Test Bank For Thinking Through Communication An Introduction to the Study of Human Communication, 10

Test Bank For Thinking Through Communication An Introduction to the Study of Human Communication, 10E By Adam Roth, Brenton Malin, Sarah Trenholm Chapter 1-13

Chapter 1 Test Questions Multiple Choice 1. Communication has been a subject of systematic study for ___________. a. at least 2,500 years. b. approximately 1,500 years. c. the last 500 years. d. only the last 50 years.

Answer: a.

2. The formal study of communication began in ___________. a.

5th century Sicily.

b.

6th century Athens.

c.

7th century Rome.

d.

20th century America.

Answer: a.

3. In ancient Greece, the study of communication was known as ___________. a. paidagogos. b. academics.

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c. rhetoric. d. pathos.

Answer: c.

4. The Lyceum was founded by ___________. a. Plato. b. Aristotle. c. Alexander the Great. d. Demosthenes.

Answer: b.

5. Pathos is ___________. a. the study of persuasive communication. b. the use of personal character to influence an audience. c. the ability to arouse an audience‟s emotions. d. the use of logic and argumentation during persuasion.

Answer: c.

6. Ethos is ___________. a. the study of persuasive communication. b. the use of personal character to influence an audience. c. the ability to arouse an audience‟s emotions.

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d. the use of logic and argumentation during persuasion.

Answer: b.

7. Logos is ___________. a. the study of persuasive communication. b. the use of personal character to influence an audience. c. the ability to arouse an audience‟s emotions. d. the use of logic and argumentation during persuasion.

Answer: d.

8. The classical period in the history of rhetoric lasted ___________. a. from the 10th century BC to the 5th century BC. b. from the 5th century BC to the 4th century AD. c. from AD 400 to 1000. d. from AD 1000 to 1600.

Answer: b.

9. The canons of rhetoric were ___________. a. one of the seven wonders of the Ancient World. b. judges who awarded prizes for rhetoric at annual competitions in Athens. c. Greek legislators who took part in forensic argumentation. d. one of the earliest models of communication.

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Answer: d.

10. The canons of rhetoric were written in which period? a. Classical. b. Medieval. c. Renaissance. d. Contemporary.

Answer: a.

11. Belletristic rhetoric flourished in which period? a. Classical. b. Medieval. c. Modern. d. Contemporary.

Answer: c.

12. In which period were letter writing and preaching the core communication activities studied by rhetoricians? a. Classical. b. Medieval. c. Modern. d. Contemporary.

Answer: b.

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13. In which period did communication study expanded to include interpersonal and group as well as public communication? a. Classical. b. Medieval. c. Modern. d. Contemporary.

Answer: d.

14. In which period were Bacon and Campbell major figures? a. Classical. b. Medieval/Renaissance. c. Modern. d. Contemporary.

Answer: c.

15. In which period was Erasmus a major figure? a. Classical. b. Medieval/Renaissance. c. Modern. d. Contemporary.

Answer: b.

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16. In which period were Cicero and Quintilian major figures? a. Classical. b. Medieval/Renaissance. c. Modern. d. Contemporary.

Answer: a.

17. The canons of rhetoric include ___________. a. logos, pathos, ethos. b. peripatos, agora, paidagogos. c. invention, arrangement, style, memory, delivery. d. Simonides, Corax, Tisias.

Answer: c.

18. According to Cicero‟s classifications of speaking style, the style that was logical, clear, and restrained and worked to convince the audience of the speaker‟s good character, good sense, and trustworthiness was ___________. a. the plain style. b. the middle style. c. the vigorous style. d. all of the above.

Answer: a.

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19. Which of the following skills was Simonides noted for? a. Memory. b. System of logic. c. Use of pathos. d. High ethical standards.

Answer: a.

20. The process of deciding on the subject matter of a speech and developing arguments is called ___________. a. arrangement. b. style. c. invention. d. memory.

Answer: c.

21. ____________ is the process of selecting proper words to convey a message. a. Arrangement. b. Style. c. Invention. d. Memory.

Answer: b.

22. Ordering ideas in an effective way is called ___________.

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a. arrangement. b. style. c. invention. d. memory.

Answer: a.

23. One of the most popular mnemonic systems called for speakers to visualize their speeches as a ___________. a. villa with main ideas in each room. b. map of Athens with main ideas on different streets. c. tree with main ideas on each branch. d. zoo with main ideas associated with different animals.

Answer: a.

24. If a student tries to persuade fellow students to donate money to charity by showing them pictures of starving children in order to arouse their pity, the student is using the ___________ method of proof? a. ethos. b. pathos. c. logos. d. mnemonics.

Answer: b.

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25. When an audience is swayed not by the logic of a speaker‟s message but by their high regard for the speaker‟s character, they are being influenced by which method of proof? a. Ethos. b. Pathos. c. Logos. d. Mnemonics.

Answer: a.

26. Rhetoricians who took a psychological/epistemological approach focused on ___________. a. understanding the thought processes of receivers as they listened to persuasive messages. b. developing critical standards for evaluating drama, poetry and oratory. c. recovering the insights of the Greek rhetoricians. d. improving verbal and nonverbal delivery.

Answer: a.

27. According to Francis Bacon, the tendency to use language imprecisely was called ___________. a. the idol of the marketplace. b. the syllogism. c. the syntactic fallacy. d. general semantics.

Answer: a.

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28. During the contemporary period, communication scientists ___________. a. revised the canons of rhetoric. b. used statistical methods to study audience variables. c. took an essentially humanistic stand toward communication. d. viewed communication as an art that could not be studied objectively.

Answer: b.

29. The scientific method emphasizes which method of attaining knowledge? a. Armchair introspection. b. Faith in Divine revelation. c. Careful objective measurement. d. Study of traditional manuscripts.

Answer: c.

True and False 1. The name of Plato‟s school was the Academy.

Answer: T.

2. Most Greek schools were coeducational, admitting both male and female students.

Answer: F.

3. Corax and Tisias are generally considered to be the first of the Western rhetoricians.

Answer: T. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

4. One of the reasons for the rise of rhetoric in ancient Greece was the high status afforded to lawyers.

Answer: F.

5. The Greeks put a great deal of emphasis on legal and political discourse.

Answer: T.

6. Plato and Aristotle admired the ethical stance of the sophists and modeled their philosophies after them.

Answer: F.

7. Axiothea was one of the most famous of the five canons of rhetoric.

Answer: F.

8. If you had studied with Aristotle, the focus of your studies would have been on persuasive communication.

Answer: T.

9. Public speaking courses were quite popular in classical Greece.

Answer: T.

10. Classical Greek society was highly literate.

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Answer: F.

11. The Sophists were professional speech writers and political consultants.

Answer: T.

12. Cicero was Aristotle‟s teacher.

Answer: F.

13. Classical rhetoricians believed that the order of elements in a persuasive speech depended on whether the audience was hostile or friendly.

Answer: T.

14. Quintilian defined rhetoric as the study of “the good man speaking well.”

Answer: T.

15. Augustine was a contemporary and friend of Aristotle.

Answer: F.

16. During medieval and Renaissance times, many important theories were developed, making this time one of the most influential in the history of rhetoric.

Answer: F.

17. During the medieval period the goal of communication was to instruct the faithful in the

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revealed will of God. Answer: T.

18. Of the four modern approaches to rhetoric, the one that gave communication a bad name for many years was the elocutionary approach.

Answer: T.

19. According to Augustine, conventional signs are arbitrarily created by humans.

Answer: T.

20. The modern period begins in 1600.

Answer: T.

21. The contemporary period begins in l900.

Answer: T.

22. Most modern rhetoricians reject empiricism.

Answer: F.

23. Francis Bacon called the tendency to believe uncritically in fashionable, received ideas the idols of the cave.

Answer: F.

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24. The perceptual biases that we engage in simply because of human nature are called the idols of the tribe.

Answer: T.

Short Essay Questions 1. What were the three ways Aristotle thought a speaker could sway an audience? Give an example of each.

2. Why was communication so important in the classical period? What characteristics of Greek society made rhetoric an important skill?

3. What are the five canons of rhetoric?

4. What happened to the study of rhetoric during the medieval period? Who was the most famous of the medieval rhetoricians?

5. What four directions did rhetoric take in the modern period?

6. What is the scientific method?

Chapter 2 Test Questions

Multiple Choice Questions 1. People who see definitions as constructions rather than discoveries believe ___________. a. several different definitions may be equally valid. b. the test of a good definition is its absolute truth. c. a good definition accurately records and describes something that already exists. d. there is only one valid definition for each phenomenon. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

Answer: a.

2. Of the following definitions, the one that is broadest is ___________. a. communication is the discriminatory response of an organism to a stimulus. b. communication has as its central interest those behavioral situations in which a source transmits a message to a receiver with conscious intent to affect the latter‟s behaviors. c. communication is a process whereby people assign meanings to stimuli in order to make sense of the world. d. communication is the transmission of information, ideas, emotions, skills, etc., by the use of symbols.

Answer: a.

3. Of the following definitions, the one that implies that communication is intentional is ___________. a. communication is a process of acting on information. b. communication is the discriminatory response of an organism to a stimulus. c. communication has as its central interest those behavioral situations in which a source transmits a message to a receiver with conscious intent to affect the latter‟s behaviors. d. speech communication is a process through which people make sense of the world.

Answer: c.

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4. Of the following definitions, the one that is sender-based is ___________. a. communication is the discriminatory response of an organism to a stimulus. b. communication is a process whereby people assign meanings to stimuli in order to make sense of the world. c. communication is an effort after meaning, whereby people orient themselves to their environments. d. communication has as its central interest those behavioral situations in which a source transmits a message to a receiver with conscious intent to affect the latter‟s behavior.

Answer: d.

5. When people who study communication focus their attention on spoken symbolic interaction, their primary interest is in which of the following? a. The unintentional behaviors that accompany speaking. b. The way people use words to create common meaning. c. The unspoken body language that people use. d. All of the ways organisms (including non-human organisms) create meaning.

Answer: b.

6. Which of the following ways of understanding a city is an example of a model? a. A street map of the city.

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b. An organizational chart of the city government. c. A scale model of the city. d. ALL are examples of models.

Answer: d.

7. The three functions of models are ___________. a. primary, secondary, tertiary. b. explanation, prediction, control. c. psychological, sociological, philosophical. d. encoding, decoding, transmitting.

Answer: b.

8. Models do all of the following EXCEPT ___________. a. capture a process completely. b. help us organize our thinking. c. generate research questions. d. make predictions about the future.

Answer: a.

9. The psychological perspective ___________.

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a. sees communication as a shared cultural product. b. focuses on individual communicators as they transmit and receive messages. c. sees communication as a system of interlocking moves. d. says that accurate communication is impossible.

Answer: b.

10. Which of the following elements are part of the psychological perspective? a. Act, interact, payoff, pattern. b. Symbolic codes, cognitive customs, cultural traditions. c. Sender/receiver, message, channel, encoding/decoding. d. Ends, keys, instrumentalities, norms.

Answer: c.

11. A mental set consists of ___________. a. a psychological test of communication style. b. all the people a person communicates with. c. a set of patterned interactions. d. a person‟s beliefs, attitudes, values, and feelings.

Answer: d.

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12. Which of the following is NOT true of the psychological perspective? a. The psychological perspective puts a lot of emphasis on the social context in which communication occurs. b. The psychological perspective focuses on what goes on in the minds of communicators. . c. The psychological perspective assumes people must share mental sets to communicate effectively. d. The psychological perspective assumes communication can breakdown.

Answer: a.

13. The psychological perspective is generally associated with ___________. a. a laws approach to research. b. a rules approach to research. c. a systems approach to research. d. an ethnographic approach to research.

Answer: a.

14. According to a laws approach to research ___________. a. humans choose to follow the lines of action given by their cultures; research should describe the norms and roles they follow. b. human behavior is governed by invariant cause and effect relationships; research should discover these relationships.

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c. research should describe patterns of behavior rather than looking for either social norms or causal relationships. d. All of the above.

Answer: b.

15. Which of the following research questions takes a systems approach? a. How do successful couples organize or structure their behavior and how do they evolve or adapt themselves to change? b. Is there a cause and effect relationship between credibility and persuasion? c. What implicit rules do first year students follow as they acclimate to college? d. All of the above.

Answer: a.

16. Which of the following research questions takes a rules approach? a. How do successful couples organize or structure their behavior and how do they evolve or adapt themselves to change? b. Is there a cause and effect relationship between credibility and persuasion? c. What implicit norms do first year students follow as they acclimate to college? d. All of the above.

Answer: c.

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17. Which of the following is a criticism of the social constructionist perspective? a. It implies that senders can transfer messages. b. It places too much emphasis on the social self and not enough on the individual self. c. It holds that both personality and culture are irrelevant. d. It is too political.

Answer: b.

18. The perspective that places the most emphasis on behavioral patterns is ___________. a. psychological perspective. b. social constructionist perspective. c. pragmatic perspective. d. semiotic perspective.

Answer: c.

19. According to the social constructionist perspective we can improve communication by ___________. a. recognizing that we create reality by talking about it and taking responsibility for our talk. b. learning to see things from the receivers‟ point of view. c. encoding messages as clearly as possible. d. describing and understanding destructive patterns.

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Answer: a.

20. According to the pragmatic perspective we can improve communication by ___________. a. recognizing that because we create reality by talking about it, we should take responsibility for our talk. b. learning to see things from the receivers‟ point of view. c. encoding messages as clearly as possible. d. describing and understanding destructive patterns.

Answer: d.

21. People who take a pragmatic perspective to communication ___________. a. are interested in exploring the individual psychology of communicators. b. focus on the cultural background of communicators. c. are interested in interaction rather than personality. d. are interested in uncovering the hidden power relations that often exist in mediated texts.

Answer: c.

22. People who take a critical theory/cultural studies perspective to communication ___________ a. are interested in exploring the individual psychology of communicators.

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b. focus on the cultural background of communicators. c. are interested in interaction rather than personality. d. are interested in uncovering the hidden power relations that often exist in mediated texts.

Answer: d.

23. Which of the following elements are part of the social constructionist perspective? a. Act, interact, payoff, pattern. b. Symbolic codes, cognitive customs, cultural traditions. c. Sender/receiver, message, channel, encoding/decoding. d. Ends, keys, instrumentalities, norms.

Answer: b.

24. Which of the perspectives would be most likely to generate the following research question: In what ways do the situation comedies of the Golden Age of Television support the subservience of women? a. Psychological perspective. b. Social constructivist perspective. c. Pragmatic perspective. d. Cultural studies perspective.

Answer: d.

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25. Which of the following elements are part of Hymes ethnographic model? a. Act, interact, payoff, pattern. b. Symbolic codes, cognitive customs, cultural traditions. c. Sender/receiver, message, channel, encoding/decoding. d. Ends, keys, instrumentalities, norms.

Answer: d.

True and False 1. The term definition comes from a Latin word meaning “to determine or bring to an end.”

Answer: T.

2. In the 1970s when Dance reviewed definitions of communication, he found that most experts agreed on a single definition.

Answer: F.

3. A broad definition of communication is one that identifies many phenomena as communication (rather than limiting the range of phenomena that count as communication).

Answer: T. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

4. An intentional definition of communication holds that communication is purposeful and planned.

Answer: T. 5. Dance believes communication is not a single concept but rather a series of related concepts.

Answer: T.

6. A symbol is an arbitrary and conventionalized representation of an object or concept.

Answer: T.

7. According to your textbook, the best definition of communication is one that is narrow and sender based.

Answer: F.

8. According to your textbook, the best definition of communication is one that is broad and receiver based.

Answer: F.

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9. All models make assumptions about the processes they describe.

Answer: T.

10. Although there can be many definitions of communication, there is only one correct model of communication.

Answer: F.

11. The research question “Are multiple channels more effective than single channels for transmitting complex messages?” is an example of the kind of question asked by researchers who take a rules approach.

Answer: F.

12. The research question “What norms do students at a given college follow to fit in and gain acceptance from their peers?” is an example of the kind of question asked by researchers who take a laws approach.

Answer: F.

13. The most widely used models and definitions of communication are based on the psychological perspective.

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Answer: T.

14. Noise is defined as the extent to which a sender amplifies a message by making it louder and clearer.

Answer: F.

15. According to the social constructionist perspective, we experience the world indirectly through cultural blinders.

Answer: T.

16. According to the social constructionist perspective, communication is constrained by culture in important ways.

Answer: T.

17. The social constructionist perspective defines good communication as socially appropriate communication.

Answer: T.

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18. The perspective that compares communication to an intricate game is the social constructionist perspective.

Answer: F.

19. According to the pragmatic perspective, communication will be most successful when the mental sets of individual communicators are similar.

Answer: F.

20. According to the pragmatic viewpoint, the smallest significant unit of communication is the interact.

Answer: T.

21. Pragmatic therapists take special care to identify factors in the past history of their clients that might have caused the problems they face today.

Answer: F.

22. Dell Hymes‟ model of communication is a description of the processes speakers go through to construct and present speeches.

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Answer: F.

23. According to Hymes, a speech act is a social role people use in public situations.

Answer: F.

24. A speech community is a group of people who share common attitudes toward speech.

Answer: T.

25. The perspective that focuses on uncovering ways in which cultural texts support oppression is called the pragmatic perspective.

Answer: F.

Short Essay Questions 1. In what two ways can definitions be viewed? What is the difference between them? What view does your textbook take?

2. What is a model? What are three functions of models? What are three drawbacks to models?

3. What is a perspective? What are the three perspectives discussed in the textbook? How are they different from one another?

4. What are the basic elements in a psychological model?

5. What are the basic elements in a social constructionist model? © 2018 Taylor & Francis

6. What are the basic elements in a pragmatic model?

7. What is the goal of the critical theory/cultural studies perspective?

8. What is the difference between laws, rules, and systems approaches to research?

9. Name at least five things an ethnographer should observe about communication according to Hymes. Give examples of each, drawn from any speech community you desire.

Chapter 3 Test Questions

Multiple Choice Questions 1. What distinguishes new media from old media? a. New media incorporate Web 3.0; old media use Web 2.0. b. New media are all media developed after the year 2000; old media preceded that date. c. New media convey information digitally; old media do not rely on digitization. d. All of the above.

Answer: c.

2. Cell phone SMS messages are an example of ___________. a. user-generated mass media. b. analog media. c. personal media. d. affordance media.

Answer: c.

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3. Which is NOT true of new media? a. New media have done little to change the way mediated messages are consumed. b. New media have the capacity to combine sound, images, and words in a single message. c. New media are more interactive than old media. d. New media allow unprecedented access to information.

Answer: a.

4. Which of the following is NOT one of the affordances of new media? a. Persistence. b. Spreadability. c. Visibility. d. None of the above; all are affordances of new media.

Answer: d.

5. According to the shallowing hypothesis: a. romantic relationships initiated online are less likely to last than those initiated in face to face settings. b. the internet has increased the extent to which people like to read long-form content. c. the internet has made us better at scanning, skimming, and browsing, but worse at reflective thinking. d. multi-tasking while studying results in more rather than less retention of information.

Answer: c

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6. A telecocoon is ___________. a. an episode of a TV show available on the internet. b. a virtual space that keeps people connected even when they are not present in the same geographic space. c. a computer virus that is embedded for a long period before it emerges. d. a means of making sure data stored on one‟s computer is not lost.

Answer: b.

7. The study by the Pew Research Center that asked experts to predict what young people would be like in the year 2020 concluded that ___________. a. they would be able to solve problems quickly by accessing collective intelligence. b. they would be less patient and more dependent on instant gratification. c. they would become accustomed “to a diet of quick-fix information nuggets.” d. All of the above.

Answer: d.

8. The term “Facebook eye” refers to: a. intentionally engaging in offline behaviors in order to gain “likes” or positive comments online. b. a kind of multi-tasking in which we switch our attention back and forth between social media platforms. c. addiction to using social media sites. d. a nervous disorder resulting from spending too much time staring at our screens.

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9. The term „social capital‟ refers to ___________. a. third places other than home or workplace where people meet one another. b. the virtual locations that are most popular among teens. c. the advantages that occur from participating in social networks. d. the amount of disposable money teens have to spend on personal media devices.

Answer: c.

10. Which of the following is true of context collapse? a. Context collapse occurs when we find ourselves simultaneously having to meet the expectations of two unrelated social contexts. b. Context collapse occurs when we find ourselves in a social context that is so unfamiliar we do not know how to proceed. b. Context collapse occurs during the period when we are learning how to use a new technology but have not yet mastered it. c. Context collapse occurs when we have so much incoming information that we become exhausted by it.

Answer: a.

11. Which is NOT one of the ways Dinah Boyd found that teens try to control context collapse? a. Segregating audiences. b. Using codes to make sure that outsiders don‟t understand the meaning you are trying to convey.

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c. Using private channels to convey messages that could be misinterpreted if posted on a more public forum. d. None of the above; all are ways to control context collapse.

Answer: d.

12. When individuals become so distracted by their cell phones that they ignore their relational partners, they are engaged in: a. covert provocation b. venting c. phubbing d. shallowing Answer: c

13. Once a message is posted online, it is difficult to erase; it lives on somewhere in cyberspace.

This is an example of the affordance known as: a. searchability b. spreadability c. visibility d. persistence.

Answer: d

14. The fact that messages can be forwarded so that content intended for one person can be passed to others, is known as:

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a. searchability b. spreadability c. visibility d. persistence Answer: c

True and False 1. The term “digital divide” refers to the fact that differences in geography and economic conditions mean that some people have access to electronic communication while others do not.

Answer: T

2. Long before the advent of personal media devices, communication scholars believed that most interpersonal messages were unmediated.

Answer: T.

3. Before personal media became widely available, most interpersonal messages were thought to occur in face-to-face contexts.

Answer: T.

4. Most new media are synchronous, whereas most old media are asynchronous.

Answer: F.

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5. Messages posted online exhibit more persistence than messages that are spoken in face-to-face contexts.

Answer: T.

6. A message whispered to a friend during a conversation is more visible than a message posted to a social networking site.

Answer: F.

7. Online gossip generally shows more spreadability than offline gossip.

Answer T.

8. Searchability is the amount of effort it takes for one person to find information about another.

Answer: T.

9. According to the “shallowing hypothesis,” as a result of using the internet, individuals become more distracted and less able to focus for long periods of time.

Answer: T.

10. Author Nicholas Carr believes that going online frequently can actually change the way the brain functions.

Answer: T.

11. Today, the internet is viewed as an important source of social capital.

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Answer: T.

12. Bonding social capital refers to the social ties that link people together with others who are different and whom they would normally not get to know.

Answer F.

13. In general people who are like you and can offer you understanding and support create bonding social capital Answer: T.

14. It is fairly standard today for job recruiters and employers to monitor social network sites.

Answer: T.

15. Texting is a more frequent way of maintaining friendships than face-to-face interaction.

Answer: T.

16. People are often judged online by the people they list as friends.

Answer: T

17. The two types of media multitasking are serial switching and concurrent processing.

Answer: T

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18. When someone writes a paper while at the same time listening to music, he or she is engaged in serial switching.

Answer: F

Short Essay Questions 1. List and define the affordances of new media.

2. For each affordance of new media, describe one advantage and one disadvantage.

3. What is the “shallowing hypothesis?” Describe at least one study that lends support to the hypothesis. Do you agree or disagree with it?

4. Describe at least four ways personal media are changing the way we experience social interaction.

5. What is online context collapse and what are some strategies to control it?

6. Describe at least two advantages and two disadvantages of conducting interpersonal interactions online.

Chapter 4 Test Questions Multiple Choice 1. What is the primary distinction between social scientific and humanistic research methods?

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a) Social scientific methods focus on interpretation, while humanistic methods rely on experiments. b) Social scientific methods emphasize objectivity and measurement, while humanistic methods focus on interpretation. c) Humanistic methods use statistical analysis, while social scientific methods focus on qualitative descriptions. d) Both methods rely solely on textual analysis.

Answer: b

2. Which of the following is an example of a quantitative research method? a) Ethnography b) Interviews c) Experiments d) Focus groups Answer: c

3. What is the main purpose of an Institutional Review Board (IRB)? a) To ensure a study produces accurate results b) To oversee the ethical treatment of research subjects c) To analyze data collected from social experiments d) To review the funding requests for a research project Answer: b

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4. Which research method involves the systematic coding and analysis of communication content? a) Survey research b) Content analysis c) Experimental research d) Oral history Answer: b

5. In survey research, what does a Likert Scale measure? a) The frequency of an event occurring b) The strength of agreement or disagreement on a given topic c) The number of times a person engages in an activity d) The demographic characteristics of a participant Answer: b

6. What is an independent variable in an experiment? a) A variable that changes as a result of the experiment b) A variable that remains constant throughout the study c) A variable that is manipulated by the researcher d) A variable that is unknown to the participants Answer: c

7. The control group in an experiment is:

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a) The group that receives the experimental treatment b) The group that does not receive the experimental treatment c) The group that changes the independent variable d) The group that analyzes the results Answer: b

8. Convenience sampling is a type of: a) Probability sampling b) Non-probability sampling c) Experimental sampling d) Systematic sampling Answer: b

9. Which term describes a relationship between two variables but does not imply causation? a) Correlation b) Causation c) Independent variable d) Likert scale Answer: a

10. What does a high standard deviation indicate in a set of data? a) The data points are close to the mean

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b) The data points are widely spread out c) The data set has a low mean d) The data is qualitative rather than quantitative Answer: b

11. What is the main advantage of survey research? a) It allows researchers to gather data from a large sample b) It provides in-depth personal interviews c) It requires less analysis than other methods d) It eliminates the possibility of bias Answer: a

12. What is a double-barreled question in survey research? a) A question that contains two separate ideas within a single question b) A question that provides only two possible answers c) A question that is asked twice in different ways d) A question that requires a numerical response Answer: a

13. The dependent variable in an experiment is: a) The variable that is manipulated by the researcher b) The variable that remains unchanged c) The variable that is measured as the outcome

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d) The variable that acts as a control factor Answer: c

14. What is purposive sampling? a) Selecting participants based on specific characteristics relevant to the study b) Randomly selecting participants from a population c) Selecting participants based on convenience d) Selecting participants who volunteer for the study Answer: a

15. Which of the following best describes ethnographic research? a) A study conducted entirely in a laboratory setting b) Research that involves observing and interacting with participants in their natural environment c) A method that focuses only on historical documents d) A method that relies solely on survey responses Answer: b

16. Which term refers to the degree to which a study's results can be applied to a larger population? a) Validity b) Generalizability c) Reliability d) Correlation

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Answer: b

17. What does intercoder reliability measure in content analysis? a) The extent to which different coders agree on coding decisions b) The frequency of a particular code appearing in the data c) The speed at which coding is completed d) The qualitative interpretation of textual data Answer: a

18. Structured interviews involve: a) A conversational style with no predetermined questions b) A standardized set of questions asked to every participant c) A free-flowing discussion between researcher and participant d) An observation without direct questioning Answer: b

19. What is the median in a data set? a) The most frequently occurring number b) The arithmetic average of all values c) The middle number in an ordered data set d) The difference between the highest and lowest values Answer: c

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20. A survey experiment combines: a) Interviews and experiments b) Surveys and textual analysis c) Survey research with an embedded experimental design d) Historical research with statistical modeling Answer: c

21. Which term refers to the process of turning qualitative data into numerical data for analysis? a) Likert scaling b) Coding c) Sampling d) Experimentation Answer: b

22. What is snowball sampling? a) A method where researchers recruit initial participants, who then refer additional participants b) A random sampling technique c) A process in which subjects are chosen based on their availability d) A method that uses only numerical data Answer: a

23. What is the range of a data set?

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a) The middle value b) The difference between the highest and lowest values c) The most frequently occurring value d) The standard deviation Answer: b

24. A focus group is a type of: a) Experimental research b) Survey research c) Qualitative research d) Content analysis Answer: c

25. Historical research often relies on: a) Surveys and experiments b) Primary sources such as archives and historical documents c) Observational data from contemporary studies d) Focus group discussions Answer: b

26. Archival research involves: a) Studying ancient ruins b) Analyzing historical documents and records

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c) Conducting modern surveys d) Collecting first-hand oral history accounts Answer: b

27. Which of the following is NOT a qualitative research method? a) Interviews b) Content analysis c) Focus groups d) Ethnography Answer: b

28. What is the mode in a data set? a) The most frequently occurring number b) The middle number in an ordered data set c) The difference between the highest and lowest values d) The average of all values Answer: a

29. Which research method examines the meanings behind media messages? a) Content analysis b) Experimental research c) Textual analysis d) Survey research

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Answer: c

30. What is the main benefit of mixed-method research? a) It eliminates the need for statistical analysis b) It combines qualitative and quantitative approaches for a broader understanding c) It requires fewer participants d) It is faster to conduct than other research methods Answer: b

True and False

1. Social scientific research primarily focuses on objectivity and measurement. (True) 2. Humanistic research methods rely heavily on statistical analysis. (False) 3. Ethnography is a quantitative research method. (False) 4. A Likert Scale measures the level of agreement or disagreement. (True) 5. Content analysis is a qualitative research method. (False) 6. The dependent variable is manipulated by the researcher in an experiment. (False) 7. An Institutional Review Board (IRB) ensures the ethical treatment of research subjects. (True) 8. Convenience sampling is a type of probability sampling. (False) 9. Informed consent is required for research involving human subjects. (True) 10. Surveys are useful for collecting data from a large sample. (True) 11. The median is the most frequently occurring number in a dataset. (False) 12. Standard deviation measures how spread out a set of scores is. (True)

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13. The independent variable is the one being measured in an experiment. (False) 14. A focus group consists of a structured one-on-one interview. (False) 15. Qualitative research methods include interviews and focus groups. (True) 16. Survey response rate refers to the percentage of participants who complete the survey. (True) 17. Content analysis involves counting and analyzing communication messages. (True) 18. Historical research primarily uses secondary sources. (False) 19. Ethnographic research requires participant observation. (True) 20. Snowball sampling is a method where participants recruit other participants. (True) 21. Oral history is a quantitative research method. (False) 22. A research hypothesis is always proven to be true. (False) 23. Mixed-method research combines qualitative and quantitative approaches. (True) 24. Textual analysis is commonly used in rhetorical criticism. (True) 25. Probability sampling ensures that every individual in a population has an equal chance of selection. (True)

Short Essay Questions 1. What are the key differences between qualitative and quantitative research methods in communication studies?

2. Describe the role of an Institutional Review Board (IRB) in research and explain why it is important.

3. What is the purpose of a control group in an experimental study, and how does it contribute to research findings?

4. Explain the concept of generalizability in social scientific research and why it is significant.

5. What is intercoder reliability in content analysis, and why is it important for ensuring research validity? © 2018 Taylor & Francis

6. How does purposive sampling differ from probability sampling, and in what types of research is it commonly used?

7. Describe the process and significance of thick description in ethnographic research.

8. What are the main components of a social scientific research paper, and how do they contribute to a structured presentation of findings?

Chapter 5 Test Questions

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Newspeak is ___________. a. a format that journalists use in lead articles. b. jargon used by teenagers in the 1950s. c. a totalitarian language described by Orwell. d. a term for 21st-century linguistic changes predicted by futurists.

Answer: c.

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of language? a. Language is rule governed. b. Language is productive. c. Language uses symbols. d. ALL of the above are characteristics of language.

Answer: d.

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3. A symbol differs from other kinds of signs in that ___________. a. it is arbitrary and conventional. b. it consists of a signified and a signifier whereas other signs do not. c. there is a natural connection between a symbol and its meaning. d. there is no difference between a symbol and other kinds of signs.

Answer: a.

4. Which of the following statements best describes linguistic productivity? a. All of the words within a language mirror reality. b. People who speak different languages experience the world differently. c. Language develops through direct imitation of the sentences of others. d. Humans can process and generate entirely novel sentences.

Answer: d.

5. Linguistic relativity means that ___________. a. all of the words within a language mirror reality. b. people who speak different languages experience the world differently. c. language develops through direct imitation of the sentences of others. d. humans can process and generate entirely novel sentences.

Answer: b.

6. Which of the following statements describes the experiment used in the Carmichael study? a. Children were asked to spell words as rapidly as possible.

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b. Subjects who spoke different languages had to come up with strategies for communicating with one another. c. Pictures labeled with different words were flashed rapidly on a screen. d. Young children had to make up words for novel objects.

Answer: c.

7. According to linguistic determinism ___________. a. natural signs are more powerful than conventional signs. b. language determines thought. c. people who use correct grammar get better jobs and are perceived as more honest than those who make grammatical errors. d. the ability to understand and use language is innate.

Answer: b.

8. Which of the following is a conclusion from the Carmichael study? a. We seldom think in words; instead we think in images. b. We store many visual memories in words. c. People are able to store more images than words. d. Memorized information is not affected by schematic default options.

Answer: b.

9. Who were Sapir and Whorf? a. Linguists who studied the relationship between thought and language.

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b. Two of the most important of the Port Royal Grammarians. c. The developers of CMM theory. d. The developers of speech act theory.

Answer: a.

10. ___________ is a simple language deliberately invented so that people new to an area can communicate with those who live in that area. a. Dialect. b. Pidgin. c. Lingua franca. d. Argot.

Answer: b.

11. When criminals use secret words so that police can‟t understand what they mean, they are using ___________. a. dialect. b. pidgin. c. lingua franca. d. argot.

Answer: d.

12. In English, “b” and “p” are separate ___________. a. morphemes.

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b. phonemes. c. syntactic structures. d. pragmatic rules.

Answer: b.

13. Which is NOT true of the word boys? a. It contains two morphemes. b. It contains one bound and one unbound morpheme. c. It is made up of a single phoneme. d. All of the above.

Answer: c.

14. The kind of linguistic knowledge that allows us to interpret others‟ communication intent and to acceptable language choices is ___________. a. semantic knowledge. b. pragmatic knowledge. c. phonological knowledge. d. syntactic knowledge.

Answer: b.

15. _____________ knowledge allows us to pronounce familiar words correctly and know how unfamiliar words sound. a. Phonological.

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b. Semantic. c. Syntactic. d. Pragmatic.

Answer: a.

16. Which kind of linguistic knowledge allows us to recognize how the addition or subtraction of a morpheme can change meaning? a. Phonological knowledge. b. Semantic knowledge. c. Syntactic knowledge. d. Pragmatic knowledge.

Answer: b.

17. A speech act is ___________. a. the social intent of a speaker when he or she produces an utterance. b. a tendency to use language to put on an act by assuming inappropriate social roles. c. a random nonverbal behavior. d. a sequence of behaviors that fit together and that have a beginning, middle, and end.

Answer: a.

18. CMM theory helps us to understand ___________. a. how individuals use context to assign pragmatic meaning. b. how morphemes are learned and stored mentally.

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c. how men and women communicate differently. d. how ambiguity functions psychologically.

Answer: a.

19. Which of the following describes how classroom discourse differs from conversation? a. Topics are relatively impersonal. b. It is nonreciprocal and less egalitarian. c. It is publicly accessed. d. All of the above.

Answer: d.

20. Dr. Smith‟s letter of recommendation for Jane consists of one sentence: “Jane always came to class.” Dr. Smith has violated which conversational maxim? a. Quality. b. Quantity. c. Relevancy….. d. Manner.

Answer: b.

21. John never answers a question directly. Although he stays on topic, he hems and haws and is far from clear. He violates which maxim? a. Quality.

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b. Quantity. c. Relevancy. d. Manner.

Answer: d.

22. Which is true of gender and communication? a. Women talk more than men. b. Men talk more than women. c. In friendly, same-gender dyads, men talk more than women. d. In task-oriented cross-gender groups, men talk more than women.

Answer: d.

23. John and Sandra Condry asked people to interpret why a newborn was crying. Those who were told the baby was a girl assumed the baby was ___________. a. complaining. b. afraid. c. angry. d. in pain.

Answer: b.

24. Which of the following describes the tendency to add fragments like “right?” or “OK?” at the end of a sentence? a. Tag question.

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b. Qualifier. c. Disclaimer. d. Semantic overload.

Answer: a.

25. The hall of mirrors effect refers to the idea that ___________. a. over time, physical appearance becomes more and more important in determining status, eventually overpowering other status indicators such as use of prestige dialects. b. over time, modest claims about male/female differences become exaggerated, and hypotheses are assumed to be facts. c. in groups, less dominant members take on the language patterns of more dominant members. d. as relationships develop, members of couples tend to speak alike, copying each other‟s phrasing and timing.

Answer: b.

26. In equivocal communication ___________. a. messages can be interpreted in more than one way. b. men and women spend the same amount of time talking. c. verbal and nonverbal messages bear equal weight. d. meanings are clear and unambiguous.

Answer: a.

27. Empirical studies show that the use of verbal immediacy ___________.

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a. increases ratings of a speaker‟s competence. b. makes the speaker seem dissimilar to the audience. c. has no effect on perceptions of how relaxed the speaker is. d. All of the above.

Answer: a.

28. Which of the following actions is something most people do in conversational closings? a. Signal the interaction is at an end. b. Reassure their conversational partners that the interaction has been successful. c. Establish conditions for future interaction. d. All of the above are used in conversational closings.

Answer: d.

True and False 1. One of the goals of most communication schools is to train and encourage students to use newspeak.

Answer: F.

2. According to Chapter 4, language and thought are relatively independent; most thought is not linguistic.

Answer: F.

3. The term “natural language” refers to spoken language. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

Answer: T.

4. Natural languages are made up primarily of natural rather than conventional signs.

Answer: F.

5. According to the principle of linguistic productivity, we learn language by memorizing specific word combinations.

Answer: F.

6. The word dog is an example of a signifier; the idea of a dog is an example of a signified.

Answer: T.

7. Numbers are examples of symbols.

Answer: T.

8. Most language speakers can easily articulate the rules that govern their language.

Answer: F.

9. The Sapir–Whorf hypothesis outlines the maxims that must be followed for cooperative communication.

Answer: F.

10. Euphemisms are extremely direct and often shocking word choices.

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Answer: F.

11. Jargon is specialized language known to in-group members.

Answer: T.

12. A phoneme is the smallest unit of the semantic subsystem of language.

Answer: F.

13. A list of all the words of a language is known as a lexicon.

Answer: T.

14. A person‟s ideas about what kinds of communication match his or her personal identity is called a life script.

Answer: T.

15. Classroom discourse is more scripted than conversation.

Answer: T.

16. Sometimes people send indirect messages by intentionally violating conversational maxims.

Answer: T.

17. Conversational endings are less structured than other parts of a conversation and do little social work.

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Answer: F.

18. Women have been found to use more qualifiers than do men.

Answer: T.

19. Boys engage in much more trouble talk than do girls.

Answer: F.

20. Boys‟ play often involves boasting, mocking insults, and teasing.

Answer: T.

21. Research on girls‟ play shows that girls‟ games often focus on matters of inclusion and exclusion.

Answer: T.

22. Rapport talk is more characteristic of men than of women.

Answer: T.

23. There is research to show that men are more likely than women to emerge as leaders in short encounters, but, in longer encounters, gender differences decrease.

Answer: T.

24. “Women‟s language” refers to the way women are supposed to talk, whereas “the language

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of women” is the way women actually talk.

Answer: T.

25. Neologisms are scientific terms that average people have difficulty understanding.

Answer: F.

26. Reappropriation is a process whereby group members embrace negative labels in order to change their connotations.

Answer: T.

27. Immediate language is personalized language that builds a close connection between speaker and listener.

Answer: T.

28. Lakoff showed that while metaphors are frequently used by poets and writers, they are seldom used (and can have very adverse effects if they are used) in conversations.

Answer: F.

Short Essay Questions 1. What is language? What are its four characteristics? Explain and give an example of each.

2. Explain the Sapir–Whorf hypothesis. What are its two corollaries? Give examples of the Sapir–Whorf hypothesis. Do you agree or disagree with it? © 2018 Taylor & Francis

3. What is linguistic productivity? What conclusion do linguists draw from the fact that language is productive?

4. What are the four subsystems of language discussed in the text? What is the smallest unit of each subsystem? What does mastering the rules governing each subsystem enable us to do?

5. What is a speech act? Why do we need to understand speech acts in order to communicate?

Give at least one example of a single word or phrase that might have two or more speech acts associated with it. What kind of information do people use to determine the meaning of a speech act from a specific utterance?

6. According to CMM theory, what four levels of context must we take into account during communication? Give an example of a pragmatic rule at each of the four levels.

7. What four types of questions should you ask yourself to determine the rules of any form of discourse?

8. What factors does Aries cite when she cautions us to be wary of the generalizations we make about gender differences in communication?

9. Explain and give an example of each of the following kinds of language. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using each kind? Kinds: ambiguous language, abstract language, euphemistic language, metaphorical language, immediate language.

Chapter 6 Test Questions

Multiple Choice Questions 1. When our behaviors toward someone cause that person to act as we expected him or her to act,

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we are committing a: a. confirmation bias. b. interpersonal self-fulfilling prophecy. c. fundamental attribution error. d. self-serving bias.

Answer: b

2. When we underestimate the effects of situational causes and overestimate the effects of dispositional causes, we are committing a: a. confirmation bias. b. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. fundamental attribution error. d. self-serving bias.

Answer: c

3. When we ignore information that contradicts our beliefs, we are committing a: a. confirmation bias. b. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. fundamental attribution error. d. self-serving bias.

Answer: a

4. When we assume our successes are due to our disposition while our failures are situational, we

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are committing a: a. confirmation bias. b. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. fundamental attribution error. d. self-serving bias.

Answer: d

5. The story in Chapter 3 about scientists attending a convention illustrates that ___________. a. most people attend to and interpret events objectively. b. scientists are better observers than ordinary people. c. the perceptual responses of scientists are less accurate than those of artists. d. perception is a subjective process.

Answer: d.

6. Which of these statements is NOT true of listening? a. Listening is a social cognitive process. b. Americans are, overall, very effective listeners. c. Listening is an active, not a passive, process. d. All of the above are untrue.

Answer: b.

7. The gap between Americans‟ listening ability and their performance is due to ___________. a. the low value Americans place on listening. b. the fact that teachers often don‟t challenge students to listen carefully. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

c. the fact that parents often discourage listening. d. All of the above.

Answer: d.

8. To improve attention, it is a good idea to do all of the following EXCEPT ___________. a. have a clear purpose in mind when entering a listening situation. b. acknowledge how easy it is to become distracted. c. pay attention to how something is said as well as to what is said. d. avoid listening to content you know will bore or annoy you.

Answer: d.

9. During the interpretive step in the listening process, people do all of the following EXCEPT ___________. a. give stimuli structure, stability, and meaning. b. use schemata to fill in missing details. c. rely on mental guidelines such as personal prototypes and scripts. d. see the world exactly as it is presented to them.

Answer: d.

10. A schema is ___________. a. a form of listening wherein people offer comfort and support to one another. b. a kind of bias found in the thought processes of lazy processors. c. an internal representation of an object, quality, or action. d. people with exceptionally accurate perceptual abilities.

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Answer: c.

11. Person prototypes are ___________. a. the characteristics we habitually notice in others. b. representations of sequences of action. c. idealized representations of categories of people. d. people we ignore and treat as “nonpersons.”

Answer: c.

12. Sue has very strong ideas about what a professor should look like. She is surprised when she meets Dr. Smith, because Smith does not look like a professor should. Smith violates one of Sue‟s ___________. a. person prototypes. b. personal constructs. c. scripts. d. one of the above.

Answer: a.

13. One of the characteristics that Sue always looks for in others is honesty. For Sue, honesty is an example of ___________. a. a person prototype. b. a personal construct.

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c. a script. d. cognitive complexity.

Answer: b.

14. Which of the following statements is true about chronically accessible constructs? a. Chronically accessible constructs are constructs that are seldom used and have only a minor effect on the way we interpret what we hear. b. When we say that a personal construct is chronically accessible, we mean it is a construct a person uses frequently to judge a wide range of people. c. Chronically accessible constructs seldom bias perception because they are within our awareness and easy to monitor. d. Chronically accessible constructs are found in only about 10 percent of the population; they are very rare.

Answer: b.

15. Mindless processing is ___________. a. inaccurate and faulty processing. b. information processing that relies heavily on familiar schemata. c. processing that focuses on unusual or novel events. d. careful, critical thinking.

Answer: b.

16. A perception check is ___________.

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a. a method teachers use to reward good listeners in the classroom. b. any factor that gets in the way of good listening and decreases our ability to interpret correctly. c. a response that allows you to state your interpretation and ask your partner whether that interpretation is correct. d. a cognitive bias that makes us listen only to information we already agree with.

Answer: c.

17. Which of the following is a description (rather than an inference or an evaluation)? a. When I asked Barry the question, he shifted his gaze and didn‟t make eye contact. b. Barry is very annoying; you can‟t have a decent conversation with him. c. Barry is lying to me. d. All of the above Answer: a.

18. Which of the following should be AVOIDED if you want to improve listening? a. Perception checks b. Paraphrasing c. Active listening d. None of the above Answer: d.

19. Which of the following is true of memory?

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a. False memories are very rare; well-adjusted people do not have false memories. b. Memory can be affected by stress. c. Memory can be improved if retroactive inhibition occurs. d. All of the above.

Answer: b.

20. In order to make sure that audiences understand and accept their messages, it is a good idea for speakers to a. add random bits of information in unexpected places within a message. b. use extreme vocal variety so that audiences have to readjust their listening as the message goes on. c. relate any new information to old information the audience already has. d. use challenging vocabulary that makes the speaker seem smarter than the audience.

Answer: c.

21. Which of the following kinds of information will be difficult to store and retrieve? a. Information that is tied to an external trigger. b. Information that the audience has actively rehearsed. c. Information that is related to the self-concept. d. None of the above.

Answer: d.

22. When Della tutors Nathan, she makes sure to use analogies that relate new material to

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familiar material that Nathan already understands. In doing so she is ___________. a. enhancing interpretation by increasing comprehension. b. increasing involuntary attention. c. offering an incentive to increase acceptance of message content. d. using repetition to increase retention.

Answer: a.

23. Scott wants to capture the attention of his audience. He should ___________. a. adapt the message to audience goals, needs, and plans. b. avoid intense or novel stimuli. c. make sure he uses abstract words. d. speak very slowly, in a monotone.

Answer: a.

24. Emily wants to persuade an audience to accept her proposal. To increase acceptance, she should do all of the following EXCEPT ___________. a. offer incentives for acceptance. b. encourage positive cognitive responses. c. challenge and criticize cherished beliefs the audience currently holds. d. provide interactive, hands-on experience.

Answer: c.

25. According to cognitive response theory ___________.

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a. receivers accept messages not because of what a speaker says but because of their own responses to the speaker. b. emotional material should be avoided during communication because it interferes with comprehension. c. most people‟s responses to messages are intuitive, based more on feeling than on thought. d. people cannot be taught listening skills.

Answer: a.

26. The method that most encourages cognitive responses is ___________. a. role-playing or use of an activity in which receivers take an active part. b. use of carefully organized lecture material. c. use of multiple channels to convey a single message. d. use of charts and statistics.

Answer: a.

True and False 1. Whereas encoding is an essential part of communication, decoding is relatively unimportant.

Answer: F

2. People who are naïve realists are usually well aware of their biases.

Answer: F

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3. The confirmation bias occurs when we seek out information that confirms our beliefs.

Answer: T

4. Most people believe that they are less biased than the average person.

Answer: T

5. Having a bias blind spot means that we accept other people as they are without being biased toward them Answer: F

5. Hearing involves both sensing external aural data and labeling, organizing, and assigning meaning to them.

Answer: F.

6. Hearing and listening are identical processes.

Answer: F.

7. Listening ability decreases with education. Whereas listening is relatively good in first grade, it generally decreases by high school.

Answer: T.

8. According to your textbook, hearing is a process wherein sound waves are translated into electrical impulses and processed by the central nervous system.

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Answer: T.

9. Using schemas often makes perception easier and more efficient.

Answer: T.

10. Using schemas can make our perceptions inaccurate and unfair.

Answer: T.

11. Attention that is guided by personal plans and goals is called involuntary attention.

Answer: F.

12. Bob glances up from his work to look at the TV screen because a commercial with a loud, lively tune comes on; this illustrates involuntary attention.

Answer: T.

13. A cognitively complex person usually uses one or two simple constructs and ignores information that doesn‟t fit those constructs.

Answer: F.

14. There are some advantages to acting mindlessly, such as processing speed.

Answer: T.

15. Because much of our listening is mindless, we are freed up so that we can focus on the new,

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the unusual, and the potentially dangerous.

Answer: T.

16. When we say that a personal construct has been primed, we mean that it is a new concept we have never encountered before.

Answer: F.

17. Cognitive complexity interferes with good communication and should be avoided if possible.

Answer: F.

18. We can listen much faster than we can speak.

Answer: T.

19. People who engage in critical listening are generally poor listeners because they are too negative and reject what others have to say.

Answer: F.

20. In evaluating what you hear, it is generally a good idea to “consider the source.”

Answer: T.

21. When the early American settlers used the term “Boston Massacre” to describe a minor skirmish with the British, they were using loaded language.

Answer: T.

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22. Active listening is a term used to describe a form of listening in which people multi-task while they are listening.

Answer: F.

23. Abstract information generally captures involuntary attention more successfully than concrete information.

Answer: F.

24. Skilled communicators consider only voluntary attention when designing messages; little can be done to capture involuntary attention.

Answer: F.

25. Research shows that relating new information to old information confuses audience members and makes comprehension difficult.

Answer: F.

Short Essay Questions 1. What is the difference between hearing and listening?

2. What are the five steps in the listening process?

3. Why does listening often fail? What are some things that can be done to improve listening?

4. What is the difference between voluntary and involuntary attention? What are two things a © 2018 Taylor & Francis

speaker can do to increase voluntary attention? What are two things a speaker can do to increase involuntary attention?

5. What does it mean to make an attribution? Give an example of a dispositional attribution and an example of a situational attribution.

6. What are schemata? What kinds of schemas guide perception? Give an example of each.

7. List one way you could improve each of the following: attention, interpretation, evaluation, responding, and storage and retrieval.

8. What is paraphrasing? Why is it a good idea to paraphrase during empathic listening?

9. What are some of the factors that can impede message storage and retrieval?

10. How can speakers design messages that receivers will comprehend and accept?

Chapter 7 Test Questions

Multiple Choice Questions 1. The study cited in Chapter 5 in which career criminals were asked to view tapes of people on the street and identify which were likely to be assaulted, found: a. People who had trouble making eye contact were identified as potential assault victims. b. People whose gait lacked fluidity were identified as potential assault victims. c. Elderly females but not elderly males were identified as potential assault victims. d. It is impossible to identify potential assault victims simply by looking at their nonverbal behavior.

Answer: b

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2. According to your textbook, nonverbal communication is made up of ___________. a. all human behavior. b. behavior other than words that is intended to convey a message. c. any instance in which a stimulus other than words creates meaning in either a sender‟s or a receiver‟s mind. d. None of the above.

Answer: c.

3. Which of the following statements is NOT true about nonverbal communication? a. It may be unintentional. b. It consists of multiple codes. c. Is immediate, continuous, and natural. d. It consists of arbitrary and conventional signs.

Answer: d.

4. Which of the following would NOT be considered nonverbal communication according to your textbook? a. Alone in his room, late at night, John sighs. b. As John sighs, his roommate watches and wonders why John in unhappy. c. John gives an exaggerated sigh to let his roommate know that the radio is on too loud. d. None of the above Answer: a.

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5. One way to increase the accuracy of our interpretation of another‟s nonverbal messages is to compare our interpretations to baseline behaviors. This means we should ___________. a. ask other people what they mean by their nonverbal behaviors. b. observe how the other person normally behaves and compare those behaviors with the behaviors we are trying to understand. c. look at the context to see if the surrounding environment will give clues as to the meaning of the behavior. d. assume what the other means is what you would mean if you were in that situation.

Answer: b.

6. Which of the following statements is TRUE about nonverbal communication? a. Every nonverbal act is an intentional message; our job is to figure out its true meaning. b. Nonverbal messages can easily undermine and contradict what we really want to convey. c. Nonverbal communication is much easier to interpret than verbal communication. d. All of the above Answer: b.

7. Mehrabian argues that ___________ are relational messages exchanged in every interaction. a. liking, status, and responsiveness. b. repetition, substitution, and complementation. c. emblems, affect displays, and regulators. d. cultural, professional, and personal display rules.

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Answer: a.

8. Nonverbal communication is more useful than verbal communication in conveying which of the following kinds of information? a. initial impressions. b. relational information. c. emotional expression. d. All of the above.

Answer: d.

9. The kinesic code is made up of __________. a. eye behavior. b. gesture and body movement. c. the use of space. d. the use of time.

Answer: b.

10. Nonverbal accenting occurs when ___________. a. the nonverbal message undermines the verbal message. b. the nonverbal message is used instead of a verbal message. c. the nonverbal message modifies the verbal message. d. nonverbal cues emphasize part of the verbal message.

Answer: d.

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11. When the boss gets to the most important part of his instructions, his voice gets stronger and he stares directly at his employees. This is an example of ___________. a. substituting. b. complementing. c. accenting. d. regulating.

Answer: c.

12. Affect displays ___________. a. regulate turn-taking. b. describe the size or shape of objects. c. show emotions. d. All of the above.

Answer: c.

13. In North America, an example of a __________ is men should not show fear in public. a. cultural display rule. b. personal display rule. c. proxemic rule. d. chronemic rule.

Answer: a.

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14. __________ is the study of time. a. Kinesics. b. Proxemics. c. Chronemics. d. Paralanguage.

Answer: c.

15. The study of space and territory is called ___________. a. kinesics. b. proxemics. c. chronemics. d. paralanguage.

Answer: b.

16. Which of the following kinds of cues would be classed as paralanguage? a. Use of ums and ahs to fill pauses. b. Standing close or far from another person. c. Use of gesture and body movement. d. None of the above.

Answer: a.

17. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates the use of a vocalization?

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a. Ted has a deep resonant voice that makes people look up to him. b. During class, Jill and Danny giggle and yawn to annoy their teacher. c. Keith hems and haws when he feels anxious. d. Gus uses obscene language when he‟s angry.

Answer: b.

18. The three aspects of chronemics discussed in your textbook were ___________. a. psychological, biological, and cultural time orientations. b. personal space, territoriality, and touch. c. endomorph, ectomorph, and mesomorph. d. adaptors, affect displays, and regulators.

Answer: a.

19. When Gonzalez & Zimbardo studied time, they found that ___________. a. future orientations occurred so infrequently they had to be dropped from the study. b. most people focused on the past. c. time orientation and employment choice may be related. d. All of the above.

Answer: c.

20. A child‟s secret clubhouse, which may be accessed only by friends, is an example of what territory?

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a. Public. b. Home. c. Body. d. Interaction.

Answer: b.

21. Writing graffiti on the walls is an example of which kind of territorial encroachment? a. Contamination. b. Violation. c. Interaction. d. Body.

Answer: a.

22. In a classroom, the action zone is ___________. a. the space behind the teacher‟s desk where he or she is free to walk and write on the board. b. the space immediately outside the classroom door through which people must pass to enter the room. c. a triangle, the base of which includes students in the front row and the apex of which points toward the back of the classroom. d. the row of seats furthest away from the teacher.

Answer: c.

23. A person who is classified as a(n) __________ has a muscular and athletic body type.

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a. endomorph. b. mesomorph. c. somatype. d. ectomorph.

Answer: b.

24. Which of the following is NOT one of the three major functions of dress? a. Deintensification. b. Comfort-protection. c. Modesty. d. Cultural display.

Answer: a.

True and False 1. Nonverbal behaviors are affected by culture; certain emotions may be conveyed differently in different cultures.

Answer: T.

2. Nonverbal behaviors are often universal; certain emotions may be conveyed in much the same way in different cultures.

Answer: T.

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3. Nonverbal codes are especially good in conveying abstract, logical information.

Answer: F.

4. Responsiveness cues indicate the degree to which we are psychologically involved in an interaction.

Answer: T.

5. According to your textbook, nonverbal communication is usually more effective than verbal communication in expressing emotion.

Answer: T.

6. The type of kinesic message most like the spoken word is the emblem.

Answer: T.

7. The nonverbal behaviors that act as “traffic signals” during interaction are called regulators.

Answer: T.

8. According to your textbook, if you want to detect lying, you‟ll gain the most information if you attend to the facial and eye behavior of the person you are observing.

Answer: F.

9. Rocking back and forth to reduce stress is an example of a nonverbal regulator.

Answer: F.

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10. When she is anxious, Alexes plays with her ring, turning it over and over. This is an example of a nonverbal adaptor.

Answer: T.

11. When interest and attention is high, pupil size increases.

Answer: T.

12. Jack doesn‟t make the team, but he pretends not to care. He is intensifying his emotion.

Answer: F.

13. Joan is an externalizer. This means she is good at portraying emotion.

Answer: T.

14. The typical pattern for most Americans is for listeners to make eye contact and for speakers to look away as they talk.

Answer: T.

15. Paralanguage is a form of verbal rather than nonverbal communication.

Answer: F.

16. Silence is as much a part of paralanguage as is sound.

Answer: T

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17. In our culture, the social distance used for impersonal, business relationships extend from 4 to 12 feet.

Answer: T.

18. The study of clothing and accessories is called haptics.

Answer: F.

19. In Japanese workplaces, workers usually have private offices.

Answer: F.

20. A somatype is a person who is short, round, and fat.

Answer: F.

21. The three aspects of the self discussed by William James are the social self, the spiritual self, and the material self.

Answer: T.

22. Object language refers to language that is clear and unambiguous.

Answer: F.

23. In earlier historical periods, laws dictated what kind of clothing a person could wear, and people who dressed above their station in life could be arrested.

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Answer: T

Short Essay Questions 1. Define nonverbal communication. What special characteristics does nonverbal communication have?

2. In what three kinds of situations do communicators rely more on nonverbal messages than on verbal messages?

3. Often nonverbal messages are used in conjunction with verbal messages. Name at least five of the six ways nonverbal messages modify verbal messages. Give examples.

4. Define and give examples of emblems, illustrators, regulators, affect displays, and adaptors.

Which nonverbal code are these categories used to describe?

5. What three kinds of display rules govern our use of affect displays? Give examples of each.

6. Discuss how people control and manage territory. What is territoriality? What kinds of territories do people occupy? How can these territories be encroached?

7. If you were to give advice to a teacher about how to arrange the furniture in his or her office in order to make students feel comfortable, what would you tell him or her to do and what to avoid?

Chapter 8 Test Questions

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following statements is true of interpersonal communication? a. It is more immediate than other forms of communication and the quality of feedback is high. b. It is the least spontaneous of all forms of communication. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

c. It is usually carefully preplanned. d. All of the above.

Answer: a.

2. The looking glass self is ___________. a. the self we see when we look in a mirror. b. a “phony” self we use to mask the true self. c. the self we infer from the appraisals of others. d. the self described in the developmental view.

Answer: c.

3. The dialectic that focuses on how members of dyads adapt to change is the _____________ dialectic. a. novelty-predictability. b. autonomy-togetherness. c. expressive-protective. d. dominance-submissive.

Answer: a.

4. John threatens Mary‟s _____________ when he criticizes or disagrees with her. a. autonomy. b. expressiveness. c. negative face.

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d. positive face.

Answer: d.

5. When Perfecto suggests going to the shore and Isabelle counters by suggesting they go to Vegas for their vacation, their interaction pattern shows ___________. a. complementarity. b. competitive symmetry. c. submissive symmetry. d. confirmation.

Answer: b.

6. Which of the following behaviors is dysfunctional? a. The use of paradoxical definitions. b. The use of disconfirmations. c. The use of negative relational maintenance strategies. d. All of the above.

Answer: d.

7. Barb does a terrible job on her public speech. Helga says to her in a very sarcastic tone, “I‟m glad I had the opportunity to use up five precious minutes of my life listening to that.” Helga is using a(n) ___________ response. a. confirming. b. tangential.

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c. impersonal. d. incongruous.

Answer: d.

8. Abida tells Dana how bad she feels. Dana says, “Too bad. You know I just gave a speech on how to wax your skis.” Dana is using a(n) ___________ response? a. confirming. b. tangential. c. impersonal. d. incongruous.

Answer: b.

9. When in the ____________ stage, a couple shares attitudes and interests, synchronizes body rhythms, and exchanges intimacy trophies. a. intensifying. b. integrating. c. bonding. d. circumscribing.

Answer: b.

10. Gloretha wants to know if her boyfriend really cares, so she uses the ________ test, asking him to do a lot of things that he doesn‟t like, including going to the mall and spending half the day shopping.

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a. indirect suggestions. b. separation. c. endurance. d. triangle.

Answer: c.

11. Linda‟s not sure if Chris cares, so she goes out with Pat to see if it bothers Chris. Linda is using the ___________ test. a. indirect suggestions. b. separation. c. endurance. d. triangle.

Answer: d.

12. A statement like “let‟s skip it,” or “I‟d rather not discuss that” shows that a couple may be heading into a(n) ___________ stage. a. intensifying. b. integrating. c. bonding. d. circumscribing.

Answer: d.

13. A couple first begin to note and comment on previously overlooked differences in the

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___________ stage. a. circumscribing. b. avoiding. c. stagnating. d. differentiating.

Answer: d.

14. The ___________ stage is characterized by infrequent communication that is stylized, rigid, and awkward. a. circumscribing stage. b. avoiding stage. c. stagnating stage. d. differentiating stage.

Answer: c.

15. Which of the following actions does the terminating stage NOT announce? a. An upcoming separation. b. A summary what has occurred during interaction. c. A reaffirmation of relational goals. d. A determination of the future of the relationship.

Answer: c.

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16. According to filtering theory, when we decide to eliminate people because they use inappropriate turn-taking cues, or use unpleasant facial expressions and eye contact, we are using the ___________ cues kind of filter. a. interactional. b. sociological. c. cognitive. d. pre-interactional.

Answer: a.

17. According to filtering theory, the ___________ cues is the first filter we use? a. interactional. b. sociological. c. cognitive cues. d. pre-interactional cues.

Answer: b.

18. Ellen doesn‟t find Anna attractive because she and Anna have very different values. Ellen is using the ___________ filter to eliminate Anna? a. sociological. b. preinteraction. c. interaction. d. cognitive.

Answer: d.

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19. Which of the following is true of the strategy of allowing control? a. It is a positive relational maintenance strategy. b. It occurs when someone lets a partner make all the decisions in the relationship. c. It involves praising a partner when praise is not warranted. d. It is usually one of the most effective ways of building a strong relationship.

Answer: b.

20. The voluntary revealing of information that would normally be unobtainable is called ___________. a. social comparison. b. autonomy-togetherness. c. disconfirmation. d. self-disclosure.

Answer: d.

21. A friend comes to you and says, “I‟m really unhappy in college. I don‟t feel I fit in, and I‟m not sure why I‟m here.” Which of the following responses is a true questioning and probing response? a. How long have you felt this way? b. Have you tried going to a counselor? c. Have you considered the fact that you may feel insecure about your identity? d. So, you‟re having doubts about college?

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Answer: a.

22. Which of the following responses is a disguised advising and evaluating response? a. How long have you felt this way? b. Have you tried going to a counselor? c. Have you considered the fact that you may feel insecure about your identity? d. So, you‟re having doubts about college?

Answer: b.

23. Which of the following feedback statements is the most effective way to communicate your feelings? a. “I‟m angry because you borrowed my computer without asking and left it on.” b. “I hate to bring this up and maybe it‟s my fault for not being clear, but could you be more careful about using my computer?” c. “You simply have no regard for others‟ property; you‟re spoiled.” d. “Your behavior is very passive-aggressive; you‟ve taken out your hostility on me, even though I‟m not the one you‟re really angry at.”

Answer: a.

24. ___________ is the best way to solve a problem that arises in an important, long-term relationship. a. Compromise. b. Accommodation.

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c. Forcing. d. Problem-solving.

Answer: d.

25. Which of the following is NOT one of the things online impressions are based on? a. Nonverbal cues b. Language use. c. Personal markers. d. Paralinguistic cues.

Answer: a.

26. Which of the following is NOT one of the questions in the public scrutiny test? a. Am I personally proud of this action? b. Am I comfortable with this decision? c. Would I feel embarrassed if this decision were known to others? d. Would I stand to lose money or position if I did this?

Answer: d.

True and False 1. Dyadic communication is another name for dysfunctional interpersonal communication.

Answer: F.

2. Dyadic communicators can specifically adapt their messages to the needs of others more © 2018 Taylor & Francis

easily than can public speakers.

Answer: T.

3. According to those who take a developmental approach to interpersonal communication, something special must occur to turn ordinary, impersonal, dyadic interaction into interpersonal communication.

Answer: T.

4. According to Miller and Steinberg, dyads start off as impersonal; only a few undergo the changes that make them interpersonal.

Answer: T.

5. Face is a conception of self that each person displays in particular interactions with others.

Answer: T.

6. Disconfirmations occur whenever someone exceeds our expectations by being better than we had thought they were.

Answer: F.

7. A double bind is a particularly strong and enduring paradoxical communication.

Answer: T.

8. In a regressive spiral, partners‟ behaviors become detached so that what one does has little or

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no impact on what the other does.

Answer: F.

9. During bonding, we engage in some form of public ritual that legitimizes a relationship.

Answer: T.

10. A number of studies show that physical proximity is a key factor in predicting whether people will become friends or romantic partners.

Answer: T.

11. Relational maintenance strategies are the behaviors people use to keep their relationships at a desired level.

Answer: T.

12. Self-disclosure is appropriate in all interpersonal relationships.

Answer: F.

13. I have to be honest and let you know that you‟ve annoyed a lot of people around here,” is an example of an effective self-disclosure.

Answer: F.

14. Disclosure may create unwanted intimacy because it asks the other to become involved in

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your life.

Answer: T.

15. When we say that disclosures should be reciprocal we mean that one person should take the lead and do most of the disclosing while the other listens empathically.

Answer: F.

16. Disclosure should be gradual and should relate to the “here and now.”

Answer: T.

17. If you were to respond to a friend‟s fears of flunking out of school by saying, “How far behind are you? What courses are you taking?” you would be using a paraphrasing response.

Answer: F.

18. A position is a concrete solution to a problem; an interest is the overall goal we want to achieve.

Answer: T.

19. It is generally better to focus on achieving interests rather than positions.

Answer: T.

20. Gunnysacking is a term that means dealing immediately with conflicts as they come up.

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Answer: F.

21. It is generally a good idea to begin feedback by apologizing, thus allowing the other person to save face.

Answer: F.

22. In giving direct feedback about your feelings, you should always maintain a pleasant, friendly tone of voice even when you‟re very angry.

Answer: F.

23. According to your textbook, feedback may be defined as a voluntary statement that tells another person things about you that he or she is unlikely to discover from some other source.

Answer: F.

24. There are no negative consequences involved in an online relationship.

Answer: F.

25. The messages left on one‟s Facebook wall are often used when forming an impression of the wall‟s owner.

Answer: T.

26. The fact that cell phones allow us to communicate 24/7 often increases anxiety and puts

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pressure on friends to text and call continuously throughout the day.

Answer: T.

27. Cyberbullying can be momentarily disturbing but it seldom has any long-term negative effects.

Answer: F.

28. Hyperpersonal theory states that online relationships are often very slow to develop and usually not as deep and involving as offline relationships.

Answer: F.

Short Essay Questions 1. According to the developmental approach, what three levels do interpersonal relationships pass through? Give an example of dialogue and behavior that might occur at each level.

2. Explain how interpersonal dyads help us develop and maintain a sense of self. In your explanation, discuss the looking-glass self and social comparison theory.

3. What are the three relational dialectics discussed in class? Give examples of each. How do couples go about resolving these dialectics?

4. Name and give examples of at least five of the seven ways people can disconfirm one another.

What messages are people sending to one another when they send disconfirming messages?

5. What are the stages couples go through as they progress toward bonding? In addition to naming and explaining each stage, give a sample dialogue that might occur in each stage.

6. What are the stages couples go through as their relationships start to dissolve? Begin with © 2018 Taylor & Francis

differentiating and describe each stage, giving a sample dialogue that might occur in each stage.

7. List at least five rules for effective self-disclosure.

8. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of online relationships.

Chapter 9 Test Questions

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which is NOT true of groups (as opposed to mere collections of people)? a. Groupness develops over time. b. Group members share a common fate. c. Group members develop a “we” identity based on group membership. d. None, all are true about groups.

Answer: d.

2. In a seven-person group, the number of potential relationships is: a. 7. b. 14. c. 49. d. 966.

Answer: d.

3. ___________ is NOT one of the advantages of working in groups. a. Group synergy. b. Group support. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

c. Need satisfaction. d. Groupthink.

Answer: d.

4. Social loafing ___________. a. occurs when the members of a group fail to fulfill their work potential. b. occurs in disjunctive tasks. c. is one of the major reasons groups are highly productive. d. increases group productivity.

Answer: a.

5. Under what circumstances is group work more effective than individual work? a. There is substantial agreement with the group. b. Time pressures are great and it is difficult to get group members together. c. The decision is complex and needs an innovative, creative solution. d. None of the above.

Answer: c.

6. Which of the following does NOT increase group productivity? a. Members have a variety of different skills and knowledge. b. Individual accountability. c. An atmosphere of positive interdependence. d. None, all of the above increase group productivity.

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Answer: d.

7. ___________ is NOT one of the factors that will cause people to become more committed to a group. a. The group has high status. b. The group has the ability to get things done. c. The group allows members to reach personal goals. d. Group members use hidden agendas.

Answer: d.

8. According to Moreland and Levine, which of the following are experienced by groups and members during group socialization? a. Task, topic, and relation tracks. b. Shared stereotypes, morality beliefs, and mind-guards. c. Task, maintenance, and negative roles. d. Evaluation, commitment, and role transitions.

Answer: d.

9. Which of the following things will cause a deeper involvement in the life of a group? a. If task is emphasized and maintenance concerns are suppressed. b. If the group assigns roles on the basis of group needs rather than member desires. c. If the status of the group is high.

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d. All of the above.

Answer: c.

10. An idiosyncrasy credit is ___________. a. a kind of symbolic currency earned through conformity. b. a negative group role characterized by eccentric behavior. c. one of the symptoms of groupthink. d. a role transition experienced during group socialization.

Answer: a

11. The output of the task dimension is ___________. a. productivity. b. social cohesion. c. social loafing. d. synergy.

Answer: a.

12. The ___________ role is the most useful in moving the group toward its task goals. a. recognition seeker. b. procedural technician. c. special-interest pleader. d. encourager.

Answer: b.

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13. The member who asks for clarification of values associated with a group problem or decision is playing the role of ___________. a. information seeker. b. opinion seeker. c. coordinator. d. evaluator-critic.

Answer: b.

14. A group member who shows concern for others‟ feelings and acts to mediate disagreements is ___________. a. fulfilling a maintenance role. b. acting as group harmonizer. c. increasing group cohesiveness. d. All of the above.

Answer: d.

15. The person who manipulates a group in the interests of some other group is called a ___________. a. dominator. b. recognition seeker.

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c. special-interest pleader. d. help seeker.

Answer: c.

16. To guard against groupthink, members should ___________. a. become more cohesive. b. ask a group member to play devil‟s advocate. c. work to build their confidence in their own invulnerability. d. None of the above.

Answer: b.

17. In a group beset by groupthink ___________. a. members feel a great deal of secondary tension. b. members are so critical that the climate becomes defensive. c. members take full advantage of group synergy. d. members are extremely cohesive.

Answer: d.

18. The ___________ phase is described as a conflict phase.? a. norming. b. forming. c. storming. d. performing.

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Answer: c.

19. The ___________ phase of group development comes after members experience the resolution of secondary tension. a. norming. b. forming. c. storming. d. performing.

Answer: a.

20. Members of Joey‟s group interact awkwardly. There are periods of silence, broken by ambiguous, tentative, and occasionally uncertain comments. The group is probably experiencing the ___________ phase. a. norming. b. forming. c. storming. d. performing.

Answer: b.

21. Members of Joey‟s group have chosen a leader and now members are ready to settle down to work. The group is probably experiencing the ___________ phase. a. norming.

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b. forming. c. storming. d. performing.

Answer: d.

22. Which of the following behaviors should you avoid if you want to establish a supportive climate? a. Description. b. Problem orientation. c. Neutrality. d. None of the above.

Answer: c.

23. Which figure comes closest to expressing the average attention span (devoted to a single topic) of a group? a. 10 seconds. b. l minute. c. 5 minutes. d. 20 minutes.

Answer: b.

24. Which is true of nominal group technique?

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a. It takes full advantage of group synergy. b. It encourages lively and unrestrained interaction. c. It eliminates potential conflict. d. It allows more aggressive members to overpower quieter members.

Answer: c.

25. In which kind of public discussion format do audience members split into small discussion groups after listening to a speaker, discuss the speaker‟s topic, and then report their results to the assembly as a whole? a. Buzz group. b. Symposium. c. Forum. d. Panel discussion.

Answer: a.

True and False 1. From the moment three or more people meet, they are a group.

Answer: F.

2. One of the necessary conditions for groupness is shared behavioral standards.

Answer: T.

3. The ideal size for a problem-solving group is twelve. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

Answer: F.

4. The lower limit of a small group is four.

Answer: F.

5. Triads are far less complex than dyads.

Answer: F.

6. Group synergy is the idea that groups are often more effective than the best individuals within them.

Answer: T.

7. The need to establish identity by associating with others is called the inclusion need.

Answer: T.

8. Free riding occurs in additive tasks.

Answer: F.

9. To make a successful transition into a group, an individual must recognize and follow the norms that govern each level of membership.

Answer: T.

10. It is a good idea for group members to find the one task or maintenance role they feel most

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comfortable with and play only that role throughout the life of the group.

Answer: F.

11. Productivity is more important for a group than social cohesion.

Answer: F.

12. Hidden agendas are always incompatible with group goals.

Answer: F.

13. A hidden-agenda is a collective rationalization that group members use to stick to an illadvised decision even in the face of contradictory information.

Answer: F.

14. The more self-censorship a group encourages, the healthier and more productive it will be.

Answer: F.

15. Groups beset by groupthink are often characterized by an illusion of invulnerability.

Answer: T.

16. Groups beset by groupthink are often characterized by an illusion of unanimity.

Answer: T.

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17. Social identity is an identity based on group membership.

Answer: T.

18. Members of groups tend to dislike other members who match the group prototype.

Answer: F.

19. During secondary tension members are quiet, tentative, and uncertain.

Answer: F.

20. During the adjourning phase, expression of positive feelings and congratulation often emerge.

Answer: T.

21. Hidden profile research focuses on how and why members fail to share information.

Answer: T.

22. The trait approach to leadership says that the key to leadership lies in the personal characteristics of leaders.

Answer: T.

23. According to the functional approach, leadership can be shared and it is important to know the functions that have to be fulfilled in the group.

Answer: T.

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24. According to Jack Gibbs, if you want to establish a supportive climate, you should always have a hidden agenda.

Answer: F.

25. The first step in the reflective thinking process is experiencing a felt difficulty or problem.

Answer: T.

26. Force-field analysis is a way of mapping out helping and restraining forces during problem analysis.

Answer: T.

27. One of the challenges of online groups is finding a way to develop trust.

Answer: T.

Short Essay Questions 1. What are the characteristics that turn a collection of people into a group?

2. Use Moreland and Levine‟s model of group socialization to describe the path of a typical student through college. What phases will he or she go through along the way? How does communication change as these phases are experienced?

3. Name and describe three task roles, three maintenance roles, and three negative roles. Also, give typical statements that someone playing each of these roles might make. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

4. Name the eight symptoms of groupthink. How can groups guard against them?

5. Describe at least five ways an individual can avoid leadership.

6. What are the characteristics of supportive climates?

7. What are the steps in the Standard Agenda?

8. What are the differences between a symposium, forum, panel discussion, buzz group, and role-playing group? What are the responsibilities of the person running each of these kinds of groups?

Chapter 10 Test Questions

Multiple Choice Questions 1. According to your textbook, which is true of cultures? a. Most cultural differences are due to innate predispositions. b. Cultures are group understandings rather than individual understandings. c. Cultures affect only a few aspects of our lives; most of what we do is a matter of individual choice. d. Cultures are very stable and extremely resistant to change.

Answer: b.

2. The example of Native American culture in your book shows that _________. a. when Native Americans follow traditional cultural patterns, they are likely to be misjudged or misunderstood by European Americans. b. the Native Americans studied tended to place a high value on boasting, as well as on public displays of accomplishments. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

c. the Native Americans studied tended to be more competitive with one another than it is common for European Americans to be. d. All of the above.

Answer: a.

3. Which of the following behaviors might be considered rude in Morocco? a. Asking the time dinner is to be served. b. Complimenting parents on their very young child. c. Making polite conversation during dinner. d. All of the above.

Answer: d

4. Intercultural identity is _________. a. a disorientation that occurs as a result of immersion in a new culture. b. a sense of belonging both to one‟s own original culture and to a new culture at the same time. c. a tendency to see everything from the perspective of what is normative in one‟s own culture. d. a kind of role-playing demanded by foreigners who are trying to be accepted.

Answer: b.

5. Which of the following is NOT affected by culture? a. The way we perceive events and people. b. The roles we are willing to play. c. The degree to which we are goal-directed.

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d. None of the above; that is, all are affected by culture.

Answer: d.

6. When Edward Hall says, “If you touch a culture in one place, everything else is affected,” he means _________. a. culture has many facets and all these facets are interrelated. b. people are very touchy about their cultures and are easily offended when taboos are broken. c. culture can easily be dismantled and changed. d. the basis of all cultural understanding is economic.

Answer: a.

7. Effort optimism is _________. a. the belief that hard work will pay off. b. a feeling of depression that occurs during culture shock. c. the idea that people should be accepted no matter how different they are. d. the idea that in the future fate will cause things to improve.

Answer: a.

8. The belief that human behavior is shaped by environmental factors and that improving a person‟s surroundings will improve that person is called the _________. a. rationality premise. b. perfectibility premise. c. mutability premise.

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d. effort optimism.

Answer: c.

9. The idea that humans are born in sin but can achieve goodness through effort and control is called the _________. a. rationality premise. b. perfectibility premise. c. mutability premise. d. effort optimism.

Answer: b.

10. The idea that most people can discover the truth through logical analysis is called _________. a. rationality premise. b. perfectibility premise. c. mutability premise. d. effort optimism.

Answer: a.

11. Which of the following is a characteristic of the thinking of most Americans? a. Effort optimism. b. Collectivism. c. Mutability premise.

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d. All of the above.

Answer: b.

12. The cultural dimension of uncertainty avoidance focuses on which question? a. Is the present, past, or future more important? b. Are men and women essentially different from one another? c. How much risk and uncertainty is tolerable? d. Who is more important, the individual or the group?

Answer: c.

13. Ling belongs to a ___________ culture. Therefore, it is not necessary to spell out messages explicitly and she seldom says things she believes listeners already know. a. direct. b. high-context. c. expressive. d. formal.

Answer: b.

14. Ariana is from a culture where hugging, touching, laughing, and crying are commonplace.

Her culture is: a. expressive. b. formal. c. monochronic.

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d. All of the above.

Answer: a.

15. Which is a value in individualist countries? a. Modesty. b. Freedom. c. Thrift. d. Equality in reward distribution.

Answer: b.

16. Which of the following is true of the behavior of collectivists? a. They take pride in personal achievement. b. They have little respect for position, age, sex, status, and authority. c. They are upset by bribery and nepotism. d. When group memberships change, their values and personal styles may change as well.

Answer: d.

17. Which is true of prejudice? a. It is usually formed from direct observation of members of out-groups. b. Its purpose is to help people make accurate assessments about others. c. It is a product of in-group interaction. d. All of the above.

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Answer: c.

18. Comparatively, Americans value which of the following language styles? a. Ambiguity. b. Directness. c. Effusiveness. d. Lying.

Answer: b.

19. Stereotypes fulfill which of the following functions? a. Reducing anxiety about uncertainty. b. Making the world seem more predictable. c. Reducing anxiety about uncertainty and making the world seem more predictable. d. None of the above.

Answer: c.

20. Discounting is a cognitive bias by which we _________. a. dismiss information that doesn‟t fit a negative stereotype. b. interpret everything a target group does as negative. c. interpret others‟ negative behaviors as internal rather than external. d. look for differences and ignore similarities.

Answer: a.

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21. Polarization is a cognitive bias by which we _________. a. dismiss information that doesn‟t fit a negative stereotype. b. interpret everything a target group does as negative. c. interpret others‟ negative behaviors as internal rather than external. d. look for differences and ignore similarities.

Answer: d

22. Which is a stumbling block to intercultural understanding? a. Prejudice. b. Assumption of similarity. c. Ethnocentrism. d. All of the above.

Answer: d.

23. The belief that if one of “them” is rude, it‟s because they‟re that way by nature; if one of “us” is rude, it‟s because we‟re under stress is an example of _________. a. discounting. b. fundamental attribution bias. c. polarization. d. assumption of similarity.

Answer: b.

24. The draw-back-to-leap model holds that _________.

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a. people should think before they rush into a new situation. b. brief periods of culture shock are necessary for adaptive change. c. when in a new culture, it is a good idea not to be too friendly at first but to bide your time until you have more information. d. prejudiced people misjudge one another based on little real information.

Answer: b.

25. A symptom of culture shock are feelings of _________. a. helplessness and lowered self-esteem. b. excitement and euphoria. c. confidence and competence. d. superiority and arrogance.

Answer: a.

26. Which of the following groups shows the greatest cultural distance? a. U.S. American/British. b. American Catholic/American Baptist. c. Western/Asian. d. Urban American/rural American.

Answer: c.

27. Which is NOT a factor associated with successful cross-cultural adaptation? a. A positive attitude by host nationals to foreigners.

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b. Open-mindedness on the part of the sojourner. c. Staying away from host nationals and communicating primarily with fellow sojourners. d. All of the above.

Answer: c.

28. When people refer to the global village, they mean _________. a. we are becoming more isolated from one another. b. in the future, big cities will fade and small towns will become the norm. c. the media distort the true economic conditions of the U.S. d. the world is shrinking daily because of advances in telecommunication and transportation technologies.

Answer: d.

29. Co-cultures are: a. cultures where two or more languages are officially recognized. b. cultures where there are no class differences. c. non-dominant groups within a larger culture whose beliefs and behaviors are different from those of dominant group members. d. cultures within a larger culture that are considered to be powerful and whose behaviors are normative for the entire culture.

Answer: c

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True and False 1. According to Wieder & Pratt, members of the Osage people often believe that engaging in conversation entails substantial obligations.

Answer: T.

2. According to Wieder & Pratt, Native Americans of the Osage people are silent when among European Americans but very quick to initiate conversation with other Native Americans, even if they've never met before.

Answer: F.

3. Research has shown that the idea that there are cultural universals is a myth.

29. Answer: F.

4. In every culture that has been studied, public speakers begin speeches by trying to increase their credibility by emphasizing their expertness.

30. Answer: F.

5. Rather than having only one identity, most people have overlapping cultural identities.

Answer: T.

6. American beliefs about age may induce psychological states of “oldness.”

Answer: T.

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7. The best way to prepare for intercultural contact is to memorize lists of dos and don‟ts that tell you what is permissible or forbidden in that culture.

Answer: F.

8. Cultures that find meaning in the words rather than in the shared context in which communication occurs are called low-context cultures Answer: T.

9. To a collectivist, an individualist‟s initial friendliness may seem superficial and fleeting.

Answer: T.

10. Individualists seem most comfortable in horizontal relationships.

Answer: T.

11. Collectivists respect and defer to status and power.

Answer: T.

12. All meanings are directly translatable: what can be said in one language can be said in another.

Answer: F.

13. Prejudices are the products of in-group interaction more often than the result of direct contact with out-group members.

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Answer: T.

14. Ethnocentrism is the anxiety that comes from living in a foreign culture that lacks familiar signs and symbols.

Answer: F.

15. The greater the cultural distance between two groups, the easier it will be for them to adapt to one another.

Answer: F.

16. Americans are polychronic, especially when it comes to interpersonal behavior.

Answer: F.

17. Smiling is a good example of an expression that means the same thing in different cultures.

Answer: F.

18. Members of polychronic cultures like to do one thing at a time and value speed and directness.

Answer: F.

19. Sojourners interested in acculturation should expose themselves as much as possible to host social communication.

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Answer: T.

20. Co-cultural theory examines the strategies used by members of elite groups as they interact with people they believe are of lower status.

Answer: F

21. People who wish to cope with diversity should avoid role-taking.

Answer: F.

22. A person who values harmony, modesty, moderation, thrift, and the fulfillment of others‟ needs is most likely to be a member of a collectivist culture.

Answer: T.

23. As a culture, Americans believe that the average person is irrational and cannot be trusted to make good decisions.

Answer: F.

24. As a culture, Americans believe that most human behavior is innately predetermined.

Answer: F.

25. One of the major complaints of minority cultures is that their history has been rendered invisible by dominant groups.

Answer: T. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

26. The better we feel about ourselves, the more likely we are to feel good about others.

Answer: T.

27. In collectivist cultures, written contracts are very important.

Answer: F.

Short Essay Questions 1. Define culture. What are the four characteristics of culture?

2. What three reasons does your textbook give for learning to communicate interculturally?

3. Give at least one example of how culture affects perception, role identity, notions of the self, and language.

4. What are the dimensions of cultural difference described in the textbook? How might they lead to misunderstandings?

5. What are some of the differences between collectivists and individualists? How might each misunderstand the other?

6. What kinds of attitudes diminish intercultural understanding?

7. What five cognitive biases are used to maintain prejudices? Name, define, and give an example of each.

8. Name five ways people can become more comfortable with diversity.

9. What is a microaggression? How do microaggressions sustain prejudices?

10. What is muted group theory?

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Chapter 11 Test Questions

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of organizations? a. Interdependence. b. Hierarchical structure. c. Separation from the environment. d. None of the above.

Answer: c.

2. Which of the following statements is true of bureaucracies? a. Employees work freely without supervision. b. Workers are rewarded equally regardless of their individual performances. c. From their inception, bureaucracies were considered to be inefficient and dehumanizing. d. There is a clear chain of command.

Answer: d.

3. According to Daniels and his colleagues, organizations should be thought of as ___________. a. islands. b. predators. c. self-contained nations. d. forms of behavior. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

Answer: d.

4. The term “climate” when used to describe organizations refers to ___________. a. the number of competitors the organization must defeat to be successful. b. geographical and weather conditions that can affect how hard employees work. c. the way members perceive the organization; its identity. d. the ratio between cost of production and profits.

Answer: c.

5. Genre is ___________. a. another term for the superior-subordinate relationship. b. one of the characteristics of good organizations. c. A unique type of communication with its own rules of discourse. d. communication that is abstract and impersonal.

Answer: c.

6. .A salesperson plays racquetball with the secretary of the head of research and afterwards they discuss the latest office rumors. This is an example of ___________. a. informal channels of communication. b. upward flow. c. downward flow. d. sexual harassment.

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Answer: a.

7. The head of marketing sends a memo to the CEO of the company. This is an example of ___________. a. informal channels of communication. b. upward flow. c. downward flow. d. sexual harassment.

Answer: b.

8. The dean of humanities and sciences addresses faculty at a monthly meeting. This is an example of ___________. a. informal channels of communication. b. upward flow. c. downward flow. d. sexual harassment.

Answer: c.

9. Which of the following statements is NOT true of the way employees feel about downward flow? a. They often don‟t receive enough information to do their jobs. b. They often feel they receive too much information. c. They receive too much face-to-face and not enough mediated communication.

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d. They receive too much mediated communication and not enough face-to-face communication.

Answer: d.

10. Which is the best definition of how assimilation operates in serial transmission? a. Details are left out so the amount of information in the message is reduced. b. Unfamiliar material is changed so that it makes sense to the sender. c. Certain high points in a message are given special significance. d. All of the above.

Answer: b.

11. A gatekeeper in an organization is ___________. a. a person who communicates frequently with people outside the organization. b. the person whose job it is to maintain security and make sure trade secrets do not leave the organization. c. anyone who is in a position to pass on or discard information. d. the person whose job it is to listen to workers at lower levels of the organization and pass their concerns directly to the top.

Answer: c.

12. An ombudsman in an organization is ___________. a. a person who communicates frequently with people outside the organization. b. the person whose job it is to maintain security and make sure trade secrets do not leave the organization.

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c. anyone who is in a position to pass on or discard information. d. the person whose job it is to listen to workers at lower levels of the organization and pass their concerns directly to the top.

Answer: d.

13. What is NOT true about organizational grapevines? a. The grapevine satisfies personal needs not met by formal channels. b. Rumors comprise only a small proportion of the information on the grapevine. c. Most of the grapevine is made up of rumors. d. The grapevine is richer in content than formal communication and allows for immediate feedback and clarification.

Answer: c.

14. The term tight coupling refers to a ___________. a. situation in which nepotism is rampant within the organization. b. situation that occurs when members within the organization feel that they are being supervised too closely. c. high degree of interdependence between subunits within the organization. d. high degree of concern for the impact of an organization on its environment.

Answer: c.

15. _____________ skills are directly related to a particular job (such as experience in selling for a job in sales).

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a. Work content. b. Transferable. c. Self-management. d. Other-management.

Answer: a.

16. Which of the following is NOT a necessary element of professional communication? a. Acknowledging status difference. b. Putting aside personal differences. c. High levels of self disclosure. d. Time management.

Answer: c.

17. The term organizational culture is/are ___________ a. the extent to which the organization is accepted by its surrounding community. b. collectively held understandings about organizational identity. c. the extent to which the organization creates a quality product. d. the extent to which organizational members are demographically homogeneous.

Answer: b.

18. Which increases surprise? a. Linking newcomers with mentors. b. Early appraisal meetings with feedback.

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c. Encouraging secrecy norms and a learn-on-your-own philosophy. d. All of the above.

Answer: c.

19. Which of the following is a good example of an organizational metaphor? a. Here at Acme we‟re a caring family. b. Here at Acme we‟ll give you a gold watch at retirement. c. Acme is known as “Big Red.” d. Here at Acme we‟ll tell you if you do a good job.

Answer: a.

20. Orientation for first-year students at a college or university is an example of a rite of ___________. a. enhancement. b. renewal. c. passage. d. conflict reduction.

Answer: c.

21. The purpose of rites of integration is often to ___________. a. permit catharsis and channel aggression. b. strengthen organizational boundaries by defining who belongs and who doesn‟t, and to punish out-of-role behavior.

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c. motivate individuals to strive as well as enhance values of the organization. d. compartmentalize conflict.

Answer: a.

22. Sexual harassment is more likely to occur in which of the following situations? a. When the organization is tightly coupled. b. When the superior and subordinate see each other as equals. c. When the organizations defines the “normal” employee as male. d. When support systems for women and people of color are strong and readily available.

Answer: c.

23. The richest medium is ___________. a. face-to-face conversation. b. telephone conversation. c. email. d. written memo.

Answer: a.

24. Crowdsourcing is ___________ a. a way of maximizing personal space in an office environment. b. a form of down-sizing whereby one person does the work of two or more. c. a way of inviting individuals outside a company to propose solutions to company problems. d. a form of interviewing that pits applicants face-to-face with one another.

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Answer: c.

25. Corporate colonization is: a. a situation that occurs when corporate values enter other aspects of society, like education. b. the practice of outsourcing jobs to other countries. c. the process whereby joint-venture companies promise to uphold American ideals. d. rapid industrialization that took place at the end of the 19th century.

Answer: a

True and False 1. An organization is a system consisting of a large number of people working together in a structured way to accomplish multiple roles.

Answer: T.

2. Interdependence means that people share a common fate.

Answer: T.

3. A hierarchy is a system in which everyone is equal.

Answer: F.

4. Organizations can and should attempt to remain aloof from their environments.

Answer: F.

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5. According to the structurational approach, there is a reciprocal relationship between organizational structure and organizational communication.

Answer: T.

6. Communication in organizations is more formal and deferential than communication in the interpersonal context.

Answer: T.

7. The best way to deal with a friend who becomes your supervisor is to treat that friend exactly the way you treat him or her outside work.

Answer: F.

8. Aisatsu is a Japanese term that mean intense loyalty to one‟s company.

Answer: F.

9. Downward communication often contains information that is misleading or wrong.

Answer: T.

10. Message filtering refers to the changes that occur as messages pass from person to person.

Answer: T.

11. One way to improve accuracy during serial transmission is to build redundancy into messages.

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Answer: T.

12. Subordinates are often reluctant to ask questions of their supervisors.

Answer: T.

13. Psychologist Stanley Milgram found that it takes an average of five or six links to send a message from one stranger to another.

Answer: T.

14. Opinion leaders are superior to others, so they tend to have very few connections with coworkers.

Answer: F.

15. A liaison is someone who connects two cliques without being a member of either one.

Answer: T.

16. A bridge is a member of a clique who has connections with another clique.

Answer: T.

17. According to Perrow, one of the factors that led to the Three Mile Island nuclear accident was the fact that the system was so tightly coupled.

Answer: T.

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18. Organizational members experience surprise when they find that old scripts and schemata no longer work.

Answer: T.

19. Because employees are chosen for competence rather than personal compatibility, people often find themselves working with others they would not choose as friends.

Answer: T.

20. The metaphors used in an organization often embody basic aspects of organizational culture.

Answer: T.

21. When it comes to professional relationships it is important to balance inclusion and distance.

Answer: T.

22. Office romances can disrupt work and make others feel one of the lovers is being given unfair advantages.

Answer: T.

23. Several studies have found that the majority of respondents accept office romances.

Answer: T.

24. According to Conrad, colleges and universities have characteristics that make sexual harassment very unlikely.

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Answer: F.

25. Rich media are called “rich” because they use the most expensive technology.

Answer: F.

26. Stakeholders are groups of people who affect or are affected by organizations.

Answer: T.

Short Essay Questions 1. What are four characteristics of organizations?

2. What problems can be found in upward, downward, and horizontal flow? What can be done to solve those problems?

3. Discuss the grapevine. Define and discuss its characteristics.

4. What is the difference between loose and tight coupling? What are the advantages and disadvantages of each?

5. Name and define five of the seven network roles described in the textbook.

6. List five rules for creating professional relationships in the workplace. For each, explain briefly why it is important.

7. The textbook lists six kinds of organizational rites: rites of passage, degradation, enhancement, renewal, conflict reduction, and integration. Choose four and for each give an example, explain its purpose and describe its consequences.

8. How do organizations instill corporate ideologies in their members? © 2018 Taylor & Francis

Chapter 12 Test Questions

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following statements is true of public communication as compared to other forms of communication? a. It is impossible for a speaker to adapt to the needs and experiences of a large audience. b. The issues and topics addressed are usually focused outward, toward a community of listeners. c. Organization and repetition are not very important in this form of communication. d. None of the above.

Answer: b.

2. Which of the following is NOT a social function of rhetoric? a. Discovering facts. b. Testing ideas. c. Building community. d. None of the above.

Answer: d.

3. Which of the following is NOT true about context and rhetorical situation? a. The medium through which a speech is delivered is an important part of a speech‟s context. b. Rhetoricians should take into account the argumentational history of the ideas they discuss. c. Speakers should not be distracted by contextual factors; they should do their best to ignore

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factors like physical setting and occasion. d. None of the above.

Answer: c.

4. Bitzer believes that in a perfect world there would be no rhetoric because ___________. a. there would be no exigencies. b. the public sphere would not exist. c. there would be no differences of opinion. d. public speaking would be banned.

Answer: a.

5. Which of the following is an example of a belief? a. The sun rises in the east. b. My religious leader can be trusted. c. Green is my favorite color. d. All of the above.

Answer: d.

6. Which of the following is a core belief? a. The sun rises in the east. b. My religious leader can be trusted. c. Green is my favorite color.

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d. All of the above.

Answer: a.

7. Which of the following appeals focuses on the affective dimension of an audience‟s attitudes? a. Let me give you a brief and objective history of our intervention in the affairs of our neighbor to the South. b. I ask you to vote to limit our involvement in this ill-advised intervention. c. Currently, countless people are tortured and left to die, families are torn apart, and children starve to death. d. The probability of success is 50 percent. Let‟s consider factors that would make that risk worth taking.

Answer: c.

8. Which of the following appeals focuses on the behavioral dimension of an audience‟s attitudes? a. Let me give you a brief and objective history of our intervention in the affairs of our neighbor to the South. b. I ask you to vote to limit our involvement in this ill-advised intervention. c. Currently, countless people are tortured and left to die, families are torn apart, and children starve to death. d. None of the above.

Answer: b.

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9. Which of the following appeals focuses on the cognitive dimension of an audience‟s attitudes? a. Let me give you a brief and objective history of our intervention in the affairs of our neighbor to the South. b. I ask you to vote to limit our involvement in this ill-advised intervention. c. Currently, countless people are tortured and left to die, families are torn apart, and children starve to death. d. All of the above Answer: a.

10. The three modes of persuasion described by Aristotle were ___________. a. agora, pedagaigos, and demosthenes. b. ethos, logos, and pathos. c. adaptation, analysis, and presentation. d. compliance, noncompliance, and apathy.

Answer: b.

11. According to Aristotle, ethos means ___________. a. logical argumentation. b. emotional appeals. c. aspects of a speaker‟s character. d. None of the above.

Answer: c.

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12. A speaker stresses familiarity and similarity to the audience. The speaker is attempting to use the ___________ type of influence. a. internalization. b. identification. c. compliance. d. logos.

Answer: b.

13. A speaker stresses expertness and credibility. The speaker is attempting to use the ___________ type of influence. a. internalization. b. identification. c. compliance. d. pathos.

Answer: a.

14. A speaker stresses legitimacy and control of resources. The speaker is attempting to use the ___________ type of influence. a. internalization. b. identification. c. compliance. d. logos.

Answer: c.

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15. The two most important aspects of speaker credibility are ___________. a. logos and pathos. b. familiarity and liking. c. expertness and trustworthiness. d. legitimacy and coercion.

Answer: c.

16. In the following argument, which statement expresses the warrant? a. You were clocked driving 75mph. b. You deserve a ticket. c. Driving over 65mph is illegal in this state. d. My radar is broken.

Answer: c.

17. In the following argument, which statement expresses the claim? a. You were clocked driving 75mph b. You deserve a ticket c. Driving over 65mph is illegal in this state d. My radar is broken Answer: b.

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18. In the following argument, which statement expresses the data? a. You were clocked driving 75mph. b. You deserve a ticket. c. Driving over 65mph is illegal in this state. d. My radar is broken.

Answer: a.

19. When a parent explains his or her actions by telling a child, “because I‟m older than you and I say so,” he or she is using ___________. a. an authoritative argument. b. a motivational argument. c. a substantive argument. d. All of the above.

Answer: a.

20. To establish an argument from cause, it is necessary to prove that ___________. a. you‟ve examined enough cases to draw a correct conclusion. b. the cases you‟re comparing are essentially similar. c. the effect preceded the cause. d. another condition does not exist that leads to both cause and effect.

Answer: d.

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21. The argument that there will be six more weeks of winter because the groundhog saw its shadow is an example of ___________. a. generalization. b. cause. c. sign. d. analogy.

Answer: c.

22. The argument, “buy our brand of locks to protect your valuable possessions,” is based on which of Maslow‟s needs? a. Physiological. b. Self-esteem. c. Love and belongingness. d. None of the above.

Answer: d.

23. The argument, “work out three times a week and you‟ll feel better about yourself,” is based on which of Maslow‟s needs? a. Physiological. b. Self-esteem. c. Love and belongingness. d. None of the above.

Answer: b.

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24. “We‟ve already sold one thousand tickets. Don‟t be left out,” is an example of the ___________ fallacy. a. ad hominem. b. slippery slope. c. bandwagon. d. ad populum.

Answer: c.

25. “This is my lucky penny. Just after I found it, I won the lottery.” This argument is an example of the ___________ fallacy. a. post hoc. b. false analogy. c. false dilemma. d. straw man.

Answer: a.

True and False 1. The public sphere is an orientation rather than a physical space.

Answer: T.

2. According to Cooper, modern Americans are often reluctant to enter the public sphere because they value individualism over community. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

Answer: T.

3. Fitting responses to rhetorical situations are responses that manage not to be affected by exigence.

Answer: F.

4. An attitude is an opinion that links an individual to a topic by predisposing him or her to respond in a particular way.

Answer: T.

5. People have more values than they have attitudes or beliefs.

Answer: F.

6. Attitudes are evaluative mental structures that predispose us to act in certain ways.

Answer: T.

7. Logos is the term Aristotle used to refer to the impression an audience forms of the speaker‟s character.

Answer: F.

8. Identification is based on the presence of a perceived relationship, either real or imaginary, between source and receiver.

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Answer: T.

9. To adapt to an audience, a speaker must tell audience members what they want to hear, whether or not the speaker actually takes that stand.

Answer: F.

10. Police officers, merely by the fact that they fulfill a social role, have the power to give speeding tickets and make arrests. This is an example of legitimate power.

Answer: T.

11. Scientists, because they have specialized knowledge, often have the power to persuade policymakers. The scientists use legitimate power.

Answer: F.

12. A high authoritarian personality has a disdain for authority figures and refuses to comply with the requests of powerful people.

Answer: F.

13. Modifiers like “always,” “sometimes,” and “probably” are qualifiers that indicate the strength of a claim.

Answer: T.

14. Unqualified claims often indicate that a speaker is overstating the case.

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Answer: T.

15. The connecting link between data and claim is called the qualifier.

Answer: F.

16. According to Toulmin, speaker‟s arguments must always include an explicit rebuttal or reservation.

Answer: F.

17. Hasty generalizations are arguments based on massive amounts of statistical data.

Answer: F.

18. According to Maslow, the most basic of all the needs, and the need that must be satisfied before any others, is the need for love.

Answer: F.

19. Superstitions are examples of post hoc fallacies.

Answer: T.

20. A speaker tells an audience, “Either you vote for me or you hand America over to forces who would destroy her.” This is an example of a transfer fallacy.

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Answer: F.

21. When a speaker links two unrelated ideas together by using words such as “therefore” or hence,” he or she is using a non sequitur.

Answer: T.

22. Ad hominem arguments are some of the strongest and most reasonable arguments a speaker can use.

Answer: F.

Short Essay Questions 1. How does public communication differ from interpersonal communication? How must a speaker adapt to these differences?

2. What is a rhetorical situation? Describe its parts. Think of examples of speeches which might not be fitting responses to a rhetorical situation.

3. Define attitude. What are the three components of attitudes? Give an example of how a speaker advocating the construction of a new community center might appeal to each of these aspects of audience attitudes.

4. What is the difference between internalization, identification, and compliance? What speaker characteristics are associated with each? Name at least two ways to exhibit each characteristic.

5. Think up an argument from sign and one from generalization. Present each using the Toulmin model.

6. Name and give an example of three different fallacies. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

Chapter 13 Test Questions Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is NOT a function of traditional mass media? a. Gathering and dissemination of information. b. Analysis and evaluation of information. c. Education and socialization of receivers. d. None of the above.

Answer: d.

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of traditional mass communication? a. Institutional sources. b. Invisible receivers. c. Fairly noisy environments during reception. d. All of the above.

Answer: d.

3. ___________ is the best example of cultural transmission by the media. a. A book that details a country‟s history. b. The evening news. c. A “talking head” news commentary. d. A TV sitcom.

Answer: a. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

4. When we characterize the media as watchdogs of a free society, we are referring to the ___________ media function. a. surveillance. b. correlation. c. cultural transmission. d. entertainment.

Answer: a.

5. One of the effects of the media is that people become narcotized, which means they ___________. a. are so overloaded by information that they feel overwhelmed. b. agree instantly with everything a source says. c. resist dominant messages. d. learn how to criticize hegemonic messages.

Answer: a.

6. Which of the following is NOT a tenet of cultivation theory? a. Heavy TV viewers idealize the world and see it as safer than it really is. b. Heavy TV viewing leads to perceptions of the world as a dangerous place. c. TV encourages mainstreamed views. d. TV acts on us by building up our views of the world, much in the way that stalagmites form slowly over time.

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Answer: a.

7. ___________ is NOT a way that receivers resist influence. a. Letting media set agendas. b. Selective processing. c. Conducting oppositional readings. d. Using media for individual gratification.

Answer: a.

8. Media gatekeepers ___________. a. select which messages receivers will be exposed to. b. help individuals resist dominant ideologies. c. use media for their own individual uses and gratifications. d. have very little to do with determining message content.

Answer: a.

9. Generally hard rock fans do not tune in to radio stations with easy-listening formats and nonbelievers do not watch televangelists. This is an example of ___________. a. selective exposure. b. ideal norms. c. gate-keeping. d. All of the above.

Answer: a.

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10. Which is the best example of selective attention? a. Tom is a socialist so he turns off the TV when any political messages come on that deviate from his view. b. While watching the news, Tea lets her mind wander; only looking at the scene when the handsome weatherman comes on. c. Shanequa and Sean watch the President. She thinks the President supports the transportation bill. He thinks the President is against it. d. An hour after the news is over, not Tea, Shanequa, or Sean can remember more than three or four stories.

Answer: b.

11. Which is the best example of selective perception? a. Tom is a socialist so he turns off the TV when any political messages come on that deviate from his view. b. While watching the news, Tea lets her mind wander, only looking at the scene when the handsome weatherman comes on. c. Shanequa and Sean watch the President. She thinks the President supports the transportation bill. He thinks the President is against it. d. An hour after the news is over, not Tea, Shanequa, or Sean can remember more than three or four stories.

Answer: c.

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12. Which is the best example of selective retention? a. Tom is a socialist so he turns off the TV when any political messages come on that deviate from his view. b. While watching the news, Tea lets her mind wander, only looking at the scene when the handsome weatherman comes on. c. Shanequa and Sean watch the President. She thinks the President supports the transportation bill. He thinks the President is against it. d. An hour after the news is over, not Tea, Shanequa, or Sean can remember more than three or four stories.

Answer: d.

13. Which of the following mass media acts as a portable friend? a. Newspapers. b. Magazines. c. Radio. d. Television.

Answer: c.

14. Newspaper format encourages all of the following EXCEPT ___________. a. a focus on the unusual and the dramatic. b. a focus on abstract ideas rather than concrete details. c. an interest in “appearance” vs. “reality” stories. d. a fascination with crime.

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Answer: b.

15. Which of the following take the form of hard copy? a. Newspapers. b. Television tabloid shows. c. Film. d. Television news programming.

Answer: a.

16. Which of the following is NOT true about newspaper format? a. Newspaper format is designed to allow readers to stop reading at different points but still get the gist of the story. b. The format of newspapers like USA Today has been influenced by television. c. To build suspense, most essential information in a news story is put at the end. d. All of the above.

Answer: c.

17. Which of the following functions do magazines fulfill for readers? a. Provide information about how to act like insiders. b. Give up-to-date information on fast-breaking events. c. Reflect generalized ideal norms, but do little to reflect norms and values of subgroups. d. All of the above.

Answer: a.

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18. Which is NOT true of radio? a. It has a strong interpersonal dimension. b. It is the most local and “demassified” of the mass media. c. People who listen to talk radio have been found to be poorly adjusted and low in intelligence. d. All of the above; that is., all are false statements about radio.

Answer: c.

19. TV formats encourage all of the following EXCEPT ___________. a. a need for news to be visually compelling. b. a focus on detailed knowledge. c. belief in ideal norms. d. interest in dramatic material.

Answer: b.

20. Television causes us to expect ___________. a. time to pass quickly. b. arousing visual stimuli. c. psychological identification with characters or spokespersons. d. All of the above.

Answer: d.

21. A genre is ___________.

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a. a kind of ideal norm. b. another name for a newspaper headline. c. a segment of the radio market. d. None of the above.

Answer: d.

22. Which is true about the hype stages through which most new media go? a. People are usually suspicious and uninterested during the peak of inflated expectations stage. b. In the slope of enlightenment stage, people redefine the nature of a technology and find its true use. c. In the technology trigger stage, people find their own unique ways to use a new medium. d. In the plateau of productivity stage, people lose interest in the new medium and stop using it.

Answer: b.

23. The fact that rather than being homogeneous, audiences today are becoming more specialized is known as ___________. a. audience fragmentation. b. demassification. c. both a. and b. d. neither a. nor b.

Answer: c.

24. Pizzagate is:

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a. a scandal in which politicians took bribes from pizza restaurants to relax food safety requirements. b. a scandal in which it was conclusively shown that the owner of a chain of restaurants had committed sex crimes. c. a scandal in which local politicians bought votes by giving voters free pizzas. d. none of the above.

Answer: d

25. Which of the following is NOT a factor driving truth decay? a. increased political polarization b. increased resources so that news organizations can hire more investigative journalists. c. failure of the education system to keep up with changes in the media. d. the rise of cable news networks that broadcast opinion 24/7.

True and False 1. In the traditional mass media context, communication occurs through indirect channels that require specialized encoding and decoding technologies.

Answer: T.

2. The presence of competing media messages is a source of noise in the mass communication context.

Answer: T.

3. Media messages are much easier to decode than spoken, face-to-face messages. © 2018 Taylor & Francis

Answer: F.

4. Although different media call for different levels of technical sophistication, they all demand the same kinds of cognitive skills on the part of receivers.

Answer: F.

5. Media can reduce the ability of other institutions to set standards and values.

Answer: T.

6. Editorials and commentaries in which experts interpret news events are examples of the correlation function of the media.

Answer: T.

7. Cultural transmission includes both prosocial and antisocial learning.

Answer: T.

8. According to the magic bullet view, media have only limited effects on receivers.

Answer: F.

9. A hegemonic message is a message that encourages listeners to critique what they are told and to make up their own minds.

Answer: F.

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10. The term, spiral of silence, is a description of the frequency of speech of characters on TV dramas, with women speaking less than men.

Answer: F.

11. The world as depicted on TV is primarily populated by able-bodied, single, heterosexual, white males under 40.

Answer: T.

12. According to the obstinate audience theory, media effects are long-lasting and powerful.

Answer: F.

13. Franklin Roosevelt began the trend of the imperial presidency by bypassing Congress.

Answer: T.

14. Hegemony means that a text has multiple meanings for each individual who is exposed to it.

Answer: F.

15. The American public‟s involvement with the language of TV is changing the language of newspapers, books, and magazines.

Answer: T.

16. One of the most important functions of magazines is to act as a portable friend to readers.

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Answer: F.

17. Magazines are one of the least ephemeral of the mass media.

Answer: T.

18. The “man bites dog” effect means that newspapers usually distort news events by adding meaningless details.

Answer: F.

19. One of the major goals of adults in literacy programs is to be able to read a paper in public.

Answer: T.

20. The writing style in magazines is usually terse and objective.

Answer: F.

21. The major criticism leveled against radio is that it encourages apathy and lack of involvement.

Answer: T.

22. Television has destroyed the American public‟s beliefs in ideal norms.

Answer: F.

23. The nature of user-generated mass media means that online audience/producers are even

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more passive than consumers of traditional mass media.

Answer: F.

24. The term used to describe the coming together of computing, telecommunications, and media in a digital environment is convergence.

Answer: T.

25. The use of composite characters by news writers or broadcasters is generally considered unethical.

Answer: T.

26. Using reenactments in TV newscasts presents no ethical problems.

Answer: F.

27. Internet messages are carefully edited and are, in fact, more trustworthy than any other form of mediated communication.

Answer: F.

28. The term Web 3.0 refers to a proposed web browser that will be three times the speed of Web 2.0.

Answer: F.

29. The Grass Mud Horse is a harmless meme with no political overtones.

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Answer: F

30. Critical theroists argue that we live in an attention economy where fame is a valued resource.

Answer: T

Short Essay Questions 1. Define mass communication. Describe its three characteristics.

2. What are the four functions of the media? List, define, and give an example of each.

3. Briefly describe the arguments given by people who believe the media exert powerful effects over audiences. Briefly describe the arguments given by people who maintain that audiences resist media messages.

4. Give an example of selective exposure, selective attention, selective perception, and selective retention.

5. How do the formats and uses of the following media differ? Newspapers, magazines, radio, and television.

6. What themes are considered especially newsworthy by newspaper editors?

7. What are the defining characteristics of television as a medium? How does the logic of television affect our expectations of other media and of the world in general?

8. What are the defining characteristics of user-generated mass media? What are some of the negative effects that have been identified by critics of new media?

9. What, if any, ethical responsibilities do the consumers of media (both traditional and new) have? Defend your answer.

10. How are traditional and new forms of mass communication converging? © 2018 Taylor & Francis

11. What is truth decay? What are the factors driving it?

Appendix A Test Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is true about audience adaptation? a. Audience adaptation means that audience members must adapt their values and beliefs to coincide with those of the speaker. b. It is appropriate to adapt language to an audience, but the purpose and central idea of the speech should not be affected by audience characteristics. c. The structure of a persuasive speech delivered to a hostile audience should be different from that delivered to a favorable audience. d. None of the above Answer: c.

2. A demographic analysis gathers information about the _________. a. groups that audience members belong to, like age, gender, or ethnic groups. b. basic values of audience members, like self-direction, hedonism, security, and tradition. c. belief structures of audience members. d. three basic dimensions of attitudes.

Answer: a.

3. Which is NOT a function of an introduction?

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a. To create a desire in the audience to listen to the speech. b. To build credibility and establish positive ethos. c. To let the audience know what the speech is about. d. To call for action.

Answer: d.

4. Which is a function of the introduction of a speech? a. To present detailed arguments about your main points. b. To allow the audience to judge your qualifications. c. To reiterate the significance of the topic. d. To call the audience to action.

Answer: b.

5. A thesis is _________ a. a printed manuscript version of a speech. b. an objection that intelligent audience members might make to a speech. c. the central proposition that is being argued in the speech. d. a boring way of delivering a speech.

Answer: c.

6. “What would you do if you were suddenly to find yourself homeless? How would your life be changed? What would you do to survive? Most of us have never had to confront these questions, but many Americans have …” This introduction is an example of the use of _________

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a. personal reference. b. illustration. c. closed-ended question. d. rhetorical question.

Answer: d.

7. Which of the following is NOT a good way to open a speech? a. Humorous anecdote. b. Summary. c. Startling statement. d. Personal reference or greeting.

Answer: b.

8. Which is NOT a good way to close a speech? a. To introduce new information not discussed previously to give the audience something to think about as they leave. b. To use a call to action. c. To end with a summary of main points. d. To give the audience a statement of what the speaker is prepared to do in regard to the proposal.

Answer: a.

9. When the speaker says, “I‟m going to discuss with you five reasons why my opponent‟s plan

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is dangerous and ill-considered,” the speaker is using a(n) _________. a. preview. b. transition. c. internal summary. d. stock organizational pattern.

Answer: a.

10. When the speaker says, “Let‟s move on to the second point,” he or she is using a(n) _________. a. preview. b. transition. c. internal summary. d. stock organizational pattern.

Answer: b.

11. “So far I‟ve proved to you that my opponent‟s plan will not work and that it is expensive!” is an example of a _________. a. preview. b. transition. c. internal summary. d. stock organizational pattern.

Answer: c.

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12. A speaker is discussing meanings of intimacy. If he or she begins by describing intimacy in the Colonial period, goes on to discuss intimacy in the Jacksonian period, and then talks about intimacy in the Progressive era, he or she is using a __________ method of organizing his or her speech. a. topical. b. spatial. c. chronological. d. motivated sequence.

Answer: c.

13. A speaker is describing the food of Japan. He or she begins by describing Tokyo cuisine, and then moves to the foods of Kyoto and Nara. He or she is using a _________ method of organizing a speech. a. topical. b. spatial. c. chronological. d. motivated sequence.

Answer: b.

14. A speaker is describing the advantages of adult education. The speech is organized into intellectual, social, and personal advantages. The speaker is using a _________ organizational pattern?

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a. topical. b. spatial. c. chronological. d. motivated sequence.

Answer: a.

15. A speaker is trying to persuade college students to begin making investments for their future.

He or she begins with a startling statement about inflation, goes on to show the unfortunate results of relying on one‟s salary or on social security, offers an investment plan that will alleviate the problem, visualizes what will happen to those who follow the plan, and asks students to start saving immediately. The speaker is using a _________ organizational pattern. a. topical. b. spatial. c. chronological. d. motivated sequence.

Answer: d.

16. When the mayor brings up a new proposal at a city council meeting, John stands up and, on the spur of the moment, rebuts the mayor‟s proposal. John is using a(n) _________ kind of delivery? a. impromptu. b. extemporaneous. c. manuscript.

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d. None of the above.

Answer: a.

17. Before speaking, John carefully researches the topic, outlines his thoughts, and practices his presentation ahead of time. When the time comes, John stands up and delivers the speech in a conversational tone, using the ideas he has practiced but adding the wording on the spot. John is using a(n) _________ kind of delivery? a. impromptu. b. extemporaneous. c. manuscript. d. None of the above.

Answer: b

18. The president is addressing the United Nations on a major policy change to a controversial and complex problem. Which of the following styles would be the most appropriate for him or her to use? a. Impromptu. b. Extemporaneous. c. Manuscript. d. Use of a surrogate to speak for her.

Answer: c.

19. Cognitive restructuring, when applied to public speaking, means _________

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a. changing your ideas to match those of your audience. b. a form of brainwashing often found in propaganda speeches. c. substituting adaptive thinking for negative thoughts. d. a form of hypnosis used to cure stage fright.

Answer: c.

20. Systematic desensitization is _________. a. a name for a kind of speech anxiety that makes speakers “freeze” during a speech. b. a method used to reduce speech anxiety. c. an effect that occurs from watching too much television: audiences come to accept violence without reacting. d. an inability to empathize with an audience.

Answer: b.

21. Which is true of the effective use of visual aids? a. They distract audience members from the main ideas in a speech. b. They can increase comprehension by illustrating difficult concepts. c. They often decrease credibility by distancing a speaker from the audience. d. All of the above.

Answer: b.

True and False

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1. The kind of delivery most favored when beginning public speaking classes is the manuscript style.

Answer: F.

2. The thesis of a speech generally comes in the conclusion of the speech.

Answer: F.

3. While a speech‟s supporting material and style should be adapted to different audiences, the structure of a speech should not be changed according to audience characteristics.

Answer: F.

4. When facing a hostile audience, a speaker should begin with the strongest and most controversial points and challenge the audience to disagree.

Answer: F.

5. One way to adapt to an audience from a local business is to spend some time with employees and to read official publications.

Answer: T.

6. Most audience members listen more closely in the middle of a speech rather than at the beginning or at the end.

Answer: F.

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7. Generally, audience members are attracted to speakers who are like them rather than to those who are different.

Answer: T.

8. Ingratiation means criticizing and challenging audience members.

Answer: F.

9. According to the mere exposure hypothesis, simple repeated exposure to a stimulus results in attraction.

Answer: T.

10. It is important to avoid previews in the body of the speech because they bore an audience and diminish suspense.

Answer: F.

11. Transitions act to move the audience from one idea to the next.

Answer: T.

12. Rhetorical questions should be avoided in introductions as they confuse audience members.

Answer: F.

13. In the motivated sequence, the first step is visualization.

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Answer: F.

14. In the motivated sequence, the last step is action.

Answer: T.

15. When the speaker paints a picture of what life will be like if his or her proposal is accepted, the speaker is in the need step of the motivated sequence.

Answer: F.

16. When the speaker outlines a problem that needs to be changed, he or she is developing the need step of the motivated sequence.

Answer: T.

17. In extemporaneous delivery, the speech is completely thought out ahead of time but specific wording is selected during delivery.

Answer: T.

18. In extemporaneous speeches, the speaker reads from a manuscript.

Answer: F.

19. In general, visual aids that need to be passed around the room should be avoided.

Answer: T.

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20. In general, when using PowerPoint for presentations, you should use as many features as you possibly can to show the audience that you are an expert.

Answer: F.

Short Essay Questions

1. What are the sources a speaker could go to for information about an unfamiliar audience?

2. Assume you are giving a speech to orient new employees to a business. What are five different ways you could introduce your speech? Give examples of three of these.

3. Assume you are giving a speech designed to get students on your campus to become involved in volunteer work in the community. What are five different ways you could conclude your speech? Give examples of three of these.

4. You want people to vote for you for some office. How could you use the motivated sequence to get people to vote for you? Name each part of the sequence and give an example of how it would be used.

5. Assume you are giving a speech on places of interest in your hometown. What are three different stock patterns of organization you could use? Write a simple sample outline showing how you would use each of these patterns of organization.

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6. What are some ways to alleviate speech anxiety?

7. What kinds of problems can cause audiovisual aids to fail?

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