwax, saliva and digestive enzymes are typical exocrine gland secretions.

Question type: Multiple Choice

71) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of epithelial tissues? a) Cells are tightly packed together. b) Large amount of extracellular matrix. c) Contains no blood vessels within tissue. d) Found on the exposed surfaces of the body. e) Line the inside of blood vessels. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.3 State the main differences between epithelial and connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.3 Comparison between epithelial and connective tissue

72) In which of the following types of membranes would you expect to find goblet cells? a) mucous membrane b) serous membrane c) cutaneous membrane d) synovial membrane e) plasma membrane Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes. Study Objective 2: SO 4.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.6 Membranes

73) The two principal types of cells found in nervous tissues are a) neuroglial cells and neurons. b) neurons and mast cells. c) neurons and dendritic cells. d) neuroglial cells and myofibers. e) neurons and somites. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.8 Describe the structural features and functions of nervous tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.8 Nervous Tissue

74) Electrical signals called the release of chemicals called

travel along the plasma membrane of a neuron and stimulate that are then used to communicate with other cells.

a) action potentials; neurotransmitters b) action potentials; hormones c) action potentials; cytokines d) threshold potentials; cytokines e) threshold potentials; neurotransmitters Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.9 Explain the concept of electrical excitability. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.9 Excitable Cells

Question type: Essay

75) Discuss the three functional classifications of exocrine glands secretions. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Connective Tissue Solution: The classification is based on how their secretion is released. Merocrine gland secretions are packaged into a secretary vesicle and released via exocytosis. Apocrine glands

accumulate their secretory product at the apical surface of the cell and the upper portion of the cell pinches off from the rest of the cell to release the products. Holocrine glands accumulate their product in their cytosol and after the cell matures, ruptures and releases the product.

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 05

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Another name for the subcutaneous layer is a) Dermis b) Epidermis c) Stratum corneum d) Stratum basale e) Hypodermis Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

2) Which layer of the skin is composed of a keratinized stratified squamous epithelium? a) Epidermis b) Dermis c) Hypodermis d) Subcutaneous layer e) Corpuscle Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

3) Keratin a) is a protein. b) is secreted by plasma cells to help protect the body from viruses.

c) is made by melanocytes only. d) is both a protein and made by melanocytes only. e) All of these choices are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

4) Which pigment secreted by specialized cells in the skin is capable of absorbing ultraviolet light? a) Keratin b) Melanin c) Melatonin d) Carotene e) Collagen Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

5) Which epidermal cell has a role in immunity and disease resistance? a) Intraepidermal macrophages (Langerhans cells) b) Keratinocytes c) Melanocytes d) Tactile epithelial cells (Merkel cells) e) Podocytes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

6) Which layer of the epidermis is composed of a single row of cuboidal or columnar keratinocytes? a) Stratum basale b) Stratum spinosum c) Stratum granulosum d) Stratum lucidum e) Stratum corneum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

7) Which layer of the epidermis contains layers of flattened keratinocytes that are going through apoptosis? a) Stratum basale b) Stratum spinosum c) Stratum granulosum d) Stratum lucidum e) Stratum corneum Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

8) The stratum lucidum a) contains lamellar granules. b) lies just above the stratum basale. c) is the layer used in a skin graft. d) is present only in thick skin. e) can consist of up to 25-30 layers of dead keratinocytes.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

9) Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus, which is the thickening of the of the epidermis. a) stratum basale b) stratum spinosum c) stratum granulosum d) stratum lucidum e) stratum corneum Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

10) The process of keratinization involves a) synthesizing new pigment in the skin. b) cells accumulating a tough fibrous protein that helps protect the skin. c) changes occurring in thin skin only. d) both synthesizing new pigment in the skin and cells accumulating a tough fibrous protein that helps protect the skin. e) none of these answer choices are correct. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

11) Which layer of the skin is composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue containing collagen and elastic fibers? a) Hypodermis b) Basement membrane c) Epidermis d) Dermis e) Subcutaneous (subQ) layer Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

Question type: Essay

12) Describe how fingerprints are formed and what they are used for. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: epidermal ridges develop during the third or fourth fetal month as the epidermis conforms to the contours of the underlying dermal papillae of the papillary region. The ridges increase the surface area of the epidermis and thus increase the grip of the hand or foot by increasing friction. Because the ducts of sweat glands open on the tops of the epidermal ridges as sweat pores, the sweat and ridges form fingerprints upon touching a smooth object. The epidermal ridge pattern is genetically determined and is unique for each individual allowing these patterns to be used to identify individuals.

Question type: Multiple Choice

13) Albinism is the inherited inability to produce a) melanin. b) carotene.

c) both melanin and carotene. d) keratin. e) creatinine. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the basis for different skin colors. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

14) Characteristics of thick skin include: a) Found in the palms, soles of the feet and fingertips. b) Does not contain hair follicles. c) Contains more sweat glands than thin skin. d) Contain epidermal ridges. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.3 Compare structural and functional differences in thin and thick skin. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.3 Types of Skin

15) Which of the following structures found in the skin plays an important role in thermoregulation? a) Tactile epithelial cells (Merkel cells) b) Sebaceous glands c) Sweat glands d) Nails e) Fingerprints Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin

16) Which of the following structures found in the skin help prevent water loss and inhibit bacterial growth on the surface of the skin? a) Arrector pili b) Lunula c) Sweat glands d) Hair follicles e) Oil glands Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin

Question type: Essay

17) Describe the structure and function of arrector pili. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis. Study Objective 2: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Study Objective 3: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Section Reference 2: Sec5.2 Accessory structures of the Skin Solution: Arrector pili are smooth muscles that extend from the superficial dermis of the skin to the dermal root sheath around the side of the hair follicle. In its normal position, hair emerges at an angle to the surface of the skin. Under physiological or emotional stress, such as cold or fright, autonomic nerve endings stimulate the arrector pili muscle to contract, which pulls the hair shafts perpendicular to the skin surface. This action causes “goose bumps” because the skin around the shaft forms slight elevations.

Question type: Multiple Choice

18) This is fine non-pigmented hair that covers the body of the fetus.

a) Alopecia b) Vellus c) Lanugo d) Papilla e) Lunula Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

19) This type of exocrine gland is a simple, branched acinar gland connected to a hair follicle. a) Sebaceous gland b) Sudoriferous gland c) Both sebaceous gland and sudoriferous gland d) None of these answers are correct Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

20) Which of the following is a mixture of triglycerides, cholesterol, proteins and inorganic salts? a) Sweat b) Lanugo c) Vellus d) Sebum e) Mucus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

21) Which type of exocrine gland is a simple, coiled tubular gland that is found throughout almost the entirety of the skin? a) Sebaceous gland b) Eccrine sweat gland c) Apocrine sweat gland d) Ceruminous gland e) None of these answer choices are correct. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

Question type: Essay

22) List and briefly describe the major functions of the skin. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin Solution: The functions of the skin include: 1) Thermoregulation: The skin thermoregulates in response to increased temperature by secreting sweat onto its surface and then increasing blood flow to the surface leading to cooling of the blood. In response to low temperatures, production of sweat is decreased and blood flow is diverted from surface to conserve heat. 2) The skin contains 8-10% of the blood and thus serves as a blood reservoir. 3) The skin covers the body and provides protection using keratin, lipids, secretions like oil and sweat, and immunological defenses. 4) The skin can detect and respond to cutaneous sensations. 5) The skin helps in excretion and absorption. 6) The skin also can synthesize vitamin D.

23) Briefly describe the steps in epidermal wound healing. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing

Solution: In response to an epidermal injury, basal cells of the epidermis surrounding the wound break contact with the basement membrane. The cells then enlarge and migrate across the wound. The cells appear to migrate as a sheet. When epidermal cells encounter each other they stop migrating due to contact inhibition. Migration of the epidermal cells stops completely when each is finally in contact with other epidermal cells on all sides. Epidermal growth factor is also secreted to stimulate the basal stem cells to divide and replace the ones that have moved into the wound. Epidermal cell division eventually regenerates the strata of the epidermis.

24) Briefly describe the steps in deep wound healing. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing Solution: In deep wound healing, a blood clot forms during the inflammatory response and loosely unites the wound edges. Then in the migratory phase the clot becomes a scab and epithelial cells migrate beneath the scab to bridge the wound. Fibroblasts migrate along fibrin threads and begin synthesizing scar tissue and damaged blood vessels begin to regrow. During this phase, the tissue filling the wound is called granulation tissue. The proliferative phase is characterized by extensive growth of epithelial cells beneath the scab, deposition by fibroblasts of collagen fibers in random patterns, and continued growth of blood vessels. During the maturation phase, the scab sloughs off once the epidermis has been restored to normal thickness. Collagen fibers become more organized, fibroblasts decrease in number and blood vessels are restored to normal.

Question type: Multiple Choice

25) In which type of scar does the scar tissue extend beyond the boundary of the injury into normal tissue? a) Hypertrophic scar b) Keloid scar c) Proliferative scar d) Inhibitory scar e) Granuloma Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing

26) In the diagram of skin shown below, where is the sebaceous gland?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

27) In the diagram of skin shown below, where is the apocrine sweat gland?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) H Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

28) In the diagram of skin shown below, which labeled structure generates fingerprints?

a) A b) B c) G d) H e) None of these answer choices are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

29) In the diagram of skin shown below, where is the reticular region of the dermis?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) A Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

30) In the diagram of skin shown below, where is the arrector pili muscle?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

31) In the photomicrograph of a portion of thick skin shown below, which layer is the stratum spinosum?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of the skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

32) In the photomicrograph of a portion of thick skin shown below, which layer is only seen in thick skin?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of the skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

33) In the photomicrograph of a portion of thick skin shown below, which layer is the stratum basale?

a) A b) B c) D d) E e) F Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of the skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

34) In the diagram of a hair root shown, where is the cortex?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

35) In the diagram of a hair root shown, where is the dermal root sheath?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

36) In the diagram of a hair root shown, where is the cuticle of the hair?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

37) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown, where is the eponychium (cuticle)?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

38) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown, where is the hyponychium (nail bed)?

a) B b) C c) E d) F e) G Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

39) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown below, where is the nail root?

a) A b) C c) E d) F e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

40) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown below, where is the nail matrix?

a) A b) C c) E d) F e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

41) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown, where is the lunula?

42) Which of the following best describes the events occurring at point B in the diagram of deep wound healing shown below?

a) Blood clot is forming. b) New collagen fibers are forming. c) Damaged blood vessels are being repaired. d) Epithelium is migrating across wound. e) Scar tissue is forming. Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing

43) Which of the labeled cells in the diagram of deep wound healing shown below has phagocytic properties?

a) C b) E c) F d) All of these answer choices are correct. e) Both E and F Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing

44) Which of the following best describes the events occurring at point A in the diagram of deep wound healing shown below?

a) Blood clot is forming. b) New collagen fibers are forming. c) Damaged blood vessels are being repaired. d) Epithelium is migrating across wound. e) Scar tissue is forming. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing

Question type: Essay

45) Describe the structural characteristics of the epidermis that contribute to its ability to protect the surface of an animal. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: Multiple layers of cells in stratified squamous epithelium help resist friction. Keratin of intermediate filaments provides strength to tissue by binding cells tightly together and to underlying tissue, thus creating a barrier to microbes. Lamellar granules of keratinocytes produce a lipid-rich, water-repellent (sealant) to protect from dehydration and entry of foreign materials. Melanin, produced by melanocytes, protects underlying tissue from UV light. Sebum secreted onto the surface helps protect from dehydration and microbial invasion. Intraepidermal macrophages (Langerhans cells) participate in immune response to microbial invasion.

46) Describe the major differences between thin skin and thick skin. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.3 Compare structural and functional differences in thin and thick skin. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.3 Types of Skin Solution: Thick skin is found on palms, palmar surfaces of digits, and soles, while thin skin is found in all other areas. Thick skin is 4-5× thicker than thin skin. The stratum lucidum is present exclusively in thick skin. Also, the stratum spinosum and stratum corneum are thicker in thick skin. Thick skin exhibits epidermal ridges, more sweat glands and a higher density of sensory receptors. Thin skin has hair follicles and sebaceous glands, while thick skin does not.

47) John has just been brought into the emergency room following a fiery explosion at a chemical plant. He is diagnosed with third degree burns over the anterior surfaces of his arms and trunk. What specific structural damage has occurred to his skin? What risks to John's life have resulted from this damage? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing Solution: John has lost approximately 27% of his skin's surface area (according to the Rule of Nines), which leads to severe systemic effects. The epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous layer and associated structures have been destroyed. Sensory function is lost. Loss of epidermis (and so, lost keratin and Langerhans cells) makes John susceptible to microbial invasion. Loss of keratinized structures and lamellar granules allows for extreme loss of water, plasma, and plasma proteins, which causes shock; leading to dehydration, reduced blood volume and circulation, decreased urine output and diminished immune responses.

Question type: Multiple Choice

48) Which structure is an eccrine sweat gland?

a) A b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory structures of the Skin

49) Which structures are dermal papillae?

a) A b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory structures of the Skin

50) The corpuscle of touch (Meissner corpuscle) would be found in which region of the skin shown in the figure?

a) B b) D c) E d) J e) None of these answer choices are correct. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory structures of the Skin

51) Which letter is pointing to the subcutaneous layer of the skin in the figure?

a) C b) E c) B d) J e) I Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

52) Which structure in the figure is a receptor sensitive to pressure?

a) A b) G c) F d) H e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory structures of the Skin

53) Which structures in the figure are sensitive to warmth, coolness and itching?

a) A b) G c) F d) H e) J Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of Skin

54) Which structure in the figure detects touch sensations?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of Skin

55) Which structure in the figure produces a protein that helps protect the skin and underlying tissues from heat, microbes and chemicals?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis. Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation o body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Section Reference 2: Sec 5.4 Functions of Skin

56) Which structure in the figure produces a pigment that contributes to skin color and absorbs UV radiation?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis. Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation o body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of Skin

57) In the diagram, which layer is the stratum granulosum?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis. Learning Objective 2: 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

58) In the diagram, which layer is the stratum corneum?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis. Learning Objective 2: 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

59) In the diagram, which is the hair matrix?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

60) In the diagram, which is a melanocyte?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

61) In the diagram, which is the papilla of the hair?

a) A b) C c) E d) F e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

62) Which condition is due to a buildup of bilirubin pigment in the skin? a) hirsutism b) pallor

c) jaundice d) androgenic alopecia e) erythema Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the basis for different skin colors. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

63) Which of the following terms refers to paleness of the skin such as seen in patients with shock or anemia? a) hirsutism b) pallor c) jaundice d) androgenic alopecia e) erythema Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the basis for different skin colors. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

64) Which condition results from androgens inhibiting hair growth in genetically predisposed adults? a) hirsutism b) pallor c) jaundice d) male-pattern baldness e) erythema Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

65) Which of the following terms refers to an inflammation of the skin characterized by patches of redness, blistering, and extreme itching? a) papule b) laceration c) keratosis d) frostbite e) eczema Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the integumentary system. Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Integumentary System

66) Which of the following terms refers to a hardened and thickened area of skin resulting from persistent pressure and friction? a) callus b) blister c) wart d) papule e) fever blister Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the integumentary Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Integumentary System

67) Which of the following terms refers to an irregular tear of the skin? a) abrasion b) papule c) keloid d) laceration e) cyst Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the integumentary Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Integumentary System

68) Which of the following terms refers to reddened, elevated, and itchy patches of skin commonly caused by emotional stress, physical trauma, or certain food allergies? a) wart b) hives c) papule d) cyst e) eczema Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the integumentary Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Integumentary System

70) You stepped on a nail. List the sequential layers (or strata) of the epidermis that the nail penetrated through to finally reach the dermis. a) basale, spinosum, granulosom, corneum b) granulosom, spinosum, lucidum, corneum, basale c) corneum, lucidum, granulosom, spinosum, basale d) corneum, granulosom, spinosum, basale e) corneum, granulosom, lucidum, spinosum, basale Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

71) Which of the following is NOT a homeostatic contribution of skin? a) Help provide calcium ions needed for muscle contraction b) Provide sensory input to the brain c) Help activate vitamin B d) Help activate vitamins D

e) Thermoregulation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.8 Describe how the integumentary system contributes to homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec Focus on Homeostasis: The Integumentary System. 72) “Goose bumps” are caused by a) action of arrector pili muscles. b) secretions from the sudoriferous glands. c) contraction of dermal papillae. d) stimulation of hair root plexus. e) secretions from the sebaceous gland. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

Question type: Essay

73) Describe the structure and function of the different types of exocrine glands found in the skin Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Solution: Sebaceous glands are oil glands. They are connected to hair follicles (with few exceptions). The secreting portion lies in the dermis and opens into the neck of a hair follicle. They are absent in the palms and soles. The secretory product of sebaceous gland is known as sebum. Sebum prevents the hair from drying and becoming brittle. Sudoriferous glands are sweat glands. They release sweat into hair follicles or onto the skin surface through pores. There are two types of sweat glands: Eccrine and Apocrine. Eccrine sweat glands are distributed throughout the skin including the palm and the soles. The sweat produced by these glands contains water, ions, urea, uric acid, ammonia, amino acids, glucose and lactic acid. The main function of eccrine glands is to regulate body temperature. Apocrine sweat glands are predominantly found in the skin of the axilla, groin, areolae and the bearded region of the face. The sweat produced by apocrine glands is lightly viscous and appears milky or yellowish in

color. They contain similar type of material found in eccrine glands with an addition of lipids and proteins. Upon interaction with bacteria on the surface of the skin, the components are metabolized causing the distinct body odor. Ceruminous glands are modified sweat glands found in the external ear. They produce the ear wax knows as cerumen which is a combined secretion of ceruminous and sebaceous glands.

Question type: Multiple Choice

74) Which of the following chemicals does NOT contribute to the color of human skin? a) carotene b) hemoglobin c) pheomelanin d) eumelanin e) melatonin Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the basis for different skin colors. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

75) From which of the primary germ layers of the embryo does the epidermis of the skin develop? a) Endoderm b) Ectoderm c) Mesoderm d) All of these choices are correct. e) Both endoderm and ectoderm. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.6 Describe the development of and the effects of aging on the integumentary system. Study Objective 2: SO 5.6.1 Describe the development of the epidermis, its accessory structures, and the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.6 Development of the Integumentary System

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 06

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT a major function of the skeletal system? a) communication b) support c) protection d) mineral homeostasis e) blood cell production Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.1 Describe the six main functions of the skeletal system. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.1 Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System

2) Which region of a long bone articulates with other bones? a) diaphysis b) epiphysis c) metaphysis d) periosteum e) marrow Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone

3) What is another name for the shaft of a long bone? a) diaphysis b) epiphysis c) metaphysis d) periosteum e) marrow

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone

4) Which a layer of hyaline cartilage reduces friction between bones involved in a joint? a) periosteum b) distal epiphysis c) nutrient foramen d) articular cartilage e) epiphyseal plate Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone

5) Which layer of hyaline cartilage allows the diaphysis to grow in length? a) periosteum b) distal epiphysis c) nutrient foramen d) articular cartilage e) epiphyseal plate Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.2 Explain how bone grows in length and thickness. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Bone formation

6) What is the region of long bone found between the diaphysis and the epiphysis called? a) epiphyseal plate b) epiphyseal line c) metaphysis d) diaphyseal line e) diaphyseal plate

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone

7) What is the fibrous covering on the surface of bone that is involved in thickening of the bone called? a) periosteum b) endosteum c) marrow d) epiphysis e) metaphysis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone

8) Which of following selections lists bone cells in the order from unspecialized stem cell to highly specialized mature bone cell? a) osteogenic cells, osteoclasts, osteocytes b) osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes c) osteogenic cells, osteocytes, osteoblasts d) osteoblasts, osteogenic cells, osteocytes e) None of these choices. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue

9) Which of the following are considered to be bone-building cells? a) fibroblasts b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes

d) osteoblasts Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue

10) What are bone-dissolving cells called? a) osteogenic cells b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) osteoblasts e) all of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue

11) Which of the following structures contain osteocytes? a) central (Haversian) canals b) perforating (Volkmann’s) canals c) concentric lamellae d) lacunae e) canaliculi Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue

12) What are the extracellular fluid filled extensions of the lacunae called?

a) perforating (Volkmann’s) canals b) central (Haversian) canals c) osteons d) canaliculi e) periosteum Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue

13) How are osteons in compact bone tissue aligned? a) horizontal to the metaphysis. b) parallel to the epiphysis. c) parallel to the length of the diaphysis. d) randomly between the epiphyseal plates. e) parallel to the perforating canals. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue

14) Which of the following statements about bone remodeling is FALSE? a) It occurs throughout your lifetime. b) It involves bone resorption. c) It involves bone deposition. d) It occurs at different rates at different locations. e) It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone. Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Describe the process involved in bone remodeling. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

15) Which of the following activities has the greatest effect on bone remodeling and bone deposition? a) walking b) sleeping c) running. d) jumping. e) both c and d Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.8 Describe how exercise and mechanical stress affect bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.8 Exercise and Bone Tissue.

Question type: Essay

16) Briefly describe the steps in bone deposition. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Describe the process involved in bone remodeling. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation. Solution: during bone deposition, osteogenic cells develop into osteoblasts. The osteoblasts secrete collagen fibers and other organic substances to begin formation of matrix. Within the spaces between fibers, calcification occurs to form a solid matrix that eventually surrounds the osteoblast and some extracellular fluid. The osteoblast in its new lacuna is isolated and becomes an osteocyte. The osteocyte continues to secrete matrix but at a lower level.

17) Briefly describe the steps in bone resorption. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Describe the process involved in bone remodeling. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation. Solution: during bone resorption, an osteoclast attaches tightly to the endosteum or periosteum of the bone and forms a leak proof seal at the edges. Then it releases protein-digesting lysosomal

enzymes and several amino acids into the sealed pocket. The enzymes digest collagen fibers and other organic substances while the acids dissolve the bone materials. Working together several osteoclasts carve out a small tunnel in the old bone. The degraded bone proteins and extracellular matrix minerals enter an osteoclast by endocytosis, cross the cell in vesicles, and undergo exocytosis on the side opposite the ruffled border. Now in the interstitial fluid, the products of bone resorption diffuse into nearby blood capillaries. Once a small area of bone has been resorbed, osteoclasts depart and osteoblasts move in to rebuild bone in that area.

Question type: Multiple Choice

18) Which of the following two minerals are needed in large quantities when bones are growing? a) calcium and chlorine b) magnesium and sulfur c) calcium and phosphorous d) manganese and sulfur e) potassium and phosphorous Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Describe the process involved in bone remodeling. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

19) Which of the following correctly lists the order of the four zones of cartilage found within the growth plate starting at the epiphysis and extending to the diaphysis? a) calcified cartilage, resting cartilage, proliferating cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage b) resting cartilage, proliferating cartilage, calcified cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage c) proliferating cartilage, resting cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage, calcified cartilage d) resting cartilage, proliferating cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage, calcified cartilage e) hypertrophic cartilage, calcified cartilage, proliferating cartilage, resting cartilage Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Describe the process involved in bone remodeling. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

20) During adulthood, which of the following does NOT significantly contribute to bone remodeling and growth? a) parathyroid hormones b) vitamin D c) epinephrine d) sex steroids e) human growth hormone Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Describe the process involved in bone remodeling. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

21) Which type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is only seen in children? a) open b) comminuted c) impacted d) greenstick e) stress Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.6 Describe common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair. Study Objective 2: SO 6.6.1 Describe several common types of fractures. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone.

22) About 25% of all stress fractures involve which bone? a) rib b) clavicle c) humerus d) ulna e) tibia Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.6 Describe common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair. Study Objective 2: SO 6.6.1 Describe several common types of fractures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone.

23) Bone mass reduction is promoted by which hormone? a) calcitriol b) calcitonin c) human growth hormone d) parathyroid hormone e) insulin Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain how blood calcium level is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis

24) An increase in bone growth is promoted by which hormones? a) calcitriol and parathyroid hormone b) calcitonin and calcitriol c) human growth hormone and parathyroid hormone d) parathyroid hormone and insulin e) All of the other selections are correct. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain how blood calcium level is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis.

Question type: Essay

25) Describe the steps in bone repair. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.6 Describe common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair. Study Objective 2: SO 6.6.2 Describe the sequence of events involved in fracture repair. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone

Solution: after the break in the bone occurs, blood vessels in that area are damaged and blood surrounds the fracture. The blood solidifies to form a clot, which reduces bleeding. White blood cells migrate into the area to remove bacteria and damaged cells. Osteoclasts migrate in to remove dead bone matrix. Secondly, fibroblasts migrate into the fracture to form a plate of cartilage to prevent further movement and damage at the fracture site. Thirdly, osteoblasts invade to replace the cartilage with bone matrix in the form of spongy bone. Lastly, the bone matrix will be remodeled as compact bone replaces spongy bone.

26) Briefly describe the processes by which bone increases in length and diameter. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.2 Explain how bone grows in length and thickness. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation. Solution: The only means by which bone can increase in length (interstitial growth) is by activity at the epiphyseal plate. Until full height is reached, the plate consists of layers of chondrocytes, which generate matrix that is then calcified and replaced by bone matrix secreted by osteoblasts on the diaphyseal side of the plate. Around ages 18-20 the cartilage is replaced completely by bone and no more lengthwise growth can occur. Bone increases in diameter via appositional growth as new bone matrix is laid down by osteoblasts in the periosteum.

27) Patient X has a tumor of the parathyroid glands that causes a hypersecretion of PTH from these glands. Predict the effect this hypersecretion would have on the skeletal system and on the secretion of calcitonin from the thyroid gland. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain how blood calcium level is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis Solution: High levels of PTH would cause high levels of osteoclast activity, thus removing calcium from bones. Bones would become weak and soft. Excess phosphate would be lost from the kidneys. High levels of calcium ions in blood may disrupt nerve and muscle function. Calcitonin levels would probably be high, trying to restore homeostasis by increasing deposition of calcium into bone.

28) An archeologist and an anthropologist are studying two skeletons from an ancient tomb that had apparently been looted in an earlier time. Both skeletons are females and both are approximately the same height. However, the anthropologist is absolutely certain that one skeleton is the remains of someone from the privileged class while the other skeleton is the

remains of a servant or slave. How could the anthropologist be so sure of the economic status of the individuals based solely on their skeletal remains? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.8 Describe how exercise and mechanical stress affect bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.8 Exercise and Bone Tissue. Solution: A person who is from the privileged class probably has better nutrition but doesn’t have to do as much physical labor (exercise) as a person from the servant or slave class. The anthropologist probably notes a difference in bone density in the two skeletons—especially on parts of bones where muscles attached. The skeleton of the servant probably has more density than the skeleton of the privileged class at those points. It is also possible that the servant suffered from malnutrition during life. If so, her skeleton might show evidence of rickets or osteopenia.

29) Describe the signs and symptoms of osteoporosis and describe the risk factors for developing osteoporosis. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.9 Describe the effects of aging on bone tissue. Learning Objective 1: LO 6.10 Describe the disorders that affect bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.9 Aging and Bone Tissue Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Bone Tissue Solution: In osteoporosis, bone resorption outpaces bone deposition so that bone mass is depleted, sometimes to the point of spontaneous fracture. Pain and height loss may occur as vertebrae shrink. Postmenopausal women are especially at risk due to dramatically reduced estrogen levels after menopause. Family history may play a role, as does ethnicity (white and Asian women have a higher rate of disease), inactivity, cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and a diet low in calcium and vitamin D.

Question type: Multiple Choice 30) Which of the following hormones is the most important for Ca2+ regulation? a) parathyroid hormone b) calcitriol c) thyroid hormone d) calcitonin e) aldosterone

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body. Section Reference: 1: 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis

31) In which region of the diagram would you find the medullary cavity?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone

32) Where in the diagram can you find red bone marrow in an adult?

a) D b) A and B c) A and C d) C e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone

33) Where in the diagram is the metaphysis?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone

34) What structure in the diagram is the only place on a long bone NOT covered by the periosteum?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone

35) What type of bone cell starts forming the bone matrix?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

36) Which bone cell in the diagram below is an osteoclast?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

37) Which bone cell in the diagram below is a mature bone cell that helps maintain bone tissue?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

38) Which bone cell in the diagram below is an osteogenic cell?

a) A b) B c) C d) D

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

39) In the diagram, where is the central (Haversian) canal?

a) C b) A c) E d) F e) D Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

40) In the diagram, where is the osteon?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

41) In the diagram, where is the trabeculae?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

42) In the diagram, where is the epiphyseal vein?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the blood and nerve supply of bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Blood and Nerve Supply of Bone.

43) In the diagram, where is the nutrient artery?

a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the blood and nerve supply of bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Blood and Nerve Supply of Bone.

Question type: Essay

44) Briefly describe what is happening in each of the numbered stages of intramembranous ossification as observed in a child’s skull shown in the diagram below.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.1 Describe the steps of intramembranous and endochondral ossification. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation. Solution: The diagram is depicting intramembranous ossification in a child’s skull. Stage1 involves the development of an ossification center. During stage 2, calcification begins. In stage 3, trabeculae begin to form. Finally, in stage 4, the periosteum develops.

Question type: Multiple Choice

45) In the diagram, where is the zone of hypertrophic cartilage?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.2 Explain how bone grows in length and thickness. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

46) In the diagram, where is the zone of resting cartilage?

a) A

b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Learning Objective 2:LO 6.5.2 Explain how bone grows in length and thickness. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

Question type: Essay

47) Briefly describe what is happening in each step of fracture repair shown in the diagram.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.6 Describe common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair. Study Objective 2: SO 6.6.2 Describe the sequence of events involved in fracture repair. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone. Solution: The diagram illustrates repair of a bone fracture. In step one, there is formation of a fracture hematoma. In step two, a fibrocartilaginous callus is formed. In step three, a bony callus is formed. In step four, bone remodeling begins.

Question type: Multiple Choice

48) Which of the following labeled structures in the diagram is a site of red blood cell production in adult bones?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone.

49) Which of the following labeled structures in the diagram stores triglycerides in adult bones?

a) A b) B c) C d) F e) G Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone.

50) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram is formed as the result of cartilage being replaced by bone after the cessation of bone growth?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone.

51) Where in the diagram is the proximal epiphysis?

a) A b) B c) D d) E e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone.

52) Where in the diagram is articular cartilage located?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone.

53) Where in the diagram is the endosteum located?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone.

54) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram are fragments of older osteons that have been partially destroyed during bone rebuilding or growth?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

55) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram are composed of trabeculae, which are bony structures that lack osteons?

a) B b) C c) D d) F e) G Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

56) Which of the following labeled structures in the diagram are concentric lamellae?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

57) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram are circumferential lamellae?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

58) Where in the figure is the periosteum located?

a) A b) C c) D d) E e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

59) Where in the figure is spongy bone located?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) G Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

60) Which labeled structures in the figure are lamellae?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

61) Which labeled structures in the figure are canaliculi?

62) Which labeled structure in the figure is an osteocyte?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

63) Which illustration and radiograph in the figure shows a Pott’s fracture?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.6 Describe common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair. Study Objective 2: SO 6.6.1 Describe several common types of fractures. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone.

64) Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in the repair of a bone fracture? a) fracture hematoma, bony callus formation, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bone remodeling b) fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, fracture hematoma, bone remodeling c) bony callus formation, fracture hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bone remodeling d) bone remodeling, fracture hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation e) fracture hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, bone remodeling

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.6 Describe the common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair. Study Objective 2: SO 6.6.2 Describe the sequence of events involved in fracture repair. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone.

65) Which of the following conditions results when the articular cartilages in a joint degenerate to the point where the bony ends of articulating bones touch? a) osteogenic sarcoma b) rickets c) osteomalacia d) osteoarthritis e) osteopenia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.9 Describe the disorders that affect bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Bone Tissue. Question type: Essay

66) Briefly, explain how blood calcium level is regulated. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body. Learning Objective 2:LO 6.7.2 Explain how blood calcium level is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis Solution: When blood Ca2+ levels drop, PTH is secreted from the parathyroid glands. PTH increases the activity of osteoclasts to increase bone resorption, which ultimately increases Ca2+ in blood. PTH also acts on the kidneys to prevent Ca2+ loss in the urine. PTH also stimulates the production of calcitriol, which acts on the GI tract to increase absorption of Ca2+ from the intestinal lining. When blood Ca2+ level increases, it causes the synthesis and release of calcitonin from the thyroid gland. Calcitonin, inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblastic activity to increase Ca2+ deposition into bones which promotes bone formation.

Question type: Multiple Choice

67) Hypersecretion of human growth hormone during childhood results in a) giantism. b) acromegaly. c) dwarfism. d) rickets. e) no apparent effect. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.2 Explain how bone grows in length and thickness. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

Question type: Essay

68) List and briefly describe the six main functions of the skeletal system. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.1 Describe the six main functions of the skeletal system. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.1 Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System. Solution: The skeletal system is used for support for the soft tissues of the body and as attachment sites for tendons of most skeletal muscles. The skeletal system also functions in protection for the internal organs. The skeletal system assists in movement working together with the muscle system. Skeletal system aids in mineral (calcium and phosphorus) homeostasis by storing several minerals and releasing them into the bloodstream on demand. Within some bones is red bone marrow that produces blood cells. Bones also contain yellow bone marrow which is a storage site for energy in the form of triglycerides.

69) Briefly describe the major differences between compact and spongy bone. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

Solution: Spongy bone is light, which reduces the overall weight of a bone so that it moves more readily when pulled by a skeletal muscle. The trabeculae of spongy bone tissue support and protect the red bone marrow. Compact bone, usually found in the exterior of bone, is heavy and dense and made up of osteons. Its function is to resist breakage and provide support of the body.

Question type: Multiple Choice

70) Which of the following selections correctly lists the sequence of events that occur during intramembranous ossification? a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum. b) Calcification > Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum. c) Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Calcification > Development of new periosteum. d) Development of new periosteum > Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae. e) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Development of new periosteum > Formation of trabeculae. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.1 Describe the steps of intramembranous and endochondral ossification. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

71) During endochondral ossification in a fetus, bones initially develop as a cartilage model surrounded by a connective tissue covering called the a) periosteum. b) endosteum. c) perichondrium. d) perimysium. e) trabeculae. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.1 Describe the steps of intramembranous and endochondral ossification. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

72) Which of the following substances are stored in the structure of adult bones for use by other tissues in the body? a) calcium b) phosphorous c) triglycerides d) iron e) More than one of these substances is stored in bone. Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.1 Describe the six main functions of the skeletal system. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.1 Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System.

73) Which of the following hormones are more important post-puberty for bone growth? a) insulinlike growth factors b) thyroid hormones c) human growth hormone d) insulin e) sex hormones

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.2 Explain how bone grows in length and thickness Section Reference 1: Sec 6.1 Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System.

74) Like other , bone tissue contains an abundant extracellular matrix that surrounds widely separated cells. a) epithelial tissues b) muscular tissues c) nervous tissues d) connective tissues e) facial tissues

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3.1 Explain why bone tissue is classified as a connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

75) Calcium is involved in all of the following important body functions EXCEPT a) blood clotting. b) nervous system communication. c) muscle contraction. d) acting as a cofactor in some enzymatic reactions. e) being the primary cation that regulates osmotic balance in cells. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Describe the importance of calcium in the body. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis.

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 07

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) The branch of medicine that deals with correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system is called a) Rheumatics b) Podiatry c) Orthopedics d) Cardiology e) Dermatology Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.1 Describe how the skeleton is divided into axial and appendicular divisions. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System

2) Which of the following statements is NOT true? a) The axial skeleton has 80 bones. b) The appendicular skeleton has 126 bones. c) The axial skeleton is composed of the bones that run through the axis of the body. d) Children have more bones than adults. e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles. Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.1 Describe how the skeleton is divided into axial and appendicular divisions. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System

3) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton? a) Hyoid b) Ribs c) Vertebrae

d) Carpals e) Sternum Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.1 Describe how the skeleton is divided into axial and appendicular divisions. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System

4) Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton? a) Tarsals b) Tibia c) Sphenoid d) Scapula e) Clavicle Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.1 Describe how the skeleton is divided into axial and appendicular divisions. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System

Question type: Essay

5) Briefly describe the five categories of bones found in the human body based on the shape of the bones. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 Classify bones based on their shape or location. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Types of Bones Solution: The human body contains five types of bones based on shape. Long bones have greater length than width and consist of a shaft and a variable number of extremities. Short bones are somewhat cube-shaped because they are nearly equal in length and width. Flat bones are generally thin and composed of two nearly parallel plates of compact bones tissue enclosing a layer of spongy bone tissue. Irregular bones have complex shapes and cannot be grouped into any of the previous categories. Sesamoid bones develop in certain tendons where there is considerable friction, tension and physical stress and are shaped similarly to a sesame seed.

Question type: Multiple Choice

6) Which following types of bone is the occipital bone? a) Long bone b) Short bone c) Flat bone d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 Classify bones based on their shape or location. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Types of Bones

7) Which of the following is NOT true of surface markings on bone? a) They allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels. b) They provide sites of attachment for muscles. c) They allow bones to shorten or lengthen. d) They help form joints. e) They can be depressions or projections. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.3 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Bone Surface Markings

8) An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is called a a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus. Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.3 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Bone Surface Markings

9) A rounded articular projection supported on a constricted portion (neck) of a bone is called a a) foramen. b) condyle. c) tuberosity. d) head. e) trochanter. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.3 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Bone Surface Markings

10) A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a a) crest. b) trochanter. c) sulcus. d) fossa. e) tubercle. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.3 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Bone Surface Markings

11) Bones in the following area protect the brain. a) Cranium b) Vertebral column c) Sacrum d) Face e) Ribcage

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

12) Which of following facial bones is a single (unpaired) bone in the human skull? a) maxilla b) nasal c) lacrimal d) mandible e) zygomatic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

13) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? a) Parietal b) Nasal c) Maxillae d) Zygomatic e) Palatine Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

14) Which of the following statements is NOT true with regard to bones of the skull? a) Some skull bones are covered with a mucous membrane.

b) The only movable bone in the skull is the mandible. c) The bones of the skull contain foramina but no fissures. d) The facial bones provide support for the entrance of the digestive system. e) Some bones of the skull contain sinus cavities. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

15) Which of the listed cranial bones form the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and part of the cranial floor? a) Frontal b) Temporal c) Parietal d) Occipital e) Nasal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

16) Which of the listed cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the mandible? a) Frontal b) Temporal c) Parietal d) Occipital e) Nasal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull 17) Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with every other cranial bone? a) Occipital b) Frontal c) Ethmoid d) Nasal e) Sphenoid Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

18) Which cranial bone is anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones and contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve? a) Ethmoid b) Frontal c) Palatine d) Maxilla e) Temporal Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

19) Which facial bone articulates with teeth? a) Lacrimal b) Palatine c) Vomer

d) Maxillae e) Nasal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

20) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? a) Vomer b) Palatine c) Lacrimal d) Occipital e) Mandible Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

Question type: Essay

21) Briefly describe the bones that make up the orbit of the eye. Include a description of the portion of the orbit formed by each bone. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single. Study Objective 3: SO 7.4.3 Identify the location and surface features of the frontal bone. Study Objective 4: SO 7.4.7 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone. Study Objective 5: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, interior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

Solution: Parts of the frontal and sphenoid bones comprise the roof of the orbit. Parts of the zygomatic and sphenoid bones form the lateral wall of the orbit. Parts of the maxilla, zygomatic and palatine bones make up the floor of the orbit. Parts of the maxilla, lacrimal, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones form the medial wall of the orbit.

22) Briefly describe the location of the four most prominent sutures of the skull including the articulating bones. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull Solution: The coronal suture unites the frontal bone and both parietal bones. The sagittal suture unites the two parietal bones on the superior midline of the skull. The lambdoid suture unites the two parietal bones to the occipital bone. The squamous sutures unite the parietal and temporal bones on the lateral aspects of the skull.

23) Briefly describe the function of the fontanels. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull Solution: The fontanels are important in allowing flexibility during childbirth and allow brain growth after birth.

24) Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

Solution: The sinuses lighten the skull and contain a mucous membrane lining that helps moisten and clean inspired air. The sinus also aid in enhancing the quality of the voice by acting as resonating chambers

25) Briefly describe the six fontanels of the infant skull including their location, shape and time of closure. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Learning Objective 2: 7.4.2 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull Solution: The unpaired anterior fontanel is located at the midline between the two parietal bones and the frontal bone. It is roughly diamond shaped and is the largest fontanel. It usually closes 18–24 months after birth. The unpaired posterior fontanel is located at the midline between the two parietal bones and the occipital bone. It is smaller than the anterior fontanel and closes about 2 months after birth. The paired anterolateral fontanels are located laterally between the frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid bones and are smaller in shape. They close about 3 months after birth. The paired posterolateral fontanels are located laterally between the parietal, occipital and temporal bones and are irregularly shaped. They begin to close 1 to 2 months after birth, but closure is not complete until 12 months.

Question type: Multiple Choice

26) Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone? a) Vertebrae b) Ethmoid c) Sternum d) Hyoid e) Ilium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Describe the relationship of the hyoid bon to the skull. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Hyoid Bone

27) The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscle that extend from the temporal bone.

of the

a) mastoid process b) styloid process c) occipital condyle d) zygomatic process e) superior nuchal line Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Describe the relationship of the hyoid bone to the skull. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Hyoid Bone

28) Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death? a) Natural causes b) Cardiac arrest c) Gun shot d) Strangulation e) Choking Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Describe the relationship of the hyoid bone to the skull. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Hyoid Bone

Question type: Essay

29) List and describe the number of bones found in all the regions of the adult vertebral column. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Vertebral Column Solution: There are seven cervical vertebrae in the neck region. There are twelve thoracic vertebrae posterior to the thoracic cavity. The five lumbar vertebrae support the lower back.

There is one sacrum consisting of five fused sacral vertebrae. There is one coccyx (tail bone) consisting of four fused coccygeal vertebrae.

Question type: Multiple Choice

30) Ribs that have costal cartilage that attaches directly to the sternum are called a) floating ribs. b) vertebrochondral ribs. c) false ribs. d) true ribs. e) separated ribs. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.7 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions. Study Objective 2: SO 7.7.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.M Thoracic Bones—Ribs

31) The tubercle found on the neck of a rib articulates with a facet found on the a) spinous process of a thoracic vertebra. b) spinous process of a lumbar vertebra. c) transverse process of a thoracic vertebra. d) xiphoid process of the sternum. e) manubrium of the sternum. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1:LO 7.7 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column, describing its structural and functional features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.7.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.M Thoracic Bones—Ribs

32) What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus region of intervertebral discs? a) To compress the vertebral bones b) To help absorb vertical shock to the spinal column c) Calcium storage

d) Spinal fluid reservoir e) Muscle attachment Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Vertebral Column

33) The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the a) thoracic and sacral curves. b) lumbar and sacral curves. c) cervical and lumbar curves. d) cervical and thoracic curves. e) cervical and sacral curves. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Vertebral Column

34) What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas? a) Primary projection b) Occular process c) Odontoid process d) Cervical projection e) Cervix Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column. Study Objective 3: SO 7.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.H Vertebral Regions—Cervical Vertebrae

35) Which of the vertebrae listed below would be the largest and strongest vertebra in adult humans? a) C5 b) L4 c) T4 d) C7 e) T12 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column. Study Objective 3: SO 7.6.5 Identify the location and surface features of the lumbar vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.J Vertebral Regions-Lumbar Vertebrae

36) Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly? a) Females b) Males c) Both genders d) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column. Study Objective 3: SO 7.6.6 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.K Vertebral Regions—Sacral and Coccygeal Vertebrae

37) What is inflammation of one or more costal cartilage called?

a) Costochondritis b) Arthritis c) Cartilaginous distension d) Otitis e) Intercostal space distension Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 7.7 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions. Study Objective 2: SO 7.7.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.M Thoracic Bones—Ribs

38) In the diagram, which bone is the flat bone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 Classify bones based on their shape or location. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Types of Bones

39) In the diagram, which bone is the short bone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 Classify bones based on their shape or location. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Types of Bones

40) In the diagram, where is the lacrimal bone?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single. Study Objective 3: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones – Nasal, Lacrimal, palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae

41) In the diagram, which bone articulates with every other bone of the face except the mandible?

a) F b) G c) H d) I e) J Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single. Study Objective 3: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones – Nasal, Lacrimal, palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae

42) In the diagram, where is the zygomatic bone?

a) G b) H c) I d) J e) None of these answer choices are correct. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single. Study Objective 3: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones – Nasal, Lacrimal, palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae

43) In the diagram, which bone is considered the keystone of the cranial floor?

a) E b) B c) G d) H e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.4 Identify the location and surface features of the Parietal bones. Study Objective 3: SO 7.4.7 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Bones—Sphenoid Bone

44) In the diagram, where is the styloid process?

a) J b) K c) G d) H e) I Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.5 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.C Cranial Bones—Temporal Bones

45) In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?

a) J b) K c) G d) H e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.5 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.C Cranial Bones—Temporal Bones

46) In the diagram, where is the palatine bone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones – Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae, Zygomatic, and Mandible.

47) In the diagram, where is the nasal bone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones – Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae, Zygomatic, and Mandible

48) In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.5 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.C Cranial Bones—Temporal Bones

49) In the diagram, where is the foramen ovale?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO7.4.7 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bones. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Bones—Sphenoid Bone

50) In the diagram, where is the cribriform plate?

a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.8 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Bones—Ethmoid Bone

51) In the diagram, where is the olfactory foramina?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.8 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Bones—Ethmoid Bone

52) In the diagram, where is the crista galli?

a) C b) A c) B d) E e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.8 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bones. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Bones—Ethmoid Bone

53) In the diagram, where is the vomer bone?

a) A b) B c) E d) D e) C Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.FG Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae.

54) In the diagram, where is the perpendicular plate?

a) A b) B c) C d) E e) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.8 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bones. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Bones—Ethmoid Bone

55) Where is the mental foramen in the diagram?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) None of these answer choices are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the nasal, lacrimal, palantine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae, Zygomatic, and Mandible

56) This fontanel usually closes within 18 to 24 months after birth.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) Both A and C Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

57) This is largest fontanel in size at birth.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) Both A and D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

58) Where is the spinous process in the diagram?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Vertebral Column

59) Which of the cervical vertebrae contain a unique process that is responsible for the ability to move your head from side to side signifying “no”?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column. Study Objective 3: SO 7.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Vertebral Column

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.H Vertebral Regions—Cervical Vertebrae

60) Which of the cervical vertebrae are responsible for permitting the movement of the head seen when saying “yes”?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column. Study Objective 3: SO 7.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.H Vertebral Regions—Cervical Vertebrae

61) Where is the vertebral body?

a) C b) D c) H d) I e) J Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.I Vertebral Regions—Thoracic Vertebrae

62) In the diagram, which part is often broken during CPR due to incorrect positioning of hands?

a) A b) B c) D d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 7.7 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions. Study Objective 2: SO 7.7.2 Identify the location and surface features of the sternum Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.L Thoracic Bones—Sternum

63) Where is the clavicular notch?

a) A b) C c) D d) B e) F Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.7 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions. Study Objective 2: SO 7.7.2 Identify the location and surface features of the sternum Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.L Thoracic Bones—Sternum

64) Which of the following structures passes through the opening labeled 2 in the diagram?

a) internal carotid artery b) mental nerve c) cranial nerve XI (accessory) d) branch of the occipital artery e) cranial nerve VII (facial) Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.6 Identify the location and surface features of the occipital bone. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.D Cranial Bones – Occipital Bone

65) Which structure in the diagram allows for passage of nerves and blood vessels?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column. Study Objective 3: SO 7.6.6 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.K Vertebral Regions—Sacral and Coccygeal Vertebrae

66) Which structure in the diagram is the superior articular process?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column. Study Objective 3: SO 7.6.6 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.K Vertebral Regions—Sacral and Coccygeal Vertebrae

67) Which condition is characterized by an increase or exaggeration of the lumbar curve of the vertebral column? a) herniated disc b) scoliosis c) kyphosis

d) lordosis e) spina bifida Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the axial skeleton Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Axial Skeleton

68) Which condition is characterized by an increase in the thoracic curve of the vertebral column? a) herniated disc b) scoliosis c) kyphosis d) lordosis e) spina bifida Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 7.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the axial skeleton Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Axial Skeleton

69) Which condition is characterized by a lateral bending of the vertebral column in the thoracic region? a) herniated disc b) scoliosis c) kyphosis d) lordosis e) spina bifida Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 7.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the axial skeleton Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Axial Skeleton

70) Which condition is the protrusion of the nucleus pulposus posteriorly or into one of the adjacent vertebral bodies in the vertebral column? a) herniated disc

b) scoliosis c) kyphosis d) lordosis e) spina bifida Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 7.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the axial skeleton Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Axial Skeleton

71) Which of the following bones contains a sac that collects tears and passes them into the nasal cavity? a) Maxilla b) Sphenoid c) Nasal d) Ethmoid e) Lacrimal Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the nasal, lacrimal, palantine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae, Zygomatic, and Mandible

72) Which bones form the zygomatic arch? a) temporal and zygomatic b) sphenoid and maxilla c) temporal and mandible d) temporal and frontal e) temporal and parietal Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.5 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones. Study Objective 3: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the nasal, lacrimal, palantine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.C cranial Bones – Temporal Bones Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae, Zygomatic, and Mandible

73) What are the three correct components of the nasal septum? a) inferior nasal concha, vomer and lacrimal bone b) vomer, superior nasal concha, and septal cartilage c) inferior nasal concha, septal cartilage, perpendicular plate of ethmoid d) vomer, septal cartilage, and perpendicular plate of ethmoid e) vomer, septal cartilage, and crista galli of ethmoid Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones – Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae.

74) Sella turcica is a bony depression found in this cranial bone. a) Sphenoid b) Frontal c) Temporal d) Ethmoid e) Occipital Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.7 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Bones – Sphenoid Bone

75) The pituitary gland is contained in a depression found in this cranial bone. a) Ethmoid b) Sphenoid c) Lacrimal d) Temporal e) Parietal

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.7 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Bones – Sphenoid Bone

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 08

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) This is the anterior bone that articulates with the manubrium of the sternum at the sternoclavicular joint. a) Scapula b) Clavicle c) Xiphoid d) Rib e) Thoracic vertebra Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the structural components of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.A Pectoral Girdle—Clavicle

2) Which of the following bones articulates with the scapula? a) Thoracic vertebra b) Humerus c) Sacrum d) Tibia e) Sternum Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the structural components of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula

3) Why does a fracture of the clavicle usually occur in the mid-region of the bone? a) Due to the medial pressure from the inflated lungs b) Due to the ligament-reinforced strength of the acromial joint c) Due to weakness at the junction of the two curves of clavicle

d) Due to position of the clavicle relative to the humerus e) Due to fusion of the ends of the clavicle to the sternum and scapula Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the structural components of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.A Pectoral Girdle—Clavicle

4) Which part of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these choices are correct. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the structural components of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.A Pectoral Girdle—Clavicle

5) Which is the only part of the clavicle that articulates with the scapula?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these choices are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the structural components of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.A Pectoral Girdle—Clavicle

6) Which site labeled on the diagram is considered the weakest point of the clavicle?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these choices are correct. Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the structural components of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.A Pectoral Girdle—Clavicle

7) Which of the following bones is located in the posterior thorax between the levels of second and seventh vertebrae? a) Sternum b) Clavicle c) Pelvis d) Scapula e) Sacrum Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the structural components of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula

8) Which bone articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity? a) Ileum b) Thoracic vertebra c) Sternum d) Clavicle e) Humerus Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the structural components of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 3: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula. Study Objective 4: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm-Humerus

9) This is the thick edge of the scapula that is closer to the arm. a) Axillary border b) Medial border c) Infraspinous fossa d) Coracoid process e) Acromion Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the structural components of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula

10) Which of the following bone markings on the scapula is an indentation into which the head of the humerus fits? a) Coracoid process b) Glenoid cavity c) Acromion d) Scapular notch e) Supraspinous fossa

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the structural components of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula

11) Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to the human hand? a) There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges. b) There are 8 carpals, 6 metacarpals and 14 phalanges c) There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 15 phalanges d) There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges e) There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand—Carpals, Metacarpals, and Phalanges

12) The glenohumeral joint is formed by articulation of the a) humerus, radius and ulna. b) humerus and radius. c) humerus and clavicle. d) humerus and ulna. e) humerus and scapula. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus

13) The epiphyseal line on the proximal end of the humerus is found in the a) anatomical neck. b) greater tubercle. c) intertubercular sulcus.

d) surgical neck. e) olecranon fossa. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus

14) The capitulum of the humerus articulates with the a) radius. b) ulna. c) scapula. d) carpal bones. e) clavicle. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus

15) This is a spool-shaped process on distal end of the humerus that is found medial to the capitulum and articulates with the ulna. a) Coronoid fossa b) Trochlea c) Medial epicondyle d) Lateral epicondyle e) Lesser tubercle Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus

16) The medial and lateral epicondyles are found on the distal end of the humerus and are used for

a) formation of the elbow joint. b) tendon attachment. c) passage of nerves and blood vessels through the bone into the marrow cavity. d) Both formation of the elbow joint and tendon attachment. e) All of these choices are correct. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus

17) Which of the following structures on the ulna receives the trochlea of the humerus? a) Olecranon fossa b) Coronoid process c) Trochlear notch d) Radial notch e) Capitulum Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.3 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius

18) What is the function of the interosseous membrane between the ulna and radius? a) Joins the shafts of two bones b) Tendon attachment c) Site of bone repair d) Both site of tendon attachment and bone repair e) None of these choices are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.3 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius

19) The distal end of the radius articulates with how many bones of the wrist? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.3 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius

20) Which of the following carpal bones is named for its large hook-shaped projection on its anterior surface? a) Lunate b) Scaphoid c) Triquetrum d) Hamate e) Pisiform Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand—Carpals, Metacarpals and Phalanges

21) What is included in the carpal tunnel? a) Pisiform b) Trapezium c) Flexor retinaculum d) Both pisiform and trapezium. e) All of these choices are correct. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand—Carpals, Metacarpals and Phalanges

22) The carpometacarpal joint consists of the a) base of metacarpal bones and distal row of carpal bones. b) base of metacarpal bones and proximal row of carpal bones. c) head of metacarpal bones and distal row of carpal bones. d) head of metacarpal bones and proximal row of carpal bones. e) None of these choices are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand—Carpals, Metacarpals and Phalanges

23) How many phalanges are in each hand? a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 16 e) 20 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand—Carpals, Metacarpals and Phalanges

24) The coxal bones unite anteriorly at a joint called the a) pubic symphysis. b) sacroiliac joint. c) hip. d) acetabulum.

e) None of these choices are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the structural components of the pelvic girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle

25) What is the function of the pelvic girdle? a) Support for vertebral column b) Attachment site for lower limbs c) Attachment site for large pectoral muscles. d) Attachment site for lower limbs and for large pectoral muscles. e) All of these choices are correct. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the structural components of the pelvic girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.1 Identify the bones of the pelvic girdle and their principal markings. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Pelvic (Hip) Girdle

26) In the standard anatomical position, the superior.

is the bone of the pelvis found the most

a) Ilium b) Pubis c) Ischium d) Both ilium and ishium. e) All of these choices are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the structural components of the pelvic girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.1 Identify the bones of the pelvic girdle and their principal markings. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Pelvic (Hip) Girdle

27) Which of the following is the largest foramen in the human skeleton?

a) Acetabulum b) Obturator foramen c) Vertebral foramen d) Mental foramen e) Foramen magnum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the structural components of the pelvic girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle

28) Which projection extends superiorly and laterally along the superior ramus of the pubis eventually merging with the arcuate line of the ilium? a) Pectineal line b) Ischial tuberosity c) Anterior gluteal line d) Inferior gluteal line e) Greater sciatic notch Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the structural components of the pelvic girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle

29) The hip joint is the joint found between a) the femur and tibia. b) the pelvis and sacrum. c) the pelvis and tibia. d) the femur and patella. e) the pelvis and femur. Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the structural components of the pelvic girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.1 Identify the bones of the pelvic girdle and their principal markings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Pelvic (Hip) Girdle

30) The portion of the bony pelvis that is found inferior to the pelvic brim is called a) the false pelvis. b) the greater pelvis. c) the true pelvis. d) both the false pelvis and the greater pelvis. e) all of these choices are correct. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.4 Distinguish b etween the false and true pelves, explaining their clinical importance, Study Objective 2: SO 8.4.1 Distinguish between the false and true pelves. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.4 False and True Pelves

31) In comparison to the male pelvis, the female pelvis is NOT a) wider. b) shallower. c) larger in the pelvic inlet. d) larger in the pelvic outlet. e) larger in the acetabulum. Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.5. Compare the principal differences between female and male pelves. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.5 Comparison of Female and Male Pelves

32) Each lower limb has a) 30 bones found in 3 locations. b) 30 bones found in 4 locations. c) 32 bones found in 3 locations. d) 32 bones found in 4 locations. e) 34 bones found in 4 locations. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.1 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity)

33) Which process on the femur serves as an attachment point for tendons of several thigh muscles? a) Gluteal tuberosity b) Linea aspera c) Medial epicondyle d) Both gluteal tuberosity and linea aspera e) Both linea aspera and medial epicondyle Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella

34) Which of the following markings is located on the medial side of the femur? a) Lesser trochanter b) Greater trochanter c) Gluteal tuberosity d) Lateral epicondyle e) Linea aspera Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.1 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella

35) Which bone develops in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle and protects the knee joint? a) Ischium b) Ilium c) Pubis d) Patella

e) Femur Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella

36) The medial and lateral condyles of the femur fit into what part of the patella? a) Articular facets b) Base of the patella c) Tibiofemoral crest d) Apex of the patella e) None of these choices are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella

37) Which of the structures listed below is NOT part of the knee joint? a) Lateral condyle of the femur b) Medial condyle of the femur c) Lateral malleolus of the fibula d) Condyles of the tibia e) Patella Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg- Tibia and Fibula

38) The hard sharp ridge of the shin that can easily be felt below the skin is the

a) anterior border (crest) of the tibia. b) tibial tuberosity. c) medial condyle of the tibia. d) tibiofemoral joint. e) intercondylar eminence. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula

39) The lateral malleolus is found on the distal end of what bone? a) Tibia b) Fibula c) Talus d) Metatarsals e) Femur Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula

40) Which of following bones is NOT a tarsal bone? a) Talus b) Calcaneus c) Navicular d) Cuneiform e) Capitate Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.4 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot

41) Which of the followings structures is not found in the foot? a) Pollex b) Hallux c) Talus d) Longitudinal arch e) Transverse arch Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.4 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot

42) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram serve as attachment sites for tendons of the shoulder muscles?

a) A, B b) B, C, D c) A, B, C, d) A, B, C, D e) A, C, D, E Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the structural components of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula

43) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram is the coracoid process?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the structural components of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle. Study Objective 3: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula

44) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram is the supraspinous fossa?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the structural components of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula

45) In the diagram of the humerus, which is the lateral epicondyle?

a) A b) B c) F d) G e) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus

46) In the diagram of the humerus, this structure receives the head of the radius when the forearm is flexed.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus

47) In the diagram of the humerus, where is the olecranon fossa?

a) A b) B c) C d) F e) Not labeled on the diagram Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus

48) In the diagram of the humerus, where is the trochlea?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus

49) In the diagram of the ulna and radius, where is the styloid process of the radius?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) None of these choices are correct. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.3 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius

50) In the diagram of the ulna and radius, where is the radial tuberosity?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) None of these choices are correct. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.3 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius

51) In the diagram of the wrist and hand, where is the capitate bone?

a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand—Carpals, Metacarpals, and Phalanges

52) In the diagram of the wrist and hand, where is the trapezoid bone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand—Carpals, Metacarpals, and Phalanges

53) Which structure in the pelvis is where the longest nerve in the body passes?

a) C b) D c) F d) G e) H Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the structural components of the pelvic girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.1 Identify the bones of the pelvic girdle and their principal markings. Section Reference 1: Sec Pelvic (Hip) Girdle

54) In the diagrams of the pelvis, where is the ischial tuberosity?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) Not labeled in the diagrams Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the structural components of the pelvic girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle

55) Which labeled structure in the diagrams of the pelvis terminates anteriorly as the anterior superior iliac spine?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the structural components of the pelvic girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 3.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle

56) Which of the labeled structures of the femur serve as points of attachment for the tendons of thigh and buttocks muscles?

a) A, B b) A, B, C c) A, D d) A, B, M e) D, M, L Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.1 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella

57) In the diagram of the femur, where is the medial condyle?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.1 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings. Study Objective 3: SO .6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella

58) In the diagram of the tibia and fibula, where is the tibial tuberosity?

a) B b) C c) E d) F e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.1 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula

59) In the diagram of the tibia and fibula, this structure articulates with the talus and forms a protrusion on the medial surface of the ankle.

a) E b) F c) G d) Both E and F e) All of these choices are correct. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.1 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula

60) In the diagram of the foot, where is the navicular?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.4 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot

61) Which labeled bone in the diagram of the foot is the largest and strongest tarsal bone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.4 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot

62) Which labeled bone in the diagram of the foot is the only bone of the foot that articulates with the fibula and tibia?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.4 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot

Question type: Essay

63) Compare and contrast the male and female pelvis. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.5 Compare the principal differences between female and male pelves. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.5 Comparison of Female and Male Pelves Solution: Male pelvis is heavier with a deeper false pelvis, a smaller pelvic inlet, a rounder obturator foramen, and a pubic arch less than 90 degrees. The female pelvis is lighter with a shallower false pelvis, oval shaped pelvic inlet, and a pubic arch of over 90 degrees.

64) Name the bones that are included in each lower limb. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.1 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) Solution: 30 bones: femur, patella, tibia, fibula, seven tarsals, 5 metatarsals and 14 phalanges.

65) Name the bones that are included in each upper limb. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.1 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) Solution: 30 bones; humerus, ulna, radius, 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges.

Question type: Multiple Choice

66) The pectoral girdle consists of 2 bones labeled

and

in the diagram.

a) A and B b) A and G c) C and F d) F and H e) E and F Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the structural components of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle

67) Where on the diagram is a metacarpal bone?

a) A b) B c) D d) E e) I Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the structural components of the upper limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand—Carpals, Metacarpals, and Phalanges

68) This is a common condition experienced by runners, which is caused by the kneecap tracking laterally as well as inferiorly and superiorly. a) Patellofemoral stress syndrome b) Metatarsal microfracture c) Bunions d) Hallux valgus

e) Plantar fasciitis Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella

69) Which of the following is a condition where the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is decreased, resulting in fallen arches? a) Patellofemoral stress syndrome b) Bunions c) Flatfoot d) Clawfoot e) Clubfoot Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.4.4 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot

70) Which of the following is a condition where the foot is twisted inferiorly and medially, and the angle of the arch is increased? a) Patellofemoral stress syndrome b) Bunions c) Flatfoot d) Clawfoot e) Clubfoot Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.9 Describe the disorders that affect the appendicular skeleton. Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders that Affect the Appendicular Skeleton

71) During embryonic and fetal develop, most skeletal tissues arise from a) the neurocranium.

b) the notochord. c) mesenchymal cells. d) endoderm. e) none of these choices are correct. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.7 Describe the development of the skeletal system. Section Reference 1: Sec LO 8.7 Development of the Skeletal System

72) The neurocranium gives rise to bones of the a) upper limbs b) lower limbs c) face d) ribcage e) skull Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.7 Describe the development of the skeletal system. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.7 Development of the Skeletal System

73) Which pelvis in the diagram shows the characteristics of a female pelvis?

a) A b) B c) Both are male. Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.5 Compare the principal differences between female and male pelves. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.5 Comparison of Female and Male Pelves

74) The boundary between the true pelvis and the false pelvis is the a) pelvic axis. b) pubic symphysis. c) pelvic outlet. d) pelvic brim. e) pectineal line. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.4 Distinguish between the false and true pelves, explaining their clinical importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.4 False and True Pelves

75) Which of the following is NOT a way that the skeletal system contributes to homeostasis? a) Provides support and protection for internal organs. b) Stores and releases sodium ions. c) Houses blood forming tissue. d) Protects the brain and spinal cord. e) Serves as attachment and leverage points for muscles. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.8 Describe how the skeletal system contributes to homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec Focus on Homeostasis

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 09

Question type: Essay

1) List the three structural categories of joints and briefly describe the criteria used for structural classification of joints. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Solution: The structural types of joints include: 1) fibrous joints, 2) cartilaginous joints, and 3) synovial joints. Joints can be classified structurally based on two criteria: 1) the presence or absence of a space between the articulating bones, called a synovial cavity and 2) the type of connective tissue that binds the bones together.

Question type: Multiple Choice

2) Which of the following types of joints lacks a joint cavity and is held together by a fibrous connective tissue? 1. Fibrous joints 2. Cartilaginous joints 3. Synovial joints a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) All of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications

3) Which of the following types of joints do NOT have a synovial cavity? 1. Fibrous joints

2. Cartilaginous joints 3. Synovial joints a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications

Question type: Essay

4) List the three functional classifications of joints, and briefly describe the basis for the functional classification of joints. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Solution: The functional classification joint is based on the degree of movement that they allow. The three functional classes are: 1) synarthroses, which are totally immovable, 2) amphiarthroses, which have slight movement, and 3) diarthroses, which are freely moveable joints.

Question type: Multiple Choice

5) Which functional class of joints contains joints that are freely movable? 1. Synarthrosis 2. Amphiarthrosis 3. Diarthrosis a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) Both 2 and 3 e) All of these choices

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications

6) Which of the following is a type of fibrous joint composed of a thin layer of dense irregular fibrous connective tissue found between the bones of the skull? 1. Syndesmoses 2. Gomphosis 3. Suture a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) Both 1 and 2 e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints

7) A suture joint fits into which functional joint classification? a) synarthrosis. b) amphiarthrosis. c) diarthrosis. d) synovial. e) cartilaginous. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints

8) The epiphyseal plate in a long bone is an example of which type of joint?

a) Gomphosis b) Suture c) Symphysis d) Synovial e) Synchondrosis Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure and functions of the two types of cartilaginous joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints

9) The joint between the first rib and the manubrium of the sternum is classified as a) a synchondrosis. b) a synarthrosis. c) a cartilaginous joint. d) All of these choices. e) None of these choices. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure and functions of the two types of cartilaginous joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints

10) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of synovial joints? a) Contain a joint cavity b) Are freely moveable c) Articulating bones are covered with hyaline cartilage d) Include elastic cartilage e) Have ligaments holding the joint together Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

11) Which of the following is(are) made from dense regular connective tissue? a) Ligaments b) Articular cartilage c) Articular fat pads d) Synovial membrane e) Synovial fluid Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

Question type: Essay

12) What unique characteristics would a person who is "double-jointed” possess? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Solution: Double-jointed people do not have extra joints. They have greater flexibility in their articular capsules and ligaments. The resulting increase in the range of motion allows them to do such moves as touching their thumbs to their wrists and putting their ankles or elbows behind their necks. Unfortunately, such flexible joints are structurally less stable and are more easily dislocated.

13) Briefly describe the functions of synovial fluid. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

Solution: Synovial fluid reduces friction, absorbs shock and supplying oxygen and nutrients to and removing carbon dioxide and metabolic wastes from the chondrocytes within articular cartilage. 14) Briefly describe what is happening when a person “cracks their knuckles”. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Solution: When the synovial cavity expands, the pressure of the synovial fluid decreases, creating a partial vacuum. The suction draws carbon dioxide and oxygen out of the blood vessels in the synovial membrane, forming bubbles in the fluid. When the bubbles are forced to burst, as when the fingers are hyperflexed, the cracking or popping sound is heard as the gases are driven back into solution.

Question type: Multiple Choice

15) Which of the following structures include the fibular and tibial collateral ligaments of the knee joint? a) Synovial membranes b) Articular fat pads c) Menisci d) Extracapsular ligaments e) Tendon sheath Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

16) Another term for menisci is a) articular fat pads. b) articular discs.

c) articular spaces. d) capsular fat pads. e) capsular discs. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

17) Articular discs 1. maintain the stability of a joint. 2. direct flow of the synovial fluid to areas of greatest friction. 3. are made of hyaline cartilage. 4. are only found in the vertebral column. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

18) Which of the following structures is used to reduce friction in joints? 1. Bursae 2. Synovial fluid 3. Accessory ligaments 4. Elastic fibers a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.2 Describe the structure and function of bursae and tendon sheaths. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

19) Which type of motion results from relatively flat bone surfaces moving back and forth and from side to side with respect to one another? a) Flexion b) Extension c) Gliding d) Circumduction e) Hyperextension Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

20) Which of the following represents a type of movement where there is a decrease in the angle between articulating bones? a) Flexion b) Extension c) Gliding d) Circumduction e) Rotation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

21) Bending the trunk forward at the intervertebral discs is an example of what type of angular movement? a) Flexion b) Extension

c) Lateral flexion d) Hyperextension e) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

22) Flexion and extension usually occur along which plane? a) Frontal b) Transverse c) Sagittal d) Oblique e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

23) Moving the humerus laterally at the shoulder joint is an example of which type of movement? a) Lateral flexion b) Hyperextension c) Adduction d) Abduction e) Gliding Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

24) Which type of movement involves a continuous sequence of flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction resulting in a distal body part moving in a circle? a) Gliding

b) Lateral flexion c) Hyperextension d) Circumduction e) Elevation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 25) Which of the following is not considered a “special movement” that occurs at only certain joints? a) Depression b) Protraction c) Elevation d) Supination e) All of these are special movements Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

26) What type of special movement occurs in your clavicles at your acromioclavicular and sternoclavicular joints when you cross your arms in front of your body? a) Protraction b) Retraction c) Inversion d) Eversion e) Supination Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

27) Which special movement occurs when you bend your foot at the ankle in the direction of the foot’s superior surface as would occur when you stand on your heels?

a) Inversion b) Eversion c) Dorsiflexion d) Plantar flexion e) Supination Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

28) Which special movement involves moving your thumb across the palm to touch the tips of the fingers on the same hand? a) Pronation b) Supination c) Eversion d) Retraction e) Opposition Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

29) Which of the following is NOT a structural category of synovial joints? a) Planar b) Hinge c) Condyloid d) Suture e) Saddle Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

30) In which type of synovial joint does a rounded or pointed surface on one bone articulate with a ring formed partly by another bone and partly by a ligament? a) Pivot joint b) Planar joint c) Hinge joint d) Ball-and-socket joint e) Saddle joint Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

31) A condyloid joint a) is also called an ellipsoidal joint. b) is considered to be biaxial. c) allows both flexion–extension and abduction–adduction of the joint. d) can be found in the wrist. e) is All of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

32) Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting range of motion of a joint? a) Structure of articulating bones b) Tension of the muscles c) Hormones d) Disuse e) Eversion Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints

33) What type of joint is shown in the diagram?

a) Suture b) Syndesmosis c) Symphysis d) Cartilaginous e) Synovial Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints

34) What type of joint is shown in the diagram?

a) Suture b) Synostosis c) Symphysis d) Synovial e) Gomophosis Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints

35) In the figure, what represents a saddle joint?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

36) In the diagram, what represents a pivot joint?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

37) Which of the joints shown in the figure is classified as a multiaxial joint?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

38) Which of the joints shown in the figure is classified as a biaxial joint?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) More than one selection is correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

39) Which of the joints shown in the figure is classified as a monaxial joint?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) B and C Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

40) Which of the joints shown in the figure represents a condyloid joint?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

41) Which of the joints shown in the figure only permits back-and-forth and side-to-side movements between the articulating bones?

a) A b) B c) C d) Both A and B e) Both A and C Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

42) Which of the joints shown in the figure only permits back-and-forth and side-to-side movements between the articulating bones?

43) Which type of joint permits this type of movement?

1. Synovial joint 2. Cartilaginous joint 3. Fibrous joint a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) Both 1 &2 e) Both 2 & 3 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

44) Which of the panels in the figure shows a movement called lateral flexion?

a) B b) F c) G d) D e) C Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

Question type: Essay

45) Describe the general effects that aging has on joints. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.14 Explain the effects of aging on joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.9 Aging and Joints Solution: changes in joints due to aging include: production of synovial fluid decreases; articular cartilage thins; ligaments shorten and lose flexibility; osteoarthritis develops from wear and tear;

bone becomes exposed at joints, and spurs form and the synovial membrane becomes inflamed. These changes lead to decreases in the range of motion of joints.

46) List and briefly describe the three common types of arthritis. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints. Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints Solution: 1. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease in which the immune system attacks cartilage and joint linings, causing swelling, pain, and loss of function. Bones may fuse, making them immovable. 2. Osteoarthritis results from deterioration of articular cartilage due to wear and tear. Bone spurs are often formed leading to restricted movement of the joint. 3. Gouty arthritis occurs due to deposition of uric acid crystals in soft tissues of joints, which irritates and erodes cartilage causing painful inflammation.

Question type: Multiple Choice

47) Which of the following types of movement is shown in diagram E?

a) supination b) circumduction c) pronation d) rotation e) adduction Answer: e

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

48) Which of the following labeled panels in the figure shows hyperextension?

a) C b) E c) F d) G e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

49) Which of the following labeled panels in the figure shows flexion?

a) E b) F c) C d) G e) H Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

50) Which of the following labeled panels in the figure shows extension?

a) E b) D c) F d) G e) I Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

51) Which two panels in the figure show a movement of a bone away from the midline of the body?

a) A and B b) B and D c) D and E d) F and A e) B and F Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

52) Which diagram shows a movement of a distal end of a body part in a circle, in a continuous

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

53) Which panel in the figure shows an example of the movement termed elevation?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

54) Which panel in the figure shows an example of the movement termed inversion?

a) B b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

55) Which panel in the figure shows an example of the movement termed retraction?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) I Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

56) Which panel in the figure shows an example of the movement termed supination?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

57) Which panel in the figure shows an example of the movement termed opposition?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

58) Which of the following is a degenerative joint disease in which joint cartilage is gradually lost due to a combination of aging, obesity, wear and abrasion of the joints? a) gouty arthritis b) Lyme disease c) bursitis d) osteoarthritis e) synovitis Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints

59) Which of the following is an autoimmune disease that affects the joints? a) gouty arthritis b) Lyme disease c) arthroplasty d) osteoarthritis e) rheumatoid arthritis Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints

60) Which of the following diseases is characterized by sodium urate crystals being deposited in the soft tissues of joints? a) gouty arthritis b) Lyme disease c) ankylosing spondylitis d) osteoarthritis e) rheumatoid arthritis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints

61) Which of the following is a correct description of arthroplasty? a) resurfacing of cartilage in a joint b) reshaping of the ends of the bones in a joint c) surgically replacing a joint with an artificial joint d) injection of synovial fluid into the joint e) a, b, and d Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.15 Explain the procedures involved in arthroplasty, and describe how a total hip replacement is performed. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.10 Arthroplasty

62) Based on the structural classification of joints, which of the following is a fibrous joint? a) Synchondrosis b) Synovial joint c) Symphysis d) Syndesmosis e) Diarthrosis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints

63) A condition in which a muscle or muscle and tendon is stretched or partially torn is called a) bursitis. b) a sprain. c) a strain. d) a dislocation. e) an arthrosis. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints. Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints

64) Which ligament limits hyperextension of the knee and prevents the anterior sliding of the tibia on the femur? a) Fibular collateral ligament b) Anterior cruciate ligament c) Posterior cruciate ligament d) Patellar ligament e) Arcuate popliteal ligament Answer: b Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee and explain the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint

65) A joint in which there is a complete fusion of two separate bones into one bone is called a a) synchondrosis. b) syndesmosis. c) symphysis. d) diarthrosis. e) synostosis. Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints

66) Which of the following is NOT an anatomical component of the elbow? a) articular capsule. b) ulnar collateral ligament. c) radial collateral ligament. d) anular ligament of the radius. e) tendon of the biceps brachii muscle. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.11 Describe the anatomical components of the elbow joint and the movement that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.C Elbow Joint

67) Bursae are saclike structures that are commonly found between bone and a) skin. b) muscle. c) ligaments. d) tendons. e) all the other answer selections. Answer: e

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the structural and functional properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.2 Describe the structure and function of bursae and tendon sheaths. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

68) The hormone relaxin stimulates changes that lead to increased range of motion in the a) shoulder joint. b) pubic symphysis. c) temporomandibular joint d) knee joint. e) coronal suture. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints

69) Disuse of a limb, like would occur when the limb is in a cast, leads to muscular atrophy and of the affected joint. a) increased range of motion b) decreased range of motion c) increased fluid accumulation in bursa d) loosening of the tendons e) chronic inflammation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint

70) Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint? a) structure of the articulating bones. b) strength and tension of the joint ligaments.

c) use of the joint. d) arrangement and tension of the muscles. e) hormones. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints 71) Which feature goes with the knee joint? a) medial and lateral menisci b) glenoid labrum c) radial annular ligament d) zona orbicularis e) acetabular labrum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint

72) The line is pointing to the

ligament.

a) fibular collateral b) posterior cruciate c) oblique popliteal d) anterior cruciate Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint

73) The line is pointing to the

a) lateral meniscus b) medial meniscus c) anterior cruciate ligament d) posterior cruciate ligament Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint

74) The line is pointing to the

ligament.

a) coracoacromial b) acromioclavicular c) glenohumeral d) coracohumeral Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint

75) The line is pointing to the

ligaments.

a) coracoacromial b) acromioclavicular c) glenohumeral d) coracohumeral Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: PAP 14e Chapter Number: 10 Question type: Multiple Choice

Question type: Essay

1) Compare and contrast the structural characteristics of the three different types of muscular tissue. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the structure and properties of the three types of muscular tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 10.1.1 Explain the structural differences among the three types of muscular tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue Solution: Both cardiac and skeletal muscle tissues are striated and smooth muscle is not, hence its name. Skeletal muscle cells have more than one nucleus, are large and run parallel to each other. Cardiac muscle cells usually have only one, sometimes two, centrally located nuclei and are branched. They also are connected to each other via gap junctions. Smooth muscle cells are small but form thick layers of hollow organs. Like cardiac muscle cells, some smooth muscle cells communicate via gap junctions. Skeletal muscle is voluntarily controlled while both cardiac and smooth muscle tissue are involuntary and autorhythmic.

Question type: Multiple Choice

2) The different types of muscle tissue differ from each other by a) microscopic anatomy. b) location. c) type of Control. d) both microscopic anatomy and location. e) All of these choices are correct. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the structure and properties of the three types of muscular tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.1.1 Explain the structural differences among the three types of muscular tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue

3) Which of the following is NOT a major function of muscle tissue? a) moving blood throughout the body b) generating heat through contractions c) stabilizing the movement of joints d) promoting movement of body structures e) production of vitamins. Answer: e

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the structure and properties of the three types of muscular tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 10.1.2 Compare the functions and special properties of the three types of muscular tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue

4) Which property of muscle gives it the ability to stretch without damage? a) electrical excitability b) contractility c) extensibility d) elasticity e) thermogenesis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the structure and properties of the three types of muscular tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 10.1.2 Compare the functions and special properties of the three types of muscular tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue

5) In an isometric contraction the muscle develops tension but does not a) lengthen. b) widen.

c) does not expend energy. d) conduct electrical current. e) exhibit elasticity. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension. Study Objective 2: SO 10.5.4 Distinguish between isotonic and isometric contractions. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension

6) This is the outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle. a) tendon b) ligament c) endomysium d) epimysium e) perimysium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

7) What type of tendon is formed when the connective tissue elements of a skeletal muscle extend as a broad flat layer? a) perimysium b) deep fascia c) fascicle d) aponeurosis e) endomysium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

8) After the fusion of myoblasts, the muscle fiber loses its ability to do what? a) grow b) lengthen c) contract d) go through cell division. e) all of the answer choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

9) Which of the following correctly lists the sequence of structures that action potentials must move through to excite skeletal muscle contraction? a) sarcolemma, axon of neuron, T tubules b) T tubules, sarcolemma, myofilament c) muscle fiber, axon of neuron, myofibrils d) axon of neuron, sarcolemma, T tubules e) myofibrils, myofilaments, mitochondria Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

10) The contractile organelles of a skeletal muscle fiber are thread-like structures called a) myofibrils. b) myoglobin. c) mitochondria. d) Z discs.

e) M lines. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

11) Release of calcium from these structures triggers skeletal muscle contraction. a) myofibrils b) mitochondria c) terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum d) T-tubules e) none of the answer choices Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

12) Which of the following describe the regeneration capacity of cardiac muscle cells? a) limited, via satellite cells b) limited, under certain conditions c) considerable (compared with other muscle cells, but limited compared with epithelium), via pericytes d) all of these are correct e) none of these are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.10 Explain how muscle fibers regenerate. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.10 Regeneration of Muscular Tissue

13) Which of the following regions of a sarcomere contain thin filaments?

a) I band b) A band c) H zone d) Both I band and A band. e) All of these answer choices are correct. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO10.2.3 Distinguish thick filaments from thin filaments. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

14) Which of the following regions of the sarcomere contain thick filaments? a) zone of overlap b) A band c) H zone d) both A band and H zone e) All of these answer choices are correct. Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Distinguish thick filaments from thin filaments. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

15) Myofibrils contain a) contractile proteins. b) regulatory proteins. c) structural proteins. d) all of these answers are correct. e) none of these answers are correct. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

16) Which of the following functions as a motor protein in all three types of muscle tissue? a) actin b) myosin c) troponin d) titin e) tropomyosin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

17) What regulatory proteins can be found in the thin filaments of skeletal muscle fibers? a) troponin and titin b) tropomyosin and troponin c) myosin and titin d) titin and tropomyosin e) tropomyosin and myosin Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

18) Which of the regions of a sarcomere contain titin? a) the A band only b) the H zone only c) the zone of overlap only d) from M line to Z disc e) the I band only Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

19) Which of the following proteins is used to reinforce the sarcolemma and to help transmit the tension generated by the sarcomeres to the tendons? a) troponin b) tropomyosin c) myosin d) actin e) dystrophin Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

20) During muscle contraction by the sliding filament mechanism, thin filaments are pulled towards the a) Z disc. b) H zone. c) M line. d) A band. e) I band. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.1 Outline the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

21) Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytosol a) at the beginning of a contraction. b) in response to acetylcholine binding to Ca2+ release channels. c) by active transport using Ca2+ pumps in the SR membrane. d) after the contraction ends. e) All of these answers are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.1 Outline the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

22) What energizes the myosin head? a) the actin filaments b) calcium ions c) potassium ions d) ATP hydrolysis reaction e) ADP synthesis Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.1 Outline the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

23) Skeletal muscle contraction will continue to occur as long as the following chemicals are available in the cytosol of the muscle fiber. a) ATP and acetylcholine (ACh) b) calcium ions and ATP c) ACh and potassium ions d) sodium ions and ATP

e) calcium and ACh Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.1 Outline the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

24) To stimulate skeletal muscle contraction, acetylcholine must cross the neuromuscular junction and bind to receptors on the motor endplate.

of the

a) node of Ranvier b) synaptic cleft c) sarcolemma d) synaptic end bulb e) transverse tubule Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

25) Which of the following are commonly used to produce ATP during skeletal muscle contraction? a) creatine phosphate b) anaerobic cellular respiration c) aerobic cellular respiration d) All of these choices are correct. e) None of these choices are correct. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Compare anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration processes and the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue. Study Objective 2: SO 10.4.1 Describe the reactions by which muscle fibers produce ATP. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Muscle Metabolism

26) In skeletal muscles, the combined amounts of creatine phosphate and ATP provide enough energy for the muscle to contract maximally for approximately a) 15 seconds. b) 15 minutes. c) 1.5 minutes. d) 5 seconds. e) one minute. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Compare anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration processes and the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue. Study Objective 2: SO 10.4.1 Describe the reactions by which muscle fibers produce ATP. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Muscle Metabolism

Question type: Essay

27) Describe the factors that lead to muscle fatigue. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Compare anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration processes and the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue. Study Objective 2: SO 10.4.1 Describe the reactions by which muscle fibers produce ATP. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Muscle Metabolism Solution: Although the precise mechanisms that cause muscle fatigue are still not clear, several factors are thought to contribute. One is inadequate release of calcium ions from the SR, resulting in a decline of Ca2+ concentration in the sarcoplasm. Depletion of creatine phosphate also is associated with fatigue, but surprisingly, the ATP levels in fatigued muscle often are not much lower than those in resting muscle. Other factors that contribute to muscle fatigue include insufficient oxygen, depletion of glycogen and other nutrients, buildup of lactic acid and ADP, and failure of action potentials in the motor neuron to release enough acetylcholine.

Question type: Multiple Choice

28) Which of the following consists of a somatic motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it stimulates? a) sarcomere b) motor unit c) neuromuscular junction d) muscle unit e) multi-unit smooth muscle Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension. Study Objective 2: SO 10.5.1 Describe the structure and function of a motor unit, and define motor unit recruitment. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension

29) A brief contraction of all muscle fibers in a motor unit in response to a single action potential moving down the somatic motor neuron is known as a) isometric contraction. b) isotonic contraction. c) tetany. d) refractory period. e) twitch contraction. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension. Study Objective 2: SO 10.5.2 Explain the phases of a twitch contraction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension

30) Which of the following is referred to as the period of lost excitability in skeletal muscle fibers? a) refractory period b) contraction period c) latent period d) relaxation period e) wave summation

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension. Study Objective 2: SO 10.5.2 Explain the phases of a twitch contraction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension

31) Increasing the number of active motor units within a skeletal muscle is called a) wave summation. b) fused tetanus. c) motor unit recruitment. d) muscle tone. e) flaccidity. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension. Study Objective 2: SO 10.5.3 Describe how frequency of stimulation affects muscle tension, and how muscle tone is produced. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension

32) This is the least powerful type of skeletal muscle fiber. a) slow oxidative fiber b) fast oxidative fiber c) fast glycolytic fiber d) slow glycolytic fiber e) None of these choices. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.6 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.6 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

33) Which of the following microscopic structures is only found in the cardiac muscle tissue? a) myosin b) tropomyosin c) sarcomeres

d) intercalated discs e) striations Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.8 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.8 Cardiac Muscle Tissue

34) Which of the following types of muscle tissue contract when excited by their own autorhythmic muscle fibers? a) cardiac muscle b) slow twitch oxidative skeletal muscle c) multi-unit smooth muscle d) fast twitch glycolytic skeletal muscle e) All of these choices are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the structure and properties of the three types of muscular tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 10.8 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue and Cardiac Muscle Tissue Section Reference 2: Sec 10.8 Cardiac Muscle Tissue

35) Smooth muscle tone is maintained by the prolonged presence of cytosol?

in the muscle cell’s

a) ATP b) calcium ions c) phosphate ions d) myoglobin e) None of these choices. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.9 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.9 Smooth Muscle Tissue

36) On the diagram, where is the outer most layer of connective tissue encircling the entire muscle

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

37) Which of the labeled structures on the diagram holds muscles with similar functions together, allows free movement of muscles, carries nerves, blood vessels and lymphatic vessels, and fills spaces between muscles?

a) A b) B c) E d) G e) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

38) In the diagram, a tendon is formed by the merging of the following structures

a) C, D, and H b) D and E c) H and C d) C and D e) All of these choices are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

39) Which of the following structures are made of dense regular connective tissue?

a) F b) A c) I d) Both F and I e) All of these choices. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

40) In the diagram, the neurotransmitter, acetylcholine, is released from this area.

a) B b) C c) D d) G e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

41) In the diagram, where is the axon terminal?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

42) In the diagram, where would you find stored Ca2+?

a) B b) D c) G d) F e) K Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

43) In the diagram, individual muscle fibers are covered by this layer.

a) K b) I c) L d) M e) A Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

44) In the diagram, what is the basic functional unit of a myofibril?

a) B b) C c) F d) Both B and C e) All of these choices are correct. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

45) In the diagram, which structure helps return a stretched sarcomere to its resting length?

a) B b) C c) E d) Both B and C e) All of these choices are correct. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

46) In the diagram, which labeled structure contains motor proteins that convert the energy in ATP into mechanical movements?

a) C b) A c) E d) D e) None of these are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

47) In the diagram, where is the I band?

a) G b) H c) I d) J e) D Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

48) In the diagram, which structure(s) moves towards the center of the sarcomere (closer together) when the fiber contracts?

a) A b) D c) J d) Both A and D. e) None of these are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

49) In the diagram, where are thick filaments found?

a) C b) E c) A d) B e) All of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Distinguish thick filaments from thin filaments. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

Question type: Essay

50) List the four steps of the contraction cycle in order of occurrence. What is needed for these steps to continuously repeat? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.1 Outline the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

Solution: ATP hydrolysis, attachment of myosin to actin forming crossbridges, the power stroke, then detachment of myosin from actin. The cycle will continue as long as ATP and calcium ions are available.

51) How does a nerve impulse elicit a muscle action potential? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Solution: A nerve impulse reaches the synaptic end bulb and causes the release of acetylcholine, which diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to and activates acetylcholine receptors on the motor end plate. Binding of acetylcholine opens an ion channel in the acetylcholine receptors allowing Na+ to flow into the cell, which generates an action potential in the muscle cell.

52) What are the three ways that ATP can be produced in muscle fibers? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO10.4 Compare anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration processes and the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue. Study Objective 2: SO 10.4.1 Describe the reactions by which muscle fibers produce ATP. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Muscle Metabolism Solution: ATP can be produced from creatine phosphate, by anaerobic cellular respiration, and by aerobic cellular respiration.

53) What is the major difference between the two types of smooth muscle tissue? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.9 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.9 Smooth Muscle Tissue Solution: In single-unit smooth muscle tissue, action potentials are initiated in response to neurotransmitters, hormones, or an autorhythmic signal. The action potential spreads throughout the tissue by moving through gap junctions that connect all the muscle cells together within the

tissue. It is found in the skin and in tubular arrangements that form part of the walls of small arteries and veins and of hollow organs such as the stomach, intestines, uterus, and urinary bladder. In multiunit smooth muscle tissue, muscle cells have few gap junctions with neighboring cells and thus must be excited by their own motor neuron terminal. It is found in the walls of large arteries, in airways to the lungs, in the arrector pili muscles that attach to hair follicles, in the muscles of the iris that adjust pupil diameter, and in the ciliary body that adjusts focus of the lens in the eye.

54) In embryonic muscle development, what happens to the somites? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.11 Describe the development of muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.11 Development of Muscle Solution: Somite cells differentiate into myotome, dermatome, and sclerotome.

Question type: Multiple Choice

55) Which of the following disorders is characterized by the wasting away of muscles due to the progressive loss of myofibrils? a) muscular hypertrophy b) muscular atrophy c) fibromyalgia d) myasthenia gravis e) tremors Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.13 Describe the disorders that affect the muscular tissues. Section Reference 1: Disorders - Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Muscular Tissue

56) Which portion of this myogram shows a single twitch of the muscle?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) none of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension. Study Objective 2: SO 10.5.3 Describe how frequency of stimulation affects muscle tension, and how muscle tone is produced. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension

57) What is being shown by the axis labeled E?

a) time b) tetanus c) force of contraction d) twitch factor e) wave summation

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension. Study Objective 2: SO 10.5.3 Describe how frequency of stimulation affects muscle tension, and how muscle tone is produced. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension

58) Which area of the myogram shows sustained contraction with partial relaxation?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) none of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension. Study Objective 2: SO 10.5.3 Describe how frequency of stimulation affects muscle tension, and how muscle tone is produced. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension

59) Which area of the myogram shows a sustained contraction where individual twitches are indiscernible?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) none of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension. Study Objective 2: SO 10.5.3 Describe how frequency of stimulation affects muscle tension, and how muscle tone is produced. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension

60) Which figure exhibits isometric contraction of the biceps brachii muscle?

a) A b) B

c) C d) none of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension. Study Objective 2: SO 10.5.4 Distinguish between isotonic and isometric contractions. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension

61) Which figure exhibits concentric contraction of the biceps brachii muscle?

a) A b) B c) C d) none of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension. Study Objective 2: SO 10.5.4 Distinguish between isotonic and isometric contractions. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension

62) Which figure exhibits a contraction of the biceps brachii muscle in which its length increases?

a) A b) B c) C d) none of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension. Study Objective 2: SO 10.5.4 Distinguish between isotonic and isometric contractions. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension

63) Which is a NOT a side-effect of anabolic steroid use by male athletes? a) sterility b) baldness c) diminished testosterone secretion d) deepening of the voice e) atrophy of testes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.7 Describe the effects of exercise on different types of skeletal muscle fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.7 Exercise and Skeletal Muscle Tissue

64) Which of the following types of abnormal contractions of skeletal muscle may be caused by holding a position for a prolonged period?

a) spasm b) fasciculation c) tremor d) fibrillation e) cramp Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.13 Describe the disorders that affect the muscular tissues. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Muscular Tissue

65) Which of the following is a common effect of aging on skeletal muscle? a) loss of muscle mass b) decrease in maximal strength c) a slowing of muscle reflexes d) loss of flexibility e) all of these are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.12 Explain the effects of aging on skeletal muscle Section Reference 1: Sec 10.12 Aging and Muscular Tissue

66) Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe aerobic cellular respiration in skeletal muscles? a) Pyruvic acid generated by glycolysis enters the mitochondria. b) O2 is essential. c) CO2 is produced as a waste product. d) Lactic acid is continually produced. e) Can be used to generate ATP from fats, proteins or carbohydrates. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Compare anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration processes and the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue. Study Objective 2: SO 10.4.2 Distinguish between anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Muscle Metabolism

67) After prolonged strenuous exercise has stopped, heavy breathing will often continue for several minutes in order to provide the oxygen needed to a) convert the lactic acid produced during exercise back into glycogen. b) resynthesize creatine phosphate. c) replace oxygen displaced from muscle myoglobin. d) All of these choices e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Compare anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration processes and the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue. Study Objective 2: SO 10.4.2 Distinguish between anaerobic glycolysis and aerobic respiration. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Muscle Metabolism

68) Which of the following types of muscle tissue is capable of undergoing the stress-relaxation response when they are stretched? a) cardiac muscle fibers b) fast glycolytic fibers c) fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers d) slow oxidative fibers e) single-unit smooth muscle fibers Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.9 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.9 Smooth Muscle Tissue

69). Cross bridges are formed during muscle contraction when binds to on the thin filaments. a) myosin; troponin b) myosin; troponin c) myosin; actin d) actin; myosin e) actin; tropomyosin Answer: c

on the thick filaments

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.1 Outline the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

70) In a neuromuscular junction, the effect of acetylcholine (ACh) binding to receptors on the motor end plate lasts only briefly due to a) rapid uptake of the ACh into the myofiber. b) endocytosis of the ACh receptor into the myofiber. c) rapid destruction of ACh in the synaptic cleft by acetylcholinesterase. d) rapid destruction of ACh in the synaptic cleft by monoamine oxidase. e) diffusion of the ACh out of the synaptic cleft. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction. Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

71) During which period of a twitch contraction does the muscle action potential move along the sarcolemma of the muscle cell and trigger calcium release into the sarcoplasm? a) latent period b) contraction period c) relaxation period d) absolute refractory period e) relative refractory period Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension. Study Objective 2: SO 10.5.2 Explain the phases of a twitch contraction. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension

72) Which of following is a common characteristic of fast glycolytic (FG) skeletal muscle fibers? a) large amount of myoglobin. b) many mitochondria. c) low concentration of creatine kinase in the sarcoplasm. d) slow myosin ATPase. e) high amount of glycogen in the sarcoplasm. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.6 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.6 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

73) Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune disorder that targets the ACh receptors at the NMJ and ultimately reduces the number of available receptors. Predict what happens if you treat the patient with a drug that inhibits the activity of acetylcholinesterase? a) prevent contraction b) weak contraction c) normal contraction d) cause spasm e) none of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 10.13 Describe the disorders that affect the muscular tissues. Section Reference 1: Disorders - Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Muscular Tissue

74) Leg muscles are predominantly composed of which type of muscle fiber? a) slow oxidative b) fast glycolytic c) fast oxidative-glycolytic d) slow glycolytic e) fast oxidative Answer: c Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 10.6 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.6 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

Question type: Essay

75) Discuss the steps involved in contraction of smooth muscle and explain why smooth muscle has a slower contraction cycle. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 10.9 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.9 Smooth Muscle Tissue Solution: Upon neural stimulation of the muscle, Ca2+ stored in the caveolae start to flow into the cell. Calmodulin, the regulatory protein in smooth muscles, will bind with the Ca++ which will activate the enzyme myosin light chain kinase (MLCK). This enzyme will use ATP to add a phosphate to the myosin head so that it can bind to actin so that the contraction can occur. The sliding of the actin and myosin is similar to the skeletal muscle. The slowness of the process is due to slow influx of Ca++ from caveolae into the cells (smooth muscles have a poor SR system, therefore, there is very little intercellular Ca++ storage). Also, the enzyme MLCK works very slowly which in turn causes the muscle to contract slowly.

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: PAP 14e Chapter Number: 11

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Most muscles cross at least one a) tendon b) joint c) bone d) ligament e) body plane Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.1 Describe the relationship between bones and skeletal muscles in producing body movements. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements 2) The attachment of a muscle’s tendon to the stationary bone is called the of the muscle’s other tendon to the movable bone is called the .

; the attachment

a) origin, action b) insertion, action c) origin, insertion d) insertion, origin e) insertion, action Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.1 Describe the relationship between bones and skeletal muscles in producing body movements. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements

3) A lever is acted on at two different points by two different forces which are called the a) fulcrum and resistance.

b) leverage and load. c) lever and resistance. d) effort and load. e) lever and effort. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.2 Define lever and fulcrum, and compare the three types of levers based on location of the fulcrum, effort, and load. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements

4) Motion will occur in a muscle when the

supplied exceeds the

a) effort, load b) resistance, lever c) load, effort d) load, resistance e) lever, effort Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.2 Define lever and fulcrum, and compare the three types of levers based on location of the fulcrum, effort, and load. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements

Question type: Essay

5) With reference to the effort and load, describe the main difference between a lever operating with a mechanical advantage versus a lever operating at a mechanical disadvantage. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.2 Define lever and fulcrum, and compare the three types of levers based on location of the fulcrum, effort, and load. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements Solution: A lever operates at a mechanical advantage when a smaller effort can move a heavier load. The effort moves a greater distance at a faster rate than the load. A lever operates at a

mechanical disadvantage when a larger effort moves a lighter load. The effort moves more slowly and for a shorter distance than the load.

6) Briefly describe the three categories of levers based on the position of their fulcrum. Give an example of each type of lever and state whether the lever works at a mechanical advantage, disadvantage or both. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.2 Define lever and fulcrum, and compare the three types of levers based on location of the fulcrum, effort, and load. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements Solution: If the fulcrum is between the effort and the load it is a first class lever. Scissors are an example of a first class lever. A first class lever can produce either a mechanical advantage or disadvantage depending on whether the effort or load is closer to the fulcrum. If the load is between the fulcrum and the effort, it is a second class lever. A wheel barrow is an example of a second class lever. They operate at a mechanical advantage because the load is always closer to the fulcrum than the effort. If the effort is between the fulcrum and the load, it is a third class lever. Forceps are an example of a third class lever. They operate at a mechanical disadvantage because the effort is always closer to the fulcrum than the load.

Question type: Multiple Choice

7) Which of the following is NOT a common arrangement of muscle fascicles? a) pennate b) triangular c) oval d) parallel e) fusiform Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.3 Identify the types of fascicle arrangements in a skeletal muscle, and relate the arrangements to strength of contraction and range of motion. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements

8) This type of fascicle arrangement has the fascicles spread over a broad area and converges at a thick central tendon. a) triangular b) pennate c) circular d) fusiform e) multipennate Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.3 Identify the types of fascicle arrangements in a skeletal muscle, and relate the arrangements to strength of contraction and range of motion. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements 9) The muscle that serves as the “prime mover” during a movement is called the a) antagonist. b) agonist. c) synergist. d) asynergist. e) fixator. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.4 Explain how the prime mover, antagonist, synergist, and fixator in a muscle group work together to produce movement. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements

10) This type of muscle works by stabilizing the origin of the agonist so that it can act more efficiently. a) synergist b) agonist c) antagonist d) fixator e) secondary mover Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.4 Explain how the prime mover, antagonist, synergist, and fixator in a muscle group work together to produce movement. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements

Question type: Essay

11) Briefly describe four main benefits of stretching before exercising. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.1 Describe the relationship between bones and skeletal muscles in producing body movements. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements Solution: Stretching can improve physical performance by increasing joint flexibility allowing the joint to move through a greater range of motion. Stretching decreases risk of injury by decreasing resistance in various soft tissues so there is less of a chance of exceeding maximum tissue extensibility during activity. Stretching can reduce some of the muscle soreness that results after exercise. Stretching can help realign soft tissues to improve and maintain good posture.

Question type: Multiple Choice

12) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic commonly used to name skeletal muscles? a) Size b) Shape c) Number of origins d) Sites of origins e) Thickness of fibers Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.2 Explain seven features used in naming skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.2 How Skeletal Muscles Are Named

Question type: Essay

13) What anatomical structures of the musculoskeletal system correspond to the components of a lever system? Describe the arrangement of these parts in first, second, and third class lever systems. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.2 Define lever and fulcrum, and compare the three types of levers based on location of the fulcrum, effort, and load. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements Solution: The bone is the lever. The joint is the fulcrum. The muscle contraction pulling on its insertion point is the effort. The weight of the part to be moved is the resistance. A first class lever has the fulcrum between the effort and the resistance; a second class lever has the resistance in the middle; the third class lever has the effort in the middle. In all cases, the lever moves around the fulcrum.

14) Discuss the roles of agonists, antagonists, synergists, and fixators in movement. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.4 Explain how the prime mover, antagonist, synergist, and fixator in a muscle group work together to produce movement. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements Solution: The agonist (prime mover) contracts to cause a particular movement. The antagonist causes the opposite action, and so, must relax while the agonist contracts. Synergists prevent unwanted movements during an action or aid the agonist during the movement, while fixators stabilize the origin of the agonist. Both allow the agonist to work more efficiently.

15) Chuck has a rotator cuff injury. Which muscles and associated structures are most commonly involved in this type of injury? What sorts of activities commonly cause this injury? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.15 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the pectoral humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.L Muscles of the Thorax and Shoulder That Move the Humerus Solution: The tendon of the scapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor make up the rotator cuff. The most commonly injured structure of the rotator cuff is the tendon of the supraspinatus muscle. Any activity involving vigorous circumduction of shoulder can result in a

rotor cuff injury. Common examples of activities that lead to this injury include throwing baseballs, playing racket sports, and swimming.

16) Name the three groups of muscles constituting the intrinsic muscles of the hand. Briefly describe the structure and function of each of these groups. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.18 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the palm that move the digits (the intrinsic muscles of the hand). Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.O Muscles of the Palm That Move the Digits—Intrinsic Muscles of the Hand Solution: 1. Thenar: four muscles that act on the thumb and form the lateral rounded contour of the palm. 2. Hypothenar: three muscles that act on the little finger and form the medial rounded contour of the palm. 3. Intermediate: 12 muscles acting on all digits except the thumb; subgrouped as lumbricals, palmar interossei, and dorsal interossei, and located between metacarpals; needed for all phalangeal movements.

17) Name and describe the locations and actions of the muscles typically used in breathing. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.11 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that assist in breathing. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.H Muscles of the Thorax That Assist in Breathing Solution: The diaphragm forms the floor of the thoracic cavity. It flattens (contracts) during inspiration to increase the size of the thoracic cavity. The external intercostals are found between the ribs and they act to increase the lateral and anteroposterior dimensions of the thorax. Internal intercostals are also found between ribs and they act by pulling the ribs together to decrease the size of the thoracic cavity. The diaphragm relaxes during expiration to form a dome that decreases the size of the thoracic cavity. The anterior scalenes and the pectoralis minor also assist during forced inspirations.

Question type: Multiple Choice

18) In the diagram, where is the fulcrum?

a) A b) B c) C d) All of these choices e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.2 Define lever and fulcrum, and compare the three types of levers based on location of the fulcrum, effort, and load. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements

19) In the diagram, where is the effort?

a) A b) B c) C d) All of these choices e) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.2 Define lever and fulcrum, and compare the three types of levers based on location of the fulcrum, effort, and load. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements

20) Which one represents a second-class lever?

21) Where is the latissimus dorsi?

a) A b) B c) F d) G e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.15 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.L Muscles of the Thorax and Shoulder That Move the Humerus

22) Where is the rectus femoris?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.21 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.R Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur and Tibia and Fibula

23) Where is the deltoid?

a) C b) D c) F d) G e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.15 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.L Muscles of the Thorax and Shoulder That Move the Humerus

24) Where is the masseter?

a) A b) B c) G d) I e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.6 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the mandible and assist in mastication and speech. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.C Muscles That Move the Mandible and Assist in Mastication and Speech

25) Where is the gastrocnemius?

a) C b) D c) G d) H e) I Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.22 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the leg that move the foot and toes. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.S Muscles of the Leg That Move the Foot and Toes

26) Where is the soleus?

a) A b) C c) E d) I e) H Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.22 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the leg that move the foot and toes. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.S Muscles of the Leg That Move the Foot and Toes

27) Where is the external oblique?

a) D b) G c) H d) I e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.10 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that protect the abdominal viscera and move the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.G Muscles of the Abdomen That Protect Abdominal Viscera and Move the Vertebral Column

28) Where is the masseter?

a) A b) B c) F d) G e) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.6 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the mandible and assist in mastication and speech. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.C Muscles That Move the Mandible and Assist in Mastication and Speech

29) Where is the orbicularis oculi?

a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions

30) Where is the buccinator?

a) F b) G c) I d) J e) K Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions

31) Where is the mentalis?

a) J b) K c) L d) M e) N Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions

32) Where is the depressor anguli oris?

a) K b) L c) M d) N e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions

33) Where is the levator palpebrae superioris?

a) B b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.5 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the extrinsic eye muscles that move the eyeballs and upper eyelids. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.B Muscles That Move the Eyeballs (Extrinsic Eye Muscles) and Upper Eyelids

34) Where is the lateral rectus?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.5 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the extrinsic eye muscles that move the eyeballs and upper eyelids. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.B Muscles That Move the Eyeballs (Extrinsic Eye Muscles) and Upper Eyelids

35) Where is the splenius capitis?

a) A b) B c) C d) K e) L Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.9 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.F Muscles of the Neck That Move the Head

36) Where is the levator scapulae?

a) H b) F c) I d) L e) A Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.14 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the pectoral girdle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.K Muscles of the Thorax That Move the Pectoral Girdle

37) Where is the serratus anterior?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.14 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the pectoral girdle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.K Muscles of the Thorax That Move the Pectoral Girdle

38) Where is the external oblique?

a) D b) E c) F d) H e) I Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.10 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that protect the abdominal viscera and move the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.G Muscles of the Abdomen That Protect Abdominal Viscera and Move the Vertebral Column

39) Where is the transverse abdominus?

a) D b) E c) F d) H e) I Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.10 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that protect the abdominal viscera and move the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.G Muscles of the Abdomen That Protect Abdominal Viscera and Move the Vertebral Column

40) Where is the infraspinatus?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.15 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.L Muscles of the Thorax and Shoulder That Move the Humerus

41) Where is the rhomboid major?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.14 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the pectoral girdle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.K Muscles of the Thorax That Move the Pectoral Girdle

42) Where is the brachioradialis?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.16 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the arm that move the radius and ulna. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.M Muscles of the Arm That Move the Radius and Ulna

43) Where is the flexor carpi radialis?

a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.17 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the forearm that move the wrist, hand, and digits. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.N Muscles of the Forearm That Move the Wrist, Hand, Thumb, and Digits

44) Where is the abductor digiti minimi?

a) B b) C c) E d) F e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.18 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the palm that move the digits (the intrinsic muscles of the hand). Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.O Muscles of the Palm That Move the Digits—Intrinsic Muscles of the Hand

45) Where is the splenius capitis?

a) A b) B c) C d) H e) I Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.18 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.P Muscles of the Neck and Back That Move the Vertebral Column

46) Where is the iliacus?

a) A b) B c) C d) H e) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.20 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the gluteal region that move the femur. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.Q Muscles of the Gluteal Region That Move the Femur

47) Where is the sartorius?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.21 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.R Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur and Tibia and Fibula

48) Where is the vastus intermedius?

a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.21 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.R Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur and Tibia and Fibula

49) Where is the adductor longus?

a) H b) I c) J d) K e) L Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.21 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.R Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur and Tibia and Fibula

50) Where is the gracilis?

a) H b) I c) J d) K e) L Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.21 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.R Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur and Tibia and Fibula

51) Which three muscles make up the hamstring?

a) L, M, N b) E, F, G c) H, I, J d) I, J, K e) A, B, C Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.21 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.R Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur and Tibia and Fibula

52) Where is the semitendinosus?

a) J b) K c) L d) M e) N Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.21 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.R Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur and Tibia and Fibula

53) What is the origin of the muscle labeled B?

a) upper lip b) mandible c) medial wall of orbit d) skin at the corner of the mouth e) skin of the eyebrow Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions

54) What is the origin of the muscle labeled D?

a) fascia over parotid gland b) fascia over deltoid and pectoralis muscles c) skin of the lower lip d) epicranial aponeurosis e) mandible Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions

55) What is the action of the muscle labeled C?

a) laterally flex and rotate head b) extends head c) depresses tongue d) protracts mandible (as in opening the mouth) e) elevates the mandible (as in closing the mouth) Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.6 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the mandible and assist in mastication and speech. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.C Muscles That Move the Mandible and Assist in Mastication and Speech

56) What is the insertion of the muscle labeled E?

a) mastoid process of temporal bone b) sternum and clavicle c) occipital bone d) clavicle and spine of the scapula e) coracoid process of the scapula Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.9 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.F Muscles of the Neck That Move the Head

57) What is the action of the muscle labeled G?

a) adducts and medially rotates arm at shoulder joint b) abducting arm at shoulder joint c) laterally rotates arm at shoulder joint d) laterally rotates and extends arm at shoulder joint e) extends forearm at elbow joint Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.15 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.L Muscles of the Thorax and Shoulder That Move the Humerus

58) What is the action of the muscle labeled I?

a) extends the forearm at the elbow joint b) flexes the forearm at the elbow joint c) pronates the forearm at the radioulnar joints d) abduct arm at shoulder joint e) rotates arm at shoulder joint Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.16 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the arm that move the radius and ulna. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.M Muscles of the Arm That Move the Radius and Ulna

59) What is the insertion of the muscle labeled Q?

a) iliac crest and linea alba b) cartilage of the fifth to seventh rib and xiphoid process c) ribs 5-12 d) central tendon e) costal cartilages and adjacent portion of the inferior 6 ribs Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.10 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that protect the abdominal viscera and move the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.G Muscles of the Abdomen That Protect Abdominal Viscera and Move the Vertebral Column

60) What is the insertion of the muscle labeled F?

a) ulnar tuberosity and coronoid process of ulna b) radial tuberosity of radius and bicipital aponeurosis c) olecranon of ulna d) lateral border of distal end of humerus e) lateral epicondyle of humerus Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.16 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the arm that move the radius and ulna. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.M Muscles of the Arm That Move the Radius and Ulna

61) What is the insertion of the muscle labeled G?

a) greater tubercle of humerus b) inferior angle of scapula c) spine of the scapula d) acromial extremity of the clavicle e) deltoid tuberosity of humerus Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.15 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.L Muscles of the Thorax and Shoulder That Move the Humerus

62) What is the insertion of the muscle labeled D?

a) lateral and medial condyles of femur and capsule of knee b) head of fibula c) calcaneus by way of Achilles tendon d) anterior surface of fibula and interosseous membrane e) distal phalanx of great toe Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.22 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the leg that move the foot and toes. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.S Muscles of the Leg That Move the Foot and Toes

63) If one is stabbed on the lateral side of the abdomen, what abdominal muscles, in order from superficial to deep, will the knife go through? a) rectus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique

b) external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis c) transversus abdominis, rectus abdominis, external oblique d) external oblique, transversus abdominis, rectus abdominis e) internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external oblique Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.10 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that protect the abdominal viscera and move the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.G Muscles of the Abdomen That Protect Abdominal Viscera and Move the Vertebral Column

64) Protrusion of an organ through a structure that normally contains it is referred to as a a) hernia. b) goiter. c) strain. d) sprain. e) hydrocele. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.10 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that protect the abdominal viscera and move the vertebral column. (Clinical Connection) Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.G Muscles of the Abdomen That Protect Abdominal Viscera and Move the Vertebral Column

65) A condition where the two eyeballs are not properly aligned is referred to as a) inguinal hernia. b) strabismus. c) presbyopia. d) myopia. e) hypermetropia. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.5 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the extrinsic eye muscles that move the eyeballs and upper eyelids. (Clinical Connection) Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.B Muscles That Move the Eyeballs (Extrinsic Eye Muscles) and Upper Eyelids

66) A muscle that has three origins is called a a) biceps. b) triceps. c) quadriceps. d) deltoid. e) trapezius. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.2 Explain seven features used in naming skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.2 How Skeletal Muscles Are Named

67) A muscle that raises or elevates a body part is called a a) pronator. b) tensor. c) flexor. d) depressor. e) levator. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.2 Explain seven features used in naming skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.2 How Skeletal Muscles Are Named

68) A muscle that decreases the size of an opening is a a) rotator. b) tensor. c) pronator. d) sphincter. e) depressor. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.2 Explain seven features used in naming skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.2 How Skeletal Muscles Are Named

69) Contraction of this muscle presses the cheeks against the teeth and lips as would be observed in whistling, blowing or sucking. a) buccinator b) zygomaticus c) frontalis d) epicranius e) occipitalis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions

70) All of the following are muscles that move the eyeball EXCEPT a) superior rectus. b) lateral rectus. c) inferior oblique. d) internal oblique. e) superior oblique. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.5 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the extrinsic eye muscles that move the eyeballs and upper eyelids. (Clinical Connection) Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.B Muscles That Move the Eyeballs (Extrinsic Eye Muscles) and Upper Eyelids

71) Which of the following is a muscle whose insertion is found on the clavicle and acromion process of the scapula within the pectoral girdle? a) trapezius b) pectoralis major c) latissimus dorsi d) gracilus e) sartorius Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.14 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the pectoral girdle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.K Muscles of the Thorax That Move the Pectoral Girdle

72) All of the following are muscles of the lower limb EXCEPT the a) deltoid. b) adductor magnus. c) adductor longus. d) quadriceps femoris. e) vastus medialis. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.15 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.L Muscles of the Thorax and Shoulder That Move the Humerus

73) Based on its name, which of the following best describes characteristics of the biceps femoris muscle? a) has two insertions and found in lower leg b) has two bellies and found in the upper leg c) has two origins and found in the upper leg d) has two origins and found in the upper arm e) has two insertions and found in the upper leg Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.2 Explain seven features used in naming skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.2 How Skeletal Muscles Are Named

74) Which of the following muscles is NOT part of the quadriceps femoris muscle group? a) rectus femoris b) biceps femoris c) vastus medialis d) vastus lateralis e) vastus intermedius

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.21 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.R Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur and Tibia and Fibula Learning

75) This muscle, which is found in the neck, functions to elevate the hyoid bone and help press the tongue against the roof of the mouth during swallowing. a) mylohyoid b) sternothryroid c) sternocleidomastoid d) digastric e) masseter Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.8 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the anterior neck that assist in deglutition and speech. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.E Muscles of the Anterior Neck That Assist in Deglutition and Speech

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 12

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the nervous system? a) Sensory function b) Integrative function c) Motor function d) All are functions of the nervous system Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.1 Describe the structures and basic functions of the nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 12.1.2 Describe the three basic functions of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Overview of the Nervous System

2) Which of the following are divisions of the peripheral nervous system? a) Somatic nervous system b) Autonomic nervous system c) Enteric nervous system d) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.1 Describe the structures and basic functions of the nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 12.1.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Overview of the Nervous System

3) The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into a) somatic and sympathetic divisions. b) somatic and parasympathetic divisions. c) enteric and somatic divisions. d) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. e) voluntary and involuntary divisions.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.1 Describe the structures and basic functions of the nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 12.1.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Overview of the Nervous System

4) Which of the following types of cells display the property of electrical excitability? a) Muscle cells b) Neurons c) All of these choices d) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

5) Which of following organelles is a common site of protein synthesis in neurons? a) mitochondria b) nucleus c) Nissl body d) Golgi apparatus e) nucleolus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 6) With respect to neurons, the term “nerve fiber” refers to a) an axon.

b) a dendrite c) a Nissl body. d) both axons and dendrites. e) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

7) This type of neuron has one dendrite and one axon emerging from the cell body. a) Multipolar neuron b) Bipolar neuron c) Unipolar neuron d) Purkinje cell e) Renshaw cell Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 8) Schwann’s cells begin to form myelin sheaths around axons in the peripheral nervous system a) when neurons are injured. b) during fetal development. c) after birth. d) only in response to electrical stimulation by neuroglial cells. e) during the early onset of Alzheimer’s disease. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

9) This type of nervous tissue contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons, axon terminals, and neuroglial cells. a) Gray matter b) White matter c) Nissl bodies d) Ganglia e) Nuclei Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.2 Distinguish between gray matter and white matter Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

10) Which of the following is NOT a type of channel used in production of electrical signals in neurons? a) Leakage channel b) Voltage-gated channel c) Ligand-gated channel d) Mechanically gated channel e) Ion-gated channel Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

11) A polarized cell a) has a charge imbalance across its membrane. b) includes most cells of the body.

c) exhibits a membrane potential. d) includes most cells of the body and exhibits a membrane potential. e) All of these choices are correct. Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.3 Describe the factors that maintain a resting membrane potential. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons 12) Na+/K+–ATPase is considered to be an electrogenic pump because a) it contributes to the negativity of the resting membrane potential. b) the sodium ions are negatively charged. c) it exhibits low permeability. d) both it contributes to the negativity of the resting membrane potential and the sodium ions are negatively charged. e) all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.3 Describe the factors that maintain a resting membrane potential. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

13) A depolarizing graded potential a) makes the membrane more polarized. b) makes the membrane less polarized. c) is considered a type of action potential. d) is the last part of an action potential. e) is seen when the cell approaches threshold. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.3 Describe the factors that maintain a resting membrane potential. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

14) When a depolarizing graded potential makes the axon membrane depolarize to threshold, a) ligand-gated Ca+2 channels close rapidly. b) voltage-gated Ca+2 channels open rapidly. c) ligand-gated Na+ channels close rapidly. d) voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly. e) none of these choices occur. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.4 List the sequence of events that generate an action potential. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons 15) During the resting state of a voltage-gated Na+ channel, 1. the inactivation gate is open. 2. the activation gate is closed. 3. the channel is permeable to Na+. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 1 and 2 are true. e) all of these choices are true. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.3 Describe the factors that maintain a resting membrane potential. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

16) During this period, a second action potential can only be initiated by a larger than normal stimulus a) Latent period b) Absolute refractory period c) Relative refractory period d) All of these choices

e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.4 List the sequence of events that generate an action potential. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

17) Saltatory conduction a) can occur in unmyelinated axons b) happens due to an even distribution of voltage-gated Na+ channels c) encodes only action potentials that are initiated in response to pain. d) occurs in unmyelinated axons and happens due to even distribution of voltage-gated Na+ channels e) occurs only in myelinated axons Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.4 List the sequence of events that generate an action potential. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

18) The nervous system can distinguish between a light touch and a heavier touch by a) saltatory conduction. b) continuous conduction of graded potentials. c) changing the frequency of impulses sent to sensory centers. d) propagation action potential in both directions. e) modifying the length of the refractory period. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.4 List the sequence of events that generate an action potential. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

19) Faster communication and synchronization are two advantages of a) chemical synapses b) electrical synapses c) ligand-gated channels d) voltage-gated channels e) mechanically-gated channels Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Describe signal transmission at a chemical synapse, summation, and excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. Study Objective 2: SO 12.4.1 Explain the events of signal transmission at electrical and chemical synapses. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Signal Transmission at Synapses

20) An excitatory neurotransmitter

the postsynaptic membrane.

a) depolarizes b) repolarizes c) hyperpolarizes d) does not affect the polarity of e) moves across channels in Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Describe signal transmission at a chemical synapse, summation, and excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. Study Objective 2: SO 12.4.1 Explain the events of signal transmission at electrical and chemical synapses. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Signal Transmission at Synapses

21) Diffusion, enzymatic degradation, and uptake by cells are all ways to a) remove a neurotransmitter b) stop a spatial summation c) continue a temporal summation d) inhibit a presynaptic potential e) excite a presynaptic potential Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Describe signal transmission at a chemical synapse, summation, and excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. Study Objective 2: SO 12.4.1 Explain the events of signal transmission at electrical and chemical synapses. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Signal Transmission at Synapses

22) When the summed total of postsynaptic potentials rises above threshold, creation of action potentials occurs a) in the synaptic cleft. b) in the dendrites. c) at the trigger zone. d) in the neuron nucleus. e) in the neuroplasm. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Describe signal transmission at a chemical synapse, summation, and excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. Study Objective 2: SO 12.4.1 Explain the events of signal transmission at electrical and chemical synapses. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Signal Transmission at Synapses

23) A postsynaptic neuron responds to neurotransmitters released by a presynaptic neuron by creating a) EPSPs b) water-filled channels in its membrane c) IPSPs d) either EPSPs or IPSPs e) All the choices are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Describe signal transmission at a chemical synapse, summation, and excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. Study Objective 2: SO 12.4.1 Explain the events of signal transmission at electrical and chemical synapses. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Signal Transmission at Synapses

24) This type of neural circuit consists of a single presynaptic neuron synapsing with several postsynaptic neurons. a) Diverging circuit b) Converging circuit c) Reverberating circuit d) Parallel after-discharge circuit e) Normal circuit Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Identify the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Neural Circuits

25) Plasticity means a) ability to regenerate after being damaged. b) sending a signal through a converging circuit. c) signal transmission at a synapse. d) ability to change based on experience. e) ability to stretch and recoil without damage. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.7 Describe neurogenesis and explain the events involved in damage and repair of peripheral nerves and the disorders that affect the nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 12.7.1 Define plasticity and neurogenesis. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Regeneration and Repair of Nervous Tissue

Question type: Essay

26) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.7 Describe neurogenesis and explain the events involved in damage and repair of peripheral nerves and the disorders that affect the nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 12.7.1 Define plasticity and neurogenesis. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Regeneration and Repair of Nervous Tissue

Solution: Neurogenesis in adults is limited by: 1) Inhibitory influences from neuroglia, mainly from oligodendrocytes, and 2) the absence of growth-stimulating cues present during fetal development.

27) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the classes and functions of neurotransmitters. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Neurotransmitters Solution: Drugs can modify neurotransmitter effects by: 1) stimulating or inhibiting their synthesis, 2) enhancing or blocking their release, 3) activating or blocking their receptor, and 4) stimulating or inhibiting their removal.

28) List the three ways that neurotransmitters can be removed from a synapse. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the classes and functions of neurotransmitters. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Neurotransmitters Solution: Neurotransmitters can be removed by: 1) diffusion, 2) enzymatic degradation or 3) uptake by cells.

29) List the three major factors that contribute to the creation of the resting membrane potential in excitable cells. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.3 Describe the factors that maintain a resting membrane potential. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons Solution: The major factors that lead to creation of resting potential are: 1) unequal distribution of ions across the plasma membrane, 2) inability of most anions to leave the cell, and 3) the electrogenic nature of the Na+,K+ -ATPase.

30) Briefly describe the events that occur during the depolarizing phase of an action potential. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.4 List the sequence of events that generate an action potential. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons Solution: Voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly allowing Na+ to rush into the cell driven by both the electrical and chemical gradient. The inward rush of Na+ causes the membrane potential to become less negative, resulting in depolarization.

Question type: Multiple Choice

31) Which part of the diagram is considered nerve fiber?

a) A b) D c) I d) Both A and D

e) All of these choices make up the nerve fiber Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

32) This part of the neuron contains the nucleus and Nissl bodies.

a) A b) B c) C d) E e) Both A and B

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 33) This part of a neuron contains the nucleus and cytoplasm of the Schwann’s cell that has formed a myelin sheath around the axon.

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

34) In the diagram, where are axon terminals?

a) F b) G c) H d) I e) None of these choices Answer: c

35) Which of the neurons is considered to be a bipolar neuron?

a) A b) B c) C d) All of the neurons. e) None of the neurons. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

36) This structure electrically insulates the axon of a neuron to increase the speed of nerve impulse conduction.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

37) In the diagram, where is a node of Ranvier?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

38) In the CNS, this structure is produced by oligodendrocytes.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

39) Which of the diagrams in the figure represents a ligand-gated channel?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

40) Which of these types of channels is involved in leaking sodium and potassium ions across the membrane in order to establish the resting potential of a cell?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

41) Which of the channels shown in the figure opens and closes randomly?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) All of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

42) Which diagram represents a reverberating circuit?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Identify the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Neural Circuits

43) Which of the types of circuits is commonly used to send sensory signals to multiple areas of the brain?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Identify the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Neural Circuits

44) Which type of circuit is used to lengthen the output signal in physiological processes like regulation of the breathing pattern?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Identify the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Neural Circuits

45) Which type of circuit is involved in solving mathematical problems?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Identify the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Neural Circuits

46) What is the structural classification of the neuron labeled A?

a) bipolar neuron b) multipolar neuron

c) unipolar neuron d) nonpolar neuron e) pseudounipolar Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

47) What is the structural classification of the neuron labeled B?

a) bipolar neuron b) multipolar neuron c) unipolar neuron d) nonpolar neuron e) pseudounipolar Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

48) Which of the following structures is labeled A in the diagram?

a) axon terminal b) trigger zone c) cell body d) peripheral process e) dendrites Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

49) Which of the following structures is labeled B in the diagram?

a) axon terminal b) trigger zone c) cell body d) peripheral process e) dendrites Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

50) Which of the following structures is labeled C in the diagram?

a) axon terminal b) trigger zone c) cell body d) peripheral process e) dendrites Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

51) Which of the following structures is labeled D in the diagram?

a) axon terminal b) trigger zone c) cell body d) peripheral process e) dendrites Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

52) Which of the following structures is labeled E in the diagram?

a) axon terminal b) trigger zone c) cell body d) axon e) dendrites Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

53) Which of the following types of neurons is the most common type of neuron found in the brain and spinal cord? a) bipolar neuron b) multipolar neuron c) unipolar neuron d) nonpolar neuron e) pseudounipolar

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

54) Which of the following types of neurons have one axon and one dendrite emerging from the cell body and are found in the retina of the eye, inner ear, and olfactory region of the brain? a) bipolar neuron b) multipolar neuron c) unipolar neuron d) nonpolar neuron e) pseudounipolar Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

55) Which of the following types of neurons is exclusively found in the cerebellum? a) bipolar neuron b) multipolar neuron c) Purkinje cells d) unipolar neuron e) pyramidal cells Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

56) What specific type of unipolar neuron is shown in the diagram labeled B?

a) Type I cutaneous mechanoreceptor (Merkel disc) b) Corpuscle of touch (Meissner corpuscle) c) Lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscle d) nociceptor e) Purkinje cell Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

57) Which of the labeled cells in the figure is NOT a neuroglial cell?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

58) Which of the labeled cells in the diagram is a neuroglial cell that forms and maintains the myelin sheath around CNS axons?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

59) Which of the labeled cells in the diagram is a neuroglial cell that forms and maintains the myelin sheath around CNS axons?

60) Which of the labeled cells in the diagram is a neuroglial cell that removes debris and acts as a phagocyte?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

61) Which of the labeled cells in the diagram is a neuroglial cell that produces and assists in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of neurons and neuroglia and white matter and gray matter. Study Objective 2: SO 12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

62) Name the type of membrane channel that randomly opens and closes and is found in dendrites, cell bodies, and axons of all types of neurons.

a) leakage channel b) ligand-gated channel c) mechanically gated channel d) voltage-gated channel e) pressure-sensitive channel Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

63) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to chemical binding and is found in dendrites of some sensory receptors like pain receptors, and in the dendrites and cell bodies of interneurons and motor neurons. a) leakage channel b) ligand-gated channels c) mechanically gated channels d) voltage-gated channels e) pressure-sensitive channel Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

64) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to touch, pressure, vibration, or tissue stretching and is found in the auditory receptors of the ear, and in touch and pressure receptors in the skin. a) leakage channel b) ligand-gated channels c) mechanically gated channels d) voltage-gated channels e) temperature-sensitive channel

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

65) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to changes in membrane potential and is located in axons of all types of neurons. a) leakage channel b) ligand-gated channels c) mechanically gated channels d) voltage-gated channels e) temperature-sensitive channel Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

66) Chromatolysis refers to a) break up of lysosomes after neural injury. b) Wallerian degeneration after neural injury. c) plasticity of neuron. d) break up of Nissl bodies after neural injury. e) none of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.7 Explain neurogenesis and the events involved in damage and repair of peripheral nerves. Study Objective 2: SO 12.7.2 Describe the events involved in damage and repair of peripheral nerves. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Regeneration and Repair of Nervous Tissue

67) Wallerian degeneration refers to a) degeneration of the proximal end of axon and myelin sheath after neural injury. b) degeneration of the distal end of axon and myelin sheath after neural injury. c) break of Nissl bodies after neural injury. d) plasticity of neuron. e) none of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.7 Explain neurogenesis and the events involved in damage and repair of peripheral nerves. Study Objective 2: SO 12.7.2 Describe the events involved in damage and repair of peripheral nerves. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Regeneration and Repair of Nervous Tissue

Question type: Essay

68) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Describe signal transmission at a chemical synapse, summation, and excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. Study Objective 2: SO 12.4.2 Distinguish between spatial and temporal summation. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Signal Transmission at Synapses Solution: Spatial summation is summation of postsynaptic potentials in response to stimuli that occur at different locations in the membrane of a postsynaptic cell at the same time. This typically occurs when multiple presynaptic neurons synapse with one postsynaptic neuron and fire simultaneously. Temporal summation is summation of postsynaptic potentials in response to stimuli that occur at the same location in the membrane of the postsynaptic cell but at different times. This typically occurs when one presynaptic neuron fires in rapid succession leading to a summing of the resulting EPSPs, which then triggers the generation of action potentials in the postsynaptic neuron as it moves above threshold.

Question type: Multiple Choice

69) Hearing your cell phone ring in an otherwise quiet lecture hall is an example of which of the following types of nervous system functions? a) Sensory function b) Integrative function c) Motor function d) More than one of the types of nervous system functions e) None of the types of nervous system functions Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.1 Describe the structures and basic functions of the nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 12.1.2 Describe the three basic functions of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Overview of the Nervous System

70) Which of the following types of electrical signals allow rapid long-distance communication within the nervous system? a) resting potential b) nerve action potential c) muscle action potential d) graded potential e) long-term potentiation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the cellular properties that permit communication among neurons and effectors. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

71) In an action potential, the current that flows down the axon of a neuron is generated by the movement of across the membrane. a) electrons b) protons c) ions d) free radicals e) neutrons Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the cellular properties that permit communication among neurons and effectors. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons

72) In the process of spatial summation, are added together and _ are subtracted from that total to determine whether will be created at the trigger zone of the postsynaptic neuron. a) EPSPs; IPSPs; action potentials b) IPSPs; EPSPs; action potentials c) EPSPs; IPSPs; graded potentials d) IPSPs; action potentials; EPSPs e) EPSPs; action potentials; IPSPs Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Describe signal transmission at a chemical synapse, summation, and excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. Study Objective 2: SO 12.4.2 Distinguish between spatial and temporal summation. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Signal Transmission at Synapses

73) In temporal summation, a single presynaptic neuron stimulates the creation of action potentials in a postsynaptic neuron when it a) stops firing long enough to allow the postsynaptic neuron to recover. b) fires at a fast enough rate that the sum of EPSPs in the postsynaptic neuron moves above threshold. c) fires at a steady rate that allows the postsynaptic neuron to return to resting potential. d) recruits other presynaptic neurons to begin to fire. e) runs out of neurotransmitter. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Describe signal transmission at a chemical synapse, summation, and excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. Study Objective 2: SO 12.4.2 Distinguish between spatial and temporal summation. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Signal Transmission at Synapses

74) Which of the following neurotransmitters are used in virtually all of the inhibitory synapses found in the spinal cord? a) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) and acetylcholine b) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) and glycine c) epinephrine and norepinephrine d) serotonin and melatonin e) glutamate and aspartate Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Describe signal transmission at a chemical synapse, summation, and excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. Study Objective 2: SO 12.4.3 Give examples of excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters, and describe how they act. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Signal Transmission at Synapses

75) Which type of depression results in an individual with a manic-depressive illness. a) major depression. b) dysthymia. c) bipolar disorder. d) seasonal affective disorder. e) all of these disorders. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.8 Describe the disorders that affect nervous tissue. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Nervous Tissue

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 13

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the three spinal meninges is the most superficial? a) Arachnoid mater b) Dura mater c) Meninx mater d) Pia mater e) Epi mater Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

2) Which of the structures listed below contains cerebrospinal fluid? a) Epidural space b) Subarachnoid space c) Dural space d) Meninx e) Pia mater Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

Question type: Multiple Choice

3) Denticulate ligaments are thickenings of a) arachnoid mater. b) pia mater. c) dura mater. d) interstitial fluid. e) subdural space. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

4) What spinal cord feature is the area where the nerves that supply the lower limb emerge? a) Lumbar enlargement b) Filum terminale c) Cauda equina d) Cranial nerve XII e) Cervical enlargement Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.2 Describe how spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

5) Which of the following structures contains only sensory axons that conduct nerve impulses from sensory receptors in the skin, muscles and internal organs to the CNS? a) Spinal nerves b) Cauda equina c) Anterior root of spinal nerves d) Posterior root of spinal nerves e) Conus medullaris Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.2 Describe how spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

6) Which layer of protective connective tissue is the outermost covering surrounding a spinal nerve? a) dura mater b) pia mater c) endoneurium d) perineurium e) epineurium Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.1 Describe the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

7) What type(s) of axons are wrapped in a protective endoneurium? 1. Myelinated 2. Unmyelinated 3. Only dendrites are surrounded by endoneurium a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) Both 1 and 2 e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.1 Describe the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

8) Spinal nerves 1. Are parts of PNS. 2. connect the CNS to sensors and effectors in all parts of the body. 3. are named according to the region of the cord from which they emerge. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 1 & 3 e) 1, 2 & 3 Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.1 Describe the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

9) Intercostal nerves a) are also known as cervical nerves. b) do not enter into a plexus and directly connect to the structures they supply. c) are found in the C6-T4 area of the vertebral column. d) extend through the sacrum. e) do not exist in humans. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

10) A man presents with median nerve palsy in his left hand. What is the most likely site of injury? a) Dorsal scapular nerve b) Intercostal nerve

c) Lumbar plexus d) Median nerve e) Radial nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

11) Which region of the spinal cord carries nerve impulses for proprioception? a) Posterior white column b) Anterior gray horn c) Anterior white column d) Lateral white column e) Dermatome tract Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology

12) Which white matter tracts of the spinal cord carry sensory information? a) Ascending tracts b) Descending tracts c) Integration tracts d) Columnar tracts e) Epidural tracts Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology

13) Which type of descending motor pathway conveys nerve impulses that originate in the cerebral cortex and are destined to cause precise, voluntary movements of skeletal muscles? a) Indirect pathway b) Direct pathway c) Reflex arc d) Somatic arc e) Muscle spindle Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology

14) Which type of descending motor pathway originates in the brainstem and governs automatic movements that help regulate muscle tone, posture and balance? a) Indirect pathway b) Direct pathway c) Reflex arc d) Somatic arc e) Muscle spindles Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology

15) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc monitors body conditions? a) Sensory receptor

b) Integrating center c) Motor neuron d) Effector e) Interneuron Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology

16) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc receives sensory information and decides how to respond to a change in the body’s condition? a) Sensory receptor b) Sensory neuron c) Motor neuron d) Effector e) Integration center Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology

17) Which of the following parts of a nervous reflex arc is usually a muscle or gland? a) Sensory receptor b) Sensory neuron c) Motor neuron d) Effector e) Integration center Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology

18) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc would have a cell body in the posterior root ganglion? a) Sensory receptor cell b) Sensory neuron c) Motor neuron d) Effector e) Interneuron Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology

19) A nerve impulse initiated at a muscle spindle has to travel through which of the following structures to get into the spinal column? a) Anterior root of spinal nerve b) Posterior root of spinal nerve c) Tectospinal tract d) Central canal e) Lateral reticulospinal tract Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology

20) In response to a muscle being stretched, a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes 1. contraction of the agonist muscle. 2. relaxation of the antagonist muscle. 3. contraction of the antagonist muscle. 4. relaxation of the agonist muscle. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2 Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology

21) In response to a tendon being stretched excessively, a tendon organ initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes 1. contraction of the agonist muscle. 2. relaxation of the antagonist muscle. 3. contraction of the antagonist muscle. 4. relaxation of the agonist muscle. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 3 and 4 Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology

22) A somatic spinal reflex that involves one effector muscle being stimulated while the opposing muscle is inhibited is called innervation. a) reversal b) relaxed c) representative d) reciprocal e) relegated Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology

23) Which of following is NOT a function of the spinal reflexes that use muscle spindles and tendon organs as sensors? a) Awareness of muscle tension in body b) Prevention of damage to muscles c) Protection of spinal nerves d) Prevention of damage to tendons e) Maintenance of muscle tone Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology

24) A typical spinal nerve has how many connections to the spinal cord? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.1 Describe the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

25) Which branch of a spinal nerve serves the deep muscles and skin of the posterior surface of the trunk? a) Meningeal branch b) Rami communicantes c) Brachial plexus d) Posterior ramus e) Anterior ramus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

26) The thoracic nerves are also called the a) brachial nerves. b) lumbar nerves. c) sacral nerves. d) cervical nerves. e) intercostals nerves. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

27) Where is the subarachnoid space?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

28) Where is the subdural space?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

29) Where is the arachnoid mater?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

30) Where is the pia mater?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

31) Which layer is the dura mater?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

32) Which of the labeled structures contains cerebral spinal fluid?

a) A b) D c) E d) F e) All of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

33) Which of the labeled structures carries exclusively sensory information towards the spinal cord?

a) B b) C c) F d) G e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

34) Which of the labeled structures carries exclusively motor information away from the spinal cord?

a) B b) C c) F d) G e) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

35) Where is the pia mater?

a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

36) Where is the posterior ramus?

a) B b) C c) G d) H e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

37) Where is the epidural space?

a) A b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

38) Where is the anterior (ventral) root of a spinal nerve?

a) A b) B c) C d) G e) H Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

39) Where is the posterior median sulcus?

a) A b) E c) F d) H e) J Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

40) Where is the lateral white column?

a) C b) D c) G d) H e) I Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

41) Where is the anterior gray horn?

a) B b) C c) H d) I e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

42) Where is the anterior white column?

a) B b) C c) H d) I e) J Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

43) Which portion of the spinal cord contains cell bodies and axons of interneurons as well as incoming axons of sensory neurons?

a) B b) C c) D d) H e) I Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

44) Which portion of the spinal cord contains the cell bodies of somatic motor neurons and motor nuclei?

a) B b) C c) D d) H e) I Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

Question type: Essay

45) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Solution: The spinal cord is slightly flattened in its anterior-posterior dimension. It has two grooves: anterior median fissure and shallower posterior median sulcus. The central canal contains CSF. The gray commissure surrounds the central canal, and forms the cross bar of the H. It contains the axons that connect the two sides of the gray horns (anterior, posterior, lateral). White matter surrounds the gray and is subdivided into columns (anterior, posterior, lateral). The anterior white commissure is anterior to the gray commissure.

46) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Solution: The spinal cord is roughly cylindrical, but slightly flattened anterior/posterior. It extends from the medulla to the superior border of L2. The length ranges from 42-45 cm and is approximately 2 cm in diameter. There is a cervical enlargement from C4-T1 and a lumbar enlargement from T9-T12. The conus medullaris is the tapered inferior end. The filum terminale is an extension of the pia mater that anchors the cord to the coccyx. The cauda equina is the roots of spinal nerves angling inferiorly in the vertebral canal from the end of the spinal cord. 31 pairs of spinal nerves leave the cord at regular intervals through the intervertebral foramina.

47) Name and describe the locations of the four major plexuses of spinal nerves. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves Solution: 1. Cervical: alongside C1 through C4; 2. Brachial: inferior and lateral to C4 through T1 and superior to rib, posterior to clavicle; 3. Lumbar: lateral to L1 through L4 passing obliquely

posterior to psoas major and anterior to quadratus lumborum; 4. Sacral: L4-S3; anterior to sacrum.

48) Identify and describe the function of each of the components of a spinal reflex arc. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology Solution: 1. Receptor: responds to specific changes in body conditions by producing graded potential; 2. Sensory neuron: conducts impulse from receptor to integrating center in gray matter of spinal cord; 3. Integrating center: site of synapse between sensory and other neurons; decision-making area in gray matter of spinal cord; 4. Motor neuron: conducts impulse from integrating center to effector; 5. Effector: is the structure that promotes change in body conditions by responding to motor nerve impulse, such as a muscle or a gland.

Question type: Multiple Choice

49) Which of the following structures is labeled B in the diagram?

a) Lumbar enlargement b) Cervical enlargement c) Conus medullaris d) Cauda equina e) Obturator nerve Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

50) Which of the following structures is labeled D in the diagram?

a) Lumbar enlargement b) Cervical enlargement c) Conus medullaris d) Cauda equina e) Obturator nerve Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

51) Which of the following structures is labeled G in the diagram?

a) Lumbar enlargement b) Cervical enlargement c) Conus medullaris d) Cauda equina e) Obturator nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

52) The structure labeled A in the diagram belongs to which group of spinal nerves?

a) cervical nerves b) thoracic nerves c) lumbar nerves d) sacral nerves e) coccygeal nerves Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.2 Describe how spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

53) The structure labeled F in the diagram belongs to which group of spinal nerves?

a) cervical nerves b) thoracic nerves c) lumbar nerves d) sacral nerves e) coccygeal nerves Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.2 Describe how spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

54) The structure labeled I in the diagram belongs to which group of spinal nerves?

a) cervical nerves b) thoracic nerves c) lumbar nerves d) sacral nerves e) coccygeal nerves Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.2 Describe how spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

55) Which of the following nerves is labeled A in the diagram?

a) phrenic nerve b) ulnar nerve c) intercostal nerve d) femoral nerve e) tibial nerve Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

56) Which of the following nerves is labeled D in the diagram?

a) phrenic nerve b) ulnar nerve c) intercostal nerve d) femoral nerve e) tibial nerve Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

57) Which of the following nerves is labeled E in the diagram?

a) phrenic nerve b) ulnar nerve c) intercostal nerve d) femoral nerve e) tibial nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

58) Which of the following nerves is labeled B in the diagram?

a) phrenic nerve b) axillary nerve c) intercostal nerve d) femoral nerve e) common fibular nerve Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

59) The nerve labeled A in the diagram arises from which plexus?

a) cervical plexus b) brachial plexus c) lumbar plexus d) sacral plexus e) coccygeal plexus Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

60) The nerve labeled B in the diagram arises from which plexus?

a) cervical plexus b) brachial plexus c) lumbar plexus d) sacral plexus e) coccygeal plexus Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

61) Which nerve labeled in the diagram does NOT arise from any plexus?

a) A b) B c) D d) E e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

62) Which nerves labeled in the diagram form the sciatic nerve?

a) B and C b) A and B c) F and G d) E and F e) D and E Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

63) Which of the following is a virus infection of the peripheral nervous system caused by herpes zoster, a virus that also causes chickenpox?

a) areflexia b) shingles c) poliomyelitis d) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis e) menigitis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.8 Describe the disorders that affect the spinal cord Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatice Imbalances that Affect the Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves

64) Which of the following is a degenerative disease of the spinal cord? a) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis b) shingles c) poliomyelitis d) areflexia e) all of these are degenerative diseases of the spinal cord Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.8 Describe the disorders that affect the spinal cord Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatice Imbalances that Affect the Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves

Question type: Essay

65) Describe the basic anatomy of a spinal nerve plexus. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves Solution: Axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerves do not go directly to the body structures they supply. Instead, they form networks called plexuses on both the left and right sides of the

body by joining with various numbers of axons from anterior rami of adjacent spinal nerves. Thus, the nerves that emerge from a plexus and innervate body organs contain nerve fibers from multiple spinal nerves.

Question type: Multiple Choice

66) Which of the following regions of the spinal cord contains a conspicuous enlargement? a) filum terminale b) cervical region c) thoracic region d) sacral region e) coccygeal region Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

67) The area of the skin that provides sensory input to the CNS via one pair of spinal nerve is called a) a dermatome. b) a microtome. c) perineurium. d) a fascicle. e) an epitome. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Describe the clinical significance of dermatomes. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

Question type: Essay

68) Discuss the clinical significance of dermatomes. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Describe the clinical significance of dermatomes. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves Solution: Knowing which spinal cord segments supply each dermatome makes it possible to locate damaged regions of the spinal cord. If the skin in a particular region is stimulated but the sensation is not perceived, the nerves supplying that dermatome are probably damaged.

Question type: Multiple Choice

69) A severed obturator nerve will lead into paralysis of which region of the body? a) Cervical b) Thoracic c) Lumbar d) Thigh e) Arms Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

70) During childbirth, anesthesia is administered into the epidural space of the spinal column between which of the following vertebrae? 1. L4 and L5 2. T3 and T4 3. S4 and S5 4. C3 and C4 a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only

d) 4 only e) Both 1 and 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the protective structures and the gross anatomical features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

71) Which of the following spinal nerves DOES NOT travel through an intervertebral foramen to reach its destination? a) cervical spinal nerve 1 b) thoracic spinal nerve 12 c) lumbar spinal nerve 2 d) sacral spinal nerve 1 e) cervical spinal nerve 7 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.2 Describe how spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

72) The cell bodies of the sensory neurons that carry information from the periphery to the spinal cord are located in the a) anterior white commissure. b) central canal. c) lateral gray horn. d) posterior root ganglion. e) posterior gray horn. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.2 Describe how spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

73) Which of the following lists the connective tissue coverings of the axons, fascicles, and entire nerve in the correct order? a) endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium b) endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium c) perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium d) epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.1 Describe the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

74) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of dermatomes? a) Can be used clinically to determine area of spinal cord damage b) Each dermatome is only served by a single spinal nerve c) Complete anesthesia of a single dermatome often requires blocking three adjacent spinal nerves d) Dermatomes are designated based on the cranial or spinal nerve that serves that area of the skin e) The dermatome serving the face is supplied by the trigeminal cranial nerve Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Describe the clinical significance of dermatomes. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

75) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the spinothalamic tract? a) Begins in the spinal cord b) Terminates in the thalamus c) Found in the white matter of the spinal cord d) Carries motor information down the cord

e) Is composed of multiple axons carrying information in the spinal cord Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Spinal Cord Physiology

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 14

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) The brain and spinal cord develop from the

neural tube.

a) mesodermal b) endodermal c) ectodermal d) cranial e) caudal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.19 Describe how the parts of the brain develop. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.9 Development of the Nervous System

2) Which brain vesicle gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct? a) Prosencephalon b) Mesencephalon c) Rhombencephalon d) Telencephalon e) Myelencephalon Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.19 Describe how the parts of the brain develop. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.9 Development of the Nervous System

3) Which of the following is NOT a major region of the brain? a) Brain stem b) Cerebellum c) Cauda equina d) Diencephalon e) Cerebrum

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Identify the major parts of the brain. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply

4) Which of the following brain structures consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain? a) Brain stem b) Cerebrum c) Cerebellum d) Diencephalon e) Dura mater Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Identify the major parts of the brain. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply

5) Which of the following brain structures consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus? a) Cerebellum b) Brain stem c) Cerebrum d) Diencephalon e) Dura mater Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Identify the major parts of the brain. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply

6) Which of the following meninges has two layers?

a) Spinal dura mater b) Cranial dura mater c) Spinal arachnoid mater d) Cranial arachnoid mater e) All of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Describe how the brain is protected. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply

7) Which extension of the dura mater separates the two hemispheres of the cerebrum? a) Falx cerebri b) Falx cerebelli c) Tentorium cerebelli d) Tentorium cerebri e) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Describe how the brain is protected. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply

8) Which of the following structures protect the brain by preventing the movement of harmful substances and pathogens from the blood into the brain tissue? a) Dura mater b) Arachnoid mater c) Cerebrospinal fluid d) Blood brain barrier e) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Describe how the brain is protected. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply

9) Cerebrospinal fluid carries small amounts of chemicals like glucose from the neurons and neuroglia.

a) interstitial fluid b) bile c) intracellular fluid d) arachnoid space e) blood Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Cerebrospinal Fluid

10) Which of the following is a fluid-filled cavity located in each hemisphere of the cerebrum? a) Lateral ventricle b) Septum pellucidum c) Fourth ventricle d) Third ventricle e) Corpus callosum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Cerebrospinal Fluid

11) Which of the following is a narrow fluid-filled cavity found along the midline superior to the hypothalamus and between the right and left halves of the thalamus? a) Lateral ventricle b) Septum pellucidum c) Third ventricle d) Fourth ventricle e) Fifth ventricle Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Cerebrospinal Fluid

12) Which of the following describes a function of cerebrospinal fluid? 1. Mechanical protection 2. pH homeostasis 3. Circulation a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) Both 1 and 2 e) All of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Cerebrospinal Fluid

13) Which of the following are networks of capillaries that produce cerebrospinal fluid and are found in the walls of the ventricles of the brain? a) Choroid plexuses b) Lateral apertures c) Interventricular foramina d) Brachial plexuses e) Aqueduct of the midbrain Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Cerebrospinal Fluid

14) Which fingerlike projections found in the dural venous sinuses reabsorb cerebrospinal fluid? a) Choroid plexuses b) Microvilli c) Arachnoid villi d) Dural villi e) Lemnisci

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Cerebrospinal Fluid

15) Which of the following disorders is the most common brain disorder? a) Transient ischemic attack b) Alzheimer’s disease c) Cerebrovascular accident d) Brain tumor e) Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.21 Describe the disorders that affect the brain and cranial nerves. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Brain 16) Which brain structure is responsible for the “startle reflex” in response to loud sounds? a) Superior colliculus b) Inferior colliculus c) Pontine nucleus d) Medial lemniscus e) Arbor vitae Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation

17) Which region of the brain contains the pontine respiratory group and apneustic areas that help control respiration? a) Spinal cord b) Midbrain c) Pons d) Thalamus

e) Cerebellum Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation

18) Pyramids are a) gray matter protrusions found on the medulla oblongata. b) white matter protrusions found on the medulla oblongata. c) gray matter protrusions found on the pons. d) white matter protrusions found on the pons. e) a network of white and gray matter found in the medulla oblongata. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation

19) Which region of the brain contains the inferior olivary nucleus? a) Pons b) Medulla oblongata c) Pyramids d) Hypothalamus e) Midbrain Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation

20) Which of the following is a branch of the trigeminal (V) nerve? a) Opthalmic nerve b) Maxillary nerve

c) Mandibular nerve d) All of these are branches of the trigeminal (V) nerve e) None of these are branches of the trigeminal (V) nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.12 Identify the origin of the trigeminal (V) nerve in the brain, describe the foramina through which each of its three major branches exits the skull, and explain the function of each branch. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.D Trigeminal (V) Nerve

21) Which of the following is a nucleus found in the medulla oblongata that receives sensory information associated with touch, pressure and vibration? a) Tectum b) Superior colliculus c) Substantia nigra d) Pontine nucleus e) Gracile nucleus Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation

22) Which of the following is a nucleus found in the midbrain that releases dopamine? a) Substantia nigra b) Inferior olivary nucleus c) Inferior colliculus d) Cerebral peduncle e) pontine nucleus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation

23) Which portion of the cerebellum contributes to equilibrium and balance? a) Tentorium cerebelli b) Anterior lobe c) Posterior lobe d) Flocculonodular lobe e) Transverse fissure Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 The Cerebellum

24) The cerebellar cortex consists of folia, which are a) parallel folds of white matter. b) found in the vermis only. c) portions of the pyramids. d) parallel folds of gray matter. e) used in the RAS system. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 The Cerebellum

25) Which structure carries sensory information coming from proprioceptors found in the trunk and limbs into the cerebellum? a) Inferior cerebellar peduncle b) Middle cerebellar peduncle c) Superior cerebellar peduncle d) Anterior lobe e) Posterior lobe Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 The Cerebellum

26) Which region of the brain serves as the major relay station for most sensory impulses that reach the primary sensory areas of the cerebral cortex from the spinal cord and brain stem? a) Thalamus b) Hypothalamus c) Epithalamus d) Pons e) Midbrain Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Describe the components and functions of the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus). Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 The Diencephalon

27) Which of the following are NOT controlled by the hypothalamus? a) Hunger b) Thirst c) Blood calcium concentration d) Emotional behavior e) Body temperature Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Describe the components and functions of the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus). Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 The Diencephalon

28) Which of the following glands is directly controlled by hormones produced by the hypothalamus? a) Posterior pituitary gland b) Anterior pituitary gland c) Thymus gland d) Pancreas e) Pineal gland Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Describe the components and functions of the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus). Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 The Diencephalon

29) Which region of the brain contains the pineal gland? a) Thalamus b) Cerebellum c) Hypothalamus d) Cerebrum e) Epithalalmus Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Describe the components and functions of the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus). Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 The Diencephalon

30) During brain development, the gyri of the cerebrum are formed because a) the white matter enlarges faster than the overlying gray matter. b) the cerebrum grows faster than the dura mater. c) the hypothalamus is larger than the epithalamus. d) the gray matter grows faster than the underlying white matter. e) the lobes of the cerebrum are not symmetrical. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.1 Describe the cortex, gyri, fissures, and sulci of the cerebrum. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum

31) Which of the following structures conducts nerve impulses between the two different hemispheres of the cerebrum? a) Association tracts b) Corpus callosum c) Projection tracts d) Pyramids e) Sulci

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.3 Describe the tracts that compose the cerebral white matter. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum

32) Together the lentiform and caudate nuclei are known as the a) globus pallidus. b) putamen. c) medial geniculate nucleus. d) corpus striatum. e) internal capsule. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.4 Describe the nuclei that compose the basal nuclei. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum

33) Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for sensing body touch and temperature? a) Broca’s area b) Primary visual area c) Common integrative area d) Prefrontal cortex area e) Primary somatosensory area Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.1 Describe the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex

34) Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for vision? a) Broca’s area b) Primary visual area c) Common integrative area d) Primary olfactory area e) Primary somatosensory area Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization and brain wave activity. Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.1 Describe the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex

35) Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for conscious movements of the body? a) Broca’s area b) Primary visual area c) Somatosensory association area d) Primary motor area e) Primary somatosensory area Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.1 Describe the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex

36) Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for speech? a) Broca’s area b) Primary gustatory area c) Common integrative area d) Prefrontal cortex area

e) Primary somatosensory area Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.1 Describe the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex

37) Which of the following cranial nerves carries sensory information coming from the nasal cavity to the olfactory area of the cerebrum? a) olfactory (I) nerve (cranial nerve I) b) trigeminal (V) nerve (cranial nerve V) c) abducens (VI) nerve (cranial nerve VI) d) vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve (cranial nerve VIII) e) vagus (X) nerve (cranial nerve X) Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.9 Identify the termination of the olfactory (I) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it passes, and its function. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.A Olfactory (I) Nerve

38) Which of the following cranial nerves control movements of the eyeball? a) optic (II) nerve, oculomotor (III) nerve, and trochlear (IV) nerve b) olfactory (I) nerve, trigeminal (V) nerve, and vagus (X) nerve c) oculomotor (III) nerve, glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve, and trigeminal (V) nerve d) oculomotor (III) nerve, trochlear (IV) nerve, and abducens (VI) nerve e) vagus (X) nerve, accessory (XI) nerve, and hypoglossal (XII) nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves

39) Cranial nerve V is also known as the

nerve.

a) trochlear b) oculomotor c) trigeminal d) vagus e) abducens Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.12 Identify the origin of the trigeminal (V) nerve in the brain, describe the foramina through which each of its three major branches exits the skull, and explain the function of each branch. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.D Trigeminal (V) Nerve

40) Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for regulating visceral activity? a) Oculomotor b) Trigeminal c) Spinal accessory d) Facial e) Vagus Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.16 Identify the origin of the vagus (X) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.H Vagus (X) Nerve

41) Which of the following cranial nerves is primarily responsible for changing facial expressions? a) Oculomotor b) Trigeminal c) Spinal accessory d) Facial e) Vagus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 14.13 Identify the origins of the facial nerve (VII) in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.E Facial (VII) Nerve

42) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram is the thalamus?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Describe the components and functions of the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus). Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 The Diencephalon

43) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram contains centers that control heart rate and blood pressure?

a) A b) B c) D d) E e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation

44) This major portion of the brain is used to monitor movements initiated by the motor areas of the cerebrum.

a) B b) E c) F d) C e) A Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 The Cerebellum

Question type: Essay

45) In 1848, a railroad worker named Phineas Gage was seriously injured during an explosion on the job. A tapered metal rod ranging from 0.25 inches to 1.25 inches in diameter and over 3 feet long entered his skull just under his left cheek bone and exited through the top of his skull. The rod was found over twenty feet away. Amazingly, Gage lived even though he suffered massive damage to the left front of his brain. His personality and intellectual abilities changed, however. Before the accident, he was respected as a smart, capable and even-tempered man. After the accident, he was foul-mouthed and bad-tempered and could not make up his mind. In the years immediately preceding his death, he began to have epileptic seizures. Explain the changes observed in Mr. Gage based on your knowledge of the brain.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, and brain wave activity. Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.1 Describe the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex Solution: The accident apparently damaged the frontal lobe and specifically the prefrontal cortex of the left side of Mr. Gage’s brain. The frontal lobe is involved in memory and intellect. The prefrontal cortex is involved in judgment, ethics, and conscious. The changes Mr. Gage experienced indicate that the right side of his brain could not compensate for the losses on the left side of the brain. It is remarkable that the story doesn’t mention that Mr. Gage lost some motor function on his right side since it is controlled by the primary motor region on left side of the brain. There is also no mention of loss of speech, which is largely processed on the left side of the brain. Perhaps the iron rod just missed those areas. As far as the epileptic seizures are concerned, it is possible that the accident damaged the basal ganglia to some degree. As he aged and lost connections between neurons that damage might have become more evident as the basal ganglia could no longer communicate effectively with the rest of the brain.

46) Describe the structural and functional relationship between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Describe the components and functions of the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus). Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 The Diencephalon Solution: The hypothalamus releases regulatory hormones into the capillary networks in the median eminence to increase or decrease hormone production and secretion from the anterior pituitary. Axons from the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei extend through the infundibulum to the posterior pituitary. Their cell bodies produce oxytocin or antidiuretic hormone, which through axonal transport these hormones are moved into the posterior pituitary where they are stored and released from the axon terminals.

Question type: Multiple Choice

47) Anosmia may result from head injuries in which the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone is fractured. This condition results in impaired function of which cranial nerve in the diagram?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.9 Identify the termination of the olfactory nerve (I) in the brain, the foramen through which it passes, and its function. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.A Olfactory (I) Nerve

48) Which cranial nerve in the diagram is primarily involved in the sense of vision?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.10 Identify the termination of the optic nerve (II) in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.B Optic (II) Nerve

49) Which cranial nerve in the diagram has a somatic motor function primarily involved in moving the upper eyelid and eyeball?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (IV) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves

50) Which cranial nerve in the diagram has an autonomic motor function primarily involved in near vision accommodation and constriction of the pupil?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves

51) Damage to which of the cranial nerves in the diagram would result in strabismus?

a) A b) B c) C d) E e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves

52) Which cranial nerve in the diagram has a somatic motor function primarily involved in chewing?

a) E b) G c) H d) I e) J Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.12 Identify the origin of the trigeminal (V) nerve in the brain, describe the foramina through which each of its three major branches exits the skull, and explain the function of each branch. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.D Trigeminal (V) Nerve

53) The maxillary branch of this labeled cranial nerve is found in the area where dentists apply anesthetic drugs for numbing the upper jaw.

a) E b) G c) H d) I e) J Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.12 Identify the origin of the trigeminal (V) nerve in the brain, describe the foramina through which each of its three major branches exits the skull, and explain the function of each branch. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.D Trigeminal (V) Nerve

54) Which cranial nerve in the diagram innervates the lateral rectus muscle?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves

55) Damage to which cranial nerve in the diagram will cause the inability of an eyeball to move laterally beyond the midpoint?

56) Which cranial nerve in the diagram has an autonomic motor function primarily involved in the secretion of saliva and tears?

a) B b) C c) D d) F e) G Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.13 Identify the origins of the facial (VII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which its exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.E facial (VII) Nerve

57) Damage to which cranial nerve in the diagram by shingles or Lyme disease produces Bell’s palsy?

a) F b) G c) H d) I e) L Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.13 Identify the origins of the facial (VII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which its exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.E facial (VII) Nerve

58) Which cranial nerve in the diagram has an autonomic motor function primarily involved in stimulating secretion of saliva?

a) F b) I c) J d) K e) L Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.15 Identify the origin of the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.G Glossopharyngeal (IX) Nerve

59) Which cranial nerve in the diagram causes heart rate to decrease?

a) H b) I c) J d) K e) L Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.16 Identify the origin of the vagus (X) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.H Vagus (X) Nerve

60) Which cranial nerve in the diagram is involved with speech and swallowing and has a purely motor function?

a) H b) I c) J d) K e) L Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.12 Identify the origin of the trigeminal nerve (V) in the brain, describe the foramina through which each of its three major branches exits the skull, and explain the function of each branch. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.D Trigeminal (V) Nerve

61) Hand preference when writing or throwing is an example of a) cranial nerve damage. b) hemispheric lateralization. c) damage to the olfactory nerve. d) damage to the Broca’s area. e) None of these choices.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization and brain wave activity. Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.2 Explain the significance of hemispheric lateralization. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex

62) Patients with damage in the left hemisphere often exhibit aphasia (inability to use or comprehend words). This is an example of a) apraxia. b) delirium. c) cerebral lacerations. d) hemispheric lateralization. e) decussations. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization and brain wave activity. Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.2 Explain the significance of hemispheric lateralization. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex

63) An electroencephalogram (EEG) measures brain waves primarily generated by a) neurons in the pons. b) neurons in the medulla oblongata. c) neurons in the thalamus. d) neurons in the cerebral cortex. e) neurons in the cerebellum. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization and brain wave activity. Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.3 Define brain waves and indicate their significance. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex

64) This type of brain wave occurs at regular intervals when a person is awake but not when a person is sleeping. a) Alpha waves b) Beta waves c) Theta waves d) Delta waves. e) All of the selections are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization and brain wave activity. Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.3 Define brain waves and indicate their significance. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex

65) Brain waves that generally appear during periods of sensory input and mental activity are called a) alpha waves. b) beta waves. c) theta waves. d) delta waves. e) P waves. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization and brain wave activity. Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.3 Define brain waves and indicate their significance. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex

66) Brain waves that appear during deep sleep are called a) alpha waves. b) beta waves. c) theta waves. d) delta waves. e) P waves.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization and brain wave activity. Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.3 Define brain waves and indicate their significance. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex

67) Blood flows to the brain through the vein.

arteries and away from the brain through the

a) internal carotid and vertebral; internal jugular b) external carotid and vertebral; external jugular c) internal jugular and vertebral; internal carotid d) internal carotid and axillary; internal jugular e) external jugular and axillary; external jugular Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.3 Describe the blood supply of the brain. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply

68) Which of the following statements best describes the structure of the blood-brain barrier that provides its functional characteristics? a) Processes of astrocytes wrap tightly around capillaries in the brain. b) Tight junctions tightly seal endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain. c) Gap junctions tightly seal endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain. d) Spot desmosomes tightly link capillary endothelial cells together. e) The basement membrane of capillaries in the brain contains extremely small pores. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.3 Describe the blood supply of the brain. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply

69) A deep indentation found along the medial plane that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres is called the a) septum pellucidum. b) transverse fissure. c) tentorium cerebelli. d) corpus callosum. e) longitudinal fissure. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.1 Describe the cortex, gyri, fissures, and sulci of the cerebrum. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum

70) The central sulcus of the cerebrum separates the a) two cerebral hemispheres. b) frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. c) frontal lobe from the temporal lobe. d) parietal lobe from the temporal lobe. e) temporal lobe from the occipital lobe. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.2 List and locate the lobes of the cerebrum. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum

71) Which lobe of the cerebrum is found deep to the other four lobes and thus cannot be observed from the surface? a) occipital lobe b) temporal lobe c) parietal lobe d) insula e) corpus callosum Answer: d

Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.2 List and locate the lobes of the cerebrum. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum

72) Which of the following types of tracts are used to conduct nerve impulses between gyri within the same cerebral hemisphere? a) Association tracts b) Commissural tracts c) Projection tracts d) Mammillothalamic tracts e) Stria medullaris Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.3 Describe the tracts that compose the cerebral white matter. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum

73) Which three areas of gray matter found in each cerebral hemisphere are important in helping to control the initiation and termination of skeletal muscle movements? a) red nuclei b) vestibular nuclei c) lateral olivary nuclei d) basal nuclei e) autonomic ganglia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.4 Describe the nuclei that compose the basal nuclei. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum

74) Damage to which portion of the limbic system results in loss of memory of recent events and difficulty committing anything new to memory?

a) amygdala b) dentate gyrus c) cingulate gyrus d) hippocampus e) septal nuclei Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.5 List the structures and describe the functions of the limbic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum

75) A common type of disabling senile dementia that affects about 11% of the population over 65 and results in loss of reasoning and ability to care for oneself, is called a) agnosia. b) prosopagnosia. c) Alzheimer disease. d) transient ischemic attack syndrome. e) amylotrophic lateral sclerosis. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.20 Describe the effects of aging on the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.10 Aging and the Nervous System

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 15

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Interoceptors are found in a) blood vessels b) visceral organs c) muscles d) all of these choices e) none of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems

2) Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activities by 1. increasing activities in effector tissue. 2. decreasing activities in effector tissue. 3. changing the direction of impulse conduction across synapses. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) Both 1 and 2 e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems

3) The autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling a) exocrine glands.

b) skeletal muscle. c) cardiac muscle. d) smooth muscle. e) endocrine glands. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems

4) Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct? a) Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve. b) Has myelinated axons. c) Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway. d) Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord. e) Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.1 Describe preganglionic and postganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

5) A postganglionic neuron in the ANS a) releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell. b) is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway. c) has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord. d) has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves. e) carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.1 Describe preganglionic and postganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

6) Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon? a) Somatic motor neurons b) Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons c) Postganglionic sympathetic neurons d) Preganglionic sympathetic neurons e) Somatosensory neurons. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.1 Describe preganglionic and postganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

7) Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS? a) Ganglia primarily found in the head b) Stimulates sweat glands c) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessel walls d) Short preganglionic neurons e) Thoracolumbar output Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

8) Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS? a) Long preganglionic neurons b) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessels walls c) Vagus nerve output d) Ganglia found near visceral effectors e) Sacral spinal cord output

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

9) Which of the following terms is used to designate an effector that is innervated by both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the ANS? a) Preganglionic stimulation b) Biganglion excitation c) Multi-autonomic output d) Bipolar innervation e) Dual innervation Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems

10) Which of the following is NOT a sympathetic prevertebral ganglion? a) Celiac ganglion b) Ciliary ganglion c) Superior mesenteric ganglion d) Inferior mesenteric ganglion e) All are prevertebral ganglia Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

11) Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic terminal ganglion? a) Ciliary ganglion b) Pterygopalatine ganglion c) Submandibular ganglion d) Otic ganglion e) All are parasympathetic terminal ganglia Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

12) The largest autonomic plexus is called the a) superior mesenteric plexus. b) renal plexus. c) cardiac plexus. d) celiac plexus. e) hypogastric plexus. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

13) Which autonomic plexus is located anterior to the fifth lumbar vertebra and serves the pelvic viscera? a) Inferior mesenteric plexus b) Renal plexus c) Celiac plexus d) Hypogastric plexus e) Superior mesenteric plexus Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

14) Which of the following are structures containing sympathetic preganglionic axons that connect the anterior ramus of the spinal nerve with the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk? a) Lumbar splanchnic nerve b) Greater splanchnic nerve c) Inferior cervical ganglion d) White rami communicantes e) Gray rami communicantes Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

15) Which ganglia contain the cell bodies of the parasympathetic postganglionic neurons that serve the parotid salivary glands? a) Ciliary ganglia b) Pterygopalatine ganglia c) Submandibular ganglia d) Otic ganglia e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

16) The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are a) nicotine and adrenaline. b) muscarine and acetylcholine. c) norepinephrine and muscarine. d) norepinephrine and acetylcholine. e) somatostatin and nicotine. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors

17) Acetylcholine is released by postganglionic neurons and is removed from the synaptic cleft at a rate than norepinephrine. a) sympathetic; slower b) sympathetic; faster c) parasympathetic; slower d) parasympathetic; faster e) both parasympathetic and sympathetic; slower Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors

18) Which of the following are types of cholinergic receptors? a) Nicotinic and adrenergic receptors b) Muscarinic and somatic receptors c) Adrenergic and somatic receptors d) Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors e) Somatostatic and nicotinic receptors Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors

19) Autonomic tone is regulated by the a) medulla oblongata. b) cerebellum. c) cerebrum. d) vermis. e) hypothalamus. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS

20) Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the parasympathetic division of the ANS? a) Decreased heart rate b) Airway dilation c) Decreased pupil diameter d) Increased secretion of digestive juices e) Increased gastric motility Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS

21) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the longer lasting and more widespread effects observed with sympathetic activation versus parasympathetic activation? a) Norepinephrine is more slowly removed from synapses than ACh. b) Additional norepinephrine is released from the adrenal gland. c) Greater divergence occurs in sympathetic neural pathways. d) Blood flow to the hypothalamus is decreased when sympathetic activation occurs.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS

22) Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the sympathetic division? a) Increased heart rate b) Airway constriction c) Decreased blood flow to kidneys and gastrointestinal tract d) Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, liver and fat e) Increased blood glucose level Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS

23) What type of nervous system pathway is shown in this figure?

a) Somatic motor pathway b) Somatic sensory pathway c) Autonomic motor pathway d) Autonomic sensory pathway e) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems

24) What type of neurotransmitter is used by the pathway shown in the figure?

a) Norepinephrine b) Acetylcholine c) Epinephrine d) Dopamine e) Serotonin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors

25) What region does the superior cervical ganglion primarily serve?

a) Abdominal b) Pelvic c) Skin d) Head e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

26) Which ganglion supplies the stomach with postganglionic neurons?

a) Middle cervical ganglion b) Inferior cervical ganglion c) Celiac ganglion d) Inferior mesenteric ganglion e) Ciliary ganglion Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

27) Which nerve supplies the inferior mesenteric ganglion with preganglionic neurons?

a) Lumbar splanchnic nerve b) Lesser splanchnic nerve c) Greater splanchnic nerve d) Cardiac accelerator e) Phrenic nerve Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

28) The superior mesenteric ganglion receives nervous input from the

a) lesser splanchnic nerve. b) least splanchnic nerve. c) greater thoracic splanchnic nerve d) a and b only e) a, b, and c Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

29) Preganglionic neurons are supplied to the submandibular ganglion by which cranial nerve?

a) Oculomotor (III) nerve (cranial nerve III) b) Facial (VII) nerve (cranial nerve VII) c) Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve (cranial nerve IX) d) Vagus (X) nerve (cranial nerve X) e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

30) Postganglionic neurons from the otic ganglion supply the

a) parotid gland. b) heart. c) lungs. d) liver. e) ureter. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

31) Which of the following nerves provides innervation for the external genitals?

a) Oculomotor (III) nerve (cranial nerve III) b) Facial (VII) nerve (cranial nerve VII) c) Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve (cranial nerve IX) d) Vagus (X) nerve (cranial nerve X) e) Pelvic splanchnic nerve Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

32) Parasympathetic innervation of the liver occurs through

a) oculomotor (III) nerve (cranial nerve III). b) facial (VII) nerve (cranial nerve VII). c) glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve (cranial nerve IX). d) vagus (X) nerve (cranial nerve X). e) pelvic splanchnic nerve. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

33) Where is the right vagus nerve in the figure?

a) A b) B c) C d) H e) K Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

34) Which of the following labeled structures is the right sympathetic trunk ganglion?

a) E b) B c) L d) M e) N Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

35) Where is the cardiac plexus in the figure?

a) A b) B c) H d) I e) J Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

36) Where is the inferior mesenteric ganglion and plexus in the figure?

a) E b) F c) G d) M e) N Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

37) Where is the hypogastric plexus in the figure?

a) J b) K c) D d) F e) N Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

Question type: Essay

38) Describe the possible ways in which the axon of a sympathetic preganglionic neuron connects with postganglionic neurons after it reaches the sympathetic trunk ganglia. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Solution: The axon may 1) synapse with postganglionic neurons in the first ganglion it reaches, 2) ascend or descend to higher or lower ganglia via sympathetic chains, or 3) continue without synapsing through sympathetic trunk ganglia to end at a prevertebral ganglion and synapse with postganglionic neurons there. 4) also pass, without synapsing, through the sympathetic trunk ganglion and a prevertebral ganglion and then extend to chromaffin cells of the adrenal medullae that are functionally similar to sympathetic postganglionic neurons.

39) Explain why the sympathetic division of the ANS has more widespread and longer-lasting effects than the parasympathetic division. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Solution: A single sympathetic preganglionic fiber has many axon collaterals (branches) and synapses with 20 or more postganglionic neurons, whereas a parasympathetic preganglionic neurons synapses with only 4 or 5 postganglionic neurons. The sympathetic neurotransmitter, norepinephrine is broken down more slowly than acetylcholine, so postganglionic cells are stimulated longer. The sympathetic division also stimulates release of catecholamines (mostly epinephrine) from the adrenal medulla, thus enhancing the sympathetic effects via the endocrine system. Also, more visceral effectors have receptors for catecholamines (norepinephrine and epinephrine) than for acetylcholine.

40) Describe the potential roles that autonomic neurons that release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine perform in the ANS. Be sure to describe the types of postsynaptic effector cells including their receptors that could be potentially activated by acetylcholine release from autonomic neurons.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Solution: The neuron could be a preganglionic neuron in either division of the ANS, a parasympathetic postganglionic neuron, or one of a few sympathetic postganglionic neurons (innervating sweat glands). The postsynaptic cell must possess either nicotinic or muscarinic receptors in order to respond to acetylcholine. This effector cell could be a postganglionic neuron of either division, a parasympathetic visceral effector, or one of the few sympathetic effectors stimulated by cholinergic neurons.

41) A patient with chronic skeletal muscle spasms was placed on an anticholinergic medication. After taking the medication, the patient’s muscle spasms ceased, but now the patient reports a loss of muscle strength. In addition, the patient’s resting heart rate has increased. Explain the effects of the medication the patient received. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Solution: Medications that block the action of acetylcholine are described as anticholinergic. Since ACh stimulates skeletal muscles to contract, blocking ACh should help reduce muscle spasms. In high enough doses, the medication might prevent the normal contraction of skeletal muscles and could, perhaps, cause a flaccid paralysis. Heart rate increases because ACh usually slows heart rate so a drug that blocks ACh’s effect would lead to increased heart rate. Perhaps a medication that specifically blocked nicotinic receptors would eliminate the muscle spasms without causing increased heart rate.

42) Explain how blood flow to tissues changes during the fight-or-flight response. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS Solution: During the fight-or-flight response, vasodilation occurs in those vessels serving the heart and skeletal muscles crucial to fight or flight. In contrast, vasoconstriction occurs in those vessels serving areas less vital to fighting/fleeing like skin, digestive organs, and the urinary

system. The changes in blood vessel diameter are induced by activation of the sympathetic division of the ANS.

43) Compare and contrast the overall responses of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS Solution: The sympathetic division acts to prepare the body for maximal skeletal muscle activity to either fight or flee a perceived threat. Some of the changes stimulated by sympathetic activation include: 1) increased heart rate and contractions, 2) shunting blood away from the digestive organs to the lungs, liver, heart and skeletal muscles allowing these organs to increase function, 3) bronchodilation leads increased O2 delivery to the blood, and 4) liver also releases more glucose. These changes increase blood oxygen and glucose to provide the body cells with the ability to increase ATP production. The parasympathetic system tends to return the body to normality, and to prepare the body to acquire energy. For instance, the parasympathetic division stimulates increased blood flow to digestive, reproductive and urinary organs. More digestion and defecation occurs, sexual activity can be supported, and urine production is increased. Decreased heart rate and blood pressure also occur.

Question type: Multiple Choice

44) What type of nervous system pathway is shown in the figure?

a) Somatic motor pathway b) Somatic sensory pathway c) Autonomic motor pathway d) Autonomic sensory pathway e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems

45) If the pathway shown in the diagram is a sympathetic division pathway, which neurotransmitter acts at the effector?

a) Norepinephrine b) Acetylcholine c) Epinephrine d) Dopamine e) Serotonin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems

46) Which neurotransmitter is released at the autonomic ganglion by the preganglionic neuron in the diagram?

a) Norepinephrine b) Acetylcholine c) Epinephrine d) Dopamine e) Serotonin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems

47) Which neurotransmitter is released at the gland by the preganglionic neuron in the diagram?

48) If the pathway shown in the diagram is a parasympathetic division pathway, which neurotransmitter acts at the effector?

49) Which neurotransmitter is released by the preganglionic neuron at the autonomic ganglion in the diagram?

50) Where is the left vagus (X) nerve in the diagram?

a) A b) C c) D d) F e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

51) Where is the pulmonary plexus in the diagram?

a) A b) E c) D d) B e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

52) Where is the esophageal plexus in the diagram?

a) A b) B c) D d) C e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

53) Where is the celiac ganglion and plexus in the diagram?

a) A b) B c) D d) C e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

54) Where is the renal ganglion and renal plexus in the diagram?

a) A b) B c) D d) E e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

55) Where is the aorticorenal ganglion in the diagram?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

56) Where is the greater splanchnic nerve in the diagram?

a) A b) B c) C d) E e) G Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

57) Which plexus or nerve shown in the diagram supplies the renal arteries?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

58) Which plexus or nerve shown in the diagram supplies the bronchial tree?

a) A b) C c) F d) B e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

59) The structure labeled 2 in the diagram is a

a) somatic motor neuron. b) parasympathetic preganglionic neuron. c) parasympathetic postganglionic neuron. d) sympathetic preganglionic neuron. e) somatosensory neuron. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

60) The structure labeled 3 in the diagram is a

a) somatic motor neuron. b) parasympathetic preganglionic neuron. c) parasympathetic postganglionic neuron. d) sympathetic preganglionic neuron. e) somatosensory neuron. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

61) The structure labeled 1 in the diagram is the

a) femoral nerve. b) sciatic nerve. c) pelvic splanchnic nerve. d) pudendal nerve. e) genitofemoral nerve. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

62) Which disorder is characterized by an exaggerated response of the sympathetic division of the ANS that occurs in most individuals with spinal cord injury at or above T6? a) Raynaud’s phenomenon b) Autonomic dysreflexia c) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy d) Diabetic neuropathy e) Horner’s Syndrome

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.7 Describe the disorders that affect the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Nervous System

63) Which disorder is a type of neuropathy often caused by long term diabetes mellitus? a) Raynaud’s phenomenon b) Autonomic dysreflexia c) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy d) Diabetic neuropathy e) Horner’s Syndrome Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.7 Describe the disorders that affect the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Nervous System

64) Which disorder involves the loss of sympathetic innervation to one side of the face due to inherited mutation, injury or disease? a) Raynaud’s phenomenon b) Autonomic dysreflexia c) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy d) Diabetic neuropathy e) Horner’s Syndrome Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.7 Describe the disorders that affect the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Nervous System

Question type: Essay

65) Based on your knowledge of ANS receptors, explain how beta blockers are able to manage conditions such as hypertension (high blood pressure)? Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Solution: Norepinephrine and epinephrine binds to beta adrenergic receptors on heart muscle cells and stimulate an increase in heart rate and force of contraction. Beta blockers are antagonists of norepinephrine and epinephrine meaning that beta blockers can bind and block their effects, leading to a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction and lowering of blood pressure.

Question type: Multiple Choice

66) Thoracolumbar is another name for which division of ANS? a) Parasympathetic b) Sympathetic c) Somatic nervous system d) Autonomic ganglia e) Craniosacral division Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

67) Which division of the ANS innervates the sweat glands and the hair follicles? a) Parasympathetic b) Sympathetic c) Neither division innervates these effectors d) Both divisions innervate these effectors Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

68) Which endocrine gland is directly innervated by sympathetic preganglionic axons? a) Pituitary gland b) Hypothalamus c) Pancreas d) Adrenal gland e) Thyroid gland Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the neurons and other anatomical components of the autonomic nervous system divisions. Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

69) Which of the following types of adrenergic receptors are only found in brown adipose tissue where their activation stimulates heat production? a) α1-adrenergic b) α2-adrenergic c) β1-adrenergic d) β2-adrenergic e) β3-adrenergic Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors

70) Which of the following types of adrenergic receptors are found on cardiac muscle fibers where their activation stimulates increased force and rate of contraction of the heart? a) α1-adrenergic b) α2-adrenergic c) β1-adrenergic

d) β2-adrenergic e) β3-adrenergic Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors

71) The chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla possess what type of receptor that makes them responsive to the ACh released by preganglionic sympathetic neurons? a) muscarinic receptors b) nicotinic receptors c) β1-adrenergic d) β2-adrenergic e) β3-adrenergic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors

72) Which of the following statements describes a common response of an autonomic effector during the “fight-or-flight” response? a) Gastric motility and secretory activity increases. b) Blood vessels serving skeletal muscles constrict. c) Adipose tissues stores away triglycerides for later use. d) The pupils of the eyes dilate. e) Blood vessels serving the kidneys and digestive organs dilate. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS

73) Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of activation? a) receptor – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – effector b) receptor – motor neuron – integrating center – sensory neuron – effector c) effector – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – receptor d) integrating center – receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector e) receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector – integrating center Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex and the importance of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.1 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions

74) One of the main differences between a somatic reflex and autonomic reflex is the type of effectors that are activated. The effectors in somatic reflexes are , while the effectors in autonomic reflexes are _ . a) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands b) striated muscles; smooth muscle and glands c) skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle d) glands; skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle e) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle only Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex and the importance of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.1 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions

75) Which the following regions of the brain serve as the major control and integration center of the ANS? a) cerebrum b) cerebellulum c) thalamus d) hypothalamus e) pituitary

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex and the importance of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.2 Explain the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 16

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) How many sensory modalities can a single sensory neuron have? a) One b) Dozens c) Hundreds d) Thousands e) None Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.1 Define sensation, and discuss the components of sensation. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

2) Which of the following is NOT an event in the process of sensation? a) Stimulation of sensory receptors b) Transduction of the stimulus c) Activation of effector d) Generation of impulses e) Integration of sensory input. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

3) Sensory receptors that are located in blood vessels and visceral organs and whose signals are not usually consciously perceived are the a) Exteroreceptors b) Interoceptors c) Proprioceptors

d) Nociceptors e) None of the answers selections are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

4) Which type of sensory receptor responds to stimuli resulting from physical or chemical damage to tissue? a) Photoreceptors b) Mechanoreceptors c) Proprioceptors d) Nociceptors e) Thermoreceptors Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

5) The process in which the frequency of nerve impulses in the first-order neuron decreases during prolonged stimulus is called a) selectivity. b) adaptation. c) perception. d) modality. e) transduction. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

6) Which of the following is a type of slowly adapting touch receptor?

a) Corpuscle of touch (Meissner corpuscle) b) Type 1 cutaneous mechanoreceptor (Merkel disc) c) Lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscle d) Hair root receptor e) Photoreceptor Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic

7) Which of the following is a type of a rapidly adapting touch receptor? a) Corpuscle of touch (Meissner corpuscle) b) Type 1 cutaneous mechanoreceptor (Merkel disc) c) Lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscle d) Both the corpuscle of touch and the type 1 cutaneous mechanreceptor e) All of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

8) What layer of the skin contains the cold thermoreceptors? a) Stratum lucidum b) Dermis c) Stratum basale d) Stratum corneum e) Hypodermis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

9) Visceral pain results from stimulating a) nociceptors. b) lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscles. c) exteroreceptors. d) proprioceptors. e) thermoreceptors. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

10) Which of the following statements about proprioception is INCORRECT? a) Proprioceptive sensations allow us to estimate the weight of certain objects. b) Proprioceptors are slowly adapting receptors. c) Proprioceptors are embedded in muscles and tendons d) Proprioceptive sensations allow us to determine position of body structures relative to each other. e) Proprioceptive sensations are used to activate the nervous system in response to threatening situations. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

11) The main function of muscle spindles is

a) to sense tension applied to a tendon. b) to sense referred pain. c) to perceive cutaneous sensations. d) to sense changes in muscle length. e) to sense muscle fatigue. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

12) Which of the following are proprioceptors found in the articular capsules of synovial joints? a) Tendon organs b) Gamma motor neurons c) Muscle spindles d) Kinesthetic receptors e) Tactile receptors Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

13) The postcentral gyri of the parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex a) are considered the primary gustatory area. b) receive body sensory information. c) control voluntary body movements. d) receive visual information. e) provide the ability to move the eyeballs. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway, the anterolateral pathway, and the spinocerebellar pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

14) Which of the following types of neurons conduct impulses from the peripheral somatic sensory receptors to the brain stem or spinal cord? a) First order neuron b) Second order neuron c) Third order neuron d) Fourth order neuron e) Higher order neuron Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway, the anterolateral pathway, and the spinocerebellar pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

15) Which of the following types of neurons conduct sensory impulses from the brain stem and spinal cord to the thalamus? a) First order neuron b) Second order neuron c) Third order neuron d) Fourth order neuron e) Higher order neuron Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway, the anterolateral pathway, and the spinocerebellar pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

16) Which of the following types of neurons conduct impulses from the thalamus to the primary somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex? a) First order neuron b) Second order neuron c) Third order neuron d) Fourth order neuron

e) Higher order neuron Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway, the anterolateral pathway, and the spinocerebellar pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

17) Proprioception means awareness of a) visual acuity. b) body temperature. c) color vision. d) body position. e) pain. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

18) Which of the following type of neurons have their cell bodies in the spinal cord or brain stem and their axons terminating in neuromuscular junctions? a) upper motor neurons b) lower motor neurons c) somatic sensory neurons d) preganglionic autonomic neurons e) postganglionic autonomic neurons Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway, the anterolateral pathway, and the spinocerebellar pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

19) Which of the following types of neurons have axons that extend from the brain to the lower motor neurons? a) upper motor neurons b) primary neurons c) somatic sensory neurons d) preganglionic autonomic neurons e) postganglionic autonomic neurons Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.1 Identify the locations and functions of the different types of neurons in the somatic motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways

20) Which of the neurons in the diagram would most likely pick up an itch sensation?

a) A b) B c) C d) Both A and B e) All of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

21) Which of the neurons in the diagram is modified in a manner that helps enhance the sensitivity of the receptor?

a) A b) B c) C d) None of these choices e) All of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

22) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram is a pain receptor?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

23) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram is a cutaneous mechanoreceptor that senses pressure and fast vibrations?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

24) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram senses touch, pressure and slow vibrations?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

25) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram represents a type II cutaneous mechanoreceptor that monitors the stretching of skin?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

26) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram is a lamellated corpuscle?

27) What do colored regions on body’s surface in the diagram represent?

a) Dermatomes b) Areas of referred pain c) Regions of nociceptors d) Areas supplied by the primary somatosensory area e) Motor nuclei Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

28) Which labeled neuron conducts impulses from the thalamus to the primary somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex?

a) A b) B c) C d) More than one answer selection is correct. e) None of the answer selections are correct. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway, the anterolateral pathway, and the spinocerebellar pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

29) Which labeled neuron conducts impulses from the peripheral somatic receptors into the brain or spinal cord?

a) A b) B c) C d) More than one answer selection is correct. e) None of the answer selections are correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway, the anterolateral pathway, and the spinocerebellar pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

30) Which labeled neuron is considered to be a second-order neuron?

a) A b) B c) C d) More than one answer selection is correct. e) None of the answer selections are correct. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway, the anterolateral pathway, and the spinocerebellar pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

31) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram of the trigeminothalamic pathway is the trigeminothalamic tract?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway, the anterolateral pathway, and the spinocerebellar pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

32) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram of the trigeminothalamic pathway is the trigeminal ganglion?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway, the anterolateral pathway, and the spinocerebellar pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

33) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram of the trigeminothalamic pathway is the trigeminal nerve?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway, the anterolateral pathway, and the spinocerebellar pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

34) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram of the trigeminothalamic pathway is a secondorder neuron?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway, the anterolateral pathway, and the spinocerebellar pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

35) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram of the trigeminothalamic pathway is the firstorder neuron?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway, the anterolateral pathway, and the spinocerebellar pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

36) Which of the following is a direct motor pathway? a) Anterior corticospinal tract

b) Corticobulbar tract c) Lateral corticospinal tract d) Both Anterior corticospinal and Corticobulbar tract. e) All of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways

37) The basal nuclei regulate skeletal muscle movements by a) suppressing unwanted movements. b) influencing muscle tone. c) initiating and terminating movements. d) both suppressing unwanted movements and influencing muscle tone. e) All of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.3 Explain how the basal nuclei and cerebellum contribute to movements. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways

38) Which of the following does NOT occur during sleep? a) Sympathetic division of ANS is stimulated. b) Decreased heart rate. c) Decreased blood pressure. d) Skeletal muscle tone decreases. e) Dream during REM sleep. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Understand wakefulness, sleep, learning and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum. Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.2 Describe the four stages of sleep. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum

Question type: Essay

39) You are sitting on a sunny Florida beach experiencing the sensation of warmth. Describe the anatomical structures and physiological events that allow you to perceive the warmth of the sun. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Study Objective 3: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway, the anterolateral pathway, and the spinocerebellar pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations Section Reference 2: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Solution: Thermoreceptors, which are distributed throughout the skin, must be present to sense the thermal stimuli. The warmth from the sun stimulates the warm thermoreceptors to become activated by warming the receptive field of thermoreceptors and stimulating the production of graded potentials. When the graded potentials reach threshold, they trigger nerve impulses in the themoreceptor, which serves as a first-order neuron that transmits the information to the CNS where a second order neuron conducts impulses via neurons of the spinothalamic tract to the thalamus. From the thalamus, third order neurons conduct impulses to the primary somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex where the impulses are perceived as a feeling of warmth.

40) Synesthesia is a condition in which stimulation of one sensory modality results in perception of another. One man reportedly tastes shapes. Many synesthetic people hear colors. Based on what you know about sensation, propose a physiological mechanism that explains the phenomenon of synesthesia. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation Solution: Usually a given receptor can only convey a single type of sensory modality. For instance, photoreceptors can usually only relay impulses related to light intensity. Some receptors can relay different modalities based on the type of stimulus received. Lamellated corpuscles relay information about pressure in response to low frequency stimulation but relay information about vibration in response to higher frequency stimulation. Perhaps some types of

synesthesia result from anomalous receptors that can send very different information in response to different frequency or intensity of stimulation. A stronger explanation for the phenomenon may be related to the fact that sensations are interpreted based on which part of the cerebral cortex receives the impulses from the 3rd order neuron in the sensory pathway. Synesthetic patients may have unusual distributions of neurons to the cerebral cortex. Most people would sense the taste “sweet” because their 3rd order neuron carrying those impulses terminated in the gustatory area. The man who tastes shapes may have a “sweet” neuron that terminates in the “shape” area of the visual cortex. 41) A viral infection has damaged a patient’s tectospinal tract. What signs of this damage probably helped the physicians diagnose the problem? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways Solution: The tectospinal tract is an extrapyramidal, or indirect, motor pathway. It conveys nerve impulses from the superior colliculus to contralateral skeletal muscles that move the head and eyes in response to visual stimuli. One sign of such damage would be the inability of the patient to turn his head toward a flashing light. The patient would also be unable to follow movements of the physician’s finger with his eyes. The patient would probably be unable to read words scrolling across a screen. Each of these deficits relates to the inability to move the head or eyes in response to visual stimuli and would alert the physician to damage of the tectospinal tract.

42) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in sleep, arousal, and consciousness. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Understand wakefulness, sleep, learning and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum. Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.1 Compare the integrative cerebral functions of wakefulness and sleep, and learning and memory. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum Solution: A variety of sensory stimuli feed into the RAS, which feeds into the thalamus and cerebral cortex to increase neuronal activity, causing arousal from sleep and maintaining consciousness. During periods of high ATP use, adenosine accumulates and binds to A1 receptors, inhibiting cholinergic neurons in the RAS, and inducing sleep.

43) Compare short-term memory versus long-term memory with regard to specific changes that are thought to occur in the brain. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Understand wakefulness, sleep, learning and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum. Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.3 Explain the factors that contribute to memory. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum Solution: Short-term memory depends more on electrical and chemical events in the brain than on structural changes, such as forming new synapses. Long-term memory is thought to involve high-frequency stimulation within the hippocampus at glutamate synapses. Nitric oxide and other neurotransmitters may also be involved. For long term memory, neurons develop new presynaptic terminals, larger synaptic end bulbs, and more dendritic branches.

Question type: Multiple Choice

44) What category of receptor cell is used to sense touch, vibration and pressure? a) photoreceptor b) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor e) osmoreceptor Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

45) What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in temperature? a) photoreceptor b) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor e) osmoreceptor Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

46) What category of receptor cell is used to sense light? a) photoreceptor b) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor e) osmoreceptor Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

47) What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in the concentration of chemicals in body fluids? a) photoreceptor b) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor e) proprioceptor Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

48) What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in the osmotic pressure of body fluids? a) photoreceptor b) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor

e) osmoreceptor Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

49) All of the following types of stimuli are sensed by free nerve endings EXCEPT a) pain. b) tickle. c) temperature. d) pressure. e) itch. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

50) Which of the following types of stimuli is sensed using encapsulated nerve endings? a) pain b) tickle c) temperature d) itch e) vibration Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

51) Which of the following is an example of a specialized sensory receptor cell that is known as a “separate cell”? a) Corpuscle of touch (Meissner corpuscle)

b) photoreceptor cell in retina c) lamellataed (Pacinian) corpuscle d) hair root plexus e) astrocyte Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

52) Visceral pain coming from the lung and diaphragm is referred to which location(s) in the diagram?

a) A b) B c) C d) G e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

53) Visceral pain coming from the liver and gallbladder is referred to which location(s) in the diagram?

a) B b) G c) H d) F e) D Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

54) Visceral pain coming from the stomach is referred to which location(s) in the diagram?

a) B b) G c) H d) F e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

55) Visceral pain coming from the pancreas is referred to which location(s) in the diagram?

a) B b) D c) H d) F e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

56) Visceral pain coming from the ovaries is referred to which location(s) in the diagram?

a) D b) E c) B d) F e) A Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

57) Visceral pain coming from the heart is referred to which location(s) in the diagram?

a) C b) G c) B d) H e) A Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

58) Visceral pain coming from the urinary bladder is referred to which location(s) in the diagram?

a) D b) F c) E d) H e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

59) Visceral pain coming from the kidney is referred to which location(s) in the diagram?

a) D b) B c) G d) H e) F Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

60) Which disorder is characterized by difficulty in falling asleep and staying asleep? a) narcolepsy b) insomnia c) sleep apnea d) coma e) amnesia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Understand wakefulness, sleep, learning and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.1 Compare the integrative cerebral functions of wakefulness and sleep, and learning and memory. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum

61) Which disorder is characterized by involuntary periods of sleep that occur throughout the day? a) narcolepsy b) insomnia c) sleep apnea d) coma e) amnesia Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Understand wakefulness, sleep, learning and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum. Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.1 Compare the integrative cerebral functions of wakefulness and sleep, and learning and memory. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum 62) Which disorder is characterized by a person’s breathing repeatedly stopping for 10 or more seconds while sleeping? a) narcolepsy b) insomnia c) sleep apnea d) coma e) amnesia Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Understand wakefulness, sleep, learning and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum. Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.1 Compare the integrative cerebral functions of wakefulness and sleep, and learning and memory. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum 63) Which condition is a state of unconsciousness in which a person’s responses to stimuli are reduced or absent?

a) narcolepsy b) insomnia c) sleep apnea d) coma e) amnesia Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Understand wakefulness, sleep, learning and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum. Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.1 Compare the integrative cerebral functions of wakefulness and sleep, and learning and memory. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum

64) Which condition is characterized by a lack of memory for events occurring after the trauma or disease that caused the condition? a) narcolepsy b) retrograde amnesia c) sleep apnea d) coma e) anterograde amnesia Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Understand wakefulness, sleep, learning and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum. Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.3 Explain the factors that contribute to memory. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum

Question type: Essay

65) What are the three types of sensory receptors categorized based on their location and the origin of stimuli that activate them? What is the nature of the stimuli that cause their excitation? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

Solution: (1) Exteroceptors are sensitive to stimuli originating outside the body and provide information about the external environment such as hearing, vision, smell, taste, touch, pressure and temperature. (2) Interoceptors monitor conditions in the internal environment such as blood pressure. The sensations are usually not consciously perceived. (3) Proprioceptors are located in muscles, joints, tendons and the inner ear. They provide information about body position by detecting muscle tension, the position and movement of the joints.

66) List the six types of sensory receptors categorized based on the type of stimulus they detect and describe the types of stimuli that each type can detect. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation Solution: (1) Mechanoceptors: detect mechanical stimuli such as touch, pressure, and stretch. (2) Thermoreceptors: detect changes in temperature. (3) Nociceptors: respond to painful stimuli. (4) Photoreceptors: detect light. (5) Chemoreceptors: detect chemicals in the mouth (taste), nose (smell) and body fluids. (6) Osmoreceptors: detects osmotic pressure of body fluids.

67) What is phantom limb sensation and describe why the patient experiences these sensations? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations Solution: When a limb has been amputated, the patient still feels the sensations of itch, pressure, tingling or pain as if the limb is still there. It is believed that the cerebral cortex interprets impulses arising in the proximal portions of sensory neurons that previously carried impulses from the limb as coming from the non-existing limb. Another possible explanation is that the brain contains networks of neurons that generate sensations of body awareness.

Question type: Multiple Choice

68) The process of sensation begins in a a separate cell.

, which can be either a primary sensory neuron or

a) sensory receptor cell. b) signal transducer cell. c) secondary sensory neuron. d) effector cell. e) association neuron. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.1 Define sensation, and discuss the components of sensation. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

69)

is a term used to describe pain that is felt at a site remote from the place of origin.

a) Referred pain b) Visceral pain c) Slow pain d) Fast pain e) Sympathetic pain Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

70) The integration centers for sensations that are consciously perceived (like vision, smell, taste, and pain) are found in the a) cerebellum. b) basal nuclei. c) pontine nuclei. d) cerebral cortex. e) thalamus. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.1 Define sensation, and discuss the components of sensation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

71) Which of the following regions of the brain compares the intentions of skeletal muscle movements with the actual movement performed and then sends out corrective feedback to upper motor neurons? a) hypothalamus b) thalamus c) basal nuclei d) cerebellum e) cerebrum Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.3 Explain how the basal nuclei and cerebellum contribute to movements. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways

72) All of the following result from some form of malfunction by the basal nuclei EXCEPT a) Huntington’s disease. b) Parkinson’s disease. c) Tourette’s syndrome. d) obsessive-compulsive disorder. e) synesthesia. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.3 Explain how the basal nuclei and cerebellum contribute to movements. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways

73) Infants spend approximately 50% of their sleeping time in a) stage one NREM sleep. b) stage two NREM sleep. c) stage three NREM sleep. d) stage four NREM sleep. e) REM sleep.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Understand wakefulness, sleep, learning and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum. Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.2 Describe the four stages of sleep. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum

74) Which of the following stages of non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep is considered the deepest level of sleep? a) Stage one b) Stage two c) Stage three d) Stage four e) None of the selections are correct. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Understand wakefulness, sleep, learning and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum. Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.2 Describe the four stages of sleep. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum

75) During the process of learning, the brain shows a characteristic called _ , which is the ability to change in response to intensive usage for a particular task like memorizing a page of physiology notes. a) bradykinesia b) hypokinesia c) plasticity d) amnesia e) palsy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Understand wakefulness, sleep, learning and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum. Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.3 Explain the factors that contribute to memory. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 17

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Olfactory receptors are found a) throughout the nasal cavity. b) only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity. c) only in the inferior portion of the nasal cavity. d) from the vestibule to the pharynx. e) only in the mid-nasal ridges. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell

2) The smell receptors that actually bind the odorants and begin signal transduction are located on a) olfactory hairs. b) glial cells. c) basal stem cells. d) Bowman’s glands. e) gustatory receptor cells. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell

3) Adaptation of the olfactory sense to the continued presentation of an odorant

a) occurs rapidly. b) increases sensitivity to that odorant. c) occurs slowly. d) does not occur. e) enhances gustation. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in 4olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell

4) The olfactory tract a) projects directly to the primary olfactory cortex and to the limbic system and hypothalamus. b) conducts impulses directly to the thalamus. c) contains only motor neurons. d) receives information from the taste buds. e) consists of the olfactory and vestibulocochlear nerves. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell

5) These receptor cells provide for the sense of taste. a) Olfactory hair cells b) Pacinian corpuscles c) Basal stem cells d) Hair cells e) Gustatory cells Answer: e Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste

6) Taste buds are found on a) the epiglottis. b) the pharynx. c) the soft palate. d) both epiglottis and pharynx. e) All of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste

7) Which of the following types of papillae do NOT contain taste buds? a) Vallate b) Fungiform c) Foliate d) Filiform e) Circumvallate Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste

8) Which of the following nerves conducts impulses associated with the sense of gustation? a) Vestibulocochlear b) Oculomotor c) Vagus d) Trigeminal e) Spinal accessory Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste

9) Which is NOT considered an accessory structure of the eye? a) Eyelids b) Eyelashes c) Lacrimal apparatus d) Eyebrows e) Retina Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

10) Which of the following is the space between the upper and lower eyelids? a) Palpebral fissure b) Levator palpebrae c) Lacrimal caruncle d) Lateral commissure e) Conjunctiva Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

11) This is a thin mucous membrane that protects the inner aspect of the eyelids and the portion of the sclera covering the anterior surface of the eyeball.

a) Palpebral fissure b) Conjunctiva c) Lateral commissure d) Cornea e) Choroid Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

12) Infection of a sebaceous ciliary gland can result in a) blood shot eyes. b) inhibition of tear production. c) a sty. d) glaucoma. e) blindness. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

Question type: Essay

13) List the cells, structures, and fluids that light must pass through to reach the photoreceptor cells. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision Solution: Cornea, Aqueous humor, Pupil, Lens, Vitreous humor, Ganglion cells, Bipolar cells, Photoreceptor cells.

Question type: Multiple Choice

14) Which is the correct order in the flow of tears? a) Lacrimal gland, lacrimal sac, lacrimal duct, superior or inferior lacrimal canal, nasolacrimal duct, nasal cavity b) Lacrimal gland, lacrimal duct, superior or inferior lacrimal canal, nasolacrimal duct, lacrimal sac, nasal cavity c) Lacrimal gland, lacrimal duct, nasolacrimal duct, superior or inferior lacrimal canal, lacrimal sac, nasal cavity d) Lacrimal gland, lacrimal duct, superior or inferior lacrimal canal, lacrimal sac, nasolacrimal duct, nasal cavity e) Lacrimal gland, lacrimal sac, nasolacrimal duct, superior or inferior lacrimal canal, lacrimal duct, nasal cavity Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

15) How many extrinsic eye muscles are responsible for moving each eye? a) 10 b) 12 c) 6 d) 4 e) 20 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

16) Which of the following is the transparent layer on the anterior of the eyeball through which the iris can be observed? a) Retina b) Choroid c) Sclera d) Ciliary body e) Cornea Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

17) Which structure regulates the amount of light entering the eyeball through the pupil? a) Retina b) Cornea c) Iris d) Choroid e) Ciliary muscle Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

18) The lens is made of layers of proteins called a) choroids. b) ciliary bodies.

c) crystallins. d) cones. e) rods. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

19) What lies between the lens and the retina? a) Vitreous chamber b) Anterior chamber c) Anterior cavity d) Cornea e) Aqueous humor Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

20) Which layer of dense connective tissue serves to protect the inner parts of the eyeball? a) Sclera b) Pupil c) Iris d) Cornea e) Retina Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

21) Which darkly pigmented structure reduces light reflection within the eyeballs? a) Sclera b) Conjunctiva c) Iris d) Choroid e) Retina Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

22) Which of the types of receptors listed below is primarily used for detecting light rays under bright light conditions? a) olfactory hair cells b) rods c) cones d) ganglion neurons e) amacrine cells Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.3 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

23) The first step in the visual transduction process that occurs in the retina is a) activation of amacrine cells. b) absorption of scattered light by the pigmented epithelium.

c) interruption of the dark current. d) absorption of light by photopigments. e) generation of action potentials in the optic nerve. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.3 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

24) Binocular vision a) gives better depth perception. b) provides more accurate color vision. c) is only seen in humans. d) occurs when one eye focuses on two separate objects. e) is all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.2 Discuss image formation by describing refraction, accommodation, and constriction of the pupil. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

25) What structure vibrates back and forth when sound waves strike it? a) cochlea b) pinna c) tympanic membrane d) organ of Corti e) vestibulocochlear nerve Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.2 List the major events in the physiology of hearing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

26) Which of the structures listed below converts vibrations in the endolymph into action potentials? a) macula b) pinna c) tympanic membrane d) organ of Corti e) cupula Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.2 List the major events in the physiology of hearing. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

27) Which of the following structures carries action potentials generated by sound transduction? a) vagus nerve b) basilar membrane c) tympanic membrane d) organ of Corti e) vestibulocochlear nerve Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.2 List the major events in the physiology of hearing. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

28) Which of the following structures senses change in rotational acceleration of the head in order to help maintain dynamic equilibrium? a) cochlea b) semicircular canals c) maculae of the vestibule d) organ of Corti e) vestibulocochlear nerve

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.4 Describe the auditory and equilibrium pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

29) Which of the labeled papilla houses 100–300 taste buds each?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) Both A and D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste

30) Identify the thin protective mucous membrane composed of stratified squamous epithelium with numerous goblet cells.

a) A and B b) B and D c) C and A d) D and C e) B and E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

31) Identify the structure that secretes a fluid that keeps the eyelids from sticking to each other.

a) D b) E c) F d) G e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

32) Identify the optic nerve.

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

33) Identify the choroid.

a) F b) E c) D d) G e) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

34) Identify the sclera.

a) F b) E c) D d) G e) H Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

35) Identify the structure that contains aqueous humor.

a) A b) G c) H d) F e) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

36) Identify the ciliary body.

a) A b) B c) C d) H e) F Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

37) Which labeled structure is the blind spot of the eye?

a) A b) B c) C d) G e) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

38) Identify the bipolar cell layer.

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

39) Identify the ganglion cell layer.

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye and the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

40) Which figure illustrates farsightedness before it has been corrected?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.2 Discuss image formation by describing refraction, accommodation, and constriction of the pupil. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

41) Which figure illustrates nearsightedness before it has been corrected?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.2 Discuss image formation by describing refraction, accommodation, and constriction of the pupil. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

42) Which labeled step(s) represents regeneration of active photopigment?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) Both 1 and 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.3 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

43) Which labeled step(s) represents bleaching of the photopigment?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) Both 2 and 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.3 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

44) Identify the internal auditory canal.

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three main regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

45) Identify the structure that is a thin semi-transparent partition between the external auditory canal and the middle ear?

a) K b) G c) J d) F e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three main regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

46) Identify the auditory ossicles.

a) A, B, C b) A, C, G c) A, B, J d) J, C, G e) C, D, G Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three main regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

47) Which portion of the inner ear is divided into three channels?

a) C b) G c) H d) J e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three main regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

Question type: Essay

48) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.2 Outline the neural pathway for olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell Solution: Odorant molecules dissolve in mucus secreted by the olfactory epithelium and bind to receptors on olfactory hairs, triggering a generator potential in the olfactory receptor cells. In some cases the binding activates a G protein in the plasma membrane that activates adenylate cyclase that opens sodium ion channels. If the generator potential is above threshold, action potentials are generated in the axons of the olfactory receptor cells (first-order neurons). These axons transmit impulses via cranial nerve I through the olfactory foramina of the cribiform plate and terminate in the olfactory bulbs, where they synapse with second-order neurons. Axons from these neurons form the olfactory tracts, which transmit impulses to the olfactory area in the temporal lobe. Other important brain areas that receive impulses from the olfactory tracts include the limbic system, the hypothalamus, and the orbitofrontal area.

49) Emily was very ill with an upper respiratory infection. Her roommate gave her some chicken soup to make her feel better. Neither Emily nor her roommate realized that the soup was too hot to eat until after Emily put a spoonful in her mouth. Now Emily says she can’t taste anything. Why? When will she be able to taste again? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Solution: Emily probably already had trouble smelling her food because of her infection. The hot soup probably damaged her taste buds, especially the ones on the front and sides of her tongue. Those taste buds are more sensitive to sweet, sour and salty tastes. The ones at the back of the tongue are sensitive to bitter tastes, and the ones in the throat are sensitive to umami tastes. The taste buds are epithelial tissues and should heal in a few days or so. When they do, Emily will be able to taste again.

50) List and briefly describe the three processes that are used by the eye to form a clear image of object on the retina. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.2 Discuss image formation by describing refraction, accommodation, and constriction of the pupil. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision Solution: 1) Refraction involves bending light rays as they move through different media in the eye to eventually form a focused inverted image on the central fovea, 2) Accommodation of the lens for near/distance vision involves changing the shape of lens using the ciliary muscle to help focus light rays on retina, and 3) Constriction of pupil involves an ANS reflex that helps prevent scattering of light through edges of lens.

51) Deafness can occur for many reasons. Use your knowledge of the structure of the ear and the process of detecting sound, to propose a mechanism for how arthritis could cause deafness. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.2 List the major events in the physiology of hearing. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Solution: Arthritis results when synovial joints are damaged and can no longer move freely. The joints between the ossicles, found in the middle ear, are synovial joints. If they became stiff from arthritis and their movements were limited, sound waves striking the tympanic membrane would not be efficiently transferred to the oval window of the cochlea. Without that transmission, the fluid in the cochlea cannot move the hair cells on the organ of Corti. If those hair cells do not move, no impulses relaying information about sound can be generated.

52) Differentiate between static and dynamic equilibrium. Describe the inner ear structures involved in receiving and transducing sensations involved in maintaining both types of equilibria. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.3 Identify the receptor organs for equilibrium, and describe how they function. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Solution: Static equilibrium is the maintenance of body position relative to gravity. Dynamic equilibrium is the maintenance of body position in response to movement. Hair cells in the maculae of the utricle and saccule bend are used to detect changes that help maintain static equilibrium. Hair cells in the cristae of semicircular ducts are used to detect changes involved in maintaining dynamic equilibrium.

Question type: Multiple Choice

53) Which part of the diagram contains the olfactory bulb neurons?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell

54) Which structure in the diagram produces mucus?

a) C b) A c) F d) G e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell

55) Which structure labeled in the diagram contains the receptors that bind the inhaled chemicals?

a) H b) G c) I d) E e) L Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell

56) Which structure in the diagram is the olfactory epithelium?

a) C b) D c) G d) K e) F Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell

57) Which structure in the diagram is an opening in the taste bud?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste

58) The plasma membrane of which structure in the diagram is the initiation site of taste transduction?

a) F b) B c) D d) E e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste

59) From which of the following layers of the developing embryo do the eyes develop? a) endoderm b) mesoderm c) ectoderm d) more than one layer contributes e) none of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the development of the eyes and ears and the age-related changes that occur in the eyes and ears. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Development of the Eyes and Ears

60) How many days after fertilization do the eyes begin to develop? a) 5 b) 150 c) 10 d) 22 e) 55 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the development of the eyes and ears and the age-related changes that occur in the eyes and ears. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Development of the Eyes and Ears

61) During embryonic development, the lens of the eye develops directly from an invagination of the lens placodes called the a) optic groove. b) optic vesicle. c) optic stalk. d) prosencephalon. e) lens vesicle. Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the development of the eyes and ears and the age-related changes that occur in the eyes and ears. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Development of the Eyes and Ears

62) During embryonic development, the first portion of the ear to develop is the a) middle ear. b) internal ear. c) external ear. d) bony labyrinth. e) membranous labyrinth.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the development of the eyes and ears and the age-related changes that occur in the eyes and ears. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Development of the Eyes and Ears

63) How many days after fertilization do the ears begin to develop? a) 5 b) 150 c) 10 d) 22 e) 55 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the development of the eyes and ears and the age-related changes that occur in the eyes and ears. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Development of the Eyes and Ears

64) During embryonic development, the middle ear develops from a structure called the first a) pharyngeal pouch. b) pharyngeal cleft. c) otic placodes. d) otic vesicle. e) rhombencephalon. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the development of the eyes and ears and the age-related changes that occur in the eyes and ears. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Development of the Eyes and Ears

65) During embryonic development, the external ear develops from a structure called the first a) pharyngeal pouch. b) pharyngeal cleft. c) otic placodes. d) otic vesicle.

e) rhombencephalon. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the development of the eyes and ears and the age-related changes that occur in the eyes and ears. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Development of the Eyes and Ears

66) Presbycusis refers to age-associated a) progressive loss of hearing in one ear. b) progressive loss of hearing in both ears. c) progressive loss of near-vision. d) otitis media. e) vertigo. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Describe the age-related changes that occur in the eyes and ears. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.6 Aging and the Special Senses

67) Cataract leads to blindness due to a) loss of transparency of the lens. b) a high intraocular pressure. c) photophobia. d) scotoma. e) trachoma. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Describe the age-related changes that occur in the eyes and ears. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.6 Aging and the Special Senses

68) Which of the following molecules is capable of detecting light rays that strike the photopigments in the retina? a) cGMP b) opsin portion of rhodopsin c) cis-retinal

d) melanin e) retinal isomerase Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.3 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

69) Which of the following statements accurately describes the changes in the membrane potential of a photoreceptor cell when light rays strike its photopigments? a) The photoreceptor cell undergoes rapid depolarization. b) The photoreceptor cell undergoes hyperpolarization. c) A graded potential proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus occurs in the photoreceptor cell. d) No changes in the membrane potential occur. e) The photoreceptor cell creates action potentials at a frequency proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.3 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

70) The axons of the ganglion neurons of the retina terminate in the a) optic disk. b) optic chiasm. c) visual cortex of cerebrum. d) lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. e) primary somatosensory area of cerebral cortex. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway. Study Objective 2: SO 17.3.3 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision

71) Which sensory structure in the inner ear is capable of sensing rapid rotation of your head to the left? a) macula of the saccule b) macule of the utricle c) crista of a semicircular duct d) organ of Corti e) None of these choices can sense angular acceleration. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.3 Identify the receptor organs for equilibrium, and describe how they function. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

72) Which of the following are structures of the membranous labyrinth of the inner that are involved in dynamic and static equilibrium? a) vestibule b) saccule c) cochlear duct d) semicircular ducts e) More than one of these is correct. Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.3 Identify the receptor organs for equilibrium, and describe how they function. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

73) Which of the following structures contains otoliths (ear stones)?

a) macula of the saccule b) cupula of the crista c) tectorial membrane of the organ of Corti d) basilar membrane of the cochlear duct e) tympanic membrane Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.3 Identify the receptor organs for equilibrium, and describe how they function. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

74) The vestibular nuclei of the brainstem that control equilibrium receives sensory information from all the following areas EXCEPT the a) utricle and saccule. b) semicircular ducts. c) eyes d) proprioceptors in the neck muscles. e) nociceptors in the distal limbs. Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.4 Describe the auditory and equilibrium pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

75) Nerve impulses for the sense of hearing are initiated in the spiral organ (organ of Corti) and then travel through the _ to the . a) cochlear branch of cranial nerve VIII; pons b) cochlear branch of cranial nerve VIII; medulla oblongata c) vestibular branch of cranial nerve VIII; pons d) vestibular branch of cranial nerve VIII; medulla oblongata e) facial nerve; auditory cortex Answer: b

Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the structural and functional components of the ear and those of the hearing and equilibrium pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 17.4.4 Describe the auditory and equilibrium pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 18

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone? a) Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment b) Regulates metabolism c) Regulates glandular secretions d) Produces electrolytes e) Controls growth and development Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.1 Compare control of body functions by the nervous system and endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.1 Comparison of Control by the Nervous and Endocrine Systems

2) When a hormone is present in excessive levels, the number of target-cell receptors may decrease. This is called a) receptor recognition. b) sensory adaptation. c) paracrine regulation. d) up-regulation. e) down-regulation. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Compare the classes of hormones and describe how they interact with target-cell receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 18.3.1 Describe how hormones interact with target-cell receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 Hormone Activity

3) Which of the choices below is a type of hormone that acts on neighboring cells without entering the bloodstream? 1. Local hormone 2. Paracrine

3. Autocrine 4. Circulating hormone a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) Both 1 and 2 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Compare the classes of hormones and describe how they interact with target-cell receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 18.3.1 Describe how hormones interact with target-cell receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 Hormone Activity

4) Which of the following are a group of lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol? a) Steroids b) Thyroid hormones c) Nitric oxide d) Amine hormones e) Peptide hormones Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Compare the classes of hormones and describe how they interact with target-cell receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 18.3.2 Compare the two chemical classes of hormones based on their solubility. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 Hormone Activity

5) Which of the following is an eicosanoid? 1. Prostaglandin 2. Leukotriene 3. Glycoprotein a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) Both 1and 2 e) All of these choices

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Compare the classes of hormones and describe how they interact with target-cell receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 18.3.2 Compare the two chemical classes of hormones based on their solubility. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 Hormone Activity

6) Which of the following statements correctly compares water-soluble hormones with lipidsoluble hormones? a) Both types of hormone are carried in the blood attached to a carrier protein. b) Both types of hormone almost always stimulate increases in mRNA transcription. c) Only water-soluble hormones use second messengers. d) Only water-soluble hormones require a receptor. e) Lipid-soluble hormones are not found in the bloodstream. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the two general mechanisms of hormone action. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 Mechanisms of Hormone Action

7) When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone, it is called a(n) a) synergistic effect. b) permissive effect. c) antagonistic effect. d) circulating effect. e) local effect. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the two general mechanisms of hormone action. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 Mechanisms of Hormone Action

8) Which of the following is NOT a common method of stimulating hormone secretion from an endocrine cell? a) Signals from the nervous system

b) Chemical changes in the blood c) Mechanical stretching of the endocrine cell d) Releasing hormones. e) Both Signals from the nervous system and Chemical changes in the blood Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the mechanisms of control on hormone secretion. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 Control of Hormone Secretion

9) What controls hormone release from the anterior pituitary gland? a) Muscle contraction b) The peripheral nervous system c) Hormones released from the hypothalamus d) Action potentials from the thalamus e) Chemical changes in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

10) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates general body growth? a) Growth hormone b) Prolactin c) Thyrotropin d) Luteinizing hormone e) Adrenocorticotropic hormone Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

11) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates milk production? a) Luteinizing hormone b) Prolactin c) Thyrotropin d) Melanocyte stimulating hormone e) Adrenocorticotropic hormone Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

12) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol? a) Leutinizing hormone b) Prolactin c) Insulin-like growth factors d) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone e) Adrenocorticotropic hormone Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

13) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the gonads to secrete progesterone and/or testosterone? a) Luteinizing hormone b) TSH c) Corticotropin d) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone

e) Growth hormone Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

14) Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone? a) Thyrotrophs b) Gonadotrophs c) Somatotrophs d) Lactotrophs e) Corticotrophs Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

15) Which of the following pairs of hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland? a) Prolactin and growth hormone b) Melatonin-stimulating hormone and oxytocin c) Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone e) Prolactin and ACTH Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

16) The amount of ADH that is secreted by the posterior pituitary glands varies with a) blood osmotic pressure. b) blood calcium levels. c) blood oxygen levels. d) blood glucose levels. e) All of these choices. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

17) Which of the following hormones opposes the action of parathyroid hormone? a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone b) Testosterone c) Insulin d) Calcitonin e) Calcitriol Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.8 Describe the location, histology, hormone, and functions of the parathyroid glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.8 Parathyroid Glands

18) Which of the following statements does NOT describe a step in the synthesis and secretion of T3 and T4? a) Iodide trapping b) Oxidation of iodide c) Coupling of T1 and T2 d) Synthesis of calcitonin e) Iodination of tyrosine Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Thyroid Gland

19) Parathyroid hormone is the major regulator of the plasma concentration of which of the following ions? a) Calcium b) Sodium c) Potassium d) Chloride e) Manganese Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.8 Describe the location, histology, hormone, and functions of the parathyroid glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.8 Parathyroid Glands

20) Which of the following conditions would result from hyposecretion of aldosterone? a) Decreased heart rate b) Decreased airway dilation c) Dehydration d) Decreased oxygen delivery to the brain e) Metabolic acidosis Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.9 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Adrenal Glands

21) Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation? a) Protein and fat breakdown b) Glucose formation c) Depression of immune responses d) Reduction of inflammation

e) Increased production of all types of blood cells Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.9 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Adrenal Glands

22) Which blood glucose-lowering hormone is produced by the pancreatic islet cells? a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Somatostatin d) Thyroid hormones e) Calcitonin Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.10 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreatic islets. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.10 Pancreatic Islets

23) Which of the following hormones promotes increases in the basal metabolic rate (BMR)? a) Insulin b) Adrenocorticotropic hormone c) Glucagon d) Thyroid hormone e) Calcitonin Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Thyroid Gland

24) Which of the following hormones are released in response to decreases in blood glucose concentration? a) Insulin

b) Luteinizing hormone c) Glucagon d) Parathyroid hormone e) Calcitonin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.10 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreatic islets. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.10 Pancreatic Islets 25) Which of the following hormones play key regulatory roles in the body’s long-term response to stress? a) Insulin, Glucagon, Thyroid hormone b) hGH, Insulin, Aldosterone c) Cortisol, hGH, Thyroid hormone d) Parathyroid hormone, Cortisol, hGH e) Calcitonin, Thyroid hormone, Insulin Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.14 Describe how the body responds to stress. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.14 The Stress Response

26) Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress? a) Increased lipolysis b) Increased glycogenesis c) Increased gluconeogenesis d) Increased digestive activities e) Increased breakdown of proteins Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.14 Describe how the body responds to stress. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.14 The Stress Response

27) Which of the labeled endocrine glands secretes hGH, TSH, FSH and other hormones?

a) A b) B c) C d) I e) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

28) Which of the labeled endocrine glands secretes hormones that regulate the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?

a) C b) D c) A d) G e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Thyroid Gland

29) Which of the following labeled endocrine glands secretes hormones that regulate blood calcium levels?

a) B b) A c) H d) D e) I Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.8 Describe the location, histology, hormone, and functions of the parathyroid glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.8 Parathyroid Glands

30) Which of the labeled endocrine glands secretes steroid hormones in response to long-term stress?

a) D b) G c) H d) I e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.9 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Adrenal Glands

31) Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland aging effect? a) Rise in the blood levels of PTH b) Less cortisol and aldosterone production c) Decreased levels of gonadotropins d) Decreased levels of calcitriol and calcitonin e) Increase in thymus size

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.16 Describe the effects of aging on the endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.16 Aging and the Endocrine System

32) Which zone of the adrenal gland secretes aldosterone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of the zones Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.9 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Adrenal Glands

33) Which zone of the adrenal gland secretes androgens?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of the zones Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.9 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Adrenal Glands

34) Which labeled structure in the diagram secretes glucagon?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.10 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreatic islets. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.10 Pancreatic Islets

35) Which labeled structure in the diagram secretes a hormone that stimulates events that lower blood glucose concentration?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.10 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreatic islets. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.10 Pancreatic Islets

36) Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of a body system and an endocrine contribution to that system? a) Thyroid hormones promote normal development and growth of the skeleton. b) Erythropoietin regulates the amount of oxygen carried in blood by adjusting the number of red blood cells. c) Leptin enhances appetite. d) Glucocorticoids depress inflammation and immune responses. e) Epinephrine depresses the activity of the digestive system.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18:17 Describe how the endocrine system contributes to homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Focus on Homeostasis: The Endocrine System

Question type: Essay

37) Compare and contrast the mechanisms of action of lipid-soluble versus water-soluble hormones. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the two general mechanisms of hormone action. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 Mechanisms of Hormone Action Solution: Upon reaching their target cells, lipid-soluble hormones diffuse across the phospholipid bilayer of the target cell membrane and bind to receptors in the cytosol or nucleus. The activated receptor usually acts by turning transcription of genes either on or off, thus regulating synthesis of a protein. Water-soluble hormones bind to membrane receptors, which activate intracellular signaling pathways that lead to changes in the cell’s metabolic activity.

38) Describe the role of the hypothalamus in the regulation of hormone release from the pituitary gland. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.1 Describe the locations of and relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Solution: The hypothalamus is the integrating center for much sensory input. It secretes releasing and inhibiting hormones which diffuse into the hypophyseal portal system to regulate secretion of all hormones from the anterior pituitary gland. The hypothalamus also contains receptors that monitor blood osmotic pressure and neural input from reproductive structures. Integration of this input leads to production of ADH and OT by neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus. These hormones are then transported through the hypothalamohypophyseal tract to be secreted by exocytosis from the posterior pituitary gland in response to nerve impulses.

39) Enuresis, or bedwetting, may be caused by psychological, anatomical or physiological factors. In the latter case, vasopressin is often prescribed and is a very effective treatment. What is vasopressin? How can it prevent enuresis? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Solution: Vasopressin is also called antidiuretic hormone or ADH. In addition to its vasoconstrictive effects, ADH causes the kidneys to reabsorb more water. Someone who does not make enough ADH may not be able to contain all of the urine produced while they are sleeping. If they are not awakened by the pressure in their urinary bladder, they may wet the bed instead of getting up and going to the toilet. Since vasopressin helps the body reabsorb more water, a person’s bladder should not get so full that they end up wetting the bed while sleeping.

40) What is a goiter? Explain how goiters can develop in both hyposecretion and hypersecretion disorders. In these hyposecretion and hypersecretion disorders, would you expect the levels of other regulatory hormones involved in control of thyroid hormone secretion to be high or low? Why? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.18 Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Endocrine System Solution: A goiter is an enlarged thyroid gland. Hyposecretion goiters are usually due to insufficient iodide in the diet. Resulting low levels of thyroid hormones cause increased TRH and TSH until adequate thyroid activity is restored. Graves' disease causes hyperthyroidism by producing an antibody that mimics TSH. Thyroid enlargement occurs, and production of thyroid hormones increases. TRH and natural TSH remain low due to negative feedback, but TSHmimicking antibody stimulates increased thyroid hormone production and secretion.

41) Compare the metabolic changes that occur during starvation with those that occur in diabetes mellitus. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.18 Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Endocrine System

Solution: A starving person is lacking energy-providing nutrient sources, and so, must use structural components of the body as energy sources. The diabetic consumes adequate nutrients, but due to the lack of insulin, is unable to move glucose into cells, and so, cannot use the glucose as an energy source. In both cases, energy generation becomes dependent on non-glucose sources, such as fatty acids and amino acids. Mobilization and metabolism of fats and proteins for energy production purposes leads to ketoacidosis, weight loss, and hunger.

Question type: Multiple Choice

42) Which of the following hormones is produced in zone of adrenal gland labeled B?

a) cortisol b) epinephrine c) norepinephrine d) glucagon e) androgens Answer: a

Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.9 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Adrenal Glands

43) Which of the following describes a function of a hormone produced in zone of the adrenal gland labeled B?

a) enables body to resist stressors and also increases blood glucose b) intensifies sympathetic responses in other parts of the body c) accelerates formation of glucose from glycogen (glycogenolysis) d) stimulates growth of axillary and pubic hair e) stimulates breast development and milk secretion Answer: a Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 18.9 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Adrenal Glands

44) Which of the following conditions could potentially result from hyposecretion of a hormone released by the portion of the marked gland in the diagram?

a) tetany b) acromegaly c) diabetes insipidus d) goiter e) Cushing’s syndrome Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.18 Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Endocrine System

45) Identify the stalk-like structure labeled A in the diagram.

a) hypothalamus b) anterior pituitary c) posterior pituitary d) infundibulum e) hypophyseal fossa Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.1 Describe the locations of and relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

46) The endocrine gland shown in the diagram is found in a depression in the sphenoid bone (marked in the diagram) called the

a) maxilla. b) infundibulum. c) primary plexus. d) cribiform plate. e) hypophyseal fossa Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.1 Describe the locations of and relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

47) Which of the following bones (marked in the diagram) contains a depression which houses the endocrine gland shown in the diagram?

a) maxilla b) sphenoid bone c) mandible d) ethmoid bone e) temporal bone Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.1 Describe the locations of and relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

48) Which of the following hormones is produced by the cells marked in the thyroid follicle shown in the histology picture?

a) calcitonin b) vasopressin c) triiodothyronine (T3) d) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) e) calcitriol Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Thyroid Gland

49) Which of the following hormones is produced by the cells marked in the thyroid follicle shown in the histology picture?

a) calcitonin b) vasopressin c) triiodothyronine (T3) d) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) e) calcitriol Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Thyroid Gland

50) What is the major function of the hormone produced by the cells marked in the thyroid follicle shown in the histology picture?

a) Involved in regulation of calcium homeostasis. b) Enhances contraction of smooth muscle cells in the uterus during delivery. c) In females, initiates development of oocytes. In males, stimulates sperm production. d) Decreases urine volume. e) Increases blood levels of Na+ and water. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Thyroid Gland

51) Which of the following diseases result when the cells marked in the histology image are destroyed by the immune system?

a) Cushing’s disease b) Addison’s disease c) Acromegaly d) Type 1 diabetes e) Diabetes insipidus Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.10 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreatic islets. Study Objective 2: SO 18:18 Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.10 Pancreatic Islets Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Endocrine System

52) What endocrine abnormality does the individual on the left in the picture of identical twins have?

a) Goiter b) Graves’ Disease c) Type 2 diabetes d) Cushing’s syndrome e) Gigantism Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.8 Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Endocrine System

53) The disorder shown in one of the identical twins seen in this figure is due to a hypersecretion of hormones by which endocrine gland?

a) Thyroid gland b) Pineal gland c) Parathyroid gland d) Pituitary gland e) Pancreas Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.8 Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Endocrine System

54) The patient shown is suffering from a disease called hypersecretion of hGH during adulthood.

, caused by a pituitary

a) Goiter b) Graves’ Disease c) Acromegaly d) Cushing’s syndrome e) Giantism Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.8 Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Endocrine System

55) Which of the following endocrine disorders is the individual shown in this picture suffering from?

a) Acromegaly b) Graves’ Disease c) Goiter d) Cushing’s syndrome e) Giantism Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.8 Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Endocrine System

56) Hypothyroidism during adulthood can produce which of the following disorders? a) Acromegaly b) Graves’ Disease c) Hypoglycemia d) Cushing’s syndrome e) Myxedema Answer: e

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.8 Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Endocrine System

57) The following is a possible progression of which of the following disorders: Inadequate dietary iodine intake → low level of thyroid hormone in blood → increased TSH secretion → thyroid gland enlargement. a) Acromegaly b) Tetany c) Goiter d) Cushing’s syndrome e) Addison’s disease Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: 18.18 Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Endocrine System

58) Which of the following is an abnormal condition of excess androgen secretion, observed primarily in women, that is characterized by the presence of excessive body and facial hair in a male pattern? a) Acromegaly b) Tetany c) Hirsutism d) Gynecomastia e) Myxedema Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.18 Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Endocrine System

59) A condition characterized by excessive development of mammary glands in a male is called a) acromegaly. b) pheochromocytoma. c) hirsutism. d) gynecomastia. e) myxedema.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.18 Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Endocrine System

60) Hypersecretion of a hormone by the endocrine gland marked in the diagram results in a type of depression that affects some people during the winter months, when the day length is short, known as

a) thyroid crisis (storm). b) general adaptation syndrome (GAS). c) seasonal affective disorder (SAD). d) Addisonian crisis. e) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.12 Describe the properties of the pineal gland and its secretions. Study Objective 2: SO 18.12.1 Describe the location, histology, hormone, and functions of the pineal gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.12 Pineal Gland and Thymus

61) Seasonal affective disorder is due to hypersecretion of which following hormones by the endocrine gland marked in the diagram?

a) testosterone b) glucagon c) melatonin d) aldosterone e) vasopressin Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.12 Describe the properties of the pineal gland and its secretions. Study Objective 2: SO 18.12.1 Describe the location, histology, hormone, and functions of the pineal gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.12 Pineal Gland and Thymus

62) Which of the following hormones is produced by the endocrine gland marked in the diagram?

a) testosterone b) glucagon c) melatonin d) thymopoietin e) vasopressin Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.12 Describe the properties of the pineal gland and its secretions. Study Objective 2: SO 18.12.2 Describe the role of the thymus in immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.12 Pineal Gland and Thymus

63) All prostaglandins are derived from a 20-carbon precursor molecule called a) thromboxane.

b) intrinsic factor. c) thymopoietin. d) arachidonic acid. e) cholesterol. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.13 Describe the hormonal properties of cells in tissues and organs that are not traditionally considered endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 18.13.2 Describe the actions of eicosanoids and growth factors. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.13 Other Endocrine Tissues and Organs, Eicosanoids, and Growth Factors

64) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by the a) placenta. b) ovaries. c) testes. d) pituitary gland. e) hypothalamus. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.13 Describe the hormonal properties of cells in tissues and organs that are not traditionally considered endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 18.13.1 List the hormones secreted by cells in tissues and organs other than endocrine glands, and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.13 Other Endocrine Tissues and Organs, Eicosanoids, and Growth Factors

65) Leptin is a hormone produced by the a) placenta. b) ovaries. c) testes. d) pituitary gland. e) adipose tissue. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 18.13 Describe the hormonal properties of cells in tissues and organs that are not traditionally considered endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 18.13.1 List the hormones secreted by cells in tissues and organs other than endocrine glands, and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.13 Other Endocrine Tissues and Organs, Eicosanoids, and Growth Factors

66) The anterior pituitary develops from which of the following germ layers during embryonic development? a) Mesoderm b) Endoderm c) Ectoderm d) A combination of two of the layers e) None of the answer selections are correct Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.15 Describe the development of endocrine glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.15 Development of the Endocrine System

67) The thyroid gland develops from which of the following germ layers during embryonic development? a) Mesoderm b) Endoderm c) Ectoderm d) A combination of two of the layers e) None of the answer selections are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.15 Describe the development of endocrine glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.15 Development of the Endocrine System

68) The adrenal medulla develops from which of the following germ layers during embryonic development? a) Mesoderm b) Endoderm c) Ectoderm

d) A combination of two of the layers e) None of the answer selections are correct Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.15 Describe the development of endocrine glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.15 Development of the Endocrine System

69) Endocrine tissues that secrete steroid hormones are derived from a) mesoderm. b) endoderm. c) ectoderm. d) a combination of two or more layers. e) none of the layers that are listed. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.15 Describe the development of endocrine glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.15 Development of the Endocrine System

70) Which of the following glands is NOT an endocrine gland? a) pituitary gland b) thyroid gland c) adrenal gland d) sebaceous gland e) pineal gland Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Distinguish between exocrine and endocrine glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Endocrine Glands

71) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of an exocrine gland? a) Initially secretes its products into a duct. b) Secretes materials onto outer surface of the body. c) Secretes materials into the lumen of hollow organs. d) Its secretory products are carried in body fluids to distant target cells.

e) All the answer selections describe characteristics of exocrine glands. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Distinguish between exocrine and endocrine glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Endocrine Glands

72) Since insulin released from the pancreas is carried in the bloodstream to distant target cells, like muscle cells, it is considered to be a(n) a) local hormone. b) circulating hormone. c) paracrine. d) autocrine. e) neurotransmitter. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Compare the classes of hormones and describe how they interact with target-cell receptors. Study Objective 2: SO 18.3.1 Describe how hormones interact with target-cell receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 Hormone Activity

73) Which of the following is an example of a hormone that is secreted from an endocrine gland in response to a chemical change in the blood? a) Parathyroid hormone release from the parathyroid gland. b) Insulin release from the pancreas. c) Glucagon release from the pancreas. d) ADH release from the posterior pituitary gland. e) All the answer selections are correct. Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the mechanisms of control on hormone secretion. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 Control of Hormone Secretion

74) All the following hormones are produced and secreted by the ovaries EXCEPT a) estradiol.

b) estrone. c) progesterone. d) inhibin. e) follicle-stimulating hormone. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.11 Describe the location, hormones, and functions of the male and female gonads. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.11 Ovaries and Testes

75) Which of the following is a protein hormone produced by the testes that inhibits secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone by the anterior pituitary gland? a) chorionic gonadotropin b) testosterone c) estradiol d) inhibin e) relaxin Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.11 Describe the location, hormones, and functions of the male and female gonads. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.11 Ovaries and Testes

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 19

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT a major function of the blood? a) Transportation of nutrients b) Regulation of blood pH c) Protection against infectious disease d) Transportation of heat e) Production of oxygen Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 19.1.1 Describe the functions of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

2) Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding blood? a) The normal average temperature of blood is around 100.4o F. b) The normal pH range for blood is 7.35-7.45. c) Hemocytoblasts are a common component of circulating blood. d) The primary circulating blood cell is the RBC. e) Blood is a liquid connective tissue consisting of cells and a liquid extracellular matrix. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

3) The hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of whole blood occupied by a) WBCs. b) platelets. c) RBCs.

d) plasma. e) plasma proteins. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

4) What percentage of blood plasma is water? a) 95.1% b) 91.5% c) 88.5% d) 4.9% e) 8.5% Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

5) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance? a) Albumin b) Globulins c) Fibrinogen d) Myoglobin e) Hemoglobin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

6) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting? a) Albumin b) Globulins c) Fibrinogen d) Prostaglandins e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

7) The process by which the formed elements of the blood develop is called a) hematospermia. b) hemopoiesis. c) thrombocytosis. d) hemostasis. e) polycythemia. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

8) A megakaryoblast will develop into a) a red blood cell. b) a white blood cell. c) a platelet. d) either a white blood cell or a platelet. e) none of these choices. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

9) During hemopoiesis, some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into a) proerythroblasts. b) T lymphoblasts. c) B lymphoblasts. d) NK lymphoblasts. e) all of these choices. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

10) Which of the following hormones stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow? a) erythropoietin (EPO) b) thrombopoietin (TPO) c) human growth hormone (hGH) d) calcitonin (CT) e) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

11) Approximately, how many hemoglobin molecules are found in each RBC? a) 50 million b) 100 million c) 280 million d) 320 million e) 430 million Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells

12) Ferritin is a protein used to a) transport iron in the blood. b) store iron in the liver. c) oxidize iron in the peroxisomes. d) synthesize iron. e) absorb iron across intestinal cells. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells

13) The major function of red blood cells is a) nutrient transport. b) cytokine stimulation. c) blood cell proliferation. d) gas transport. e) disease resistance. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells

14) Towards the end of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow, a red blood cell loses its nucleus and becomes a a) proerythroblast. b) megakaryocyte. c) progenitor cell. d) mature erythrocyte. e) reticulocyte. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells

15) Which of the following blood cells is a phagocyte? a) Neutrophil b) Platelet c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) Erythrocyte Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

16) Which of the following blood cells is involved in reducing blood loss from a damaged blood vessel? a) Erythrocyte b) Platelet c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) Neutrophil Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 Platelets

17) Which of the following blood cells release granules that intensify the inflammatory response and promote hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions? a) Eosinophil b) Monocyte c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) Neutrophil

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

18) Which of the following blood cells phagocytizes antigen-antibody complexes and are effective against parasitic worms? a) Eosinophil b) Monocyte c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) Neutrophil Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

19) Which of the following blood cells are the main soldiers in the immune system defense of the body against microbial invaders? a) Eosinophil b) Macrophage c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) Platelet Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

20) Which of the following cells is NOT an agranular leukocyte? a) Monocytes b) Macrophage

c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

21) The process of a white blood cell squeezing between endothelial cells to exit a blood vessel is called a) emigration. b) diaphysis. c) adhesion. d) opsonization. e) phagocytosis. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

22) Which of the following chemical substances are NOT commonly released by mast cells? a) Heparin b) Histamine c) Nitric oxide d) Proteases e) All of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

23) Which of the following hormones stimulates the development of megakaryoblasts?

a) Erythropoietin b) Thrombopoietin c) Nitric oxide d) Human growth hormone e) Heparin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 Platelets

24) Which of following correctly lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel? a) vascular spasm, clotting, polycythemia b) hemolysis, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation c) emigration, clotting, hemolysis d) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting e) anemia, hemogenesis, platelet plug formation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.1 Describe the three mechanisms that contribute to hemostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis

25) The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting are identical after formation of a) thromboplastin. b) prothrombinase. c) clotting factor XII. d) fibrin. e) tissue factor. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.2 Identify the stages of blood clotting and explain the various factors that promote and inhibit blood clotting. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis

26) Which of the following clotting factors is involved in strengthening and stabilizing a blood clot? a) Factor V b) Factor VII c) Factor XI d) Factor XIII e) Factor XIV Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.2 Identify the stages of blood clotting and explain the various factors that promote and inhibit blood clotting. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis

27) Which of the following situations could result in maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells during a second pregnancy? a) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative b) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive c) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative d) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh positive. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.8 Understand the blood groups and blood types and their importance in blood transfusions. Study Objective 2: SO 19.8.1 Distinguish between the ABO and Rh blood groups. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Blood Groups and Blood Types

28) Which of the following opposes the action of thromboxane A2 by inhibiting platelet adhesion and release? a) Heparin b) Fibrinogen c) Plasmin d) Antithrombin e) Prostacyclin

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.2 Identify the stages of blood clotting and explain the various factors that promote and inhibit blood clotting. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis

29) Which of the following substances is an anticoagulant produced by mast cells and basophils? a) Heparin b) Fibrinogen c) Thromboxane A2 d) Prostacyclin e) Plasmin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.2 Identify the stages of blood clotting and explain the various factors that promote and inhibit blood clotting. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis

30) Which of the cells in the diagram will eventually develop into macrophages?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

31) Which of the cells in the diagram will increase the number of nuclear lobes as they age?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

32) Which of the cells in the diagram can be subdivided into categories of small and large versions of this cell type?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

33) Which labeled cell in the diagram is a WBC?

a) A b) B c) C d) Both B and C e) All of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

34) Which labeled cell in the diagram is a pluripotent stem cell?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

35) Which letter in the diagram indicates the correct position of a myeloid stem cell?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

36) Which labeled cell in the diagram will develop into thrombocytes?

a) G b) J c) K d) L e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

37) What is this figure demonstrating?

a) Erythropoiesis b) RBC differentiation c) Emigration d) Clot formation e) Clot retraction Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

38) What does this figure represent?

a) Erythropoiesis b) RBC differentiation c) Emigration d) Clot formation e) Clot retraction Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.1 Describe the three mechanisms that contribute to hemostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis

39) Which of the following antibodies would you find in the plasma of a person with type O blood? a) anti-A

b) anti-B c) anti-A and anti-B d) No antibodies to ABO blood group antigens e) Not enough information to answer Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.8 Understand the blood groups and blood types and their importance in blood transfusions. Study Objective 2: SO 19.8.1 Distinguish between the ABO and Rh blood groups. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Blood Groups and Blood Types

40) What blood type is a person if their plasma contains only anti-A agglutinin? a) A b) B c) O d) AB e) Not enough information is provided to answer question. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.8 Understand the blood groups and blood types and their importance in blood transfusions. Study Objective 2: SO 19.8.1 Distinguish between the ABO and Rh blood groups. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Blood Groups and Blood Types

Question type: Essay

41) List and briefly describe the major functions of blood. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 19.1.1 Describe the functions of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood Solution: 1) Transportation of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, wastes, hormones and heat; 2) Regulation of pH via buffers, body temperature via properties of water in plasma, and water balance via osmotic pressure created by plasma proteins; 3)Protection via clotting, antibodies, phagocytosis, and complement.

42) Describe the negative feedback loop that controls the rate of erythropoiesis. Under what circumstances would you expect the rate of erythropoiesis to increase? How would it be possible to tell if the rate of erythropoiesis is elevated? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells Solution: Hypoxia in the kidney leads to secretion of erythropoietin, which targets proerythroblasts in red bone marrow to mature into reticulocytes, which enter circulation to become red blood cells thus increasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. Tissue hypoxia is induced by any form of anemia (reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood), or when oxygen levels in the external environment are low (e.g., high altitudes). High levels of reticulocytes in the circulation are a strong indicator of increased erythropoiesis.

43) Explain the proposed role of hemoglobin in the regulation of blood flow and blood pressure. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells Solution: The gaseous hormone nitric oxide (NO), produced by the endothelial cells that line blood vessels, binds to hemoglobin. Under some circumstances, hemoglobin releases NO. The released NO causes vasodilation, an increase in blood vessel diameter that occurs when the smooth muscle in the vessel wall relaxes. Vasodilation improves blood flow and enhances oxygen delivery to cells near the site of NO release.

44) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.2 Identify the stages of blood clotting and explain the various factors that promote and inhibit blood clotting. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis

Solution: Blood may come in contact with collagen in the surrounding basal lamina, which activates clotting factor XII, which ultimately leads to the formation of fibrin clots. Platelets also adhere to collagen exposed by damage to the endothelium and begin their release reaction

Question type: Multiple Choice

45) When blood from a normal adult is centrifuged as shown in the figure, which of the following components occupies the greatest volume?

a) plasma b) red blood cells c) platelets d) buffy coat e) white blood cells Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

46) What is the normal concentration range of the formed element that comprises the blood component labeled III in the figure?

a) 400,000–1 million cells/μL b) 150–200 cells/μL c) 4.8–5.4 million cells/μL d) 150,000–400,000 cells/μL e) 5,000–10,000 cells/μL Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

47) Which of the following blood cell types normally comprises the highest percentage of the blood component labeled II in the figure?

a) eosinophils b) monocytes c) lymphocytes d) neutrophils e) basophils Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

48) Which of the following blood cell types normally comprises the smallest percentage of the blood component labeled II in the figure?

a) eosinophils b) monocytes c) lymphocytes d) neutrophils e) basophils Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

49) Which of the following types of proteins is present at the highest percentage in the blood component labeled I in the figure?

a) globulin b) albumin c) fibrinogen d) thrombin e) keratin Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

50) Which of the following types of proteins is present at the lowest percentage of the blood component labeled I in the figure?

a) globulin b) albumin c) fibrinogen d) all of the protein listed are found in equal percentages e) none of proteins listed are found in component I Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

51) Which of the following precursor cells eventually give rise to neutrophils? a) Megakaryoblast b) Proerythroblast c) T lymphoblast d) Monoblast e) Myeloblast

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

52) Which of the following precursor cells eventually give rise to the platelets? a) Megakaryoblast b) Proerythroblast c) T lymphoblast d) Monoblast e) Myeloblast Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

53) Which of the following formed elements found in the blood are derived from reticulocytes? a) Platelets b) Erythrocytes c) T lymphocytes d) Monocytes e) Basophils Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

54) Which of the following precursor cells give rise to agranular leukocytes? a) Proerythroblast b) Megakaryoblast c) Lymphoblast d) Myeloblast e) None of the selections are correct. Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

55) Which of the following precursor cells give rise to granular leukocytes? a) Proerythroblast b) Megakaryoblast c) Lymphoblast d) Myeloblast e) None of the selections are correct. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

56) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate bacterial infection, stress, or inflammation?

57) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate viral infections?

a) A & B b) B & C c) C & D d) D & E e) E & C Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

58) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate parasitic infection or autoimmune disease?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

59) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate cancer or hypothyroidism?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

60) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate fungal infection?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

61) A low count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate pregnancy, ovulation, or hyperthyroidism?

62) A low count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate radiation exposure, or systemic lupus erythromatosus?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a

Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs). Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

63) Low counts of which two cell types shown in the figure may result from treatment with cortisol?

64) Serum is a) the same as plasma. b) plasma without the clotting factors. c) the same as lymph. d) formed during the first step in blood clotting. e) pulmonary interstitial fluid. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.2 Identify the stages of blood clotting and explain the various factors that promote and inhibit blood clotting. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis

65) Reduced vitamin B12 absorption from the small intestine due to reduced intrinsic factor production in the stomach results in condition called a) hemorrhagic anemia. b) aplastic anemia. c) megaloblastic anemia. d) pernicious anemia. e) iron deficiency anemia. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 19.9 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect blood. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Blood

66) Destruction of red bone marrow due to radiation results in a) hemorrhagic anemia. b) aplastic anemia. c) megaloblastic anemia. d) pernicious anemia. e) iron deficiency anemia. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 19.9 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect blood. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Blood

67) A condition in which inadequate intake of vitamin B12 or folic acid causes production of large abnormal red blood cells is called a) hemorrhagic anemia. b) aplastic anemia. c) megaloblastic anemia. d) pernicious anemia. e) iron deficiency anemia. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.9 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect blood.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Blood

68) Anemia is defined as a) a condition where blood does not clot properly. b) a condition where blood cells are lysed by the immune response. c) a condition where there is excessive bleeding. d) a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced. e) none of these choices. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.9 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect blood. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Blood

Question type: Essay

69) List and briefly describe the three mechanisms used to reduce blood loss from a damaged blood vessel. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.1 Describe the three mechanisms that contribute to hemostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis Solution: 1) Vascular spasm occurs when circularly arranged smooth muscles in arteriole walls contract to reduce blood loss. 2) Platelet plug formation starts when platelets making contact with collagen fibers from a damaged vessel. This will initiate a series of reactions, which leads to platelet activation and the release of their vesicular content that ultimately attracts more platelets to the area, eventually leading to the formation of a plug over the damaged area. 3) Blood clotting involves a cascade of enzymatic reactions following platelet plug formation. The clot enables the damaged vessel to heal and repair properly.

Question type: Multiple Choice

70) The average life span of an erythrocyte in the circulation is a) 4 to 5 years. b) 4 to 5 hours.

c) 5 to 9 days. d) 120 days. e) 120 weeks. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells

71) Which of the following are characteristics of BOTH erythrocytes and thromobocytes? a) no nucleus b) large segmented nucleus c) cytoplasmic granules d) lifespan of 5 to 9 days e) develop from myeloblasts f) more than one answer selection is correct Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 Platelets

72) Which of the following formed elements in blood are removed by fixed macrophages in the spleen and liver after only 5 to 9 days in the circulation? a) erythrocytes b) thrombocytes c) monocytes d) basophils e) eosinophils Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 Platelets

73) A cord-blood transplant involves obtaining the stem cells to transplant into the diseased patient from

a) the spermatic cord of a donor’s testes. b) the spinal cord of the patient. c) the umbilical cord of a donor shortly after birth. d) the irradiated bone marrow of the patient. e) the spinal cord of an aborted fetus. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Explain the importance of bone marrow transplants and stem cell transplants. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 Stem Cell Transplants from Bone Marrow and Cord Blood

74) If type A blood is infused into a patient with type O blood, which of the following adverse reactions would you expect to observe in the patient? a) Agglutination (clumping) of the transfused blood cells. b) Complement-induced hemolysis of the transfused blood cells. c) Released hemoglobin clogging the filtration membrane of the kidneys. d) More than one of the answer selection is correct. e) No adverse reactions would occur. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.8 Understand the blood groups and blood types and their importance in blood transfusions. Study Objective 2: SO 19.8.2 Explain why it is so important to match donor and recipient blood types before administering a transfusion. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Blood Groups and Blood Types

75) Which of the following blood types is a person whose blood cells were agglutinated by both anti-A serum and anti-B serum, but not by anti-Rh serum? a) AB negative b) AB positive c) O negative d) O positive e) None of the selections are correct Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 19.8 Understand the blood groups and blood types and their importance in blood transfusions. Study Objective 2: SO 19.8.2 Explain why it is so important to match donor and recipient blood types before administering a transfusion. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Blood Groups and Blood Types

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 20

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following terms identifies the anatomical region found between the lungs that extends from the sternum to the vertebral column and from the first rib to the diaphragm? a) Epicardium b) Abdominal cavity c) Pericardium d) Mediastinum e) Thoracic cavity Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.1 Describe the location of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

2) The membrane that surrounds and protects the heart is called the a) pericardium. b) pleura. c) myocardium. d) mediastinum. e) endocardium. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.2 Describe the structure of the pericardium and the heart wall. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

3) The apex of the heart is normally pointed a) at the midline. b) to the left of the midline. c) to the right of the midline.

d) is different for males and females e) posteriorly. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.1 Describe the location of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

4) The outermost layer of the pericardium, which consists of inelastic dense irregular connective tissue, is called the a) parietal layer of pericardium. b) serous pericardium. c) fibrous pericardium. d) epicardium. e) endocardium. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.2 Describe the structure of the pericardium and the heart wall. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

5) Which of the following is used to reduce friction between the layers of membranes surrounding the heart? a) Synovial fluid b) Endocardium c) Pleural fluid d) Pericardial fluid e) Capillary endothelium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.2 Describe the structure of the pericardium and the heart wall. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

6) Which layer of the heart wall consists of mesothelium and connective tissue?

a) Epicardium b) Myocardium c) Endocardium d) Fibrous pericardium e) None of the answer selections are correct Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.2 Describe the structure of the pericardium and the heart wall. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

7) Which layer of the heart wall consists of cardiac muscle tissue? a) Epicardium b) Pericardium c) Myocardium d) Endocardium e) Hypocardium Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.2 Describe the structure of the pericardium and the heart wall. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

8) Identify the pouch-like structure that increases the total filling capacity of the atrium. a) Ventricle b) Coronary sulcus c) Fossa ovalis d) Interatrial septum e) Auricle. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

9) Identify the groove found on the surface of the heart and marks the boundary between the right and left ventricles. a) Coronary sulcus b) Anterior interventricular sulcus c) Posterior interventricular sulcus d) Coronary sinus e) Anterior intraventricular sulcus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

10) Identify the muscular ridges that are found on the anterior wall of the right atrium and extend into the auricles. a) Pectinate muscles b) Trabeculae carneae c) Coronary sulci d) Papillary muscles e) Chordae tendinae Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

11) Through which structure does blood pass from the right atrium to the right ventricle? a) Bicuspid valve b) Interventricular septum c) Tricuspid valve d) Mitral valve e) Ascending aorta

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

12) What type of tissue comprises the valves of the heart? a) Dense connective tissue b) Areolar connective tissue c) Hyaline cartilage d) Cardiac muscle tissue e) Adipose tissue Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

13) Blood leaving the left ventricle passes through which of the following structures? a) Right atrium b) Interventricular septum c) Bicuspid valve d) Aortic semilunar valve e) Pulmonary semilunar valve Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

14) Identify the structure found in a fetus that allows blood to flow directly from the pulmonary trunk into the aorta.

a) Fossa ovalis b) Foramen ovale c) Trabeculae carneae d) Descending aorta e) Ductus arteriosus Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

Question type: Essay

15) Why is the myocardium of the left ventricle thicker than the myocardium of the right ventricle? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.4 Relate the thickness of the chambers of the heart to their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart Solution: The left ventricle muscular wall is thicker than the right ventricle because it has to generate higher pressure to overcome the greater resistance of the longer systemic circulation route versus the shorter pulmonary circulation route.

Question type: Multiple Choice

16) Contraction of the ventricles of the heart leads to blood moving directly a) into arteries. b) into capillaries. c) into veins. d) through an atrioventricular valve. e) through the apex. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

17) Contraction of the atria of the heart leads to blood moving directly a) into auricles. b) into arteries. c) into veins d) through atrioventricular valves e) through semilunar valves. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

18) Which valve below prevents blood from flowing back into the right ventricle? a) Tricuspid valve b) Bicuspid valve c) Pulmonary semilunar valve d) Aortic semilunar valve e) Mitral valve Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

Question type: Essay

19) Explain how the heart pumps blood into two separate closed circuits that are arranged in series.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.2. Describe the valves of the heart and the circulation of blood. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Heart Valves and Circulation of Blood Solution: The two circuits are the pulmonary and systemic circuits.Venous blood from the systemic circulation enters the right atrium. The blood moves from the right atrium into the right ventricle of the heart, which pumps blood through the pulmonary circuit eventually filling the left atrium. The blood moves from the left atrium into the left ventricle of the heart, which pumps blood through the systemic circuit back into the right atrium.

Question type: Multiple Choice

20) What of the following chambers of the heart contain deoxygenated blood? a) Left atrium and left ventricle b) Left atrium only c) Right atrium and right ventricle d) Right ventricle only e) Left atrium and right ventricle Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

21) Which of the following blood vessel is used to distribute oxygenated blood to the myocardium? a) Coronary artery b) Coronary vein c) Coronary sinus d) Vena cava e) Myocardial vein Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

22) Cardiac muscle fibers are electrically connected to neighboring fibers by a) desmosomes. b) tight junctions. c) gap junctions. d) interneurons. e) chordae tendinae. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the cardiac conduction system. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System

23) Which of the following type of muscle contains the largest number of mitochondria per cell? a) Smooth muscle b) Skeletal muscle c) Cardiac muscle d) All the muscle types contain approximately the same number. e) Mitochondria are not found in muscle cells. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the cardiac conduction system. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System

Question type: Essay

24) Briefly describe why cardiac tissue cannot repair itself after damage?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the cardiac conduction system. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System Solution: Cardiac muscle lacks stem cells and mature cardiac muscle fibers cannot go through mitosis.

Question type: Multiple Choice

25) Which network of specialized cardiac muscle fibers provide a path for each cycle of cardiac excitation to progress through the heart? a) Systemic circuit b) Intercalated discs c) Cardiovascular center d) Cardiac conduction system e) Pulmonary circuit Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Explain how an action potential occurs in cardiac contractile fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System

26) Which of the following correctly lists the sequence of structures that a cardiac action potential follows in order to excite normal contraction of the heart? a) Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers, Atrioventricular (AV) node b) Sinoatrial (SA) node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, Bundle of His c) Purkinje fibers, AV node, SA node, Bundle of His d) SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers e) Bundle of His, SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Explain how an action potential occurs in cardiac contractile fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System

27) In comparison to skeletal muscle fibers, the contractile fibers of the heart are depolarized for period of time. a) a shorter b) a longer c) the same Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Explain how an action potential occurs in cardiac contractile fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System

28) The volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta each minute is called the a) cardiac output. b) cardiac input. c) stroke volume. d) heart rate. e) pulse pressure. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.5 Describe factors involved in cardiac output and heart rate. Study Objective 2: SO 20.5.1 Define cardiac output. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.5 Cardiac Output

29) Which term refers to the period of time during a cardiac cycle when contraction of a chamber occurs and pressure within the chamber rises? a) filling b) systole

c) repolarization d) diastole e) fibrillation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Describe the pressure and volume changes that occur during a cardiac cycle and the relation to heart sounds. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.1 Describe the pressure and volume changes that occur during a cardiac cycle. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 The Cardiac Cycle

30) During which of following periods does the largest volume of blood enter the arteries? a) atrial diastole b) ventricular diastole c) atrial systole d) ventricular systole Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Describe the pressure and volume changes that occur during a cardiac cycle and the relation to heart sounds. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.1 Describe the pressure and volume changes that occur during a cardiac cycle. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 The Cardiac Cycle

31) The second heart sound (dupp) closely follows which of the events listed below? a) Valvular stenosis b) Semilunar valves opening c) Atrioventricular valves closing d) Semilunar valves closing e) Atrioventricular valves opening Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Describe the pressure and volume changes that occur during a cardiac cycle and the relation to heart sounds. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Relate the timing of heart sounds to the ECG waves and pressure changes during systole and diastole.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 The Cardiac Cycle

32) Which structure in the heart initiates action potentials that stimulate contraction of the heart at constant rate of about 100 beats per minute? a) Cardiac accelerator nerves b) Atrioventricular node c) Cardiovascular center d) Sinoatrial node e) Bundle of His Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Explain how an action potential occurs in cardiac contractile fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System

33) Stimulation of which nerve reduces heart rate? a) Cardiac accelerator nerve b) Hypoglossal nerve c) Spinal accessory d) Vagus nerve e) Phrenic nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.5 Describe factors involved in cardiac output and heart rate. Study Objective 2: SO 20.5.2 Describe the factors that affect regulation of stroke volume. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.5 Cardiac Output

34) Which of the following would lead to a decreased heart rate? a) Increased norepinephrine release b) Increased thyroid hormone release c) Increased potassium levels in plasma d) Increased calcium levels in plasma e) Increased sympathetic stimulation

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.5 Describe factors involved in cardiac output and heart rate. Study Objective 2: SO 20.5.3 Outline the factors that affect the regulation of heart rate. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.5 Cardiac Output

35) Which part of the brain contains the cardiovascular center that regulates heart rate? a) Midbrain b) Cerebrum c) Medulla oblongata d) Cerebellum e) Thalamus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.5 Describe factors involved in cardiac output and heart rate. Study Objective 2: SO 20.5.3 Outline the factors that affect the regulation of heart rate. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.5 Cardiac Output

36) Which wave in an electrocardiogram represents repolarization of the ventricles? a) R wave b) T wave c) S wave d) P wave e) Q wave Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.3 Describe the electrical events of a normal electrocardiogram (ECG). Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System

37) Which of the following selections lists conditions that would lead to increased stroke volume? a) increased preload, increased afterload, increased contractility

b) decreased preload, decreased afterload, decreased contractility c) increased preload, decreased afterload, increased contractility d) decreased preload, increased afterload, increased contractility e) increased preload, increased afterload, decreased contractility Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.5 Describe factors involved in cardiac output and heart rate. Study Objective 2: SO 20.5.2 Describe the factors that affect regulation of stroke volume. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.5 Cardiac Output

38) Which of the following electrocardiogram (EKG) waves represents atrial depolarization? a) R wave b) T wave c) S wave d) P wave e) Q wave Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Describe the pressure and volume changes that occur during a cardiac cycle and the relation to heart sounds. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Relate the timing of heart sounds to the ECG waves and pressure changes during systole and diastole. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 The Cardiac Cycle

39) Which portion of the heart wall is responsible for the pumping action?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.2 Describe the structure of the pericardium and the heart wall. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

40) In the diagram, where are the trabeculae carneae?

a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.2 Describe the structure of the pericardium and the heart wall. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

41) In the diagram, where is the left auricle of the left atrium?

a) C b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

42) In the diagram, which labeled structure prevents blood flow from the right ventricle back into the right atrium?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

43) In the diagram, which labeled structure is the pulmonary semilunar valve?

a) B b) D c) E d) A e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

44) In the diagram, which labeled structures are atrioventricular valves?

a) B only b) D only c) A and C d) B and D e) A, B, C and D Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

45) Describe what is happening during the phase of the cardiac action potential labeled 2 in the diagram.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Explain how an action potential occurs in cardiac contractile fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System Solution: Phase 2 is the plateau phase which occurs due to opening of slow voltage-gated calcium channels, which allow continued inflow of Ca2+ from ICF into the cytosol. This continuous inflow of Ca+2 causes sustained depolarization of the cardiac muscle cells.

46) Briefly describe what is happening at stage of the ECG labeled 5 in the diagram.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.3 Describe the electrical events of a normal electrocardiogram (ECG). Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System Solution: The contractile fibers of the ventricles are repolarizing, which generates the T wave in the ECG.

Question type: Multiple Choice

47) Which phases of a heartbeat shown in the diagram involve repolarization of the heart’s four chambers?

a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 4 c) 4 and 6 d) 1, 3, and 5 e) 1, 2, 4 and 6 f) 3 and 5 Answer: f Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the cardiac conduction system. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System

48) Which of the labeled diagrams shows coarctation of the aorta?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.9 Describe the disorders that affect the heart. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Heart

49) Which of the labeled diagrams shows an atrial septal defect?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.9 Describe the disorders that affect the heart. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Heart

50) Which of the labeled steps in the diagram represent formation of the primitive heart tube?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.8 Describe the development of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.8 Development of the Heart

51) Which of the labeled steps in the diagram represent formation of the endocardial tubes?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.8 Describe the development of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.8 Development of the Heart

52) Which blood vessel shown in the figure carries oxygenated blood to the lower thoracic cavity and the abdominal cavity of the body?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) H Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

53) Which labeled structure shown in the diagram is a remnant of fetal circulation that is not directly involved in adult circulation?

a) A b) B c) H d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

54) Which labeled blood vessel in the diagram is an artery carrying deoxygenated blood?

a) A b) B c) C d) E e) I Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

55) Which labeled blood vessel shown in the diagram is the left common carotid artery?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

56) Which labeled structure shown in the diagram is a pouch-like extension that serves to slightly increase the capacity of an atrium?

a) F b) E c) G d) I e) D Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

57) What labeled structure in the figure is the ligamentum arteriosum?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

58) What labeled structure in the figure increases the blood volume capacity of an atrium?

a) B b) G c) D d) F Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

59) Which structure in the figure is labeled B?

a) left common carotid artery b) left subclavian artery c) left pulmonary vein d) mitral valve Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

60) Which structure in the figure is labeled A?

a) left common carotid artery b) left subclavian artery c) left pulmonary vein d) mitral valve Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

61) Which labeled structure in the figure acts as the natural pacemaker of the heart?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the cardiac conduction system. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System

62) Which labeled structure in the figure is the AV node?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the cardiac conduction system. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System

63) Which labeled structure in the figure represents the only potential pathway for conducting action potentials from the atria to the ventricles?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the cardiac conduction system. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System

64) Which labeled structure in the figure carries the cardiac action potential directly into the contractile fibers of the ventricular myocardium?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the cardiac conduction system. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System

Question type: Essay

65) Discuss the common nutrient sources used by cardiac muscle to produce ATP in a resting individual. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue and the electrical conduction system of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Explain how an action potential occurs in cardiac contractile fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Cardiac Muscle Tissue and the Cardiac Conduction System Solution: At rest, the heart relies exclusively on aerobic cellular respiration. At rest, the heart’s ATP comes mainly from oxidation of fatty acids (60%), and glucose (35%) with smaller contributions from lactic acid, amino acids, and ketone bodies.

66) Define arrhythmia and discuss different categories of arrhythmias. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.9 Describe the disorders that affect the heart. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Heart Solution: The term arrhythmia or dysrhythmia refers to an abnormal rhythm as a result of a defect in the conduction system of the heart. Arrhythmias are categorized by their speed, rhythm, and origination of the problem. Bradycardia refers to a slow heart rate (blow 50 bpm); tachycardia refers to a rapid heart rate (over 100 bpm); and fibrillation refers to rapid, uncoordinated heartbeats. Arrhythmias that originate in the atria are called supraventricular or atrial arrhythmias; those that originate in the ventricles are called ventricular arrhythmias.

Question type: Multiple Choice

67) Cardiac output is the volume of blood ejected from the minute. a) left, aorta b) right, aorta c) left or right, aorta or pulmonary trunk d) right, pulmonary trunk e) both left and right aorta are correct Answer: c

ventricle into the

each

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.5 Describe factors involved in cardiac output and heart rate. Study Objective 2: SO 20.5.1 Define cardiac output. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.5 Cardiac Output 68) The difference between a person’s maximum cardiac output and resting cardiac output is called the a) stroke volume. b) peripheral resistance. c) afterload. d) cardiac reserve. e) venous return. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.5 Describe factors involved in cardiac output and heart rate. Study Objective 2: SO 20.5.1 Define cardiac output. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.5 Cardiac Output

69) What is the function of the foramen ovale during fetal life? a) Allowing blood to flow directly from the right atrium into the left atrium. b) Allowing blood to flow directly from the right ventricle into the left ventricle. c) Serves as a valve in the vena cava to regulate venous blood flow. d) Prevents back flow of blood from aorta into the left ventricle. e) Prevents back flow of blood from pulmonary trunk into the right ventricle. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.18 Describe the development of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.18 Development of the Heart

70) Isovolumetric contraction is the phase of the cardiac cardiac cycle in which a) the semilunar valves are open. b) ventricular repolarization occurs. c) atrial depolarization occurs. d) oxygenated blood leaves the heart into the systemic circulation. e) ventricular pressure increases and ventricular volume remains the same.

Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Describe the pressure and volume changes that occur during a cardiac cycle and the relation to heart sounds. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.1 Describe the pressure and volume changes that occur during a cardiac cycle. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 The Cardiac Cycle

71) Which of the following chambers of the heart is surrounded by the thickest layer of myocardium? a) right atrium b) left atrium c) right ventricle d) left ventricle e) right auricle Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Describe the anatomical location and structure of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.4 Relate the thickness of the chambers of the heart to their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Anatomy of the Heart

72) Heart murmurs are often heard in individuals with abnormalities in the

of the heart.

a) valves b) myocardium c) SA node d) AV node e) endocardium Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Describe the pressure and volume changes that occur during a cardiac cycle and the relation to heart sounds. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Relate the timing of heart sounds to the ECG waves and pressure changes during systole and diastole. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 The Cardiac Cycle

73) In comparison to a sedentary individual, a well-trained athlete will usually have all the following characteristics EXCEPT a) a higher cardiac reserve. b) a higher resting cardiac output. c) a higher stroke volume. d) hypertrophy of the heart. e) resting bradycardia. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.6 Explain how the heart is affected by exercise. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.6 Exercise and the Heart

74) During heart transplants, the nerves are severed resulting in a faster resting heart rate (approximately 100 beats per minute) after the transplant. a) glossopharyngeal b) cardiac accelerator c) vagus d) phrenic e) cervical spinal Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.7 Describe several techniques used for failing hearts. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.7 Help for Failing Hearts 75) A corrective cardiac procedure in which a large piece of a patient’s own latissimus dorsi muscle is wrapped around the heart and stimulated by an implanted pacemaker to assist the pumping action of a damaged heart. a) myocardial infarction b) tetrology of Fallot c) cardiomyopathy d) cardiomegaly e) cardiomyoplasty Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.7 Describe several techniques used for failing hearts.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.7 Help for Failing Hearts

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 21

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following blood vessels carries blood away from the heart to other organs? a) arteries b) capillaries c) venules d) arterioles e) veins Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.2 Outline the vessels through which the blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

2) Which of the following blood vessels carries blood from the tissues back to the heart? a) arteries b) arterioles c) aorta d) veins e) capillaries Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.2 Outline the vessels through which the blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

3) Which layer of the arterial wall is responsible for vasoconstriction?

a) tunica interna b) tunica media c) tunica externa d) tunica albuginea e) tunica fascia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

4) Which layer of the arterial wall is primarily composed of elastic and collagen fibers? a) tunica interna b) tunica media c) tunica externa d) tunica albuginea e) tunica fascia Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

5) When an artery or arteriole is damaged, its smooth muscle layer contracts producing a) tear in the vessel. b) new vessel branching off the artery or arteriole. c) a vascular spasm. d) tetanus. e) increased blood flow to the damaged vessel. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

6) Elastic arteries function as a) vasodilators. b) conduits to the tissues of the trunk only. c) barriers to microcirculation. d) pressure reservoirs. e) vasoconstrictors. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.3 Distinguish between pressure reservoirs and blood reservoirs. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

7) In resting individuals, which vessels serve as a large blood reservoir from which blood can be quickly diverted to other vessels as needed? a) Arteries and arterioles b) Arterioles and capillaries c) Venules and capillaries d) Veins and venules e) Aorta and veins Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.3 Distinguish between pressure reservoirs and blood reservoirs. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

8) Which type of blood vessel plays a key role in regulating blood flow into capillaries? a) arteries b) arterioles

c) venules d) veins e) aorta Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

9) Which of the following structures are found in veins but NOT in arteries? a) tunica externa b) tunica media c) tunica interna d) valve e) lumen Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

10) Capillaries are also referred to as a) exchange vessels. b) vasoconstrictors. c) vasodilators. d) pressure reservoirs. e) distributing vessels. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

11) Which of the following is the most important method of capillary exchange? a) diffusion b) transcytosis c) bulk flow d) primary active transport e) secondary active transport Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Discuss the pressures that cause movement of fluids between capillaries and interstitial spaces. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Capillary Exchange

12) Which of the following structures is used to control the flow of blood through a capillary bed? a) thoroughfare channels b) precapillary sphincters c) postcapillary sphincters d) venules e) valves in veins Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.2 Outline the vessels through which the blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

13) Which of the following types of tissues contains continuous capillaries? a) skeletal muscle b) smooth muscle c) connective tissue d) lungs

e) all of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

14) The alternate route of blood flow to a body part through an anastomosis is called a) a thoroughfare channel. b) a blood reservoir. c) a detour route. d) collateral circulation. e) microcirculation. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.2 Outline the vessels through which the blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

15) The largest driving force for pulling fluid from the interstitial spaces back into the capillaries is a) interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure. b) interstitial fluid osmotic pressure. c) blood colloid osmotic pressure. d) blood hydrostatic pressure. e) glomerular hydrostatic pressure. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Discuss the pressures that cause movement of fluids between capillaries and interstitial spaces. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Capillary Exchange

16) The pressure-driven movement of fluids and solutes from blood into interstitial fluid is called a) reabsorption. b) filtration. c) bulk flow. d) osmosis. e) transcytosis. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Discuss the pressures that cause movement of fluids between capillaries and interstitial spaces. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Capillary Exchange

17) The volume of blood that circulates through the systemic (or pulmonary) blood vessels per minute is called a) stroke volume. b) tidal volume. c) cardiac output. d) cardiac reserve. e) total peripheral resistance. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Describe the relationship between blood volume, pressure and flow. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 Explain the factors that regulate the volume of blood flow. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Hemodynamics: Factors Affecting Blood Flow

18) Cardiac output is dependent on both a) heart rate and stroke volume. b) stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance. c) heart rate and systemic vascular resistance. d) blood type and stroke volume. e) blood pressure and heart rate Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Describe the relationship between blood volume, pressure and flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 Explain the factors that regulate the volume of blood flow. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Hemodynamics: Factors Affecting Blood Flow

19) Which of the following would NOT result in an increase in arterial blood pressure? a) Increased blood volume b) Increased sympathetic stimulation c) Increased heart rate d) Increased stroke volume e) Increased arteriolar vasodilation Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow

20) Which of the following would NOT result in an increase in systemic vascular resistance? a) Decreased diameter of systemic arterioles b) Increased blood viscosity c) Decreased length of the systemic circulatory route d) Increased vasoconstriction of systemic arterioles e) Increased red blood cell count Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Describe the relationship between blood volume, pressure and flow. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.3 Describe the factors that determine mean arterial pressure and systemic vascular resistance. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Hemodynamics: Factors Affecting Blood Flow

21) Which of the following characteristics of blood depends mostly on the ratio of RBCs to plasma volume? a) total blood volume b) blood viscosity c) venous return d) clotting time e) immunoglobulin profile Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Describe the relationship between blood volume, pressure and flow. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.4 Describe the relationship between cross-sectional area and velocity of blood flow. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Hemodynamics: Factors Affecting Blood Flow

22) Which of the following is NOT a contribution of the cardiovascular system to other body systems? a) Blood delivers clotting factors and WBCs that aid in hemostasis when skin is damaged. b) Blood delivers calcium and phosphate ions that are needed for building bone extracellular matrix. c) Blood carries carbon dioxide to body tissues and removes oxygen for use by other organs. d) Blood carries newly absorbed nutrients and water to the liver. e) Blood circulates cells and chemicals that carry out immune functions. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.22 Describe how the cardiovascular system contributes to homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Focus on Homeostasis: The Cardiovascular System

23) The cardiovascular center is located a) in the thoracic cavity. b) in the cerebral cortex. c) in the cerebellum. d) in the medulla oblongata. e) in the hypothalamus. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow

24) All of the following aid in venous return of blood to heart EXCEPT a) the skeletal muscle pump. b) the respiratory pump. c) blood viscosity. d) venoconstriction

e) venous valves. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow

25) Which of the following would be a normal response of the cardiovascular system to a decreased frequency of action potentials arising from the baroreceptors? a) Increased systemic vascular resistance b) Increased parasympathetic stimulation c) Decreased heart rate d) Decreased stroke volume e) Decreased cardiac output Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow

26) Which of the following hormones would NOT stimulate changes that lead to an increase in arterial blood pressure? a) Atrial natriuretic peptide(ANP) b) Antidiuretic hormone(ADH) c) Aldosterone d) Angiotensin e) Epinephrine Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow

27) When chemoreceptors in blood vessels detect high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood, they stimulate all of the following changes EXCEPT a) increased vasoconstriction of arterioles. b) increased blood pressure.

c) decreased respiratory rate. d) increased sympathetic stimulation of arterioles and veins. e) increased vasoconstriction of veins. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow

28) The myogenic response of smooth muscle results in a) more forceful contractions when stretched. b) more forceful contractions when relaxed c) tetany. d) relaxation of smooth muscle when stretched. e) formation of new desmosomes. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow

29) In which of the following types of blood vessels is blood pressure NOT pulsing? 1. Arteries 2. Capillaries 3. Arterioles 4. Venules a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) Both 2 and 4 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.5 Define pulse, and systolic, diastolic, and pulse pressures. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.5 Checking Circulation

30) Abnormal conditions such as atherosclerosis and patent ductus arteriosus cause an large increase in the a) blood colloid osmotic pressure. b) central venous pressure. c) pulse pressure. d) venular hydrostatic pressure. e) capillary hyrdostatic pressure. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 21.5 Define pulse, and systolic, diastolic, and pulse pressures. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.5 Checking Circulation

31) This type of shock is due to decreased blood volume. a) Hypovolemic b) Cardiogenic c) Vascular d) Obstructive e) Neurogenic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.6 Describe the four types of shock and the negative feedback process involved in the body's response. Study Objective 2: SO 21.6.1 Define shock, and describe the four types of shock. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.6 Shock and Homeostasis

32) Which of the labeled layers in the diagram of the arterial wall consists mainly of elastic fibers and smooth muscle fibers?

a) A b) B c) C d) A and B e) A, B and C Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

33) Which of the labeled layers in the diagram of the arterial wall is composed of a simple squamous epithelium, a basement membrane and a layer of elastic tissue?

a) A b) B c) C d) A and B e) A, B, and C Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

34) Which labeled structure in the figure is a metarteriole?

a) A b) B c) D d) F e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

35) Which labeled structure in the figure is a capillary?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

36) Which labeled structure in the figure is precapillary sphincter?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

37) Which of the capillaries shown in the figure has an incomplete or absent basement membrane?

a) A b) B c) C d) A and B e) A, B, and C Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

38) Which of the types of capillaries shown in the figure is commonly found in the kidneys, villi of the small intestine, choroid plexuses, and some endocrine glands?

a) A b) B c) C d) A and B e) B and C Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

39) What physiological process is depicted in this figure?

a) Venous blood blockage b) Skeletal muscle pump c) Respiratory pump d) Thoroughfare channels e) Anastomosis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Describe the relationship between blood volume, pressure and flow. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 Explain the factors that regulate the volume of blood flow. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Hemodynamics: Factors Affecting Blood Flow

40) What do following arteries have in common: superficial temporal artery, brachial artery and common carotid artery? a) They are all areas where Korotkoff sounds cannot be heard. b) They are all only found on the left side of the body. c) They are all common pulse points. d) They all contain baroreceptors. e) They all deliver blood to structures in the head. Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.5 Define pulse, and define systolic, diastolic, and pulse pressures. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.5 Checking Circulation

41) Which of the following would NOT occur in response to hypovolemic shock? a) Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAA) system. b) Secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) c) Activation of the sympathetic division of the ANS. d) Release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). e) Release of local vasodilators. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.6 Describe the four types of shock and the negative feedback process involved in the body's response. Study Objective 2: SO 21.6.2 Explain how the body’s response to shock is regulated by negative feedback. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.6 Shock and Homeostasis

42) All the veins of the systemic circulation eventually drain into the a) superior vena cava. b) inferior vena cava. c) coronary sinus. d) superior and inferior vena cava. e) superior and inferior vena cava and coronary sinus. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.7 Describe and compare the major routes that blood takes through various regions of the body. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.7 Circulatory Routes

43) The pulmonary trunk divides into a) brachiocephalic trunk and left subclavian artery b) right and left subclavain arteries. c) right and left pulmonary veins. d) right and left pulmonary arteries.

e) right and left common carotid arteries. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.7 Describe and compare the major routes that blood takes through various regions of the body. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.7 Circulatory Routes

44) In fetal circulation, what is the opening between the right and left atria called? a) Ductus venousus b) Umbilicus c) Fossa ovalis d) Foramen ovale e) Ductus arteriosus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.7 Describe and compare the major routes that blood takes through various regions of the body. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.7 Circulatory Routes

45) Which of the following vessels is a pulse point found at the wrist? a) Radial artery b) Subclavian artery c) Axillary artery d) Cephalic artery e) Palmar artery Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.5 Define pulse, and define systolic, diastolic, and pulse pressures. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.5 Checking Circulation

46) Which of the following vessels supplies blood to the intestines? a) Radial artery b) Subclavian artery c) Mesenteric artery

d) Coronary artery e) Popliteal artery Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.12 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the abdominal aorta Section Reference 1: Exhibit 21.E Abdominal Aorta

47) Which of the following vessels supplies blood to the kidneys? a) Hepatic artery b) Renal artery c) Mesenteric artery d) Coronary artery e) Popliteal artery Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.12 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the abdominal aorta Section Reference 1: Exhibit 21.E Abdominal Aorta

48) Which of the following vessels drains blood from the lower leg? a) Jugular vein b) Superior vena cava c) Tibial vein d) Coronary vein e) Inferior mesenteric vein Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.19 Identify the principal superficial and deep veins that drain the lower limbs. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 21.L Veins of the Lower Limbs

49) Which of the following vessels drains blood from the head and neck? a) Median cubital vein b) Inferior vena cava c) Axillary vein

d) Femoral vein e) Jugular vein Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.15 Identify the three major veins that drain blood from the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 21.H Veins of the Head and Neck

50) Which of the following vessels carries the venous blood from the lower body into the right atrium? a) Inferior vena cava b) Superior vena cava c) Tibial vein d) Coronary vein e) Iliac vein Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.14 Identify the three systemic veins that return deoxygenated blood to the heart. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 21.G Veins of the Systemic Circulation

51) When the umbilical cord is tied after birth, the umbilical arteries close by filling in with a) placental fluid. b) platelet plugs. c) connective tissue. d) smooth muscle. e) epithelial tissue. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.7 Describe and compare the major routes that blood takes through various regions of the body. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.7 Circulatory Routes

Question type: Essay

52) Describe the vessel wall characteristics of the five main types of blood vessels that blood travels through from the time it leaves the left ventricle until it returns to the right atrium. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels Solution: Blood is carried away from the heart in arteries. All arteries have an outer tunica externa (mostly elastic and collagen fibers), an inner tunica media (mostly smooth muscle and elastic fibers) and a lining called the tunica interna (endothelial tissue). Large diameter arteries have more elastic fibers than smooth muscle in their walls and conduct blood to regions of the body, e.g. the subclavian artery carries blood toward the upper extremity. As arteries enter a body region, they branch and their diameters decrease. Their walls have proportionately more smooth muscle than elastic tissue. These arteries are called muscular or distributing arteries, e.g. the radial artery. Branching of the blood vessels continues until the vessels are nearly microscopic arterioles. Arterioles have little elastic tissue, but can change diameter quickly because of the smooth muscle in their wall. Thus, they are the major sites of regulation of blood pressure and distribution. Arterioles feed into capillary beds. Capillaries are the sites of exchange between the tissues and the blood. Venules drain the capillaries and begin the path back to the heart. Venules merge to form veins (and ultimately, vena cava) that carry the blood to the heart. Veins have much less smooth muscle than arteries. Vein also have valves that help prevent backflow of blood.

53) In a freak accident, an overheated and dehydrated roofer falls off the roof and onto a mirror that is being brought into a construction site. The mirror breaks and cuts several blood vessels, including the femoral artery. What will happen to the roofer’s NFP in his capillary beds? Why? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Discuss the pressures that cause movement of fluids between capillaries and interstitial spaces. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Capillary Exchange Solution: If the roofer overheated, he probably had already lost a significant volume of body fluid through perspiration as his body tried to cool off. That loss would account for the dehydration. Loss of fluid without significant loss of solutes causes the blood colloidal osmotic pressure (BCOP) to increase. The cuts the roofer suffered would cause hemorrhaging and a loss of blood hydrostatic pressure (BHP). If the BHP goes down and the BCOP goes up, the net filtration pressure (NFP) should decrease because NFP = (BHP + IFOP) – BCOP. [IFOP is the interstitial fluid osmotic pressure, which is so much smaller than the BHP or BCOP that it usually doesn’t change NFP.]

54) Identify and discuss the factors that contribute to systemic vascular resistance. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Describe the relationship between blood volume, pressure and flow. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.3 Describe the factors that determine mean arterial pressure and systemic vascular resistance. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Hemodynamics: Factors Affecting Blood Flow Solution: 1) Blood viscosity is dependent on the ratio of formed elements and proteins to plasma. In general, increased viscosity, via increased formed elements or decreasing plasma volume, increases resistance. 2) Total blood vessel length is directly proportional to resistance; thus, increasing length of circuit (by adding new blood vessels to serve added tissue) increases resistance. 3) Diameter/radius of blood vessels, which is primarily controlled by ANS, has a major effect on resistance. Increased vessel diameter decreases resistance, thus increasing flow. In general, changes in the diameter of small vessels (e.g. arterioles) have greater effect because more surface area is in contact with blood.

55) Describe the route of an RBC traveling from the heart to the left elbow and back to the heart. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the pressure and volume relationships of the vessels as blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.2 Outline the vessels through which the blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels Solution: From the heart, the RBC will enter the ascending aorta and then the aortic arch. The RBC will exit the aorta through the left subclavian artery, continue on that route through the axillary artery and into the brachial artery. At the elbow, the blood cell will exit into one of the small distributing arteries, move into a capillary bed, and then into venules in the elbow region. The RBC will then probably enter the median cubital vein and move into either the basilic or the cephalic vein. The basilic vein drains into the brachial vein, which drains into the axillary vein. The cephalic vein drains directly into the axillary vein. From axillary vein, the RBC will travel into the subclavian and brachiocephalic veins before entering the superior vena cava. The SVC will take the RBC back to the heart.

56) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “B”?

a) right ulnar artery b) right subclavian artery c) right radial artery d) right brachial artery e) right axillary artery Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.8 Describe the four principal aortic divisions and the arterial branches that arise from each. Study Objective 2: SO 21.8.1 Identify the four principal divisions of the aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 21.A The Aorta and Its Branches

57) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “A”?

a) right subclavian artery b) right radial artery c) right common carotid artery d) right brachial artery e) right axillary artery Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.8 Describe the four principal aortic divisions and the arterial branches that arise from each. Study Objective 2: SO 21.8.1 Identify the four principal divisions of the aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 21.A The Aorta and Its Branches

58) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “B”?

a) left femoral vein b) left great saphenous vein c) left popliteal vein d) left anterior tibial vein e) left fibular vein Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.14 Identify the three systemic veins that return deoxygenated blood to the heart. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 21.G Veins of the Systemic Circulation

59) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “C”?

a) left femoral vein b) left great saphenous vein c) left popliteal vein d) left anterior tibial vein e) left fibular vein Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.14 Identify the three systemic veins that return deoxygenated blood to the heart. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 21.G Veins of the Systemic Circulation

60) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “F”?

a) left femoral vein b) left great saphenous vein c) left popliteal vein d) left anterior tibial vein e) left small saphenous vein Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.14 Identify the three systemic veins that return deoxygenated blood to the heart. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 21.G Veins of the Systemic Circulation

61) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “C”?

a) accessory hemiazygos vein b) hemiazygos vein c) left gonadal vein d) right renal vein e) right suprarenal vein Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 21.18 Identify the principal veins that drain the abdomen and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 21.K Veins of the Abdomen and Pelvis

62) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “D”?

a) accessory hemiazygos vein b) hemiazygos vein c) right renal vein d) right suprarenal vein e) pericardial vein Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.18 Identify the principal veins that drain the abdomen and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 21.K Veins of the Abdomen and Pelvis

63) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “G”?

a) accessory hemiazygos vein b) hemiazygos vein c) right suprarenal vein d) pericardial vein e) azygos vein Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 21.17 Identify the components of the azygos system of veins. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 21.J Veins of the Thorax

Question type: Essay

64) What is the main difference between the pulmonary and systemic circulations with respect to their autoregulatory response to changes in blood O2 level? Answer: Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow Solution: In systemic circulation, low O2 causes dilation of the blood vessel walls. This will lead to increase in O2 delivery to tissues. In pulmonary circulation, the opposite occurs in response to low levels of O2. The pulmonary vessels constrict to ensure blood only goes to those alveoli that are receiving rich O2 supply and avoids poorly ventilated sacs.

Question type: Multiple Choice

65) During embryonic development, blood vessels are formed by a) endodermal cells. b) pluripotent stem cells. c) angioblasts. d) fibroblasts. e) osteoblasts. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.20 Describe the development of blood vessels and blood, and explain the effects of aging and disorders on the cardiovascular system. Study Objective 2: SO 21.20.1 Describe the development of blood vessels and blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.8 Development of Blood Vessels and Blood

66) During embryonic development, blood cells are formed from a) endodermal cells. b) pluripotent stem cells. c) angioblasts. d) fibroblasts. e) osteoblasts. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.20 Describe the development of blood vessels and blood, and explain the effects of aging and disorders on the cardiovascular system. Study Objective 2: SO 21.20.1 Describe the development of blood vessels and blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.8 Development of Blood Vessels and Blood

Question type: Essay

67) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.18 Identify the principal veins that drain the abdomen and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 21.K Veins of the Abdomen and Pelvis Solution: A vein that carries blood from one capillary network to another is called a portal vein. The hepatic portal circulation carries venous blood from the gastrointestinal organs and spleen to the liver. It receives blood from GI organs and the spleen and delivers it to the liver. After a meal it is very rich in nutrients absorbed from the GI tract.

Question type: Multiple Choice

68) Normal blood pressure for a young adult male is a) 120/80. b) 130/90. c) 80/120. d) 100/80. e) 150/85. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.5 Define pulse, and define systolic, diastolic, and pulse pressures. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.5 Checking Circulation

69) Which of the following types of blood vessels have high pulsing blood pressure? a) arterioles b) capillaries c) venules d) veins e) vena cavae Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.5 Define pulse, and define systolic, diastolic, and pulse pressures. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.5 Checking Circulation

70) What would the pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure be for an individual with a blood pressure of 120/80? a) 40; 100 b) 40; 93.3 c) 40; 103.3 d) 200; 100 e) 100; 200 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.5 Define pulse, and define systolic, diastolic, and pulse pressures. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.5 Checking Circulation

71) Which of the following effectors would NOT be activated as described below in response to hypovolemic shock? a) Adrenal cortex releases aldosterone. b) Kidneys conserve salt and water. c) Heart rate increases. d) Systemic arterioles vasodilate. e) Heart contractility increases. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 21.6 Describe the four types of shock and the negative feedback process involved in the body's response. Study Objective 2: SO 21.6.2 Explain how the body’s response to shock is regulated by negative feedback. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.6 Shock and Homeostasis

72) The pulmonary circulatory route carries blood from the a) right atrium to the right ventricle . b) right ventricle to the left atrium. c) left atrium to the left ventricle. d) left ventricle to the right atrium. e) left ventricle to the coronary sinus. Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.7 Describe and compare the major routes that blood takes through various regions of the body. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.7 Circulatory Routes

73) All of the following changes are commonly observed in the cardiovascular system in response to aging EXCEPT a) decreased cardiac output. b) increased compliance of the aorta. c) loss of cardiac muscle strength. d) decline in maximum heart rate. e) increased systolic blood pressure. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.21 Explain the effects of aging on the cardiovascular system. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.9 Aging and the Cardiovascular System

74) Which of the following categories would an individual with a blood pressure of 145/95 be placed in? a) Normal b) High normal c) Prehypertension d) Stage 1 hypertension e) Stage 2 hypertension Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.23 Describe the disorders that affect blood vessels. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Cardiovascular System

75) Which of the following categories of hypertension drugs lower blood pressure by blocking formation of angiotensin II, which results in vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion? a) Diuretics b) ACE inhibitors c) Beta blockers d) Calcium channel blockers

e) Anabolic steroids Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.23 Describe the disorders that affect blood vessels. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Cardiovascular System

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 22

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic and immune system? a) Draining excess interstitial fluid b) Maintaining water homeostasis in the body c) Transporting dietary lipids d) Carrying out immune responses Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.1 List the components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

2) What is the major difference between lymph and interstitial fluid? a) Composition of electrolytes b) White blood cells are present in lymph c) Location d) Types of proteins present e) Red blood cells are present in interstitial fluid Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

3) Lack of resistance is also known as: a) Pathogenic b) Innate c) Specific

d) Susceptibility e) Lymphatic Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.1 List the components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

Question type: Essay

4) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.2 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function Solution: The ends of the endothelial cells in the wall of the lymphatic capillary overlap. When pressure is higher in the interstitial fluid than in the lymph, the cells separate slightly allowing interstitial fluid into the vessel. When pressure is greater inside, the cells are tightly packed, not allowing the lymph to cross back into the interstitial fluid.

Question type: Multiple Choice

5) What causes lymph from the small intestines to appear white? a) Proteins b) WBC c) RBC d) Lipids e) Carbohydrates Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.1 List the components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

6) Which of the following is not considered an organ of the immune system? a) Spleen b) Lymph node c) Red bone marrow d) Thymus e) Pancreas Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

7) The left subclavian vein receives lymph from the a) Left axillary vein b) Lumbar trunk c) Jugular trunk d) Thoracic duct e) Right lymphatic duct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.2 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

8) The skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps are used in the a) Lymphatic system b) Cardiovascular system c) Immune system d) Lymphatic and Immune systems only e) Lymphatic, Immune and Cardiovascular systems

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

9) Which organ produces a hormone that promotes maturation of T cells? a) Spleen b) Lymph node c) Red bone marrow d) Thymus e) Pancreas Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

10) In which part of the thymus are T cells thought to die? a) Capsule b) Trabeculae c) Epithelial cells d) Thymic (Hassall’s) corpuscles e) T cells do not die in the thymus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

11) Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system? a) Drain excessive interstitial fluid b) Transport dietary lipids c) Carry out immune responses d) All of these are functions of the lymphatic system e) None of these are functions of the lymphatic system Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

12) Which of the following is a function of the spleen? a) Removes worn out blood cells b) Circulates lymph c) Cleanses interstitial fluid d) Cleanses lymph e) Traps microbes with mucus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

13) Which of these does NOT provide a physical or chemical barrier? a) Macrophages b) Saliva c) Urine d) Mucus e) Stratified squamous epithelium Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Innate Immunity

Question type: Essay

14) Describe the barriers used in innate defense. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the components of innate immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Innate Immunity Solution: Barriers used by the innate defense include epidermis, mucus, hairs, cilia, lacrimal apparatus, saliva, urine, vaginal secretions, sebum, perspiration and gastric juices.

Question type: Multiple Choice

15) Which of these provides a non-specific cellular disease resistance mechanism? a) Macrophages b) T lymphocytes c) B lymphocytes d) Memory B cells e) Stratified squamous epithelium Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the components of innate immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Innate Immunity

16) Which anti-microbial substances reduce viral replication (in uninfected cells)? a) Transferrins b) Perforins c) Complement proteins d) Defensins e) Interferons Answer: e Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the components of innate immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Innate Immunity

17) Which anti-microbial substances promote cytolysis, phagocytosis and inflammation? a) Transferrins b) Perforins c) Complement proteins d) Defensins e) Interferons Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the components of innate immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Innate Immunity

18) Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation? a) Redness b) Pain c) Heat d) Mucus production e) Swelling Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the components of innate immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Innate Immunity

19) Which of the following intensifies the effect of interferons and promotes the rate of repair? a) Complement proteins b) Perforin c) Fever d) Macrophages e) Natural killer cells Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Innate Immunity

20) Which chemical(s) do NOT induce vasodilation and permeability (increased fluid flow) to an infection site? a) Histamines b) Kinins c) Perforin d) Leukotrienes e) Complement Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the components of innate immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Innate Immunity

21) When B and T cells are fully developed and mature, they are described as being a) Immunocompetent b) Pluripotent stem cells c) Primary lymphatic cells d) Specifically promoted e) Germ cells Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Understand the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.1 Define adaptive immunity, and describe how T cells and B cells arise. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Adaptive Immunity

22) Which of the following induces the production of a specific antibody? a) Phagocytosis b) Antigen c) Antibody d) Defensin e) Immunoglobulin Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Understand the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.2 Explain the relationship between an antigen and an antibody. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Adaptive Immunity

23) Which of the following stimulates an immune response ONLY when it is attached to a large carrier molecule? a) Epitope b) Antigen c) Hapten d) MHC antigen e) CD8 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Understand the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.2 Explain the relationship between an antigen and an antibody. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Adaptive Immunity

24) Genetic recombination generates diversity in what part (s) of the immune system? a) Antigen receptors b) MHC antigen c) Hapten d) MHC antigen and antigen receptors e) Epitopes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Understand the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.2 Explain the relationship between an antigen and an antibody. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Adaptive Immunity

25) Which class of cells includes macrophages, B cells and dendritic cells? a) Antigen presenting cells

b) Primary lymphocytes c) T cells d) RBC e) Epitope cells Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Understand the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.2 Explain the relationship between an antigen and an antibody. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Adaptive Immunity

26) To become activated, which of the following requires being bound to a foreign antigen AND simultaneous costimulation? a) B Cell b) T Cell c) Interferon d) MHC antigen e) Antigen presenting cell Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Understand the components and functions of the cell-mediated immune response. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Outline the steps in a cell-mediated immune response. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Cell-mediated Immunity

27) Which cells display CD4 proteins and interact with MHC Class II antigens? a) Cytotoxic T cells b) Helper T Cells c) Memory T Cells d) MHC antigens e) B cells Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Understand the components and functions of the cell-mediated immune response. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Outline the steps in a cell-mediated immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Cell-mediated Immunity

28) Which T cell toxin fragments DNA? a) Perforin b) Tumor antigen c) Interferons d) Lymphotoxin e) Toxin T Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Understand the components and functions of the cell-mediated immune response. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Outline the steps in a cell-mediated immune response. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Cell-mediated Immunity

Question type: Essay

29) List the five actions of antibodies. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Understand the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.2 List the chemical characteristics and actions of antibodies. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Antibody-mediated Immunity Solution: Antibodies can act as a neutralizing agent, they can immobilize bacteria, agglutinate and precipitate the antigen, activate the complement and enhance phagocytosis.

Question type: Multiple Choice

30) Which class of antibodies is mainly found in sweat, tears, breast milk and GI secretions? a) IgG b) IgA c) IgM d) IgD e) IgE

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Understand the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.2 List the chemical characteristics and actions of antibodies. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Antibody-mediated Immunity

31) Which of the following leads to inflammation, enhancement of phagocytosis and lysis of microbes? a) Classical complement system b) Alternative complement system c) Apoptosis d) Classical and Alternative complement systems e) Hapten activation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Understand the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.3 Explain how the complement system operates. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Antibody-mediated Immunity

32) Which action makes microbes more susceptible to phagocytosis? a) Opsonization b) Cytolysis c) Inflammation d) Complement e) Hybridoma Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Understand the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.3 Explain how the complement system operates. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Antibody-mediated Immunity

33) Which of the following is an inactive, self responsive cell?

a) Deleted cell b) Hybridoma cell c) Epitopic cell d) Anergy cell e) Natural killer cell Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe how self-recognition and self-tolerance develop. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Self-Recognition and Self-Tolerance

34) In the diagram, where do pluripotent stem cells come from?

a) A b) B c) C d) D

e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.1 List the components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

35) In the diagram, where do T cells mature?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these choices Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

Question type: Essay

36) What does this diagram represent?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.2 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function Solution: The one-way flow of lymph through a lymph vessel.

Question type: Multiple Choice

37) In the diagram this vessel drains lymph from the upper right side of the body into venous blood using a subclavian vein.

a) B b) C c) F d) G e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.2 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

38) Which region includes B cells, follicular dendritic cells and macrophages?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

39) In the diagram, which region includes B cells, plasma cells and macrophages?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

Question type: Essay

40) Describe what is happening in the diagram.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Understand the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.3 Compare the functions of cell-mediated immunity and antibodymediated immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Adaptive Immunity Solution: The diagram represents processing and presenting of exogenous antigen by an antigenpresenting cell.

Question type: Multiple Choice

41) The inability of the immune system to protect the body from a pathogen causes a) immunodeficiency diseases b) allergy c) autoimmune disease d) transplantations e) graft Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.11 Describe the disorders of the lymphatic system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Lymphatic System and Immunity

42) An acute allergic response can lead to: a) transplantation b) retroviruses c) anaphylactic shock d) passive immunity e) active immunity Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.11 Describe the disorders of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Lymphatic System and Immunity

43) Natural exposure to an infectious agent leads to: a) Passive immunity b) Active immunity c) Both of these choices d) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Understand the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.4 Distinguish between a primary response and a secondary response to infection. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Antibody-mediated Immunity

44) Which class of antibodies indicates a recent invasion? a) IgA b) IgE c) IgM d) IgD e) IgG Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Understand the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.4 Distinguish between a primary response and a secondary response to infection. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Antibody-mediated Immunity 45) Which of the following cells is part of the body’s second line of defense? a) Mucous cells b) Germ cells c) B and T Lymphocytes d) Natural killer cells e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the components of innate immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Innate Immunity

46) Which of the following cells is the most variable cell in the immune system? a) Natural killer cell b) Monocyte c) RBC d) Lymphocyte e) Macrophage Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the components of innate immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Innate Immunity

47) The primary response will peak how many days after an exposure? a) 1 day or less b) 2–7 c) 10–17 d) 20–30 e) Over a month

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Understand the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.4 Distinguish between a primary response and a secondary response to infection. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Antibody-mediated Immunity

48) Which type of immunity defends against any type of invader? a) Nonspecific b) Specific c) Cell mediated d) Antibody mediated immunity e) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the components of innate immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Innate Immunity

49) The ability of an antigen to react specifically with the antibodies or cells it has provoked is called a) Specificity b) Immunogenicity c) Reactivity d) Epitopes e) Immune Response Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Understand the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.2 Explain the relationship between an antigen and an antibody. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Adaptive Immunity

50) Which of the following is a small hormone that can stimulate or inhibit many normal cell functions?

a) Enzyme b) Kinins c) Cytokine d) MHC e) Leukocyte Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Understand the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.3 Compare the functions of cell-mediated immunity and antibodymediated immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Adaptive Immunity

51) Which structure in the figure is the main duct for the return of lymph to the blood?

a) A

b) F c) G d) C e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.1 List the components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

52) Which structure in the figure is a lymphatic vessel?

a) B b) C c) D d) J

e) G Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.1 List the components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

53) Which structure in the figure is the cisterna chyli?

a) J b) C c) F d) H e) A Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.1 List the components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

54) Which structure in the figure is the right lymphatic duct?

a) D b) C c) F d) H e) A Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.1 List the components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

55) Lymph flowing from the afferent lymphatic vessel will travel next to which structure in the figure?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

56) Lymph travels to the efferent lymphatic vessel from which structure in the figure?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

57) Lymph travels from the medullary sinus to which structure in the figure?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

58) Lymph travels to the subcapsular sinus from which structure in the figure?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

59) What type of cell is located in area B in the figure?

a) B cells b) dendritic cells c) macrophages d) T cells e) plasma cells Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

60) What types of cells are located in area C in the figure?

a) B cells and follicular dendritic cells b) B cells and plasma cells c) macrophages and B cells d) T cells and dendritic cells e) plasma cells and macrophages Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

61) Plasma cells are located in which area in the figure?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 22.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

62) Which type of adaptive immunity will result from intravenous injection of immunoglobulins? a) naturally acquired active immunity b) naturally acquired passive immunity c) artificially acquired active immunity

d) artificially acquired passive immunity e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Understand the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.4 Distinguish between a primary response and a secondary response to infection. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Antibody-mediated Immunity

63) Which type of adaptive immunity will result from mother-to-baby IgA transfer via breast feeding? a) naturally acquired active immunity b) naturally acquired passive immunity c) artificially acquired active immunity d) artificially acquired passive immunity e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Understand the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.4 Distinguish between a primary response and a secondary response to infection. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Antibody-mediated Immunity

64) Natural passive immunity is associated with which of the following? a) Vaccination b) Exposure to a microbe resulting in antibody formation c) Receiving booster shots d) Transfer of IgG from mother to fetus e) Intravenous injection of antibodies Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Understand the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.4 Distinguish between a primary response and a secondary response to infection. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Antibody-mediated Immunity

65) Which cells increase the permeability of blood vessels by releasing histamine? a) neutrophils b) eosinophils c) lymphocytes d) mast cells e) macrophages Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the components of innate immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Innate Immunity

66) Which cytokine released by macrophages acts on the hypothalamus to raise the body temperature during fever? a) Interleukin-1 b) Interleukin-2 c) Interleukin-4 d) Gamma interferon e) Perforin Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Understand the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.2 Explain the relationship between an antigen and an antibody. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Adaptive Immunity

67) Antigens that induce an allergic reaction are called a) lymphotoxin b) perforin c) granulysin d) interleukin-1 e) allergen

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.11 Describe the disorders of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Lymphatic System and Immunity

68) Which cell is considered to be the most important cell in the immune system? a) Cytotoxic T Cells b) B lymphocytes c) T Helper cells d) Eosinophils e) macrophages Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Understand the components and functions of the cell-mediated immune response. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.2 Distinguish between the action of natural killer cells and cytotoxic T cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Cell-mediated Immunity

69) Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on the immune system? a) Increased susceptibility to infections b) Increased susceptibility to malignancies c) Decreased response to vaccines d) Increased response of T cells to antigens e) Decreased production of antibodies Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.9 Describe the effects of aging on the immune system. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Aging and the Immune System

70) Which of the following is an effect of stress on the immune system? a) Increased activity of T lymphocytes b) Increased activity of B lymphocytes c) Activation of the immune system

d) Inhibition of the immune system e) Increased production of antibodies Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.8 Describe the effects of stress on immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.8 Stress and Immunity

71) Which cells of the immune system are the primary targets the HIV virus? a) B cells b) helper T cells c) cytotoxic T cells d) antigen-presenting cells e) all of these cells are affected by HIV Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.11 Describe the disorders of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Lymphatic System and Immunity

72) Which type of allergic reaction is the most common type? a) Type I (anaphylactic) reaction b) Type II (cytotoxic ) reaction c) Type III (immune-complex) reactions d) Type IV (cell-mediated) reactions e) All of these types are common allergic reactions. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.11 Describe the disorders of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Lymphatic System and Immunity.

73) Which of the following organ systems is NOT aided by the MALT (mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue)? a) Respiratory system

b) Digestive system c) Muscular system d) Urinary system e) Reproductive system Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.10 Describe how the lymphatic system contributes to homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Focus on Homeostasis: The Lymphatic System and Immunity

74) Which of the following is an incorrect matching of immune system cells and their functions? a) Macrophage – process and presentation of foreign antigens to T cells b) Dendritic cell – processes and presents antigen to T and B cells c) B cells – process and presents antigen to helper T cells d) Plasma cell – produces and secretes antibodies e) All of these are correct matching of the cells and their functions Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe how self-recognition and self-tolerance develop. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Self-Recognition and Self-Tolerance

Question Type: Essay

75) Describe the ways to acquire adaptive immunity. Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Understand the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.4 Distinguish between a primary response and a secondary response to infection. Answer: Naturally acquired active immunity is acquired following exposure to a microbe, antigen recognition by B and T cells and costimulation leading to formation of antibodysecreting plasma cells, cytotoxic T cells, and B and T memory cells. Naturally acquired passive immunity occurs when IgG antibodies are transferred from mother to fetus across the placental barrier or IgA antibodies are transferred from mother to infant during breast-feeding. Artificially acquired active immunity is acquired via antigens introduced during vaccinations. Artificially acquired passive immunity is acquired via intravenous injection of immunoglobulins.

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 23

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory system? a) Nose b) Oral cavity c) Pharynx d) Trachea e) Nasal meatuses Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

2) Which of the following is NOT a conducting zone action? a) Clean air of debris b) Conduct air into the lungs c) Add water to air d) Warm air e) All of these are actions of the conducting zone. Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

3) Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines the rate of pulmonary and systemic gas exchange?

a) Partial pressure difference of gases b) surface are availability for gas exchange c) Diffusion distance d) Molecular weight and solubility of the gases e) All of these are factors that determine the rate of pulmonary and systemic gas exchange. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.4 Understand the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, including the involvement of Dalton’s and Henry’s Laws. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.4 Exchange of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide

4) Which of the following is a passageway for air, food and water? a) Pharynx b) Larynx c) Paranasal sinuses d) Trachea e) Esophagus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

5) Which structure prevents food or water from entering the trachea? a) Arytenoid cartilage b) Epiglottis c) Nasopharynx d) Thyroid cartilage e) Paranasal sinus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.2 Identify the functions of each respiratory system structure. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

6) The gas law that describes the pressure changes that occur during pulmonary ventilation is a) Boyle’s law b) Charles’ law c) Henry’s law d) The inhalation law e) The law of partial pressure Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the events that cause inhalation and exhalation. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Pulmonary Ventilation

7) Which structure is located anterior to the esophagus and carries air to the bronchi? a) Trachea b) Larynx c) Nasopharynx d) Pharynx e) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

8) Which of the following is the primary gas exchange site? a) Trachea b) Bronchiole c) Nasal sinuses d) Alveolus e) Bronchus Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.2 Identify the functions of each respiratory system structure. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

9) Which of the below tissues maintains open airways in the lower respiratory system? a) stratified squamous epithelium with keratin b) ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells c) hyaline cartilage d) mucus membrane e) bone Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.2 Identify the functions of each respiratory system structure. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

10) Which of the below tissues provides the functions of the inner layer of the conducting organs? a) stratified squamous epithelium with keratin b) ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells c) ciliated cuboidal epithelium with goblet cells d) transitional epithelium with cilia e) columnar connective tissue with goblet cells Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.2 Identify the functions of each respiratory system structure. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

11) The point where the trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi is a ridge called a) Carina

b) Secondary bronchioles c) Parietal pleura d) Visceral pleura e) Diaphragm Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

12) Which of the below tissues forms the exchange surfaces of the alveolus? a) stratified squamous epithelium b) ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells c) simple squamous epithelium d) hyaline cartilage e) columnar connective tissue with goblet cells Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

13) Which of the following are cells of the alveoli that produce surfactant? a) Type I alveolar cells b) Type II alveolar cells c) Type III alveolar cells d) Surface cells e) Macrophages Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.2 Identify the functions of each respiratory system structure. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

14) Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects pulmonary ventilation? a) Lung compliance b) Suface tension of alveolar fluid c) Elastic recoil of the chest wall and lungs d) Airway resistance e) All of these are factors that affect pulmonary ventilation Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the events that cause inhalation and exhalation. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Pulmonary Ventilation

15) Which of the following indicates the direction of diffusion of gases at the alveoli of the lungs? a) Oxygen into blood, Carbon dioxide into blood b) Oxygen out of blood, Carbon dioxide into blood c) Oxygen into blood, Carbon dioxide out of blood d) Oxygen out of blood, Carbon dioxide out of blood Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.4 Understand the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, including the involvement of Dalton's and Henry's Laws. Study Objective 2: SO 23.4.2 Describe the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in external and internal respiration. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.4 Exchange of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide

16) Exhalation begins when a) Inspiratory muscles relax b) Diaphragm contracts c) Blood circulation is the lowest d) Both Inspiratory muscles relax and Diaphragm contracts e) All of these choices Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the events that cause inhalation and exhalation. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Pulmonary Ventilation

17) Which of the following is the sum of the residual and the expiratory reserve volume? a) Total lung capacity b) Functional residual capacity c) Inspiratory capacity d) Vital capacity e) Minimal volume Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Differentiate between the different lung volumes and capacities. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.2 Differentiate between inspiratory capacity, functional residual capacity, vital capacity, and total lung capacity. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lung Volumes and Capacities

18) Which of the following is NOT a factor that the rate of pulmonary and systemic gas exchange depends on? a) Partial pressure difference of the gases b) Surface area for gas exchange c) Diffusion distance d) Molecular weight and solubility of the gases e) Force of contraction of diaphragm Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.4 Understand the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, including the involvement of Dalton's and Henry's Laws. Study Objective 2: SO 23.4.2 Describe the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in external and internal respiration. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.4 Exchange of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide

19) Which of the following is the dominant method of carbon dioxide transport? a) Bound to hemoglobin b) Bound to oxygen

c) Dissolved in plasma as a gas d) Dissolved in plasma as bicarbonate ions e) Diffusion Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.5 Describe how the blood transports oxygen and carbon dioxide. Section Reference 1: Sec LO 23.5 Transport of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide

20) When blood pH drops, the amount of oxyhemoglobin tissue cells .

and oxygen delivery to the

a) Increases, increases b) Increases, decreases c) Decreases, increases d) Decreases, decreases e) Does not change, does not change Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.5 Describe how the blood transports oxygen and carbon dioxide. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.5 Transport of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide 21) Which of the following is a factor that does NOT affect hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen? a) pH of blood b) Partial pressure of the oxygen c) Amount of oxygen available d) Temperature e) Respiratory rate Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.5 Describe how the blood transports oxygen and carbon dioxide. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.5 Transport of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide

22) Where are the nasal conchae?

a) A b) C c) T d) U e) V Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

23) Which tonsils are found in the oropharynx?

a) V b) R c) S d) Q e) U Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

24) What structure is also referred to as the Adam’s Apple?

a) G b) H c) I d) J e) K Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

25) Where is the larynx?

a) I b) M c) L d) N e) O Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

26) Where is the uvula?

a) E b) F c) Q d) S e) U Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

27) Where are the palatine tonsils?

a) E b) F c) R d) U e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

28) Where is the soft palate?

a) C b) E c) G d) Q e) S Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

29) Where is the epiglottis?

a) O b) R c) S d) F e) Q Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

30) Where are the olfactory receptors found?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) U Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

31) Where is the middle nasal concha?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

32) Where is the inferior nasal concha?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

33) What is E pointing to?

a) Soft palate b) Ethmoid bone c) Hard palate d) Nasal septum e) Air cells Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

34) What is line D pointing to?

a) Thyrohyoid membrane b) Corniculate cartilage c) Cricothyroid ligament d) Cricoid cartilage e) Tracheal cartilage Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

35) Where is the cricoid cartilage?

a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

36) Where is the tracheal cartilage?

a) J b) I c) H d) G e) F Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

37) What is line A pointing to?

a) Hyoid bone b) Trachea c) Adams Apple d) Thyroid e) Epiglottis Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

38) What is line J pointing to?

a) Right secondary bronchus b) Left secondary bronchus c) Right primary bronchus d) Left primary bronchus e) Carina Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

39) Where is the right bronchiole?

a) F b) G c) H d) L e) M Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

40) What lines are pointing to tertiary bronchi?

a) E and K b) D and J c) F and L d) H and M e) A and B Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

41) What is line B pointing to?

a) Carina b) Visceral pleura c) Parietal pleura d) Pleural cavity e) Diaphragm Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

42) Which letter represents the primary gas exchange structure?

a) A b) B c) C d) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

43) What is line C pointing to?

a) Terminal bronchiole b) Respiratory bronchiole c) Alveolar ducts d) Alveolar sac e) Alveoli Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Learning Objective 2: 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

44) Where is the terminal bronchiole?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

45) Which structure provides disease resistance within the lungs?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

46) Which cells are the main sites of gas exchange?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) All of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

47) Which cell secretes surfactant?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

Question type: Essay

48) Describe the inward forces of elastic recoil, and explain why the lungs do not normally collapse during expiration. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the events that cause inhalation and exhalation. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Pulmonary Ventilation Solution: Elastic recoil is the recoil of elastic fibers stretched during inspiration and the pull of the surface tension of alveolar fluid. Intrapleural pressure is always subatmospheric during normal breathing, which tends to pull lungs outward and to keep alveolar pressure from equalizing with atmospheric pressure. Surfactant in alveolar fluid decreases surface tension to help prevent collapse.

49) Why is epinephrine injected as a treatment for the respiratory signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy Solution: Epinephrine enhances sympathetic activity to dilate airways and decrease airway resistance, which had been elevated by the effects of histamine on the bronchioles. It also raises blood pressure, which enhances oxygen delivery to tissues by increasing flow.

50) Describe and explain the effects of smoking on the functioning of the respiratory system. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.11 Describe the disorders that affect the respiratory system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Respiratory System Solution: Nicotine constricts terminal bronchioles to increase airway resistance, as does the increased mucus secretion and swelling of the mucosa. Smoke inhibits the movement of cilia, which allows buildup of substances and microbes normally removed. Over time, smoking leads to destruction of elastic tissue, which decreases compliance, and ultimately to the effects of emphysema.

51) Describe the neural, chemical, and physical changes that increase the rate and depth of ventilation during exercise. Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.7 Describe the effects of exercise on the respiratory system. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.7 Exercise and the Respiratory System Solution: Anticipation of exercise generates neural input to the limbic system. Sensory input is provided from proprioceptors and motor input is provided from the primary motor cortex. As the partial pressure of oxygen falls due to increased consumption, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide and the temperature increase due to metabolic activity in muscle fibers. Also, carbon dioxide is added via the buffering of the hydrogen ions produced as a result of lactic acid production. Chemoreceptors sense the changes in partial pressure and notify the medullary rhythmicity center to increase the rate and depth of breathing.

52) In chronic emphysema, some alveoli merge together and some are replaced with fibrous connective tissue. In addition, the bronchioles are often inflamed, and expiratory volume is reduced. Using proper respiratory system terminology, explain at least four reasons why affected individuals will have problems with ventilation and external respiration. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.11 Describe the disorders that affect the respiratory system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Respiratory System Solution: Answers could include: reduced compliance (reduces ability to increase thoracic volume); increased airway resistance (decreases tidal volume); decreased diffusion due to increased diffusion distance, decreased surface area, and changes in partial pressures of gases (altering gradients). Other answers may be acceptable.

Question type: Multiple Choice

53) Normal quiet breathing is controlled by the a) Pontine respiratory group b) Medullary respiratory center dorsal respiratory group c) Medullary respiratory center ventral respiratory group d) Medullary respiratory center dorsal respiratory group and medullary respiratory center ventral respiratory group e) all of these Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.6 Explain how the nervous system controls breathing. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.6 Control of Breathing

54) What area in the figure is the sum of the tidal volume and the inspiratory reserve volume?

a) A b) B c) G d) E e) H Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Differentiate between the different lung volumes and capacities. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Explain the difference between tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume, and residual volume. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lung Volumes and Capacities

55) What area in the figure is the sum of the tidal volume and the inspiratory reserve volume and expiratory reserve volume?

a) H

b) B c) G d) E e) F Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Differentiate between the different lung volumes and capacities. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Explain the difference between tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume, and residual volume. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lung Volumes and Capacities

56) What area in the figure is the sum of the vital capacity and residual volume?

a) B b) A c) G d) D e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Differentiate between the different lung volumes and capacities. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Explain the difference between tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume, and residual volume. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lung Volumes and Capacities

57) What area in the figure is the sum of the residual volume and the expiratory reserve volume?

a) H b) A c) G d) E e) F Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Differentiate between the different lung volumes and capacities. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Explain the difference between tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume, and residual volume. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lung Volumes and Capacities

58) What area in the figure represents a very deep inhalation, much greater than the tidal volume?

a) B b) A

c) G d) E e) F Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Differentiate between the different lung volumes and capacities. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Explain the difference between tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume, and residual volume. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lung Volumes and Capacities

59) What area in the figure represents the volume of a normal breath?

a) B b) A c) G d) E e) F Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Differentiate between the different lung volumes and capacities. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Explain the difference between tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume, and residual volume. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lung Volumes and Capacities

60) What area in the figure represents the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a deep exhalation?

a) C b) H c) D d) B e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Differentiate between the different lung volumes and capacities. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Explain the difference between tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume, and residual volume. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lung Volumes and Capacities

61) What area in the figure represents a very deep exhalation, much greater than the tidal volume?

a) C

b) H c) D d) B e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Differentiate between the different lung volumes and capacities. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Explain the difference between tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume, and residual volume. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lung Volumes and Capacities

62) Which of the following is a forced exhalation against the closed rima glottidis as may occur during periods of straining while defecating? a) sobbing b) coughing c) crying d) hiccupping e) Valsalva maneuver Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the events that cause inhalation and exhalation. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Pulmonary Ventilation

63) Which of the following is a spasmodic contraction of the diaphragm followed by spasmodic closure of the rima glottidis, which produces a sharp sound on inhalation? a) sneezing b) coughing c) laughing d) hiccupping e) Valsalva maneuver Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the events that cause inhalation and exhalation. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Pulmonary Ventilation

64) Which of the following is an inhalation followed by many short convulsive exhalations during which the rima glottidis remains open and the vocal folds vibrate, accompanied by characteristic facial expressions? a) sneezing b) yawning c) hiccupping d) laughing e) Valsalva maneuver Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the events that cause inhalation and exhalation. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Pulmonary Ventilation

65) Which of the following is an inhalation followed by many short convulsive exhalations during which the rima glottidis remains open and the vocal folds vibrate, accompanied by characteristic facial expressions? a) sneezing b) yawning c) hiccupping d) crying e) Valsalva maneuver Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the events that cause inhalation and exhalation. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Pulmonary Ventilation

66) Which of the following is a series of convulsive inhalations followed by a single prolonged exhalation where the rima glottidis closes earlier than normal after each inhalation so only a little air enters the lung with each inhalation? a) sobbing b) sneezing c) coughing d) hiccupping e) Valsalva maneuver Answer: a

Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the events that cause inhalation and exhalation. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Pulmonary Ventilation

67) Which of the following is a deep inhalation through a widely opened mouth producing an exaggerated depression of the mandible, the precise cause of which is unknown? a) sobbing b) yawning c) coughing d) laughing e) hiccupping Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the events that cause inhalation and exhalation. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Pulmonary Ventilation

68) Which of the following is a long drawn and deep inhalation immediately followed by a shorter but forceful exhalation? a) sobbing b) yawning c) sighing d) hiccupping e) Valsalva maneuver Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the events that cause inhalation and exhalation. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Pulmonary Ventilation

69) Which of the following is a spasmodic contraction of the muscles of exhalation that forcefully expels air through the nose and mouth? a) sobbing b) sneezing c) coughing d) sighing e) Valsalva maneuver

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the events that cause inhalation and exhalation. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Pulmonary Ventilation

70) Which of the following is a long drawn and deep inhalation followed by a complete closure of the rima glottidis, which results in a strong exhalation, pushing the rima glottidis open and sending a blast of air through the upper respiratory passages? a) crying b) sneezing c) coughing d) sighing e) Valsalva maneuver Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the events that cause inhalation and exhalation. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Pulmonary Ventilation

71) Which structure in the figure is the hyoid bone?

a) A b) B c) D d) F e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

72) Which structure in the figure is the ventricular fold?

a) F b) D c) C d) E e) G Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

73) Which structure in the figure is the vocal fold?

a) F b) D c) C d) E e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomical structure and function of the respiratory system components. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy

74) Where is the rhythmicity center for respiration? a) in the medulla b) in the pons c) in the cerebrum d) in the hypothalamus e) in the cerebellum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.6 Explain how the nervous system controls breathing. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.6 Control of Breathing

75) With which body system does the respiratory system work to regulate the pH of body fluids? a) muscular b) digestive c) nervous d) endocrine e) urinary Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.9 Describe how the respiratory system contributes to homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Focus on Homeostasis: The Respiratory System

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 24

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system? a) Ingestion b) Secretion c) Mixing and propulsion d) Absorption e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Describe the structure and function of the digestive system organs. Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.2 Describe the basic processes performed by the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System

2) Which of following processes is the primary function of the mouth? a) Ingestion b) Secretion c) Mixing and propulsion d) Absorption e) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Describe the structure and function of the digestive system organs. Study Objective 1: SO 24.1.2 Describe the basic processes performed by the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System

3) Which of the following processes is the primary function of the villi of the small intestine? a) Ingestion b) Secretion c) Mixing and propulsion

d) Absorption e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Describe the structure and function of the digestive system organs. Study Objective 1: SO 24.1.2 Describe the basic processes performed by the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System

4) Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid to soften food? a) Teeth b) Salivary glands c) Liver d) Gallbladder e) Pharynx Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.5 Identify the structure and function of the digestive components of the mouth. Study Objective 2: SO 24.5.1 Identify the locations of the salivary glands, and describe the functions of their secretions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.5 Mouth

5) Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid that functions to emulsify dietary fats? a) Teeth b) Salivary glands c) Liver d) Gallbladder e) Pharynx Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the liver and gallbladder. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Liver and Gallbladder

6) Which of the following accessory organs stores bile? a) Teeth b) Salivary glands c) Liver d) Gallbladder e) Pharynx Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the liver and gallbladder. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Liver and Gallbladder

7) The capability of the GI tract to move material along its length is called 1. Motility 2. Propulsion 3. Digestion 4. Defecation a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) Both 1 and 2 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Describe the structure and function of the digestive system organs. Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.2 Describe the basic processes performed by the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System

8) Which layer of the GI tract is composed of areolar connective tissue containing blood and lymph vessels? a) Mucosa b) Lamina propria c) MALT d) Muscularis e) Epithelium Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the structure and function of the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract

9) Which layer of the GI tract is composed of areolar connective tissue that binds the mucosa to the muscularis? a) Submucosa b) Lamina propria c) Epithelium d) Serosa e) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the structure and function of the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract

10) Which layer functions by secreting a lubricating fluid? a) Serosa b) Submucosa c) Muscularis d) Mucosa e) MALT Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the structure and function of the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract

11) Which structure is composed of prominent lymphatic nodules that function in the immune response? a) Mucosa b) Lamina propria c) MALT

d) Submucosa e) Serosa Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the structure and function of the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract

12) Which plexus is located between the longitudinal and circular smooth muscle layers of the muscularis? a) ENS b) Myenteric plexus c) Submucosal plexus d) Digestive plexus e) Absorption plexus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the structure and function of the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract

13) Why do emotions such as anger or fear slow digestion? a) Because they stimulate the parasympathetic nerves supplying the GI tract b) Because they stimulate the somatic nerves that supply the GI tract c) Because they stimulate the sympathetic nerves that supply the GI tract d) They do not affect digestion e) Because all emotions are controlled by the Vagus nerve Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.3 Describe the nerve supply of the GI tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.3 Neural Innervation of the GI Tract

14) Which portion of the peritoneum drapes over the transverse colon and coils of the small intestine?

a) Greater omentum b) Falciform ligament c) Lesser omentum d) Mesentery e) Mesocolon Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the peritoneum and its folds. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Peritoneum

15) Which portion of the peritoneum attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm? a) Greater omentum b) Falciform ligament c) Lesser omentum d) Mesentery e) Mesocolon Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the peritoneum and its folds. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Peritoneum

16) Which portion of the peritoneum is largely responsible for carrying blood and lymph vessels to the intestines? a) Greater omentum b) Falciform ligament c) Lesser omentum d) Mesentery e) Mesocolon Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the peritoneum and its folds. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Peritoneum

17) In the mouth, the tooth sockets are lined with

a) Gingivae b) Cementum c) Periodontal ligament d) Pulp e) Root Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.5 Identify the structure and function of the digestive components of the mouth. Study Objective 2: SO 24.5.3 Identify the parts of a typical tooth, and compare deciduous and permanent dentitions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.5 Mouth

18) Deciduous molars are replaced by a) Bicuspids b) Molars c) Incisors d) Canines e) Wisdom teeth Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.5 Identify the structure and function of the digestive components of the mouth. Study Objective 2: SO 24.5.3 Identify the parts of a typical tooth, and compare deciduous and permanent dentitions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.5 Mouth

19) Which of the following layers of the GI tract contains skeletal muscle? a) Muscularis b) Mucosa c) Serosa d) Submucosa Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the structure and function of the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract

20) How many stages of deglutition are there? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 8 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the three phases of deglutition. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Deglutition

21) Which structure of the stomach allows greater distension for food storage? a) Cardia b) Fundus c) Pylorus d) Rugae e) Sphincter Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

22) Which of the following cells secrete hydrochloric acid? a) Mucous cells b) Parietal cells c) Chief cells d) Serosa cells e) Chyme cells Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

23) Which cell secretes the hormone that promotes production of hydrochloric acid? a) Neck cell b) Chief cell c) G cell d) Chyme cell e) Parietal cell Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

24) How long can food stay in the fundus before being mixed with gastric juices? a) 10 minutes b) 20 minutes c) 30 minutes d) 45 minutes e) 1 hour Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

25) Which major duct carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate ions? a) Pancreatic duct b) Hepatopancreatic duct c) Cystic duct d) Bile duct e) Hepatic duct

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and function of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Pancreas

26) Which of the following pancreatic enzymes digests lipids? a) Trypsin b) Elastase c) Lipase d) Pepsin e) All of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and function of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Pancreas

27) This of the following structures is found on the liver and is a remnant of the umbilical cord in a fetus? a) Coronary ligament b) Falciform ligament c) Round ligament d) Kupffer ligament e) Bile ductules Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the liver and gallbladder. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Liver and Gallbladder

28) Which of the following is the principle bile pigment? a) Stercobilin b) Bilirubin c) Biliverdin

d) Both Stercobilin and Bilirubin e) All of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the liver and gallbladder. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Liver and Gallbladder

29) Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver? a) Conversion of carbohydrates b) Protein metabolism c) Storage of bilirubin d) Phagocytosis e) Storage of vitamins Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the liver and gallbladder. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Liver and Gallbladder

30) Which of the following small intestine cells secrete lysozyme? a) Goblet cells b) Absorptive cells c) Mucosa cells d) Paneth cells e) S cells Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.12 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.12.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.12 Small Intestine

31) Brunner's glands

a) Secrete an acidic mucus b) Secrete an alkaline juice c) Secrete an alkaline mucus d) Secrete an acidic juice Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.12 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.12.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.12 Small Intestine

32) Which of the following enzymes acts to produce monoglycerides as one product? a) Lipase b) Amylase c) Trypsin d) Phosphatase e) Ligase Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.12 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.12.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.12 Small Intestine

33) Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts on glycogen and starches? a) Chymotrypsin b) Amylase c) Trypsin d) Phosphatase e) Nucleosidase Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.12 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.12.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.12 Small Intestine

34) Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts on peptide bonds? a) Chymotrypsin b) Amylase c) Pepsin d) Phosphatase e) Nucleosidase Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.12 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.12.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.12 Small Intestine

35) Which hormone functions to counteract the effect of gastric acid in the small intestine? a) Pepsin b) Secretin c) Gastrin d) Cholecystokinin e) Amylase Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.14 Describe the phases of digestion and the hormones involved. Study Objective 2: SO 24.14.2 Describe the major hormones regulating digestive activities. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.14 Phases of Digestion

36) Which hormone is stimulated by high levels of dietary fat in the small intestine? a) Pepsin b) Secretin c) Gastrin d) Cholecystokinin e) Amylase Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 24.14 Describe the phases of digestion and the hormones involved. Study Objective 2: SO 24.14.2 Describe the major hormones regulating digestive activities. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.14 Phases of Digestion

37) Which digestive aid, produced by the stomach, begins digestion by denaturing proteins? a) Bicarbonate ion b) mucus c) Bile d) Hydrochloric acid e) Water Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

38) Which structure regulates the flow of material into the colon? a) Ileocecal sphincter b) Pyloric sphincter c) Appendix d) Sigmoid colon e) Anal canal Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.13 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the large intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.13 Large Intestine

39) Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the large intestine? a) Mechanical digestion b) Chemical digestion c) Absorption d) Feces formation e) Regulation of blood glucose Answer: e

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.13 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the large intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.13 Large Intestine

40) What is line A pointing to?

a) Lumen b) MALT c) Mucosa d) Submucosa e) Muscularis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the structure and function of the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract

41) What layer is composed of areolar connective tissue and epithelium?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) none of these Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the structure and function of the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract

42) Which layer contains the lamina propria?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the structure and function of the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract

43) Which structure consists of calcified connective tissue?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: 24.5 Identify the structure and function of the digestive components of the mouth. Learning Objective 2: 24.5.3 Identify the parts of a typical tooth, and compare deciduous and permanent dentitions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.5 Mouth

44) What is line F pointing to?

a) Pulp cavity b) Cementum c) Root canal d) Alveolar bone e) Gingival sulcus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.5 Identify the structure and function of the digestive components of the mouth. Study Objective 2: SO 24.5.3 Identify the parts of a typical tooth, and compare deciduous and permanent dentitions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.5 Mouth

45) Which structure has an opening called the apical foramen?

a) A b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.5 Identify the structure and function of the digestive components of the mouth. Study Objective 2: SO 24.5.3 Identify the parts of a typical tooth, and compare deciduous and permanent dentitions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.5 Mouth

46) Which the portion of the stomach connects to the duodenum?

a) A b) E c) D d) B Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

47) What does line G point to?

a) Pylorus b) Pyloric sphincter c) Rugae d) Pyloric antrum e) Greater curvature Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

48) This is the area where pyloric stenosis occurs.

a) E b) F c) G d) B e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

49) What is line I pointing to?

a) Greater curvature b) Lesser curvature c) Body d) Fundus e) Cardia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

50) Which of the following cells secrete mucus?

a) B b) C c) D d) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

51) Which of the following cells secretes intrinsic factor?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

52) Which of the following cells secretes gastrin?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

53) Which of the following cells secretes pepsinogen?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

Question type: Essay

54) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.3 Describe the nerve supply of the GI tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.3 Neural Innervation of the GI Tract Solution: The ENS consists of the submucosal plexus in the submucosa and the myenteric plexus in the muscularis. Both contain sensory and motor neurons, as well as ANS postganglionic fibers of both divisions. The myenteric plexus also contains parasympathetic ganglia. The submucosal plexus regulates movements of the mucosa, secretion from glands in the gastrointestinal tract, and vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the gastrointestinal tract. The myenteric plexus regulates gastric motility.

55) Explain why food does not normally go up into your nasal cavity or down into your lungs when you swallow-even if you are standing on your head when you swallow. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the three phases of deglutition. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Deglutition Solution: Presence of food in the oropharynx stimulates the deglutition center in the medulla and pons to move the soft palate and uvula upward to close off the nasopharynx, thus keeping food out of the nasal cavity. At the same time, the larynx rises and the epiglottis moves down and back to seal off the larynx, which is further closed by the vocal cords, thus keeping food from entering the lower respiratory tract.

56) Describe the role of the liver in protein metabolism. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the liver and gallbladder. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Liver and Gallbladder Solution: Hepatocytes deaminate amino acids. The amine group is converted to toxic ammonia. Hepatocytes convert the toxic ammonia to less toxic urea for excretion in urine. The liver also synthesizes many proteins, including most plasma proteins.

57) Identify the protein-hydrolyzing enzymes in the digestive tract, and name their sources. Why are these enzymes released in an inactive form? Answer:

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.12 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.12.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.12 Small Intestine Solution: Pepsin from the stomach, trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase, and elastase from the pancreas, and aminopeptidase and dipeptidase from the small intestine are the proteases in the GI tract. The enzymes are not activated until they are in the lumen of the stomach or small intestine because they would otherwise digest the proteins in the cells that produce them.

58) Describe the structural characteristics of the small intestine that enhance its function as the major absorber of nutrients. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.12 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.12.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.12 Small Intestine Solution: All structures increase surface area to increase the rate of reabsorption: great length (10' in living humans), microvilli on plasma membrane of each epithelial cell, villi (fingerlike projections of mucosa), and circular folds (permanent ridges in the mucosa).

Question type: Multiple Choice

59) Name the structure labeled F

a) Parietal cell b) Gastric glands c) Gastric pit d) Chief cell e) Simple columnar epithelium Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

60) Name the structure labeled G

a) Parietal cell b) Gastric glands c) Gastric pit d) Chief cell e) Simple columnar epithelium Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Stomach

61) Name the layer labeled A

a) Submucosa b) Serosa c) Longitudinal muscle d) Mucosa e) Circular muscle Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the structure and function of the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract

62) Name the layer labeled B

a) Submucosa b) Serosa c) Longitudinal muscle d) Mucosa e) Circular muscle Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the structure and function of the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract

63) Name the layer labeled C

a) Submucosa b) Serosa c) Longitudinal muscle d) Mucosa e) Circular muscle Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the structure and function of the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract

64) Name the layer labeled E

a) Submucosa b) Serosa c) Longitudinal muscle d) Mucosa e) Circular muscle Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the structure and function of the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract

65) Name the layer labeled D

a) Submucosa b) Serosa c) Longitudinal muscle d) Mucosa e) Circular muscle Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the structure and function of the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract

66) The enzyme, produced in the organ labeled C, which digests DNA is called: a) Deoxyribonuclease b) Ribonuclease c) Salivary amylase d) Pepsin e) sucrase

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and function of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Pancreas

67) The enzyme, produced in the organ labeled C, that produces fatty acids and monoglycerides during digestion is called:

a) Sucrase b) Pancreatic lipase c) Salivary amylase d) Trypsin e) Elastase Answer: b Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and function of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Pancreas

68) The enzyme, produced in the organ labeled D, that produces both glucose and galactose as products is called:

a) lactase b) pancreatic lipase c) sucrase d) pepsin e) nucleases Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 24.12 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.12.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.12 Small Intestine

69) The enzyme, produced in the organ labeled D, that produces only glucose as a product is called:

a) maltase b) pancreatic lipase c) sucrase d) pepsin e) nucleases Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 24.12 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.12.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.12 Small Intestine

70) Which of the following disorders involving the organ labeled E can result from viruses, drugs and chemicals such as alcohol?

a) heartburn b) mumps c) pancreatitis d) hepatitis e) vomiting Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.18 Describe the disorders that affect the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Digestive System

71) Which of the following disorders can occur in the organ labeled B?

a) Appendicitis b) mumps c) pancreatitis d) hepatitis e) peptic ulcers Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.18 Describe the disorders that affect the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Digestive System

72) Which of the following is the forerunner of the gastrointestinal tract? a) primitive gut b) foregut c) midgut

d) hindgut e) endoderm Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.15 Describe the development of the digestive tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24:15 Development of the Digestive System

73) Which of the following is NOT a change in the digestive system associated with aging? a) Decreased secretory mechanisms b) Decreased motility of the digestive organs c) Loss of strength and tone of the muscular tissue d) changes in neurosensory feedback regarding enzyme and hormone release e) All of these are age related changes in the digestive system. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.16 Describe the effects of aging on the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.16 Aging and the Digestive System

74) Which of the following is a contribution of the digestive system to the muscular system? a) Small intestine absorbs dietary calcium and phosphorous salts. b) The liver can convert lactic acid to glucose. c) Small intestine absorbs vitamin D. d) Excess dietary calories are stored as triglycerides in adipose cells. e) The liver synthesizes most plasma proteins. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.17 Describe how the digestive system contributes to homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Focus on Homeostasis: The Digestive System

75) Which type of hepatitis is spread via fecal contamination of objects such as food, clothing, toys, and eating utensils and is characterized by loss of appetite, malaise, nausea, diarrhea, fever, and chills. a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B

c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis D e) Hepatitis E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.18 Describe the disorders that affect the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Digestive System

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 25

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Chemical reactions that break down complex organic molecules into simpler ones are called: a) Metabolism b) Anabolism c) Catabolism d) Metatheses e) Oxidation reactions Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe metabolism and the reactions involved. Study Objective 2: SO 25.1.1 Define metabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Metabolic Reactions

2) Chemical reactions that combine simple molecules and monomers to form complex structures are known as a) Metabolism b) Anabolism c) Catabolism d) Metatheses e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe metabolism and the reactions involved. Study Objective 2: SO 25.1.1 Define metabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Metabolic Reactions

3) When the terminal phosphate is cut off of ATP what is formed? a) Adenosine diphosphate b) GTP c) Adenosine monophosphate

d) Metabolic water e) Glucose Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe metabolism and the reactions involved. Study Objective 2: SO 25.1.2 Explain the role of ATP in anabolism and catabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Metabolic Reactions

4) Oxidation is a) The removal of protons b) The removal of electrons c) The addition of protons d) The addition of electrons e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Understand the role of oxidation-reduction reactions and ATP in metabolism. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe oxidation-reduction reactions. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Energy Transfer

5) Reduction is the a) The removal of protons b) The removal of electrons c) The addition of protons d) The addition of electrons e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Understand the role of oxidation-reduction reactions and ATP in metabolism. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe oxidation-reduction reactions. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Energy Transfer

6) Which of the following is a derivative of riboflavin?

a) NAD b) FAD c) Lactic acid d) Pyruvic acid e) ADP Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Understand the role of oxidation-reduction reactions and ATP in metabolism. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe oxidation-reduction reactions. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Energy Transfer

7) Which of the following is NOT a form of phosphorylation? a) Reduction phosphorylation b) Substrate level phosphorylation c) Oxidative phosphorylation d) Photophosphorylation e) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Understand the role of oxidation-reduction reactions and ATP in metabolism. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the role of ATP in metabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Energy Transfer

8) Glycogenesis is NOT a) performed by the hepatocytes b) performed by muscle fibers c) one way to make glycogen d) one way to make glucose e) only seen in the liver Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

9) Which process describes the synthesis of triglycerides? a) Gluconeogensis b) Lipogenesis c) Phosphorylation d) Glycolysis e) Lipolysis Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the roles of lipids in metabolism and their transport in the blood. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.2 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of lipids. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Lipid Metabolism

10) Which reaction describes the oxidization of acetyl CoA to produce carbon dioxide, ATP, NADH + H+ and FADH2? a) Glycolysis b) Formation of acetyl co-A c) Krebs cycle d) Electron transport chain e) Phosphorylation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

11) Glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain are all involved in: a) Lipogensis b) Gluconeogenesis c) Glucose catabolism d) Formation of Glycogen e) Formation of vitamin C Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

12) Which of the following is the key regulator of the rate of glycolysis? a) ATP b) NADH c) Phosphofructokinase d) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate e) FAD Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

13) Where can pyruvate dehydrogenase be found? a) Cytosol of the cell b) Plasma membrane c) Lysozyme d) Mitochondria e) Interstitial fluid Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

14) The most abundant product of the reactions of the Krebs cycle is a) Carbon dioxide b) GTP c) Reduced coenzymes d) pyruvate e) water Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

15) The net result of the complete oxidation of glucose does NOT include: a) water b) carbon dioxide c) ATP d) oxygen e) waste heat Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

16) How many reactions take place during the Krebs cycle? a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10 e) 12 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism 17) Accumulation of a large amount of H+ between the inner and outer mitochondrial membranes, is described as a) Proton pump b) Chemiosmosis c) Krebs cycle d) ATP synthesis e) Glycolysis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

18) How many ATPs can come from substrate level phosphorylation during glycolysis? a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

19) What hormone stimulates glycogenesis? a) Insulin b) Glucase c) Estrogen d) Lactic acid e) Protease Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

20) What hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis? a) Insulin b) Human Growth hormone c) Epinephrine d) Thyroid hormone e) Cortisol Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

21) Glycogenolysis is

and stimulated by

a) Anabolic, Insulin b) Catabolic, Epinephrine c) Catabolic, Insulin d) Anabolic, Epinephrine e) Metathesis, Insulin Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

22) Thyroid hormones: a) Aid in glycogenesis b) Inhibit gluconeogensis c) Inhibit lipogenesis d) Promote glycolysis e) Promote gluconeogenesis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

23) Which of the following transport dietary lipids? a) Apoproteins b) Low density lipoproteins c) Chylomicrons d) Very low density lipoproteins e) High density lipoproteins Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the roles of lipids in metabolism and their transport in the blood.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Describe the lipoproteins that transport lipids in the blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Lipid Metabolism

24) Most cholesterol medications are designed to: a) Inhibit excretion of bile in the feces b) Promote the absorption of cholesterol c) Decrease the filtration of cholesterol d) Inhibit glucose absorption e) None of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the roles of lipids in metabolism and their transport in the blood. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Describe the lipoproteins that transport lipids in the blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Lipid Metabolism

25) Where does glycolysis take place? a) Cytosol b) Plasma membrane c) Nucleus d) Mitochondria e) Golgi Apparatus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

26) Where does the Krebs cycle take place? a) Cytosol b) Plasma membrane c) Nucleus d) Mitochondria e) Golgi Apparatus Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism

27) Lipogenesis occurs when a) More calories are consumed than required for ATP need b) Less calories are consumed than required for ATP need c) More cholesterol is consumed than required for ATP need d) Less cholesterol is consumed than required for ATP need e) Gluconeogenesis fails Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the roles of lipids in metabolism and their transport in the blood. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.2 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of lipids. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Lipid Metabolism

28) Excess amino acids in the body are a) Excreted in urine b) Excreted in feces c) Converted into glucose d) Stored as ATP e) Converted into proteins Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Protein Metabolism

29) Liver cells convert: a) Urea into ammonia b) Ammonia into lactic acid c) Lactic acid into urea d) Pyruvic acid into urea e) Ammonia into urea Answer: e

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Protein Metabolism

30) Glucose-6-phosphate a) Can be used to make ribose-5-phosphate b) Can be dephosphorylated to glucose c) Can be used to synthesize glycogen d) Can be converted to pyruvic acid e) All of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.6 Identify the key molecules in metabolism, and describe the reactions and the products they may form. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.6 Key Molecules at Metabolic Crossroads 31) Which of the following are used in “metabolic crossroads”? a) Pyruvic acid b) Glycogen c) Ribose d) ATP e) Lipase Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.6 Identify the key molecules in metabolism, and describe the reactions and the products they may form. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.6 Key Molecules at Metabolic Crossroads

32) In the absorptive state a) Storage of energy is important b) Filtration is important c) Reabsorption is important d) Synthesis is important e) Production of heat is important

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.7 Compare metabolism during the absorptive and postabsorptive states. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.7 Metabolic Adaptations

33) In the absorptive state, most glucose that enters the liver is converted to a) Pyruvic acid b) Glycogen c) Amino acids d) Insulin e) Glucase Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.7 Compare metabolism during the absorptive and postabsorptive states. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.7 Metabolic Adaptations

34) Keto acids a) Can enter the Krebs cycle b) Are used for ATP production c) Can be used to make lipids d) Can enter Krebs or be used for ATP production e) Convert into aldehydes in the liver Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.7 Compare metabolism during the absorptive and postabsorptive states. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.7 Metabolic Adaptations

35) Which of the following is NOT a postabsorptive state reaction? a) Breakdown of liver glycogen b) Lipogenesis c) Gluconeogenesis using lactic acid d) Gluconeogenesis using amino acids

e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.7 Compare metabolism during the absorptive and postabsorptive states. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.7 Metabolic Adaptations

36) Cardiac muscles can produce ATP from a) Lactic acid b) Pyruvic acid c) Glucose-6-phosphate d) Proteins e) Lipids Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.7 Compare metabolism during the absorptive and postabsorptive states. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.7 Metabolic Adaptations

37) The most dramatic metabolic change that occurs with fasting is a) Decrease in the formation of ketone bodies b) Increase in ATP production c) Inhibition of insulin d) Decrease in heart rate and blood pressure e) Increase in lipolysis Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.7 Compare metabolism during the absorptive and postabsorptive states. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.7 Metabolic Adaptations 38) Why is Calorie always spelled with a capital “C”? a) It is named after Dr. Calorie b) It is named for the country where it was discovered

c) It is named after the province where it was discovered d) To distinguish it from the chemistry term calory e) None of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.8 Describe the maintenance of basal metabolic rate (BMR) and body temperature. Study Objective 2: SO 25.8.1 Define basal metabolic rate (BMR), and explain several factors that affect it. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.8 Heat and Energy Balance

39) Which of the following is a factor that does NOT affect heat production? a) Exercise b) Hormones c) Nervous system d) Ingestion of food e) Blood volume Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.8 Describe the maintenance of basal metabolic rate (BMR) and body temperature. Study Objective 2: SO 25.8.2 Explain how normal body temperature is maintained by negative feedback loops involving the hypothalamic thermostat. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.8 Heat and Energy Balance

40) Which of the following is a mechanism of heat transfer that involves direct contact? a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Evaporation e) Metabolic rate Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.8 Describe the maintenance of basal metabolic rate (BMR) and body temperature.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.8.3 Explain how normal body temperature is maintained by negative feedback loops involving the hypothalamic thermostat. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.8 Heat and Energy Balance

41) The higher the relative humidity a) The higher the rate of radiation b) The lower the rate of conduction c) The higher the rate of convection d) The lower the rate of thermoregulation e) The lower the rate of evaporation Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.8 Describe the maintenance of basal metabolic rate (BMR) and body temperature. Study Objective 2: SO 25.8.3 Explain how normal body temperature is maintained by negative feedback loops involving the hypothalamic thermostat. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.8 Heat and Energy Balance

42) The heat promoting center stimulates parts of the brain that a) Decrease smooth muscle tone b) Increase blood glucose c) Stimulates skeletal muscle activity d) Inhibits the sympathetic division e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.8 Describe the maintenance of basal metabolic rate (BMR) and body temperature. Study Objective 2: SO 25.8.3 Explain how normal body temperature is maintained by negative feedback loops involving the hypothalamic thermostat. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.8 Heat and Energy Balance

43) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by the a) Anterior pituitary b) Hypothalamus c) Cerebral cortex

d) Liver e) Kidney Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.8 Describe the maintenance of basal metabolic rate (BMR) and body temperature. Study Objective 2: SO 25.8.3 Explain how normal body temperature is maintained by negative feedback loops involving the hypothalamic thermostat. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.8 Heat and Energy Balance

44) Food induced thermogenesis a) Accounts for 30% of total energy expended b) Is known as insensible loss c) Is inhibited by the hypothalamus d) Is the opposite of ketosis e) None of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.8 Describe the maintenance of basal metabolic rate (BMR) and body temperature. Study Objective 2: SO 25.8.3 Explain how normal body temperature is maintained by negative feedback loops involving the hypothalamic thermostat. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.8 Heat and Energy Balance

45) Neuropeptide Y stimulates a) Release of insulin b) Inhibition of glucagons c) Thirst centers d) Thermogenesis e) Food intake Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.8 Describe the maintenance of basal metabolic rate (BMR) and body temperature. Study Objective 2: SO 25.8.3 Explain how normal body temperature is maintained by negative feedback loops involving the hypothalamic thermostat.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.8 Heat and Energy Balance

46) Which of the following is not a major nutrient the body needs? a) Carbohydrates b) Glycogen c) Proteins d) Minerals e) Vitamins Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.9 Describe the roles of minerals, vitamins and food choices in a healthy diet. Study Objective 2: SO 25.9.2 Compare the sources, functions, and importance of minerals and vitamins in metabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.9 Nutrition

47) Provitamins are a) Building blocks of vitamins b) Broken down glucose molecules c) Derivatives of minerals d) Found only in the blood e) Not stored in the body Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.9 Describe the roles of minerals, vitamins and food choices in a healthy diet. Study Objective 2: SO 25.9.2 Compare the sources, functions, and importance of minerals and vitamins in metabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.9 Nutrition

48) Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin? a) Vitamin B b) Vitamin E c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin O e) None of these choices

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.9 Describe the roles of minerals, vitamins and food choices in a healthy diet. Study Objective 2: SO 25.9.2 Compare the sources, functions, and importance of minerals and vitamins in metabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.9 Nutrition

49) Antioxidant vitamins a) Are found in plasma membranes b) Are vitamin derivatives c) Can inactivate oxygen free radicals d) Are all excreted in feces e) Are all stored in adipose cells Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.9 Describe the roles of minerals, vitamins and food choices in a healthy diet. Study Objective 2: SO 25.9.2 Compare the sources, functions, and importance of minerals and vitamins in metabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.9 Nutrition

Question type: Essay

50) Briefly outline the possible fates of glucose in the body. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism Solution: 1) immediate oxidation for ATP production 2) synthesis of amino acids for protein synthesis 3) synthesis of glycogen for storage in liver and skeletal muscle 4) formation of triglycerides via lipogenesis for long term storage after glycogen stores are full 5) excretion in urine if blood glucose is very high

51) What are the possible fates of pyruvic acid in the body? What is the primary determinant of the fate of pyruvic acid? What is the fate of compounds to which pyruvic acid may be converted? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the fate, metabolism, and functions of carbohydrates. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Carbohydrate Metabolism Solution: Pyruvic acid in the presence of low oxygen is reduced to lactic acid, which is converted to either glycogen or carbon dioxide. In the presence of high oxygen levels, pyruvic acid is converted to an acetyl unit, which may be carried into the Krebs cycle by coenzyme A or converted into fatty acids, ketone bodies, or cholesterol.

52) Identify the different types of lipoproteins and describe the function of each. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the roles of lipids in metabolism and their transport in the blood. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Describe the lipoproteins that transport lipids in the blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Lipid Metabolism Solution: Chylomicrons transport dietary lipids in the lymph and blood. Very low density lipoproteins transport endogenous triglycerides from hepatocytes to adipocytes for storage. Low density lipoproteins transport cholesterol through the body for use in repair of membranes and synthesis of steroid hormones and bile salts. High density lipoproteins transport excess cholesterol to the liver for elimination.

53) Describe the role of the hypothalamus in regulation of food intake. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.8 Describe the maintenance of basal metabolic rate (BMR) and body temperature. Study Objective 2: SO 25.8.1 Define basal metabolic rate (BMR), and explain several factors that affect it. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.8 Heat and Energy Balance Solution: The hypothalamus contains the neurons of the feeding center that stimulate eating and of the satiety center that signal fullness. Two nuclei in the hypothalamus that help regulate food intake are the arcuate and paraventricular nuclei. The hormone leptin, released by adipocytes, inhibits release of neuropeptide Y from the arcuate nucleus and thereby decreases food intake. Melanocortin also decreases food intake. It is thought that changes in blood chemistry (in terms

of nutrients and hormone balance), as well as distention of the gastrointestinal tract, initiate appropriate hypothalamic activity.

54) Which vitamins are considered "antioxidant vitamins?" Why is this role so important? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.9 Describe the roles of minerals, vitamins and food choices in a healthy diet. Study Objective 2: SO 25.9.2 Compare the sources, functions, and importance of minerals and vitamins in metabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.9 Nutrition Solution: Vitamins C, E, and beta carotene (a provitamin) are antioxidants that inactivate oxygen free radicals. Free radicals damage cell membranes, DNA, and other cell structures. They also contribute to the formation of atherosclerotic plaque. Antioxidant vitamins may also decrease cancer risk, delay aging, and decrease the risk of cataract formation.

55) Why are 10 of the amino acids in the human body designated as essential amino acids? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the fate, metabolism, and function of proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Protein Metabolism Answer: Essential amino acids are amino acids that must be present in the diet because they cannot be synthesized in the body in adequate amounts. They include isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. The amino acids arginine and histidine can be synthesized only in inadequate amounts. Thus, these amino acids must be supplied in the diet.

56) What is the difference between a complete protein and an incomplete protein? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the fate, metabolism, and function of proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Protein Metabolism Answer: Complete proteins contain sufficient amounts of all essential amino acids. Incomplete proteins do not contain all essential amino acids.

Question type: Multiple-Choice

57) Which of the following is NOT a fate that awaits glucose 6-phophate after it is formed in a cell? a) Synthesis of glycogen b) Release of glucose into the blood stream c) Synthesis of nucleic acids d) Glycolysis e) Gluconeogenesis Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.6 Identify the key molecules in metabolism, and describe the reactions and products they may form. Section Reference 1: Key Molecules at Metabolic Pathways

58) Which hormone(s) dominate(s) the absorptive state? a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) HGH d) All of these e) None of these Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.6 Identify the key molecules in metabolism, and describe the reactions and products they may form. Section Reference 1: Key Molecules at Metabolic Pathways

59) Which hormone is the primary hormone involved in protein breakdown in the postabsorptive state? a) Glucagon b) Epinephrine c) Cortisol d) Glucagon e) Thyroid Hormone Answer: c

Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 25.6 Identify the key molecules in metabolism, and describe the reactions and products they may form. Section Reference 1: Key Molecules at Metabolic Pathways

60) Which of the following helps the core temperature to increase? a) Constriction of blood vessels of the skin. b) Increase in cellular respiration. c) Shivering. d) Thyroid hormone induced increase in metabolic rate. e) All of these are methods for core temperature increase. Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.8 Describe the maintenance of basal metabolic rate (BMR) and body temperature. Study Objective 2: SO 25.8.2 Describe the factors that influence body heat production. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.8 Heat and Energy Balance

61) Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects the metabolic rate and the rate of heat production? a) Hormones b) Nervous system c) Food ingestion d) Age e) All of these are factors Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.8 Describe the maintenance of basal metabolic rate (BMR) and body temperature. Study Objective 2: SO 25.8.2 Describe the factors that influence body heat production. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.8 Heat and Energy Balance 62) Where is the body’s thermostat located? a) Cerebral cortex b) Preoptic area of the hypothalamus c) Postoptic area of the hypothalamus

d) Thalamus e) Cerebellum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.8 Describe the maintenance of basal metabolic rate (BMR) and body temperature Study Objective 2: SO 25.8.3 Explain how normal body temperature is maintained by negative feedback loops involving the hypothalamic thermostat. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.8 Heat and Energy Balance

63) Which mineral is the most abundant mineral in the body? a) Calcium b) Sodium c) Magnesium d) Phosphorus e) Iron Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.9 Describe the roles of minerals, vitamins and food choices in a healthy diet. Study Objective 2: SO 25.9.2 Compare the sources, functions, and importance of minerals and vitamins in metabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.9 Nutrition

64) Which nutrient is required by the thyroid gland to synthesize thyroid hormones? a) Calcium b) Magnesium c) Iodide d) Manganese e) Sodium Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.9 Describe the roles of minerals, vitamins and food choices in a healthy diet. Study Objective 2: SO 25.9.2 Compare the sources, functions, and importance of minerals and vitamins in metabolism.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.9 Nutrition

65) Which of the following is NOT a function of phosphorus in the body? a) Formation of bones and teeth b) Constitute a major buffer system of blood c) Component of DNA and RNA d) Component of many enzymes e) Affects distribution of water through osmosis Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.9 Describe the roles of minerals, vitamins and food choices in a healthy diet. Study Objective 2: SO 25.9.2 Compare the sources, functions, and importance of minerals and vitamins in metabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.9 Nutrition

66) Which of the following is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones? a) Zinc b) Chromium c) Selenium d) Cobalt e) Copper Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 25.9 Describe the roles of minerals, vitamins and food choices in a healthy diet. Study Objective 2: SO 25.9.2 Compare the sources, functions, and importance of minerals and vitamins in metabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.9 Nutrition

67) Which vitamin is essential for the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the GI tract? a) A b) D c) E d) K e) C

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.9 Describe the roles of minerals, vitamins and food choices in a healthy diet. Study Objective 2: SO 25.9.2 Compare the sources, functions, and importance of minerals and vitamins in metabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.9 Nutrition

68) Which vitamin deficiency can result in rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.9 Describe the roles of minerals, vitamins and food choices in a healthy diet. Study Objective 2: SO 25.9.2 Compare the sources, functions, and importance of minerals and vitamins in metabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.9 Nutrition

69) Which vitamin deficiency can result in hemolytic anemia? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 25.9 Describe the roles of minerals, vitamins and food choices in a healthy diet. Study Objective 2: SO 25.9.2 Compare the sources, functions, and importance of minerals and vitamins in metabolism. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.9 Nutrition

70) Which of the following disorders is a disorder in which protein intake is deficient despite normal or nearly normal caloric intake? a) Marasmus b) Kwashiorkor c) Bulimia d) Malnutrition e) None of these Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Outcome 1: SO 25.10 Describe the disorders related to metabolism. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Metabolism

71) Which of the following describes a severe and often fatal disorder caused by exposure to high temperatures? a) Heat cramps b) Heat exhaustion c) Heat prostration d) Heatstroke e) None of these Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Outcome 1: SO 25.10 Describe the disorders related to metabolism. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Metabolism

72) Which of the following is a protein-calorie under-nutrition that results in retarded growth, low weight, muscle wasting, emaciation, and dry skin? a) Marasmus b) Kwashiorkor c) Malnutrition d) Both Marasmus and Kwashiorkor e) Both Kwashiorkor and Malnutrition Answer: a Study Outcome 1: SO 25.10 Describe the disorders related to metabolism. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Metabolism

73) Which of the following is a potential cause of hypothermia? a) Overwhelming cold stress b) Metabolic diseases c) Drugs d) All of these e) None of these Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.8 Describe the maintenance of basal metabolic rate (BMR) and body temperature. Study Objective 2: SO 25.8.2 Describe the factors that influence body heat production. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.8 Heat and Energy Balance

74) Which hormones are the main stimulating hormones in the postabsorptive state process of glycogenolysis? a) Epinephrine b) Glucagon c) Cortisol d) Epinephrine and Glucagon e) Glucagon and Cortisol Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.7 Compare metabolism during the absorptive and postabsorptive states. Section Reference: 25.7 Metabolic Adaptations 75) Which of the following is not a molecule at the “metabolic crossroads”? a) Glucose 6-phosphate b) Pyruvic acid c) Acetyl coenzyme a d) Glycogen e) All of these are molecules at the “metabolic crossroads” Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 24.6 Identify the key molecules in metabolism, and describe the reactions and the products they may form. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.6 Key Molecules at Metabolic Crossroads

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14e Chapter Number: 26

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which is not a major function of the kidney? a) regulation of blood ionic composition b) regulation of blood cell size c) regulation of blood volume d) regulation of blood pressure e) regulation of blood pH Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 List the functions of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Overview of Kidney Functions

2) This is the formation of a new glucose molecule. a) glycolysis b) gluconeogenesis c) glucosamine d) glucose e) calcitriol Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 List the functions of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Overview of Kidney Functions

3) Which of the following is a waste product normally excreted by the kidneys? a) urea b) glucose c) insulin d) cholesterol e) carbon dioxide

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 List the functions of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Overview of Kidney Functions

4) This is smooth dense irregular connective tissue that is continuous with the outer coat of the ureter. a) adipose capsule b) renal capsule c) renal hilus d) renal cortex e) renal medulla Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the external and internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

5) The portion of the kidney that extends between the renal pyramids is called the a) renal columns b) renal medulla c) renal pelvis d) calyces e) renal papilla Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the external and internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

6) Which is the correct order of blood flow through the kidneys? a) renal artery > segmental artery > interlobular artery > peritubular capillaries > afferent arterioles

b) interlobar arteries > arcuate arteries > glomerular capillaries > arcuate veins c) arcuate veins > arcuate arteries > glomerular capillaries > renal vein d) renal vein > segmental arteries > interlobar arteries > efferent arterioles e) interlobar veins > afferent arterioles > efferent arterioles > glomerular capillaries Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.2 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

7) Which is the correct order of filtrate flow? a) glomerular capsule, proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule (DCT), collecting duct b) nephron loop, glomerular capsule, PCT, DCT, collecting duct c) ascending limb of loop, PCT, DCT, collecting duct d) collecting duct, DCT, PCT, collecting duct, glomerular capsule e) PCT, glomerular capsule, DCT, collecting duct, nephron loop Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

8) Which structure of the nephron reabsorbs the most substances? a) glomerular capsule b) nephron loop c) ascending limb d) collecting duct e) proximal convoluted tubule Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe tubular reabsorption and secretion. Study Objective 2: SO 26.5.2 Describe how specific segments of the renal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb water and solutes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Tubular Reabsorption and Tubular Secretion.

9) This is the structure of the nephron that filters blood. a) glomerular capsule b) nephron loop c) ascending limb d) collecting duct e) renal tubule Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

10) This term means the return of substances into the blood stream from the filtrate. a) reabsorption b) filtration c) secretion d) excretion e) none of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe tubular reabsorption and secretion. Study Objective 2: SO 26.5.2 Describe how specific segments of the renal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb water and solutes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Tubular Reabsorption and Tubular Secretion.

11) This is a nephron process that results in a substance in blood entering the already formed filtrate. a) reabsorption b) filtration c) secretion d) excretion e) none of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe tubular reabsorption and secretion. Study Objective 2: SO 26.5.2 Describe how specific segments of the renal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb water and solutes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Tubular Reabsorption and Tubular Secretion.

12) This layer of filtration membrane is composed of collagen fibers and proteoglycans in a glycoprotein matrix. a) glomerular endothelial cells b) basal lamina c) pedicels d) filtration slits e) slit membrane Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Describe glomerular filtration. Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.1 Describe the filtration membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Glomerular Filtration

13) This occurs when stretching triggers contraction of smooth muscle walls in afferent arterioles. a) glomerular filtration rate b) tubulomerular feedback c) myogenic mechanism d) renal autoregulation e) capsular hydrostatic pressure Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Describe glomerular filtration. Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.1 Describe the filtration membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Glomerular Filtration

14) This occurs when a substance passes from the fluid in the tubular lumen through the apical membrane, across the cytosol, and then into the interstitial fluid. a) paracellular reabsoprtion b) transcellular reabsoprtion c) apical reasborption

d) basolateral reabsorption e) active transport Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe tubular reabsorption and secretion. Study Objective 2: SO26.5.1 Describe the routes and mechanisms of tubular reabsorption and secretion. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Tubular Reabsorption and Tubular Secretion.

15) The proximal convoluted tubules reabsorb which percentage of filtered water? a) 25% b) 50% c) 65% d) 80% e) 99% Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe tubular reabsorption and secretion. Study Objective 2: SO 26.5.1 Describe the routes and mechanisms of tubular reabsorption and secretion. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Tubular Reabsorption and Tubular Secretion.

16) Which of the following is NOT a way angiotensin II affects the kidneys? a) It increases GFR b) It can decrease GFR c) It enhances reabsorption of certain ions d) It stimulates the release of aldosterone e) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe tubular reabsorption and secretion. Study Objective 2: SO 26.5.2 Describe how specific segments of the renal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb water and solutes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Tubular Reabsorption and Tubular Secretion.

17) Urea recycling can cause a buildup of urea in the a) renal capsule b) nephron loop c) ascending tubule d) renal medulla e) renal pelvis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.6 Describe how the renal tubule and collecting ducts produce dilute and concentrated urine. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.6 Production of Dilute and Concentrated Urine

18) Increased secretion of hydrogen ions would result in a(n) ?

of blood

a) increase, pressure b) decrease, volume c) increase, sodium levels d) decrease, pH e) increase, urea Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe tubular reabsorption and secretion. Study Objective 2: SO 26.5.2 Describe how specific segments of the renal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb water and solutes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Tubular Reabsorption and Tubular Secretion.

19) Increased secretion of aldosterone would result in a(n) ? a) increase, potassium b) decrease, volume c) increase, calcium levels d) decrease, pH e) increase, sodium Answer: e Difficulty: Medium

_ of blood

20) An analysis of the physical, chemical, and microscopic properties of urine is called a) urinalysis b) filtration study c) concentration study d) diuretic e) osmolarity Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.7 Understand urinalysis and renal plasma clearance. Study Objective 2: SO 26.7.1 Define urinalysis and describe its importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.7 Evaluation of Kidney Function

21) Water accounts for which percentage of the total volume of urine? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 80% e) 95% Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.7 Understand urinalysis and renal plasma clearance. Study Objective 2: SO 26.7.1 Define urinalysis and describe its importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.7 Evaluation of Kidney Function

22) This is a test to measure kidney function. a) Plasma creatinine b) Renal study c) Kidney assay d) Dialysis e) Hilus study

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.7 Understand urinalysis and renal plasma clearance. Study Objective 2: SO26.7.1 Define urinalysis and describe its importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.7 Evaluation of Kidney Function

23) This transports urine from the kidney to the bladder. a) Urethra b) Ureter c) Descending nephron loop d) Renal hilus e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.8 Describe the anatomy, histology, and physiology of the ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.8 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination

24) This layer of the ureter is composed of connective tissue, collagen and elastic fibers. a) Mucosa b) Transitional epithelium c) Lamina propria d) Adventitia e) Lamina elastica Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.8 Describe the anatomy, histology, and physiology of the ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.8 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination

25) This lies in the anterior corner of the trigone of the bladder. a) Urethral sphincter b) Adventitia bundle c) Ureter d) Internal urethral orifice

e) Muscularis bundle Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.8 Describe the anatomy, histology, and physiology of the ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.8 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination

26) This is composed of dense irregular tissue that runs continuous with the ureter.

a) A b) B c) C Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the external and internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys 27) This layer’s main function is to protect the kidney from trauma and hold it in place within the abdominal cavity.

a) A b) B c) C Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the external and internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

28) This layer runs deep to the peritoneum on the anterior surface of the kidneys.

a) A b) B c) C

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the external and internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

29) This can be divided into the cortical zone and the juxtamedullary zone.

a) A b) D c) E d) F

e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the external and internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

30) Each kidney can have anywhere from 8 to 18 of these.

a) I b) J c) K

d) L e) H Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the external and internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

31) This structure is the apex of a renal pyramid.

a) E b) D

c) G d) K e) L Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the external and internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

32) Urine formed by the nephrons first drains into these.

a) H

b) I c) J d) K e) L Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the external and internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

33) What two structures comprise the renal corpuscle?

a) A and B b) C and D c) E and F d) K and L e) N and O Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

34) Where is the distal convoluted tubule?

a) D b) E c) J d) K e) L

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

35) Where is the arcuate vein?

a) E b) F

c) G d) H e) I Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

36) Where is the ascending limb of the nephron loop?

a) C b) D c) J d) K e) L Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

37) Where is the corticomedullary junction?

a) G b) J c) M d) N e) O

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

38) Where is the papillary duct?

a) C b) F

c) H d) N e) O Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

39) What does line “M” point to?

a) Arcuate artery b) Arcuate vein c) Collecting duct d) Descending loop e) Efferent arteriole Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys

Study Objective 2: SO26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys 40) What is line “C” pointing to?

a) Distal convoluted tubule b) Interlobular artery c) Efferent arteriole d) Arcuate artery e) Corticomedullary junction

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys 41) What is line “A” pointing to?

a) Fenestration b) Pedicel c) Filtration slit d) Basal lamina e) Lumen of the glomerulus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Describe glomerular filtration. Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.1 Describe the filtration membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Glomerular Filtration

42) What is line “B” pointing to?

a) Fenestration b) Pedicel c) Filtration slit d) Basal lamina e) Lumen of the glomerulus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Describe glomerular filtration. Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.1 Describe the filtration membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Glomerular Filtration

43) What is line “C” pointing to?

a) Fenestration b) Pedicel c) Filtration slit d) Basal lamina e) Lumen of the glomerulus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Describe glomerular filtration. Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.1 Describe the filtration membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Glomerular Filtration

44) What is line “D” pointing to?

a) Fenestration b) Pedicel c) Filtration slit d) Basal lamina e) Lumen of the glomerulus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Describe glomerular filtration. Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.1 Describe the filtration membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Glomerular Filtration

Question type: Essay

45) Describe the flow of blood through the kidneys.

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.2 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

Solution: Kidneys receive 20 to 25% of the resting cardiac output via the renal arteries. The renal arteries branch to form segmental arteries, which branch to form interlobar arteries (through renal columns) to arcuate arteries (over bases of pyramids) to interlobular arteries. The interlobular arteries branch to form afferent arterioles to each nephron. Afferent arterioles branch to form glomerular capillaries where filtration occurs. Glomerular capillaries merge to form efferent arterioles, which then branch to form peritubular capillaries. Juxtamedullary nephrons also have vasa recta capillaries around them. Peritubular capillaries merge to form peritubular veins and with the vasa recta to form interlobular veins to arcuate veins to interlobar veins. Blood exits the kidney via renal veins.

46) Trace the flow of a water molecule through the nephrons from the afferent arteriole to the minor calyx.

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe tubular reabsorption and secretion. Study Objective 2: SO 26.5.2 Describe how specific segments of the renal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb water and solutes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Tubular Reabsorption and Tubular Secretion. Solution: The water would flow from the afferent arteriole into the glomerulus, where it would be filtered into the Bowman’s capsule. From the Bowman’s capsule, it would enter the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT). Most of its companion water molecules would be reabsorbed into the blood from the PCT. The next part of the trip would take the water molecule through the descending of the nephron loop, where more of its companion water molecules would be reabsorbed. From there, the water molecule would climb the ascending nephron loop and move into the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). Toward the end of the DCT and most of the collecting duct, there are principal cells that respond to ADH and can reabsorb more water molecules. If not reabsorbed in the DCT or the collecting duct, the water molecule would move into the papillary duct that drains into the minor calyx.

47) Describe the structural features of the renal corpuscle that enhance its blood filtering capacity.

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Describe glomerular filtration. Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.1 Describe the filtration membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Glomerular Filtration Solution: Endothelial cells of the glomerular capillaries are fenestrated. Their basement membranes are part of the filtering mechanism. Podocytes with filtration slits between pedicels wrap the glomerular capillaries. The large surface area also contributes to filtering ability, as does the high glomerular hydrostatic pressure created by the arrangement of the afferent and

efferent arterioles, in which the diameter of the efferent arteriole is smaller than that of the afferent arteriole.

48) Describe in detail how the renin angiotensin negative feedback loop helps regulate blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate in response to dehydration.

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe tubular reabsorption and secretion. Study Objective 2: SO 26.5.2 Describe how specific segments of the renal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb water and solutes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Tubular Reabsorption and Tubular Secretion. Solution: Dehydration causes a decrease in blood volume and pressure, which then decreases glomerular filtration rate (GFR). The juxtaglomerular( JG) cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus sense decreased stretch and macula densa cells sense decreased water. The JG cells secrete renin, which converts angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin I. The latter is converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin converting enzymes in the lungs. Angiotensin II causes constriction of efferent arterioles, increased thirst, greater ADH secretion from the posterior pituitary, and increased secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Blood volume is increased, which increases venous return, stroke volume, cardiac output, and blood pressure. GFR is also increased.

49) Discuss the importance of countercurrent flow to the functioning of the nephron.

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.6 Describe how the renal tubule and collecting ducts produce dilute and concentrated urine. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.6 Production of Dilute and Concentrated Urine Solution: Countercurrent flow refers to the flow of fluid in opposite directions in parallel tubing (tubules and blood vessels). The arrangement allows gradients to develop between tubular fluid, blood, and interstitial fluid. Gradients allow for reabsorption of large amounts of water and ions from the tubular fluid.

Question type: Multiple Choice

50) Fluid flowing from point N in the figure will go to which structure next?

a) G b) H c) C d) B e) K Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

51) Fluid flowing from point G in the figure will go to which structure next?

a) N b) H

c) I d) M e) K Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

52) Fluid flowing from point H in the figure will go to which structure next?

a) L b) B c) I d) G e) N Answer: b

53) Fluid flowing from point B in the figure will go to which of the following structures?

a) J b) M

c) I d) G e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

54) Which vessel in the diagram is the afferent arteriole?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) L Answer: a

55) Which vessel in the diagram is the interlobular vein?

a) C b) D

c) E d) F e) L Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

56) Which vessel(s) in the diagram are the vasa recta?

a) C b) D c) E d) M e) L Answer: e

57) Which vessel in the diagram is the interlobular artery?

a) D b) E

c) F d) L Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

58) Which vessel in the diagram is the arcuate artery?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) L Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

59) Which vessel(s) in the diagram are the peritubular capillaries?

a) C b) D c) E

d) M e) L Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the anatomy of the kidneys Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys

60) An increase in permeability of the filtration membrane due to disease, injury, or irritation of kidney cells by substances such as bacterial toxins, ether, or heavy metals indicates which condition? a) albuminuria b) lucosuria c) robilinogenuria d) ketonuria e) bilirubinuria Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.7 Understand urinalysis and renal plasma clearance. Study Objective 2: SO 26.7.1 Define urinalysis and describe its importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.7 Evaluation of Kidney Function

61) Anorexia, starvation, or a diet too low in carbohydrates indicates which condition? a) albuminuria b) glucosuria c) urobilinogenuria d) ketonuria e) bilirubinuria Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.7 Understand urinalysis and renal plasma clearance. Study Objective 2: SO 26.7.1 Define urinalysis and describe its importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.7 Evaluation of Kidney Function

62) Stress, causing excessive amounts of epinephrine secretion which stimulates glycogen breakdown, indicates which condition? This condition can also indicate diabetes mellitus. a) albuminuria b) glucosuria c) urobilinogenuria d) hematuria e) bilirubinuria Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.7 Understand urinalysis and renal plasma clearance. Study Objective 2: SO 26.7.1 Define urinalysis and describe its importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.7 Evaluation of Kidney Function

63) Excessive urine concentration of a normal breakdown product of hemoglobin, caused by pernicious anemia, infectious hepatitis, jaundice or cirrhosis, indicates which condition? a) albuminuria b) glucosuria c) urobilinogenuria d) hematuria e) bilirubinuria Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.7 Understand urinalysis and renal plasma clearance. Study Objective 2: SO 26.7.1 Define urinalysis and describe its importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.7 Evaluation of Kidney Function

64) This substance gives bile its major pigmentation: a) ketone bodies b) erythrocytes c) casts d) bilirubin e) glucose Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.7 Understand urinalysis and renal plasma clearance.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.7.1 Define urinalysis and describe its importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.7 Evaluation of Kidney Function

65) These are tiny masses of material, hardened in the lumen of the urinary tubule and are flushed out when filtrate builds up behind them: a) ketone bodies b) erythrocytes c) casts d) microbes e) urobilinogen Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.7 Understand urinalysis and renal plasma clearance. Study Objective 2: SO 26.7.1 Define urinalysis and describe its importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.7 Evaluation of Kidney Function

66) Candida albicans and E. coli are which type of abnormal constituent of urine: a) ketone bodies b) erythrocytes c) casts d) microbes e) urobilinogen Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.7 Understand urinalysis and renal plasma clearance. Study Objective 2: SO 26.7.1 Define urinalysis and describe its importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.7 Evaluation of Kidney Function

67) Which is the normal pH range of urine in humans? a) 8.1 – 10.6 b) 4.6 – 8.0 c) 1.0 – 3.0 d) 3.1 – 4.0 e) 10.0 – 12.0 Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.7 Understand urinalysis and renal plasma clearance. Study Objective 2: SO 26.7.1 Define urinalysis and describe its importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.7 Evaluation of Kidney Function

68) What is the normal volume of urine produced in humans? a) 1L / hr b) 2L / day c) 2L / hr d) 3L / week e) 10L / 24 hours Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.7 Understand urinalysis and renal plasma clearance. Study Objective 2: SO26.7.1 Define urinalysis and describe its importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.7 Evaluation of Kidney Function

69) What is the normal specific gravity range of urine in humans? a) 2.350 – 3.700 b) 0.002 – 1.000 c) 4.6 – 8.0 d) 1.001 – 1.035 e) 1.04 – 2.60 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.7 Understand urinalysis and renal plasma clearance. Study Objective 2: SO 26.7.1 Define urinalysis and describe its importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.7 Evaluation of Kidney Function

Question type: True/False

70) Parasympathetic division of ANS regulates kidney functions. Answer: False

Question type: Multiple Choice

71) This hormone is released when the blood volume increases. a) Parathyroid Hormone b) Renin c) ADH d) Atrial Natriuretic Peptide e) Aldosterone Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe tubular reabsorption and secretion. Study Objective 2: SO 26.5.2 Describe how specific segments of the renal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb water and solutes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Tubular Reabsorption and Tubular Secretion.

72) Consumption of salty food will cause an increase in this hormone. a) Aldosterone b) Renin c) ANH d) Angiotensin-II e) ADH Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe tubular reabsorption and secretion. Study Objective 2: SO 26.5.2 Describe how specific segments of the renal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb water and solutes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Tubular Reabsorption and Tubular Secretion.

73) Absence of angiotensin converting enzyme will lead to

a) decreased blood pressure b) increased blood pressure c) will not have any effect on blood pressure d) All of these choices are correct. e) None of these choices is correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe tubular reabsorption and secretion. Study Objective 2: SO 26.5.2 Describe how specific segments of the renal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb water and solutes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Tubular Reabsorption and Tubular Secretion.

74. In males, both the urinary system and the

use the urethra.

a) integument b) reproductive system c) respiratory system d) digestive system Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.12: Describe how the urinary system contributes to homeostasis Section Reference 1: Sec Focus on Homeostasis: The Urinary System 75. The kidneys release

to raise blood pressure.

Answer: renin Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.12: Describe how the urinary system contributes to homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec Focus on Homeostasis: The Urinary System 76. The kidneys convert some of the bilirubin from hemoglobin breakdown to yellow pigment.

Answer: urobilin Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.12: Describe how the urinary system contributes to homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec Focus on Homeostasis: The Urinary System

77. Shock wave lithotripsy is often used to treat which condition? a) renal calculi b) urinary tract infections c) glomerulonephritis d) polycystic kidney disease e) urinary bladder cancer Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.13: Describe the disorders that affect the urinary system. Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Urinary System 78. Excessive calcium ingestion and low water intake can lead to which condition? a) renal calculi b) urinary tract infections c) glomerulonephritis d) polycystic kidney disease e) urinary bladder cancer Answer: A Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.13: Describe the disorders that affect the urinary system Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Urinary System 79. Inflammation of the kidneys is called a) cystitis b) nephrotic syndrome c) pyelonephritis d) urethritis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.13: Describe the disorders that affect the urinary system. Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Urinary System

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 27

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) How much of the total volume of body fluid is intracellular fluid? a) 10% b) 50% c) 1/3 d) 2/3 e) 99% Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.1 Compare the locations of intracellular fluid (IFC) and extracellular fluid (EFC), and describe the various fluid compartments of the body. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis

2) 80% of the extracellular fluid is a) Plasma b) Cytosol c) Interstitial fluid d) Lymph e) Bile Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.1 Compare the locations of intracellular fluid (IFC) and extracellular fluid (EFC), and describe the various fluid compartments of the body. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis

3) Which of the following makes up the largest single component of the human body? a) Skin b) Water

c) Blood d) Organs e) Electrolytes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.1 Compare the locations of intracellular fluid (IFC) and extracellular fluid (EFC), and describe the various fluid compartments of the body. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis

4) Which of the following is produced when electrons are accepted by oxygen during cellular respiration? a) Anions b) Cations c) Metabolic water d) Lipids e) Carbohydrates Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.2 Describe the sources of water and solute gain and loss, and explain how each is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis

5) Which of the following occurs when water loss is greater than water gain? a) Dehydration b) Evaporation c) Precipitation d) Insensible loss e) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.2 Describe the sources of water and solute gain and loss, and explain how each is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis

6) The response of the body to decreasing blood pressure will NOT cause which of the following? a) Dehydration b) Formation of angiotensin II c) Stimulate the kidneys to secrete rennin d) Formation of ADH e) Increased vasoconstriction Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.2 Describe the sources of water and solute gain and loss, and explain how each is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis

7) Which of the following is the main factor that determines body fluid volume? a) Thirst center b) Fluid balance c) Urinary salt loss d) Compartmentalizing e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.2 Describe the sources of water and solute gain and loss, and explain how each is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis

8) Which of the following is used to promote Na+ reabsorption by the kidneys? a) Antidiuretic hormone b) ANP c) Aldosterone d) Parathyroid hormone e) All of these choices Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.2 Describe the sources of water and solute gain and loss, and explain how each is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis

9) Which of the following is used to promote water reabsorption by the kidneys? a) Antidiuretic hormone b) ANP c) Aldosterone d) Parathyroid hormone e) All of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.2 Describe the sources of water and solute gain and loss, and explain how each is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis

10) Natriuresis a) Is decreased Na+ levels in urine b) Is decreased Cl- levels in urine c) Is increased K+ levels in urine d) Is increased PO- levels in urine e) None of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.2 Describe the sources of water and solute gain and loss, and explain how each is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis

11) A decline in angiotensin II levels does NOT result in a) Increased GFR b) Reduced Na+ and Cl- reabsorption by the kidneys

c) Reduced water reabsorption by the kidneys d) Increased Calcium reabsorption e) Increased urine output Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.2 Describe the sources of water and solute gain and loss, and explain how each is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis

12) The major hormone that regulates water loss is a) ANP b) Angiotensin II c) Renin d) ADH e) Angiotensin Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.2 Describe the sources of water and solute gain and loss, and explain how each is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis

13) Water intoxication results from a) Dilute body fluids b) Decrease in the osmolarity of interstitial fluids c) Osmosis of water from ICF to ECF d) Dilute body fluids and a decrease in the osmolarity of interstitial fluids e) Decrease in water intake Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.3 Explain how fluids move between compartments. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis

14) Which of the following is a function of an electrolyte in the body? a) Controlling osmosis between compartments b) Maintaining acid-base balance c) Carry electrical currents d) Serve as cofactors e) All of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.2 Compare the functions of select electrolytes and their occurrence in the three major fluid compartments. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2.1 Compare the electrolyte composition of the three major fluid compartments: plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.2 Electrolytes in Body Fluids

15) In extracellular fluid the most abundant cation is a) Na+ b) Clc) K+ d) HPO42e) HCO3Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.2 Compare the functions of select electrolytes and their occurrence in the three major fluid compartments. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2.1 Compare the electrolyte composition of the three major fluid compartments: plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.2 Electrolytes in Body Fluids

16) In extracellular fluid the most abundant anion is: a) Na+ b) Clc) K+ d) HPO42e) HCO3Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.2 Compare the functions of select electrolytes and their occurrence in the three major fluid compartments. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2.1 Compare the electrolyte composition of the three major fluid compartments: plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.2 Electrolytes in Body Fluids

17) In intracellular fluid the most abundant cation is: a) Na+ b) Clc) K+ d) HPO42e) HCO3Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.2 Compare the functions of select electrolytes and their occurrence in the three major fluid compartments. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2.1 Compare the electrolyte composition of the three major fluid compartments: plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.2 Electrolytes in Body Fluids

18) In intracellular fluid the most abundant anion is a) Na+ b) Clc) K+ d) HPO42e) HCO3Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.2 Compare the functions of select electrolytes and their occurrence in the three major fluid compartments. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2.1 Compare the electrolyte composition of the three major fluid compartments: plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.2 Electrolytes in Body Fluids 19) The Na+ level in blood is controlled by

a) Aldosterone b) Insulin c) ATP production d) Krebs cycle e) Glucagon Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.2 Compare the functions of select electrolytes and their occurrence in the three major fluid compartments. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2.2 Discuss the functions of sodium, chloride, potassium, bicarbonate, calcium, phosphate, and magnesium ions, and explain how their concentrations are regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.2 Electrolytes in Body Fluids

20) Which of the following occurs between RBC and blood plasma as the blood level of carbon dioxide increases or decreases? a) Chloride shift b) Potassium shift c) Sodium shift d) Bicarbonate shift e) Protein shift Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.2 Compare the functions of select electrolytes and their occurrence in the three major fluid compartments. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2.2 Discuss the functions of sodium, chloride, potassium, bicarbonate, calcium, phosphate, and magnesium ions, and explain how their concentrations are regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.2 Electrolytes in Body Fluids

21) Which of the following is the most abundant mineral in the body? a) Na+ b) Calcium c) Magnesium d) Phosphate e) Iron Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 27.2 Compare the functions of select electrolytes and their occurrence in the three major fluid compartments. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2.2 Discuss the functions of sodium, chloride, potassium, bicarbonate, calcium, phosphate, and magnesium ions, and explain how their concentrations are regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.2 Electrolytes in Body Fluids

22) PTH, calcitriol and calcitonin are a) The main regulators of magnesium in the blood b) The main regulators of phosphate in the blood c) The main regulators of calcium in the blood d) The main regulators of NaCl in the blood e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.2 Compare the functions of select electrolytes and their occurrence in the three major fluid compartments. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2.2 Discuss the functions of sodium, chloride, potassium, bicarbonate, calcium, phosphate, and magnesium ions, and explain how their concentrations are regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.2 Electrolytes in Body Fluids

23) Most of the phosphate in a body is present as a) Lipids b) Plasma membranes c) DNA d) Calcium phosphate salt e) Carbohydrates Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.2 Compare the functions of select electrolytes and their occurrence in the three major fluid compartments. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2.2 Discuss the functions of sodium, chloride, potassium, bicarbonate, calcium, phosphate, and magnesium ions, and explain how their concentrations are regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.2 Electrolytes in Body Fluids

24) Buffer systems, exhaling carbon dioxide and excretion by the kidneys, are all a) Ways to balance interstitial fluid

b) Means of balancing blood volume c) Ways of controlling H+ levels in the body d) Ways to make ions e) Ways to increase blood volume Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.1 Compare the roles of buffers, exhalation of carbon dioxide, and kidney excretion of H+ in maintaining pH of body fluids. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis

25) Metabolic reactions can produce a) H+ b) HCO3c) Nonvolatile acids d) Volatile bases e) Ca+ Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.1 Compare the roles of buffers, exhalation of carbon dioxide, and kidney excretion of H+ in maintaining pH of body fluids. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis

26) Which of the following is a condition where blood pH is below 7.35? a) Isodosis b) Acidosis c) Alkalosis d) Alkalemia e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.2 Define acid-base imbalances, describe their effects on the body, and explain how they are treated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis

27) In partial compensation a) pH is brought into the normal range b) systemic arterial blood is still lower than 7.35 c) systemic arterial blood is higher than 9.5 d) pH is greater than 5.5 e) pH is lower than 2.5 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.2 Define acid-base imbalances, describe their effects on the body, and explain how they are treated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis

28) Inadequate exhalation of carbon dioxide can cause a) Blood pH to drop b) Alkalosis c) Respiratory compensation d) Unequal distribution of water e) Metabolic alkalosis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.2 Define acid-base imbalances, describe their effects on the body, and explain how they are treated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis 29) Which imbalance results when systemic arterial blood HCO3- levels drop significantly (below 22 mEq/liter)? a) Metabolic alkalosis b) Metabolic acidosis

c) Respiratory acidosis d) Respiratory alkalosis e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.2 Define acid-base imbalances, describe their effects on the body, and explain how they are treated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis

30) Which imbalance results when systemic arterial blood CO2 levels raise to abnormal values? a) Metabolic alkalosis b) Metabolic acidosis c) Respiratory acidosis d) Respiratory alkalosis e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.2 Define acid-base imbalances, describe their effects on the body, and explain how they are treated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Balance

31) Which of the following is the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis? a) Hemorrhage b) Vomiting c) Pneumothroax d) Diabetes e) Cancer Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.2 Define acid-base imbalances, describe their effects on the body, and explain how they are treated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Balance

32) The rate of fluid intake and outflow is how much higher in an infant than in an adult? a) 2 times higher b) 5 times higher c) 7 times higher d) 10 times higher e) They are equal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Describe the changes in fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance that may occur with aging. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.4 Aging and Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Homeostasis

33) The breathing rate of an infant a) Is twice as fast as an adult b) Causes greater water loss from the lungs c) Removes less carbon dioxide than in an adult d) Makes the infant blood more acidic e) Is normal to an adult Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Describe the changes in fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance that may occur with aging. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.4 Aging and Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Homeostasis

Question type: Essay

34) Describe the negative feedback loop that stimulates thirst as a result of dehydration. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.2 Describe the sources of water and solute gain and loss, and explain how each is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis Solution: Dehydration causes 1) decreased flow of saliva, which dries the mouth and pharynx, 2) increased blood osmotic pressure, which stimulates osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus, and 3) decreased blood volume, which lowers blood pressure, increasing release of renin from JG cells, increasing levels of angiotensin II. All of these stimulate the thirst center in the hypothalamus, which increases fluid intake via thirst, thus increasing body water. 35) Normal blood Na+ levels are 136-148 mEq/L. An elderly patient has a blood Na+ of 105 mEq/L. Describe the patient’s condition and the signs and symptoms that usually accompany that condition. Be sure to include the functions of Na+ in the body in your answer. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 27.2 Compare the functions of select electrolytes and their occurrence in the three major fluid compartments. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2.2 Discuss the functions of sodium, chloride, potassium, bicarbonate, calcium, phosphate, and magnesium ions, and explain how their concentrations are regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.2 Electrolytes in Body Fluids Solution: The patient has hyponatremia, or low Na+ concentration in the blood. The body uses Na+ in the depolarization phase of action potentials and in maintaining osmotic balance. Sometimes elderly people lose the ability to concentrate urine and lose too much Na+. Other causes of hyponatremia include inadequate dietary intake or gastrointestinal upsets such as diarrhea and vomiting. Typical signs and symptoms of hyponatremia include muscular weakness, dizziness, headache, tachycardia, hypotension, confusion, stupor and coma.

36) Explain how it is possible for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to have a normal extracellular pH while having an elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.2 Define acid-base imbalances, describe their effects on the body, and explain how they are treated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis Solution: Elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide causes respiratory acidosis, which is compensated by an increase in plasma levels of bicarbonate ion. Because the patient cannot breathe off the excess carbon dioxide due to structural changes in the respiratory system, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide stays high, but compensated by bicarbonate.

37) A patient's blood pH is 7.48; partial pressure of carbon dioxide is 32 mm Hg and levels of bicarbonate in the blood are 20 mEq/liter. What can you tell about this patient's condition? Explain your answer. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.2 Define acid-base imbalances, describe their effects on the body, and explain how they are treated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis Solution: The patient is in respiratory alkalosis (high pH, low carbon dioxide), which is partially compensated (low bicarbonate).

38) Describe the fluid and electrolyte disorders to which the elderly are particularly susceptible. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Describe the changes in fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance that may occur with aging. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.4 Aging and Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance Solution: 1) Dehydration and hypernatremia due to inadequate fluid intake or loss of more water than sodium in vomit, feces, or urine 2) Hyponatremia due to inadequate intake of sodium, impaired kidney function, or excessive sodium loss 3) Hypokalemia due to excessive laxative use or potassium depleting diuretics 4) Acidosis due to lung or kidney disease

39) Why is a small amount of table salt included in intravenous or oral rehydration therapy? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Study Objective 2: SO 27.1.2 Describe the sources of water and solute gain and loss, and explain how each is regulated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis Solution: Water entering the cells causes them to swell, producing convulsions, coma, and possibly death. To prevent this sequence of event in cases of severe electrolyte and water loss, solutions given for intravenous or oral rehydration therapy include a small amount of table salt.

Question type: Multiple Choice

40) What part of the brain is considered to be the thirst center? a) Thalamus b) Hypothalamus c) Midbrain d) Brain stem e) Cerebrum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Understand fluid balance and the fluid compartments in the body. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Fluid Compartments and Fluid Homeostasis

41) Most buffer systems in the body consist of a) A weak acid b) A weak base c) A weak acid and the salt of that acid d) A weak base and the salt of that base e) None of these are correct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.1 Compare the roles of buffers, exhalation of carbon dioxide, and kidney excretion of H+ in maintaining pH of body fluids. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis

42) Which protein is the main protein buffer in blood plasma? a) Albumin b) Hemoglobin c) Complement d) Fibrin e) Calmodulin Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.1 Compare the roles of buffers, exhalation of carbon dioxide, and kidney excretion of H+ in maintaining pH of body fluids. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis

43) Which of the following chemicals is considered to be a volatile acid? a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen c) Carbonic acid d) Hemoglobin e) Calmodulin Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.1 Compare the roles of buffers, exhalation of carbon dioxide, and kidney excretion of H+ in maintaining pH of body fluids. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis

44) Which cells of the kidney are the most important for regulation of pH of body fluids? a) Glomerular podocytes b) Principal cells c) PCT cells d) DCT cells e) Intercalated cells Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.1 Compare the roles of buffers, exhalation of carbon dioxide, and kidney excretion of H+ in maintaining pH of body fluids. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis

45) Which of the following is the most plentiful buffer in the tubular fluid of the kidney collecting duct? a) Bicarbonate ion b) Monohydrogen phosphate ion c) Ammonium ion d) Dihydrogen phosphate ion e) None of these Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.1 Compare the roles of buffers, exhalation of carbon dioxide, and kidney excretion of H+ in maintaining pH of body fluids. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis

46) Which of the following is NOT a mechanism that maintains pH of body fluids? a) Buffer systems b) Proteins c) Phosphates d) Carbonic acid-bicarbonate e) All of these correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.1 Compare the roles of buffers, exhalation of carbon dioxide, and kidney excretion of H+ in maintaining pH of body fluids. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis

47) Which of the following is a common cause of respiratory acidosis? a) Loss of bicarbonate ions due to renal dysfunction b) Loss of acid due to vomiting c) Hyperventilation due to pulmonary disease d) Hypoventilation due to emphysema e) All of these are correct Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.2 Define acid-base imbalances, describe e their effects on the body, and explain how they are treated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis

48) Which disorder can result in respiratory alkalosis? a) emphysema b) airway obstruction c) use of certain diuretics d) cerebrovascular accident e) accumulation of acid Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.3 Compare the mechanisms for maintaining acid-base homeostasis and the changes in fluid balance that may occur with aging. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3.2 Define acid-base imbalances, describe their effects on the body, and explain how they are treated. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.3 Acid-Base Homeostasis

49) Infants experience more problems with acid-base homeostasis and fluid and electrolyte balance based on which of the following: a) Proportion and distribution of water b) Metabolic rate c) Body surface area d) Breathing rate e) All of these are factors Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.4 Describe the changes in fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance that may occur with aging. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.4 Aging and Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Homeostasis

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 28

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which structure helps regulate the temperature of the testes? a) Dartos muscle b) Tunica vaginalis c) Tunica albuginea d) Seminiferous tubules e) Both Dartos muscle and Seminiferous tubules Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

2) Which structure is the site of sperm production? a) Vas deferens b) Seminiferous tubules c) Albuginea d) Epididymis e) Raphe Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

3) How many seminiferous tubules are found in each lobule?

a) 1-3 b) 50-100 c) 200-300 d) 500 or more e) Millions Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

4) Which of the following cells may eventually become spermatozoa? a) Sertoli cells b) Sustentacular cells c) Spermatogonia d) Chief cells e) Speciation cells Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.2 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

5) Which cells secrete testosterone? a) Sertoli cells b) Spermatogenic cells c) Leydig cells d) Oogonia e) Chief cells Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system.

Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

6) Which hormone stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone? a) GnRH b) LH c) Inhibin d) DHT e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.2 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

7) The straight tubules in the testis lead into the a) Efferent ducts b) Afferent ducts c) Rete testis d) Ductus epididymis e) Epididymis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

8) The function of the epididymis is a) Sperm maturation b) Produce sperm c) Spermatid storage d) Provide nutrition to sperm

e) Absorption of calcium Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

9) Which structure is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicle and the ampulla of the vas deferens? a) Urethra b) Spermatic cord c) Inguinal canal d) Ejaculatory duct e) Prostate Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

10) Which structure lies posterior to the bladder and anterior to the rectum and secretes an alkaline, fructose filled fluid? a) Prostate b) bulbourethral gland c) Seminal vesicles d) Spongy urethra e) Prostatic urethra Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system.

Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

11) Which of the following structures are located inferior to the prostate on either side of the membranous urethra within the deep muscles of the perineum? a) bulbourethral gland b) Seminal vesicles c) Ejaculatory ducts d) Urethral ducts e) Prostate Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

12) Which structure is composed of three cylindrical masses of erectile tissue each surrounded by a fibrous tissue? a) Testes b) Prostate c) Bladder d) Penis e) Urethra Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

13) Which ligament arises from the pubic symphysis in males? a) Fundiform ligament

b) Broad ligament c) Suspensory ligament d) Ejaculatory ligament e) Perineum ligament Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

14) What is produced by the ovaries? a) Primary oocytes, insulin and estrogen b) Secondary oocytes, progesterone and cortisol c) Tertiary oocytes, insulin and estrogen d) Secondary oocytes, estrogen and progesterone e) Primary oocytes, estrogen and testosterone Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

15) What structure attaches the ovaries and the uterus to the pelvic wall? a) Broad ligament b) Mesovarium c) Ovarian ligament d) Suspensory ligament e) Hilum Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system.

Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

16) Which of the following is the site of fertilization? a) Ureters b) Urethra c) Uterine tubes d) Ovaries e) Vagina Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

17) Which part of the uterus opens into the vagina? a) Urethra b) Cervix c) Uterine tubes d) Inguinal canal e) Ovaries Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

18) Anterior to the vagina and urethral openings is the a) Labia majora b) Labia minor c) Mons pubis

d) Cervical sphincter e) Labial frenulum Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System. 19) Paraurethral (Skene’s) glands secrete a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Testosterone d) Androgens e) Mucus Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

20) Which hormone promotes the final step of spermatogenesis? a) Relaxin b) Testosterone c) Inhibin d) Estrogen e) Aldosterone Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.2 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

21) Which hormone triggers ovulation? a) GnRH b) LH c) FSH d) Estrogen e) Progesterone Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.3 Compare the major events of the ovarian and uterine cycles. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.3 The Female Reproductive Cycle.

22) Which hormone is secreted by the corpus luteum after ovulation? a) Progesterone b) Relaxin c) LH d) FSH e) HGH Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.3 Compare the major events of the ovarian and uterine cycles. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.3 The Female Reproductive Cycle.

23) The uterine phase where the thickness of the endometrium doubles is the a) Menstrual phase b) Preovulatory phase c) Proliferative phase d) Follicular phase e) Postovulatory phase Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.3 Compare the major events of the ovarian and uterine cycles. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.3 The Female Reproductive Cycle.

24) The ovarian phase between the end of menstruation and beginning of ovulation is the a) Menstrual phase b) Preovulatory phase c) Proliferative phase d) Follicular phase e) Postovulatory phase Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.3 Compare the major events of the ovarian and uterine cycles. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.3 The Female Reproductive Cycle.

25) The septum of the scrotum is made up of a subcutaneous layer and which muscle tissue?

a) A b) B c) F d) G e) I Answer: e

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System. 26) What does line “A” point to?

a) Lymphatic vessels b) Pampiniform plexus c) Internal spermatic fascia d) Spermatic cord e) Fundiform ligament Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

27) Which structure has a portion removed in a vasectomy?

a) A b) D c) E d) G e) I Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

28) What does line “G” point to?

a) Dartos muscle b) Cremaster muscle c) Fascia d) Tunica albuginea e) Tunica vaginalis Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

29) What is line “C” pointing to?

a) Efferent duct b) Body of epididymis c) Straight tubule d) Seminiferous tubule e) Lobule Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

30) Where are the straight tubules?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

31) What is line “F” pointing to?

a) Ductus epididymis b) Rete testis c) Efferent duct d) Afferent duct e) Seminiferous tubules Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

32) Which structure is part of the connection of the uterus to the pelvic cavity?

a) B b) C c) E d) G e) H Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

33) What is line “C” pointing to?

a) Bladder b) Fimbriae c) Ovary d) Uterus e) Perineum Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

34) Where is the site for implantation of a fertilized ovum?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

35) Which line represents the opening from the uterus to the vagina?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

36) Which structure consists of a primary oocyte that is surrounded by several layers of cuboidal cells called granulosa?

a) A b) B c) C d) F e) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

37) Where is the mature ovarian follicle?

a) A b) B c) C d) F e) H Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

38) Where is the corpus albicans?

a) F b) G c) H d) I e) None of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

39) Which structure will produce progesterone, estrogens, relaxin and inhibin?

a) D b) E c) G d) I e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

40) What is line “D” pointing to?

a) Follicular fluid b) Germinal epithelium c) Ovarian cortex d) Ovarian medulla e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

Question type: Essay

41) Trace the path of a sperm cell from the site of its maturation to the site where it leaves the male body. Include descriptions of fluids added along that path.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System. Solution: Sperm mature in the epididymis. From there, they travel through the ductus (Vas) deferens through the abdominal cavity to the ampulla of the ductus deferens which merges with the duct of the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct. Sperm and the alkaline, fructose-rich fluid from the seminal vesicle move from the ejaculatory duct into the prostatic urethra, where they are mixed with a slightly acidic mucoid fluid from the prostate. Next the sperm and fluid pass through the membranous urethra and are mixed with additional alkaline secretions from the bulbourethral glands. The combination of sperm and secretions is called semen. The mixture travels through the penile urethra as it is ejaculated.

42) Describe the functions of testosterone. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.2 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System. Solution: Testosterone promotes the development and maintenance of male secondary sex characteristics, protein anabolism, development of sexual function (behavior, libido, spermatogenesis), and the male pattern of development during prenatal life.

43) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.3 Compare the major events of the ovarian and uterine cycles. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.3 The Female Reproductive Cycle. Solution: Estrogens secreted by ovarian follicles have several important functions: • Estrogens promote the development and maintenance of female reproductive structures, secondary sex characteristics, and the breasts. The secondary sex characteristics include distribution of adipose tissue in the breasts, abdomen, mons pubis, and hips; voice pitch; a broad pelvis; and pattern of hair growth on the head and body. • Estrogens increase protein anabolism, including the building of strong bones. In this regard,

estrogens are synergistic with human growth hormone (hGH). • Estrogens lower blood cholesterol level, which is probably the reason that women under age 50 have a much lower risk of coronary artery disease than do men of comparable age. • Moderate levels of estrogens in the blood inhibit both the release of GnRH by the hypothalamus and secretion of LH and FSH by the anterior pituitary. Progesterone, secreted mainly by cells of the corpus luteum, cooperates with estrogens to prepare and maintain the endometrium for implantation of a fertilized ovum and to prepare the mammary glands for milk secretion. High levels of progesterone also inhibit secretion of GnRH and LH.

44) Describe the positive feedback loop involved in ovulation. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.3 Compare the major events of the ovarian and uterine cycles. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.3 The Female Reproductive Cycle. Solution: A high concentration of estrogens stimulates more frequent release of GnRH from the hypothalamus. It also directly stimulates gonadotrophs in the anterior pituitary to secrete LH. GnRH promotes the release of FSH and additional LH by the anterior pituitary. LH causes rupture of the mature ovarian follicle and expulsion of a secondary oocyte about 9 hours after the peak of the LH surge. The ovulated oocyte and its corona radiata cells are usually swept into the uterine tube.

Question type: Multiple Choice

45) At which location in the figure do sperm and seminal vesicle secretions first join together in their path to the exterior?

a) C b) J c) E d) K e) L Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

46) Which structure in the figure secretes seminal plasmin, proteolytic enzymes like pepsinogen and lysozyme, and citric acid?

a) C b) K c) B d) G e) L Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

47) Which structure in the figure secretes an alkaline fluid that protects sperm by neutralizing acids in the urethra?

a) C b) H c) B d) G e) F Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

48) Which structures in the figure together secrete liquid components of semen?

a) B, C, G b) B, C, F c) B, D, I d) B, C, L e) B, H, L Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

49) Which structure in the figure is the corpus spongiosum penis?

a) F b) D c) C d) E e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

50) Which structure in the figure is a serous membrane derived from the peritoneum and forms during descent of the testes?

a) B b) C c) F d) A e) D Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

51) Which structure in the figure is made of dense irregular connective tissue that forms septa dividing the testes into lobules?

a) B b) C c) F d) A e) D Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

52) Mature sperm arrive at the efferent ducts in the epididymis immediately from which structure in the figure?

a) G b) H c) F d) A e) D Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

53) Which cell in the figure contains a diploid nucleus?

a) A b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.2 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

54) Where in the figure will you find mature sperm?

a) H b) G c) A d) B e) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.2 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

55) Which cell in the figure is actively secreting testosterone?

a) H b) F c) C d) A e) D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.2 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

56) The cell labeled H in the figure secretes which of the following hormones?

a) renin b) progesterone c) aldosterone d) estrogen e) testosterone Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 28.1 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the male reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the male reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.1 Male Reproductive System.

57) Which structure in the figure is filled with follicular fluid?

a) H b) G c) E d) D e) B Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

58) Which structure in the figure is the theca interna?

a) A b) H c) E d) D e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

59) Which structure in the figure is the theca externa?

a) A b) H c) E d) D e) F Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

60) Which structure in the figure is the zona pellucida?

a) A b) B c) D d) G e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

61) Which structure in the figure is the basement membrane?

a) A b) B c) D d) F e) H Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

62) Menarche is the a) first menses b) permanent cessation of menses c) first sign of sperm production d) time of first ovulation e) type of vaginal contraceptive Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 28.6 Describe the effects of aging on the reproductive systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.6 Aging and the Reproductive Systems.

63) The male reproductive system arises from a) Paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts b) Mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 28.5 Describe the development of the male and female reproductive systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.5 Development of the Reproductive Systems.

64) Female reproductive system arises from a) Paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts b) Mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 28.5 Describe the development of the male and female reproductive systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.5 Development of the Reproductive Systems.

65) During fetal development which cells give rise to primary oocytes? a) Spermatogonia b) Secondary oocytes c) Oogonia d) Granulosa cells e) Luteal cells Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system.

Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

66) The major hormone secreted from granulosa cells is a) Progesterone b) Estrogen c) Testosterone d) Aldosterone e) Relaxin Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 28.3 Compare the major events of the ovarian and uterine cycles. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.3 The Female Reproductive Cycle.

67) A zygote is a) the same as an ovum b) another name for secondary oocyte c) a diploid fertilized ovum d) the same as polar body e) the mature ovarian (Graffia) follicle Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 28.2 Describe the anatomical and physiological components of the female reproductive system. Study Objective 2: SO 28.2.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the organs of the female reproductive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.2 Female Reproductive System.

68) Which hormone inhibits the release of FSH from the pituitary gland? a) Inhibin b) Relaxin c) GnRH d) hCG e) LH

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 28.3 Compare the major events of the ovarian and uterine cycles. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.3 The Female Reproductive Cycle.

69) In male embryos, which hormone is responsible for the development of the urethra, prostate, and external genitals? a) LH b) FSH c) Progesterone d) Estrogen e) Dihydrotestosterone Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 28.5 Describe the development of the male and female reproductive systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.5 Development of the Reproductive Systems.

70) Which of the following is a fungal disease of the reproductive system? a) Syphilis b) Gonorrhea c) Candidiasis d) Genital Herpes e) Chlamydia Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 28.8 Describe the disorders that affect the reproductive systems. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Reproductive Systems.

71) Which of the following is NOT a sexually transmitted disease? a) Syphilis b) Gonorrhea c) Genital Herpes d) Genital Warts e) All of these are sexually transmitted diseases

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 28.8 Describe the disorders that affect the reproductive systems. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Reproductive Systems

72) Which of the following is not a contribution of the reproductive system to the body systems? a) Stimulation of growth and maintenance of bones of the skeletal system b) Lowering blood cholesterol level in males under the age of 50 c) Increasing the rate and depth of breathing during sexual arousal d) Stimulating the growth of skeletal muscles in males e) Exert feedback effects on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 28.7 Describe how the reproductive system contributes to homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Focus on Homeostasis: The Reproductive System 73) Which of the following is the male pattern of development “master switch” gene? a) SRY b) MIS c) XYY d) XXY e) None of these Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: 28.5 Describe the development of the male and female reproductive systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 28.5 Development of the Reproductive Systems

Question type: Essay

74) Describe the contributions of the reproductive systems to the integumentary systems. Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 28.7 Describe how the reproductive system contributes to homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Focus on Homeostasis: The Reproductive System Solution: Androgens promote the growth of body hair. Estrogens stimulate the deposition of fat in the breasts, abdomen, and hips. Mammary glands produce milk. Skin stretches during pregnancy as the fetus enlarges.

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 29

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Fertilization normally occurs within which structure? a) Ovary b) Fallopian tube c) Ovarian ligament d) Body of uterus e) Vagina Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

2) Which of the following is a series of functional changes that sperm go through when they are in the female reproductive tract? a) Acrosomal reaction b) Maturation c) Fertilization d) Capacitation e) Polyspermy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

3) The fusion of the male pronucleus and the female pronucleus results in which developmental stage? a) Female pronucleus b) Male pronucleus

c) Zygote d) Blastomeres e) Morula Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

4) Which of the following is the part of the blastocyst that promotes implantation and produces hCG? a) Blastocyte b) Blastosphere c) Trophoblast d) Blastocyst cavity e) Uterine cavity Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

5) Which of the following is the portion of the endometrium that lies between the embryo and the stratum basalis? a) Decidua basalis b) Decidua capsularis c) Decidua parietalis d) Lamina propria e) Adventitia Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

6) Which of the following develops from the epiblast and carries a protective fluid? a) Cytotrophoblast b) Yolk sac c) Exocoelomic membrane d) Amnion e) Lacunae Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

7) Which of the following will become the primary structure for exchange of material between the mother and the fetus? a) Chorionic villi of the placenta b) Amnion c) Amnionic fluid d) Embryonic disc e) Endoderm Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

8) Each somite may differentiate into a a) Sertoli cell b) Dermatome c) Ovary d) Myogenic cells e) Ductus deferens Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

9) Which of the following is the connection between the placenta and the embryo? a) Amnion b) Chorion c) Umbilical cord d) Placenta e) Capillary beds Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

10) How many pairs of pharyngeal arches are there? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

11) Which of the following is an agent or influence that causes developmental defects in an embryo? a) Carcinogen b) Toxin c) Nicotine d) Radiation e) Teratogen Answer: e

Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 29.3 Define a teratogen and list several examples of teratogens. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.3 Teratogens

12) What exam is performed between 14-16 weeks gestation and is used to detect genetic abnormalities? a) Sonogram b) Amniocentesis c) CVS d) AFP test e) CBC Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 29.4 Describe the procedures for fetal ultrasonography, amniocentesis, and chorionic villi sampling. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.4 Prenatal Diagnostic Tests

13) CVS is taking cells from where? a) Amnion b) Chorion c) Placenta d) Umbilical cord e) Uterus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 29.4 Describe the procedures for fetal ultrasonography, amniocentesis, and chorionic villi sampling. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.4 Prenatal Diagnostic Tests

14) Which hormone is secreted by nonpregnant women from neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus? a) GnRH b) hCG c) CRH d) AFP e) ATP

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.5 Understand the roles of hormones during pregnancy. Study Objective 2: SO 29.5.1 Describe the sources and functions of the hormones secreted during pregnancy. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.5 Maternal Changes During Pregnancy

15) During pregnancy stroke volume can increase by a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 40% e) 50% Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.5 Understand the roles of hormones during pregnancy. Study Objective 2: SO 29.5.2 Describe the hormonal, anatomical and physiological changes in the mother during pregnancy. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.5 Maternal Changes During Pregnancy 16) Labor cannot take place until all of which hormone’s effects are diminished? a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Testosterone d) Relaxin e) Inhibin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.7 Explain the events associated with the three stages of labor. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.7 Labor

17) Which of the following is the time from the onset of labor to the complete dilation of the cervix? a) Stage of dilation

b) Stage of expulsion c) Placental stage d) Gestation e) Effacement Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.7 Explain the events associated with the three stages of labor. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.7 Labor

18) Involution is a) When the placenta is expelled b) When the umbilical cord is cut c) When the uterus decreases in size d) When the cervix dilates e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.7 Explain the events associated with the three stages of labor. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.7 Labor

19) What connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava in infants? a) Ductus venosus b) Ductus arteriosus c) Anteriosum d) Patent ductus arteriosus e) Superior vena cava Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.8 Explain the respiratory and cardiovascular adjustments that occur in an infant at birth. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.8 Adjustments of the Infant at Birth

20) Which of the following is a principle hormone that releases milk into the mammary ducts? a) Prolactin

b) PIH c) PRH d) Oxytocin e) GnRH Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.9 Discuss the physiology and hormonal control of lactation. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.9 The Physiology of Lactation

21) Which of the following is a permanent change in an allele? a) Mutation b) Phenotype c) Genotype d) Dominant e) Recessive Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 29.10 Define inheritance, and explain the inheritance of dominant, recessive, complex, and sex-linked traits. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.10 Inheritance

22) When phenotype can be drastically different depending on parental origin it is called: a) Mutation b) Translocation c) Genomic imprinting d) Incomplete dominance e) Codominance Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 29.10 Define inheritance, and explain the inheritance of dominant, recessive, complex, and sex-linked traits. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.10 Inheritance

23) An example of incomplete dominance is

a) ABO blood groups b) Sickle-cell disease c) Angelman Syndrome d) Prader-Willi Syndrome e) PKU Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 29.10 Define inheritance, and explain the inheritance of dominant, recessive, complex, and sex-linked traits. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.10 Inheritance

24) If one parent has type A blood and one parent has type B blood, what blood type is possible for their child? a) AB b) A c) B d) O e) All of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.10 Define inheritance, and explain the inheritance of dominant, recessive, complex, and sex-linked traits. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.10 Inheritance

25) If a child has B blood, and the mother has B blood, what is the possible genotype of the father? a) B b) O c) AB d) B or O e) B, O or AB Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.10 Define inheritance, and explain the inheritance of dominant, recessive, complex, and sex-linked traits. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.10 Inheritance

26) Chromosome #15 is considered a) A sex chromosome b) An autosome c) The SRY chromosome d) A linked gene e) A transposon Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.10 Define inheritance, and explain the inheritance of dominant, recessive, complex, and sex-linked traits. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.10 Inheritance

27) A Barr body a) Is an inactivated X chromosome b) Cannot be stained c) Are transcribed and translated d) Is seen in males e) Is only found in humans Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.10 Define inheritance, and explain the inheritance of dominant, recessive, complex, and sex-linked traits. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.10 Inheritance

28) Which one represents the morula stage?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

29) Which one represents the blastocyst stage?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

30) What does diagram “A” represent?

a) Cleavage of embryo b) Cleavage of zygote c) Cleavage of morula d) Cleavage of blastocyst e) Cleavage of fetus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

31) What is line “A” pointing to?

a) Endometrial gland b) Trophoblast c) Embryoblast d) Blastocyst e) Dermatome Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

32) What stage happens 3–4 days after fertilization?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

33) What stage happens 6 days after fertilization?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

34) Which structure was formerly called the blastocyst cavity?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

35) This is composed of the syncytiotrophoblast and the cytotrophoblast.

36) Where is the amniotic cavity?

a) E b) D c) C d) B e) A Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

37) Which cells are derived from the yolk sac and form a connective tissue layer?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

38) What is line “G” pointing to?

a) Chorion b) Chorionic villi c) Sinusoid d) Extraembryonic mesoderm e) None of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

39) What is line “G” pointing to?

a) Chorionic villi b) Amnion c) Umbilical vein d) Umbilical artery e) Amnionic capillary bed Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

40) Where are the fetal blood vessels?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

41) What is line “F” pointing to?

a) Umbilical arteries b) Umbilical vein c) Fetal blood vessels d) Maternal endometrial arteriole e) Chorionic villi Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

Question type: Essay

42) Describe the products of the three primary germ layers. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period Solution: The primary germ layers are the endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm. The endoderm ultimately develops into tissues such as epithelial linings and associated glands in the respiratory, digestive and reproductive systems. The mesoderm becomes connective tissues, muscle tissues

and the dermis. The ectoderm yields the epidermis, the nervous system and some additional epithelial membranes.

43) Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.4 Describe the procedures for fetal ultrasonography, amniocentesis, and chorionic villi sampling. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.4 Prenatal Diagnostic Tests Solution: The position of the fetus and placenta is identified via ultrasound and palpation, and the skin is prepared with antiseptic and local anesthetic. A hypodermic needle is inserted through the abdominal wall and uterus to withdraw 10 mL of amniotic fluid from the amniotic cavity. The fluid and cells are examined and biochemically tested for abnormal proteins and chromosome abnormalities that may signal fetal problems and congenital defects.

44) Describe the hormonal events surrounding parturition. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.7 Explain the events associated with the three stages of labor. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.7 Labor Solution: Fetal CRH secretion increases, which causes estrogen to rise as fetal ACTH triggers an increase in cortisol and DHEA. Placenta converts DHEA to estrogen. In turn, estrogen increases oxytocin receptors on uterine smooth muscle fibers and makes them form gap junctions. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contraction, and relaxin dilates the cervix and loosens the pubic symphysis. Estrogen also increases prostaglandins to digest collagen in the cervix. Oxytocin, cervix, and the hypothalamus maintain a positive feedback loop to maintain labor.

45) Distinguish between genotype and phenotype and explain how the environment may affect each. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.10 Define inheritance, and explain the inheritance of dominant, recessive, complex, and sex-linked traits. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.10 Inheritance Solution: Genotype is the actual DNA sequence or genetic makeup of an individual. Teratogens (agents that cause mutations) might damage the DNA and change the genotype. For instance, the DNA in an embryo exposed to ionizing radiation might be damaged, resulting in genes that

malfunction. Phenotype is the physical expression of the genes. Height, hair color, and even enzyme activity are phenotypes. If the genotype is changed by the environment, the phenotype may also be changed. A single base change in DNA is responsible for the sickle cell phenotype. Phenotype is dependent on the environment in a variety of ways. One example is that a child might have the genotype “tall”. If the child doesn’t receive adequate nutrition, though, he still might not be as tall as his genes would ordinarily allow. 46) Red-green color blindness is a recessive, X-linked trait represented as Xc. (Normal color vision is represented as XC.) If a daughter has red-green color blindness, what must the genotypes of her parents be? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.10 Define inheritance, and explain the inheritance of dominant, recessive, complex, and sex-linked traits. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.10 Inheritance Solution: The daughter can only have red-green color blindness if she received two copies of Xc chromosomes. Since her father only has one X chromosome, his genotype must be XcY. The other Xc chromosome had to come from her mother. If her mother has normal color vision, the mother’s genotype is XCXc. However, if the mother is also color blind, the mother’s genotype must be XcXc.

Question type: Multiple Choice

47) Which condition listed is a malpresentation in which the fetal buttocks or lower limbs present into the maternal pelvis? a) Emesis gravidarum b) Deformation c) Turner’s syndrome d) breech presentation e) Klinefelter’s syndrome Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

48) Which condition listed is a developmental abnormality due to mechanical forces that mold a part of the fetus over a prolonged period of time? a) Emesis gravidarum b) Deformation c) Turner’s syndrome d) Breech presentation e) Klinefelter’s syndrome Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

49) Clubfeet is an example of which condition listed? a) Emesis gravidarum b) Deformation c) Turner’s syndrome d) Breech presentation e) Klinefelter’s syndrome Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

50) Which condition listed is also called morning sickness? a) Emesis gravidarum b) Deformation c) Turner’s syndrome d) Breech presentation e) Klinefelter’s syndrome Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

51) Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy, usually due to trisomy XXY? a) Emesis gravidarum b) Deformation c) Turner’s syndrome d) Breech presentation e) Klinefelter’s syndrome Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

52) Which condition listed gives rise to individuals that are: somewhat mentally disadvantaged, sterile males with undeveloped testes, scant body hair, and enlarged breasts? a) Emesis gravidarum b) Deformation c) Turner’s syndrome d) Breech presentation e) Klinefelter’s syndrome Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

53) Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy, caused by the presence of a single X chromosome designated XO? a) Emesis gravidarum b) Deformation c) Turner’s syndrome d) Breech presentation e) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

54) Which condition listed gives rise to sterile females with virtually no ovaries and limited development of secondary sex characteristics? a) Emesis gravidarum b) Deformation c) Turner’s syndrome d) Breech presentation e) Klinefelter’s syndrome Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

55) Which condition listed is an infectious disease of childbirth resulting from an infection originating in the birth canal and affecting the mother’s endometrium? a) Emesis gravidarum b) Puerperal fever c) Turner’s syndrome d) Fetal alcohol syndrome e) Klinefelter’s syndrome Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

56) Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy characterized by at least 3 X chromosomes (XXX)? a) Emesis gravidarum

b) Metafemale syndrome c) Turner’s syndrome d) Lethal gene e) Klinefelter’s syndrome Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

57) Which condition listed is one of the most common causes of mental retardation and the most common preventable cause of birth defects in the United States? a) Emesis gravidarum b) Metafemale syndrome c) Turner’s syndrome d) Fetal alcohol syndrome e) Klinefelter’s syndrome Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

58) Which of the terms below describes the development of an organism from an undifferentiated cell? a) Conceptus b) Primordium c) Epigenesis d) Karyotype e) Fertilization age Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

59) Which of the terms below includes all structures that develop from a zygote: the embryo, the embryonic placenta and its associated membranes? a) Conceptus b) Primordium c) Epigenesis d) Gestational age e) Karyotype Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

60) Which of the terms below describes the beginning or first discernable indication of the development of an organ or structure? a) Conceptus b) Primordium c) Epigenesis d) Karyotype e) Fertilization age Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

61) Which of the terms below describes the chromosomal characteristic of an individual presented as a systematic arrangement of pairs of metaphase chromosomes arranged by size? a) Conceptus b) Primordium c) Epigenesis d) Karyotype e) Fertilization age Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

62) What is the term used to describe the age of an embryo or fetus calculated from the presumed first day of the last normal menstrual period? a) Conceptus b) Primordium c) Epigenesis d) Gestational age e) Fertilization age Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.11 Describe the disorders that affect development and inheritance. Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Development and Inheritance

63) In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait, the dominant allele gives polydactyly. What is the masked, recessive trait in this individual? a) Normal vision b) Brachydactyly c) Normal digits d) Syndactylism e) Straight thumb Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 29.10 Define inheritance, and explain the inheritance of dominant, recessive, complex, and sex-linked traits. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.10 Inheritance

64) In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait, the dominant allele gives syndactylism. What is the masked, recessive trait in this individual? a) Normal vision b) Brachydactyly c) Normal digits

d) Polydactyly e) Straight thumb Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 29.10 Define inheritance, and explain the inheritance of dominant, recessive, complex, and sex-linked traits. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.10 Inheritance 65) In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait, the dominant allele gives Huntington’s disease. What is the masked, recessive trait in this individual? a) Normal vision b) Normal digits c) Normal nervous system d) Polydactyly e) Straight thumb Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 29.10 Define inheritance, and explain the inheritance of dominant, recessive, complex, and sex-linked traits. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.10 Inheritance

66) In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait, the dominant allele gives normal skin pigmentation. What is the masked, recessive trait in this individual? a) Normal vision b) Albinism c) Normal nervous system d) Polydactyly e) Cystic fibrosis Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 29.10 Define inheritance, and explain the inheritance of dominant, recessive, complex, and sex-linked traits. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.10 Inheritance

67) Which hormone causes release of milk into the mammary ducts via the milk ejection reflex?

a) Prolactin b) Oxytocin c) Estrogen d) Progesterone e) Aldosterone Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 29.9 Discuss the physiology and hormonal control of lactation. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.9 The Homeostasis of Lactation

68) Which of the following is a breast-feeding benefit for infants? a) Beneficial cells b) Beneficial molecules c) Decreased incidence of diseases later in life d) Enhancement of intellectual and neurological development e) All of these are breast-feeding benefits Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 29.9 Discuss the physiology and hormonal control of lactation. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.9 The Homeostasis of Lactation

69) Which of the following is a function of the hormone corticotropin-releasing hormone? a) Maintain endometrium of uterus during pregnancy b) Help prepare mammary glands for lactation c) Establish the timing of birth d) Increase flexibility of the pubic symphysis e) All of these are functions of CRH Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 29.5 Understand the roles of hormones during pregnancy. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.5 Maternal Changes During Pregnancy

70) Which of the following is a noninvasive prenatal test?

a) AFP b) CVS c) Amniocentesis d) All of these e) None of these Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.4 Describe the procedures for fetal ultrasonography, aminocentesis, and chorionic villi sampling. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.4 Prenatal Diagnostic Tests

71) When are the three primary germ layers established during pregnancy? a) First week of development b) Second week of development c) Third week of development d) Fourth week of development e) Second month of development Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

72) Which of the following structures is(are) produced from the endoderm? a) Cartilage b) Dermis of the skin c) Kidneys and ureters d) Internal and external ear e) Gametes Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

73) Which of the following structures is(are) produced from the endoderm? a) Adrenal cortex b) Gonads c) Epithelium of the oral cavity d) Epithelial lining of the pharynx e) Arachnoid mater Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

74) Which of the following structures is NOT produced from the mesoderm? a) Melanocytes b) All skeletal muscle c) All cardiac muscle d) Blood vessels e) Lymphatic tissue Answer: A Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 29.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.1 Embryonic Period

75) Which of the following are major potential teratogens that affect embryonic development? a) Alcohol b) Cigarette smoke c) Various prescription drugs d) Irradiation e) All of these Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 29.3 Define a teratogen and list several examples of teratogens. Section Reference 1: Sec 29.3 Teratogens

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Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition Gerard J. Tortora, Bryan H. Derrickson TEST BANK (