Test Bank For The Police Manager, 9th Edition By Egan K. Green, Ronald G. Lynch, Scott R. Lynch

Test Bank For The Police Manager, 9E By Egan K. Green, Ronald G. Lynch, Scott R. Lynch Chapter 1-21 Chapter 01 1. According to the text, police managers must be skilled in: a. Listening b. Talking c. Reading *d. All of the above 2. According to the text, police manager’s duties are concerned with each of the following except: a. Facilities b. People c. Money *d. Policy Formation 3. A study conducted by the Harvard School of Business identified three elements, common to all successful managers in government and industry. They include: a. The will to power b. The will to manage c. Empathy *d. All of the above 4. Which of the following is not one of the four levels of an organization? a. The element b. The event *c. The work shift d. The system 5. Which of the following is not considered one of the three major areas of the management process? a. Technical factors *b. Union factors c. Behavioral factors d. Functional factors 6. Which acronym’s goal is defined by increasing cooperation and collective efficacy between police officers and the citizens they serve? a. (POP) b. (TOP) *c. (COP) d. (UCR)

7. What technological advances play a major role in socially isolating police officers from the communities they protect? a. Radar b. The radio c. The automobile *d. Both B and C 8. What was the response of some police agencies to poor community relations? *a. Reinstituting foot patrol b. Trying to reduce officer contact with citizens c. Giving officers permission to work off-duty jobs d. None of the above 9. According to the text, in which order did the history of management occur? a. Human relations management, systems management, scientific management b. Systems management, scientific management, human relations management *c. Scientific management, human relations management, systems management d. None of the above 10. For which philosophical approach to management is Frederick Taylor given credit? a. Systems management *b. Scientific management c. Human relations management d. Management by objectives 11. Taylor places emphasis on the formal administrative structure, which of the following is not a name of those administrative structures? a. Chain of command b. Authority *c. Improvement of labor d. Span of control 12. In 1935, Luther Gulick developed the acronym POSDCORB. What does this stand for? a. Planning, organizing, supervising, delegating, coordinating, reasoning, belonging b. Processing, solving, developing, coordinating, restructuring, belonging *c. Planning, organizing, staffing, directing, coordinating, reporting, and budgeting d. Political, organizations, designed, to solve, and correct, report, building 13. Who said there was a best method for each job? *a. Frederick Taylor b. Luther Gulick c. Douglas McGregor d. Abraham Maslow 14. There are four components that contribute to efficiency through scientific management.

Which of the following is not one of those components?

a. Division of labor *b. Incentive pay c. Orderly arrangement of administrative units d. The use of a small span of control 15. The informal organizational structure consists of: a. The rumor process b. Cliques c. Informal status systems *d. All of the above 16. Sears Roebuck’s flat organizational structure emphasized: a. Scanning, analysis, response, and assessment b. A command chain that limits interaction between officers and the chief to assess only pressing issues *c. Careful selection, training, and placement of new employees d. Years of experience, education, and advancement of new employees 17. What is Abraham Maslow famous for developing? a. The organizational hierarchy b. Chain of command c. Both a and B *d. Hierarchy of needs 18. Douglas McGregor pointed out that the “soft” approach to management occasionally led to employees: a. Appreciating police managers more and as a result increased their respect b. Delegate their duties onto other officers *c. Expecting more and giving less in return d. Understanding operations better and giving more in return 19. Which of the following did the systems management approach not recognize? a. Authority and responsibility were essential b. Overall organization was required *c. Leadership positions can be mitigated and reduced if respect is present d. It is necessary to have some hierarchical arrangement to bring about cooperation and coordination 20. Theory X and Theory Y were developed by: a. Abraham Maslow b. Frederick Taylor c. Luther Gulick *d. Douglas McGregor

21. In 1964, R.R. Blake and J.S. Mouton emphasized two concerns that every

a. Concern for management b. Concern for production c. Concern for people *d. Both B and C 22. Frederick Taylor believed there was no one best way to do a job. a. True *b. False 23. The automobile and the radio weakened police relations with citizens. *a. True b. False 24. With Community-Oriented Policing, some departments re-instituted foot patrol. *a. True b. False 25. Luther Gulick is known as the “father of scientific management.” a. True *b. False 26. Elton Mayo emphasized time and motion studies. a. True *b. False Chapter 02 1. What are the two general types of motivators? a. personal and moral b. money and benefits c. economic and work conditions *d. personal and professional 2. What factors affect the salaries for the heads of law enforcement agencies? a. size of the community b. the affluence of the community c. the salary of the previous chief *d. all of the above 3. Which of the following is not defended by the union to some extent? a. Sergeant b. Lieutenant c. Entry-level officer *d. Chief 4. What are the three Ps that police chiefs have to deal with?

a. pensions, problems, and pay *b. politicians, the public, and the press c. policy, promises and promotions d. none of the above 5. Lawrence W. Sherman reported that some popular crime prevention programs had been evaluated and found to be ineffective. What was the result of this finding? a. The funding was immediately halted *b. Nothing, the funding continued regardless of this finding c. Chiefs utilizing such programs were ordered to evaluate every week with CompStat meetings d. Research institutions reevaluated what was functional and provided an updated program 6. A philosophy is defined as: a. a course of action *b. values, beliefs, and principles c. interests and concerns d. standards and guidelines 7. According to the text, what should follow policies, decisions, practices, and procedures? a. decisions *b. principles c. policy manuals d. commitment 8. According to the text, principles are best stated in: *a. a policy manual b. memoranda c. standard operating procedures d. postings on the bulletin board 9. According to the text, a few general principles are better than a long list, because: a. it is easier to understand and adhere to a few b. development of a long list could create conflict between principles c. none of the above *d. both a and b 10. To be successfully translated into results, principles must be reflected in: a. daily decision making b. actions and behaviors c. actions and behaviors of the chief *d. all of the above 11. Examples of how values, beliefs, and principles can be reflected in actions and behavior include: *a. Daily decision making, routine activities, standards, and policies and procedures b. Policies and standards only

c. Routine activities only d. Standards only 12. The police leader’s values and beliefs will be evaluated according to: a. whether he or she believes in unions *b. how he or she makes decisions c. how he or she makes assignments d. how he or she determines promotability 13. Which of the following does the text not advise that a police leader do throughout their routine activities? *a. Dominate and take control of meetings b. Allow others to participate in meetings c. Have an open-door policy and be open to discussion d. All of the above 14. If a manager truly believes that that his or her employees are competent, he or she will: a. keep control in his or her hands b. insist that every action be approved by a supervisor c. make decisions without any consultation with employees *d. allow employees to act on their own judgment 15. Decisions that emphasize coordination as opposed to control and delegation or centralized decision making gives a clear message to department personnel that: *a. they are competent and trusted b. they are willing to do the manager’s job c. the manager is detached and uninvolved d. the manager is in over his or her head 16. Ethical standards for law enforcement: a. govern professional standards b. have been developed by the International Association of Chiefs of Police *c. both a and b d. none of the above 17. Moral standards pertain to right or wrong behavior, and a. cannot be forced on subordinates b. this is something the chief must try to guard against trying to control with written policies *c. both a and b d. none of the above 18. Performance standards are typically used for: *a. Recruitment and promotions b. Advertisement and research c. Encouragement and efficiency d. All of the above

19. A stated or written guide for action a. is called a statement of purpose *b. is called a policy c. should not be easily accessible d. should cover any potential occurrence 20. A policy statement should involve what main features? a. Approval, implementation, and assessment b. Community support, political support, and benefits for the police department *c. The purpose of the policy, a general standard of conduct that can be applied day-to-day, and how and when discretion is left to the individual d. The purpose of the policy, the policy’s end goal, and the negative effects or repercussions of its implementation 21. According to the text, what are techniques to implement values, beliefs, and principles? a. Put them in writing and distribute to all personnel b. Act consistently with these principles c. Administer praise for behavior that reflects the values, beliefs, and principles *d. All of the above Chapter 03 1. Police managers can rely on the culture of the department to a. permit them to do away with rules *b. make the right decision to resolve a conflict c. create a department where trust is not important d. none of the above 2. What must accompany the openness of the police manager and their operations? a. political support b. promotions *c. disciplining officers who disagree or act inconsistent with that openness d. allowing officers to have more leeway 3. Culture is developed from observing the actions of managers and: a. city council b. the public *c. fellow officers d. all of the above 4. Police officers tend to see the world as being composed of cops and others. This is also known as: a. a realistic view of the world *b. the us vs. them mentality c. the thin blue line d. cynicism

5. The dangers officers face in their work gives them a sense of *a. solidarity b. cynicism c. negativism d. none of the above 6. Cynicism is also known as a. solidarity b. us vs. them *c. a negative world view d. both B and C 7. According to Wilson, _____ is the style of policing in which officers differentiate between very serious and minor offenses, but still view the law as a clear guide for acceptable behavior. a. service style *b. legalistic style c. watchman style d. none of the above 8. According to Wilson, _______ is the style in which officers approach all calls professionally and seriously but are less likely to impose official intervention such as arrest. a. legalistic style *b. service style c. watchman style d. none of the above 9. Officers who are more interested in order maintenance are often referred to as using this style of a. legalistic style b. service style *c. watchman style d. none of the above 10. Clues for a department’s culture can be found in: a. written policies b. unwritten policies c. norms or customs *d. all of the above 11. What are two issues that must be addressed to identify a police department’s culture? a. sustained complaints and conduct that might result in termination b. loyalty to each other and to the police department *c. reputation and status of the police department d. expectations and specific goals of the police department

12. A strong culture may be a great help to the police manager if: a. the department’s culture is difficult to identify b. shared values and beliefs can be interpreted differently c. the culture is an obstacle to change * d. he or she agrees with that culture 13. How can a police manager develop a new culture? a. change the artifacts or signs of the old culture b. replace old patrol cars with new ones c. change the emblem design *d. all of the above 14. If a manager has the authority, he or she can restructure the department in a way that is consistent with his or her beliefs. Examples are: a. change the organizational structure b. stand up to political pressure when it is the right thing to do c. deal with conflict openly *d. all of the above 15. What does the text mention about police managers utilizing questionnaires and espoused beliefs to identify the culture? a. they are accurate methods and should be trusted b. they are only useful for acquiring information on higher ranking officials *c. they can be misleading and are not always valuable d. none of the above 16. Some direct methods the police manager may use to change the department’s culture include: a. remove, modify values b. identify and discuss operating beliefs and values c. increase or decrease the strength of the values *d. all of the above 17. Police managers must recruit, select, promote, and dismiss people based on: a. legal and ethical concerns b. moral and performance standards *c. both a and b d. none of the above 18. How can a police manager help explain his or her actions? a. the manager can explain what he or she is doing when he or she role models b. the manager can use everyday situations to explain how he or she would deal with that situation. *c. both a and b d. none of the above

19. Which of the following is not an indirect method the police manager might use to change the department’s culture? a. allocate their time strategically b. measure and reward what they believe in *c. restrict the flow of information to maintain order d. ask for and share things that are important Chapter 04 1. According to the text, what was the one negative reason that subordinates follow the leadership manager: *a. fear of their authority b. the subordinate is a sycophant c. the employee does not know what else to do d. all of the above 2. Which of the following is a positive reason that subordinates follow the leadership manager? a. personal liking b. personal respect c. trust *d. all of the above 3. Which type of leadership is most effective and lasting? a. Liking based b. Respect based c. Fear based *d. Trust based 4. Which set of qualities, when exhibited by managers, help the individual reach success in dayto-day operations? a. patience, wisdom, virtue b. empathy, kindness, trust c. knowledge and self-control *d. all of the above 5. According to the text, what are the two major priorities for leadership? a. follow precedent and structure *b. be concerned with purpose and show concern for people c. be concerned with results and reward people for positive results d. follow commands from citizens and influential political parties 6. With the human relations movement initiated by Elton Mayo, the function of the leader was to do what? a. focus on the structural needs of the organization rather than trivial issues of employees *b. focus on the individual needs of the employees and not on those of the organization itself c. create an environment that produced efficiency above all else

d. create an environment that produced an awareness of department issues 7. In which style of leadership does the manager make his or her own decisions and then announces them to the subordinates? *a. the tell style of leadership b. the sell style of leadership c. the consult style of leadership d. the join style of leadership 8. In which leadership style does the manager not make a decision until he or she has presented the problem to members of the group and listened to advice and suggestions? a. the tell style of leadership b. the sell style of leadership *c. the consult style of leadership d. the join style of leadership 9. In which style of leadership does the manager make the decisions and then try to persuade subordinates to accept the decisions? a. the tell style of leadership *b. the sell style of leadership c. the consult style of leadership d. the join style of leadership 10. In which leadership style does the manager delegate authority to make decisions to subordinates? a. the tell style of leadership b. the sell style of leadership c. the consult style of leadership *d. the join style of leadership 11. Which of the following are on Blake and Mouton’s management grid? a. impoverished b. compliance c. team *d. all of the above 12. Single-loop learning focuses on: a. openness b. thinking *c. solving problems d. empathy 13. Building a shared vision means: a. providing a vision statement *b. develop a vision and find ways for it to be achieved c. seeing things that are not there

d. none of the above 14. What does the text state about the best style for effective direction, planning, and control of a police agency? a. Managers who balance both concern for people and concerns for production are the most effective managers. b. Likert found that managers who focused more attention on people were more successful than job-centered managers. c. A single style of leadership may not apply to all situations. *d. all of the above 15. In choosing a leadership style, a manager must consider these major variables: a. personal relationships with members of the department b. the degree of structure in the task that the agency has been assigned to perform *c. both a and b d. none of the above 16. In reality leadership, the most effective manager will: a. change styles frequently b. let employees determine which style of leadership will be used *c. advise subordinates ahead of time regarding which conditions will produce which style of leadership d. all of the above 17. According to the text, in reaching decisions, police managers are affected by: a. outside forces *b. forces within themselves and forces within the situation c. future legislative forces d. none of the above 18. The effective police manager should choose a style of management that does what? a. justifiably separates the management process from actual line operations b. separates important issues from feedback from subordinates *c. bridges the gap between the management process and actual line operations d. bridges the gap between important issues and feedback from subordinates 19. According to Kouzes and Posner, people are willing to admire and follow leaders who are: a. honest b. consistent c. competent *d. all of the above 20. According to the text, those leaders who challenge the process: a. are dissatisfied b. like their jobs *c. initiate change

d. none of the above 21. According to the text, in modeling the way, a police leader makes two commitments. The first is to set a positive example; the second is to: a. rule with an iron hand b. try to be everyone’s friend c. set standards from which the department can benefit *d. plan small wins 22. The four attributes of a vision include each of the following except: a. having a future orientation b. having a sense of the possibilities c. taking pride in being a different police agency *d. following precedent and consistently following previous police agency guidelines Chapter 05 1. When it comes to the performance of law enforcement officers in the field, the most important position would be? a. second-line supervisor b. chief or police manager *c. first-line supervisor d. city officials 2. The comment “peak performers are not ordinary people with something added, but ordinary people with nothing taken away” was said by: a. Charles Darwin in the Origin of the Species *b. Charles Garfield in Peak Performers c. James Garfield in Only Peak Performers will get Government Jobs d. none of the above 2. The reasons a supervisor can be liable for a subordinate’s actions include: a. negligent training b. negligent retention c. negligent supervision *d. all of the above 5. Which court case ruled that a sergeant who watched six subordinate officers use excessive force was also liable? a. Campbell v. New York (2004) *b. Masel v. Barnett (1989) c. Doe v. Calumet City d. Harlow v. Fitzgerald (1982) 3. According to the text, the supervisor and subordinate should meet ____ to discuss the subordinate’s progress a. rarely

b. occasionally *c. frequently d. never 4. According to the text, good performers must be encouraged to: a. continue at their current level of performance b. constantly improve performance *c. both a and b d. none of the above 5. According to the text, to avoid liability, it is important to: a. concentrate on liability b. concentrate on liability and performance *c. concentrate on performance, because good performance will take care of liability d. none of the above 6. In the performance planning phase, the supervisor meets with the subordinate and decides a series of goals that are: a. specific and measurable b. attainable and relevant c. trackable *d. all of the above 7. The goals for a rookie and a veteran will: a. be the same b. be different c. vary according to duties *d. both b and c 8. Suggestions in the text for developing great supervisors include: a. the development and implementation of a field training supervisor program b. establishing a peak performance−oriented supervising style *c. b and c d. none of the above 9. Many departments focus on poor performers or problem officers, *a. while ignoring the majority of officers who are good-to-excellent performers b. because it makes sense to focus on those who most need to improve their performance c. both a and b d. neither a nor b 10. Most performance evaluations are completed by: a. Chiefs b. Captains c. Lieutenants *d. Sergeants

11. Performance management includes: a. performance planning b. observation, interaction, and adjustments in supervisory styles c. the performance evaluation *d. all of the above 12. The following is/are phase(s) in performance improvement: a. create policy and training in all tasks and critical policies b. track the quality of daily supervision and the supervisors’ exemplary conduct c. respond with correction, discipline, evaluations, audits, inspections, rewards, and recognition *d. all of the above 13. If a new supervisor does not receive support and training, that supervisor will likely: a. fail b. model his or her activities after supervisors he or she has worked under c. be guided by the manner he or she is treated *d. all of the above 14. According to Ken Blanchard, the only reason that supervisors exist is: a. to create opportunities for promotion *b. to raise the level of performance of those who report to him or her c. to justify a raise in pay d. all of the above 15. Which of the following can be said about first-level supervision? a. Chiefs acknowledge it as one of the greatest internal problems. b. The position of first-level supervisor is critical to the department. c. Agencies often do not prepare supervisors for the position. *d. all of the above 16. According to the text, the position of first-line supervisor is critical to the delivery of quality police services. *a. True b. False 17. Police supervisors are generally not concerned with liability. a. True *b. False 18. Fear of liability can at times result in a lack of action that may actually create liability. *a. True b. False 19. According to the text, it is important for supervisors to receive proper training for their roles.

*a. True b. False 20. Performance management must be taught and implemented at every level. *a. True b. False Chapter 06 1. The IACP Police Image and Ethics Committee notes the importance of addressing the shortage of minorities in policing and how a workforce should: a. recruit people with military experience b. resemble a business model c. recruit people with more education *d. resemble the community an agency serves 2. Some agencies use recruiting tools, which include: a. lateral transfers b. educational bonuses c. bilingual bonuses *d. all of the above 3. Civilianization is: a. using civilian employees instead of sworn personnel, because civilians are cheaper b. a technique used to save money. c. both a and b *d. none of the above 4. Civilian employees are now completing duties that have been traditionally reserved for sworn personnel. Which of the following is not one of those duties? a. parking enforcement b. dealing with minor traffic incidents *c. issuing subpoenas d. supporting crime victims 5. Workforce planning: a. is an ongoing process that requires involvement from members at all levels of the organization b. includes proactively identifying competencies needed to meet present and future demands c. provides counseling to employees to determine career interests *d. all of the above 6. A workforce plan has four basic steps. Which of the following is one of those steps? a. Know what the mission of your agency is. *b. Conduct job analyses to identify the core competencies for position classifications, incorporating future needs identified through strategic planning. c. both a and b

d. none of the above 7. The federal Office of Personnel Management created a list of five characteristics required for entry into the Senior Executive Service. Which of the following is not one of the five? a. leading change *b. changing people c. results-driven d. business acumen 8. Closing the gap between organizational needs and employee abilities can involve: a. mentoring programs b. tuition reimbursement c. supervisory training *d. all of the above 9. Mentoring involves encouraging individuals in a coordinated way to utilize personal motivation to promote professional growth. Mentoring also depends on: a. The willingness and quality of those who will become mentors and role models b. having successfully trained mentors *c. both a and b d. none of the above 10. A vital component of succession planning includes: a. promotions b. transfers c. desire to participate *d. a and c only 11. Which of the following are benefits of having a computerized database that records specific characteristics and preferences of officers? a. having access to a list of employees who speak the same language as a suspect b. it could be developed at no cost to the department c. an officer’s duties could be aligned with their special skills or interests *d. all of the above 12. Which of the following is not considered a common response for not participating in the promotional process? a. salary decrease b. child care concerns c. family relations *d. salary increase 13. Organizational programs to facilitate employee development include all but: a. tuition reimbursement b. educational incentives *c. permanently trading the employee to another agency

d. loan forgiveness 14. At supervisor and executive levels, inter-agency exchanges for limited time periods: a. do not accomplish anything b. provide insight into the strengths and weaknesses in both agencies c. allow for improvements in both agencies *d. both b and c 15. An often overlooked asset for an organization is: a. rehiring terminated employees *b. hiring or contracting with retired employees c. all of the above d. none of the above 16. Contracting with retired employees can: a. bring back talent and experience to the agency b. be done fairly inexpensively c. overcome difficulties encountered in employee succession programs *d. all of the above Chapter 07 1. The essential aspects to developing motivated, highly productive officers are: a. the assumption that the employee has the ability to do the job b. the knowledge to do the job c. the desire to do the job *d. all of the above 2. What three factors are required for a person to succeed when assigned a specific responsibility in a police department? a. experience, rank, and department support b. managers with separate responsibilities, chain of command, and an intricate computer database c. time management, mental preparedness, and respect for authority *d. knowledge, time to develop, and an internal desire to perform 3. According to the text, a police captain may have a good sense of humor, but if everything becomes a joke, he or she will not be respected as a true leader and a. his or her sense of humor could be a strength, but if overused, it could become a weakness. b. much of the knowledge that person has to offer may be discounted by the members of the department. *c. both a and b d. none of the above 4. Basic needs include: a. the need to belong *b. food and shelter

c. security and protection d. need for recognition 5. Safety needs are: a. the need to belong b. food and shelter *c. security and protection d. need for recognition 6. Belongingness refers to the need: *a. to belong b. for food and shelter c. for security and protection d. need for recognition 7. Ego status needs include: a. the need to belong b. food and shelter c. security and protection *d. the need for recognition 8. Self-actualization needs refer to: a. the need to belong b. food and shelter *c. the need for personal satisfaction d. the need for recognition 9. Motivation-hygiene theory is: a. a theory about job satisfaction b. a theory about job dissatisfaction *c. a theory about both job satisfaction and job dissatisfaction d. none of the above 10. Policies, procedures, administrative practices, and techniques of supervision are all considered: a. motivators *b. hygiene factors c. job enrichment d. job enlargement 11. A sense of achievement, challenge, professional growth and recognition are all considered: *a. motivators b. hygiene factors c. job enrichment d. job enlargement

12. The term escalating zero-point means: a. if employees received a 5% pay increase last year, they would expect zero this year b. If employees received a 5% pay increase last year, they would expect at least 6% this year, hopefully more *c. If employees received 5% last year, they would strive to achieve 5% this year d. none of the above 13. The theory of ___ assumes that if the employees are given an increase in the number of tasks similar to those they are presently doing, they will gain more satisfaction from their job. a. motivators b. status gratification *c. job enlargement d. promotional achievement 14. Achievement, recognition, the work itself, responsibility, and advancement are all: a. motivators b. hygiene factors c. job enrichment *d. major factors that produce satisfaction 15. The issue of salary can be: a. a satisfier b. a dissatisfier *c. both d. neither 16. Lower-level employees have five factors that are considered strong motivators. Among them are: a. having personal work-related goals b. doing interesting work c. doing work the employee believes to be important *d. all of the above 17. Managers rank which of the following as what they think motivates employees? a. doing work the employee believes to be important b. recognition and appreciation from supervisors and managers c. recognition from peers *d. all of the above 18. According to the text, Rensis Likert developed a definition of management styles on a continuum, ranging from System 1 through System 10. a. True *b. False 19. An issue that is continually faced by police managers is that of motivation. *a. True

b. False 20. According to the text, people can motivate other people. a. True *b. False 21. Maslow describes five needs that people have. *a. True b. False 22. According to Maslow, the needs that have to be satisfied first are ego needs. a. True *b. False 23. According to Maslow, the needs that must be satisfied first are the basic needs. *a. True b. False Chapter 08 1. Ego states in transactional analysis include: a. parent state b. adult state *c. both a and b d. none of the above 2. The ego state that contains all the attitudes, ideas, postures, gestures, habits, and reaction tendencies that were learned from parents, grandparents, older siblings, or other influential figures in the individual’s life is: *a. parent ego state b. adult ego state c. child ego state d. none of the above 3. The ego state that comprises the capacity to reason, evaluate situations, gather information, and store information for future reference is: a. parent ego state *b. adult ego state c. child ego state d. none of the above 4. This ego state contains impulses that come naturally to the infant. a. parent ego state b. adult ego state *c. child ego state

d. none of the above 5. This ego state includes the feelings and behaviors that make giving support, praise, encouragement, or compliments possible. *a. parent ego state b. child ego state c. natural child d. none of the above 6. This child ego state is very young, impulsive, untrained, and expressive. *a. natural child b. little professor c. adapted child d. none of the above 7. This ego state refers to unschooled wisdom seen in children. a. natural child *b. little professor c. adapted child 8. This ego state exhibits modifications of the natural child. Adaptations of the natural impulses occur in response to parental training and demands from significant authority figures. a. natural child b. little professor *c. adapted child d. none of the above 9. Feelings of inferiority or rebelliousness in the subordinate may mean that the ego state being observed in the manager is that of: *a. parent ego state b. adult ego state c. child ego state d. none of the above 10. According to the text, which of the following can be typically associated with each of the three ego states? a. rebellion, acceptance, submission, approval b. comprehension, impulse, denial *c. certain words, gestures, postures, mannerisms, and facial expressions d. accents, colloquialisms, nuances, innuendoes 11. When a manager’s ego state is influenced by another ego state, that problem is referred to as: *a. contamination b. isolation c. a complementary transaction d. a crossed transaction

12. The complete blocking of an ego state is called: a. contamination *b. isolation c. a complementary transaction d. a crossed transaction 13. When both parties in the transaction respond from ego states that are appropriate to maintaining communication, it is called: a. contamination b. isolation *c. a complementary transaction d. a crossed transaction 14. When in response to an initiated transaction, a manager receives a response that is inconsistent with his or her expectations, it is called: a. contamination b. isolation c. a complementary transaction *d. a crossed transaction 15. A transaction that has two messages, one overt and the other covert, is called: a. confused transaction *b. ulterior transaction c. a complementary transaction d. a crossed transaction 16. In transactional analysis, both positive and negative sanctions are called: a. rituals b. past times *c. strokes d. all of the above 17. In transactional analysis, the decisions we made about ourselves and others that determined the nature of our future interactions are called: a. predispositions b. strokes *c. basic life positions d. early life conclusions 18. The term time structuring refers to which of the following ways to obtain strokes? a. withdrawal b. rituals *c. both a and b d. none of the above

19. In most change approaches, the role of top management is singled out as the major force in the change process. *a. True b. False 20. Police agencies can use transactional analysis as a conceptual tool that can be used to develop insight into their own behavior. *a. True b. False 21. The parent ego tends to have no opinions or prejudices about religion, politics, traditions, sexual roles, lifestyles, roles of authority, proper dress, or manner of speech. a. True *b. False 22. The adult ego state does not have the capacity to reason, evaluate situations, gather information, or store information for future reference. a. True *b. False 23. In reference to ego states, contamination means that the adult ego state is contaminated by either the child or the parent ego state. *a. True b. False

Chapter 09 1. According to the MBTI, rational decisions are: a. sensory b. intuitive *c. thinking d. feeling 2. According to the MBTI, using our five senses to discover the world around us is: *a. sensory b. intuitive c. thinking d. feeling 3. According to the MBTI, using the subconscious to make decisions is: a. sensory

*b. intuitive c. thinking d. feeling 4. According to the MBTI, using a value system to make decisions is: a. sensory b. intuitive c. thinking *d. feeling 5. Which of the following is not one of the four basic preferences identified by the MBTI? a. the way people become aware of the outside world b. the way they come to conclusions about what they become aware of, how they make decisions c. their degree of flexibility *d. whether they are aware of the world around them.

6. According to the MBTI, people obtain their fundamental view of the world through: a. the sensory process b. the intuitive process *c. the sensory process or the intuitive process or a combination of both d. none of the above 7. Which of the following entails discovering and learning in an indirect sense? *a. the intuitive process b. the sensory process c. the feeling process d. the oblivious process 8. This type of person would most likely prefer a job that requires gathering data and making logical, calculated decisions based on the data. *a. ST b. SF c. NF d. NT 9. This type of person would most likely prefer a project that requires extensive dealings with people. a. ST *b. SF c. NF d. NT 10. This person most likely would prefer abstract concepts or ideas. a. ST b. SF c. NF

*d. NT 11. This person most likely would enjoy a job that deals with people and requires creativity and originality. a. ST b. SF *c. NF d. NT 12. People who choose closure over keeping their options open are referred to as: a. introverts b. conformists c. appellants *d. judgers 13. This type of individual tends to concentrate on his or her inner world. *a. introvert b. extrovert c. ambivert d. none of the above 14. This type of individual focuses on the world around him or her and tends to be more comfortable in action than in contemplation. a. introvert *b. extrovert c. ambivert d. none of the above 15. According to the MBTI, law enforcement appeals to people that are: *a. introverts b. extroverts c. ambiverts d. none of the above 16. Police types tend to prefer judging over: a. none of the following *b. perceiving c. thinking d. feeling 17. Which of the following is not one of the five uses for the analysis of personality differences through the MBTI? a. as a team-building tool b. as a database c. as an aid to officers to understand why they may feel uncomfortable in certain job situations *d. as an evaluation tool

18. According to the text, what is the underlying quality that may determine one’s leadership skills, teaching ability, and degree of successful participation in the departmental structure? a. judgement b. feeling *c. temperament d. wit 19. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is useful and can help determine personality traits of individuals. *a. True b. False 20. The MBTI does not help in determining how people look at the outside world. a. True *b. False 21. The MBTI intuitive type becomes aware through the senses. a. True *b. False 22. The MBTI trait of feeling is based on a value system. *a. True b. False 23. MBTI judgers like to decide matters quickly *a. True b. False Chapter 10 1. In the entrepreneurial approach: a. action is key to success b. risk taking is not encouraged c. plans restrict freedom *d. a and c only 2. Concerning the entrepreneurial approach, which of the following is true? *a. Priorities are placed on discovering opportunities for improvement and growth. b. Priorities are placed on making long-range plans. c. Managers keep tight control on the personnel, in order to deal with problems and explore opportunities. d. Management does not trust department personnel.

3. Which of the following is not one of the concerns for system? a. purpose *b. goals c. entirety d. stability 4. The police manager who uses the ____ approach shows a high concern for system and stability and a desire to avoid risk, innovation, and creativity. a. purposeful *b. traditional c. crisis d. entrepreneurial 5. Which of the following concerns stress the functionality of the police department as a whole? a. purpose *b. entirety c. stability d. all of the above 6. In this approach, the police manager is concerned with system, is willing to take risks, and wants to take advantage of opportunities. *a. purposeful approach b. traditional approach c. crisis approach d. entrepreneurial approach 7. This approach exhibits a low or negative concern for system and stability coupled with a strong willingness to accept risk and take advantage of opportunities. a. purposeful approach b. traditional approach c. crisis approach *d. entrepreneurial approach 8. Which of the following entails linking the information received from the uniformed operations with that from departmental records, communications, and training? a. operational approach b. uniformed approach c. purposeful approach *d. entirety approach 9. This type of police manager demonstrates minimal concern for system and a desire to avoid risk. a. purposeful approach b. traditional approach *c. crisis approach d. entrepreneurial approach

10. With this approach, long-range planning is both systematic and flexible to encourage innovation and creativity. *a. purposeful approach b. traditional approach c. crisis approach d. entrepreneurial approach 11. This approach holds that there is no long-range planning because in law enforcement the future is totally unpredictable. a. purposeful approach b. traditional approach *c. crisis approach d. entrepreneurial approach 12. The highest priority with the ________ approach is to create a stable organization by developing rules and regulation to minimize tasks. a. purposeful *b. traditional c. crisis d. entrepreneurial 13. In the ___________ approach, long–range planning is both systematic and flexible to encourage innovation and creativity as new facts and opportunities arise. *a. purposeful b. traditional c. crisis d. entrepreneurial 14. In the __________ approach, risk-taking is promoted and trust is placed in the judgment of the department personnel. a. purposeful b. traditional c. crisis *d. entrepreneurial 15. Which approach states that loose control can be sufficient if personnel possess the imagination and initiative to deal with problems effectively? *a. entrepreneurial approach b. purposeful approach c. crisis approach d. traditional approach 16. Before selecting a management planning approach, a police manager should evaluate its positive and negative features and its influence on the future of the department. The police manager should also:

*a. consider whether the amount of energy expended in planning and problem solving is reasonable in proportion to the potential gain for the department b. decide whether members of the department will support it c. determine if there are hidden costs d. see what people in the community think of it 17. What criteria must the manager weigh prior to selecting the most appropriate management planning approach? *a. time, severity, frequency, and ripple effects b. availability, funding, functionality, and accuracy c. present ability to scan, analyze, respond, and assess d. none of the above 18. According to the text, what is the foundation on which much of police management is based? a. hope b. change *c. planning d. fiscal resources 19. A manager’s concern for risk can be determined by: a. his or her attitude toward innovation b. his or her attitude toward opportunity *c. both a and b d. none of the above 20. Planning is the foundation on which much of police management is based. *a. True b. False 21. Planning should only occur at the upper management level. a. True *b. False 22. Concern for system is one of the two basic sets of concerns in police management planning. *a. True b. False 23. Concern for risk is the second basic set of concerns for planning. *a. True b. False 24. In the purposeful approach to decision making, the police manager is not willing to take risks. a. True *b. False

Chapter 11 1. What are the four basic steps to problem analysis? a. admit there are problems, determine the type of problem, find other agencies that have had that problem in the past, borrow a solution from another agency. *b. recognize problems, separate and set priorities, specify the priority problem to be analyzed, test for cause c. know that a problem is the difference between what is happening and what should be happening, solve the issue, test the solution, see if the problem has been corrected. d. none of the above 2. To identify a problem, a manager should answer which of the following? a. Where does the problem occur? b. When does the problem occur? c. How serious is the problem? *d. all of the above 3. Which of the following need(s) to be considered when determining the priority of a problem? a. the growth rate of the problem b. the effect of the problem on reaching objectives c. the financial cost of the problem *d. all of the above 4. Identify the dimension to the question: What or whom does the problem concern? *a. identity b. location c. timing d. magnitude 5. Identify the dimension to the question: When does the problem occur? a. identity b. location *c. timing d. magnitude 6. Identify the dimension to the question: What is the nature of the problem? *a. identity b. location c. timing d. magnitude 7. Identify the dimension to the question: What is the extent of the problem? a. identity

b. location c. timing *d. magnitude 8. Identify the dimension to the question: Where, geographically, does the problem occur? a. identity *b. location c. timing d. magnitude 9. Identify the dimension to the question: What is the trend; Is the problem growing, stabilizing, or diminishing? a. identity b. location c. timing *d. magnitude 10. Which of the following can be considered one of the general principles in the philosophy of decision making. a. Always second-guess decisions, you might come up with a better one. b. You will be considered someone who “flip flops” when making decisions if you change your mind. *c. Once the decision is made, implement it and don’t worry about it. d. Don’t change your mind, even if a better way is discovered.

11. Which of the following contains one of the general principles of decision-making? a. the manager has an obligation to please authority *b. the manager should not try to satisfy everyone c. the manager should rely on what they know, not what they assume d. the manager should investigate previous errors in the decision making process 12. A routine management decision is one that: *a. allows the manager time to solve problems and make new innovations b. results from actions taken by members of the police agency or from internal problems identified by external sources c. requires the manager to take some risk d. none of the above 13. Specific issues resolutions are decisions that: a. allow the manager time to solve problems and make new innovations *b. result from actions taken by members of the police agency or from internal problems identified by external sources c. require the manager to take some risk d. none of the above 14. Decisions that are designed to generate ideas and innovative techniques:

a. allow the manager time to solve problems and make new innovations b. result from actions taken by members of the police agency or from internal problems identified by external sources *c. require the manager to take some risk d. none of the above 15. Which of the following are values for using means-ends chain before decision making? *a. Means-ends analysis helps show the relationship of an objective at one level to the goal at a higher level. b. Means-ends analysis helps stimulate the development of a series of possible alternative solutions to a single problem. c. Means-ends analysis helps develop and translate rather broad objectives, such as increased efficiency to some very sound actions at the bottom of the chain that can be delegated to individuals. d. none of the above 16. A reason or purpose for doing something is also known as: *a. setting an objective b. a reason or purpose c. identifying obstacles d. selecting alternatives 17. Problem analysis is a careful examination of the facts to determine the cause of a problem. *a. True b. False 18. The behaviors of police officers, supervisors, and civilian personnel do not vary. a. True *b. False 19. Most of the problems handled by a police manager demand immediate attention and action. a. True *b. False 20. According to the text, the cause of a problem can be determined from careful examination of all the possible causes. *a. True b. False 21. According to the text, identity is one of the four major dimensions of a problem. *a. True b. False

Chapter 12 1. Often referred to as MBO, management by objectives: a. is a method by which police managers can identify areas of growth b. sets standards to be reached c. measures the results against standards that have been set *d. all of the above 2. The term “management by objectives” was first used by who? a. Robert Peel b. John Zhuo *c. Peter Drucker d. Sudhir Venkatesh 3. With MBO, the police manager assumes that: a. officers do not need feedback on how they are doing their jobs *b. all officers want to know what is expected of them c. officers often work alone, therefore do not need to develop a team concept d. all of the above 4. Each project should specify which of the following? a. who will be responsible b. the stated objectives c. which objectives the project might affect *d. all of the above 5. According to the text, a one-page information sheet for a project should include the following: *a. staffing and coordination, training and evaluation b. who will get promoted c. results and suggestions for future research d. all of the above 6. According to the text, which of the following best defines an environmental factor? a. those which the police department has control over *b. those which the police department has no direct control c. those which are created by the police manager d. those which are halted by the police manager 7. Personnel, money, time, and equipment are examples of: a. activities b. input *c. output d. none of the above 8. Something that is “doable” is considered in the category of:

*a. activities b. input c. output d. none of the above 9. What is achieved by the input is called the: a. activities b. input *c. output d. none of the above 10. According to the text, which of the following is an example of an environmental factor? a. the swearing in of a graduating class of police cadets *b. the appointment of a new city manager who emphasizes values and beliefs different from those already present c. the media reporting on crime statistics in your area d. research supported management advice that discovers groundbreaking new approaches to management 11. Program budgeting does what? a. controls spending with an emphasis on programs b. attaches a dollar amount to every activity c. groups activities together *d. all of the above 12. According to the text, in the MBO process, it is important to: *a. establish a mission statement b. know what MBO means c. not mesh with community values d. none of the above 13. A mission statement: a. is a very specific statement of what the agency wants to do b. should say it is the department’s mission to do away with crime *c. has a very broad focus for department resources d. none of the above 14. According to the text, objectives should be: a. measurable b. short-term c. feasible and cost-effective *d. all of the above 15. Types of measurement to evaluate projects include: a. before and after b. external measures, digital measures, internal measures

*c. research measures, external measures, and internal measures d. none of the above 16. Which of the following is not listed in the activities necessary to conduct an evaluation? a. specifying measurable objectives and formulating a practical evaluation design b. specifying data collection procedures *c. specifying which person’s work was of the highest quality d. specifying data reductions analysis methods 17. Types of designs to evaluate products include: a. before-after design b. statistical analysis c. using a control group *d. both a and c 18. In creating an evaluation design, the manager must answer the following question(s): a. Are the data we need for this study already being collected for another reason? b. Can these data be collected by implementing only minor modifications in our current data collection system? c. Is it necessary to develop a completely new data collection system? *d. The manager should ask all of the above questions.

19. Management by objectives can be viewed as a method of changing the present system of decision making. *a. True b. False 20. The input process consists of the elements that must be present before the department can begin to achieve any goals or objectives. *a. True b. False 21. MBO is a mechanism of control for expenditures. a. True *b. False 22. A mission statement is a very specific statement of intent. a. True *b. False 23. Objectives are short-term achievements. *a. True b. False

Chapter 13 1. A budget is also a: a. plan b. method to authorize programs c. none of the above *d. both a and b 2. Budgets are usually good for: a. one month b. six months *c. one year d. two years 3. The budget is significant because: *a. it specifies limits to what the police department can do b. it gives legislators the ability to criticize the department c. a and b only d. none of the above 4. Which of the following are reasons that a budget is significant? a. it encompasses comprehensive reviews of activities b. it gives a basis for other departments to rely on c. it accomplishes managerial ends *d. both a and c 5. A budget that uses a prior year budget to build the new budget is called: *a. incremental budgeting b. zero-based budgeting c. line-item or object budget d. performance budget 6. A budget that groups items by types or classes is: a. incremental budgeting b. zero-based budgeting *c. line-item or object budget d. performance budget 7. A budget that is based on how well specific activities of the police department are done is: a. incremental budgeting b. zero-based budgeting c. line-item or object budget *d. performance budget 8. Which budget focuses on revenue growth? *a. incremental budgeting

b. performance budgeting c. zero-based budgeting d. object budgeting 9. Implies a review of the entire budgeting process: a. incremental budgeting *b. zero-based budgeting c. line-item or object budget d. performance budget 10. The stage in the budgeting process that focuses on submitting the budget to the city/county manager *a. preparation b. adoption c. execution d. post audit 11. This stage requires some legal action, such as passing an ordinance or resolution: a. preparation *b. adoption c. execution d. post audit 12. This stage requires control of the fiscal system: a. preparation b. adoption *c. execution d. post audit 13. This stage in the budgeting process is considered the responsibility of the executive branch, including the police agency: a. execution b. adoption *c. preparation d. post audit 14. This is a legislative function that looks at funds to see that they were spent properly. a. preparation b. adoption c. execution *d. post audit 15. Line-item budgets generally categorize budget items, often they are divided into how many categories? a. two b. three

*c. four d. five 16. One of the line-item categories is personal services, which includes: *a. salaries and fringe benefits b. gas, oil and forms c. contracts, rentals and travel d. desks, cars and weapons 17. Operating and maintenance expenses include: a. salaries and fringe benefits *b. gas, oil and forms c. contracts, rentals and travel d. desks, cars and weapons 18. Included in capital outlay is: a. salaries and fringe benefits b. gas, oil and forms c. contracts, rentals and travel *d. desks, cars and weapons 19. Program budgeting, developed by the RAND corporation, demands an analysis between: a. the necessities of capital outlay and personal services b. input and output *c. cost-benefits and cost-effectiveness d. legislative procedures and executive procedures 20. A budget is a plan, expressed in dollar terms. *a. True b. False 21. Zero-base budgeting builds on the budget of the prior year. a. True *b. False 22. The first stage of the budgeting process is the preparation stage. *a. True b. False 23. According to the text, the most important person in the budgetary process is the head of the agency. *a. True b. False

20. According to the text, it is not important for the chief or financial officer to persuade city councils, boards, or mayors of the importance of proper funding for police departments. a. True *b. False

Chapter 14 1. There are three major issues relating to power. Which of the following are among those issues? a. formal power b. informal power *c. reasons for seeking power d. none of the above 2. Which are the two basic types of power? a. formal b. informal *c. a and b d. none of the above 3. Sometimes people who rely on formal power may: a. believe they are more important than they are b. have subordinates who play organizational games that make the manager’s formal power less effective. *c. both a and b d. none of the above 4. Informal power: a. is received by virtue of position b. can be granted c. comes and goes *d. is something that is earned over a long period of time 5. Effective informal power: a. gets things done through other people b. must be earned over a long period of time c. is not related to the size of the person’s office *d. all of the above 6. What is one of the three steps in developing informal power? a. keeping notes on others, which can be used against them b. engaging in sycophantic behaviors *c. being visible d. stalking the boss

7. According to the text, which of the following helps bring out creativity and tends to foster a high degree of self-confidence? a. formal power *b. informal power c. control d. innovation 8. Which of the following is not one of the approaches to use of power? *a. playing tricks on others b. control c. manipulation d. threats 9. Which of the following is not one of the approaches to use of power? a. referent b. needling c. coordination *d. messing with someone’s files 10. Which approach to the use of power is a formal use that appears negative? *a. control b. manipulation c. threat d. referent 11. Which use of power depends on indirect methods of ensuring cooperation? a. control *b. manipulation c. threat d. referent 12. Which use of power goes outside of the rules and suggests a bad consequence for failure to comply? a. control b. manipulation *c. threat d. referent 13. This use of power involves using the name or referencing a person in the organization with formal power. a. control b. manipulation c. threat *d. referent 14. In this use of power, the person essentially “nags” others to get support for his or her cause.

*a. needling b. coordination c. threat d. referent 15. Working together and sharing power is called: a. needling *b. coordination c. threat d. referent 16. There are three basic reasons for using power; one reason is: a. to take advantage of others *b. personal c. neither a nor b d. both a and b 17. Police managers that strive for power for personal needs typically have low needs for: a. reassurance, stress, and doubt b. guidance, wisdom, and transparency *c. nurturing, perception, and deference d. all of the above 18. Police managers who demonstrate a strong need for socialized power usually score high in: a. abasement, the need to accept guilt for their own behaviors, and aggression *b. perception, achievement, the desire to excel, and dominance c. reassurance, stress, and doubt d. guidance, wisdom, and transparency

Chapter 15 1. Nouri (2021) found that police were more likely to use force in ____ areas and places with ____. a. unfamiliar, decreased lighting b. enclosed, less exits *c. high-crime, economic disadvantage d. wealthy, expensive items that are targeted by burglars 2. Nouri (2021) also discovered that the use of force is more likely to occur in: a. residential areas than commercial areas *b. commercial areas than residential areas c. wealthier neighborhoods than economically disadvantaged neighborhoods d. none of the above 3. International Association of Chiefs of Police research on police use of force reveals that:

a. use-of-force incidents occur 361 times for every 10,000 calls for service b. use-of-force incidents occur 36.1 times for every 10,000 calls for service *c. use-of-force incidents occur 3.61 times for every 10,000 calls for service d. none of the above 4. International Association of Chiefs of Police research also indicated that use of force occurs in only: a. 30% of arrests *b. 3% of arrests c. 1% of arrests d. 10% of arrests 5. The percentage of arrests in which excessive use of force occurs is less than: a. 30% of arrests b. 3% of arrests *c. 1% of arrests d. 10% of arrests 6. Officers who fail to follow legal rules in the application of force may find themselves subject to: a. administrative discipline b. criminal charges under federal and state laws c. civil actions under federal and state laws *d. all of the above 7. Action that causes death or that is likely to cause death or serious bodily harm is considered: a. non-deadly force *b. lethal force c. excessive force d. objectively reasonable force 8. Force other than deadly force that includes any physical effort to restrain or overcome the resistance of another is considered: *a. non-deadly force b. lethal force c. excessive force d. objectively reasonable force 9. Force that goes beyond what is usually necessary and proper is called: a. non-deadly force b. lethal force *c. excessive force d. objectively reasonable force 10. Force that is considered appropriate is called: a. non-deadly force

b. lethal force c. excessive force *d. objectively reasonable force 11. The fleeing-felon rule places limitations on which type of force? a. non-deadly force *b. lethal force c. excessive force d. objectively reasonable force 12. Devices used to control subjects include: a. handcuffs and flex-cuffs b. leg irons and ankle chains c. pepper spray and batons *d. All of the above are considered less-than-lethal weapons used to control subjects.

13. Which of the following is/are types of pepper spray? a. foam b. direct stream c. mist *d. all of the above 14. According to the research cited in the text, most force incidents were connected with: a. traffic stops b. disturbance calls c. felony arrests and domestic reports *d. all of the above 15. Resistance to police can be: a. meta-physical b. verbal c. physical *d. both b and c 16. The outcome of Tennessee v. Garner (1985) was that in the case of fleeing felons, police were required to: a. shout halt after shooting b. fire a warning shot at the person *c. only shoot if the fleeing felon is a danger to officers or other citizens d. none of the above 17. According to the text, Tasers and stun guns are: *a. also called conducted energy weapons b. not much more of a shock than scuffing your feet on a carpet and then touching a door knob c. great to control unruly children d. none of the above

18. The use of stun guns: a. has been associated with the deaths of some subjects b. was not intended to be lethal c. is controversial *d. all of the above 19. Which Supreme Court case recognizes that there is no single standard for assessing the validity of force? a. Tennessee v. Garner (1985) b. Texas v. Johnson (1989) *c. Graham v. Connor (1989) d. Edwards v. Aguillard (1987) Chapter 16 1. According to the text, what is referred to as the initial incident that causes social upheaval? a. the crisis b. event response *c. triggering event d. signaling uproar event 2. A viable option for communicating directly with the community would be to: *a. utilize social media platforms or websites b. use a bullhorn in the problem area c. use undercover detectives d. call an emergency meeting in town hall 3. According to the text, a large group of people could be accessed during a crisis via: *a. contact lists b. a NCIC background search c. radio broadcasts d. calling individual telephones on landlines 4. In the event that a crisis occurs within a largely immigrant community, police managers should do what? a. evacuate the area b. utilize more patrol vehicles and foot patrols *c. work to make contacts with bilingual sources d. develop a strategic plan that monitors crime around the clock 5. Developing a relationship with a community’s ___ can assist in crises. a. schoolteachers b. juveniles c. police managers from other jurisdictions *d. leaders

6. Having contacts with agencies such as ___ prior to an emergency will shorten the amount of time in a crisis. a. EMS b. DHS c. DMV *d. FEMA 7. Building a relationship with news media outlets can be accomplished in what way(s)? a. allowing reporters to see or have some degree of involvement in crisis management events b. encouraging media ride alongs c. offering media personnel to participate in training *d. all of the above 8. Building a relationship with the media, as well as highlighting positive images of the police during the time outside of a crisis can: a. ostracize viewers b. deceive the public into thinking that a crisis cannot occur *c. build public support that may be helpful when a crisis does occur d. make it seem like police officers are only acting 9. Which position plays an integral part in dealing with the media and preparing for high-profile situations? a. sergeant b. media manager *c. public information officer d. community police officer 10. What aspects of being the dedicated employee who deals with the media and preparing for high-profile situations make the duties difficult? a. not getting confirmed facts b. having to develop media points quickly c. juggling other duties *d. all of the above 11. The National Incident Management System recommends that what entities/ positions be in direct contact during a crisis? a. patrol officers, sergeants, lieutenants, and chief b. EMS, FEMA, the police department, and DHS *c. PIO, safety officer, liaison officer, and commander(s) d. city officials, community leaders, chief of police, and state police 12. What is/ are some of the main functions of PIO during a crisis? *a. determine the extent of the information to be released b. prevent bystanders and civilians from further harm c. maintain national security d. avoid media exposure

13. If a PIO is asked a question to which they do not know, they should: a. state what they believe the answer is b. lie until further notice c. do not answer at all *d. admit that they do not know the answer but will learn and get back to the asking party 14. According to the text, which of the following may need to be considered as a recipient of information pertaining to a crisis? a. the general public, disaster victims, the business community b. media outlets, elected officials, and first responders c. attorneys, judges, and clerks *d. only a and b 15. Which of the following are typical ways that information is released to the public? *a. press conferences, interviews, and social media b. department leaks and anonymous reporting c. through telephones on a landline d. none of the above 16. What can police departments do to better prepare the typical police officer or non-sworn personnel? a. provide crime analysis training *b. provide media training c. introduce them to community leaders d. allow them to regulate what is released to the media 17. What does the text state about media policies? a. they may seem like a tactic that is “too little too late” b. it should be the centerpiece of the departmental media training c. it should be made available to all personnel *d. only b and c 18. Patrol officers will feel more comfortable interacting with the media if: a. they know the media representative b. the crisis is almost at its end *c. they know their manager will support their statements d. they are protected by the union Chapter 17 1. The cost of resolving police misconduct cases for the 10 largest police departments in the country: a. rose by over 200% between 2010 and 2014 b. rose by 48% between 2010 and 2014 c. rose by 70% between 2010 and 2014 d. decreased by 10% between 2010 and 2014

2. From 2012 to 2021, 25 of the largest municipalities in the U.S. paid how much in civil settlements to slightly less than 40,000 cases? a. $3.4 million b. $136 million *c. $3.2 billion d. $2 million 3. What is the term for when a person or company is held accountable for actions committed by others? a. entrapment b. libel *c. vicarious liability d. inferred guilt 4. In a civil liability case, the “deep pocket theory” makes it advantageous for the plaintiff’s attorney to: a. only pursue cases that involve wealthy police officers *b. name as many defendants as possible, ranging from the officer all the way to the chief c. acquire a retainer for fees before the proceedings begin d. all of the above 5. According to the text, what are the major areas of liability? a. training and procedure b. self-inflicted and vicarious *c. civil rights violations and negligence d. only a and c 6. Which of the following contains the specific causes of action under the Civil Rights Act of 1871? a. false arrest and detention d. failure to provide police protection c. denial of medical attention *d. all of the above 7. In order to help avoid potential lawsuits, the police manager should: *a. keep current with terms, concepts, and trends in civil courts b. keep an attorney on retainer c. get citizens to sign liability waivers d. none of the above 8. In order to avoid lawsuits over violations of civil rights, the police manager should: a. be familiar with the Civil Rights Act of 1871 b. be familiar with the actions of the officers on the street c. help shape a police culture that protects individual rights *d. all of the above

9. In order to commit a violation of the Civil Rights Act of 1871, an officer: a. needs to intend to violate the person’s rights *b. does not need to intend to deprive the individual of his or her rights c. has to be brutal when doing so d. none of the above 10. Violation of an individual’s civil rights can also include: a. excessive use of lights and siren *b. failure to act c. general stupidity d. all of the above 11. When an officer is unfit for the job, and the hiring official knows this but hires the individual anyway, this is called: *a. negligent appointment b. negligent retention c. negligent assignment d. none of the above 12. When an officer, through the course of his or her employment, discovers that an officer is unfit for the position, and does not terminate employment, this is called: a. negligent appointment *b. negligent retention c. negligent assignment d. none of the above 13. When an officer is not trained, or qualified to perform a certain task, and the supervisor knows this, yet makes the assignment anyway, this is called: a. negligent supervision b. negligent training *c. negligent assignment d. negligent direction 14. A police supervisor who fails to keep up with what his or her officers are doing could be guilty of: *a. negligent supervision b. negligent training c. negligent assignment d. negligent direction 15. When a police manager fails to make certain that a police officer qualifies at a firing range, and that officer mistakenly shoots someone, that manager could be liable for: a. negligent supervision *b. negligent training c. negligent assignment d. negligent direction

16. Failure to anticipate problems in the field or to control police officer discretion could make that supervisor liable for: a. negligent supervision b. negligent training c. negligent assignment *d. negligent direction 17. Which of the following is/are one of the steps in hiring officers. a. recruitment b. selection c. psychological evaluation *d. all of the above 18. Which of the following is/are one of the steps in training an officer to do the job correctly. a. academy training b. field training c. probation *d. all of the above 19. A liability protection program, as spelled out in the text, includes all of the following except: *a. keeping a lawyer on staff b. direction c. maintenance d. assessment 20. Which of the following are considered good ways to expand on the protection circle? a. be knowledgeable and stay informed b. identify the areas of greatest concern c. make an annual review of policies, practices, and procedures *d. all of the above 21. The three parts of the protection circle must be operating in which timeframe(s)? a. proactive b. active c. reactive *d. all of the above 22. Lawsuits can be a real and expensive problem for police managers. *a. True b. False 23. What are examples of utilizing the proactive time frame in the protection circle? *a. policy and support from the executive b. training and supervision

c. discipline and evaluation d. none of the above 24. What are examples of utilizing the active time frame in the protection circle? *a. training and supervision b. policy and support from the executive c. discipline and evaluation d. none of the above 25. What are examples of utilizing the reactive time frame in the protection circle? a. policy and support from the executive b. training and supervision *c. discipline and evaluation d. none of the above 26. One way a police manager can proactively address potential liability claims is through accreditation. *a. True b. False 27. Police managers can’t be held liable for the actions of subordinates. a. True *b. False 28. Police managers cannot be held liable for a lack of, or poor, training for their officers. a. True *b. False 29. The liability protection circle has three equal parts: direction, maintenance, and assessment. *a. True b. False Chapter 18 1. According to the text, ethical standards become the basis for: *a. making decisions, hiring personnel, demonstrating department values, and principles b. convincing others that you have high standards c. convincing others to lend you money d. none of the above.

2. Ethics are defined as: a. special cultural or racial characteristics that tie individuals to a certain group

*b. principles of correct or good behavior c. really good dishes and interesting customs d. none of the above 3. According to the text, ethical standards are defined: a. by law *b. by profession, community, or police manager c. on an individual basis d. by the individual, supervisor, or police manager 4. According to the text, legal standards are defined: *a. by law b. by profession, community, or police manager c. on an individual basis d. by the individual, supervisor, or police manager.

5. According to the text, moral standards are defined: a. by law b. by profession, community, or police manager *c. on an individual basis d. by the individual, supervisor, or police manager 6. According to the text, performance standards are set: a. by law b. by profession, community, or police manager c. on an individual basis *d. by the individual, supervisor, or police manager 7. According to the text, the moral climate of the community: a. does not affect the police department b. can create confusion for the police manager c. often “gets in the way” of doing the job *d. affects the ethical conduct of the chief 8. The rightness of behavior in this theory of ethics concentrates on the consequences of behavior. *a. Utilitarian Ethics b. Rule Ethics c. Social Contract Ethics d. Justice Ethics 9. The rightness of behavior in this theory of ethics is determined by laws or standards. a. Utilitarian Ethics *b. Rule Ethics c. Social Contract Ethics d. Justice Ethics

10. The rightness of behavior in this theory of ethics is determined by the customs and norms of the department, city, government, or community. a. Personalistic Ethics b. Rule Ethics *c. Social Contract Ethics d. Justice Ethics 11. The rightness of behavior in this theory of ethics is determined by each individual receiving a fair share of whatever resources are available. a. Personalistic Ethics b. Rule Ethics c. Social Contract Ethics *d. Justice Ethics 12. The rightness of behavior in this theory of ethics is determined as adhering to one’s conscience. *a. Personalistic Ethics b. Rule Ethics c. Social Contract Ethics d. Justice Ethics 13. The utilitarian ethics system uses what type of leadership? a. bureaucratic *b. manipulator c. professional d. team 14. The justice ethics system uses what type of leadership? a. bureaucratic b. manipulator c. professional *d. team 15. The social contract ethics system uses what type of leadership? a. bureaucratic b. manipulator *c. professional d. team 16. The rule ethics system uses what type of leadership? *a. bureaucratic b. manipulator c. professional d. team

17. The decision-making strategy for rule ethics is to test for: a. results *b. procedures c. agreement of others d. organizational values 18. The decision-making strategy for justice ethics is to test for: a. results b. procedures *c. agreement of others d. organizational values 19. The decision-making strategy for social contract ethics is to test for: a. results b. procedures c. agreement of others *d. organizational values 20. The decision-making strategy for utilitarian ethics is to test for: *a. results b. procedures c. agreement of others d. organizational values 21. Manipulation has the potential to: a. influence someone to do evil b. influence someone’s behavior without revealing the true intent c. destroy trust in the manipulator *d. both b and c 22. Which style of ethics relates well with avoidance style management? a. Personalistic Ethics *b. Rule Ethics c. Social Contract Ethics d. Justice Ethics 23. Managers who implement a professional style of leadership tend to use: a. Personalistic Ethics b. Rule Ethics *c. Social Contract Ethics d. Justice Ethics 24. There is no difference between ethical and legal standards. a. True *b. False

25. The moral climate of the community can affect the ethical conduct of the chief. *a. True b. False 26. According to some theories, the consequences of the behavior determine the rightness of the act. *a. True b. False 27. According to rule ethics, the rightness of someone’s behavior is determined by laws and standards. *a. True b. False 28. People who emphasize utilitarian ethics in their leadership generally concentrate on the process, not the results. a. True *b. False 29. Which of the following is defined as the failure to perform one’s duty by oversight or omission, usually inadvertently? a. malfeasance b. misfeasance *c. nonfeasance d. disbarable conduct 30. Which of the following is defined as the intentional performance of an official act or use of one’s official power to achieve an end that is circumstantially illegal, harmful, or unjustified? *a. malfeasance b. misfeasance c. disbarable conduct d. nonfeasance 31. Which of the following is defined as the wrongful performance of one’s duties, usually in the form of making mistakes, not following procedures correctly, or other unintentional blunders? a. malfeasance *b. misfeasance c. disbarable conduct d. nonfeasance 32. According to the text, police managers are considered the ___ of the ethical standards of the department. a. exemplifiers, savants, and beneficiaries b. center, foundation, and axis c. drafters, designers, and standards

d. none of the above 33. Which of the following is a result of developing strong ethical standards in a police department? a. restaurants and businesses in your area will offer you free or discounted goods b. raises will be provided more often c. management personnel will begin to expect more of subordinates and they will inevitably be disappointed d. the community will accept police officers in a positive capacity Chapter 19 1. According to the text, how many principles are essential to the “move to contact” response plan? a. one *b. two c. three d. four 2. What are the “move to contact” response principles? *a. the team moves as one, each team member carries a certain responsibility. b. team members keep in contact via radios, the team is split up to respond to their varied responsibilities. c. both a and b d. none of the above 3. When is “move to contact” used? a. when all other tactics have failed b. when there is no other choice but to handle the situation proactively, forcefully, and perhaps lethally c. This is a last resort that must be developed and practiced. *d. all of the above 4. According to the text, warning signs of school violence include: a. the student being “obsessed” with death and dying b. the student telling others of his or her plans c. indicators that the child may be motivated to plan an act of school violence *d. all of the above 5. The team-oriented approach to responding to warning signs can include the following as team members: *a. school counselor, child’s parents, school resource officer, psychologist b. the child’s friends, fictional characters that only the child “sees” c. the child’s favorite movie characters d. none of the above

6. According to Nicoletti and Spencer-Thomas, barriers placed in the path of a child who is intent on committing an act of violence are called: a. concrete barricades b. road blocks *c. trees d. bushes 7. Which of the following are examples of these barriers placed in the path of a child who is intent on committing an act of violence? a. questioning, confronting, obstacles *b. confronting , questioning, implementing consequences c. questioning, confronting, probation d. questioning, confronting, suspension 8. Legal ramifications and administrative sanctions are examples of: a. trees b. bushes c. consequences *d. both a and c 9. Consequences make up what level of trees? a. first b. second *c. third d. Consequences are not trees.

10. According to the text, it is important to remember that the “tree” must be: a. bigger than the problem b. smaller than the problem *c. proportionate to the problem d. watered frequently 11. Legal ramifications include: a. suspension b. expulsion c. detention *d. probation 12. In which stage of response might an officer start planting trees? *a. intervention b. prevention c. anticipation d. consequence 13. In which stage does the officer start talking to the child and asking open-ended questions? a. intervention

*b. prevention c. anticipation d. consequence 14. When the school resource officer identifies multiple warning signs of school violence, the officer should: a. immediately arrest the child and get him or her away from the school *b. give the child the opportunity to speak with a qualified and concerned adult c. try to avoid the child, because he or she is probably armed d. none of the above 15. Some of the warning signs that a student may be planning an act of violence could include: a. he or she does not appear to have any friends and is always alone b. he or she has access to guns c. he or she talks about building bombs made out of propane tanks in his or her garage *d. All of the above could be warning signs.

16. One of the main goals of the school resource officer program is to provide a safe learning environment. *a. True b. False 17. According to the text, conventional police response is best for crime scenes such as Columbine. a. True *b. False 18. DARE stands for Drug and Alcohol Resistance Education. *a. True b. False 19. The main purpose of DARE is to reduce gang activity in and around schools. a. True *b. False 20. With regard to lawsuits against law enforcement for violence at school, having a trained school resource officer is one of the best defenses against civil liability. *a. True b. False 21. Which of the following should be used as screening questions for hiring potential SROs? a. can you work with minimal supervision? b. what experience do you have with working with juveniles? c. why would you want to work in the SRO program? d. all of the above

Chapter 20 1. Assessment center process: a. permits observation and evaluation over a period of days b. enables observers to see how the candidate would respond to certain situations c. can be used as a learning tool *d. all of the above 2. Many departments use : *a. full assessment centers for mid or top level management positions b. promotional testing, because assessment centers are considered blatantly unfair and have been the source of many lawsuits c. promotional testing, because there is no way to test communication skills in the assessment center process d. promotional testing because assessment centers are considered demoralizing for those who fail to get promoted 3. The most common method for selecting individuals for promotion in the past has been: a. trial by ordeal *b. a written test and an oral interview board c. based on popularity d. none of the above 4. Assessment centers can benefit non-selectees because: a. the assessment process can identify candidates with management potential b. the participants can write down the answers and study them c. it helps participants identify their strengths and weaknesses *d. a and c only 5. Assessor training can help assessment center evaluators by: a. improving interviewing skills, broaden observation skills b. increases appreciation of group dynamics and leadership styles c. helps provide strengthened management skills, and broadens responses to problems *d. all of the above 6. According to the text, as leaders, you should: a. be proactive in identifying competencies needed to meet present and future work demands b. provide counseling to employees c. develop specific plans for fulfilling the needs of employees *d. all of the above 7. Assessment center candidates have a tendency to: a. miserably fail the process *b. do poorly in some exercises and well in others c. stare at the assessors with that “deer in the headlights” look d. gain absolutely nothing from the process

8. In many cases, police departments use psychological testing as part of the assessment process.

These tests are given to: a. look at the candidate’s style of dealing with others b. to eliminate candidates that might cave in to pressure and climb a tower with a hunting rifle c. look at the candidates decision making style *d. both a and c 9. Assessment centers are popular in government agencies because: a. it is usually considered a fair process by both those promoted and those who did not receive a promotion b. it gives candidates feedback on strengths and weaknesses c. it is generally accepted as being fair *d. all of the above 10. Disadvantages of assessment centers include: a. it is time consuming b. it is difficult locating good assessors c. the cost *d. all of the above 11. Assessment centers may: a. help enforce department policy b. help identify training needs c. waste everyone’s time *d. both a and b 12. There are a number of steps to go through to create an assessment center. The number of steps is: a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 *d. 8 13. Included in the steps to create an assessment center are: a. performing a job analysis b. creating a matrix c. developing guidelines *d. all of the above 14. Included in the steps to create an assessment center are: *a. ensuring feedback b. scanning and analysis c. workflow production assessment d. all of the above

15. Perceiving important characteristics of positions, is included in: a. developing dimensions b. developing a matrix *c. performing a job analysis d. none of the above 16. Looking at categories such as commitment to handling responsibility, and technical skills are included in: *a. developing dimensions b. developing a matrix c. performing a job analysis d. none of the above 17. Creating examples of both positive and negative behaviors is part of: a. developing a matrix *b. developing guidelines c. developing exercises d. training 18. In an assessment center, candidates can be given problems to solve and then be observed while they solve the problems. *a. True b. False 19. Most agencies use assessment centers to screen candidates for first-line supervisor positions. a. True *b. False 20. Assessment programs are designed to help all of the candidates. *a. True b. False 21. One problem with assessment centers is that they do not identify weaknesses on which candidates need to work. a. True *b. False 22. Normal assessment center candidates score well in some parts and poorly in others. *a. True b. False Chapter 21 1. The majority of law enforcement agencies in the United States have fewer than: a. 10 officers *b. 25 officers

c. 40 officers d. 50 officers 2. 40% of police agencies in the United States employ less than ___ employees. a. 100 b. 65 c. 30 *d. 10 3. Because there is such a variance in the sizes of organizations: a. it is easy to set a “one size fits all” style of leadership *b. leadership needs to be custom developed for the agency c. It becomes very “easy” to move from one size agency to another d. none of the above 4. Most local agencies serve communities with populations of less than: *a. 10,000 citizens b. 25,000 citizens c. 100,000 citizens d. none of the above 5. Police officers in rural areas have some of the same challenges as their “big city” counterparts; a. big cities share the same problems b. smaller jurisdictions don’t have adequately trained personnel *c. but there are some issues unique to the rural environment d. all of the above 6. Which of the following is referred to as a rural specific offense? a. theft of timber b. theft of cattle c. theft of farm equipment *d. all of the above 7. Which of the following is not listed as a rural law enforcement challenge? a. being geographically isolated b. budgetary challenges *c. supervising the alcoholic beverage authority d. equipment challenges 8. What do citizens typically expect from a police agency, but may be hindered in rural areas? a. kind and respectful officers b. interaction with the community *c. quick response times d. detailed investigations 9. Rural areas tend to be:

a. more population-dense *b. less population-dense c. made up of people that are dense d. none of the above 10. Small and rural agencies often have a difficult time: a. finding duties for new hires b. organizing day-to-day operations *c. keeping officers employed d. finding important resources to supply funds to 11. The question of legitimacy for campus police is important because: a. no one will listen to them if they are not seen as legitimate police *b. it influences whether crime victims or witnesses report crimes c. they typically have much more superior training than regular police officers d. all of the above 12. Having an armed campus police force can be helpful in decreasing fear and defending a campus from liability threats. *a. True b. False 13. Over ____ of four-year university campuses deployed armed police. a. 40% b. 99% c. 75% *d. 90% 14. What does Colonel Jim Smith (2022) suggest to combat the extra duties that officers from a small agency may have to deal with? a. be generous with promotions b. express sincere gratitude for the officers picking up these duties *c. offer benefits such as being able to take home work vehicles d. all of the above 15. Park rangers’ duties are put second at times due to: a. being too busy navigating rugged terrain to respond b. regular mandatory reporting for new training procedures *c. being tasked with giving talks about the park’s history or features d. all of the above 16. One large difference between law enforcement in parks and traditional law enforcement is that: a. law enforcement in parks deal with many more domestic issues proportionately b. law enforcement in parks rarely make arrests c. law enforcement in parks typically deals with more white-collar crimes

*d. law enforcement in parks typically deals with a transient population