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Management of Occupational Health & Safety, 8th Edition
Chapter 1: Introduction
Chapter 2: Legislative Framework
Chapter 3: Workers’ Compensation
Chapter 4: Hazards, Risks, and Control
Chapter 5: Physical Agents
Chapter 6: Biological and Chemical Agents
Chapter 7: Psychosocial Hazards
Chapter 8: Workplace Violence, Aggression, and Harassment
Chapter 9: Training
Chapter 10: Motivation And Safety Management Systems
Chapter 11: Emergency Planning
Chapter 12: Incident Investigation
Chapter 13: Disability Management and Return to Work
Chapter 14: Workplace Wellness: Work Family and Health Promotion Programs
Chapter 1 - Introduction
1. According to the textbook, approximately how many workers in Canada die each year as a result of a workplace incident?
a. 1500 people b. 1100 people
c. 500 people d. 100 people
ANSWER: b
2. Which of the following is a workplace injury that results in an employee missing time from work?
a. occupational injury b. occupational illness
c. a lost-time injury d. a covered workers’ compensation injury
ANSWER: c
3. Priya is a high school geography teacher. This year there is a new geography curriculum and increased student feedback requirement for teachers. Priya is putting in very long hours to revise her teaching materials and complete report cards for her students. How is this heavy workload best described?
a. an unhealthy workplace b. a psychological hazard
c. an employee responsibility d. a physical hazard
ANSWER: b
4. In OH&S terminology, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) experienced by members of Canada’s military as a result of events during their tour of duty would be classified as which of the following?
a. a hazard b. an injury
c. an agent d. an illness
ANSWER: d
5. Raina is a retail manager. She sprained her wrist when she slipped off a stepladder when moving stock from a high shelf. Which of the following has Raina experienced?
a. a lost-time injury b. a workplace hazard
c. a safety violation d. an occupational injury
ANSWER: d
6. What other group of workers might be as susceptible to “brown lung” as textile workers?
a. carpenters/cabinet makers b. farmers
c. hairdressers d. police officers
ANSWER: a
7. Which of the following was articulated by the 1974 Royal Commission on the Health and Safety of Workers in Mines?
a. requirement for mandatory inspections
b. standards for ventilation
c. system of compensation for injured workers
d. rights of workers
ANSWER: d
8. Which of the following is NOT considered one of the principal rights of workers outlined by the Royal Commission on the Health and Safety of Workers in Mines?
a. right to know b. right to participate
Chapter 1 - Introduction
c. right to refuse d. right to advocate
ANSWER: d
9. According to the World Health Organization, which of the following describes a healthy workplace?
a. work environment, employer, employee, workload
b. health and safety, psychosocial environment, personal human resources, enterprise community involvement
c. psychosocial environment, physical environment, psychological health, community
d. occupational health and safety, physical environment, psychosocial environment, enterprise community involvement
ANSWER: b
10. What is the main reason why the costs of workplace injuries may be higher than $12 billion per year?
a. deaths may have been attributed to other causes
b. injured workers buy some of their own medical supplies
c. a large number of injuries go unreported
d. rehabilitation takes a long time
ANSWER: c
11. Which of the following is the best definition of the term due diligence?
a. the expected standard of conduct that requires employers to take every reasonable precaution to ensure safety
b. the voluntary standard of conduct that requires employees to take every reasonable precaution to ensure safety
c. the expected standard of conduct that requires employers to protect the public
d. the expected standards of conduct that require government to ensure employers comply with legislation
ANSWER: a
12. Duane works for a heavy equipment operator. Recently, the brakes failed on an excavator Duane was assigned to operate. Duane and a construction worker were injured when the excavator drove into a building on the site. This incident was heavily covered in the news and the company now faces fines and a downturn in business due to the smear on its reputation. These expenses are best described as examples of which of the following?
a. direct costs b. indirect costs
c. insurable expenses d. economic imperative for safety
ANSWER: b
13. Research has shown that management commitment to health and safety can result in which of the following?
a. employee motivation b. absenteeism
c. employee citizenship behaviours d. over reporting of minor incidents
ANSWER: a
14. Estimated direct and indirect costs of workplace accidents should be considered
a. overestimates b. accurate 50% of the time
c. underestimates d. 100% accurate
ANSWER: c
15. The Meredith Principles are to workers’ compensation as the IRS system is to which of the following?
Chapter 1 - Introduction
a. Canada Labour Code
c. WHMIS
ANSWER: b
b. OH&S legislation
d. Bill C-45
16. Enrique is an OH&S professional at a large manufacturing company. The safety programs he implements always emphasize that the managers and workers share responsibility for healthy and safety at work. Which of the following can be said of Enrique’s programs?
a. they use the internal responsibility system
b. they meet the federal OH&S laws
c. they help the organization demonstrate due diligence
d. they reduce workplace illnesses
ANSWER: a
17. Jean owns a company that cleans up houses after fires and floods. The Ministry of Health is investigating a complaint from one of her employees who claims he has developed a chronic respiratory condition from his work. Jean has obtained a lawyer. Her lawyer reviewed Jean’s policies and practices to help demonstrate that Jean took every reasonable precaution to protect the health and safety of her workers. What is the lawyer most likely trying to demonstrate?
a. that the employee knew the assumption of risk
b. Jean’s moral consideration for health and safety
c. Jean’s due diligence
d. Jean’s compliance with Canadian standards
ANSWER: c
18. The IRS system is based on which of the following?
a. the public monitoring of workplace violations
b. financial support
c. assumption of risk
d. the interaction of stakeholders within the system
ANSWER: d
19. Being an active member of a Joint Health and Safety Committee at work allows workers to satisfy which one of the principal OH&S employee rights?
a. the right to refuse dangerous work without penalty
b. the right to participate in identifying and correcting health and safety problems
c. the right to know about hazards in the workplace
d. the right to refuse wearing safety equipment that is uncomfortable
ANSWER: b
20. According to the text, what was the primary reason why supervisors on construction sites underestimated health and safety risks?
a. They could not recognize unsafe conditions.
b. They believed that risks were unavoidable.
c. They had not experienced any recent incidents.
d. They were obsessed with meeting deadlines.
ANSWER: a
Chapter 1 - Introduction
21. Lars is a volunteer firefighter and has just watched the safety training video about the new respirators. He finds that the one he has been given by his supervisor does not fit properly over his orthodontic braces. What should Lars do?
a. try to modify the new respirator to fit better
b. report the problem to his supervisor
c. swap equipment with another firefighter to get a better fit
d. continue to wear the old equipment
ANSWER: b
22. Which of the following is a primary barrier to OH&S programming in workplaces?
a. people do not support the concept of safe working conditions
b. not everyone is committed to implementing OH&S programs
c. there are not enough safety inspectors
d. some hazards are impossible to change
ANSWER: b
23. Which of the following explains why young workers are at particular risk for injury in the workplace?
a. Young workers may not be aware of their workplace rights.
b. Young workers care less about their own health and safety.
c. Young workers are more accident prone.
d. Young workers ignore legislation.
ANSWER: a
24. During the summer, Noriko works at a theme park. What is the main reason why seasonal workers like her are exposed to a higher risk of injury by the employer than full-time workers?
a. They are less aware of job hazards.
b. They have a more casual attitude toward safety.
c. They receive less safety training.
d. They are afraid to speak up.
ANSWER: c
25. Diego is interested in a career in OH&S. His interests are focused on helping organizations develop motivational health and safety programs. Which of the following careers would be the best fit for him?
a. registered occupational hygienist
b. occupational health nurse
c. registered occupational hygienist technologist
d. a Canadian Registered Safety Professional designation following training in psychology
ANSWER: d
26. Under OH&S laws, employers are responsible for conducting research on occupational health and safety.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
27. As an emergency room nurse, Ellie is often exposed to biological hazards such as blood, bacteria, and viruses.
Chapter 1 - Introduction
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
28. Occupational illness is any abnormal condition or disorder caused by exposure to environmental factors associated with employment.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
29. In today’s health and safety climate, workplace safety inspectors routinely attribute workplace safety incidents to the accident proneness of the employees involved.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
30. The internal responsibility system stipulates government must take ultimate responsibility for workplace safety.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
31. “Emphasis” is one of the three Es of the traditional views of safety.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
32. Size of the total workforce is an important consideration when comparing provincial workplace injury statistics.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
33. The standard of due diligence would require a bank to foresee the possibility of a robbery.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
34. Partnerships between employers, unions, and employees often facilitate overcoming the barriers associated with occupational health and safety programs.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
35. Employees should care about occupational health and safety for the same reasons as employers.
a. True
b. False
Chapter 1 - Introduction
ANSWER: True
36. What is a workplace hazard? Please define the term and give an example of a hazard that would be common in each of the following jobs: hairdresser, office worker, retail cashier.
ANSWER: A hazard is any source of potential adverse health effect, damage, or harm to something or someone under certain conditions at work.
Examples of hazards (not an inclusive list)
Hairdresser: Repetitive hand and arm motion, chemicals in hair products
Office worker: Repetitive motion (e.g., keyboarding), glare from computer screen, poor work station design, possible heavy workload
Retail cashier: germs on money, cards, etc., possible exposure to biological hazards in handling meat products, repetitive motion, chemicals (BPA) in some cash register receipts.
37. Three principal rights provide the basis for much of the health and safety legislature in Canada. Name each and describe a situation in which a worker might exercise this specific right.
ANSWER: a) The right to refuse dangerous work without penalty.
b) The right to participate in identifying and correcting health and safety problems.
c) The right to know about hazards in the workplace.
Right to refuse situations could include being asked to climb on unsafe ladders/scaffolding, use unsafe equipment/vehicles, work where protective equipment has not been provided, or where chemical/biological agents are not properly stored.
Right to participate situations could include serving on a Joint Health and Safety Committee, participating in the investigation of a workplace incident, or participating in job analysis.
Right to know situations could include orientation and training, WHMIS training.
38. Research has found that there is a negative relationship between job insecurity and safety, and between performancebased pay and safety. Explain why job insecurity and performance-based pay programs can override safety training.
ANSWER: Job insecurity means fear of losing one’s job (e.g., layoffs, downsizing) commitment to safety may decrease because workers believe the organization no longer cares about them, or because they are just focused on getting their work done in order to improve their chances of keeping their job.
Performance-based pay means reaching targets/goals to get rewards such programs can switch the focus away from safety workers will do whatever it takes to earn the reward.
39. List four major stakeholders in OH&S. Describe two different health and safety partnership initiatives that involve pairs or groups of stakeholders.
ANSWER: • Health and safety professionals
• Professional associations
• Educators
• Community associations
• Organized labour
• Employers
• Employees
• Government
Chapter 1 - Introduction
Examples of partnerships: not an exclusive list
Health and safety professionals can help managers and HR staff to develop, manage, and evaluate their OH&S program.
Government can be responsive to community associations and professional associations when developing legislation around OH&S.
Government agencies can fund research by professionals and professional associations about OH&S.
Organized labour and employers work together to ensure workplaces have appropriate health and safety management.
Employees can work with their unions to communicate health and safety concerns to management.
Professional associations (e.g., Industrial Accident Prevention Association) and educators can work together to develop safety programs for teenage workers (e.g., Young Worker Awareness Program).
· Employers and organized labour can work together to analyze incidents and reduce injuries and illnesses.
40. Differentiate between the legal and the moral obligation of employers when it comes to health and safety.
ANSWER: Employers are obligated to follow existing legislation, but are not required to go beyond it. In contrast, employers have a moral obligation to employees, their families, and the community to provide a safe work environment, which may mean going past the legislation in order to maintain the health and safety of the worker and the financial and psychological well-being of his/her family.
41. Explain why the 1960s and 1970s were an important time for health and safety in Canada.
ANSWER: The 1960s and 1970s were an important time for health and safety in Canada. Those decades saw the implementation of the Canada Labour (Standards) Code and the Canada Labour (Safety) Code. In 1974, the Ontario government formed the Royal Commission on the Health and Safety of Workers in Mines. Chaired by Dr. James Ham, this commission was the first to articulate the three principal rights of workers. These are:
• the right to refuse dangerous work without penalty
• the right to participate in identifying and correcting health and safety problems
• the right to know about hazards in the workplace
42. You are the new safety director for a large supermarket chain that has hot food in the deli, in-house bakeries, and inhouse meat cutting to give customers exactly what they want. The previous safety director emphasized the three Es of safety. Prepare a presentation for supermarket managers (new and experienced) to explain to them what the three Es are, how they can help to promote safety in workplaces, but importantly why they do not provide a total solution to workplace safety and why you, as the new safety director, are working closely with Human Resources in your new safety programming.
ANSWER: The three Es are:
Engineering solutions safer work environments, safer equipment, and personal protective equipment
Education of supervisors and employees
Enforcement of regulations and practices through supervision and consequences
Focusing on the people side is necessary because effective safety programs depend on individual skills, abilities, and motivation to work safely which are not adequately covered by the three Es. Enforcement only creates compliance not a willingness to be proactive in creating a safe workplace. Variables such as safety leadership and safety climate are predictors of safety outcomes (e.g., incidents, accidents, and injuries). Other important people influences are: job design, high performance work systems, job insecurity, work scheduling, work overload, lean manufacturing, and pay for performance systems. Any of these can support safety or work against it. Human resources skills are important in safety promotion for several reasons. Safety is integrated with other HR functions, such as training and worker orientation. Safety compliance is related to legislative compliance, an area of strength of HR departments. Safety programs also decrease costs in areas such as sick time and workers’ compensation, again areas of knowledge for HR practitioners.
Chapter 2 - Legislative Framework
1. Helen is the HR manager for a food processing plant. Adam is the production manager. They are having a disagreement over who is responsible for promoting a new workplace bullying program. Adam believes it should be the sole responsibility of the HR manager. If the director of safety for the plant were told about this scenario, what might you reasonably expect them to say regarding who is responsible for promoting the program?
a. It is actually the employees’ responsibility given they are the primary cause of workplace bullying.
b. All parties have a responsibility to improve health and safety, consequently they are both responsible.
c. It is the responsibility of the production manager (Adam).
d. It is the responsibility of the HR manager (Helen).
ANSWER: b
2. Which of the following is NOT an employer general duty?
a. appoint a competent supervisor
b. prepare policies regarding workplace violence and workplace harassment
c. appoint a Board of Directors
d. inform supervisors and workers of possible hazards
ANSWER: c
3. Which of the following provides guidelines for the presentation of information on chemical hazards in the workplace?
a. the Chemical Recognition and Information System
b. the Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System
c. the Workers’ Compensation Act
d. the Dangerous Goods Act
ANSWER: b
4. What are the two essential limitations on the right to refuse unsafe work outlined in OH&S Acts across Canada?
a. There are no limits on the right to refuse unsafe work in Canadian jurisdictions.
b. The worker has previously performed the task, or the refusal would place another person’s safety in jeopardy.
c. The employee works in a declared profession such as policing, or the refusal would place another person’s safety in jeopardy.
d. The task in question is a normal condition of employment, or the refusal would place another person’s safety in jeopardy.
ANSWER: d
5. Edwin is the owner of a chain of autobody shops in New Brunswick. He has been charged with criminal negligence causing death following a fatal incident at one of his shops. These charges have been laid under which of the following pieces of legislation?
a. the Criminal Code of Canada b. the federal OH&S Act
c. the New Brunswick OH&S Act d. the New Brunswick Crimes Act
ANSWER: a
6. Ella and Anwar are certified members of the JHSC at an Ontario-based cleaning products manufacturer. Ella represents the management side and Anwar the employee side. When they noticed that there was a problem with the ventilation at their main plant they agreed to halt operations. Which of the following have Ella and Anwar enacted?
a. a bilateral work stoppage b. a unilateral work stoppage
c. the right to refuse unsafe work d. a safety inspection
Chapter 2 - Legislative Framework
ANSWER: a
7. Which of the following systems for the classification and labelling of chemicals is being adopted by countries around the world?
a. OHSA b. ISO
c. CSA d. GHS
ANSWER: d
8. What is the term for the specific rules that are not legally enforceable unless referred to in a regulation or an act?
a. codes b. standards
c. enforcements d. guidelines and policies
ANSWER: d
9. Karen works as a set builder for a local television company. The safety guard on a band saw she uses has come off and is broken. Karen reports the broken guard to her supervisor who tells her to “keep working but be careful.” Karen does not feel comfortable and believes she could be seriously injured. Karen has the right to
a. call the police.
b. ask her coworkers to use the saw.
c. refuse to continue until the guard is fixed or replaced.
d. ask for danger pay or financial compensation for performing dangerous work.
ANSWER: c
10. You are the HR manager for a large clothing retailer in Prince Edward Island. An employee has asked you to clarify when a Joint Occupational Safety and Health Committee is required. In your response you indicate that the requirement largely depends on the size of the company and in PEI a committee is required when
a. the number of employees exceeds 10. b. the number of employees exceeds 20.
c. the number of employees exceeds 30. d. the number of employees exceeds 45.
ANSWER: a
11. An employee expressed her concerns to her supervisor that the scaffolding she was working on for a painting job had several loose bolts. She was concerned for her safety and requested the supervisor’s permission to stop working immediately. However, the supervisor insisted that she continue working. What employee right did the supervisor’s behaviour violate?
a. the employee’s right to refuse unsafe work
b. the employee’s right to report unsafe conditions
c. the employee’s right to participate in health and safety programs
d. the employee’s right to a safe workplace
ANSWER: a
12. Which of the following statements is true?
a. The right to know is included in federal legislation.
b. The right to know is included in provincial legislation.
c. The right to know is included in federal and provincial legislation.
d. The right to know is included in WCB legislation.
ANSWER: c
Chapter 2 - Legislative Framework
13. In which circumstances does a ministry inspector/officer get involved in a work refusal situation?
a. when a worker identifies an unsafe work situation
b. when a worker refuses to return to work after a full internal investigation has deemed there is no danger
c. when a worker is told by the certified worker that he or she is endangered
d. when a number of workers refuse to work
ANSWER: b
14. Which of the following is a primary duty that is directly articulated in an OH&S Act?
a. mandated duty b. general duty
c. prescribed duty d. safety duty
ANSWER: b
15. All Canadian OH&S legislation includes which of the following elements?
a. Act, powers of enforcement, right to refuse, protection from reprisals, duties/responsibilities
b. Act, regulations, guidelines, standards/codes
c. Act, stakeholder enforcement, duties/responsibilities
d. Act, right for referral, protection from reprisals, standards/codes
ANSWER: a
16. D’Mari is a construction site supervisor on major commercial buildings. Part of his job is to follow provincial fire safety regulations. This is best described as which type of duty?
a. mandated b. general
c. safety d. prescribed ANSWER: d
17. What is the PRIMARY function of the joint health and safety committee?
a. to communicate with the Ministry of Labour
b. to provide a nonadversarial opportunity for labour and management to work together to create a safer workplace
c. to conduct OH&S meetings
d. to ensure that safety messages are communicated ANSWER: b
18. What is the most commonly found provincial requirement regarding which workplaces require a Joint Health and Safety Committee?
a. workplaces with 10 or more employees b. workplaces with 15 or more employees
c. workplaces with 20 or more employees d. workplaces with 25 or more employees
ANSWER: c
19. Sharon Nelson is the bakery manager and is a certified member of the JHSC at the grocery store where she works. According to legislation, which of the following employees must also be certified as a member of the JHSC?
a. Phillipe Gagnon, the store manager b. Michelle Strickland, a full-time cashier
c. Asmin Zahid, the accounting manager d. Brock Sutherland, the produce manager ANSWER: b
Chapter 2 - Legislative Framework
20. If an employee refuses to perform a task they have deemed to be unsafe, which of the following is most likely to happen first if the worker’s rights are respected?
a. An investigation to determine whether there is reasonable danger to the employee.
b. The worker is sent home with pay.
c. There is a stop-work order issued by the ministry responsible for OH&S.
d. The employee is recognized and rewarded for identifying a danger.
ANSWER: a
21. Lenny has just been promoted into a supervisory role at his work. Which of the following will be a new OH&S responsibility for him?
a. advising workers about safety hazards
b. proper use of safety equipment
c. cooperating with health and safety policy
d. taking all reasonable precautions to ensure his own safety and the safety of those affected by his work activities
ANSWER: a
22. A cleaning firm worker carelessly mixes bleach and a cleaning product while cleaning office tower washrooms. The mix results in toxic fumes that cause throat irritation to other cleaners. Which authority has jurisdiction over this incident?
a. Workplace Safety Board b. Ministry of Environment
c. Ministry of Labour d. Workers’ Compensation Board
ANSWER: c
23. In OH&S terminology, which of the following is a person or company that oversees the construction of a project and is ultimately responsible for the health and safety of all workers?
a. foreman b. constructor
c. inspector d. supervisor
ANSWER: b
24. In R. v. Midland Transport Ltd. (1991), the New Brunswick Provincial Court held that the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act is primarily for the protection of whom?
a. workers b. shippers
c. the general public d. carriers
ANSWER: c
25. The passing of Bill C-45 (Westray) legislation brought about changes to the Criminal Code introduced the notion of which of the following for the first time?
a. corporate negligence b. corporate homicide
c. corporate incompetence d. corporate manslaughter
ANSWER: b
26. The majority of Canadian workers are regulated by the federal Occupational Health and Safety Act.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
Chapter 2 - Legislative Framework
27. Regulations are more specific than guidelines when describing rules.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
28. Standards and codes provide practical guidance on the implementation of occupational health and safety practices.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
29. A firefighter can refuse to use a fire extinguisher that has been known to explode and cause injury.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
30. Duties of workers are covered in the majority of provincial statutes.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
31. Complying with standards, such as CSA Z1000-14, may help organizations demonstrate due diligence.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
32. Human resource professionals responsible for managing health and safety should be familiar with the administrative structure of OH&S enforcement.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
33. Charges of criminal negligence can be laid under the federal OH&S Act in Canada.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
34. A nurse does not have the right to refuse unsafe work if the lives of patients are put at risk as a result of the refusal.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
35. Critics of Bill C-45 have indicated that the bill is not effective in practice because the penalties do not reflect the seriousness of the charges.
a. True
b. False
Chapter 2 - Legislative Framework
ANSWER: True
36. Compare and contrast the duties of employers/contractors with the duties of supervisors when it comes to occupational health and safety in their workplace.
ANSWER: Compare = similarities
Both share the general duty to take every reasonable precaution to ensure the protection of workers and both are responsible for informing workers of possible hazards and ensuring education, training, written instructions, and protective equipment are provided. Both are responsible for ensuring compliance with the OH&S Act and regulations. The involvement of supervisors in this general duty does not lessen the employer/contractor’s responsibility for worker safety.
Contrast = differences
In addition to the general duties, employers/contractors have the primary duty for establishing and regularly reviewing an occupational health and safety policy, posting OH&S information, ensuring that supervisors are competent, and contacting the appropriate authorities as necessary (medical emergency, commencement of a project).
In addition to the general duty, supervisors have the duty to supervise workers to ensure compliance with the OH&S Act and regulations and ensuring that they use/wear the provided safety equipment, devices, and clothing.
37. Provide three examples of federal statutes that HR managers should be familiar with.
ANSWER: There are a number of statutes that HR managers should be familiar with, examples include.
• Canadian Environmental Protection Act
• Hazardous Products Act
• Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms, Part I of the Constitution Act
• Canada Labour Code, Part IV
• Criminal Code of Canada
• Pest Control Products Act
• Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act
• Radiation Emitting Devices Act
• Canada Shipping Act
• Radiation Protection Regulations
38. Outline the elements included in all Canadian OH&S legislation.
ANSWER: All Canadian legislation includes the following elements
• an act;
• powers of enforcement;
• the right of workers to refuse to do unsafe work;
• protection of workers from reprisals; and
• duties and responsibilities assigned to employers and others.
39. What is an OH&S Act? How does an Act differ from a) OH&S regulations and b) OH&S guidelines/policies?
ANSWER: An OH&S Act is a federal, provincial, or territorial law that constitutes the basic regulatory mechanism for occupational health and safety. Alternatively, OH&S regulations explain how the general intent of the Act will be applied in specific circumstances. For instance, an Act will outline the powers of enforcement, the rights of workers, and various stakeholder duties. Safety regulations pertain to certain areas of practice, for instance fire safety regulations, first aid regulations, and machine guarding regulations. Typically, regulations are legally enforceable. Guidelines and policies are more specific rules that are not legally enforceable unless referred to in a regulation or Act.
Chapter 2 - Legislative Framework
40. Seanne works for a chemical processing plant. She has not been given the necessary training to properly clean and maintain a new piece of equipment. Her manager is pushed her to “figure it out by asking someone”; however, she feels this is dangerous to both her and her coworkers. Outline the process Seanne should use to refuse this work.
ANSWER: The approach to work refusals can vary slightly depending on the jurisdiction however the process generally includes the following.
a) Seanne should alert her manager to the dangers associated with the work.
b) Seanne should indicate her intention to refuse the work due to the reasonable assumption that performing this task is unsafe.
c) Seanne must allow the employer to investigate and remedy the situation.
d) The refusal, investigation, and remedy must be recorded and a report must be provided to Seanne. If the situation is not fixed to Seanne’s satisfaction, then Seanne should report it to the workplace health and safety committee or an individual responsible for health and safety within the company. If Seanne does not get a satisfactory response from her employer despite notifying the proper channels, then she should report it to the ministry responsible for OH&S in her province (e.g., in Nova Scotia this would be the Department of Labour and Advanced Education). The ministry would then investigate the complaint and document any actions that were taken. This report should be provided to Seanne. If Seanne is not satisfied with the ministry’s report, she may appeal within 30 days (NS standards) and request further review.
It is important to note that under OH&S law Seanne cannot be threatened, intimidated, coerced, or discriminated against via a reprimand, dismissal, or wage penalty for complying with work refusal legislation.
41. You are required to give a presentation on the Global Harmonized System to new staff at your company. Outline what GHS is and why it was implemented in Canada.
ANSWER:
GHS is an international standard for classifying and labelling of chemicals that was developed by the United Nations. GHS also communicates health and safety information on labels and safety data sheets. The GHS was adopted in Canada because it is a standard being adopted around the world and therefore would better connect Canada with other countries (e.g. United States) when it comes to factors like global trade and business interactions as it relates to chemicals. Additionally, having international standards will facilitate standardized communication of pertinent chemical safety information with the goal that the same set of rules for classifying hazards, and the same format and content for labels and safety data sheets (SDS) will be adopted and used improving the dangers associated with the storage and use of chemicals.
Chapter 3 - Workers’ Compensation
1. Which of the following is an example of earnings loss payment?
a. a worker who does not return to work, but receives a disability pension following injury
b. a worker who receives payment for vocational counselling services while off work
c. a worker who receives a lump-sum payment following return to work
d. a worker who returns lower-paying job, and receives payment to supplement their new wages
ANSWER: d
2. Which of the following is an example of principle collective liability?
a. all companies within logging paying the costs for any and all accidents and diseases that occur for employees in that industry
b. all companies within logging pay into a fund to support prevention initiatives
c. all companies within logging pay based on only their experience
d. all companies no matter the industry pay into WCB for any and all workplace accidents or illnesses
ANSWER: a
3. Which of the following countries had the greatest influence on the Canadian worker’s compensation system?
a. Japan b. Germany
c. England d. France
ANSWER: c
4. You are required to estimate your company’s WCB premiums. You must first identify which of the following?
a. your company’s experience with WCB injury/illness claims
b. industry classification code (or SIC)
c. the previous year’s average
d. changes to WCB legislation
ANSWER: b
5. Via Rail is Canada’s passenger railway, whereas CN Rail is a freight/cargo railway. What WCB liability do these organizations face?
a. They both have individual liability for injuries/illnesses.
b. They both have collective liability the same as all other organizations.
c. Via Rail has collective liability, whereas CN has individual liability.
d. Via Rail has individual liability, whereas CN has collective liability.
ANSWER: a
6. According to collective liability, employers in a class or other rate group are liable for which of the following costs?
a. costs of net earnings
b. costs of both accidents and occupational diseases
c. costs of just accidents
d. costs of just occupational diseases
ANSWER: b
7. If you develop a lung disease because of working in a bakery, which is most likely to happen first?
a. rehabilitation
Chapter 3 - Workers’ Compensation
b. vocational counselling
c. compensation while you receive treatment
d. litigation or legal recourse
ANSWER: c
8. Helen worked in a fireworks factory for 25 years. After she took early retirement, her doctor told her that her longstanding health issues were due to lead poisoning from materials that are now banned. What factor will be given serious consideration in assessing her WCB claim?
a. how old and how sick she is
b. whether the employer told her of the risk
c. the latency period between exposure and illness
d. whether she is already getting a retirement pension
ANSWER: c
9. Which of the following reflects how workers’ compensation boards view the social benefit of compensation?
a. Compensation gets reluctant workers back to work.
b. Compensation makes up for your pain and suffering.
c. Compensation is a cost that must be tightly managed.
d. Compensation helps you remain active in your community.
ANSWER: d
10. Ivan lost an eye in an industrial accident, and is just starting a new job. How does the second injury provision work if he loses sight in the other eye?
a. The total disability cost is borne by his current employer.
b. The total disability cost is shared between his former and current employers.
c. The total disability cost is borne entirely by the Workers’ Compensation Board.
d. The total disability cost is borne by all employers in his employer’s industry rate group.
ANSWER: c
11. In Canada, the majority of workers who receive compensation will receive
a. 90% of net earnings b. 75% of net earnings
c. 75% of average earnings d. 90% of average earnings
ANSWER: a
12. What defines an experience rating system?
a. an industry’s experience with injury or illness claims
b. a company’s experience with injury or illness claims
c. an employee’s experience with injury or illness claims
d. a profession’s (e.g. electricians, nurses etc.) experience with injury or illness claims
ANSWER: b
13. In general, after how many years of lower than annual injury costs might a Canadian employer receive a rebate on their annual assessment?
a. after two years b. after three years
Chapter 3 - Workers’ Compensation
c. after four years d. after five years
ANSWER: b
14. How are safety associations different from workers’ compensation boards?
a. They are financially independent from the WCBs.
b. They develop their own regulations for OH&S.
c. They only provide industry-specific safety training.
d. They offer fee-based safety audits to their members.
ANSWER: d
15. Complete the following analogy: social rehabilitation is to coping as vocational rehabilitation is to a. employment b. physical function
c. provision for second injuries d. wage loss earnings
ANSWER: a
16. When a worker is injured, which parties are needed to provide information in order to process a workers’ compensation board (WCB) claim?
a. employer, employee, and coworker b. employer and employee
c. employer, employee, and physician d. employee only
ANSWER: c
17. What is the numeric basis on which workers’ compensation rate group premiums are calculated and published?
a. dollars per $100 of insurable earnings b. dollars per $1,000 of insurable earnings
c. dollars per 100 full-time employees d. dollars per 1,000 full-time employees
ANSWER: a
18. Which of the following is NOT an example of an experience rating program in Ontario?
a. New Experimental Experience Rating Program (NEER)
b. Workplace Safety Insurance Appeals Tribunal (ESIAT)
c. Merit Adjusted Premium (MAP) Plan for Small Business
d. CAD-7
ANSWER: b
19. What is the cost of the penalty when an employer discourages an employee from filing a claim or punishes the worker for filing the claim?
a. $4000 b. $40
c. $400 d. $4
ANSWER: a
Workers in nursing homes regularly experience a number of physical and psychological health and safety issues. Incidents can involve twisting and/or lifting injuries, contact with viruses and bacteria, as well as stress-related illnesses from dealing with very sick and dying patients. At Restwell Manor there are 80 employees who work an average of 6 hours per day for 250 days a year. In the past year, the employer reported a total of 8 injuries for a total lost time of 50 days.
20. Refer to Scenario 3-1: What is the common denominator in the equations that you would use to calculate the injury frequency and severity rates for Restwell Manor?
Chapter 3 - Workers’ Compensation
a. average hours worked b. total hours worked
c. average time off work d. total time off work
ANSWER: b
21. Refer to Scenario 3-1: Using a factor of 200,000, what was Restwell Manor’s severity rate last year?
a. 83.30 b. 13.30
c. 0.200 d. 0.003
ANSWER: a
22. Refer to Scenario 3-1: What assistance would workers’ compensation be most likely to pay for if a Restwell Manor worker develops chronic depression after working with Alzheimer/dementia patients for three years?
a. none b. anti-depression medication
c. professional counselling d. leave of absence
ANSWER: a
23. Refer to Scenario 3-1: What would workers’ compensation be most likely to pay for if a Restwell Manor worker is physically attacked by a patient and suffers post-traumatic stress disorder?
a. none b. counselling
c. disability pension d. retraining
ANSWER: b
24. Refer to Scenario 3-1: What type of loss is incurred by a Restwell Manor worker who has to switch to light-duty nursing due to a back injury that prevents him/her from bending over a patient’s bed?
a. occupational capacity b. range of motion loss
c. functional capacity d. occupational injury
ANSWER: c
25. Refer to Scenario 3-1: What type of rehabilitation might have been provided to enable an injured worker to make the change from heavy-duty to light-duty nursing?
a. vocational and social b. vocational and physical
c. physical and social d. vocational, physical, and social
ANSWER: b
26. Workers’ compensation is driven by two main social goals.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
27. Without a provision for multiple injuries employers might be temped to discriminate against workers with impairments?
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
Chapter 3 - Workers’ Compensation
ANSWER: True
28. Employees cannot sue their employer in criminal court in addition to claiming workers’ compensation.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
29. The WCB premium for a given organization is always the same as other organizations in the same industry classification.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
30. The adjudication of stress claims is currently receiving a great deal of attention from all insurance parties.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
31. Compensation for stress-related disabilities can be provided only when mental stress results in a physical disability or traumatic occurrence.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
32. Experience programs offer financial incentives to companies that reduce workplace injuries but no illnesses.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
33. Employees can always expect to return to their old job following injury or illness.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
34. Providing services intended to prevent injuries or to reduce the psychological impact of injuries when they occur is
Chapter 3 - Workers’ Compensation
one of the social goals of workers’ compensation.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
35. In 2018 the province of Alberta amended its WCB act.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
36. List the three groups of stress-related occupational disabilities identified in the text. Discuss the probability of obtaining compensation in each case, then contrast the current practice of workers’ compensation boards with how the courts and human rights tribunals in Canada view stress-related occupational disabilities.
ANSWER: Stress-related disabilities fall into one of three groups:
a) Physical injury or occupational disease leading to a mental disability
b) Mental stress resulting in a physical disability
c) Mental stress resulting in a mental condition
Compensation for stress-related disabilities is not consistent and requires that the workers’ compensation board view the source of the stress and the disability as clearly work-related, and not due to any other factor. The causes of strain may be due to a variety of factors, one of which may or may not be the workplace. Often, chronic stress is difficult to assess.
In the first case, the nature of the injury or illness is stressful for the injured worker, which then can produce disabling mental conditions such as anxiety/depression. For instance, cancer arising from documented workrelated exposure to toxic substances might trigger stress and depression. In the second case, WCBs have been selective. If the physical disability is acute (e.g. heart attack from work overload or traumatic event), then the cause-effect is often seen to be fairly clear and compensation is offered. However, if the physical disability comes on more slowly and results in a chronic rather than acute physical disability (e.g. ulcer), then the causeeffect is less obvious. The ulcer could be attributed to many different causes, and ulcers are not always viewed as disabilities. In the third case, once again the acute versus chronic comes into play. If the stress arose from a single traumatic incident (e.g. bank employee held as a hostage), then compensation is more likely than if the mental stress and subsequent disability developed over time (e.g. depression in healthcare workers due to funding cutbacks that reduce patient care time).
HRM professionals need to be aware that the current practice of selective compensation by workers’ compensation boards is at odds with the courts and human rights tribunals which have consistently maintained that stress-related disorders or other psychological disabilities are to be treated the same as physical disabilities in employment settings. The current practice may be challenged; HRM professionals must stay current on the issues, laws, and practice and educate managers and employees on the organization’s disability coverage.
37. Explain why a large restaurant chain (e.g. McDonald’s, Mandarin, Boston Pizza) might pay
a) the same WCB premium as other large restaurant chains.
b) a lower premium than other large restaurant chains.
c) a higher premium than other large restaurant chains.
Chapter 3 - Workers’ Compensation
ANSWER: WCB premiums take into consideration industry classification, rate group, and experience rating.
The chain may pay the same as other restaurant chains because they are in the same industry. This probability increases if they are in the same rate group and have a similar experience rating.
The chain may pay a lower premium if they are in a different, less-risky rate group, and/or have a more favourable experience rating (lower injury frequency and/or lower severity).
The chain may pay a higher premium because they are in a higher-risk rate group, and/or have a less favourable experience rating (higher injury frequency and/or higher severity rate).
38. Describe the current roles and responsibilities of a typical provincial/territorial workers’ compensation board. Then extend the discussion by giving two examples of how provincial/territorial boards can differ from each other in terms of policy and/or practice.
ANSWER: The workers’ compensation board system today retains the earlier principles of compulsory and collective liability and wage replacement. WCBs’ primary responsibility is to ensure workers or their families receive benefits to which they are entitled. They are also responsible for classifying employers and individuals (employee or independent contractor). Today’s WCBs have an expanded mandate to include vocational rehabilitation, health care, prevention, training, and public awareness. For instance, the Workers’ Compensation Board of B.C., and other WCBs, provides extensive audio-visual and written publications for use online, in workplaces, in education institutions, and in media.
There are many ways in which WCBs operate independently. For instance, WCBs provide different benefits to workers, so what an injured worker is entitled to in Alberta may not be the same in New Brunswick. Coverage for specific occupational illnesses and presumptive provisions can vary across different jurisdictions. Similarly, the basis for wage loss compensation varies across jurisdictions with some provinces/territories using net earnings while others use average earnings. Employer premiums, rebates (for safe organizations), and surcharges (for unsafe organizations) are also set independently in each jurisdiction, and incident reporting deadlines vary across jurisdictions. While most WCBs are engaged in educational activities, not all offer certification programs. In some jurisdictions, workers can appeal WCB decisions, but in Prince Edward Island, Saskatchewan, and Yukon the WCB has the final say. Experience rating programs are not identical across jurisdictions. For instance, the new Experimental Experience Rating program in Ontario applies to companies that pay more than $25,000 in premiums and are not in a construction rate group.
39. Describe the relationship between workers’ compensation boards and government departments as it relates to a mandate of injury prevention and the OH&S aspects of compensation.
ANSWER: Most WCBs, at one time, were responsible for the incident prevention or OH&S aspects of workers’ compensation. In the 1970s and 1980s the combined role was viewed as a conflict of interest by some governments, and these WCB functions were placed under a government department in most provinces and territories (e.g., the Department of Labour). Though the OH&S function is formally separate in most jurisdictions (with BC and NB being exceptions), all WCBs cooperate with the responsible government department by sharing information. Many jurisdictions across Canada include some type of prevention function to the WCB’s traditional compensation functions. A mandate for prevention also means that WCBs are actively involved in trying to prevent incidents and reduce costs to employers. WCBs provide a wide range of information for employers and employees regarding safety-related matters. For example, WorkSafeBC maintains a large online library of safety-related publications; the WCB of Newfoundland and Labrador provides workshops on how to prevent workplace injuries, and New Brunswick’s WCB has the 5*22 Health and Safety Resources program. The WCBs in Alberta and Nova Scotia offer a Certificate of Recognition (COR) to organizations that have implemented safety programs that meet their standards. In many jurisdictions in Canada, WCBs provide extensive resources to both employers and individuals interested in health and safety issues. (See OH&S Notebook 3.2 for individual WCB contact information.)
Chapter 3 - Workers’ Compensation
40. Discuss the employer reporting requirements and documentation required for reporting all workplace injuries to the Workers’ Compensation Board.
ANSWER: All employers are required to report workplace incidents to their respective workers’ compensation board by a set date in time, although specific deadlines and reporting requirements may vary across jurisdictions. Forms are provided by each WCB, but again may vary in content across jurisdictions.
The two main pieces of documentation are the employer report and the incident analysis report. The employer report is designed to collect information about: the nature of the employment relationship, the employee’s salary and hours of work, the nature of the incident and injury, and the extent of time loss and medical treatment. These elements will determine whether the employee is eligible for compensation and, if so, the amount and duration of this compensation.
The incident analysis report accompanies the firm’s workers’ compensation claim form and provides more detail about the injury. This form is used in calculating injury frequency and severity rates.
Refer to Figure 3.1 and Figure 3.2 for examples of employer and worker incident reports.
41. Duane is a long-haul truck driver who specializes in transporting oversize loads across Canada and the U.S.A. for his Markham, Ontario–based company. The nature of his work requires: long hours due to specialized loading, driving, and delivery procedures; driving at a slower than normal speed, often at night to avoid peak traffic; taking longer routes to avoid obstacles such as low height or low weight bridges, and crossing the Canada–USA border. Truckers in this occupation are often under tight deadlines to deliver on time, or their employer will face financial penalties.
a) Identify three possible work-related injuries and illnesses/diseases that might result from working in this occupation and discuss the workers’ compensation coverage that would apply in each case.
b) Discuss how his employer would obtain the necessary information to complete the employer and incident analysis reports.
c) Compare and contrast the Canadian compensation system with the compensation available to an American-based trucker doing similar work.
ANSWER: Physical injuries and illnesses might include: back or circulation problems; injury or death from a driving accident (involving or not involving other vehicles), heart attack, stroke, high blood pressure, and high cholesterol/diabetes. Most of these conditions will be covered if they can be shown to be work-related, however physical injuries arising from chronic stress or repeated exposure over time to a hazard (e.g. high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and diabetes) may not be covered.
Mental (psychological) injuries/illnesses could include: anxiety/stress from deadlines; depression from being alone and away from home for long periods; and post-traumatic stress disorder from being in a serious accident/close call. Stress, anxiety, and/or depression may result in physical conditions (e.g. heart attack, ulcer). Compensation may vary depending on whether the cause is acute or chronic and whether the injury/illness is acute or chronic.
Because Duane is not “onsite,” his employer cannot immediately launch an internal investigation into the nature of the incident and injury/illness, as could be done in a factory or restaurant. In this case, the employer will have to depend more on third-party reports, e.g. first responders (police, ambulance, and firefighters), health-care professionals, and possibly local OH&S investigators. Duane, though, has the responsibility to immediately report any incident to his employer to get the process started.
Canada’s compensation system provides greater benefits than those of most other countries; it also ensures
Chapter
Compensation
that benefits are not prejudiced by earnings after rehabilitation. In Canada, a permanently injured worker draws compensation for life, and is able to keep his/her pension even if the sum of pension and the earnings supplements amounts to more than the wages earned before the injury. In contrast, many compensation laws in the United States hinder rehabilitation, either by cutting off compensation for permanent injury as soon as workers begin to earn as much money as they did before the injury or by paying compensation for only a limited period (which can leave workers stranded before they can be retrained).
Chapter 4 - Hazards, Risk, and Control
1. Which of the following is a representative of a hazard?
a. probability of harm b. potential for harm
c. perception of harm d. awareness of harm
ANSWER: b
2. Which of the following best distinguishes between risk and risk perception?
a. Risk is the likelihood for harm, risk perception is the belief that harm is likely to occur.
b. Risk is the assumption of harm, and risk perception is certainty of harm.
c. Risk describes what should be done, risk perception describes what will be done.
d. Risk can be assessed; risk perceptions cannot be assessed.
ANSWER: a
3. Wakkhar’s first job required him to sit at a computer for a minimum of 8 hours per shift. While Wakkhar’s chair and desk were comfortable and ergonomically friendly, his keyboard and mouse were very small and required his hands to frequently rest at an awkward angle. After a year of work, Wakkhar’s right hand and wrist started to ache and in some cases tingle. Which of the following injuries is Wakkhar most likely to have?
a. thoracic outlet syndrome b. overt trauma
c. hinged joints d. repetitive strain
ANSWER: d
4. Which of the following steps should you complete first if you wanted to determine whether a new piece of equipment in your workplace was safe to use?
a. consult with the most experienced worker and ask their opinion
b. consult the Internet
c. conduct a risk assessment
d. evaluate incident reports
ANSWER: c
5. Which of the following creates hazards in the workplace by their actions or inactions.
a. people
b. equipment
c. materials
d. processes
e. CHOICE BLANK
ANSWER: a
6. Mohan has decided not to put down a safety guard on the saw he is using. This is an example of which of the following?
a. an accident b. human factor
c. substitution d. elimination
ANSWER: b
7. Careless stacking of boxes such that the boxes later fall on a coworker would be classified as what type of hazard?
a. human factor commission b. human factor omission
c. human factor poor judgment d. human factor substandard practice
Chapter 4 - Hazards, Risk, and Control
ANSWER: b
8. Which of the following is an example of an unsafe act?
a. improper illumination b. poor design
c. inadequate hand washing d. defective equipment
ANSWER: c
9. Which of the following is an example of an unsafe condition?
a. use of defective equipment
b. poor indoor air quality
c. failure to wear personal protective equipment
d. alcohol and drug abuse
ANSWER: b
10. Who is most likely to carry out safety sampling?
a. in-house safety personnel b. a third-party safety professional
c. the Ministry of Labour d. the WSIB/WCB
ANSWER: a
11. What numerical measure is typically used to communicate risk, regardless of how it is assessed?
a. cost b. frequency
c. severity d. probability
ANSWER: d
12. What is another term for a direct unsafe act?
a. substandard practice b. act of omission
c. poor judgment d. human factor
ANSWER: a
13. The consequences of a hazard are assessed through what measure?
a. probability b. likelihood
c. severity d. frequency
ANSWER: c
14. Hand removal devises are an example of which of the following?
a. administrative control b. elimination
c. engineering control d. PPE
ANSWER: c
15. CIUB injuries would fall within what larger category of injuries?
a. injuries resulting from overuse b. overt traumatic injuries
c. overexertion injuries d. awkward working position injuries
ANSWER: b
16. The Centre for Occupational Health and Safety (CCOHS) uses which of the following indicators of severity of
Chapter 4 - Hazards, Risk, and Control
consequences?
a. very likely harmful, likely harmful, unlikely harmful, very unlikely harmful
b. minor harmful, moderately harmful, majorly harmful
c. slightly harmful, moderately harmful, extremely harmful
d. very likely, likely, unlikely, very unlikely
ANSWER: c
17. Which of the following is an example of a process modification that would be supported by the Hawthorne studies?
a. machine guarding b. illumination
c. heat stress testing d. job rotation
ANSWER: d
18. In the context of occupational health and safety, what groups of individuals are most likely to receive kickbacks?
a. workers b. supervisors
c. managers d. ministry inspectors
ANSWER: a
19. The process of removing a hazard from the workplace is an example of which of the following?
a. substitution b. elimination
c. PPE
ANSWER: b
d. machine guarding
20. Which of the following is an example of a lockout?
a. turning off a stove and placing a sign on it that says “Do not use”
b. placing a restricted-access sign on a piece of equipment
c. turning off equipment and securing the fuse box so no one has access to it
d. isolating the electrical controls on one piece of equipment
ANSWER: c
21. Which of the following is NOT a general lifting guideline?
a. keep lower body straight
b. tuck chin into chest
c. initiate the lift with body weight
d. avoid twisting and side bending while lifting
ANSWER: a
Scenario 4-1
The performing arts (theatre, dance, music) do not always come to mind when hazardous workplaces are being discussed. However, performers at Canada’s famed Shaw and Stratford festivals encounter many hazards and OH&S incidents can occur. Imagine a theatre with suspended overhead lights, trapdoors in the stage, on-stage sets that look real but are built of flimsy materials, narrow hallways and stairs, and actors engaged in fight scenes using realistic weapons. The same process of hazard recognition, risk assessment, and control must take place.
22. Refer to Scenario 4-1: What type of hazard would be represented by an unevenly repaired patch on a stage that could cause an actor to slip and fall when engaged in a fight scene?
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Chapter 4 - Hazards, Risk, and Control
a. equipment hazard b. environment hazard
c. materials hazard d. process hazard
ANSWER: b
23. Refer to Scenario 4-1: What analytic technique is available to show why the defective repair occurred and contributed to the incident?
a. safety sampling b. audit program
c. positive tree d. fault tree
ANSWER: d
24. Refer to Scenario 4-1: Under what legislation could the theatre be liable for failing to maintain the stage in a better condition?
a. Canada Labour Code b. Occupational Health and Safety Act
c. Workers’ Compensation Act d. CSA Standard Z432-94
ANSWER: a
25. Refer to Scenario 4-1: Preventive work plans are often completed according to which of the following?
a. legislation b. supervisor’s motivation
c. time available d. specific schedule
ANSWER: d
26. The first step in the risk assessment process is risk analysis.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
27. Nico fell asleep for a minute while driving his company vehicle and narrowly missed hitting a car in the next lane. This would be classified as an OH&S incident.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
28. A piece of wood is pushed through a saw suddenly becomes snagged and then is thrown back toward the operator. This is an example of reflectance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
29. Ventilation is a type of administrative control that specifically targets airborne hazards.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
30. Sia works for a book printing service. Employees often hit the emergency stop button on the new piece of machinery. When this happens an extremely loud alarm sounds. Sia has noticed that other employees have started to ignore the alarm
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Chapter 4 - Hazards, Risk, and Control
because it sounds several times a shift due to the operators mistaking the stop emergency stop button for the “hold” button that temporarily pauses the machine. Sis is afraid that employees will ignore the alarm when an emergency is happening. She investigates and notices the hold and emergency stop button are both red, suggesting that the operating panel does not exhibit the characteristic of interpretability.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
31. In order to accurately describe the risks involved in using various types of lasers by surgeons at the clinic, Oleg must consider both likelihood and severity of both overt traumatic and overexertion injuries.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
32. The risk levels set by the Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety (CCOHS) are expressed in terms of the percentage chance a worker has of encountering that event in their lifetime.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
33. Using the source-path-human model allows for a systematic process for determining when a control is necessary.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
34. Jeremy works in a large shipping area of a courier company. A guard placed around the perimeter of a conveyor is an example of an engineering control.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
35. Hazards can be controlled by identifying and attacking the source and the path it travels.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
36. Differentiate between engineering controls and administrative controls, giving an example of how each could be applied in a situation where workers have to work outside in the summer (e.g. road crew or roofing crew).
ANSWER: Engineering controls involve the modification of work processes, equipment, and material in order to reduce exposure to hazards. Examples would include changing schedules to avoid peak temperatures taking frequent breaks, providing water at the job site, and adding canopies to heavy equipment to protect operators from the sun. Engineering controls do not include personal protective equipment such as sunscreen and sunglasses.
Administrative control is the use of management involvement, employee training, employee rotation, environmental sampling, and medical surveillance to protect individuals. Examples would include monitoring workers for signs of heat stroke or dehydration, training employees to recognize signs of heat exhaustion and dehydration in themselves and coworkers, and rotating workers from heavier jobs to lighter jobs.
Chapter 4 - Hazards, Risk, and Control
37. Define and give examples of two of the four types of overt traumatic injuries discussed in the textbook. What are some prevention strategies that an HRM can implement to prevent overt traumatic injuries?
ANSWER: Overt traumatic injuries result from individuals coming in contact with objects and equipment (an energy source). Four types of overt traumatic injuries are being struck by a moving object (material or equipment); being caught in, under, or between (CIUB) machines; falls; and burn/abrasion injuries from contact with a source of energy. Overt traumatic injury prevention focuses on recognizing the source of the hazard, eliminating the hazard, and protecting workers from exposure to the energy source.
38. Give two different examples of overexertion injuries that an exterior window cleaner working on a multi-story office building might experience. Explain the basic causes of overexertion injuries and discuss the impact of pre-existing conditions on overexertion injuries.
ANSWER: Injuries that window cleaners might experience from their work are back strain from working in awkward positions and stretching beyond their normal reach, as well as repetitive strain injuries from using the same motion and holding their wrist and elbow in an awkward position. Pre-existing conditions such as arthritis and circulation disorders would make these injuries worse or could trigger the overexertion injury much sooner.
39. Describe and differentiate between the two types of analytical trees used in hazard analysis, explaining which one is more common, but why the other might facilitate precontact control.
ANSWER: Analytical trees are the most common form of hazard analysis of which there are two types: a positive tree (shows graphically how a job should be done) and a fault tree (provides an illustration of things that can go wrong). The fault tree is the more frequently used tree but a positive tree could be used to ensure that workers are properly trained and that visual reminders of proper procedures are posted at the task site. Workers may understand the risk but be slightly off in their risk perception, underestimating the risk, especially for infrequent or unusual types of occurrences. Knowing the proper methods and having constant reminders can prevent hazards from reaching workers in the first place, which is the definition of precontact control.
40. List the four levels of probability and the three levels of consequences provided by the Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety (CCOHS). Apply the following hazards facing chefs working in a restaurant kitchen, identifying the injury, likelihood, and typical severity: hot oven, sharp knives, pots with boiling contents, and hard floors.
ANSWER: The four levels of probability (likelihood) are very likely (at least once every six months), likely (once every five years), unlikely (once during working lifetime), and very unlikely (less than 1% chance during working lifetime). The three levels of consequences are slightly harmful (nuisance) moderate harm (somewhat debilitating), and extremely harmful (death or severely limiting injury).
∙ Burn from coming into contact with hot oven very likely; consequences are moderately harmful
∙ Cut from sharp knife very likely; consequences are slightly to moderately harmful, however some cuts can cause amputation (e.g. end of finger) and untended cuts can lead to more serious conditions (e.g. flesh-eating disease)
Scald from being splashed by pot of boiling water/oil very likely to likely depending on type of food being prepared; consequences could be anywhere from slightly harmful to extremely harmful, possibly death if entire pot is pulled/dumped over body.
Back pain from standing on hard floors very likely due to long hours, unless rubber cushioning mats are provided; consequences range from slightly harmful to moderate harm (over time)
41. Jarrett has just taken a transfer from being a retail store manager to a development opportunity as the manager of the retail chain’s local distribution centre (warehouse); the new position will help to prepare him for a long-term career in the company. Discuss the pros and cons of three different ways that he can quickly familiarize himself with the hazards facing workers in his new work environment in order to meet his legal responsibilities.
ANSWER: Talk to People at the Warehouse quick but may be taken the wrong way Supervisors and workers can, and have a legal responsibility to, notify the manager of any workplace hazards,
Chapter 4 - Hazards, Risk, and Control
so Jarrett can simply ask about typical hazardous situations whether they have caused injuries or illnesses in the past or if they are an “accident waiting to happen.”
Joint Health and Safety Committees are also responsible for identifying and dealing with hazards, so Jarrett can talk to management and worker members of those committees and ensure he attends upcoming meetings.
Read Company Documents somewhat time-consuming but detailed
He can consult reports from any past inspections conducted by provincial/territorial/federal inspectors that are not related to an incident investigation but are as a result of the government agency trying to improve safety in a particular area (e.g. confined spaces, back strain, or RSI)
Incident investigations require full records and reports, so this is another source of carefully documented information and Jarrett can check whether recommendations in those reports have been put into place.
Accident, injury, and claims records, along with first aid records from the workplace and the industry, provide information on what type of injuries and occupational diseases are associated with the jobs or tasks being assessed. Minutes of past JHSC meetings and any safety audits will also provide further information on these incidents.
Consult External Sources quick but generic
Information on hazards inherent to warehouse settings can be found on government and industry websites, such as www.CCOHS.org, as well as in government and industry publications.
Collect New Data slowest
Walk-through survey Jarrett can do a walk-through survey himself and/or call in and work with a safety professional as they walk through a worksite and note hazards.
Safety sampling is a systematic survey procedure undertaken by safety personnel who record their observations of unsafe practices on a sampling document, usually done by a third party to ensure objectivity. Task and job inventory could be used if jobs have not been well-documented in the past or if jobs have changed due to the introduction of new technologies.
Analysis of the Plant, Tasks, and Jobs
HRMs should always consider whether a specific hazard they have identified or have been alerted to requires immediate attention to prevent possible injury. This immediate action could involve stopping work in the area or ensuring the hazard is controlled without delay.
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Chapter 5 - Physical Agents
1. Older watch faces that would “glow in the dark” are an example of
a. non-ionizing radiation. b. infrared radiation.
c. radon. d. manufactured ionizing radiation.
ANSWER: d
2. Which of the following best characterizes how are ionizing and non-ionizing radiation differ?
a. the source b. wavelength range
c. exposure control measures/methods d. the path
ANSWER: b
3. Gemma is employed as a seamstress for a family-run business located in the basement of the owner’s house. Gemma should be concerned about which of the following?
a. whole body vibration b. low frequency radiation
c. radon d. homeostasis
ANSWER: c
4. According to the Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety, when might a workplace be too noisy?
a. when employees have to raise their voices to be understood
b. when employees have chronic ear infections
c. when employees have a general feeling of fatigue
d. when one employee has a hearing problem
ANSWER: a
5. Which of the following is commonly the cause of Reynaud’s phenomenon?
a. thermal stress b. vibration
c. noise d. radiation
ANSWER: b
6. Rick is the supervisor of a road crew working on highway resurfacing. What administrative control would help his workers acclimatize to working in the heat?
a. a heat stress assessment b. reduced worker activity
c. cooling vests d. mandatory water break policy
ANSWER: d
7. What condition is an employee likely experiencing if he or she reports tingling in the fingers, loss of sensation in the fingers, and loss of grip strength?
a. HAVS b. hyperpyrexia
c. hyperreflexia d. neuritis
ANSWER: a
8. HAVS is an acronym for which of the following syndromes?
a. hearing adherence vibration syndrome b. hearing accumulation vibration syndrome
c. hearing avocation vibration syndrome d. hand-arm vibration syndrome
ANSWER: d
Chapter 5 - Physical Agents
9. Which of the following decibel (dB) differences represents a doubling of “loudness”?
a. 80 dB to 82 dB b. 80 dB to 83 dB
c. 80 dB to 90 dB d. 80 dB to 160 dB
ANSWER: b
10. What heat-related condition could you resolve by giving workers salty crackers along with some water?
a. heat stroke b. heat syncope
c. heat cramps d. heat hyperpyrexia
ANSWER: c
11. Which of the following forms of ionizing radiation does not occur naturally?
a. gamma rays b. X-rays
c. alpha particles d. beta particles
ANSWER: b
12. Which is the cause of early warning change?
a. radiation b. cold temperatures
c. noise d. vibration
ANSWER: d
13. What statistical value should Aiko look at to compare the hearing protection of various devices on the market?
a. dB(A) b. Hz
c. watt d. NRR
ANSWER: d
14. What factor would explain why, in a cold climate, Worker A can raise their body temperature by four degrees by jogging on the spot or skipping with a rope, whereas Worker B can only raise their body temperature by two degrees?
a. Worker A is in better physical condition. b. Worker B is an older worker.
c. Worker A is a non-smoker. d. Worker B is female.
ANSWER: d
15. At what core body temperature does mild hypothermia start to set in?
a. 23.9oC to 25.6o C b. 32.2oC to 30oC
c. 37.2oC to 36.1oC d. 35oC to 33.9oC
ANSWER: c
16. Non-ionizing radiation is a hospital scanner as ionizing radiation is to a. nuclear power generation. b. lightening.
c. radon. d. a microwave oven.
ANSWER: d
17. When assessing the impact of vibration on employee health which of the following is NOT evaluated?
a. the source of the vibration energy
b. the intensity and frequency of the vibration
Chapter 5 - Physical Agents
c. the part of the body that receives the vibration energy
d. the duration of exposure to the vibration
ANSWER: a
18. According to the textbook a Canadian study found that approximately million Canadians age 20–79 had hearing loss?
a. 2.6 b. 3.5
c. 4.6 d. 6.0
ANSWER: c
19. What is the required noise attenuation in a commercial laundry where actual noise level is 95 dB(A) and the standard is 88 dB(a) for eight hours?
a. 1 dB(A) b. 14 dB(A)
c. 49 dB(A) d. 176 dB(A)
ANSWER: b
20. Akanksha is a dental hygienist who cleans patients’ teeth for 35 hours a week. What is the most realistic way of minimizing segmental vibration from the electric polishing brush?
a. using a manual polishing brush
b. reducing the number of patients that she sees
c. loosening her grip on the polishing brush
d. adding padding to the handle of the brush
ANSWER: d
Scenario 5-1
Imagine a large-scale kitchen operation such as the Mandarin, Boston Pizza, or Swiss Chalet. Even though restaurant customers might experience a relatively quiet, comfortable, and relaxing atmosphere out front, in the kitchen area there are many physical agents that can impair the safety and health of kitchen workers and servers.
21. Refer to Scenario 5-1: During the dinner hour when there are a lot of boiling pots, frying pans, and hot ovens in constant operation, what is likely to be the typical humidex range captured using the WGBT index?
a. 20–29 degrees C b. 30–39 degrees C
c. 40–45 degrees C d. 46+ degrees C
ANSWER: c
22. Refer to Scenario 5-1: If a kitchen worker gets locked into the walk-in freezer either by accident or by a misguided prank, when you finally find them what symptom would tell you that they are suffering from moderate hypothermia?
a. intense pain in fingers b. abnormal drowsiness
c. decreased respiration d. irrational behaviour
ANSWER: b
23. Refer to Scenario 5-1: From which source could a chef or sous chef (preparation cook) be exposed to ionizing radiation?
a. microwave oven b. kitchen computer
c. vegetables d. aluminum pan
Chapter 5 - Physical Agents
ANSWER: c
24. Refer to Scenario 5-1: There are four mechanical dishwashers in the kitchen running at the following sound ratings: 82 dB, 84 dB, 86 dB, and 88 dB. A 2 dB difference translates to a noise factor increase of 2.1 dB, a 4 dB difference to a factor of 1.5, and a 6 dB difference to a factor of 1.0. Given this information, what is the total noise level coming from the dishwashers?
a. 85.0 dB b. 86.1 dB
c. 87.5 dB d. 89.0 dB
ANSWER: d
25. Refer to Scenario 5-1: The kitchen has a number of large floor-standing mixers for mixing large batches of cake and bread dough. The frequency of these mixers is 75 Hz. What part of the body would be affected by resonance at this frequency?
a. head b. eyeballs
c. shoulder d. arms
ANSWER: b
26. The effects of radiation depend on the frequency of radiation.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
27. NIHL is typically a cumulative process.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
28. Hyperreflexia can be caused by noise.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
29. Vasoconstriction affects the bronchial tubes.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
30. Conductive hearing loss can be caused by a buildup of ear wax from the improper use of ear plugs.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
31. A sore neck can be a symptom of segmental vibration.
a. True
b. False
Chapter 5 - Physical Agents
ANSWER: True
32. The heat level in a crowded room or subway car rises due to convection.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
33. While at work, Zamboni drivers who resurface the ice in hockey arenas are more likely to have lower blood pressure than athletic trainers working in arena dressing rooms.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
34. A dosimeter is designed to measure a person’s exposure to noise for one shift as a percentage.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
35. If a roofer is suffering from hyperpyrexia after installing replacement shingles for eight hours in the hot sun their skin will be dry and tight.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
36. Describe the legal steps an employer/HRM must take to control hazardous noise in the workplace. What is the most effective noise control method?
ANSWER: An employer/HRM will want to use the source–path–human strategies to control hazardous noise in the workplace. The best method for dealing with noise in the workplace is to reduce noise at the source. If a worker is exposed to noise above the legal noise exposure limit, the employer must, perhaps with the help of experts, investigate and implement engineered noise-control options to reduce the noise exposure of workers below the recommended exposure limits, if possible. If it is not possible to reduce noise levels, the employer must reduce noise exposure to the lowest level possible, post warning signs in the noise hazard areas (workers in a posted noise hazard area must wear hearing protection), provide affected workers hearing protection that meets the legal standards, and ensure that hearing protection is worn effectively in noise hazard areas. This last strategy of using personal protective equipment is less costly but not always the most effective.
37. Discuss commonalities in regards to the origins, effects, and control of the four types of physical agents.
ANSWER: All physical agents are related to sources of energy noise comes from sound waves, vibration from objects in motion (kinetic energy), radiation from electromagnetic energy, and thermal stress from thermodynamic energy.
All physical agents can cause a range of injuries and illnesses from minor to severe, e.g. annoyance to complete hearing loss, minor cut to amputation, cataracts to death, numb fingers to frostbite.
The control of all physical agents follows the source–path–human strategy. The first line of defence is to remove the source, if possible, through engineering and administrative controls. The second line of defence is to block the path (move the worker away) from the source through engineering and administrative controls and PPE. If these are not successful or viable then the last line of defence is to protect the human through
Chapter 5 - Physical Agents
personal protective equipment.
38. What obligations do employers have to ensure that the workers are safe from the dangers of heat exposure?
ANSWER: Conduct a heat stress assessment.
Implement engineering controls to reduce the level of heat.
Adjust work-rest schedules to reduce exposure.
Provide personal protective equipment.
Ensure cool drinking water is accessible near the worksite.
Limit exposure through work rotation.
Install fans or air conditioning.
Allow time to acclimatize.
Provide drinking water.
Support the use of sun hats, sunscreen, and eye protection.
39. Describe several factors that the Canadian Forces would have to take into account in developing a cold-weather occupational health and safety strategy for Forces members working at bases in the northernmost territories of Canada (Yukon, Northwest Territory, and Nunavut).
ANSWER: The first consideration is to consider what engineering controls such as heaters and shields could protect all members working at these bases from extremely cold temperatures. Secondly, they could consider how administrative controls such as work and rest schedules and shut and closure requirements might need to be modified for these bases. Personal protective equipment must more than meet the extremes of temperature experienced in these places and should also be taken into account. In addition to dealing with temperature, consideration must be given to the potential hazard and associated eye damage arising from sustained exposure to the glare from snow and ice.
Last but not least, the Forces have to consider individual differences that would make some Forces members more susceptible to cold-related illnesses. These include age, gender, fatigue, diseases, health conditions, and consumption of drugs and alcohol. Rather than screening out Forces members with these characteristics, which could be discriminatory as predisposition does not always produce illness, the Forces should develop a wellness strategy that helps all members acclimatize to the cold.
40. It is rare to see employees in a trendy club wearing any kind of hearing protection. As the new HR manager, explain why club owners and managers may not be protecting club employees from excessive noise and what you could suggest to them that might reduce the risk of hearing loss.
ANSWER: Owners may not be protecting club employees for a number of reasons including not seeing sound as noise, not knowing what the actual noise level is in the club, and not hearing from employees that they are experiencing noise-related issues. Noise is unwanted sound, and in a club setting high levels of sound at varying frequencies are typically seen as desirable, whether the sound is coming from the band or DJ, from the servers or from the patrons. With a few exceptions, such as piano bars, a quiet club is an unsuccessful club. Owners and managers want loud music even if this means that employees and patrons have to shout to hear each other it all contributes to an exciting and vibrant atmosphere. They may have no idea how high the noise level is, what the provincial standards are, or what frequencies are causing the most distress to employees (and possibly to patrons). Even if club employees are experiencing symptoms of hearing loss, they may not bring these to the manager’s attention, fearing that their profitable shifts or job security may be threatened.
In order to get past this barrier, it may be necessary to hire an outside specialist to conduct a noise assessment in order to get objective data throughout the club’s operating hours. These specialists can use a combination of equipment including a sound pressure level meter, an octave band analyzer, a dosimeter, and an audiometer. It is important that they capture human response to noise, not just level or frequency, to find out how different
Chapter 5 - Physical Agents
employees are perceiving noise in the club.
When the data is collected, they will need calculations to be done to determine the total noise level from different sources and compare it to provincial standards.
In a club, it is difficult to control noise because it is coming from not just one piece of equipment but from multiple sources around the venue speakers, band instruments, bar equipment (blenders, sinks, ice machines, glass washers), and people (entertainment, bar staff, servers, patrons). Engineering controls could mean turning down the speaker volume. A 3db difference will cut the perceived noise level from the entertainment source in half. Changes to flooring and wall covering are also engineering controls that could increase absorption rather than reflect noise around the club. Partitioning off the club rather than having one giant open space could make a difference.
Rotating employees between the quieter and louder areas of the club could reduce the risk, as well as scheduling them off from the busiest times every few weeks (e.g. every 4th weekend off). Club employees who do not have to interact directly with customers should wear hearing protection.
Although it might not be well received by some patrons or employees, having customers place and pay for their orders electronically could take away another source of noise in a large club. Similarly, allowing only texting and not cellphone calls in the club could also reduce noise, as many customers do not care to hear other people’s conversations when they are out for a good time, but this may encounter some opposition from customers.
The owners and managers will have to balance off their legal risk to protect their employees from hearingrelated injury and illness with their ability to run a viable business. Getting the facts, knowing the law, and asking for input from employees and experts can help them to take reasonable precautions and avoid future lawsuits.
Chapter 6 - Biological and Chemical Agents
1. Marco is a hair stylist for a large salon. On an average day Marco sees up to 12 clients, many of whom have their hair coloured. Consequently, Marco is frequently mixing chemical agents and using various toners and bleaching compounds. Marco is at risk for which of the following if he does not follow proper hand hygiene protocols?
a. arthritis b. asthma
c. acute toxicity d. dermatitis
ANSWER: d
2. Vapours are mostly likely to enter the body via which of the following routes of entry?
a. skin absorption b. ingestion
c. respiration d. skin penetration
ANSWER: c
3. Which of the following is most likely to create a synergistic effect with airborne chemicals in a manufacturing plant?
a. the other chemicals used in the plant b. inadequate safety training
c. inconsistent use of respirators d. the plant being located in a valley
ANSWER: d
4. Besides record keeping, what control measure ensures that baseline tests will be available when needed?
a. medical surveillance b. engineering controls
c. work practices d. good housekeeping
ANSWER: a
5. Employees with diabetes and other conditions often need to inject themselves at work to manage their condition. What is an administrative control that the human resource management department can implement to protect everyone from needlestick injuries?
a. install “sharps” disposal bins in restrooms
b. provide education and training to all employees
c. ask these employees to inject themselves in an off-site location
d. change work schedules, so they can inject at home before and after work
ANSWER: b
6. What is the recommended remedy for occupational asthma (e.g. crab asthma experienced by the snow crab workers in Newfoundland)?
a. transferring to a different job in the same plant
b. changing to employment in another industry
c. taking asthma medication via a bronchial inhalator “puffer”
d. taking antihistamine medication (e.g. Benadryl, Claritin)
ANSWER: b
7. Ciera’s is a 55-year-old registered nurse who works in a large hospital. Ciera recently contracted a bacterial infection from a patient. Her treatment was a course of antibiotics. Following her treatment Ciera noticed she had trouble hearing. She visited an audiologist who informed her that her recent hearing loss is likely the result of ototoxicity. Which of the following is most likely the cause of Ciera’s hearing loss?
a. noise b. bacteria
c. antibiotics d. age
Chapter 6 - Biological and Chemical Agents
ANSWER: c
8. A smoker who works for an asbestos removal company is more likely to develop lung cancer than a nonsmoker due to which of the following?
a. toxicity b. otoxicity
c. synergism d. acute toxicity
ANSWER: c
9. What type of biological agents if inhaled can cause occupational diseases in farm workers?
a. bacterial b. viruses
c. chlamydiae d. fungal
ANSWER: d
10. The immediate pain and discoloration you experience after burning your hand on a hot surface is an example of which of the following?
a. acute toxicity b. chronic toxicity
c. systemic toxicity d. dose
ANSWER: a
11. What is the difference between a fume and a vapour?
a. vapours are lighter in colour
b. fumes come from the evaporation of solids
c. vapours come from the evaporation of liquids
d. the material in a fume condenses with air contact
ANSWER: d
12. Sensitization is an example of which of the following?
a. chronic toxicity b. local toxicity
c. acute toxicity d. systemic toxicity
ANSWER: a
13. Which of the following factors allows a solvent to spread evenly and quickly?
a. low boiling point b. high volatility
c. high vapour pressure d. low surface tension
ANSWER: d
14. Through what physiological system would poison ivy have an effect on gardeners and agricultural workers?
a. nervous system b. immune system
c. respiratory system d. metabolic system
ANSWER: b
15. Which of the following factors would have the greatest impact on a solvent’s effectiveness?
a. auto-ignition temperature b. flammability
c. colour d. low boiling point
ANSWER: d
Chapter 6 - Biological and Chemical Agents
16. Evan is the OH&S manager for a research lab that has Biosafety Level 1 (BSL 1) organisms. What does he need to do to protect himself from this type of organisms?
a. wash his hands before he eats lunch at work
b. put in a separate lunchroom/restroom for lab workers
c. make sure his office is on a different ventilation system
d. make sure the lab has a negative pressure environment
ANSWER: a
17. Which of the following is NOT considered one of the basic levels of protection within the respiratory tract?
a. esophagus b. nose
c. mucus d. alveoli
ANSWER: a
18. The Globally Harmonized System is a system that would establish consistency around the world in terms of which of the following?
a. the purchase and control of biological agents
b. specifying the toxicity levels of chemical agents
c. dealing with epidemics due to biological agents
d. classification and labelling of chemical products
ANSWER: d
19. What are the types of control measures that can be used to ensure the safe handling of both chemical and low-level biological agents?
a. people, processes, equipment, materials
b. hazard, administrative
c. engineering, administrative, and work practices/procedures
d. processes, engineering, equipment
ANSWER: c
20. Which of the following is NOT considered a biohazard?
a. bacteria b. virus
c. prion d. aerosol
ANSWER: d
Scenario 6-1
Custodial staff (also known as janitors or cleaners) are the unsung heroes of the workplace. Going about their work while many of us are in bed, they deal with a whole host of situations that bring them into contact with a wide range of chemical and biological agents. They are exposed to residues left in the air and on surfaces from manufacturing processes, from service operations, and from human excretions (sweat, body oils, from sneezing, and so on). While employees of the firms that they service receive training about specific chemical and biological hazards, the custodial staff are often unaware of some of the hazards that they may encounter.
21. Refer to Scenario 6-1. Custodial staff may be at more risk of acquiring an illness/injury from acute, rather than ambient, exposure to a chemical or biological agent. How would the cleaning manager know if it was an acute exposure?
a. The cleaner had not worked at that location before.
Chapter 6 - Biological and Chemical Agents
b. The cleaner could not continue working that day.
c. The cleaner had to go to the hospital right away.
d. The cleaner could not return to work for a week.
ANSWER: a
22. Refer to Scenario 6-1. The owner of the cleaning company tries to protect his workers by getting as much information as he can about chemical hazards when meeting with new clients and renewing contracts with existing clients. In general, for what percentage of chemicals will he be provided with toxicity data?
a. 10% b. 20%
c. 40% d. 80%
ANSWER: b
23. Refer to Scenario 6-1. Custodial staff are exposed to aerosols through the cleaning products they use and as a byproduct of mechanical and human activity at each workplace where they clean. What is the part of the respiratory system that is spiral shaped and could be protected from aerosols by wearing a face mask?
a. cilia b. alveoli
c. turbinates d. macrophages
ANSWER: c
24. Refer to Scenario 6-1. What characteristic of chlorinated solvents could ultimately result in liver problems from cleaners?
a. acidity b. alkalinity
c. fat-solubility d. low surface tension
ANSWER: c
25. Refer to Scenario 6-1. What two food-related biohazards could cause custodial staff to fall victim to food poisoning if they do not have a way to properly store the food they brought from home for their meal break at 3 a.m.?
a. ricksettia and brucellosis b. brucellosis and salmonellosis
c. staphylococcus and ricksettia d. salmonellosis and staphylococcus
ANSWER: d
26. Flashpoint is the highest temperature at which a liquid gas gives off enough vapour to form an ignitable mixture with air and produce a flame with a source of ignition.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
27. Norma has been exposed to lead from the plumbing that supplies the drinking water in her workplace, consequently Norma is at risk of developing kidney disease.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
28. The best method for mitigating the risks associated with chemical and biohazards is substitution.
a. True
b. False
Chapter 6 - Biological and Chemical Agents
ANSWER: False
29. Sarah has poured a hazardous cleaning chemical into her personal smaller and easier-to-use spray bottle. Sarah has poured only enough to use for the task at hand. Sarah is required to put a workplace label on her spray bottle.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
30. Hazards identified within WHMIS are organized by group and class.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
31. Supplier labels must include initial supplier information.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
32. The ingestion of chemicals or biohazards is often the result of poor hygiene.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
33. A human is an example of a reservoir.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
34. A chemical’s ability to pass through the skin is closely associated with toxicity.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
35. An SDS must contain information about composition and ingredients.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
36. Differentiate between chemical and biological agents. Identify a biological or chemical agent present in your workplace or in a workplace with which you are familiar (either by knowing someone who works there or by being a customer/patient). Explain the route of entry, type(s) of toxicity involved, and the health effects that this specific agent can have on the human body. Describe the controls that should be put in place to control this hazard.
ANSWER: Chemical agents are hazards created by any one or any combination of a very large number of chemicals and/or their physical reactions. Biological agents or biohazards are natural organisms or products of organisms that present a risk to humans.
Chapter 6 - Biological and Chemical Agents
The chemical and biological hazards that students may have observed/know about should reflect terminology from one of the following sources: Types of Contaminants (OH&S Notebook 6.1); Classification of Toxic Substances (OH&S Notebook 6.4); Organic Solvents (Table 6.2); or Biological Agents (Table 6.1).
Students should clearly identify route(s) of entry (inhalation (respiration), ingestion, penetration, or skin absorption) and provide a clear description of the toxicity (acute versus chronic, local versus systemic), in addition to the actual health effects (injury or illness).
Descriptions of controls should mention more than one approach (see Fig. 6.3, Engineering, Work Practices, and Medical Control Measures) for an overview of engineering, work practices, PPE, personal hygiene practices, good housekeeping, medical surveillance, and record-keeping controls.
37. List the seven types of chemical contaminants found in workplaces. Describe an example of one chemical hazard that office workers may be exposed to and one example of a chemical hazard that manufacturing workers may be exposed to. Describe a workplace human resource practice or policy that could address each of these health and safety issues.
ANSWER: a. Dust
b. Fumes
c. Smoke
d. Mist
e. Vapour
f. Gas
g. Liquid
There is a growing concern about the quality of air in the workplace from environmental illnesses, leading to the adoption of controversial scent-free practices and legally required second-hand tobacco smoke policies. In manufacturing settings, most human exposure to chemicals comes from breathing aerosol by-products related to the use of organic and inorganic solvents.
Office equipment such as photocopiers, computers, fax machines, laser printers, and ink/bubble jet printers may have ozone and hydrocarbon emissions. These must be labelled on MSDSs.
Refer to: Types of Contaminants (OH&S Notebook 6.1), Classification of Toxic Substances (OH&S Notebook 6.4); and Organic Solvents (Table 6.2).
Descriptions of controls should mention more than one approach (see Fig. 6.3, Engineering, Work Practices, and Medical Control Measures) for an overview of engineering, work practices, PPE, personal hygiene practices, good housekeeping, medical surveillance, and record-keeping controls.
38. Recalling the 12 toxic substances, what three would be the most likely to result in adverse health effects for firefighters?
ANSWER: Refer to OH&S Notebook 6.4 Classification of Toxic Substances. Irritants Neurotoxins
Asphyxiants Sensitizers
Anesthetics and Narcotics Lung Toxicants
Systemic Poisons Mutagens
Liver Toxicants Teratogens
Kidney Toxicants Carcinogens
Students should mention carcinogens (See OH&S Today 6.1, Bakers’ Asthma). Other probable substances include irritants, asphyxiants, lung toxicants, and possibly sensitizers.
39. List the eight general characteristics and properties that make solvents effective. Pick two of the eight and explain how
Chapter 6 - Biological and Chemical Agents
that characteristic/property would make a solvent hazardous.
ANSWER: a. Low surface tension allows for more effective skin absorption
b. High vapour pressure increases inhalation hazard, especially at higher temperatures
c. Low boiling point increases the rate of evaporation or generation of vapours
d. Low heat of vaporization increases rate of transformation into a gas/vapour
e. High volatility increases speed of evaporation and increases health and fire risk
f. Ability to dissolve fats dissolves skin’s surface oils making it more susceptible to infection or skin trauma
g. Flammability (flashpoint, lower explosion limit, upper explosion limit, auto-ignition temperature) substance (gas, liquid, solid) will ignite (take fire)
h. Vaporization amount (volume) of vapour that will form from a small amount of liquid
40. Chris’s restaurant in Halifax, Nova Scotia has just received a substandard evaluation from the Ministry of Agriculture’s restaurant inspector. The report cited the following problems: dirty conditions in the kitchen, leaking refrigeration units, unclean restrooms, cross-contamination (e.g. cutting raw meat and vegetables without cleaning or replacing the cutting board/knife), and inadequate ventilation in the kitchen. There have been a number of cases of food poisoning in the past six months (staff and customers). The restaurant’s negative rating has been posted on an online website available to current and potential customers, so Chris wants to get the problems fixed as soon as possible and have the notice removed. For each problem, identify the form and type of chemical and/or biological hazard involved. Discuss what controls Chris should put in place so that next time around the restaurant will receive a much more positive rating from the inspectors, making special note of new hazards that might arise while he is fixing the problems.
ANSWER:
Dirty kitchen bacteria in solid form (e.g. salmonella, streptococcus, E. coli, infectious hepatitis) and airborne solid form fungal agents (spores aspergillus and penicillium)
Leaking refrigeration units organic solvent in vapour form (aliphatic hydrocarbon)
Unclean restrooms bacteria is solid form or suspended in liquid (e.g. E. coli) and solid form virus (e.g. infectious hepatitis A)
Cross-contamination solid form bacteria and fungal agents (e.g. anthrax, brucellosis, dermatophytosis) if meat is infected
Inadequate ventilation solid form fungal agents as well as smoke and vapours from cooking which may contain metal particles from the pots being used
Engineering controls include buying new units or getting the refrigeration and ventilation systems fixed and tested by a professional as well as buying a large supply of dedicated cutting boards for each type of food (colour-coded).
Administrative controls include education and training about food hazards (cross-contamination, hand washing) and good housekeeping, starting with a complete and in-depth cleaning of all surfaces in the restaurant.
Personal protective equipment gloves (change regularly)
New hazards that could arise while they are cleaning the restaurant and fixing/replacing the units are disturbance of mould (on walls or in dust), further leakage from the units, and irritation or asphyxia from solvents used in cleaning. He should provide disposable protective clothing, gloves, and respirators to everyone involved in the cleaning or hire a professional cleaning crew. Fixing and replacing the refrigeration and ventilation units should be left to the professionals.
Chapter 7 - Psychosocial Hazards
1. A study completed by Morneau-Shepell suggest that what fraction of Canadian workers are more stressed now than they were five years ago?
a. a quarter b. a third
c. a half d. three-quarters
ANSWER: b
2. Technology-related stressors include all of the following factors EXCEPT
a. malfunctions. b. isolation.
c. privacy. d. ergonomics.
ANSWER: d
3. The psychosocial model of health used to discuss stress highlights which of the following factors?
a. social environment and psychological factors
b. organizational culture and physiological factors
c. social environment and physical factors
d. organizational culture and psychological factors
ANSWER: a
4. What two personality characteristics are particularly relevant to stress?
a. type A and B behaviour
b. type A and competitive behaviour
c. type A behaviour pattern and negative affectivity
d. negative affectivity and competitive behaviour
ANSWER: c
5. What type of moderator can aggravate an individual’s response to a stressor?
a. buffer b. risk factor
c. personality d. negative affectivity
ANSWER: b
6. What are the four categories of strain reactions?
a. organizational, physical, mental, and cognitive
b. behavioural, cognitive, organizational, and physical
c. psychological, physical, cognitive, and mental
d. psychological, physical, behavioural, and organizational
ANSWER: d
7. Which of the following is NOT a category conceptualized by the NIOSH model?
a. workload and work pace b. work scheduling
c. job content and control d. job design
ANSWER: d
8. According to the textbook, what is the main reason why organizations in the Mental Health Commission’s case study project wanted to focus on improving mental health in the workplace?
a. because of financial concerns b. because of a moral obligation
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- Psychosocial Hazards
c. to meet a legal requirement d. to reduce workplace accidents ANSWER: b
9. Which of the following is an example of a primary stress intervention?
a. talking with friends b. using relaxation techniques
c. providing flexible working conditions d. providing employee assistance programs ANSWER: c
10. What is an example of an individual tertiary stress intervention?
a. yoga classes
b. sick days and leave options
c. talking with friends and coworkers d. seeing a psychotherapist ANSWER: d
11. What is an example of an organizational secondary stress intervention?
a. offering PTSD counselling b. offering an on-site fitness centre
c. helping sick days and leave options d. providing flexible working conditions ANSWER: b
12. Why have primary stress interventions not been widely implemented in Canada?
a. union resistance b. employee resistance
c. supervisor resistance d. senior manager resistance ANSWER: d
13. What is experienced by an employee who feels that his salary is too low given his amount of responsibility and the long hours he works?
a. distributive injustice b. procedural injustice
c. interactional injustice d. distributive inequity
ANSWER: a
14. Which of the following is most likely to be an outcome of family-to-work conflict?
a. taking work home b. long lunch breaks
c. excessive overtime d. telecommuting ANSWER: b
15. What are the four components that researchers and practitioners of occupational health psychology focus on to reduce work-related psychosocial disorders?
a. organizational change, information, psychological health services, and surveillance
b. organizational change, information, psychological health services, and violence in the workplace
c. information, stress moderators, surveillance, and violence in the workplace
d. stress moderators, negative affectivity, depression at work, and information
ANSWER: a
16. Mateo is a medical resident who works long hours in a high-stress environment. He can’t cut back on his hours or the stressors, so to stay healthy and avoid strain he hits the gym several days a week. This is best described as which of the following?
Chapter 7 - Psychosocial Hazards
a. primary intervention b. secondary intervention
c. tertiary intervention d. appraisal-based coping
ANSWER: b
17. If an employer announces a layoff of 25% of employees, job insecurity would be what type of stressor?
a. acute b. chronic
c. daily d. catastrophic
ANSWER: a
18. Based on the factors identified in the NIOSH model of workplace stressors, whose job has the most potential to be stressful?
a. lower paid musician b. lower paid daycare worker
c. highly paid executive d. highly paid assembly line worker
ANSWER: d
19. What model would explain why Celeste is unaffected by a network outage, whereas Celine is screaming loudly at the office’s network administrator?
a. socio-technical model b. transactional model
c. NIOSH stressor model d. general adaptation syndrome model
ANSWER: b
20. Ergun works from a home office as a salesperson for a large drug company. How can his sales manager determine whether working from home is a psychosocial hazard for Ergun?
a. monitor his inventory of drug samples b. monitor his nervous mannerisms
c. monitor his email response time d. monitor his sales activity and results
ANSWER: d
Scenario 7-1
The life of a highly paid professional athlete would seem to be all positive, but evidence shows that many elite athletes are exposed to a range of workplace stressors that are both similar to and different from those experienced by those in more “typical” occupations. Many athletes experience depression and other mental health issues both during and after their playing career.
21. Refer to Scenario 7-1: If there are 20 Canadian players on a National Hockey League team (the rest are Americans and Europeans), according to Canadian statistics how many are likely to experience or be dealing with a mental health problem?
a. 2 b. 4
c. 6 d. 8
ANSWER: b
22. Refer to Scenario 7-1: Every athlete on a professional sports team is hired on a contract basis, with no guarantee of permanent employment. What type of stressor is contract negotiation?
a. acute b. daily
c. chronic d. catastrophic
ANSWER: a
Chapter 7 - Psychosocial Hazards
23. Refer to Scenario 7-1: Which of the following is a social moderator that could buffer athletes from experiencing negative effects of stress due to recent losses to other teams?
a. money b. positive affectivity
c. drugs and alcohol d. locker room jokes
ANSWER: d
24. Refer to Scenario 7-1: If the team provides laptops with Skype for communicating with family and friends while the team is on the road, what type of stress intervention would this be and what type of work–family conflict could it help to reduce?
a. individual primary intervention; work-to-family conflict
b. individual secondary intervention; family-to-work conflict
c. organizational primary intervention; family-to-work conflict
d. organizational secondary intervention; work-to-family conflict
ANSWER: d
25. Refer to Scenario 7-1: Playing time is something that athletes on sports teams monitor very closely and being “benched” not allowed to play their regular shifts can be very humiliating. However, if the coach does not bench an underperformer, what type of injustice might the rest of the team experience?
a. interactional injustice
b. interpersonal injustice
c. distributive injustice d. procedural injustice
ANSWER: c
26. Talking with friends and coworkers is an example of a secondary stress intervention.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
27. Offering on-site fitness centres is an example of a tertiary stress intervention.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
28. Cyberbullying (tweets, comments on Facebook) is a form of interactional injustice.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
29. Ruby Lee is always late to meetings, and her typical excuse is “I just tried to get one more thing done.” Javier Suarez is always on time and drums his fingers on the table while he waits for Ruby. Ruby and Javier are both Type A personalities.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
30. Asthma is correlated to stress.
a. True
Chapter 7 - Psychosocial Hazards
b. False
ANSWER: True
31. General adaption syndrome describes the body’s way of reducing stress as it continues to adapt to stressors
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
32. The Pfizer company bans emails between 6pm and 6am and on weekends to help manage the stress related to technology.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
33. Providing a coworker with positive feedback about a task they performed is an example of tangible support.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
34. Bridget is hard-driving, competitive, and is often impatient and irritable when dealing with time-sensitive work tasks; she has been categorized as having a type A personality. According to the research, Bridget’s personality is a stress moderator.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
35. A moderator is a variable that increases the negative effects of stress.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
36. Explain three reasons organization address the issues of mental health at work.
ANSWER: There are several reasons for organizations to address issues of mental health at work. The economic drivers are clear. Further, given the prevalence of workplace stressors and the number of employees affected, one might also consider a moral incentive for workplaces to focus on creating psychologically healthy work. Beyond these reasons, there are legal motivations for Canadian employers to focus on creating psychologically healthy workplaces. For instance, Canadian human rights tribunals are explicating the responsibility to accommodate mental illness at work. Workers’ compensation boards are increasingly addressing claims related to mental stress. Private insurers report skyrocketing “mental health” claim rates that now can account for the majority of costs attributable to short- and-long-term disability claims. Occupational health and safety acts are recognizing that psychological safety is part of a safe workplace. And cases across jurisdictions show that managers are being held accountable to understand how their actions affect others.
37. Identify and explain 5 of the 13 organizational factors that affect psychological health identified by CSA-Z1003-13.
ANSWER: Students can select 5 of any of the following 13 factors.
• Organizational culture. The culture reflects trust, respect, civility, and fairness.
Chapter 7 - Psychosocial Hazards
• Psychological and social support. Workers experience supportive social interactions with coworkers and supervisors.
• Clear leadership and expectations. Leadership communicates clear expectations to employees about their work roles and organizational change.
• Civility and respect. Workers are respectful and considerate of each other and with clients.
• Psychological demands. The psychological demands of the job are recognized and assessed with respect to their potential impact on worker well-being.
• Growth and development. Employees are supported to develop skills.
• Recognition and reward. Workers’ efforts are acknowledged and appreciated.
• Involvement and influence. Workers are able to influence the work process and important work decisions.
• Workload management. Tasks can be accomplished within the available timeframe.
• Engagement. Workers feel motivated and connected to their work.
• Balance. The workplace accepts that there needs to be balance between personal, family, and work aspects of life.
• Psychological protection. Workers feel they can ask questions, report mistakes, or propose ideas without fear of reprisal.
• Protection of physical safety. Workers are protected from risks in the physical environment.
38. Describe the four strategies researchers and practitioners of occupational health psychology rely on to help reduce work-related psychological disorders.
ANSWER: Researchers and practitioners of occupational health psychology rely on the following to help reduce workrelated psychological disorders:
a) A focus on organizational change. Organizational change is possible and is at times necessary to reduce psychosocial hazards in the workplace.
b) A focus on information. Workers should be provided with information, education, and training regarding psychosocial hazards and psychological health at work.
c) A focus on psychological health services. Enriched services for the promotion of psychological well-being and the treatment of psychological symptoms (e.g., employee assistance programs, inclusion of preventive services in benefits plans) should be provided to employees.
d) A focus on surveillance. The surveillance and monitoring of psychosocial risk factors and psychological disorders should be routine in organizations.
39. How can an employer or human resource manager manage mental health illness in the workplace?
ANSWER: Employers and HRMs can apply a preventive stress management framework. The basic principle of this framework is that the health of an organization and the health of its employees are interdependent. Strategies can be implemented at both the individual and the organizational levels. Ideally, stress management programs will include both organizational and individual interventions designed to reduce exposure to stressors, reduce the experience of stress when stressors are unavoidable, and swiftly provide treatment options to those individuals who are experiencing the negative consequences of stress. Primary interventions are the only truly preventive mechanism, but secondary and tertiary interventions can prevent stress and strain from getting worse.
Primary Interventions: involve reducing or removing the actual stressors and are highly effective in reducing work-related stress and strain. The idea is that the removal of sources of stress from the workplace should reduce employee stress and strain. (Individual Interventions: avoid taking on an overload of work, take adequate leisure time, try to reduce Type A behaviour; Organizational Interventions: redesign particularly demanding jobs, respect employees’ opinions in management decision-making processes, provide flexible working conditions.)
Secondary Interventions: focus on minimizing negative outcomes once a person is feeling stress. Techniques
Chapter 7 - Psychosocial Hazards
such as stress management and relaxation training help people identify the negative health effects of stress. This approach often involves teaching effective coping strategies; appropriate strategies for managing stress can lessen the negative effects of stress on health. (Individual Interventions: talk with friends and coworkers, make time to exercise, use relaxation techniques; Organizational Interventions: provide comprehensive benefits programs, offer on-site fitness centres, ensure balanced nutrition on the cafeteria menu.)
Tertiary Interventions: include psychological therapy and medical attention strategies that are applied after the fact to help those individuals who have not been able to manage workplace stress effectively and who are now experiencing symptoms of strain. In the event that stressors and stress are not adequately dealt with via primary and secondary efforts, it is important to consider tertiary interventions strategies that organizations and individuals can use to treat employees’ symptoms of strain. (Individual Interventions: seek medical treatment, participate in psychological counselling; Organizational Interventions: offer benefits packages with sick days and leave options, provide counselling services following major stressors, support employee efforts to find appropriate medical or psychological care.)
40. Imagine you are currently the human resource director for a small to medium-sized organization. You are aware that perceived injustice in workplaces is a stressor and you would like to minimize the extent to which your employees are exposed to this type of work stress. Give some examples of how you might maximize employee-perceived distributive, procedural, and interactional fairness. What outcomes would signal that employees are beginning to feel that the workplace is unfair?
ANSWER: An emerging employee stressor is injustice in the workplace, which is the concern that employees who experience unfairness in their workplace also experience higher levels of workplace stress and strain. As the human resource manager, you want to ensure that employees are managed equitably by incorporating the following: interactional justice (fairness of interpersonal treatment), distributive justice (fairness of outcomes), and procedural justice (fairness of processes). The implementation of leadership training, performance management systems, continuous employee feedback and participative decision-making processes maximize employee-perceived interactional, distributive, and procedural fairness. Workplace practices that increase employees’ perceived unfairness reduce employee commitment and retention, and increase absenteeism.
41. If an organization is concerned about work–family conflict, what aspects of work–family conflict should it identify and address to fully understand the issue?
ANSWER: More and more workers are facing childcare demands in dual-income households, resulting in working parents being torn between work demands and their childcare responsibilities. Work–family conflict is defined as a type of inter-role conflict in which the role pressures experienced in the work and family domains are incompatible. Participation in one role is made more difficult by virtue of participation in the other.
However, work–family conflict is bi-directional: work may interfere with a person’s ability to meet family demands (work-to-family conflict), and family responsibilities may interfere with an individual’s ability to keep pace with work demands (family-to-work conflict).
Several elements of work and family roles contribute to work–family conflict. One is the amount of time a person spends in each role, or a person’s behavioural involvement in each role. Generally speaking, the more time that is dedicated to one role means less time available to spend in the other role. A person’s psychological involvement, the degree to which a person identifies with a particular role and sees the role as central to his or her self-concept, can also be a predictor of work–family conflict.
Both work-to-family and family-to-work conflicts are associated with negative consequences. The outcomes tend to be in the opposite domain from the cause of the conflict. Work-to-family conflict tends to affect family-related outcomes (reduced performance in the family role, absences from family events), and familyto-work conflict tends to affect work-related outcomes (decreased work performance and absenteeism from work).
Chapter 8 - Workplace Violence, Aggression, and Harassment
1. Physical assault is to violence as rude behaviour is to a. aggression. b. incivility.
c. mobbing. d. sexual coercion.
ANSWER: b
2. Which Canadian province has the narrowest definition of workplace violence and aggression?
a. Ontario b. Quebec
c. Manitoba d. Nova Scotia
ANSWER: d
3. According to the definition provided in the text, which of the following is the best example of workplace incivility?
a. sharing sexually inappropriate images via email
b. sabotaging a co-worker’s lunch (e.g., spitting in it)
c. interrupting a colleague when they speak
d. verbally attacking a co-worker over religious beliefs
ANSWER: c
4. What differentiates incivility from bullying?
a. the physical aspect of bullying
b. the deliberate intent of incivility
c. the lack of consequences for bullying
d. the lack of a pattern of deliberate behaviour
ANSWER: d
5. It is 8 o’clock in the evening. Nina, who is employed as a welder in a pipe factory, is supposed to be ending her shift. Nina has decided to stay after work to help clean after maintenance work that occurred earlier in the day. Nina frequently stays past the end of her shift to avoid encountering several of her co-workers who regularly gather in the parking lot near her car wherein they often swear at Nina and threaten to sabotage her welding equipment. Which of the following best describes what Nina is experiencing at work?
a. incivility b. aggression
c. sexual harassment d. racism
ANSWER: b
6. According to the Francis and Kelloway study, what percentage of Nova Scotia respondents reported experiencing reported being treated with disrespect?
a. 10 .9% b. 35 6%
c. 44.9% d. 55.9%%
ANSWER: c
7. What common approach is used to categorize workplace violence?
a. the type of workplace involved
b. the type of aggressive behaviour
c. the relationship between the work tasks and work schedule
d. the relationship between the assailant and the victim
ANSWER: d
Chapter 8 - Workplace Violence, Aggression, and Harassment
8. What is Type I violence usually associated with?
a. commission of a crime b. working night shifts
c. dealing with patients d. angry and hostile coworkers
ANSWER: a
9. Results of the Nova Scotia Workplace Stress Survey demonstrated which of the following forms of physical violence were most likely to be perpetrated by members of the public?
a. threatening with weapon
b. threatening and threatening with weapon
c. object throwing
d. hitting, object throwing, threatening, threatening with weapon
ANSWER: c
10. Most workplace homicides in the United States are perpetrated by which of the following?
a. spouses or partners b. members of the public
c. terrorists d. unhappy employees
ANSWER: b
11. According to research cited in the text, which of the following industries reports high rates of non-fatal assaults?
a. air transportation b. c onstruction
c. farming d. social services
ANSWER: d
12. According to the text, what is the definition of imminent risk?
a. the short-term risk of violence occurring in a future situation
b. the short-term risk of violence occurring in the current situation
c. violence occurring only after a period of escalation
d. the long-term risk of experiencing violence
ANSWER: b
13. What behaviours are represented by the SAV-T acronym?
a. swearing, agitation, volume, threat b. shouting, agitation, volume, threat
c. swearing, acting-out, vandalism, threat d. shouting, agitation, acting-out, vandalism
ANSWER: a
14. The express line at the grocery store is moving slowly because customers will not abide by the eight items or less policy, and the cashiers are allowing them through. What type of workplace violence could result from the supervisor’s failure to monitor the express line?
a. Type 1 b. Type 2
c. Type 3 d. Type 4
ANSWER: b
15. What is an organizational strategy for reducing the risk of Type II violence for teachers?
a. bolting desks to the floor
Chapter 8 - Workplace Violence, Aggression, and Harassment
b. holding a workshop on conflict management
c. installing small windows in all classroom doors
d. having students and parents sign an Acceptable Code of Conduct
ANSWER: d
16. What is the second step in managing workplace violence?
a. risk mitigation b. education and training
c. workplace violence policy d. risk assessment
ANSWER: d
17. One of the few evaluated intervention programs for addressing workplace abuse is called CREW. What does this acronym stand for?
a. civility, respect, engagement, and workplace abuse
b. civility, recognition, and engagement in the workplace
c. civility, respect, and engagement in the workplace
d. civility, recognition, engagement, and workplace abuse
ANSWER: c
18. What is the most immediate outcome of sexual harassment?
a. increased job dissatisfaction
b. increased intent to leave the organization
c. increased complaints to senior management
d. increased intent to file a lawsuit
ANSWER: a
19. Based on the Supreme Court ruling, what type of workplace romance carries the lowest risk of a possible sexual harassment situation?
a. male boss, female employee b. female boss, male employee
c. female employee, male customer d. male employee, male boss
ANSWER: d
Scenario 8-1
Employment in the fast food industry (e.g. McDonald’s, Tim Hortons, Wendy’s, and so on) is a way of earning money for everyone from teenagers to senior citizens. The long hours of operation lend themselves to a series of shifts that fit the needs of students, homemakers, and retired persons. While rare, the possibility of workplace violence exists in this industry and no one who works there is immune.
20. Refer to Scenario 8-1: If a group of coworkers were ostracizing a fellow coworker by refusing to talk to them and making derogatory comments about them within their hearing, what term would best describe this behaviour?
a. assault b. bullying
c. incivility d. gossiping
ANSWER: b
21. Refer to Scenario 8-1: What would be the most representative example of Type IV workplace violence at a fast food restaurant?
a. an angry customer shouting at the cashier
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Chapter 8 - Workplace Violence, Aggression, and Harassment
b. a former employee attacking their supervisor
c. a former girlfriend/boyfriend texting someone 50 times in a shift
d. a robber waving a weapon and asking for all the money in the cash drawers
ANSWER: c
22. Refer to Scenario 8-1: What is the most likely target hardening strategy that fast food restaurants would use to protect against Type I violence?
a. installing closed-circuit televisions and video cameras
b. installing bullet-resistant barriers and revolving doors
c. keeping as little cash as possible in cash drawers
d. training employees on how to behave when threatened with assault
ANSWER: d
23. Refer to Scenario 8-1: Most fast food restaurants are franchises that are identical/very similar in appearance and identical in operating procedures. What factor would explain why employees at Location A might have a higher risk of Type III workplace violence than at Location B?
a. Location A is in a higher crime area.
b. Location B enforces the prohibition on workplace romances.
c. Location A’s manager displays favouritism when scheduling employees.
d. Location B is near a number of retirement communities.
ANSWER: c
24. Refer to Scenario 8-1: In today’s world, employees of fast food chains may also experience workplace violence from terrorist acts that occur in or near their premises. What control mechanism would offer the best means of protecting workers in these situations?
a. employee training in emergency procedures
b. installation of surveillance cameras
c. employee training on terrorist recognition
d. installation of bullet-proof glass and windows
ANSWER: a
25. Refer to Scenario 8-1: According to Canadian data, what type of sexual harassment would a fast food employee be most likely to experience at work?
a. inappropriate touching b. sexual coercion
c. unwanted stares d. sexual gestures
ANSWER: d
26. Websites such as RateMyProfessors.com and RateMyMD.com offer valid consumer protection for students and patients.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
27. The Canada Labour Code does not address sexual coercion.
a. True
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Chapter 8 - Workplace Violence, Aggression, and Harassment
b. False
ANSWER: False
28. Employee training is a type of target hardening.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
29. The assault cycle identifies the cause of an individual act of aggression.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
30. There are no comparable national studies of workplace violence in Canada.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
31. Because Simone works at a nursing home, she is at a greater risk for experiencing a violent act than Sylvia who works for a paper distribution company.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
32. While employers are liable for sexual harassment, the person directly responsible for protecting employees from sexual harassment is the supervisor.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
33. Violence with labour disputes have decreased since 1995.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
34. Employees who have had workplace violence training will be better able to manage imminent risk because of perceived control.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
35. It is difficult to win a sexual harassment case because the aggressor can just claim that they did not mean anything by their comments/actions.
a. True
b. False
Chapter 8 - Workplace Violence, Aggression,
and Harassment
ANSWER: False
36. Describe the measures that a human resources manager can take to develop and implement a workplace violence prevention program.
ANSWER: Employers and/or human resource managers can develop workplace violence policies and programs that address the specific needs of their organization and workers by initially conducting a risk assessment. A risk assessment should take into consideration the location, nature, and circumstances of the business or industry in which they are engaged. The assessment should also take into consideration the number and nature of previous incidents of violence at the workplace over a period of at least one year. After conducting a needs assessment, the employer and/or human resource manager should develop a workplace violence prevention policy and program that is specific to their organization. Organizations and human resource managers need to confront any problems of violence proactively and strategically through alignment with their business plan and all the human resource management functions, ranging from job analysis to orientation, training, and performance management that make safety an important criterion of acceptable job performance. A comprehensive workplace violence program should include:
• A written policy that conforms to relevant legislation
• Creation of a violence prevention program
• Creation of an emergency response plan
• The addition of workplace violence in work refusal policies
• Procedures for recognizing and dealing with incidents of domestic violence
• Procedure for training
All threats of violence must be taken seriously. Human resource managers must stay within their area of competence and involve the proper authorities or specialists as needed.
37. A workplace harassment policy should include a provision for the investigation and resolution of incidents. List the recommended elements an investigation policy might include and describe at least one difficulty associated with investigating workplace harassment.
ANSWER: The recommended steps of an investigation process include the following: Provision to individuals to file a complaint
∙ The conduct of an investigation by a neutral third party as soon as possible after the complaint has been filed
∙ Consultation with each of the parties involved (i.e., the victim and the alleged perpetrator)
∙ Evidence gathering (including interviewing witnesses, etc.) and decision making Communicating the decision to the parties with a proposed resolution
∙ Documenting the process and maintaining records
Any such investigation procedure should accommodate the possibility of appeals.
Students can list any of the difficulties associated with investigating an incident; however, the main issue with harassment incidents is how harassment is defined and managed within legislation. Harassing behaviours can vary from rudeness (slamming a door) to hostile acts such as sabotage. Therefore, some complaints can be difficult to investigate because it is challenging to determine whether the act was intentional or whether it was the result of an inattentive individual. Additionally, linking the incident to how harassment is defined within legislation and the obligations of employers to deal with harassment may not be clear in order to appropriately investigate and resolve the situation.
38. Discuss the four types of workplace violence and identify which one(s) would be more likely to be experienced by a jewellery store employee, a daycare worker, a firefighter, and a software engineer.
ANSWER: A common approach to categorizing workplace violence focuses on the relationship between the assailant and the victim. Various “types” of violence are considered based on who the perpetrator is.
• Type I violence is associated with criminal activity, such as an assault or homicide that occurs in the context of a robbery. The violence is committed by someone with no legitimate relationship to the organization.
• Type II violence is also committed by a non-organizational member but is not typically associated with other
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Chapter 8 - Workplace Violence, Aggression, and Harassment
forms of criminal activity. It is sometimes referred to as “client-perpetrated violence.”
• Type III violence is violence perpetrated by organizational “insiders”; examples include coworker assaults and acts committed by employees of the organization.
• Type IV violence is committed by the spouse or partner of the victim and is more properly seen as family/spousal or intimate partner violence that happens to occur in the workplace.
Jewellery store employee higher risk of experiencing Type I violence
Daycare worker higher risk of experiencing Type II violence
Firefighter and software engineer highest risk would be Type III violence
39. Describe the four ways in which partner violence can play out in the workplace.
ANSWER: There are several ways that intimate partner violence can plays out in the workplace; however, there are four core areas discussed in the text, as follows:
a) When one partner arrives at the workplace and assaults the other.
b) A partner may stalk the other person, including by sending emails and text messages to the workplace and by waiting outside the workplace for the partner.
c) Sabotaging the other’s ability to get to, or do, work. Denying access to a home computer or hiding the car keys are frequently noted ways of sabotaging a partner.
d) Even when events do not occur in the workplace, individuals victimized by a partner are unlikely to be able to perform their work to their full potential as a result of the ongoing strain involved.
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Chapter 9 - Training
1. Which of the following would you do during your training initiative if you were applying the behaviourist perspective to learning?
a. allow existing employees to evaluate the behaviours of trainees
b. allow trainees to observe others on the job
c. provide rewards immediately following the demonstration of a desired behaviour
d. allow trainees to directly participate in simulations
ANSWER: c
2. Which of the following data would you use if you wanted to determine whether a training program was effective at the organizational performance level?
a. workers’ compensation claims and costs b. employee complaints
c. trainer feedback
ANSWER: a
d. attendance
3. What three-part process comprises the ISD model of training?
a. needs analysis, training content, and evaluation
b. needs analysis, organizational analysis, and job analysis
c. needs analysis, training design and delivery, and training evaluation
d. training objectives, training content, and learning theory
ANSWER: c
4. A good training evaluator will compare post training performance to which of the following?
a. performance before the training b. a control group
c. industry performance
ANSWER: a
d. safety climate audit results
5. What common individual needs assessment technique would work best for isolating whether training should focus on knowledge rather than skills?
a. past observations of the worker at work
b. bringing the worker in to do a work sample
c. having them take an online/pen and paper test
d. observing a group of their peers
ANSWER: c
6. What is the first question that needs to be answered for training design and delivery?
a. What are the objectives for the training?
b. Who will deliver the training?
c. What is the appropriate content for the training?
d. Will the training program be designed or purchased?
ANSWER: a
7. According to Kirkpatrick’s hierarchical training evaluation model, four measures provide insight into the effectiveness of a training program, with succeeding levels providing increasingly important information. What is the correct order of this hierarchy?
a. learn the material, positive reactions, apply learning to workplace, positive organizational outcomes
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b. positive reactions, learn the material, apply learning to workplace, positive organizational outcomes
c. learn the material, positive organizational outcomes, apply learning to workplace, positive reactions
d. positive reactions, learn the material, positive organizational outcomes, apply learning to workplace
ANSWER: b
8. Which training delivery method is considered a form of off-the-job training?
a. coaching b. role play
c. mentoring d. job instruction
ANSWER: b
9. During what type of training would you most likely be asked to participate in a role play?
a. social learning b. behavioural learning
c. experiential learning d. simulation learning
ANSWER: c
10. According to social learning theory, what four mental processes facilitate social learning?
a. attention, memory, social learning, engagement
b. motivation, engagement, attention, and social learning
c. attention, memory, motor control, and motivation
d. motor control, social learning, attention, and motivation
ANSWER: c
11. According to research, what approach to learning has been shown to have a stronger and more durable effect on behaviour in terms of health and safety training initiatives?
a. active learning b. group learning
c. videos and simulations d. Web-based learning
ANSWER: a
12. Even before the training begins, what type of trainee reaction can you start assessing?
a. affective reaction b. behavioural reaction
c. utility-based reaction d. economic reaction
ANSWER: c
13. How might an OH&S training program evaluator assess on-the-job behavioural change following a training program?
a. ask the trainees whether they found the training useful
b. test the trainees on the content of the training session
c. observe changes in the organization’s lost-time injury rates
d. have trainees or supervisors complete a behavioural inventory
ANSWER: d
14. Why is the distribution of data concerning major incidents and fatalities skewed rather than normally distributed, making it difficult to use this to assess training effectiveness?
a. more reporting of minor rather than major incidents
b. major accidents and fatalities are relatively rare
Chapter 9 - Training
c. distinct differences between how occupational injuries are defined
d. underrepresentation of subsequent time lost due to an earlier injury
ANSWER: d
15. What is the first step in any training program?
a. deciding on build or buy b. assessing training needs
c. determining the training objectives d. determining the training content
ANSWER: b
16. Which of the following should have the most influence on a training program’s content?
a. evaluation and environmental constraints
b. needs assessment and environmental constraints
c. learning objectives and evaluation
d. needs assessment and learning objectives
ANSWER: d
17. What factor makes it more difficult to improve subsequent training programs?
a. the lack of learning principles
b. the lack of program evaluation
c. the lack of effective trainer instruction d. the lack of relevant training content
ANSWER: b
18. The overall goal of training evaluation is to measure what criterion?
a. organizational results and reduced costs
b. behavioural changes and transfer of learning
c. the value added to the organization and its employees
d. employee perceptions and attitudes toward safety
ANSWER: c
19. When do trainees engage in physical or social events that are designed to re-create real situations?
a. simulations b. role-play
c. case incident d. games
ANSWER: a
20. Which of the following results is NOT an organizational outcome commonly assessed following training initiatives?
a. incident, injury, and fatality rates b. employee benefit costs
c. presenteeism d. near-misses
ANSWER: c
21. Evaluation of procedural understanding provides evidence that trainees have acquired understanding in regard to what aspect of job-related knowledge or skills?
a. when to use new knowledge/skills
b. where to use new knowledge/skills
c. how to use new knowledge/skills
d. why they should use new knowledge/skills
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ANSWER: d
22. What is the main reason for putting current workers through a train the trainer program, rather than hiring professional trainers?
a. other workers find them engaging
b. they are cheaper than professional trainers
c. they have experience-based knowledge
d. it helps to keep company procedures private
ANSWER: c
23. What is a component of the training needs analysis process during which individual employees’ behaviour is studied to identify gaps in performance?
a. person analysis
c. organization analysis
ANSWER: a
b. safety climate analysis
d. task analysis
24. Which health and safety jurisdictions incorporate WHMIS training?
a. federal, provincial, and territorial
c. territorial
ANSWER: a
b. provincial
d. federal and provincial
25. Successful training initiatives should be in line with which of the following?
a. overall injury rates b. overall organizational strategy
c. needs of supervisors d. employee satisfaction levels
ANSWER: b
26. Vulnerable workers, including less educated workers, low-wage earners, and non-union members, face greater barriers to OH&S training.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
27. Examination of the organization’s safety climate is one way to determine the extent of organizational support for an OH&S training program.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
28. A person analysis is a requirement of a safety climate audit.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
29. The ISD model as it relates to OH&S emphasizes the importance of conducting a needs analysis before training is provided.
Chapter 9 - Training
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
30. The number of employees required to have certification in first aid is the same across all industries.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
31. It is better to train a large group of employees all at once to ensure everyone gets the same message.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
32. The best method an HR manager should use to gather individual reactions to training is an anonymous feedback/suggestion box.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
33. A core element underpinning the CSA Z1001 standard for training is continuous improvement.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
34. Keeping detailed OH&S training records is primarily done for the purposes of avoiding lawsuits in the event of an incident.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
35. Training in occupational health and safety must be meticulously documented.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
36. Explain why integrating health and safety into new employee orientation is so important and identify at least three OH&S topics an employee orientation program should include.
ANSWER: Organizations with successful safety programs and safety records often begin to emphasize health and safety through an orientation program at the time employees are first hired. Integrating health and safety into the employee orientation program ensures that all employees are provided with a base level of health and safety training; it also reinforces the development of a safety climate in the workplace. Though the details will vary with the needs of specific workplaces, a general orientation to health and safety can and should include the following:
• fire and emergency safety procedures
• incident policies (e.g., reporting, procedures for obtaining first aid)
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• hazards unique to the workplace (e.g., material hazards, chemical hazards, physical hazards)
• protective personal equipment (e.g., how to obtain, how to use)
• WHMIS training
• the role of the joint occupational health and safety committee
• the roles and responsibilities of individual employees
• job-specific safety procedures (e.g., proper lifting technique, decontamination, lockout procedures)
• housekeeping and safety awareness
37. Develop an occupational health and safety orientation checklist that will ensure employees are provided with a basic level of health and safety training and will reinforce the development of a safety climate.
ANSWER: A general orientation to occupational health and safety should include the following information through a process of encouraging and including questions, demonstrations, practice sessions, observations, and monitoring of progress once the employee is working on the job:
fire and emergency safety procedures incident policies (e.g. reporting, first aid) unique hazards to that workplace (materials, chemicals, physical) protective personal equipment (how to obtain, proper use)
· WHMIS training
· role of Joint Health And Safety Committee role and responsibilities of individual employees
· job-specific safety procedures (e.g. lifting, decontamination, lockout)
· housekeeping and safety awareness
38. Think back to various jobs that you have held. What types of occupational health and safety training did you receive? What training processes made the training programs effective? What specific organizational outcomes indicated the value of the training program to the organization and the individual employees?
ANSWER: Successful training initiatives follow the instructional systems design model of training, which requires understanding the needs of the organization, job, and individuals; developing training objectives and methods based on these needs; using adult learning principles and participation to ensure that learning is transferred to the job; and auditing and evaluating the learning. Trainers and methods should be used that engage trainees as much as possible to motivate learning. Trainees should know why they are going to training and what benefits training will provide to them.
Employers and human resource managers need to create data systems to review, identify, and analyze absenteeism; disability management practices; policies; trends; extended health care and benefit costs; health and safety issues; workplace issues; health promotion programs; accident, injury, and fatality rates; the incidence of “close calls”; lost-time injuries; workers’ compensation claims and costs; and safety inspection reports. This data is also essential in measuring improvements and obtaining and maintaining organizational support for workplace training programs. This data will answer critical questions concerning the organization’s direct and indirect health costs and the effect of the organization’s investment into training programs.
39. Describe the instructional systems design model of training.
ANSWER: The ISD is a general model of the training process that incorporates needs analysis, training design and delivery, and training evaluation, and that notes the interdependencies among the three major components of the training process.
a) Needs analysis: organizational, job/task, and, person
The training and development process begins when a need or concern arises. Needs analysis is the
Chapter 9 - Training
recommended starting point in many models of organizational training because it helps determine the nature of the problem. It is intended to identify employee and organizational deficiencies that can be addressed with training and to recognize potential obstacles to the success of a training program. Such an analysis ideally includes assessing the organization, the task or job at hand, and the employee(s) in question
Organizational analysis: an analysis of the entire organization designed to examine its resources, strategy, and environment in order to assess the organization’s support for training.
Job/task analysis: a component of the training needs analysis process during which the jobs and specific job tasks that are in need of training are identified and studied. Once the target job has been identified, obtain a detailed job description that outlines the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of individuals who hold that position.
Person analysis: a component of the training needs analysis process during which individual employees’ behaviour is studied to identify gaps in performance. The ultimate goal is to determine who needs training.
b) Training design and delivery: training objectives, training content, delivery, participants
Following the needs analysis, an informed decision can be made about the potential effectiveness of training as an option for addressing concerns. Several decisions need to be made based on information gathered from the needs assessment.
Objectives for training: what do you hope the trainees take away from the program? The training objectives will touch on the knowledge, skills, and behavioural changes that will be acquired through training. Objectives set the groundwork for the needed training content, and provide a starting point for tools for evaluating the effectiveness of the training program.
Will the training program be designed or purchased: in many cases the purchase of an existing pre-packaged program is more economical and will meet the needs of the organization. When the program’s content is highly specific to the organization, custom program design may be necessary.
What is the appropriate content for the training: important for the program to match the needs identified in the needs analysis and that it allow trainees to achieve the training objectives. It may be necessary to consult subject matter experts.
Who will receive the training: will depend on whether the training is required by law, whether it is required for all new employees, and who needs the training.
Who will deliver the training: an effective trainer is vital to a successful training program. The trainer should be knowledgeable about the material as well as an effective communicator (train the trainer programs). Where will the training take place: will the training take place on the job, off the job, or on the Web? This will depend on the type of training employees will receive.
Delivery: what learning approach will be used? Behaviourist perspective: characterizes learning in terms of observable stimuli and responses, without reference to any activity that occurs inside the individual. Social learning theory: reflects a cognitive approach to learning, its premise is that people learn by observing others. Experiential learning: a process aimed at developing knowledge and skills.
c) Training evaluation: reactions, learning, behaviour, organizational results*
Training evaluation: a component of the ISD training model designed to assess the value added for individuals and organizations following the implementation of a training program. Information can be used to identify strengths and weaknesses in the training program, and can be used to estimate the economic value of a training program. Kirkpatrick’s hierarchical model suggests that there are four important measures that will provide insight into the effectiveness of a training program.
a) Did the trainees have positive reactions to the training?
b) Did the trainees learn the material covered in the training?
c) Did the trainees apply what they learned in training and realize a change in their work behaviour?
d) Did the organization see positive organizational results following training?
*See Figure 9.1 for more information.
40. As mentioned in Chapter 8, working alone increases the risk of workplace violence in many occupations, such as taxi drivers, gas station attendants, and home care workers.
Chapter 9 - Training
Discuss how training can help to reduce the risk of workplace violence for isolated workers and use instructional systems design to develop a program for one of the above groups.
ANSWER: Training helps to inform workers of hazards, to make them aware and competent in terms of safe practices, and evaluation of training can help to assess whether workers have a higher perception of control and whether the incidence and/or severity of work-related violence has gone down.
Answers should be specific in terms of the occupation in question and comprehensive in terms of covering all three aspects of instructional systems design (needs analysis, training design and delivery, and training evaluation). Training delivery should recognize that on-the-job training may be difficult for cost and staffing reasons, so other channels should be explored.
41. Design a training program for managers and supervisors so that they will be prepared to deal with domestic violence in the workplace. Discuss the benefits of such a training program but also the challenges associated with getting organizational support and trainee participation.
ANSWER: Answers should follow the instructional systems design process (needs analysis, training design and delivery, and training evaluation). Careful attention should be paid to training delivery to promote engagement in order to change attitudes as well as demonstrate and develop appropriate behaviours (e.g. how do you ask what is going on if an employee’s domestic partner is calling or texting all the time and they seem frightened or upset). Organizational support may be hesitant for legal reasons or because the organization is unaware of how many employees have or may be experiencing domestic violence in the workplace and that they have a responsibility to do something about it. Good answers will recognize that the utility of the training may be welcomed by some managers and supervisors, even if they do not have an immediate need for it. They should also recognize that some managers and supervisors may be reluctant to participate in training on a nontechnical subject, especially if they have not run into this situation in the past or do not anticipate it happening in the future.
42. Why is training evaluation important? Describe Kirkpatrick’s four levels of training evaluation, including the type of information collected and the methods that can be used to collect the information.
ANSWER: Training evaluation measures the economic value and organizational results achieved through the training. It provides information on whether the learning outcomes from the needs assessment and objectives were achieved and/or any improvements that need to be made. Determining the cost/benefits of a training program will help justify the value of continued training initiatives.
Level of Evaluation Type of Information Collected Evaluation Methods
1. Reaction and planned reaction
• What are participants’ reactions to the program?
• What do they plan to do with what they learned?
• Opinions, attitudes
• Perceptions of the usefulness
• Questionnaires
• Action plans
• Surveys
• Focus groups
• Interviews
2. Learning
• What skills, knowledge, or attitudes have changed?
• By how much?
• Information recall
• Assessment of knowledge:
• Tests
• Questionnaires
• Surveys
• Simulations
• Role-plays
3. Applied learning to on-the-job behaviour
• Did participants apply what they learned on the job?
• Performance change
• Behavioural change
• Rating forms
• Self-reports
• Training evaluator observation
• Supervisors’ reports
• Questionnaires
• Interviews
• Follow-up sessions
• Action plans
• On-the-job observations and performance
4. Organizational results and outcomes
• Did the on-the-job application produce measurable results?
• Did the monetary value of the results exceed the cost of the program?
• Comparisons between the organization’s performance prior to and after training • Organizational records
• Performance tracking
• Analysis of organizational data and records (information systems)
• Questionnaires
• Cost-effectiveness variables
• Cost–benefit analysis
The assessment of occupational health and safety organizational outcomes usually involves a review and analysis of human resource information systems data, which may include accident, injury, and fatality rates; incidence of “close calls”; injury data analysis; first aid records; lost-time injuries; absenteeism and turnover; workers’ compensation; LTD and STD claims and costs; disability and return-to-work reports; employee benefits and extended health care costs; and a variety of health and safety reports (e.g., investigation reports).
Chapter 10 - Motivation and Safety Management Systems
1. What is motivation based on one’s interest and enjoyment?
a. amotivation b. extrinsic motivation
c. intrinsic motivation d. compliance
ANSWER: c
2. Which of the following factors is a core component of self-determination theory?
a. motivators b. legislation
c. training d. goals
ANSWER: a
3. Brenda recently started a new job wherein she is responsible for supporting the implementation of a leadership development program. Brenda is eager to help her company and is excited at the opportunity to improve her company’s performance. Brenda requests a meeting with her boss to go over the goals and objectives that she is to achieve over the next year. Brenda’s boss replies to her questions with “your goal is to make it happen.” Brenda leaves the meeting feeling uncertain and overwhelmed about what exactly she is to accomplish. According to the goal-setting theory, what should Brenda’s boss have done to ensure she stays motivated?
a. provide Brenda with the company’s safety climate survey results so she can identify the problems
b. provide Brenda with more specific goals about what she is to achieve
c. ask Brenda why she is eager and excited to support the initiative
d. introduce Brenda to a mentor within the organization to ensure she can set organization-specific goals
ANSWER: b
4. What equation defines safety performance?
a. Safety performance = Ability × Motivation × Opportunity
b. Safety performance = Ability + Motivation + Opportunity
c. Safety performance = Skill + Knowledge + Ability
d. Safety performance = Skill × Knowledge × Ability
ANSWER: a
5. What is the basic model underlying most applications of behavioural programming in the workplace?
a. respectful workplaces b. trigger ? consequence? behaviour
c. antecedent ? behaviour ? consequence d. antecedent ? results? behaviour
ANSWER: c
6. When planning behaviour based safety programs that include incentives, what do planners need to ensure?
a. that feedback is not used as an incentive
b. that incentives are used in place in employee training
c. that incentive programs manipulate employees’ behaviour
d. that incentives are tied to behaviours under individual control
ANSWER: d
7. Which of the following is a dimension for characterizing behavioural consequences?
a. immediate or delayed b. short-term or long-term
c. limited or extensive d. compliance or performance
ANSWER: a
Chapter 10 - Motivation and Safety Management Systems
8. What goal-setting technique explained why a larger proportion of one group of university staff members attended a health and safety training session, compared to the lower attendance seen in a second group of staff members?
a. They were given a more difficult goal.
b. They were given a more specific goal.
c. They were more committed to the goal.
d. They received more feedback about their progress.
ANSWER: c
9. A group of friends are studying for a safety certification. They have each made a goal to help keep them on track. All else equal, who is most likely to achieve his goal?
a. Joe plans to study three hours/day, six days a week
b. Zheng plans to study as often as he can during the week
c. Andrew plans to review the chapters and revise his notes for an hour on Mondays, Wednesdays, and Fridays, and check in with an online practice quiz once a week
d. Dimitri plans to review the chapters and revise his notes for an hour on Mondays, Wednesdays, and Fridays
ANSWER: c
10. The tire plant where Tariq works has explicitly enacted policies on safety, encourages safety-related training, and promotes safety. Which of the following does this plant have?
a. a strong safety climate b. an excellent safety record
c. a behaviour-based approach d. a lot of resources
ANSWER: a
11. Which of the following describes the consequences of safe behaviour as encouraged by behaviour-based safety programs?
a. positive, delayed, and contingent b. positive, immediate, and certain
c. positive, immediate, and uncertain d. negative, immediate, and certain
ANSWER: b
12. According to self-determination theory, what forms of extrinsic motivation result in more of a self-directed effort to work in safer ways?
a. external and introjected b. introjected and identified
c. identified and integrated d. integrated and external
ANSWER: c
13. Setting and communicating high expectations for safe performance of work tasks is associated with what dimension of transformational leadership?
a. idealized influence b. inspirational motivation
c. intellectual stimulation d. individualized consideration
ANSWER: b
14. How can HRMs best ensure that employees utilize the knowledge and skills gained during training and consistently perform their work duties in a safe manner?
a. by installing surveillance cameras
b. by providing rewards for reporting unsafe behaviour
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c. by building a safety culture and safety leadership
d. by rewarding reductions in incidents and injuries
ANSWER: c
15. Which type of extrinsic motivation from her supervisor prompts Soni to always wear her safety glasses at work?
a. amotivation b. autonomous motivation
c. behaviour-based motivation d. controlled motivation
ANSWER: d
16. Eli is an entrepreneur who turned a small contracting company into a substantial property development operation. As his company has grown, he has realized safety needs to be integrated into all areas of company operations using interactive set of organizational approaches and programs. He is working with his management team and employees to develop and implement such a program. Which of the following are they implementing?
a. an occupational health and safety management system
b. a positive safety climate
c. a company-wide OH&S policy
d. an active safety leadership program
ANSWER: a
17. Transformational leaders show a substantial degree of concern for the well-being of their employees. Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics exhibited by transformational leaders?
a. intellectual stimulation b. individualized consideration
c. insightful approximation d. inspirational motivation
ANSWER: c
18. What theory explains how we can motivate safe behaviour by recognizing that people are motivated by different things?
a. reinforcement theory b. goal-setting theory
c. self-determination theory d. transformational leadership theory
ANSWER: c
19. According to the reinforcement theory of safety, what do organizations need to do to improve poor safety behaviour?
a. tailor rewards to workers’ preferences b. set specific and difficult goals
c. link behaviour to consequences d. provide lots of feedback to workers
ANSWER: a
20. According to the textbook, which employees should be eligible for safety incentives?
a. employees who have a perfect safety record
b. employees who have none or just a few minor safety issues
c. just employees working in production/operations jobs
d. all employees
ANSWER: d
21. Oil drilling companies tend to be very safety conscious because of the hazardous nature of the work. However, given that engineering interventions are not always possible in this type of work, what would be the next best way of protecting
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Safety Management Systems
oil rig workers?
a. keeping the drilling rig as clean as possible to avoid trips and falls
b. responding effectively to emergency situations to get medical aid
c. mandatory use of hard hats and safety goggles to avoid contact injuries
d. developing, teaching, and reinforcing safe work habits for every task
ANSWER: d
22. You are the supervisor for a new a company that is developing a brand new OHSMS. You suggest to the supervisors and managers working on the development of the program that it should be integrated with which of the following?
a. the community
b. all aspects of the organization
c. the employee performance management program
d. the employee assistance programs
ANSWER: b
23. Which of the following describes CSA Z1000-14, the Canadian standard for occupational health and safety management systems?
a. provides guidance for employers who want to develop a psychological health and safety management system
b. is a legally enforceable set of regulations on occupational health and safety management
c. is an effort of workers’ compensation boards to reduce OH&S incidents
d. provides guidance for employers who want to implement an occupational health and safety management system
ANSWER: d
24. Dave works on an oil rig. He tries to follow the safety protocols on the rig as much as possible because he knows he would feel terrible if a coworker were injured due to something stupid that Dave did or forgot to do. What type of extrinsic motivation is represented in this example?
a. external regulation b. introjected regulation
c. identified regulation d. integrated regulation
ANSWER: b
25. Marek is a drilling supervisor in an oil field. Part of his job is to get the rig dismantled, moved, and set up on a new site as quickly and safely as possible. What dimension of transformational leadership is he demonstrating when he asks workers to try to identify safer ways of carrying out the move?
a. idealized influence
c. intellectual stimulation
ANSWER: c
b. inspirational motivation
d. individualized consideration
26. Behaviour-based safety programs aim to make the consequences of safe behaviour positive, immediate, and certain.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
27. Goal-setting interventions focus on the power of internal rewards and punishment in the motivation of behaviour.
a. True
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Safety Management Systems
b. False
ANSWER: False
28. Drawing on self-determination theory, strategies that focus on developing controlled motivation for safety will most likely increase safety participation in workplaces.
a. True
b. False ANSWER: False
29. Controlled motivation is where an employee is acting on their free will.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
30. Safety climate is not a predictor of safety performance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
31. Safety compliance refers to employee behaviours that go beyond safety participation.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
32. Josh would be characterized as transformational leader if he encouraged employees to challenge the status quo.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
33. Behavioural interventions modify workplace procedures, policies, and exposure to hazards in the workplace.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
34. Having a documented occupational health and safety management system raises the liability of the corporation in terms of regulatory compliance or in the event of a safety incident.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
35. Occupational health and safety management systems can be mandatory or voluntary.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
Chapter 10 - Motivation and Safety Management Systems
36. Explain the concept that the multiplicative model of safety performance is noncompensatory and explain why this is important to understand within the context of training evaluations.
ANSWER: A high level of motivation and many opportunities do not compensate for a lack of ability. Similarly, a high level of ability and motivation cannot make up for a work environment that does not provide opportunities and support for safe working. Safety performance relies on ability, motivation, and opportunity together. If any one of these components is missing, safety performance in the workplace will not be realized. Therefore, it is important for organizations to ensure that any training evaluation that is done takes this model of behaviour into consideration. Meaning that success should not be presumed because trainees appear motivated and have the ability immediately after a training program; organizations must provide the opportunity for employees to demonstrate their newly acquired skills. Similarly, it would be inappropriate for an organization to assume that training was not successful due to a lack of motivation or ability when in fact employees were not given the opportunity.
37. Provide examples of extrinsically and intrinsically motivated safety behaviours.
ANSWER: Examples of extrinsically motivated safety behaviours could include attending safety meetings because they are mandatory for all employees or engaging in the reporting of near misses because employees gain recognition/incentives for doing so. The example provided in the text is “Angie attends the safety meetings at work because they are required for all employees” or “Sadek wears his fall protection while working at heights because his supervisor strictly enforces safety rules.” Students may have a more difficult time articulating an example of a safety behaviour that is intrinsically motivated; however, examples of this are engaging or participating in the JOSH committee activities because employees are passionate and enjoy participating in health and safety activities and feel a sense of pride in doing so despite getting little to no recognition from their employer Students should provide an example which demonstrates a behaviour that reflects an individual’s enjoyment or interest.
38. List and explain the five factors that augment the effectiveness of goal setting.
ANSWER: a. Goals must be difficult and challenging to result in improved performance. Goals that are a stretch for the individual have more of an impact on performance than easy goals or the absence of goals.
b. Goals must be achievable to lead to better performance. Goals that are too hard can quickly become demotivating.
c. Goals must be specific. The goal must identify specific behaviours, specify how many times they must be performed, and specify the performance standard. Nonspecific goals that are too broad are more like wishes or desires not goals.
d. Individuals must be committed to the goals. Goals that aren’t accepted aren’t acted on. People tend to accept a goal when they see its importance, participate in setting the goal, trust the coach, or feel they can control the behaviour.
e. Feedback regarding goal progress is also helpful in goal achievement.
39. Define and give an example of engineering interventions, administrative interventions, and behavioural interventions. Which intervention is most effective?
ANSWER: Engineering interventions focus on changing the physical environment to reduce employees’ exposure to hazards (e.g. through PPE), administrative interventions focus on modifying procedures in the work process (e.g. through job rotation), and behavioural interventions focus on changing employee attitudes, knowledge, or behaviour about occupational health and safety (e.g. through information and awareness campaigns, training, and implementation of behaviour modification techniques). It is preferable to use engineering controls to eliminate the hazard. Injuries related to unsafe equipment are decreasing and injuries related to unsafe behaviour are increasing, which emphasizes the importance of behavioural occupational health and safety interventions.
40. Describe the four stages of the Plan-Do-Check-Act continuous improvement model and how each contributes to the
Chapter 10 - Motivation and Safety Management Systems
organization’s occupational health and safety management system.
Discuss how training can help to reduce the risk of workplace violence for isolated workers and use instructional systems design to develop a program for one of the above groups.
ANSWER: CSA-Z1000-14 for OHSMS is based on the Plan-Do-Check-Act cyclical continuous improvement model. This promotes OH&S in a strategic and continuous manner.
The Plan stage allows organizations to consider such issues as hazards and risk, legal requirements pertaining to safety, and the setting of OH&S goals and objectives.
The Do stage includes engagement in ongoing safety activities such as emergency preparedness, safety training, and preventive measures.
The Check stage incorporates such activities as incident investigation, safety monitoring, and auditing.
The Act stage involves managerial review and continuous improvement.
41. What can organizations do to create a work environment that motivates employees to work safely?
ANSWER: A safety climate reflects employee and organizational shared perceptions on the importance of safety in the workplace. The following list describes several ways in which an organization can promote a positive safety climate:
·Enact safety policies
Involve all levels of management and employees in safety initiatives
Include safety-related information in the communication of production-related goals
Provide appropriate safety training that is transferable to the workplace
Reward safe behaviour
Encourage and motivate employees to comply to safety-related rules and initiate safer behaviours
Implement an occupational health and safety management system
Support for employee safe work behaviours requires safety leadership and management’s commitment to safety expressed as part of the organization’s strategic business plan. A safety culture requires support and involvement from all levels of management, employees, and stakeholders (refer to Occupational Health and Safety Notebook 10.3, Health and Safety Policy Checklist; see Organizational Health and Safety Management Systems).
For individuals to work safely, at least three conditions are necessary. Workers must have:
1. the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to perform their jobs
2. the motivation to work safely
3. the opportunity to work safely, meaning that the organization supports safe work
These three factors combine in a multiplicative equation: Safety performance = Ability × Motivation × Opportunity
The employee’s ability, motivation, and provision of opportunity are key determinants of a safety culture. Organizations can create a work environment that motivates employees to work safely by implementing successful processes such as goal setting, behaviour modification, and feedback. Motivating environments require safety leadership, communication, and employee and management involvement.
42. What does reinforcement theory tell us about why employees are or are not motivated to wear personal protective equipment?
ANSWER: Motivation is the process that initiates, directs, and sustains behaviour. One major theoretical explanation of motivation for safety behaviour is reinforcement theory (behaviour modification). It focuses on external
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Safety Management Systems
rewards and punishment to motivate behaviour. The likelihood of a safe work behaviour being repeated increases when a current performance of that behaviour receives reinforcement/positive rewards and decreases when it receives punishment/negative rewards. Behavioural programming in the workplace uses the ABC model:
Antecedent > Behaviour > Consequence
To change the behaviour, either the antecedent or the consequence must change. Understanding why an employee performs an unsafe act requires an understanding of the consequences of the safe or unsafe behaviour.
Refer to OH&S Today 10.1, Elements of a Behaviour-Based Safety Program, for suggestions and cautions when implementing behaviour-based safety programs.The table gives examples of why an employee might not wear personal protective equipment and the resulting consequences. The employee receives more “+” than “
consequences for his/her unsafe behaviour, which suggests that the unsafe behaviour will continue. To change the behaviour, the HRM will need to use more positive consequences associated with specific behaviours. Supervisors could give immediate feedback on safe work behaviours and implement effective performance management systems. Other behavioural programs that could be used are incentive-based programs, and employee and group recognition programs.
43. Explain what separates and OHSMS from traditional OH&S programs.
ANSWER: Typically, OHSMS feature OH&S concerns in a more integrated and proactive light. More traditional OH&S programs tend to be more narrow or specific in focus and may be largely driven by requirements or legislative obligations. While some OHSMS are mandated, they tend to often take a more systems-based approach and although OHSMS approaches may differ across organizations, there are some common elements noted. In many organizations’ OHSMS there is a focus on organizational and leadership commitment to safety. Similarly, employee participation, the assurance of adequate resources to support OH&S activities, and safety goals and objectives are core features in these systems. For more on these and other common OHSMS features, see OH&S Notebook 10.2.
You will have to determine how widespread this belief is among the supervisors. Will you need to just speak to the one supervisor or do you need to do some sort of group communication/meeting to get all supervisors to understand the motivational component? If you don’t do anything, then chances are that they won’t be fulfilling their safety responsibilities and employees will take their cue from them in terms of the organization’s attitude toward safety. This could result in a much weaker safety climate than you should have; supervisors cannot “pass the buck” to HR when it comes to safety.
Chapter 11 - Emergency Planning
1. Which of the following activities would occur during the signal detection phase of the crisis management process?
a. incident review and analysis b. development of a response plan
c. documentation of potential emergencies d. stress management exercises
ANSWER: c
2. Dividing a site into small related areas wherein a worker is identified and trained to recognize coworkers is a part of which of the following?
a. fire suppression b. evacuation plan
c. hazard assessment d. CISD
ANSWER: b
3. Which person is most likely to replace the designated emergency manager if they are killed or become incapacitated as a result of an emergency?
a. the local fire chief b. the HR manager
c. an OH&S specialist d. another senior shift supervisor
ANSWER: d
4. Which of the following characterizes the uncontrolled stage of the fire process?
a. fire suppression b. initial detection of smoke
c. major property damage d. initial appearance of flames
ANSWER: c
5. Besides managing employees’ stress levels, what is another major focus of postcontact emergency activities?
a. enabling an orderly return to work b. communicating with customers
c. getting medical aid for injured workers d. restoring computer networks
ANSWER: a
6. What element appears in the fire tetrahedron model but does not appear in the fire triangle model?
a. carbon dioxide b. suppression
c. combustion d. chemical reaction
ANSWER: d
7. According to the textbook, what is typically the longest stage of a fire?
a. the incipient stage b. the smouldering stage
c. the free-burning stage d. the uncontrolled fire stage
ANSWER: a
8. What plan or program is the organization developing if it is focused on structural design, barriers, detection, and materials storage?
a. an emergency plan b. a pandemic plan
c. an evacuation plan d. a fire prevention program
ANSWER: d
9. When should you walk away from a chemical spill?
a. when the chemical is toxic b. when the spill is small in size
Chapter 11 - Emergency Planning
c. when you have not had specific training d. when medical aid has already been called ANSWER: c
10. What should a response to a chemical spill always include?
a. immediate cleanup of the hazard b. notifying the authorities
c. use of specialized equipment d. avoiding contact with the spill
ANSWER: c
11. In addition to the number of workers in the workplace and the danger of the work, which other factor is used in determining how many trained first aid providers should be on-site at all times?
a. past injury record at the site
b. distance to the nearest medical facilities
c. average experience of workforce at that site
d. proportion of office workers to production workers
ANSWER: b
12. In small to medium size organizations, who should receive fire extinguisher training?
a. all employees
b. members of the JHSC
c. employees who volunteer for training
d. members of the organization’s fire brigade (crew)
ANSWER: a
13. What is the ultimate goal of futureproofing?
a. fewer natural disasters
b. timely restoration of business
c. reducing post-traumatic stress
d. minimizing financial loss from emergencies
ANSWER: b
14. According to the text, during a pandemic what is the anticipated absenteeism rate?
a. 10%–25% b. 25%–35%
c. 35%–50% d. 50%–75%
ANSWER: c
15. What did recent reviews reveal about single-session critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)?
a. It is highly effective for police officers.
b. It is less effective than doing nothing.
c. It is only effective for military personnel.
d. It is more effective than other interventions.
ANSWER: b
16. What was a key reason for the severity of the Deepwater Horizon oil rig disaster?
a. failure to train rescue personnel
Chapter 11 - Emergency Planning
b. failure to develop an emergency plan
c. failure to appoint an emergency manager
d. failure to move beyond precontact planning
ANSWER: d
17. Effective crisis management can increase what desirable outcome for employees?
a. trust in leadership b. coworker cooperation
c. emergency preparedness d. organizational commitment
ANSWER: a
18. What business professional should you involve in your emergency and crisis management planning?
a. your banker b. your accountant
c. your lawyer d. your insurance agent
ANSWER: d
19. How many alternate evacuation routes should you be aware of, at a minimum, in case of an emergency?
a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 4
ANSWER: a
20. What is the ultimate goal of an emergency response plan?
a. to ensure a low level of loss
b. to comply with legislation
c. to ensure that an emergency manager is designated
d. to conduct regular emergency drills
ANSWER: a
21. When it comes to evacuation, how is a two-stage alarm different from a one-stage alarm?
a. A bell sounds followed by a horn.
b. There are different sounds for evacuation versus alert.
c. There are voice announcements in addition to sound.
d. It starts at low volume then increases to high volume.
ANSWER: b
Scenario 11-1
The July 6, 2013, railway disaster in Lac-Mégantic, Quebec highlighted the danger that businesses can face when they are located close to rail lines, especially in the event of a derailment. One hundred and fifteen businesses were severely affected when an unattended train carrying crude oil derailed and crashed in the downtown area. Thirty buildings were completely destroyed, much of the downtown infrastructure (roads, utilities, and so on) was destroyed or severely damaged, and over 40 people died with many others seriously injured. While a runaway train may seem to be a rare occurrence, Canadian statistics indicate that, based on data from 2007–2011, on average there are 58 derailments annually, although not all of these involve dangerous goods.
22. Refer to Scenario 11-1: What is the dominating characteristic of an emergency, as illustrated by the Lac-Mégantic situation, which differentiates it from other occupational health and safety incidents?
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Chapter 11 - Emergency Planning
a. it is sudden and requires an immediate response
b. it is often caused by humans.
c. it is always unpredictable
d. it can cause damage to life and property
ANSWER: a
23. Refer to Scenario 11-1: What stage of the crisis management process would involve offering psychological support to employees who are experiencing uncertainty about their jobs and financial situation because the business is temporarily shut down?
a. coping b. recovery
c. preparation
ANSWER: b
d. damage containment
24. Refer to Scenario 11-1: Some train derailments create chemical spills, such as oil leaks. What is the appropriate response in such cases?
a. clean up the spill and report the incident to the Ministry of Labour
b. warn others, isolate the spill, assist the injured, and notify authorities
c. try to determine what the spilled material is and whether it can be safely handled
d. try to identify what led to the accident and how to prevent another accident in future
ANSWER: b
25. Refer to Scenario 11-1: In the case of a train derailment in the immediate vicinity, where should a roll call of employees from the local factory take place?
a. at the command centre
b. at the designated assembly area(s)
c. in the parking lot of a local church or school
d. in the company cafeteria or other large meeting room
ANSWER: b
26. Refer to Scenario 11-1: If there is the opportunity to do so safely, what type of extinguisher should be used to fight an oil-based fire caused by sparks from the derailment?
a. water b. powder
c. CO2, halon d. CO2, dry chemical
ANSWER: d
27. As events overwhelm an individual’s capacity to respond to an emergency, governments take action in a progressive manner.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
28. The federal government does not get involved in emergency response efforts.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
Chapter 11 - Emergency Planning
29. Civil disorder is an example of a naturally occurring emergency.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
30. The second step of the crisis management process is preparation.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
31. Futureproofing is based on the notion that organizations have to anticipate and assess the risk and consequences of a broad range of emergencies.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
32. The smouldering stage of a fire is short.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
33. Building codes are an important consideration when developing a fire prevention program.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
34. Multiple sessions of CISD are preferable to single sessions of CISD.
a. True
b. False ANSWER: True
35. After a workplace emergency, managers should clamp down on employees’ socializing so that the business can get back to normal as quickly as possible.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
36. The purpose of the learning stage is to establish whether the organization showed due diligence in preparing for an emergency.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
37. Describe the five-stage emergency planning process.
Chapter 11 - Emergency Planning
ANSWER: 1) Signal detection: targeted at prevention and begins with the recognition that an emergency is possible or imminent.
2) Preparation: involves senior management in the adoption of a crisis management mindset, the creation of a response plan, and the introduction of response training.
3) Damage containment: consumes most of an organization’s crisis-management resources. During this stage, the focus is on organizational communication, organizational support, employee assistance programs, and stress intervention.
4) Recovery: involves developing short- and long-term plans to resume normal business.
5) Learning: the focus is on assessing and reflecting on the incident with a view to improving operations and procedures.
38. Describe critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) and discuss the research about its effectiveness in terms of dealing with post-traumatic stress.
ANSWER: One approach to crisis response has been referred to as critical incident stress debriefing, or CISD. CISD is defined as a post-trauma intervention focused on providing victims with an opportunity to discuss their experiences and reactions to a traumatic event. The characteristics of CISDs vary; generally, though, they involve psychologists (or other trained professionals) providing assistance immediately following a traumatic event in an effort to prevent the development of serious or lasting negative consequences. Elements of CISDs can vary but typically include ensuring confidentiality; providing individuals with the opportunity to talk about their perspective on, thoughts about, and emotional reactions to the incident; assessing psychological and physical symptoms; and providing information about stress responses and coping strategies.
Studies have produced mixed and inconsistent results. More adaptive coping strategies and lower anger levels were seen in a group of police officers who had gone through CISD compared to a group who had not. However, a review of 67 studies concluded that debriefing does not mitigate the effects of traumatic stress. A meta-analytic review found that single session debriefing was less effective than other forms of intervention and less effective than no intervention in reducing the effects of traumatic stress. There is growing evidence that CISD may actually make things worse by exacerbating traumatic reactions when individuals have to relive their experiences.
39. Describe and give examples of the elements necessary in the management of emergencies.
ANSWER: To manage emergencies, an emergency plan, an emergency manager, a fire plan, an evacuation plan, and a medical attention plan are required.
Emergency plan: first thing required is a formal, workable, well-controlled, rapid-response emergency plan.
Emergency manager: any emergency plan must have a senior person who will be in charge of all emergency activities. This individual should speak for the organization and must be committed to the plan.
A fire plan: a group of workers must be trained in firefighting techniques and be part of the plant’s fire brigade. In small to mid-sized businesses in which an in-house fire brigade is not economically feasible, workers should receive fire extinguisher training and participate in ongoing practice sessions.
Evacuation plan: plans for evacuating employees and clients in the event of a major emergency or disaster. Evacuation paths should be well-marked and unobstructed, and exits should be well-lit. Notices about exit procedures should be posted, along with instructions for notifying appropriate personnel of the emergency. The plan should include designated assembly areas and assigned assistance.
Medical attention plan: various provincial and territorial regulations spell out in detail the requirements for first aid and medical aid facilities. Beyond conforming to legal requirements, every company should arrange to have at least one trained first aid attendant present on each shift. All employees should have the opportunity to
Chapter 11 - Emergency Planning
take a CPR course.
40. List the four stages of the fire process
ANSWER: i. incipient stage
ii. smouldering stage
iii. free-burning stage
iv. out-of-control stage
41. What should be considered before, during, and after an evacuation?
ANSWER: 1) In planning for evacuation, the site must be divided into small related areas. Workers should be able to identify workers who work there all the time and those who work there occasionally. Workers should be notified of their designated assembly point and exit procedures should be posted. All workers must know where their assembly point is, and know at least two routes to get to it.
2) Assembly points should be outside the building and away from any roadways, and allow for movement of emergency vehicles. Evacuation paths should be well-marked and unobstructed. A command centre must be set up for those in charge of managing the emergency and liaising with first responders, government agencies, and the community.
3) Employees must stay at the assembly point for the roll call and until they are instructed to return to work or go home.
4) Critical equipment or critical processes must be addressed by qualified maintenance personnel.
5) The emergency ends only when the senior person in charge says so.
6) A post-evacuation assessment must be undertaken to identify problems and develop remedial measures for subsequent evacuations.
42. What emergency-preparedness elements would you put in place in your organization in preparation for and in response to a potential influenza pandemic (e.g. global disease outbreak)? How would you operate your business if 30% or more of your employees are unable to work and essential services are disrupted, leading to minimal outside help being available from government and medical agencies?
ANSWER: Refer to the five-stage crisis management process and strategies (signal detection, preparation, damage containment, recovery, and learning) described in the text. Preparing for the negative effects of a pandemic on business should include designing a communication plan for all employees, using technology for communication, discussions with management and staff around priority staffing and operations, training, building inventory to minimize effects, considering alternative ways to do business, talking to service providers and suppliers, and educating employers about influenza and ways to stay healthy.
Useful publications include:
Public Health Agency of Canada http://www.phac-aspc.gc.ca/cpip-pclcpi/ World Health Organization http://www.who.int/topics/disease_outbreaks/en/
Chapter 12 - Incident Investigation
1. An incident investigation that is conducted appropriately should help an organization determine which of the following?
a. appropriate work accommodations b. who is to blame
c. how to prevent a similar incident d. potential fines from regulators
ANSWER: c
2. Ling arrives at her workplace to find there has been an incident and she is being put in charge of finding out how a piece of equipment was damaged during the repair of a nearby piece of equipment. The damage to all of the involved equipment is fairly significant, and an investigation will add to the anticipated production delays. Nobody was injured and due to the financial impact Ling decides to delay an investigation until her supervisor returns from vacation. Ling should be concerned about which of the following as it relates to the quality of the incident?
a. customer satisfaction, causes, and timing b. timing, severity, and legal requirements
c. costs, cause, and timing
ANSWER: b
d. costs, cause, and media attention
3. Which of the following has the greatest influence on whether an incident is investigated?
a. safety climate b. management commitment
c. legal requirements d. safety participation
ANSWER: c
4. What question should be asked when investigating situational factors contributing to an incident?
a. What shift was being worked?
b. Was the work being performed to standards?
c. Was a supervisor present?
d. Did some unsafe act contribute to the event?
ANSWER: a
5. Who generally has primary responsibility for incident investigation?
a. the worker’s immediate supervisor
b. a management member of the JHSC
c. an investigator from the Ministry of Labour
d. a technical expert from the industry association
ANSWER: a
6. What incident investigation method can reveal unsafe conditions that may have contributed to the incident but not unsafe acts?
a. interviews b. simulations
c. re-enactments d. walkthroughs
ANSWER: d
7. Inspection of the incident scene to get a picture of the total environment is the definition of which investigation method?
a. walkthrough b. re-enactment
c. observation d. interview
ANSWER: a
Chapter 12 - Incident Investigation
8. What is the most important criterion in choosing which computer to use for incident investigation?
a. portability b. processing speed
c. database capabilities d. graphical and CAD software
ANSWER: d
9. Cognitive interviewing was a process developed for which industry?
a. health care b. law enforcement
c. commercial transportation d. nuclear power generation
ANSWER: b
10. Which of the following would proponents of James Reason’s Swiss cheese model be most likely to believe?
a. that all incidents have the same basic cause
b. that incidents are a normal occurrence
c. that incidents are the result of failures at multiple levels
d. that how you are raised contributes to cause of incidents
ANSWER: c
11. What different types of falls are considered under incident type classification?
a. fall to same level, fall to lower level, fall to higher level
b. fall on upper body, fall on lower body
c. fall backwards, fall forwards
d. fall vertically, fall horizontally
ANSWER: a
12. As a result of the investigation, it was revealed that Kyle had been suffering from depression for several months. What theory explicitly mentions mental problems?
a. bow-tie analysis b. Swiss cheese model
c. domino theory d. theory of normal incidents
ANSWER: c
13. Why can witnesses’ recall become distorted if investigation is not begun in a timely manner?
a. There are changes at the incident site. b. There is removal of important evidence.
c. They may suffer memory loss. d. They discuss the incident with others.
ANSWER: d
14. What piece of information is found on both the long and short supervisor report?
a. type of injury b. type of accident
c. suggested corrective action d. sketch/diagram of accident scene
ANSWER: c
15. Forklift trucks belong to what agent group?
a. tools b. lifting devices
c. motive power sources d. materials-handling systems
ANSWER: b
Chapter 12 - Incident Investigation
16. Noria from HR is doing a walkthrough shortly after an incident in the shipping area and needs to know how the conveyor belt is operated. Whom should she ask?
a. the injured worker
c. coworkers of the injured worker
ANSWER: d
b. the plant manager
d. the injured worker’s supervisor
17. The theory of normal incidents would be more likely to be used in investigating incidents in what type of industry?
a. agriculture b. oil refineries
c. healthcare d. light manufacturing
ANSWER: b
18. What is the key element in cognitive interviews that elicits more accurate information from eyewitnesses?
a. developing rapport
b. asking probing questions
c. encouraging active participation
d. focusing on the eyewitnesses’ mental images
ANSWER: d
19. Who is more likely to experience a cognitive failure?
a. an older worker b. a young worker
c. a working parent d. a dissatisfied worker
ANSWER: a
20. Besides the supervisor, who else should sign the supervisor’s accident/incident report?
a. the senior manager
b. the Ministry of Labour inspector
c. the employee (if/when available)
d. the chair of the Joint Health and Safety Committee
ANSWER: c
Read the following scenario and answer questions 21–25.
Scenario 12-1
On Friday, August 23, 2013, a construction worker fell 55 floors to his death while working on what will become Toronto’s tallest condominium building. Despite a variety of safety precautions, this type of incident is not uncommon in the construction industry. Three days earlier, on Tuesday, August 20, 2013, a construction worker in Las Vegas, Nevada also died in a fall from a building under construction.
21. What organization would have the legal right to demand a mandatory investigation into the Toronto worker’s death?
a. Ontario Ministry of Labour
b. City of Toronto Building Department
c. Workers Insurance Safety Board (Ontario)
d. the construction firm for whom he worked
ANSWER: a
22. What is the action that should have been taken by the site manager immediately after the incident?
Chapter 12 - Incident Investigation
a. taking photographs of the job site
b. securing and protecting the scene(s)
c. documenting any personal protective equipment in use
d. talking to coworkers who were in the immediate area
ANSWER: b
23. According to the textbook, what should coworkers who witnessed the incident be offered prior to being interviewed?
a. legal advice
b. trauma counselling
c. the opportunity to go home to calm down first
d. the opportunity to retrieve tools left at the incident site
ANSWER: b
24. What would be an example of the fourth level of defence from the Swiss cheese model, which might have prevented this fatality?
a. safety training
b. a strong safety culture
c. a safety-conscious supervisor d. rails along the edge of open floors
ANSWER: d
25. Although possibly not a cause of the Toronto incident, what factor might explain a cognitive failure to reattach a safety tether/harness to a safety hook after moving from one floor to the next floor of a building under construction?
a. uncomfortable equipment b. a careless attitude toward safety
c. a fight at home that morning d. hand–eye coordination problems
ANSWER: c
26. The “knot” in the bow-tie model represents the event or incident.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
27. Nuclear power plants are high-reliability organizations.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
28. Most incidents are the result of a single contributing factor.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
29. Examining tools for wear and tear following an incident falls under a potential environmental factor.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
Chapter 12 - Incident Investigation
30. Investigators should avoid giving interviewees feedback.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
31. A typical cognitive interview involves probing questions.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
32. . Re-enactments are an investigative technique design to elicit the truth from witnesses.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
33. Abbreviations such as “n/a” for “not applicable” should not be used on investigation report forms.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
34. If the other members of the injured worker’s work group are unharmed and not experiencing emotional distress, they can continue with their work immediately after the incident.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
35. It is recommended that incidents be reported to a workers’ compensation board, normally within three days
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
36. Define “incident investigation” and describe the aim and benefits of incident investigations.
ANSWER: Incident investigations are a critical component of both an organization’s RAC and OH&S programs. An incident investigation is the analysis and account of an incident based on information gathered by a thorough examination of all the factors involved. A key result of an incident investigation should be to prevent a recurrence of the same incident. When considering the contributing factors, the employer/HRM/investigation team can ask, “What can management, the supervisor, worker, and other employees do to prevent a recurrence of this nature?” The benefits of incident investigation are to determine the root and contributing causes, to prevent a recurrence of similar incidents, to improve safety procedures and practices, to create a permanent report, to determine cost, and to raise the level of safety awareness among employees.
37. Describe the guidelines for conducting a re-enactment.
ANSWER: A qualified observer is necessary. If none are available, the in-house specialist will have to do the job. If it appears that evidence is being gathered for an inquest or court hearing, every possible explanation even suicide must be considered.
∙ Do not show tell. The witnesses must relate in their own words what they observed. The analyst must know
Chapter 12 - Incident Investigation
precisely what took place during the event. Their stories will provide that information. The company cannot afford any surprises that might lead to additional injury. Filming the witness can be very helpful, but if, and only if, the witness agrees.
∙ Shut down every energy source and lock them out. Follow the lockout procedures discussed in Chapter 4. The professional who is conducting the re-enactment should control the major key for the lockout. Carefully act out the events. The witness should describe what happened at each step (just as he or she did when verbally describing the events), and then, with the specialist’s approval, will act out that step. For obvious reasons, the re-enactment will stop before the point of incident.
38. Read OH&S Notebook 12.3, Analysis of an Incident, and identify the human, situational, and/or environmental factors that contributed to the incident.
ANSWER: An example of a human factor was that the work was not being performed according to procedures (a carpenter removed the legally required saw guard). Two examples of situational factors were that the safety measures were not functioning satisfactorily (the supervisor had requested that the company purchase a new saw guard) and the correct equipment was not made available by management. In this particular case, environmental factors (e.g. light or noise) did not seem to have been a contributing factor.
39. Compare and contrast the domino theory with the theory of normal incidents.
ANSWER: According to domino theory, every event, incident, or disaster is composed of a series of happenings that result in some negative condition.
The theory is based on a set of five dominos:
1) Background: a lack of control over the management function (planning, organizing, leading, controlling)
2) Personal defects: personal factors such as physical or mental problems, and job factors such as normal wear and tear of equipment
3) Unsafe acts and conditions
4) Incident: a series of undesired events with release of energies that can cause harm
5) Injury: the most undesired result (e.g. trauma or property damage)
This theory asserts that if any one of the domino categories does not happen, then the incident probably will not occur.
The theory of normal incidents shares the perspective that multiple factors can contribute to an incident; however, rather than discrete factors in a linear sequence, it is the interactive complexities in the technological system that are the issue. Therefore in high-reliability organizations (e.g., chemical plants or nuclear plants) it may be impossible to isolate causal factors.
40. Describe each of the three types of cognitive failure (human factor) and relate each to relevant incident types listed in the chapter. Provide examples to support your answer.
ANSWER: The three types of cognitive failure are memory/forgetfulness, loss of focus/distractibility, and physical skills (mind-body coordination).
The incident types include:
Caught-in or caught-between
Struck by or struck against Fall to same level, fall to lower level, fall to higher level
Abraded, scratched, or punctured
Overexertion
Contact with an energy
Memory failures could result in caught-in or between incidents or contact with an energy if a worker forgets
Chapter 12 - Incident Investigation
the standard operating procedure. Example: forgetting to lock out a piece of equipment before commencing preventive maintenance.
Lack of focus/distractibility could result in similar issues but could also result in being struck by or struck against incidents and falls (with abrasion) if the worker is not aware of their immediate surroundings. Example: falling boxes or other vehicles in motion around them.
Physical skills/coordination failures could definitely result in all three types of falls as well as struck-against injuries by falling into furniture, walls, or doors. Coordination issues could also result in contact with an energy, e.g. stumbling and putting a hand down on a hot surface.
41. Using the case at the end of the chapter as your source material, describe the concepts, methods, and personnel you would use to implement and perform an effective investigation of this incident. Use the domino theory or Swiss cheese model as your theoretical foundation to help you classify the causes and determine what can be done to ensure that incidents of this type do not occur in the future. In addition to writing up the foregoing, prepare a Supervisor’s Accident/Incident Report (long form), filling in as much information as you can (similar forms to the example in the textbook can be downloaded from the Internet).
ANSWER: The content of the answer should include consideration of human, situational, and environmental factors, discussion of relevant methods (walkthroughs, interviews, re-enactments), and supplementary techniques (measurements, photos, drawings, computers, tools, and records). Discussion of causes should relate to specific elements of the chosen theory (domino or Swiss cheese) but should not confuse elements of one theory with the other. The report should contain all of the relevant facts contained in the case and indicate the various causes of the incident.
Chapter 13 - Disability Management and Return to Work
1. Linh is a consultant who trains human resource managers on issues relating to disability management. She starts her sessions with a reminder of the legislated responsibility of employers to accommodate workers who are attempting to return to work following an injury or illness. She notes that this can occur via changes in job tasks and/or the work environment to enable workers with a temporary or permanent disability to perform work productively. Which of the following is Linh reminding the HR managers of?
a. human rights charters b. due diligence
c. undue hardship d. the duty to accommodate
ANSWER: d
2. Asher is a return-to-work coordinator. Today he is considering how the demands of an airline mechanic’s job relate to an injured mechanic’s current physical ability in an effort to design a modified work plan. What tools is Asher using?
a. a job analysis and a functional ability assessment
b. physical demands analysis and a functional ability assessment
c. physical demands analysis and a medical report
d. a job analysis and a medical report
ANSWER: b
3. Each year approximately how many workplace incidents occur worldwide?
a. 104 million b. 127 million
c. 317 million d. 510 million
ANSWER: c
4. For supported and sheltered work, which of the following are likely to be required to meet the duty to accommodate?
a. temporary changes to work tasks and temporary changes to the work environment
b. temporary changes to work tasks and permanent changes to the work environment
c. permanent changes to work tasks and temporary changes to the work environment
d. permanent changes to work tasks and permanent changes to the work environment
ANSWER: d
5. Sofia is a psychology graduate student whose research project assesses the impact of disability management programs. Which of the following outcome factors is she LEAST likely to include in her research?
a. quality of life
b. duration of injury
c. costs associated with injury
d. incident reports from the original incident leading to the injury
ANSWER: d
6. Anthony is an IT technician who injured his neck while installing a large new system. After several weeks’ recovery time he is returning to work under his physician’s care for a probationary period to see if he can withstand the demands of his job. What is Anthony’s modified work arrangement best defined as?
a. light duty work b. gradual work exposure
c. work trial d. supported and sheltered work
ANSWER: c
7. Which of the following is an example of light-duty work, assigned due to a back injury?
Chapter 13 - Disability Management and Return to Work
a. a chef taking a leave of absence to write a cookbook
b. a hairdresser resuming work on a part-time basis
c. a road worker shifting to the road signal part of the crew (stop/go signal)
d. a nurse taking a new job in over the phone healthcare (Telehealth)
ANSWER: c
8. Symptom severity and general health are considered part of which of the following indicators?
a. associated costs
b. duration of the work disability
c. rates of safety incidents and occupational illness
d. quality of life
ANSWER: d
9. Which of the following terms is associated with “proactive practices with the goals of preventing or reducing workplace disability, intervening early in the face of risk or injury, and providing coordinated management and rehabilitation functions to promote worker’s recovery and safe timely return to work”?
a. systems approach b. disability management
c. duty to accommodate d. workplace accommodation
ANSWER: b
10. Jamal owns a medium sized trucking company. He argues that he is not able to accommodate a worker who lost a leg in highway crash because his fleet does not include modified vehicles and it would be inconvenient to source and purchase the adapted equipment. Jamal’s arguments do not meet the standard of which of the following?
a. modified work b. duty to accommodate
c. due diligence d. undue hardship
ANSWER: d
11. How does case management facilitate the recovery of an injured worker?
a. through arrangement of quick, low-cost treatment
b. by motivating them to want to return to work
c. by coordinating care from different providers
d. by working with stakeholders on job redesign
ANSWER: c
12. When can a disability management program be most effective?
a. It is funded by the government. b. It is supportive of safety initiatives.
c. It is managed by an external consultant. d. It is legally motivated.
ANSWER: b
13. Who is often overlooked when planning modified work arrangements for an injured worker?
a. the worker’s family b. the worker’s coworkers
c. the worker’s family physician d. the worker’s union representative
ANSWER: b
14. What should supervisors avoid saying when the injured worker comes back to work?
Chapter 13 - Disability Management and Return to Work
a. “How are you feeling today?”
b. “So, tell me all about your occupational therapy program.”
c. “There are some changes that I would like to go over with you.”
d. “A number of your coworkers have said they will be happy to help you settle back in.”
ANSWER: b
15. Roohani is returning to work after a month and a half. What stage would her absence fall into, according to the textbook?
a. acute b. chronic
c. subacute d. subchronic
ANSWER: c
16. Professionals with sufficient experience working in disability management and with the appropriate education can write national exams to earn which of the following certifications?
a. Certified Physical Demands Analyst b. Certified Light-Duty Worker Expert
c. Certified Return to Work Coordinator d. Certified Work Accommodator
ANSWER: c
17. Tarek is returning to work after six months off following an acute back injury at work ultimately requiring surgery. What organizational practice may sabotage his return by making him feel stigmatized?
a. changing his job to accommodate his current capabilities
b. posting photos of workers with perfect safety records in the cafeteria
c. holding an educational session for all workers on carpal tunnel syndrome
d. timing his return to coincide with a company picnic or other social event
ANSWER: b
18. What is the key benefit to the worker from integrated claims management?
a. more money
b. less concern about rehabilitation
c. more timely resolution of the claim
d. not having to deal with the people at workers’ compensation
ANSWER: c
19. What is the key benefit to senior management from integrated claims management?
a. data on safety and disability management performance
b. identification of employees with injuries
c. easier planning for return-to-work
d. tracking where an injured worker is in the recovery and rehabilitation process
ANSWER: a
20. Arjun is recovering from a hip injury sustained in a fall at work. He has asked his physician to complete a form that details Arjun’s ability to perform job tasks. Which of the following is the physician completing?
a. a WCB claim
c. a physical demands analysis
b. an insurer status report
d. a functional ability assessment
Chapter 13 - Disability Management and Return to Work
ANSWER: d
21. Which of the following is a physical demands analysis best completed by?
a. the treating physician b. the injured worker
c. someone highly familiar with the job d. a supervisor
ANSWER: c
22. Ellie sustained a traumatic brain injury following a fall from a ladder at her job as assistant manager in a sporting goods store. Ellie was not able to return to her previous job and now works with close supervision in a small convenience store. Which of the following best describes Ellie’s accommodation?
a. light duty work b. gradual work exposure
c. work trial d. supported and sheltered work
ANSWER: d
23. Which of the following is the aspect of human rights legislation that means employers must accommodate the needs of a disabled worker unless the modification would lead to health and safety difficulties or present unsustainable economic or efficiency costs?
a. duty to accommodate b. disability management clause
c. due diligence d. undue hardship
ANSWER: d
24. What might be a prudent way for Wenxi to find out if going back to the same job is a viable option after a few weeks of treatment for an anxiety disorder?
a. a work trial b. supportive work
c. light duty work d. work hardening
ANSWER: a
25. Which of the following is NOT considered a best practice in disability management?
a. early intervention b. full recovery
c. prevention focus d. RTW case management
ANSWER: b
26. The Charter of Rights and Freedoms is the only mechanism by which persons with disabilities are protected from discrimination.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
27. Disability management programs are viewed as more successful when injured workers report exhibit fewer symptoms.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
28. Focusing solely on individual employees is a systems approach to disability management.
a. True
Chapter 13 - Disability Management and Return to Work
b. False
ANSWER: False
29. Governments support disability management programs through legislation.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
30. A functional ability assessment is sometimes called a functional capacity evaluation.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
31. Part of a return-to-work coordinator’s role is to assist injured or ill employees with applying for financial benefits.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
32. Ray has returned to a less demanding role at the farm where he works following a neck injury. His return-to-work plan reflects supported and sheltered work.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
33. Health care providers being too busy to file paperwork is a barrier to the return to work.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
34. A value of disability management programming is reduced incidence and impact of workplace injury and illness.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
35. Canada does not currently have a federal law that protects persons with disabilities..
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
36. Describe at least two common types of modified work arrangements and give an example of each.
ANSWER: Students can describe any two of the following:
Light-duty work: injured workers return to work in a capacity that is less demanding than their regular job, adapting the tasks of the person’s pre-injury job or placing the person in a different job in the organization. For example, a courier who has sustained a lower-back injury might return to her work but be assigned tasks that do not involve heavy lifting.
Chapter 13 - Disability Management and Return to Work
Gradual work exposure: a form of light-duty work in which a person’s hours and expected duties slowly increase until the worker is able to perform his or her pre-injury job without any problems. This type of modification is also referred to as work hardening.
Work trials: workers may return to work on a trial basis to evaluate whether they are able to withstand the demands of the workplace. The length of the trial may be at the discretion of the employer, the worker, or (possibly) the worker’s physician.
Supported and sheltered work: helps those with permanent disabilities who have not succeeded in competitive work environments or who require substantial support to return to work. This type of accommodation may be offered in regular work environments (supported) or in special worksites offered via social services (sheltered). For example, an individual who sustained a traumatic head injury after a fall off a ladder while working in a large hardware store may require supervision subsequently.
37. What is the systems approach to disability management?
ANSWER: Disability management is a proactive employer practice with the goals of preventing or reducing workplace disability, intervening early in the face of risk or injury, and providing coordinated management and rehabilitation functions to promote workers’ recovery and a safe and timely return to work. A systems approach to disability management emphasizes the work and organizational context instead of focusing solely on individual employees. When disability management efforts are fully integrated into the workplace, the workplace culture reflects the overarching commitment to prevention and restoration. The systems approach brings together all stakeholders in an effort to get the worker back to work (same, modified, or different job) on a timelier basis. An earlier return to work relies more on changes to work tasks and the work environment to accommodate the worker’s current capabilities than on complete recovery.
38. List the seven types of stakeholders in disability management, and explain their role in an early and safe return to work. (Note: you can choose to have students list all seven, but explain only three or four roles if a shorter answer is desirable.)
ANSWER: Several important stakeholder groups are involved in disability management and the injured employee’s return to work, each with its own roles and responsibilities.
1) Injured or ill workers report condition, comply with treatment recommendations, work to maintain and improve health, keep employer up to date, participate in discussion of accommodations
2) Employers foster a workplace that supports disability management and provide sufficient resources (financial, training for supervisors, return-to-work coordinators)
3) Unions promote disability management during collective bargaining, serve as advocates for injured members, educate all members on disability management
4) Health care providers, physicians, occupational therapists, physiotherapists, mental health professionals provide appropriate, timely care, understand the job requirements, and discuss work accommodations
5) Insurance providers public (WCB) and private provide benefits, discuss return-to-work options
6) Governments: federal, provincial/territorial develop legislation to support disability management
7) Disability management contractors provide case management and rehabilitation services
39. What five financial and social indicators reflect the impact of workplace disability?
ANSWER: 1) The rates of safety incidents and occupational illnesses: decreases in incidence of incidents and exposures can support the effectiveness of disability management programs.
2) Duration of the work disability: the duration of the disability is the most commonly used outcome in research on return to work and disability management. It is often reported as the amount of time that a worker receives benefits. Longer absences are more costly for the employer.
3) Associated costs: various associated costs of the disability are also used to evaluate the impact of workplace injury. These costs include wage replacement, health care costs, and intervention costs.
4) Sustained return to work: the extent to which workers are able to sustain their return to the workplace provides important information about the success of disability management efforts.
Chapter 13 - Disability Management and Return to Work
5) Quality of life: quality-of-life indicators for injured or ill workers, including their symptom severity and general health, are considered important outcomes in disability management and return-to-work programs.
40. Explain the concept of an integrated claims management and monitoring system and describe the benefits of having one as part of disability management.
ANSWER: When an employee is injured or develops a work-related illness, they typically submit compensation claims to a benefits program. The provider can frequently vary thus increasing the complexity associated with navigating the process. Depending on the type of job and industry, and various other eligibility criteria, injured or ill workers may apply for compensation through the public workers’ compensation system or via a private insurer. In an integrated claims management system, this process is coordinated and facilitated within the disability management program, which ideally leads to a timelier resolution of the compensation claim, thus ameliorating a potentially adversarial aspect of workplace disability insurance claims. There are a number of benefits students can list including reduced manual efforts, streamlined communication between providers, and greater accountability across departments, stakeholders and so forth. The greatest advantages include greater efficiency because integrated systems also allow for tracking of claims, the worker’s recovery, and the rehabilitation process. Consequently, integrated systems are helpful in return-to-work planning. They may also help organizations monitor their safety and disability management performance.
41. Nathan Steinberg has just become the new HR manager at a large nursery, which happens to be one of Canada’s largest growers of potted plants. Their company sells traditional and seasonal products on a year-round basis to smaller garden centres as well as to large chain retailers. The company has grown rapidly over the past five years, but, as part of his review of the company’s HR situation, Nathan has noted a rising trend of disability claims, often due to recurring injuries, that are keeping workers off the job multiple times for extended periods of time. How should he go about changing this situation in a way that will protect and restore worker health while supporting the company’s growth? Put together a short-term and a long-term plan, using the best practices identified in disability management research.
ANSWER: Research has identified several best practices that can reduce the incidence and impact of workplace disability. Students should distinguish between those that can be achieved quickly versus those that will need more time to develop.
1)
LT People-focused climate: A disability management program has the potential to be most effective when it is embedded in an organizational system that values its human resources and is supportive of safety initiatives. In workplaces with a positive safety climate, a well-communicated commitment to occupational health and safety is emphasized in company policy and practices, including training efforts that address safety and disability. Managers and all employees generally share the perception that their safety is valued.
2)
ST Prevention focus: A common theme in disability management is “prevention first.” Prevention efforts that reduce the incidence of illness and injury result in cost savings for organizations.
3)
ST Early intervention: Organizations with progressive disability management programs continually assess risk for injury or illness in workplaces and take swift and early steps to eliminate or reduce these risks.
4)
ST/LT Return-to-work case management: Case management refers to the coordination of health and social services so that employees who are injured, disabled, or ill receive care that is appropriate, timely, and efficient. The goals of case management are to enhance the injured worker’s quality of life and, if possible, to reduce the costs associated with care. Case management should therefore begin early in the process. A returnto-work coordinator who is responsible for return-to-work case management is likely part of this process.
5)
ST Education. Supervisors in particular should be educated about disability management: At times, supervisors will be called upon to support disability management programs, in terms of its preventive and return-to-work obligations.
6)
Chapter 13 - Disability Management and Return to Work
LT Integrated claims management and monitoring systems: When workers require a leave from work due to illness or injury, they submit compensation claims to a benefits program. In an integrated claims management system, these processes are facilitated within the disability management program.
7)
ST NOTE: This is not listed as specific best practice, but there is a section on return-to-work planning that students may legitimately draw on to answer this question. Return-to-work planning involves collaboratively developing an individualized plan that identifies an injured or ill worker’s return to work goals. It will involve plans for work accommodation: Workplace accommodation offers are strongly associated with reduced disability duration and reduced disability costs for permanently and temporarily disabled workers. Some common types of modified work arrangements include light-duty work, gradual work exposure, work trials, and supported and sheltered work. They may use information from physical demands analysis and functional ability assessments.
Chapter 14 - Workplace Wellness: Work–Family and Health Promotion Programs
1. What are flexible work arrangements that permit employees to have variable start and finish times to their work day?
a. flextime b. flexplace
c. job splitting d. job sharing
ANSWER: a
2. Which two broad categories of initiatives can companies use to promote well-being at work?
a. wellness and fitness programs
b. nutrition and fitness programs
c. family-friendly policies and health promotion programs
d. work–family policies and employee assistance programs
ANSWER: c
3. Which is a major shortcoming of the research on the effectiveness of family-friendly policies described in the text?
a. The research is inconclusive. b. The research is peer reviewed.
c. The research is American. d. The research is anecdotal.
ANSWER: a
4. What would be the most suitable flexible work arrangement for Kerry, who wants a work arrangement with a narrow set of tasks and where she can go to work from 8:30–1:00 p.m. every day?
a. flextime b. job sharing
c. job splitting d. telecommuting
ANSWER: c
5. Which of the following describes the Canadian standard for psychological health and safety in the workplace?
a. provides guidance for employers who want to develop a psychological health and safety management system
b. is a legally enforceable set of regulations on psychological health and safety management
c. is an effort of workers’ compensation boards to define psychological health and safety as a compensable condition
d. focuses on designing interventions for those organizations with especially high rates of psychosocial stressors and stain
ANSWER: a
6. Which of the following occurs when using a compressed workweek as a family-friendly program?
a. a worker works full time hours over fewer days per week
b. a worker works part time
c. a worker works fewer hours over 4 days per week instead of 5 days per week
d. a worker splits their job tasks with another employee
ANSWER: a
7. The rise of the Occupational Alcohol Movement in the 1940s is generally acknowledged to be the direct predecessor of which of the following?
a. Psychologically Healthy Workplaces
b. EFAPs
c. Occupational Health and Safety Act
d. CSA Standard for Psychological Health and Safety in the Workplace
Chapter 14 - Workplace Wellness: Work–Family and Health Promotion Programs
ANSWER: b
8. Relaxation training helps to manage stress by teaching the employee which of the following?
a. to quickly quiet their mind
b. how to get rid of negative thoughts
c. how to counteract feelings with muscle release
d. stretches that can be done at their desk/workstation
ANSWER: c
9. Lifestyle programming/health promotion programs can be classified into which three categories?
a. screening, education, and behavioural change
b. selection, promotion, and behavioural change
c. selection, promotion, and psychological change
d. screening, education, and psychological change
ANSWER: a
10. Which of the following is a challenge that organizations face in regards to participation in health promotion programs that they do not face when it comes to safety training?
a. Employees are not committed to better health.
b. Employees cannot be made to participate in health promotion.
c. Employees are not always aware of their existing health issues.
d. Employees will not attend programs delivered by external providers.
ANSWER: b
11. Despite varying in the specific details, what are the four steps that most workplace hypertension programs will follow?
a. education, screening, referral, and follow-up
b. education, counselling, monitoring, and follow-up
c. assessment, identification, treatment, and follow-up
d. screening, education, diet changes, and medication controls
ANSWER: a
12. Which factor limits the overall effectiveness of workplace weight loss programs?
a. low interest b. high attrition rates
c. lack of information on meal planning d. unhealthy food choices in the workplace
ANSWER: b
13. Which of the following limits our understanding of the effectiveness of health promotion programs in workplaces?
a. poor methodology in evaluation studies
b. the novelty of these programs in organizations
c. the complexity of the behaviour involved
d. the diversity of health promotion programs
ANSWER: a
14. When conducting a methodologically sound evaluation of a health promotion program, the study must have which of
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Chapter 14 - Workplace Wellness: Work–Family and Health Promotion Programs
the following?
a. many different organizations taking part
b. multiple variations on the program being compared
c. equal numbers of men and women in the study
d. pre- and post-intervention assessments of the outcomes
ANSWER: d
15. Hypertension is also known as which of the following conditions?
a. heartburn b. elevated blood pressure
c. cognitive failure d. liver failure
ANSWER: b
16. Stephanie and Patrick are new parents who live and work for organizations in Halifax. Which of the following statements best describes their maternity and parental leave opportunities?
a. The parents can each take 12 weeks of unpaid leave.
b. Only Stephanie can take leave.
c. Stephanie can take maternity leave and both parents can share parental leave for a total of one year, unpaid.
d. Stephanie can take maternity leave and both parents can split parental leave for a total of one year, with benefits paid through Employment Insurance and potentially their employers.
ANSWER: d
17. What are the types of stress management programs described in the textbook?
a. skills training, relaxation training, counselling
b. cognitive-behavioural therapy, mindfulness, counselling
c. cognitive-behavioural skills training, relaxation training, social support
d. relaxation training, meditation, mindfulness
ANSWER: c
18. Haruo and Katya are grade 2 teachers. They are taking part in a family-friendly program offered at their school. Haruo teaches the grade 2 class on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. Katya teaches the class on Tuesday and Thursday. Which of flexible work arrangement are they using?
a. job splitting
c. compressed workweek
ANSWER: b
b. job sharing
d. part time work
19. What is the second step in most secondary-level worksite health promotion programs?
a. referral to in-house or community-based resources
b. treatment directed at the symptoms
c. counselling and recommendations
d. identification of high-risk individuals
ANSWER: c
20. Which of the following is considered a health promotion program?
a. personal leave b. family care benefits
c. lifestyle programming d. flexible work arrangements
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Chapter 14 - Workplace Wellness: Work–Family and Health Promotion Programs
ANSWER: c
21. Elon works in personal accounting and is very busy during the tax season. One of the ways he manages stress when he feels overwhelmed and worried about how he will meet all his deadlines is to purposely bring his attention back to the present moment. What is he is engaging in?
a. cognitive-behavioural skills training b. relaxation training
c. mindfulness
ANSWER: c
d. meditation
22. Lena wants to have Tuesdays off so that she can take her elderly father to his doctor appointments without losing any income. Which flexible work arrangement should she discuss with her supervisor?
a. flextime b. flexplace
c. compressed workweek d. job sharing or job splitting
ANSWER: c
23. Which of the following occurs as part of the family-friendly policies of a flexible work arrangement?
a. modifications to the traditional work schedule
b. employees have variable start and finish times for work
c. employees complete work away from the office
d. employees work full-time hours in fewer days per week
ANSWER: a
24. Which of the following was NOT identified as a best practice in developing and implementing successful health promotion programs?
a. communicate program success to stakeholders
b. ensure the program is in line with the workplace’s goals and values
c. keep the program broad so it meets general needs
d. engage in thorough evaluation of the program
ANSWER: c
25. Trudy feels considerable pressure. Her grown children expect her to help them care for her grandchildren, her mother requires daily visits, and she is still working full time. She wants to change the way she thinks about these pressures in her life. What type of programming would help Trudy think differently about the stressors she faces?
a. relaxation training
b. resilience training
c. cognitive-behavioural skills training d. conflict management training
ANSWER: c
26. Cognitive behavioural skills training should be provided to only managerial-level positions due to the complexity of it.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
27. There are four types of workplace nutrition programs.
a. True
b. False
Chapter 14 - Workplace Wellness: Work–Family and Health Promotion Programs
ANSWER: False
28. Employee and Family Assistance Programs (EFAPs) can help employees and their family members with financial or legal problems.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
29. Drug and alcohol testing programs are illegal in Canada.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
30. Some family-friendly policies may increase family-to-work conflict.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
31. Behavioural change is one category of worksite health promotion programming.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
32. There are mixed results regarding the effectiveness of stress management programs.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
33. Cognitive-behavioural skills training is the most effective stress management intervention.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
34. Meditation helps you deal directly with stress, whereas mindfulness helps you distance yourself from stress.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
35. The bulk of the meta-analytic research evidence suggests that family-friendly programming has moderately negative effects.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
36. Flextime programs are also known as telecommuting.
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Chapter 14 - Workplace Wellness: Work–Family and Health Promotion Programs
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
37. EFAPs fall in the category of family-friendly policies.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
38. Health promotion programs can sometimes increase absenteeism and benefit costs.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
39. List and give examples of the three broad categories of family-friendly programs that organizations can implement to reduce work–family conflict and assist employees in balancing their work and family responsibilities.
ANSWER: 1) Flexible work arrangements (e.g. compressed workweek, job sharing, job splitting, flextime, and telecommuting)
2) Personal leave systems (e.g. maternity leave, parental leave, personal days, family and sick leave)
3) Family care benefits (e.g. provision of daycare, subsidized dependent care)
40. Describe the seven essential elements required to develop a successful health promotion program.
ANSWER: 1) The health program should be in line with the workplace’s goals and values.
2) Multiple factors that influence health should be considered
3) The program should target a range of health issues.
4) The programs should be tailored to meet specific needs,
5) Efforts need to be made to achieve high participant levels.
6) Thorough evaluation is necessary.
7) Program success must be communicated to the stakeholders.
41. List the two overall recommendations and give examples for any four of the specific recommendations for organizations from the long-running national study on work–life balance in Canada.
ANSWER: The two overall recommendations are to reduce demands placed on employees and increase the control that employees have over their work. The specific recommendations include the following:
• Develop an organizational culture that values work–family balance
• Recognize unrealistic work demands and acknowledge that such loads are not sustainable
• Track the costs of understaffing and unrealistic work demands
• Avoid reliance on overtime work; hire more people if the need arises
• Track the direct and indirect costs of role overload and work–life conflict (absenteeism, overtime, employee assistance programs, turnover)
• Have policies about the use of office technology (e.g. change expectations about after-hours email)
• Offer “cafeteria-style” benefits programs so that employees can choose the services that benefit them
• Support child- and dependent-care needs (paid leave, care options)
• Offer flexible work options and support employees who use them.
• Reduce the incidence of non-supportive management
42. Discuss the steps typically included in secondary-level worksite health promotion programs.
Chapter 14 - Workplace Wellness: Work–Family and Health Promotion Programs
ANSWER: Worksite health promotion programs typically include three steps:
Step 1: physical or psychological assessment
Step 2: counselling concerning findings and recommendations about personal health promotion
Step 3: referral to in-house or community-based resources
43. Compare and contrast the three approaches to stress management programs in terms of their focus on thoughts, emotions, or behaviour.
ANSWER: In general, the goal of most stress management programs is to help employees become more self-aware and to help them to cope better. Stress management programs can focus on either thoughts/beliefs, or emotions, or behaviour, or a combination of two of these or all three of these.
Cognitive-behavioural skills training: developed in terms of the cognitive model of stress, which posits that emotional responses to situations are largely determined by how they are thought about and interpreted. The training helps people to think about events in new ways and to be aware of how they are viewing stressful events; it also provides skills for coping with stress. The goal is to alter both cognition of stressful events and behaviour toward them.
Relaxation training, meditation, and mindfulness: relaxation training focuses more on emotions and behaviour by teaching coping strategies through progressive muscle relaxation and breathing exercises. The purpose of this type of training is to provide people with skills to physically relax the body. Over time, individuals will learn to recognize the physical feelings associated with stress and to counteract these feelings by calling on the relaxation response. Meditation focuses on quieting the mind. Mindfulness focuses on bringing attention to the present in a purposeful and nonjudgmental way.
Increasing social support: provide a more supportive environment, such as by training workers in how to seek social support and in how to create a more supportive workplace. Social support tends to have emotional benefits as well as a focus on behavioural coping.
44. Ten years ago, the brand-new IT company where you started your career in HR as a technical recruiter was full of people in their early twenties with few commitments. However, because of the company’s success in retaining its employees, the company now has a workforce comprised of many employees, including yourself, in their child-bearing and child-rearing years and already experiencing health issues associated with the rapid growth of the company. You are now the Director of Human Resource Management for the entire company. Explain how you would put together a business case to convince the founders of the company to invest financially and give their support to family-friendly and health promotion programs.
ANSWER: Refer to OH&S Notebook 14.2, Wellness in Small Businesses, and OH&S Notebook 14.3, Using Evaluation to Build a Business Case for Health Promotion and Family-Friendly Programs.
To present a case for implementing and maintaining support for these programs, the HRM must show that these programs work in terms of important organizational outcomes. This starts with obtaining research that shows that these workplace wellness programs have had a positive effect in other companies. The next step is conducting a needs assessment, followed by program design and implementation. Concurrently research methodology should be carefully designed to ensure data collected will be valid and provide conclusive support by eliminating other explanations.
HRMs should collect data and evaluate the success of the family-friendly and health promotion programs within their organizations (through pre- and post-intervention assessments, surveys, and participation) compared to outcomes for control groups of employees who did not participate in the programs. Employers and HRMs should create data systems to review, identify, analyze, and measure improvements using some of the following data:
• Absenteeism and turnover
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Chapter 14 - Workplace Wellness: Work–Family and Health Promotion Programs
• Medical expenses
• Disability management practices and policies (including STD and LTD)
• Health costs
• Health and safety issues
• Workplace issues
• Family-friendly, health promotion, and employee assistance programs
• WCB claims and premiums
• Improved health and reduced work–family conflict stress
• Recruitment and retention
• Morale and job satisfaction
• Employee health while at work
These data are also essential in obtaining and maintaining organizational support for workplace health management programs. These data will answer critical questions concerning the organization’s direct and indirect health costs and the effect of the organization’s investment in health management systems. HRMs should refer to quantitative data, prepare calculation estimations, and be prepared to discuss critical success factors.
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