Test Bank For Technical Communication Thirteenth Edition Mike Markel (Author), Stuart A. Selber (Aut

Name: __________________________

Date: _____________

Test Bank For Technical Communication Thirteenth Edition Mike Markel (Author), Stuart A. Selber (Author) Chapter 1-21 Answers are at the End of Each Chapter Chapter 1 1. What is a technical communicator?

2. Chapter 1 lists a variety of examples of workplace communication. Name four of them.

3. Chapter 1 lists six defining characteristics of technical communication. One characteristic is that technical communication addresses particular readers. What are three other characteristics mentioned in the chapter?

4. Chapter 1 lists nine measures of excellence in technical communication. For example, excellent technical communication is honest. What are three other measures of excellence?

5. Chapter 1 cites three reasons for ensuring that technical communication is honest. The first is that being honest is the right thing to do. What is one other reason?

6. As used in Chapter 1, what does usability mean?

7. As used in Chapter 1, what does clarity mean?

8. One basic purpose of design features is to create a positive impression with a document.

What is one other purpose mentioned in Chapter 1?

9. How does emotional intelligence relate to being a successful communicator in the workplace?

10. Why is the ability to prioritize and respond quickly more valuable in the contemporary workplace than ever before?

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11. Companies hiring technical professionals such as engineers, scientists, and programmers focus primarily on the technical abilities of the candidates they consider for employment.

A) True B) False

12. An effective technical document must be both concise and comprehensive.

A) True B) False

13. Most technical documents are produced by professional technical communicators working alone.

A) True B) False

14. Technical communication primarily involves those whose main job is to produce documentation such as reports and manuals.

A) True B) False

15. Chapter 1 identifies correctness as a characteristic of good technical communication. In this context, correctness refers to the proper use of grammar and punctuation to accurately convey the intended meaning.

A) True B) False

16. Accessibility is a measure of how easily a document can be downloaded.

A) True B) False

17. Social-media posts such as tweets can be examples of technical documents.

A) True B) False

18. When you are communicating technical information on the job, your audience tends to be the same every time.

A) True B) False

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19. Generosity and honesty are characteristics of effective technical communicators.

A) True B) False

20. Technical communication involves knowing where to find trustworthy information.

A) True B) False

21. According to Chapter 1, most technical communication has six characteristics. One characteristic is that technical communication helps readers solve problems. Which of the following is another characteristic of technical communication?

A) Technical communication reflects an organization's goals and culture.

B) Technical communication uses technical vocabulary as often as possible.

C) Technical communication strives to both entertain and educate readers.

D) Technical communication is most often aimed at a general audience rather than at a particular audience.

22. Chapter 1 states that effective technical communication is honest. The chapter then presents three reasons it is important to be honest when communicating. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons listed in Chapter 1?

A) It's the right thing to do.

B) If readers bring your dishonesty to the attention of your supervisor, your career may suffer.

C) Readers can get hurt if you are dishonest.

D) You and your organization could face serious legal charges if you are dishonest.

23. Chapter 1 states that technical communicators use design to increase readability and make their documents more effective. Which of the following is an example of a design feature?

A) easy-to-understand vocabulary B) typography C) definitions of key terms D) effective topic sentences

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24. You are in charge of creating a podcast of an interview with the CEO of your company.

The audio file will be posted on the company's website. You decide to make a transcript available so that audience members with hearing impairments will be able to read the interview. Which measure of excellence in technical communication does this decision reflect?

A) accuracy B) accessibility C) usability D) clarity

25. Chapter 1 identifies five sets of factors to consider when communicating technical information. Which of the following is NOT on this list?

A) image-related factors B) setting-related factors C) purpose-related factors D) audience-related factors

26. Chapter 1 defines technical communication as a process encompassing which of the following?

A) documents and activities B) documentation and analysis C) process and analysis D) diagramming and activities

27. Chapter 1 identifies skills and qualities shared by successful workplace communicators.

Which of the following is NOT on this list?

A) ability to perform research B) ability to write code C) ability to analyze information D) ability to speak and write clearly

28. Chapter 1 identifies nine measures of excellence in technical communication. Which pair in the following list might seem contradictory?

A) accuracy and correctness B) conciseness and clarity C) comprehensiveness and conciseness D) accessibility and professional appearance

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29. Chapter 1 identifies common reasons for creating technical documents. Which reason in the following list is NOT mentioned in the chapter?

A) to help others carry out a task B) to change attitudes about a technology or an issue C) to establish common knowledge in the marketplace D) to help others make a decision

30. Which quality in the original below is evident in the revised version of the following paragraph?

Original: During our monthly meeting last month, we all came to the conclusion that overtime procedures are inadequate and that new procedures need to be initiated. I discussed this problem with our chief accountant, who was sympathetic and agreed to consider any changes we would like to make to the present procedures. Please bring your suggested changes to this month's departmental meeting scheduled for 2:30 P.M. next Wednesday afternoon.

Revision: During last month's meeting, we concluded that our overtime procedures need revision. Our chief accountant has agreed to consider any changes we would like to make to the present procedures. Please bring your suggested changes to this month's departmental meeting scheduled for 2:30 P.M. next Wednesday.

A) conciseness B) accuracy C) comprehensiveness D) correctness

31. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic modes of communication?

A) speaking B) reading C) writing D) typing

32. Which two things must you clearly understand in order to communicate successfully?

A) your audience and your purpose B) your proposal and your audience C) your documentation and measures of excellence D) your software and your hardware

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33. According to Chapter 1, what is the biggest difference between technical communication and the kinds of writing you do in other college courses?

A) Technical communication makes greater use of technical vocabulary.

B) Technical communication makes greater use of images and graphics.

C) Technical communication has a somewhat different focus on purpose and audience.

D) Technical communication follows different style conventions.

34. Which of these is a process-related factor you must consider when communicating on the job?

A) How will your document aid problem solving?

B) What is the problem context for your document?

C) What problems is your audience trying to solve?

D) Do your schedule and budget limit how much information you can include in the document?

35. When creating a technical document, you often have to make compromises. Which of these is an example of a compromise related to communication?

A) Your boss tells you to create the document in English and Spanish, so you do.

B) You would prefer to create separate instruction sheets in English and Spanish, but you create one sheet giving instructions in both languages to save on printing costs.

C) Your audience is not made up of technical experts, so you use common words in place of technical vocabulary.

D) You place paper copies of your document in the boxes carrying your products, and you post electronic copies online.

36. Which statement best explains how the concept of company branding is related to technical communication?

A) Branding is concerned with making money, and employees are paid to help companies make money.

B) Branding is concerned with the image that a company presents to the world, and that image includes its documents.

C) Branding is largely concerned with color choices, so a document must contain the company's colors.

D) Branding is concerned with slogans, and you might have to write a slogan for your department.

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37. Which of these is a measure of excellence in technical communication?

A) accuracy B) terseness C) plainness D) celerity

38. The engineering firm you work for is submitting a proposal to create an amphitheater at a state park. Proposals must be submitted in three-ring binders. You are in charge of assembling the binders. You decide to put section divider tabs and an index into each proposal binder. Which measure of excellence in technical communication does this decision reflect?

A) honesty B) clarity C) comprehensiveness D) usability

39. Which of these is a quality shown by a successful workplace communicator?

A) keeping new information about your field to yourself B) prioritizing your own needs C) displaying emotional intelligence D) sharing proprietary information openly

40. Which of these abilities is NOT likely to help you as a workplace communicator?

A) the ability to perform research B) the ability to analyze information C) the ability to speak and write clearly D) the ability to deflect attention

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. B 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. A 21. A 22. B 23. B 24. B 25. A 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. C 30. A 31. D 32. A 33. C 34. D 35. B 36. B 37. A 38. D 39. C 40. D

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. The standard of utility is concerned with what?

2. Chapter 2 lists four areas of law relevant to ethical issues in technical communication.

One is copyright law. What are two others?

3. Chapter 2 lists four factors governing the fair-use exemption, which allows you to use copyrighted material without permission under certain conditions. One factor is the nature and purpose of the copyrighted work. What are the other three factors?

4. What does the symbol ® stand for, and what rights does it grant a company?

5. What advantage does using a trademark symbol confer upon an organization?

6. An effective code of conduct has three characteristics. One is that it protects the public rather than members of the organization or profession. What is one other characteristic of an effective code of conduct?

7. According to Chapter 2, what is the potential downside to whistle-blowing?

8. According to Chapter 2, saying that a new line of air fresheners is "guaranteed to stave off any and every odor that comes your house's way" would be an example of what?

9. Chapter 2 states that as an employee, you have five obligations to your employer. One obligation is honesty and candor. What are two of the other obligations?

10. According to Chapter 2, using social media ethically entails avoiding false endorsements. What are three other guidelines for the ethical use of social media?

11. When exporting goods, U.S. companies can face ethical challenges that they do not face when selling goods in the United States.

A) True B) False

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12. Under the concept of work made for hire, anything written on the job by an employee being paid by the organization is the property of the organization—provided that the employee agrees after the document is written to surrender his or her copyright.

A) True B) False

13. Only professionals with management responsibilities have ethical responsibilities to the environment.

A) True B) False

14. It is generally acceptable to use company boilerplate without attribution.

A) True B) False

15. Contract law affects technical communication because technical documents sometimes contain warranty statements.

A) True B) False

16. Fair-use guidelines apply to graphics just as they do to words.

A) True B) False

17. According to the principle of the moral minimum, it is permissible for companies to passively reinforce patterns of discrimination in product information if the audience to which the product is being sold practices that discrimination.

A) True B) False

18. To be effective, a code of conduct must stipulate penalties.

A) True B) False

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19. When warning users about the dangers of products, writers should avoid using mandatory language such as must and shall.

A) True B) False

20. Fair use is best described as a set of general guidelines on ways to use small parts of someone else's copyrighted material for purposes such as commentary, criticism, and research.

A) True B) False

21. Chapter 2 lists four factors governing the fair-use exemption, which allows you to use copyrighted material without permission under certain conditions. One factor is the nature and purpose of the copyrighted work. What is another factor?

A) the effect of the use on the potential market for the copyrighted work B) the degree of difficulty you might encounter if you did seek permission to use the copyrighted work C) whether the copyrighted work was published on the Internet, in which case it can be considered to be in the public domain D) whether you intended to cause the copyright holder any harm—financial or otherwise—by using the copyrighted material

22. Chapter 2 lists four ways you can help protect your client's or your employer's trademark. One is to use the trademark symbol. Which one of the following methods is also listed in the chapter?

A) Distinguish trademarks from other material, perhaps by setting the trademark in a different typeface or by using boldface type for emphasis.

B) Use the trademarked item in various grammatical forms, including as an adjective (Xerox® copiers), a noun (Xeroxes®), and a verb (Xerox® 500 copies).

C) Use the plural form (Xeroxes®) or the possessive form (Xerox's® quality) of the term whenever possible.

D) Include a prominent warning about the civil and criminal penalties for infringing on the protections afforded by trademark law, similar to the FBI warning about copyright that appears at the beginning of rental movies.

23. According to Chapter 2, saying that a recently fired employee was ―offered an alternative career opportunity‖ would be an example of which of the following?

A) exaggeration B) euphemism C) legalistic construction D) none of the above

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24. The standard of utility is concerned with which of the following?

A) the relationships we have with other individuals B) whether the positive and negative effects of an action or a policy will be distributed fairly among a group C) the positive and negative effects that an action or a policy has, will have, or might have on others D) the basic needs and welfare of individuals

25. Chapter 2 lists four areas of law relevant to ethical issues in technical communication.

One is copyright law. What are two others?

A) trademark law and contract law B) international law and criminal law C) martial law and liability law D) international law and martial law

26. What does the symbol ® indicate about a word, phrase, or symbol?

A) It has been registered for trademark protection under the Regency d'Internationale Agreement of 1996.

B) It has been registered for trademark protection with the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office.

C) It has been registered for trademark protection with the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office, but with "reserved" status.

D) The company claims the design or device as a trademark but has not yet registered the trademark.

27. According to Chapter 2, ethicists such as Manuel Velasquez (2011) argue that whistle-blowing is justified if three conditions are satisfied. One condition is that there is strong evidence that the organization is doing something that is hurting or will hurt other parties. What is one other condition?

A) The employee has made a serious attempt to resolve the problem through internal channels.

B) The employee can be reasonably certain he or she will not be penalized for whistle-blowing.

C) The employee has suffered personal harm as a result of the wrongdoing, such as the loss of a promotion, a substantial decrease in salary, or physical injury.

D) The wrongdoing involves members of a minority group or affects individuals granted specific rights under the Americans with Disabilities Act.

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28. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for using social media ethically and legally, according to Chapter 2?

A) Keep your private social-media accounts separate from those at work.

B) Avoid revealing unauthorized news about your own company.

C) Work efficiently by repurposing pieces of content you wrote for other workplace documents.

D) Avoid false endorsements.

29. What does liability law have to do with technical communication?

A) Liability law regulates the words and pictures available for use in sets of instructions.

B) Liability law says that a manufacturer or seller of a product is liable for injuries or damages caused by the use of that product.

C) Liability law puts the responsibility for product safety on consumers.

D) Liability law requires instructions to fit on a single printed page.

30. Which of these resources is likely to be available to employees of a company with a strong ethical culture?

A) a formal code of conduct B) a way to avoid regulations that might affect the company's profitability C) kickbacks from suppliers or customers D) conflicts of interest

31. Which of the following preferences does Creative Commons NOT give copyright owners a means to control?

A) whether their work can be shared only in noncommercial environments B) whether users of the work must attribute it C) whether the copyright will expire after a fixed amount of time D) whether others may alter or build on the existing work

32. A writer preparing an electrician's manual is considering inserting company-designed danger symbols to denote the potential for electrocution. In deciding whether to do so, what should the writer's primary concern be?

A) codes of conduct B) liability law C) copyright law D) whistle-blowing

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33. When your state's revenues for the year are 40 percent below estimates, the state legislature cuts education funds by 40 percent but reduces farmers' subsidies by only 20 percent. Which moral standard does this action violate?

A) care B) utility C) justice D) rights

34. Systems Software, Inc. is introducing a new piece of sophisticated graphics software. A recently hired writer has been assigned to write the Getting Started manual for the product. Being a novice, the writer first pages through similar manuals written by other graphics software companies to get ideas about how to write the manual. Which of the following statements is true?

A) The writer has violated copyright law.

B) The writer has ignored an express warranty.

C) The writer has taken advantage of the fair-use concept.

D) The writer has done nothing ethically wrong.

35. You work for a pharmaceutical company. During your lunch breaks, you have become acquainted with one of the graphic artists at your company. He has just finished designing a logo for a new product, and the logo is now on your company's website. He mentions that he created the new design by downloading a logo that he found on an automaker's website and changing it a little. Which of the following statements is true?

A) Your company is protected by the fair-use concept because your company and the other company are in different industries.

B) Your company is protected by the work-made-for-hire concept.

C) Your company has probably violated the automaker's trademark.

D) Your company is protected because there is no trademark or registered trademark symbol after the logo on the automaker's website.

36. You are writing the second edition of a user manual to be included with software sold to the general public. You want to reuse a portion of the introductory materials from the first edition but cannot determine who wrote that section or what the contractual conditions were. What should you do?

A) nothing B) Rewrite the introductory materials yourself.

C) Register the work with the appropriate government agency.

D) Include a disclaimer when you insert the materials from the first edition.

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37. In one state, West County and East County share a border. The state capital is in East County. Many residents of West County (almost half of all adults in the county) commute to East County for work. East County has high levels of air pollution, and residents there must get their car exhaust systems tested every two years. Although West County has less air pollution than East, the pollution levels in West are rising. The state Department of Environmental Regulation orders that residents of West County must now get their car exhaust systems tested every two years as well. What moral standard best explains this decision by the Department of Environmental Regulation?

A) care B) utility C) rights D) clarity

38. Steven is selling a used car that is 10 years old. He found a way to set the odometer back 50,000 miles, making his car appear more valuable than it actually is. A potential buyer looks at the car and is amazed at the low mileage. He asks Steven if anyone has tampered with the odometer. Steven replies, ―Hey, that would be illegal. No one wants to get caught doing something illegal.‖ What type of misleading statement did Steven make in his reply?

A) an exaggeration B) a euphemism C) a false implication D) a double negative

39. Juliana was assigned to analyze the process her company uses to write proposals. She worked on her report for more than a month. Rashmi in the marketing department and John in the finance department gave Juliana a lot of information and had several meetings with her. Juliana placed an acknowledgments section in her report, where she thanked Rashmi and John. What standard best explains Juliana's decision to acknowledge her colleagues?

A) justice B) rights C) utility D) care

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40. Your company, Acme Co., is sponsoring a three-hour field day for children at a local park, featuring games, sports, and snacks. Parents must register their children for the field day online. Your company wants to take pictures of children at the event, but it needs parents' permission. Which option below best describes an ethical way to get parents' permission?

A) Place a checkbox on the online form next to text that reads ―I agree to the terms and conditions of the field day‖ and provide a link to a separate page of terms and conditions. Design the form so that this checkbox is already checked when the parent gets to that page.

B) Provide a link in the online form to a separate page of terms and conditions. Have the company lawyers write the terms and conditions in legal language and with citations of relevant laws in case another lawyer reads them.

C) Place a checkbox on the online form next to text that reads ―I agree to allow Acme Co. to take pictures of my child or children to record and promote field-day activities.‖ Design the form so that this checkbox is not checked when the parent gets to that page.

D) Include a note in small print at the bottom of the sign-up form informing parents that children may be photographed at the event.

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. A 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. A 31. C 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. C 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. D 40. C

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. Chapter 3 describes the writing process as a series of stages. The first stage is planning.

What are the other stages discussed in Chapter 3?

2. Chapter 3 lists four steps that are often involved in planning a document. One is generating ideas about your subject. What are two other steps listed in Chapter 3?

3. Chapter 3 discusses two questions you should ask yourself to determine the purpose of your document. What are they?

4. When revising documents for technical communication, you should ask two kinds of people for help. One type is subject-matter experts. What is the other one?

5. Chapter 3 lists four techniques for learning from others while revising documents. One technique is surveying, interviewing, or observing readers as they use the existing document. What is one other technique?

6. When drafting a document, you come to an item that you don't understand or that requires more research. What should you do?

7. According to Chapter 3, using templates can lead to three problems. One is that templates may bore readers. What are the other two?

8. What is "invisible writing" and how is it helpful to the writing process?

9. What are the two major ways to revise a document?

10. Identify one of the strategies listed in Chapter 3 for acknowledging reviewers who contributed significant feedback on your document.

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11. Even though cultures differ, technical documents tend to be written in a similar way no matter where you go.

A) True B) False

12. Styles are preformatted designs for different kinds of documents, such as business letters, memos, newsletters, and reports.

A) True B) False

13. If you don't know whether to write too, two, or to, you should trust the spell-checker to help you decide.

A) True B) False

14. One disadvantage of using the Styles feature of a word processor is that you cannot create new styles.

A) True B) False

15. You should choose the method of delivering your document after the document is complete.

A) True B) False

16. You may find that your network of associates, both inside and outside your organization, can help you through sticking points in many of the phases of a writing project.

A) True B) False

17. Proofreading should precede the editing process.

A) True B) False

18. Editing your documents is a way to show respect to your audience.

A) True B) False

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19. The outline view is a word-processing feature that suggests how you ought to outline common types of documents such as letters and memos.

A) True B) False

20. Templates are useful because they organize a document for you.

A) True B) False

21. Chapter 3 describes the writing process as a series of stages. What are the five main steps of the writing process?

A) planning, drafting, revising, editing, and proofreading B) brainstorming, researching, organizing, drafting, and editing C) choosing a template, modifying the template, drafting, revising, and editing D) planning, outlining, drafting, reviewing, and proofreading

22. Chapter 3 lists five factors to think about when considering your writing situation. Three of these factors are your setting, the document type, and the writing process. What are the other two factors?

A) your audience and purpose B) your budget and your company's guidelines C) your team members and your motivation for completing the project D) legal and ethical considerations

23. Chapter 3 discusses three questions to ask about your audience during the planning stage of the writing process. One is ―Why and how will the reader use your document?‖ What is another question to consider during planning?

A) What are your reader's attitudes and expectations?

B) How much time do you have to write the document?

C) Are your readers male or female?

D) Do you have enough money in the budget to pay for usability testing?

24. A team of writers regularly collaborate to produce technical reports that have identical design specifications. Which of the following word-processing tools would best help them to work efficiently?

A) grammar checker B) branching diagram C) report template D) thesaurus

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25. Which of the following does Chapter 3 suggest as a method for effective proofreading?

A) reading the revised portions of your document, which you print in a different color B) relying on the spell-checker and grammar-checker C) reading your document slowly and carefully, perhaps out loud D) reading in a quiet space

26. Which of these questions is NOT likely to help you revise your document?

A) Does the draft meet readers' expectations?

B) Have I left out anything in turning my outline into a draft?

C) Have I kept the project within the available budget?

D) Are the arguments well developed?

27. Which of these is NOT an effective statement of purpose for a document?

A) The purpose of this document is to help readers install the 3.0 update to our Wizar-Tater software.

B) The purpose of this document is to help employees understand why they will have to pay higher insurance premiums.

C) The purpose of this document is to change the landscape of enterprise software.

D) The purpose of this document is to explain why the company should adopt a health-promotion program.

28. Which of the options below is NOT a question that will help you analyze your setting?

A) Is this a high-stakes project or a low-stakes project?

B) In what type of environment will the audience use the document?

C) Am I writing about a socially or politically charged topic?

D) What do I want the audience to know, believe, or do after reading my document?

29. Which of the options below is NOT a question that will help you analyze your writing process?

A) How much time do I have to create the document?

B) What are my readers' expectations?

C) What is my budget for the project?

D) What writing tools will best meet my project's needs?

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30. Which of the following options is NOT a question a writer should ask when editing a draft?

A) Are the paragraphs well developed?

B) Is the design effective?

C) Are all the sentences clear and correct?

D) Is the organization logical?

31. According to Chapter 3, how much time can someone expect to spend planning a writing project?

A) more than one-third of the total time spent on the writing project B) one hour for every ten pages C) about one-tenth of the total time spent on the writing project D) as little as possible

32. Which of these is NOT an effective technique for generating ideas about your subject?

A) creating a cluster diagram B) creating a branching diagram C) freewriting D) creating an index

33. Which of the following is a kind of error that writers should look for when proofreading?

A) problems with the organization of the document B) problems with the design of the document C) minor errors such as inconsistent spelling, incorrect punctuation, and missing and repeated words D) problems with paragraph development

34. According to Chapter 3, today's composition tools can help you do all EXCEPT which one of the following?

A) convert text into infographics B) keep track of research data C) translate text into other languages D) convert handwriting into text

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35. Which statement identifies a benefit of using a preformatted template for your writing project?

A) You can trust that templates always reflect good principles of design and layout.

B) Templates can save you time on formatting and allow you to focus on creating effective content.

C) Templates do not need to be changed; in fact, often you cannot change them.

D) Readers learn to memorize documents made from templates they have already seen.

36. Which of these best describes the process of revising a document?

A) reading closely to make sure you do not have errors in spelling and punctuation B) changing your document to improve style, diction, and mechanics C) reexamining your draft to see if it serves your audience and your purpose D) developing an outline of major points you want to make

37. What is a benefit of using styles as you draft your document?

A) Styles can help you develop a realistic schedule.

B) Styles ensure consistency in the appearance of elements such as headings, lists, and body text.

C) Styles help you identify errors in grammar and mechanics.

D) Styles help you find spelling mistakes.

38. Which of the following terms refers to the technique of writing without restrictions and without stopping?

A) invisible writing B) freewriting C) clustering D) brainstorming

39. In which of these stages is the outline view of a document most likely to be helpful for reviewing the document's coherence?

A) the proofreading stage B) the editing stage C) the revising stage D) the post-hoc stage

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40. Which word best describes the process of writing technical documents?

A) linear B) nonlinear C) static D) fixed

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. B 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. A 22. A 23. A 24. C 25. C 26. C 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. D 31. A 32. D 33. C 34. A 35. B 36. C 37. B 38. B 39. C 40. B

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. What is one of the advantages of collaboration mentioned in Chapter 4?

2. What is one of the disadvantages of collaboration mentioned in Chapter 4?

3. Chapter 4 discusses five aspects of conducting meetings, a crucial component of collaboration. What are two of those aspects?

4. Chapter 4 contains examples of three forms that collaborative teams can use to help ensure that the team's efforts will be successful. List the forms.

5. Chapter 4 discusses three features of word-processing software that are particularly useful in collaboration. Name one feature.

6. According to the research cited in Chapter 4, students from other cultures may be unwilling to respond with a definite "no" in a collaborative setting. What is one other behavior that students from other cultures might exhibit in a collaborative setting?

7. What two technologies make the collaborative writing process more efficient?

8. Videoconferencing allows two or more people in separate locations to see and hear each other simultaneously. What other two activities does videoconferencing allow participants to perform?

9. Is email a synchronous or an asynchronous medium of communication?

10. In what way does collaboration allow an organization to grow?

11. According to Chapter 4, the differences in behavior between two men or between two women are likely to be fewer and less pronounced than the differences between men and women in general.

A) True B) False

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12. According to Chapter 4, one advantage of collaboration is that it helps acclimate new employees to an organization.

A) True B) False

13. According to Chapter 4, one advantage of collaboration is that it can yield a more coherent document.

A) True B) False

14. According to Chapter 4, one of the disadvantages of collaboration is that it is likely to lead to charges of sexual harassment, sexual discrimination, or both.

A) True B) False

15. All of the participants in a video conference must be in dedicated conference rooms with sophisticated cameras and microphones.

A) True B) False

16. Communicating diplomatically involves a critical tone.

A) True B) False

17. Employees rarely use social media and personal electronics to complete work tasks.

A) True B) False

18. Companies sometimes use virtual worlds, such as Second Life, to conduct meetings and conferences.

A) True B) False

19. Differences between the ways men and women work in teams are hard to notice.

A) True B) False

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20. When critiquing the work of a team member, you should save your biggest compliment for the last comment in order to end on a positive note.

A) True B) False

21. Chapter 4 discusses six advantages of collaboration. Which of the following is NOT one of those advantages?

A) Collaboration provides a better idea of how the audience will read the document.

B) Collaboration improves communication among employees.

C) Collaboration can lead to groupthink.

D) Collaboration draws on a wider knowledge base.

22. According to the research cited in Chapter 4, which of the following behaviors might people from other cultures exhibit?

A) unwillingness to respond with a definite ―no‖ B) being overly critical of other team members C) unwillingness to meet at certain times D) routinely arriving late for team meetings

23. According to Chapter 4, one way to listen more effectively is to pay attention to the speaker. What are two other ways?

A) Listen for main ideas and ask questions to clarify what the speaker said.

B) Take notes while the speaker is speaking and concentrate on your emotional responses.

C) Frequently interrupt the speaker for clarification and focus on how to phrase your responses.

D) Tape-record what the speaker is saying and ask follow-up questions.

24. Which of the following is NOT one of the forms discussed in Chapter 4 as a tool to help ensure that a team's efforts will be successful?

A) work-schedule form B) task-deadline form C) self-evaluation form D) team-member evaluation form

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25. According to Chapter 4, which of the following features of word-processing software are particularly useful in collaboration?

A) thesaurus and spell-checker features B) find and replace features C) comment, revision, and highlighting features D) templates

26. Chapter 4 offers seven guidelines for managing your project. Which of the following is NOT one of those suggestions?

A) Break a large project into several smaller tasks.

B) Put your decisions in writing.

C) Monitor the project regularly.

D) Follow your original schedule strictly to avoid falling behind.

27. Chapter 4 offers several suggestions for conducting efficient meetings. Which of these is NOT a suggestion from the chapter?

A) Be aware of group members' body language and nonverbal communication.

B) Have one team member write down the decisions made at each meeting.

C) Avoid a formal schedule and make sure each team member gets to say whatever is on his or her mind.

D) Summarize the major decisions and assign tasks to finish before the next meeting.

28. Chapter 4 offers seven guidelines for communicating diplomatically. Which of these is a suggestion from the chapter?

A) Avoid qualifier statements such as ―I think . . . .‖ or ―It seems to me . . . .‖ B) Use strong language—it is better to appear overbearing than to appear weak and indecisive.

C) Follow your emotions if someone opposes you.

D) Ask pertinent questions.

29. Which of these statements about working with someone from another culture is true?

A) A topic of discussion that is common in one culture might be considered highly personal in another culture.

B) People from other cultures are likely to find it easy to participate actively in group projects.

C) People from other cultures have a knack for delivering criticism to teammates.

D) People from other cultures are likely to find it easy to ask for help on a project.

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30. Chapter 4 offers six guidelines for participating in a videoconference. Which of these is NOT a suggestion from the chapter?

A) Practice using the videoconferencing system.

B) Dress as you would for a face-to-face meeting.

C) Arrange for technical support for all participants.

D) Speak louder than usual.

31. Which of the following is likely to cause a team writing collaboratively to produce an inferior document?

A) The team shares a common goal.

B) The team avoids conflict.

C) Team members act as the audience for the document.

D) Team members divide up the workload.

32. A project manager is using a word processor to review an electronic file of a document written by a team member, and she does not understand the meaning of a term used in the document. What should the project manager do?

A) Use the comment feature to ask ―Will the reader understand this term?‖ B) Delete the term using the revision feature.

C) Check the change bar for an explanation.

D) Use the highlighting feature to call the writer's attention to the term.

33. A team of writers is just beginning a new documentation project. The client for the team's last project complained that the completed document kept switching from active to passive voice and that the design of the headings was not visually consistent. Which of the following is the team's best approach to avoiding such problems on the current project?

A) Discuss cultural differences.

B) Create a style sheet.

C) Create a document template.

D) Establish clear work procedures.

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34. A writer is commenting on the first draft of a technical report written by another team member. Which of the following comments is most appropriate?

A) ―You've really improved your editing skills, Brian. Your writing would be less confusing if you used more active voice. And the report would be even better if you used some bulleted lists to break up some of your longer paragraphs.‖ B) ―Section 3 does a great job of making a case for the importance of our usability testing. Perhaps we should also include a graph showing a decrease in customer-service calls since we started testing. We may also want to add a section on user feedback.‖ C) ―I'm working on several different projects right now. I've been able to proof the document. However, I leave it to you to check its organization. Also, I feel you didn't sell me on the benefits of usability testing.‖ D) ―Use Arial Bold for all headings. Change on-line to online. Delete section 4. Add a map of the site in section 2. Otherwise, you are on the right track. Good work, Kathy.‖

35. Which of these guidelines is NOT likely to help your team work effectively and efficiently?

A) Choose a team leader.

B) Establish procedures for resolving conflict productively.

C) Establish a work schedule.

D) Let team members assign themselves tasks.

36. Which of these guidelines will help you listen effectively?

A) Write down everything the speaker says.

B) Ask questions to clarify what the speaker said.

C) Keep your eyes down and avoid distracting the speaker.

D) Allow your mind to wander and trust that you will be able to refocus.

37. Chapter 4 discusses several ethical pitfalls of using social media at work. Which of these is NOT one of them?

A) using social media at work for nonbusiness purposes B) revealing private or confidential information about people or products C) making defamatory statements about people or organizations D) using social media to collaborate on work-related projects

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38. Which of these comments about a team member's report draft is the least diplomatic?

A) I like the statistics that you provide in the introduction. I wonder if the audience will recognize these sources you consulted.

B) This introduction shows a lot of hard work. Perhaps an additional example would make your point even stronger.

C) You did not write this introduction very well. You left out a lot of important background information.

D) I know the proposal reviewers have very high standards. I think we all will benefit from improving our proofreading skills.

39. Which of the following does NOT overstate the speaker's position?

A) I know one of the members of the review panel, and I am positive that he will stick up for us when they pick their finalists.

B) We prepared our document carefully, and I think we have highlighted our strengths successfully.

C) We're the indisputable leaders in this market niche. There's no way anyone can offer better features than we do.

D) It is not possible that anyone is more qualified for this job than we are.

40. What is an advantage of creating a document collaboratively in a shared workspace rather than working collaboratively on a document via email?

A) A shared workspace will create an archive of all the changes made by all team members.

B) A shared workspace ensures that only one person can read a document at a time.

C) A shared workspace will create backup files once per day.

D) A shared workspace ensures that only one format of a file will be available.

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. B 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. D 31. B 32. A 33. B 34. B 35. D 36. B 37. D 38. C 39. C 40. A

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. As you complete assignments, why should you consider not only your instructor's expectations but also the audience and purpose specified in those assignments?

2. Chapter 5 lists three specific reasons a writer should analyze his or her audience during the planning phase. One is so that the document the writer creates appeals to the audience's interests and needs. What are the other two reasons?

3. Chapter 5 describes three categories of audience. What are they?

4. Why did Microsoft have trouble promoting its search engine in China?

5. Chapter 5 suggests that, in addition to education, you should consider six other individual characteristics of readers. What is one other individual characteristic listed in the chapter?

6. Chapter 5 lists seven categories of cultural variables that lie "on the surface." Two of these categories of variables are political and economic. Name two more.

7. Why are LinkedIn profiles a particularly useful resource for learning about one's audience?

8. According to Chapter 5, for what primary purposes do private companies use social-media data?

9. According to Chapter 5, how do public agencies use social-media data?

10. Why are graphics especially useful when communicating with people from other cultures?

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11. According to Chapter 5, a good way to learn about your readers' preferences is to read documents they have written.

A) True B) False

12. The following passage would be appropriate for a document aimed at a multicultural audience: Two companies found themselves in the financial equivalent of sudden-death overtime.

The first to raise the necessary capital would be the one to survive.

A) True B) False

13. According to Chapter 5, if you think your document will have a number of readers, you should consider writing a variety of documents addressed to different kinds of readers.

A) True B) False

14. In considering your audience's education, you should focus primarily on the types of academic degrees readers have earned.

A) True B) False

15. Although many aspects of private life and community life differ from culture to culture, in most developed countries business is conducted in more or less the same way.

A) True B) False

16. The point of learning about your audience is to use that information to tailor a document to fit the audience's needs.

A) True B) False

17. Interviews are great for learning from your audience but not for learning about your audience.

A) True B) False

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18. In some cultures, it would be considered rude to create a document that contains information the audience already knows.

A) True B) False

19. When working with a reader who is hostile to your subject or to your approach to the subject, you should first state your position, followed by your rationale for that position.

A) True B) False

20. Social-media activities can provide an organization with significant information about members of their target audiences.

A) True B) False

21. Which of the following mistakes did McDonald's make when it printed takeout bags decorated with flags from around the world?

A) The bags showed a pair of hands holding a flag in a way that customers in some cultures would interpret as an obscene gesture.

B) The bags showed a Saudi flag, which depicts holy scripture from the Koran. The Saudis were offended because these bags would be thrown out.

C) The writing on the bags was in English, which offended numerous nonnative speakers.

D) Some of the flags were labeled with the wrong country names.

22. According to Chapter 5, what should you do once you have analyzed your audience and purpose?

A) Begin drafting.

B) Conduct research.

C) Get management's approval.

D) Outline the document.

23. Which terms below are used in Chapter 5 to describe types of audiences?

A) fundamental and supplemental B) primary, secondary, and tertiary C) expert and non-expert D) internal and external

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24. Chapter 5 identifies seven categories of cultural variables "on the surface." One category is political. Which of these is NOT one of the categories of surface cultural variables?

A) economic B) social C) religious D) philosophical

25. Chapter 5 offers eight guidelines for writing for readers from other cultures. Which of the following is NOT one of those guidelines?

A) Limit your vocabulary.

B) Use the active voice whenever possible.

C) Use icons rather than text as much as possible.

D) Avoid idioms and slang.

26. Which of the following is NOT a reason to use an audience profile sheet for a writing project?

A) It prompts you to ask questions about your target audience.

B) It helps you remember what you've learned about your target audience.

C) It helps you realize when you need to learn more about your target audience.

D) It gives you a way to tell your audience what you know about them.

27. Which of these is an easily observed, ―surface‖ cultural variable?

A) tolerance of uncertainty B) distance between ranks C) distance between business and private life D) prevalence of religion

28. Which of these is NOT a variable "beneath the surface" of daily life in a culture?

A) distance between ranks B) need for details to be spelled out C) prevalence of technology D) distance between business and private life

29. According to Chapter 5, which approach is best when writing for multiple audiences?

A) a linear approach B) an experiential approach C) a modular approach D) an attitudinal approach

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30. Which of the following is NOT a good strategy to use if you know your reader is hostile to your subject?

A) Address the reader's objections directly in your document.

B) Explain the benefits of what you are proposing before giving your recommendation.

C) Focus on the positive and avoid all mention of any possible objections.

D) Avoid describing the subject as a dispute.

31. Which of the factors listed below did the writer of the following memo fail to take into account?

TO: University Faculty Advisers FROM: David Gates, Ph.D., Department of Psychology SUBJECT: New course offered—PSYC 499, Self-Fulfillment in a Global Society Enclosed is a flyer briefly describing PSYC 499. After you read through the flyer, post it in a conspicuous place, e.g., on your door. Or, better yet, make copies and hand them out in your class. The course will explore how individuals in our society can maintain a sense of self in these increasingly uncertain times. So tell students in your courses and your advisees about this new timely course.

A) readers' education and professional experience B) readers' personal characteristics C) readers' attitudes and expectations D) the physical or digital environment in which readers will read the document

32. Your company has completed an audience analysis for the manual you are writing for users of a new accounting system. The manual will be given to the 750 employees in the company's accounting department. Some members of the audience are experienced accountants and others are not; some have MBA degrees and others have bachelor's or associate's degrees; some were recently hired and some are long-term employees; some are managers and some are bookkeepers. How might you best accommodate your audiences?

A) Include different sections for the different audiences.

B) Write the manual to the lowest level of the audience.

C) Write the manual to the highest level of the audience.

D) Prepare an audience profile sheet.

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33. You are writing a report advocating that your company increase its use of social media.

Your manager has said several times that she does not like to mix social media and business. She has pointed out several social-media problems that other companies have created for themselves. Which purpose statement would be best for a report to your manager?

A) The purpose of this report is to show how the coolest social-media apps can deliver content to a hip, urban audience.

B) The purpose of this report is to prove that social-media disasters rarely happen and that social media are the wave of the future.

C) The purpose of this report is to demonstrate how the speed and flexibility of social media can help our company reach a growing audience of young adults with controlled, targeted messaging.

D) The purpose of this report is to show how our company can get on the social-media bandwagon before it is too late.

34. You are writing a proposal to restructure your department's organizational chart. Your manager was a member of the committee that originally set up the department's current structure. Which purpose statement would be best for a proposal to your manager?

A) The purpose of this proposal is to show how we can reorganize our department to improve our efficiency while keeping intact the values that have allowed us to succeed to this point.

B) The purpose of this proposal is to show how to solve all of our productivity problems and remove all the barriers to effective communication.

C) The purpose of this proposal is to show why it's time for "out with the old and in with the new."

D) The purpose of this proposal is to explain why we have no choice but to scrap our ineffective organizational structure.

35. Which phrase best defines the purpose of a workplace document?

A) what you want to accomplish with the document you are producing B) what you propose to do when you receive permission C) what you want to display in words or images D) what you want to document for clarity

36. You need to find out more about the buying behavior of a large audience. Which of the following techniques is most likely to help you find this information?

A) interviewing people B) checking LinkedIn profiles C) reading about your audience online D) analyzing social-media data

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37. You are writing a report about new regulations that affect your company. Members of your primary audience of company executives are very busy and will read your report quickly, but secondary- and tertiary-audience members are likely to read more slowly and carefully. Which of the following options is most appropriate for your situation?

A) Include detailed footnotes on each page.

B) To save time, omit the executive summary and put more details in the body of your report.

C) Follow the patterns of writing that were successful for you in college English and history classes.

D) Break your report into modules and put highly detailed information in an appendix.

38. Chapter 5 discusses certain variables that lead to differences among cultures. Which of these statements about cultural variables is true?

A) Different organizations within the same culture can vary greatly.

B) Cultural variables line up in clear, predictable patterns.

C) Each variable represents a small number of attitudes.

D) An organization's cultural attitudes tend to be static over time.

39. One way to learn about the primary reader of your document is to interview people who know him or her. Which of these questions is NOT likely to help you learn useful information about your primary reader?

A) Does this person prefer to read hard-copy documents or electronic documents?

B) Does this person prefer to read detailed information or a summary that provides a big picture?

C) Does this person tend to review the sources listed in a bibliography after reading a report?

D) Does this person attend chapter meetings of professional associations?

40. You work for a semiconductor manufacturer. You are writing a quarterly report on the activities within your section of the company. One of the people who will read your report is Lila Waltman, divisional vice president. You search online for information about her. Which piece of information is most likely to help you as you write the report?

A) She is an active member of the local chapter of IEEE, a professional society for the electronics industry.

B) She is an active member of the local chapter of her university's alumni association.

C) She is an active member of the community board for a local animal shelter.

D) She is an active member of a distance-running group.

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. A 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. D 27. D 28. C 29. C 30. C 31. C 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. A 36. D 37. D 38. A 39. D 40. A

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. Chapter 6 advises researchers to look for information that is current. List two other characteristics of reliable information, according to the chapter.

2. According to Chapter 6, what is the most difficult kind of source to evaluate and why?

3. What is the difference between secondary research and primary research?

4. What kind of information about an author can help you determine if a source is reliable?

5. Chapter 6 lists five characteristics to consider when evaluating print and online sources.

Name two of them.

6. One stage of conducting an experiment is to establish a hypothesis. What is the next stage?

7. Chapter 6 suggests that you do three things to prepare to conduct an interview. What is one of them?

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8. Your research leads you to the following information. What is the name for this kind of information presented in this fashion?

Title: ENVIRONMENT: THE THIRD DIMENSION OF THE LAND-USE TRANSPORT INTERACTION Author: WOOLLEY, JE; YOUNG, TM Publication Year: 1994 Language: ENGLISH Pages: 223–39 Journal Name: PAPERS OF THE AUSTRALASIAN TRANSPORT RESEARCH FORUM, 1994, VOL 19, Journal Number: NA, Journal Volume: NA Corporate Source: UNIVERSITY OF MELBOURNE. TRANSPORT RESEARCH CENTRE, PARKVILLE VICTORIA 3052 AUSTRALIA This paper outlines some of the interactions and relationships between traffic/transport systems, land-use, and environmental amenity, leading to a detailed discussion of a PC-based environmental impact assessment system. The system consists of a traffic network model, a vehicle energy and emissions (noise and air) model, a pollutant dispersion model, and a land-use impact model. The vehicle energy and emissions model estimates the energy used and the levels of noise and air pollution generated from traffic streams. These traffic streams are a function of traffic flow, travel conditions, vehicle type, and fuel type. The assessment system will allow the user to predict and assess the environmental impact of road traffic, transport infrastructure, and travel demand management schemes. The system has the ability to detect relative differences in levels of pollution and energy use between alternative schemes, while the schemes are still in the planning stage. Considerable community benefits will result from the use of a method whereby route and facility location decisions can be made with full knowledge of the possible impacts.

9. What is the function of the hashtag symbol (#) that is used on a number of social-media platforms?

10. What is the function of an RSS feed?

11. Secondary research is the process of creating technical information yourself, as opposed to collecting information that other people have discovered or created.

A) True B) False

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12. A periodical index contains lists of citation information for journal and magazine articles.

A) True B) False

13. Government publications are cataloged and shelved separately from other kinds of materials and are indexed on various government websites.

A) True B) False

14. "How will China's rapid industrial development affect the global energy market over the next decade?" is more likely to be a workplace research question than an academic research question.

A) True B) False

15. According to Chapter 6, one disadvantage of a questionnaire is that you cannot be sure the respondents are representative of the population you want to study.

A) True B) False

16. When obtaining information on products and services from websites, discussion forums, and blogs, it is important not to assume that vendors' claims are accurate.

A) True B) False

17. Primary research is the set of sources that you consult while you are in the document-planning stage.

A) True B) False

18. A common problem in field research is that your presence as an observer might affect the behavior you are studying.

A) True B) False

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19. You should select research methods before determining what research questions to pursue.

A) True B) False

20. Tags are descriptive keywords that people use to categorize and label content they find on the Internet.

A) True B) False

21. Chapter 6 advises researchers to look for information that is current. What is one other characteristic that the chapter says you should look for in the information you use?

A) lack of bias B) well-known author C) attractive design D) conciseness

22. Chapter 6 recommends asking clear, focused, and open questions when conducting an interview. Which of the following is an example of a clear, focused, and open question?

A) Do you agree with the federal government's stance on net neutrality?

B) In your opinion, what are the advantages of net neutrality?

C) What is the history of net neutrality?

D) How important is net neutrality?

23. Books are a common type of secondary research source. Chapter 6 identifies four other secondary research sources. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

A) periodicals B) newspapers C) government documents D) library catalogs

24. According to Chapter 6, conducting an experiment involves four stages. One is reporting the data. Which of the following is NOT one of the other three?

A) duplicating the experiment B) testing the hypothesis C) establishing a hypothesis D) analyzing the data

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25. Which source is LEAST likely to be valuable when you have a question about new trends in the semiconductor industry?

A) an encyclopedia B) a journal article published this year C) a blog written by an analyst who covers the semiconductor industry D) the website for a semiconductor magazine

26. Which of the following types of research is LEAST like field research?

A) observations B) inquiries C) experiments D) inspections

27. According to Chapter 6, which of these is NOT a tool for secondary research?

A) library catalog B) web search engine C) online database D) experiment

28. What is the term for demographic information about individuals who use and follow social media?

A) big data B) analysis C) analytics D) mined data

29. Your manager has asked you to recommend which one of two new types of digital camera to buy for your company's publications department. Which of the following is likely to be the best source of information for your report?

A) website B) book C) scholarly article D) abstract service

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30. A writer is developing a questionnaire asking users about their experiences with a company's website. Which of the following questions is NOT flawed?

A) I was able to easily find answers to my questions.

Disagree _____ Neutral ____ Agree _____ B) Should we make this site better?

Yes ___ No ___ C) List the top three reasons you visit this site: D) The flawed graphics made it hard for me to order parts using this site.

Yes __ No __

31. A writer who is researching a state agency's transition from paper-based reports to electronic reports has scheduled an interview with a senior writer at the agency. Which of the following interview questions is likely to be most effective?

A) How do you think electronic reports will change your job?

B) What is the future of paper?

C) Do you think having paperless reports is worth the effort required to learn the new software?

D) Why do you write reports?

32. You are writing a report analyzing whether your company should hire a new vendor to provide data-warehousing services. You have found a white paper online that looks promising. How can you judge the degree to which the authors are unbiased?

A) Check to see if the authors have offices in the same cities as your potential data-service vendors.

B) Check to see if the authors work as industry-wide consultants or as contractors for specific vendors.

C) Check to see if the authors have advanced degrees.

D) Check to see if the authors appear to be related to each other.

33. You are writing a report about technical methods used for desalination of seawater.

Which of these resources is LEAST likely to provide the technical information you need?

A) a website for professional water-treatment engineers B) a book about industrial desalination C) a discussion forum about ecology D) a blog by a leading expert in desalination

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34. Which research method gives the researcher the LEAST amount of control?

A) field research B) interviews C) experiments D) inquiries

35. According to Chapter 6, in which phase of the writing process is it best to conduct research?

A) editing B) revising C) proofreading D) planning

36. Which word best describes the kind of information found in reference works?

A) exploratory B) experimental C) cutting-edge D) foundational

37. Which of these resources is NOT likely to appear in a library's online database?

A) proceedings from an annual academic conference B) posts from a blog C) articles from a magazine D) articles from a national newspaper

38. You are interviewing the mayor of your city for a report on the prospects for high-tech manufacturing there. Which of the following questions will be most effective in an interview?

A) Are tax incentives helping to retain expanding companies?

B) How well are tax incentives helping to retain expanding companies?

C) How long have you been the mayor?

D) Do companies complain about the tax system here?

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39. Which statement about wikis is true?

A) The lack of editors on a wiki means that authors on the site can always be trusted to speak the truth.

B) The lack of editors on a wiki means that authors on the site may mix truth with fiction.

C) Wikis tend to represent a narrower spectrum of viewpoints than edited websites do.

D) Because a wiki's content is ―crowd-sourced,‖ wikis have better accountability than edited websites.

40. Which source reflects the highest degree of authority on the subject of shale-oil deposits in North America?

A) an article in an encyclopedia B) an article in a national newspaper C) an article in a journal on geological research D) an article in a journal on public policy

Page 49

Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. B 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. D 28. C 29. A 30. C 31. A 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. D 36. D 37. B 38. B 39. B 40. C

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. According to Chapter 7, one benefit of using a conventional pattern to organize technical information is that the pattern serves as a template or checklist, helping you remember which information to include where. According to the chapter, what is one benefit for your readers?

2. Your supervisor has asked you to write a report about a project you completed to improve the employee orientation program at your company. Of the organizational patterns discussed in Chapter 7, which would be most logical and effective for describing the project?

3. According to Chapter 7, what is classification?

4. According to Chapter 7, what is partition?

5. Chapter 7 notes that using headings liberally is one way to display the organization of your document prominently. What is another way?

6. A proposal routinely makes use of which organizational pattern?

7. Chapter 7 gives three guidelines for organizing information spatially. One is to provide signposts. What are the other two?

8. Why are cause-and-effect relationships difficult to describe?

9. Which organizational pattern works best when readers want to get to key information as soon as possible?

10. Why do writers sometimes place less important information at the beginning of documents addressed to readers outside of their own organization?

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11. The first step in comparing and contrasting two or more items is to determine the criteria: the standards or needs you will use in studying the items.

A) True B) False

12. According to Chapter 7, long, complex arguments can most often be organized according to one pattern.

A) True B) False

13. It is often helpful to use more than one basis of classification or partition simultaneously when using that pattern to write a passage.

A) True B) False

14. Classification is an organizational pattern in which a unit is divided into its components.

A) True B) False

15. Chapter 7 states that one disadvantage of the problem-methods-solution organizational pattern is that you cannot alter the sequence of those three elements.

A) True B) False

16. Chapter 7 explains that one challenge in using the cause-and-effect organizational pattern is that it is very difficult to prove a causal relationship between two factors.

A) True B) False

17. The general-to-specific pattern is effective for helping readers understand a subject before you give them the details.

A) True B) False

18. It is always unethical to compare your company's product with a similar product offered by another company when trying to argue that your own company's product is superior.

A) True B) False

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19. In describing your company's product, you should not compare it with a competitor's product because the competitor will sue your company for misrepresentation.

A) True B) False

20. Using signposts such as above, below, or in the center can help readers follow passages written according to the spatial pattern of organization.

A) True B) False

21. According to Chapter 7, one benefit of using a conventional pattern to organize technical information is that the pattern serves as a template or checklist, helping you remember what information to include. What is the main benefit for your readers, according to the chapter?

A) It keeps readers from becoming bored.

B) It makes a positive impression on readers.

C) It helps readers associate new information with other information presented in the same pattern.

D) It helps readers find the information they want because they know where other writers have put similar information.

22. Your supervisor has asked you to write a brief description of an abandoned silver mine that is slated for hazardous-waste cleanup. Of the organizational patterns discussed in Chapter 7, which would be most logical and effective for describing the mine?

A) classification or partition B) general to specific C) problem-methods-solution D) spatial

23. Of the options listed below, which is the most effective way to organize a document describing the events that led to an Internet company's bankruptcy?

A) classification B) comparison and contrast C) problem-methods-solution D) chronological

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24. According to Chapter 7, where in your document should you put your main point if you expect that your audience will like what you have to say?

A) at the end of your document B) after the middle of your document C) near the middle of your document D) early in the document

25. Which of the following can help you display your organizational pattern prominently?

A) topic sentences to begin paragraphs B) frequent section headings C) a detailed table of contents D) All responses are correct.

26. Which of the organizational patterns below depends on relationships that can be difficult to prove?

A) cause and effect B) comparison and contrast C) general to specific D) spatial

27. Which of the following is NOT a principle for using the problem-methods-solution pattern of organization?

A) Avoid overstating claims about your solution.

B) Always describe the methods last.

C) Describe your methods so that readers understand what you did and why.

D) Consider using graphics to complement your text.

28. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for using the comparison-and-contrast pattern of organization?

A) Choose either the whole-by-whole or the part-by-part pattern or some combination of the two. Then order the second-level items.

B) Once you've ordered the second-level items, arrange them spatially.

C) Evaluate each item according to the criteria you have established.

D) Consider using graphics to complement the text.

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29. The following two headings indicate which type of organizational pattern?

Two Tasks You Must Complete Today Other Tasks That Need Your Attention A) more important to less important B) general to specific C) whole-by-whole comparison D) problem-methods-solution

30. For a report on the nutritional value of fast food, a writer has decided to organize her information by assigning fast-food items to categories. Which of the following sets of categories is flawed?

A) under a dollar $1.00–$2.00 $2.01–$4.00 over $4.00 B) breakfast items lunch items dinner items C) main dishes side dishes drinks desserts D) high-fat items high-cholesterol items high-calorie items

31. Of the options listed below, which is the most effective way to organize a document explaining which of three different trucks your company ought to buy for its fleet?

A) classification B) comparison and contrast C) spatial D) chronological

32. Of the options below, which is the most effective way to organize a discussion highlighting the most important events in your company's 31-year history?

A) partition B) comparison and contrast C) spatial D) chronological

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33. Of the options below, which is the most effective way to explain the operation of each major component of a piece of machinery?

A) partition B) comparison and contrast C) spatial D) chronological

34. Of the options below, which is the most effective way to explain the major changes and details of a new workplace policy for requesting vacation time?

A) cause and effect B) classification C) general to specific D) comparison and contrast

35. Which organizational pattern often occurs in a comparison-and-contrast discussion?

A) meter-by-meter B) bit-by-bit C) whole-by-whole D) problem-methods-solution

36. You are writing a guide to help chemistry majors plan their class schedules. Which pattern of classification would be best for discussing the classes students must take?

A) difficult classes, slightly difficult classes, and easy classes B) chemistry classes and other classes C) morning classes, afternoon classes, and evening classes D) general education classes, required chemistry classes, elective science classes, and general elective classes

37. Which pattern of organization would be most helpful for organizing the work-experience section of your résumé?

A) spatial B) chronological C) partition D) comparison and contrast

38. Which factor should influence the organizational pattern you choose?

A) your readers' expectations B) your document's length C) the number of section headings in your document D) All responses are correct.

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39. In what situation do graphics benefit your reader?

A) when graphics contrast with the text B) when graphics complement the text C) when graphics subvert the text D) when graphics supplant the text

40. You are writing a long, complex document in which you need to explain a series of events that led to a problem, evaluate several possible options for solving that problem, and present the most important factors to consider in making a decision. Which pattern of organization would be most effective?

A) comparison and contrast B) cause and effect C) chronological D) a combination of several patterns

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. A 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. A 21. D 22. D 23. D 24. D 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. D 31. B 32. D 33. A 34. C 35. C 36. D 37. B 38. A 39. B 40. D

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. Chapter 8 discusses the four broad goals of an audience. One is security. Name one of the other three goals.

2. Give an example of an informational constraint that you might confront in completing a project.

3. According to Chapter 8, crafting a persuasive argument involves seven tasks. One is using the right kinds of evidence. What is another of the tasks listed in the chapter?

4. Chapter 8 discusses the three elements of an argument. One is the claim. What are the other two?

5. Chapter 8 discusses eight kinds of constraints that can affect your work on a persuasive document. One type is information constraints. What are three other constraints listed in the chapter?

6. What type of argument is made against the writer, rather than against the writer's argument?

7. What type of argument restates the main point without presenting any evidence to support it?

8. What type of argument poses only two alternatives when in fact there might be more?

9. What type of argument states that a claim is valid because many people think it is or act as if it is?

10. What type of argument draws conclusions based on an insufficient number of cases?

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11. According to Chapter 8, in most cases the best place to state your claim is at the end of the argument because you may alienate your audience if you state it at the beginning.

A) True B) False

12. Ethical constraints arise from applicable laws on labor practices, environmental issues, fair trade, consumer rights, and so forth.

A) True B) False

13. A post hoc argument claims that because A preceded B, A must have caused B. A) True B) False

14. Graphics and design elements are relatively unimportant in communicating persuasively.

A) True B) False

15. People who write proposals are the only technical writers who need to be concerned with persuasion.

A) True B) False

16. It is acceptable to manipulate photographs and videos in order to strengthen your argument.

A) True B) False

17. If you are facing constraints in trying to persuade your audience, you are not an effective writer.

A) True B) False

18. A testimonial can be an effective persuasive element.

A) True B) False

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19. Statistics are more persuasive when they are based on a sample of an adequate size.

A) True B) False

20. It is most effective to present emotional appeals in isolation rather than in combination with other types of evidence.

A) True B) False

21. Chapter 8 discusses four broad goals of an audience. One is security. Which is NOT one of the other three goals?

A) fair-mindedness B) recognition C) growth D) connectedness

22. Which of the following is an example of an informational constraint that you might confront when completing a project?

A) You know that your proposal would help the company, but you also know that the company can't afford to act on your proposal.

B) Your document would be most effective if it were printed in color, but your budget will allow for only black-and-white printing.

C) You have located advertising brochures and testimonials associated with the subject you're writing about, but you can't find reports on the kinds of controlled tests that would convince a skeptical reader.

D) You believe that your proposal would benefit the company, but you know that your manager strongly disagrees.

23. Which of the following is NOT one of the elements of an argument?

A) claim B) persona C) evidence D) reasoning

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24. Chapter 8 lists four characteristics that can help you establish an effective professional persona. One is cooperativeness. Which of the following is NOT one of the other characteristics listed in the chapter?

A) fair-mindedness B) moderation C) self-control D) modesty

25. Which of the following is NOT a category of constraints on your ability to be persuasive in a workplace document?

A) partitional B) personnel C) financial D) political

26. What are readers likely to conclude if they notice that a report you have written contains several logical fallacies?

A) The reasoning used in your report is supported by several effective examples.

B) The reasoning used in your report is logical and trustworthy.

C) The reasoning used in your report is illogical and untrustworthy.

D) The reasoning used in your report follows an effective pattern used in other good arguments.

27. An argument using an appeal to pity is focused on what element?

A) logic B) emotion C) memory D) the speaker or writer

28. How does culture affect the process of persuasion?

A) It determines the content of effective arguments but does not affect how they are structured.

B) It determines the structure of effective arguments but does not affect the content.

C) It determines what makes an argument persuasive and how to structure an argument.

D) Culture is unrelated to the process of persuasion.

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29. Which statement best exemplifies a modest persona?

A) "I think the Hughes Security system will give us most of the features we are looking for."

B) "I know the Hughes Security system will give us the features we are looking for."

C) "I researched all the options, and I am positive that the Hughes Security system is the only reasonable option."

D) "The president of Hughes Security is a personal friend, and I know they can't possibly let us down."

30. When used as evidence, what does an effective example do?

A) It makes concrete ideas more abstract.

B) It makes abstract ideas more concrete.

C) It makes concrete ideas more figurative.

D) It makes abstractions less didactic.

31. Your company has just adopted a policy of tracking employee emails to determine which employee is leaking confidential information. Because you know that this policy will be unpopular with company employees, which is the best strategy for announcing the policy to employees in a memorandum?

A) Present the reasoning behind the new policy and then state the policy.

B) State the policy and then provide the reasoning.

C) State only the new policy.

D) State the reasoning behind the new policy and then state the policy in a follow-up memorandum.

32. In the following excerpt, a writer tries to persuade his supervisor to respond to a government request for proposals (RFP) to build an unmanned surveillance plane for the military. Which aspect of the paragraph undercuts the effectiveness of the passage?

I think we are making a serious mistake by not responding. If we don't respond to this proposal, we will lose our competitive edge. At a conference last month, for example, I spoke to a couple of people who said the market for unmanned surveillance aircraft will grow exponentially during the next 10 years. Can we talk about this more at next week's planning meeting?

A) It argues that the claim is valid because the person making the claim is an authority.

B) It assumes what the writer is attempting to prove.

C) It draws conclusions on the basis of an inadequate sample and poses only two alternatives when in fact there might be more.

D) It makes a circular argument.

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33. In the following excerpt from a proposal seeking funding to upgrade a police department's crime lab, which of the techniques listed below for making a persuasive case does the writer use?

In the past four years, the department's crime lab has experienced an increase in fingerprint evidence for comparisons. The increase in volume is a result of submissions from other rural agencies in the state. However, because our agency cannot access data maintained within the state's Automated Fingerprint Identification System (AFIS), submissions are limited to manual searches of the files maintained by our department.

You can imagine the likelihood of missing a fingerprint match while looking through thousands of fingerprints by hand. In fact, Harlan Andrews, a Senior Investigator at the Federal Bureau of Investigation's laboratory, reports that manual searches often fail to find matches when in fact fingerprint matches exist. To prevent such errors, our department needs to upgrade its computer system to allow access to AFIS. A) visual evidence B) examples C) expert testimony D) numerical data

34. Which characteristic of an attractive professional persona does the writer of the following excerpt NOT exhibit?

As you probably already know, we have a problem with our current documentation.

Users cannot easily locate the serial numbers necessary to complete the online registration step. The solution below will help us address this problem and eliminate the customer-support calls we get. It will also solve a few other problems. Last week, others suggested different solutions. However, I know they will not work. The best course of action is to prominently display the serial numbers at the start of the chapter labeled "Registering Your Product." Our users expect to find the numbers in this chapter.

A) cooperativeness B) moderation C) fair-mindedness D) modesty

35. The following statement appears in a proposal to install a large pond near an amphitheater: "Jones Company is an expert in pond preparation. We installed our first pond at Jameson Park earlier this year." What type of reasoning does the passage display?

A) post hoc reasoning B) inadequate sampling C) arguing from ignorance D) arguing from authority

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36. The following statement appears in a university's report to its board of regents: "Several other notable universities, including Stanford and Harvard, are offering massive, open online classes, or MOOCs. It is imperative for Old State University to keep pace in the educational marketplace." What type of reasoning does the passage display?

A) arguing from ignorance B) circular argument C) ad hominem argument D) ad populum argument

37. The following statement appears in a brochure supporting a law to allow ducks on a lake on a college campus: "In the other states that have allowed ducks on campus, we know of no adverse encounters between ducks and people to date." What type of reasoning does the passage display?

A) arguing from ignorance B) arguing from authority C) post hoc reasoning D) circular argument

38. Which method of addressing opposing viewpoints is likely to be LEAST effective?

A) Point out any problems in the logic of the opposing viewpoint or the facts used to support it.

B) Try to reconcile the opposing viewpoint with your own.

C) Avoid discussing the opposing viewpoint.

D) Show that the opposing viewpoint is less strong and attractive than your own.

39. Which are the four categories of evidence to which people usually respond favorably?

A) numerical data, examples, visual evidence, and celebrity testimony B) expert testimony, ideologies, numerical data, and commonsense arguments C) examples, numerical data, visual evidence, and expert testimony D) verbal data, numerical data, expert testimony, and implications

40. Which of these statements is true?

A) Writers who appeal to an audience's sense of reason never use graphics.

B) Writers who appeal to an audience's emotions usually do so dramatically.

C) Writers who appeal to an audience's emotions usually do not appeal to their sense of reason.

D) Writers who appeal to an audience's emotions usually appeal to their sense of reason, too.

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. B 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. A 20. B 21. A 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. B 36. D 37. A 38. C 39. C 40. D

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. Why should you avoid back-to-back headings, such as the following?

6. Approaches to Neighborhood Policing 6.1 Community Policing

2. According to Chapter 9, turning paragraphs into lists has four advantages for the writer.

One is that it forces you to look at the big picture. What are two other advantages listed in the chapter?

3. The phrase "Special Restricted Incoming Materials Storage Area" is an example of what?

4. Therefore, furthermore, consequently, and next are all examples of what category of words?

5. According to Chapter 9, what are the two types of paragraphs?

6. Chapter 9 discusses three techniques for dividing long paragraphs. One is to make the topic sentence a separate paragraph and split the supporting information into separate paragraphs. What are the other two techniques?

7. For example, for instance, in other words, and to illustrate fall into which category of transitional words and phrases?

8. Where should you place a transitional word or phrase?

9. Identify two coherence devices discussed in Chapter 9.

10. According to Chapter 9, using precise words will make a title more useful. What is an added benefit of using precise words?

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11. Readers who can easily locate and understand important information in a document will be more likely to agree with its arguments.

A) True B) False

12. According to Chapter 9, long headings can confuse and distract readers; therefore, you should strive to write short headings of no more than three or four words.

A) True B) False

13. According to Chapter 9, you should jot down a working title before you start drafting a document to give you a sense of direction, then come back and revise it if necessary when you have completed the document.

A) True B) False

14. A heading eliminates the need for a transitional sentence such as "Let us now turn to the advantages of the mandatory enrollment process."

A) True B) False

15. Whenever possible, you should combine two or more ideas into one paragraph to create a paragraph of 75 to 125 words—the ideal paragraph length.

A) True B) False

16. In almost all cases, demonstrative pronouns should be followed by nouns.

A) True B) False

17. The only proper way to create a sentence list is by using bullet points.

A) True B) False

18. Transitional paragraphs tend to be much longer than body paragraphs.

A) True B) False

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19. Bad news should be given in the topic sentence or at the end of the paragraph; it is misleading to bury bad news in the middle.

A) True B) False

20. To test a title, you should ask whether readers will be able to paraphrase it in a clear, meaningful sentence.

A) True B) False

21. What is an advance organizer?

A) an outline of the document you are drafting, showing its content and organization B) the text that introduces a list C) any text that indicates the background, purpose, scope, and organization of the discussion that follows it D) transitional words and phrases, such as first, therefore, furthermore, or consequently

22. A local bank uses this slogan in its advertising: "Integrity. Experience. Trust. Local."

What about this slogan violates readers' expectations?

A) The items in the list are not parallel.

B) The list does not follow the general-to-specific pattern.

C) The hierarchy of the list is confusing.

D) The list does not use numbering.

23. What type of sentence states, summarizes, or forecasts the main point of the paragraph?

A) a transitional sentence B) a coherence sentence C) a topic sentence D) a body sentence

24. Which of these statements does NOT identify a benefit of turning a paragraph into a list?

A) It forces you to reorder the sequence.

B) It forces you to look at the bigger picture.

C) It forces you to create a helpful lead-in.

D) It forces you to write more precisely and more clearly.

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25. Which of these statements provides an effective definition of a sentence list?

A) It is a list of all the parts of a sentence.

B) It is a list in which the bulleted or numbered items are words, phrases, or single sentences.

C) It is a list in which each bulleted or numbered item is a group of sentences.

D) It is a list of definitive statements about a sentence.

26. Which of the following is an example of a coherence device?

A) replacing nouns with demonstrative pronouns B) removing transitional words C) repeating key words D) burying the bad news

27. To create an effective title for your document, what should you focus on?

A) key words that describe the document's subject and purpose B) key words that describe the attitudes of your audience C) key words that you used in an Internet search while conducting research D) key words that establish coherent transitions

28. What kinds of words are especially valuable to use in section headings and titles?

A) cohesive words B) transitional words C) noun strings D) precise words

29. A writer is developing a brochure for vacationers interested in taking an "Introduction to Kayaking" course offered by a rafting and kayaking company. Which of the following headings is most likely to appear in the brochure?

A) Ferries, Peel-Outs, and Eddy Turns B) What Clothing Will I Need to Bring?

C) How to Perform Z-Drag Extractions of Pinned Boats D) 1.0 Water

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30. A writer at ColdTec Accounting has just completed a draft of an internal report describing a recent drop in enrollment in a training course entitled "Web Linking and Publishing with Microsoft Excel 2013," which is offered to new employees. Which of the following titles would be most appropriate for the report?

A) The Changing Needs of New Employees at ColdTec B) Choosing a Training Class: "Web Linking and Publishing with Microsoft Excel 2013" C) An Analysis of Declining Enrollment in "Web Linking and Publishing with Microsoft Excel 2013" D) Declining Enrollment in Training Classes Offered at ColdTec

31. Which of the changes listed below would make the following paragraph more coherent?

As an undergraduate student, you can satisfy the university writing requirement and meet an important graduation requirement by scoring a 4 or 5 on either of the advanced placement English exams (Language & Composition or Literature & Composition). You can also meet this requirement by receiving transfer credit for an approved college-level writing or writing-intensive course you have taken elsewhere and in which you have received a grade of B or higher. Finally, you can meet this requirement by taking and receiving a passing grade in a writing course at this university. The following two courses, for example, are dedicated primarily to the development of writing skills and can be used to meet the writing requirement: English 205 (Technical Communication) or English 200 (Rhetoric and Writing). If you have any further questions, please call Professor Lee Klein, Director of Writing Programs, in the Department of English at (518) 555-8122.

A) Insert transitional words and phrases.

B) Turn the paragraph into a list.

C) Begin with a topic sentence.

D) Use demonstrative pronouns.

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32. What advice would you give to a writer considering revising the long paragraph below?

(Numbers were inserted to identify the sentences; they will not appear in the finished document.)

(1) Although graphics can enhance a website, they can also serve as a distraction. (2) Having too many graphics that do not contribute to the content of the site may make your company appear unprofessional, as well as contributing to slow download times.

(3) Your site, for example, has thirty moving images. (4) Such images do not reflect the serious nature of your business. (5) When it comes to graphics, we suggest you adopt a "less is more" approach. (6) Another troublesome feature of your site is the scrolling banner used as a navigation element. (7) To reach certain pages on your site, users must quickly click the links scrolling across the banner. (8) If they miss a link, they must wait another 20 seconds until the link scrolls by again. (9) Because this site is not designed to be a game but rather a place for customers to learn more about handling hazardous materials, you should not use a scrolling banner as a navigation element. (10) We recommend that you use standard navigation buttons aligned along the left margin or across the top of the page. (11) Also, you may want to include a text-only navigation element at the bottom of the page.

A) Start a new paragraph at (4).

B) Start a new paragraph at (6).

C) Start a new paragraph at (9).

D) The excerpt is most effective as it is, as a single paragraph.

33. Which of the following words or phrases should be used in the excerpt below to signal to readers that because land-use problems are causing high bacteria levels, landowners must take action.

Bacteria levels are often above state standards and are due to localized, specific land-use problems. _______, landowners must take action to address these problems and reduce the high bacteria levels.

A) Nevertheless B) For example C) Next D) Consequently

34. You are writing a report about sales of your company's products over the past three months. Sales are not growing, but appear to be steady. You have identified three factors contributing to this situation. Which of the following is the most effective lead-in for a paragraph list discussing these factors?

A) Certain factors are affecting our sales channels.

B) Three factors include: C) I have identified three factors that are contributing to the plateau of product sales.

D) The following factors are contributing to the plateau of product sales.

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35. What kind of relationship do the transitional phrases for example, for instance, and in other words express?

A) illustration B) addition C) contrast D) summary

36. Which of these examples shows the most effective transition from the first sentence to the second?

A) New screening techniques are being developed to combat computer viruses. They are the subject of a new research effort at Big State University.

B) New screening techniques are being developed to combat computer viruses. These techniques are the subject of a new research effort at Big State University.

C) New screening techniques are being developed to combat computer viruses. A new research effort at Big State University is focused on fighting computer viruses.

D) New screening techniques are being developed to combat computer viruses.

Nevertheless, they are the subject of a new research effort at Big State University.

37. Which of the following is the best lead-in for a sentence list?

A) Our three main competitive advantages are: B) The reasons are the following: C) We offer advantages over the competition.

D) We offer three main advantages over the competition:

38. An effective topic sentence will reflect which of the following?

A) the character of the writer B) the title of the document C) the coherence devices used in the document D) the organizational structure of the document

39. What kind of transition would be most helpful to readers of these two sentences?

Mr. Polk accomplished each objective he had for his term of office. He did not seek a second term.

A) comparison B) addition C) illustration D) cause-effect

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40. Which pair of sentences shows the most effective transition from the first sentence to the second?

A) Demand for kettle chips is down by 15 percent. As a result, we have laid off 12 production workers.

B) The vendor assured us that the replacement parts would be delivered in time for the product release. The parts were delivered nearly two weeks after the product release.

C) The furniture-replacement project was originally expected to cost us $450,000.

Unfortunately, the final cost was $300,000.

D) Brazilian people love soccer. My friend Silvino has played soccer all his life.

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. A 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. A 21. C 22. A 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. C 31. B 32. B 33. D 34. C 35. A 36. B 37. D 38. D 39. D 40. A

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. The sentence "Employees who seek their supervisor's advice often can improve their performance" contains an example of which type of modifier?

2. What two guidelines will help you to avoid causing confusion when using clusters of adjectives?

3. What is a euphemism?

4. Chapter 10 describes six techniques for avoiding sexist language. What are two of them?

5. Per diem is an example of what type of phrase for accountants and human-resources personnel?

6. Identify one of the four cases in which it is better to use passive voice than active voice.

7. Which type of modifier lacks an antecedent?

8. Identify one of the four strategies listed in Chapter 10 for avoiding ambiguous pronoun references.

9. What is the past perfect tense used to describe?

10. What is Simplified English?

11. New and important information should come at the beginning of a sentence, where readers will be sure to notice it.

A) True B) False

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12. In a passive-voice sentence, the subject of the sentence performs the action expressed by the verb.

A) True B) False

13. A euphemism is a bit of shoptalk, a word or phrase that has a precise meaning to members of a particular group, organization, profession, or occupation but may have little meaning for people outside that group.

A) True B) False

14. Chapter 10 describes several techniques for avoiding sexist language. One technique is to include a disclaimer such as following: "The use of the pronoun he does not in any way suggest a male bias."

A) True B) False

15. A nominalization is a noun that has been created from a verb and then paired with a weaker verb, as when to install becomes to effect an installation, or to analyze becomes to conduct an analysis.

A) True B) False

16. A sentence using negative construction expresses bad news or the writer's dissatisfaction or unhappiness.

A) True B) False

17. The guidelines for preparing text to be translated are generally similar to the guidelines for writing clearly and concisely.

A) True B) False

18. Nominalized verbs help you communicate clearly and concisely.

A) True B) False

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19. Subjects and verbs must agree in tense.

A) True B) False

20. A sentence with a negative construction contains a word or phrase that describes what something is not. One example is the phrase not many, which could be replaced by the positive construction few.

A) True B) False

21. Chapter 10 suggests that the passive voice is generally more appropriate than the active voice in four circumstances. One is when the agent is clear from the context, as in "Students are required to take both writing courses," in which it is clear that the college set the requirements. Under which of the following circumstances is the passive voice NOT appropriate?

A) when the agent is less important than the action B) when the agent is unknown C) when a reference to the agent is embarrassing, dangerous, or in some other way inappropriate D) when you want to help the agent avoid responsibility 22. Which of the following sentences demonstrates the use of the ―people-first‖ approach to writing about people with disabilities?

A) Since 2000, city buses and trains have been retrofitted to accommodate wheelchair-bound passengers.

B) By adding captions to our videos, we can make them more accessible for hearing-loss sufferers.

C) Our health insurance company has a dedicated team to help members with intellectual disabilities navigate the healthcare system.

D) Visually handicapped users might have difficulty with the graphics on our website.

23. Which sentence below shows a comma splice?

A) The 728B polo shirt is our most popular model, and it offers an unequaled blend of comfort and durability.

B) The 728B polo shirt is our most popular, comfortable, attractive, durable, and cost-effective model.

C) The 728B polo shirt is our most popular model, because it offers an unequaled blend of comfort and durability.

D) The 728B polo shirt is our most popular model, it offers an unequaled blend of comfort and durability.

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24. Sentences are often easier to understand and more emphatic if new information appears in which position?

A) at the beginning of the sentence B) in the middle of the sentence C) after a semicolon D) at the end of the sentence

25. What is Simplified English?

A) It is a way to teach English to elementary-school children.

B) It is writing that has been dumbed down.

C) It is a set of about 1,000 English words used for writing technical manuals in certain industries.

D) It is English written in sentences with five or fewer words.

26. Which type of modifier is NOT identified in Chapter 10 as a problem?

A) an adjectival modifier B) a squinting modifier C) a dangling modifier D) a misplaced modifier

27. Which of the following sentences best emphasizes the real subject?

A) There are four ways in which investment in clean energy can be increased.

B) Investment in clean energy can be increased in four ways.

C) It is hoped that these changes will improve the usability of the website.

D) There is a possibility that the use of these techniques will result in cost savings.

28. To what must a pronoun refer?

A) its antecedent B) its precedent C) its antonym D) its adverb

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29. In what way is the following list flawed?

The Ventura Aquifer program objectives are the following: - characterization of groundwater quality - to provide data to support Best Management Practices (BMP) - relating data to agricultural land-use practices A) The list is not punctuated correctly.

B) The list is not parallel in structure.

C) The lead-in is not grammatically complete.

D) The list uses the wrong verb tense.

30. Which of the following sentences illustrates the best approach to writing about people with disabilities?

A) An arthritis sufferer typically takes medications daily.

B) People with advanced cases of scleroderma should avoid cold climates.

C) A person with severe rheumatoid arthritis is likely to be confined to a wheelchair.

D) The young men in the support group were abnormal, as systemic lupus is a disability not commonly seen in young males.

31. Which of the principles listed below for constructing effective sentences does the following passage violate?

The site marks the beginning of a first-year riparian forest buffer. Monitoring equipment was located essentially where this stream joined Cook Creek at the end of the forest riparian buffer. Monitoring data indicated improved water quality within the tributary. It is our opinion that this could be the result of the riparian forest buffer being created.

A) Avoid euphemisms.

B) Avoid unnecessarily fancy words.

C) Avoid wordy phrases and filler.

D) Avoid sexist language.

32. Which of the characteristics listed below does the following sentence exhibit?

When a rescuer begins patient care, he should focus on basic life support and finalize his plan to decontaminate the patient.

A) sexist language B) dangling modifier C) negative construction D) fancy words

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33. Which of these sentences shows parallel structure?

A) The line cook should follow the printed recipe; do not change the chef's dessert.

B) Our current structure is saving us money and reducing our downtime.

C) The speakers will include partners of accounting firms, businesspeople, and insurance agents.

D) We need to buy more drywall, lumber, tools, and hire the subcontractors.

34. How should you punctuate a restrictive modifier?

A) Use commas to separate it from the rest of the sentence.

B) Use dashes to separate it from the rest of the sentence.

C) Add no extra punctuation.

D) Precede it with a comma and the word which.

35. What level of formality does technical communication usually require?

A) very informal to informal B) informal C) informal to moderately formal D) moderately formal to highly formal

36. In many cases, removing which type of phrase following a noun will make your writing more concise?

A) adjectival phrase B) prepositional phrase C) transitional phrase D) adverbial phrase

37. Which of the following is a run-on sentence?

A) The adventurer walked for days and days, for weeks on end, for what seemed like an eternity; he found himself in a state of perpetual exhaustion.

B) He is a little bit sour, she is a little bit sweet, and I am a little bit stale.

C) I left the room when he yelled at me.

D) Vote for Pedro he will represent you well.

38. Which of the following sentences has a strong subject?

A) The firm issued a statement about the newly promoted lawyers.

B) The statement from the college about the newly promoted professors was published in the newspaper.

C) The use of fireworks in this city is strictly prohibited.

D) The challenge of pursuing higher education while using a foreign language should not be underestimated.

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39. In which of the following sentences is qualifying information emphasized?

A) The schedule could fall apart if anyone is absent for several days.

B) Shellie will get promoted if she improves her performance rating.

C) If the new administrator gets her way, all of the adjunct instructors will get raises.

D) I will finish my homework if I can stop watching television.

40. Which of the following sentences has a strong verb?

A) The acquisition of properties south of the factory is expected to continue.

B) Stephen is responsible for collection of our quality-assurance data.

C) Decades of deception by politicians have left the populace numb and apathetic.

D) Download the test file before you start to answer the questions.

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. B 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. A 21. D 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. C 26. A 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. B 31. C 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. D 36. B 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. D

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. Chapter 11 identifies five goals of document design. One goal is to make a good impression on readers. What are two other goals mentioned in the chapter?

2. Chapter 11 discusses four basic principles for designing effective documents and websites. One is contrast. What are the other three basic principles discussed in the chapter?

3. Chapter 11 discusses three page-design techniques that are related to principles of learning theory. What are they?

4. What is the difference between a serif typeface and a sans-serif typeface?

5. In typography, what is leading?

6. Chapter 11 explains four guidelines for web design that are important for accessibility.

These principles are known as the ―POUR‖ guidelines. What do the letters in POUR stand for?

7. What is the design term for a straight line on a page or screen?

8. Which principle states that the human eye is drawn to—and that the brain interprets—differences in appearance between two items?

9. You receive a progress report in which all of the first-level headings are in the same typeface and type size and have the same spacing and color. Which design principle do these characteristics reflect?

10. Chapter 11 offers eleven guidelines for designing accessible websites. Two of the guidelines are to provide appropriate alternative text and to provide appropriate document structure. What are two other guidelines?

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11. Chunking is the practice of delivering information in visually small units.

A) True B) False

12. Text printed in uppercase letters is easier to read than text set in a mix of uppercase and lowercase letters.

A) True B) False

13. In designing an entire print document as opposed to individual pages, you will need to consider size, paper, bindings, and navigational aids.

A) True B) False

14. A page grid is a drawing, or map, in which areas of white space and text in a document are arranged clearly and consistently.

A) True B) False

15. The most effective way to distinguish one level of heading from another is to use different sizes of type.

A) True B) False

16. One of the main challenges of document design is using as few pages as possible while still making the document easy to read.

A) True B) False

17. An idiom is a phrase identified by linguists as universally understandable.

A) True B) False

18. Only about 9 percent of the people using the Internet are from North America.

A) True B) False

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19. According to Chapter 11, online documents are easier to read than paper documents because of differences in resolution.

A) True B) False

20. According to Chapter 11, making websites accessible for people with disabilities is both a legal and an ethical issue.

A) True B) False

21. Chapter 11 identifies five goals of document design. One goal is to make a good impression on readers. What is another goal of document design?

A) to help readers locate and access the information they need B) to use several different colors C) to help readers get through the document quickly D) to prevent readers from becoming bored or distracted

22. Chapter 11 discusses four basic principles for designing effective documents. One is proximity. What are two other basic principles discussed in the chapter?

A) alignment and contrast B) consistency and repetition C) variety and relevance D) contrast and novelty

23. What is queuing?

A) Queuing is a page-design technique in which two or three columns are distributed evenly across the page.

B) Queuing is a page-design technique in which visual patterns show levels of importance.

C) Queuing is a page-design technique in which text and graphics are arranged in a symmetrical pattern.

D) Queuing is a page-design technique in which text and graphics are arranged in a straight line, or queue.

24. Providing captions and transcripts for videos on your website is a way of ensuring what?

A) navigability B) memorability C) optimization D) accessibility

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25. Which design principle is especially important when you are creating navigational aids for your document?

A) repetition B) alignment C) proximity D) contraction

26. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for creating an accessible website?

A) Provide appropriate alternative text for graphics.

B) Use color-coding as much as possible to convey information.

C) Provide headers for data tables and ensure that all elements on forms have labels.

D) Ensure that links make sense out of context.

27. Which of the following is a guideline for creating effective links in online documents?

A) Trust readers to know what the linked page will contain.

B) Structure your sentences as if there were no links in the text.

C) Use custom colors for linked text.

D) Make links bold, italic, and underlined for emphasis.

28. Which of these is NOT a resource to consider when you are planning your design?

A) navigability B) time C) equipment D) money

29. A writer for a company headquartered in Texas is designing a 100-page report, the text of which will be single-spaced to reduce printing costs. If she wants the report to be as easy to read as possible, which of the following should she NOT do?

A) Place the top-level headings along the left margin and indent each subsequent level by several spaces.

B) Use full justification.

C) Use a heading at each significant change of topic.

D) Use chunking to separate paragraphs.

30. Using visual patterns to distinguish various types of information is known as what?

A) queuing B) chunking C) filtering D) gridding

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31. A technical writer is designing a manual to be used by technicians repairing stereo systems. Repair technicians will be seated at workbenches with bright lighting overhead. They will need both hands to work on the equipment while reading manual instructions. Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate design decision?

A) to use perfect binding B) to choose a size of 6 x 9 inches for the manual C) to print on nonglare, tinted paper D) to make the manual as concise as possible

32. Which of these document-design features does NOT exploit primarily the principle of contrast?

A) a rule B) a pull quote C) a screen D) a marginal gloss

33. An international audience is most likely to be confused by an inappropriate choice regarding which of the following features of a document?

A) the thickness of the paper B) the type of binding C) the pictures used as icons D) the typeface chosen for the body text

34. You are working on a brochure about your business. The type for the body text will be black and that for the section headings will be blue. What document-design principles are you implementing with these color choices?

A) proximity and alignment B) alignment and repetition C) contrast and alignment D) contrast and repetition

35. Which of the following is NOT true of a multicolumn design?

A) It shortens the length of lines of text, making them easier to read.

B) It enables you to create a visual pattern of text and graphics.

C) It allows you to fit more words on a page than a single-column design.

D) It leaves you with fewer options for placing and sizing graphics.

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36. Which aspects of typography affect the white space of a document?

A) line length, sentence length, and word length B) leading, color, and sentence length C) line spacing, line length, and justification D) line spacing, headings, and footers

37. Helvetica Regular, Helvetica Light, Helvetica Italic, and Helvetica Bold are all members of what group?

A) a typeface B) a type family C) a type case D) a type setting

38. Which document-design practice will most effectively convey the hierarchy within a document?

A) queuing B) chunking C) underlining D) binding

39. You are writing a report using a template provided by your supervisor. If you increase the margins around your pages by 30 percent and do not change anything else, which aspect of the overall design will change the most?

A) proximity B) alignment C) contrast D) repetition

40. If you know that the audience for your website is diverse, what should you do?

A) Provide more than one way to find specific content.

B) Avoid creating a list of frequently asked questions (FAQs).

C) Incorporate graphics of sports and use sports-related metaphors.

D) Use a high-tech, complex page design to impress site visitors.

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. A 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. C 31. A 32. A 33. C 34. D 35. D 36. C 37. B 38. A 39. C 40. A

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. According to Chapter 12, graphics are important in technical communication because they can help you communicate information that is difficult to express with words. What is another reason graphics are important?

2. Chapter 12 discusses five principles for making a graphic clear and understandable. One principle is that the graphic should have a purpose. What is another principle for making an effective graphic?

3. Chapter 12 suggests that you consider four factors when planning a graphic. One is audience. Name two other factors you should consider.

4. Besides using existing graphics, what is one other approach to procuring graphics, according to Chapter 12?

5. Chapter 12 offers six guidelines for using color in graphics. One is to use contrast effectively. Name two other guidelines mentioned in the chapter.

6. According to Chapter 12, what is an infographic?

7. Chapter 12 provides seven guidelines for creating effective infographics. One is "Don't go on forever." Name two other guidelines mentioned in the chapter.

8. According to Chapter 12, what is the most important characteristic of an infographic?

9. Why is it important to either begin graph axes at zero or mark them clearly?

10. Saving space is not an ideal reason for cropping a photo to be used in technical communication. What is a better reason?

11. In a table, the stub is the right-hand column.

A) True B) False

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12. According to Chapter 12, one potential drawback of photographs is that they can provide too much information.

A) True B) False

13. Chapter 12 discusses five characteristics that make a graphic clear and understandable.

One characteristic is that the graphic meets readers' format expectations.

A) True B) False

14. According to Chapter 12, one way to create graphics is to modify existing graphics.

A) True B) False

15. Many Western hand gestures, such as the "okay" sign, are considered obscene in other cultures.

A) True B) False

16. To achieve the most effective contrast between colors, pair dark and light shades of a deep color together.

A) True B) False

17. If you want to publish a graphic that your organization paid to have produced, you do not need written permission.

A) True B) False

18. Graphics typically increase the costs of translating documents intended for international readers.

A) True B) False

19. A screen shot is a graphic showing what appears on a computer monitor.

A) True B) False

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20. If a graphic is on the Internet, you may assume that you are free to republish it.

A) True B) False

21. Chapter 12 offers six principles for using color in graphics. One is "Don't overdo it."

Which of the following principles is also mentioned in the chapter?

A) Use color to create patterns.

B) Use as many colors as possible.

C) Use dark colors to make objects look smaller.

D) Be creative by inventing symbolic meanings for colors.

22. Which of the following graphics would be best suited to showing the stages of a procedure or a process?

A) checklist B) drawing C) organization chart D) flowchart

23. Chapter 12 explains five benefits offered by graphics. One benefit is that they can save space. Which is NOT one of the other four benefits?

A) Graphics can demonstrate logical and numerical relationships better than words alone.

B) Graphics can communicate spatial information more effectively than words alone.

C) Graphics can communicate steps in a process more effectively than words alone.

D) Graphics are always more persuasive than words.

24. Chapter 12 identifies four stages in the process of creating graphics. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the chapter?

A) trademarking B) planning C) revising D) producing

25. Which of these graphics would be effective for illustrating visual and spatial characteristics?

A) organization chart B) screen shot C) pictograph D) table

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26. Which of the following graphics would be best suited to showing logical relationships?

A) table B) checklist C) line drawing D) organization chart

27. According to Chapter 12, why must you cite the source of a graphic?

A) It is part of your ethical responsibilities.

B) It is necessary for papers submitted to industry conventions and conferences.

C) It increases the prestige of your bibliography.

D) It ensures that your organization will own the copyright.

28. Which of the following graphics would be best suited for showing the relative sizes of parts that make up a whole?

A) photograph B) table C) pie chart D) organization chart

29. A writing team wants to present the six-month sales figures for its company's 14 sales representatives in a report. Because managers must make comparative analyses, the graphic for these data must group representatives by region, as well as show each representative's monthly sales total. Which is the best graphic for displaying this information?

A) table B) logic tree C) organization chart D) bar graph

30. A writer is creating a table that will have 22 rows and 6 columns of data, all of which must appear on one page. To prevent readers from misinterpreting the data, which of the following techniques should the writer apply to the table?

A) drawing a horizontal rule after each row of data B) using thick grid lines to help readers distinguish information in adjoining cells C) grouping rows together in a logical order to help readers make comparisons D) italicizing column heads

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31. A technical writer wants to create a graphic showing the proportion of hurricanes that have hit each of the five Gulf Coast states between 1900 and 2005. The graphic will be included in a safety brochure to be distributed to the public by the Federal Emergency Management Agency. Which graphic would best display the data?

A) infographic B) line graph C) pie chart D) map

32. You are making a graphic for automotive technicians that will illustrate the procedure for performing a computerized vehicle inspection. Which of the following is the best graphic for displaying this information?

A) organization chart B) drawing C) flowchart D) diagram

33. Which type of graphic does NOT use metaphor to convey information?

A) flowchart B) photograph C) diagram D) organization chart

34. What does copyright law have to do with graphics?

A) Copyright law determines who may download a graphic.

B) Copyright law determines who has the ability to read a graphic.

C) Copyright law determines who has the right to publish or republish a graphic.

D) Copyright law determines the medium of a graphic.

35. You are writing a report on the two candidates competing to represent your district in the U.S. House of Representatives. You create a pie chart for each candidate to show where the candidate's campaign money comes from. In each pie chart, you use purple for small individual donations, orange for large individual donations, blue for corporate donations, yellow for contributions by political action committees, red for political-party donations, and gray for other money. Which principle of using color effectively have you followed?

A) using color to create contrast between the text and the background B) using color to emphasize particular items C) using symbolic meanings of colors D) using color to create patterns

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36. Why is it important to take care in creating graphics for multicultural audiences?

A) Culture affects how people read images and what they see in them.

B) Differences between cultural interpretations of graphics tend to be slight.

C) Multicultural audiences are happy if at least a short caption for the image is in their native language.

D) Depictions of common objects should be as detailed as possible.

37. You work in the recruiting office of a large state university. You need to give your boss precise numerical data—including numbers of applicants, numbers of enrollees, percentages, and statistical measurements—about recruiting efforts in five different regions. Which type of graphic would best suit your needs?

A) bar graph B) table C) line graph D) pictograph

38. Which of the following is structured to emphasize the person or group responsible for carrying out certain tasks?

A) deployment flowchart B) deployment organization chart C) logic tree D) diagram

39. Why might you include a common, familiar item in a photograph of an item being discussed?

A) to give readers a sense of scale B) to eliminate background clutter C) to prevent manipulation of the photograph D) to save space in your document

40. How can a writer avoid creating chartjunk?

A) by separating clip art from charts and graphs B) by choosing two-dimensional charts and graphs over three-dimensional ones C) by placing charts on pages separate from graphs D) by presenting as much information as possible in a single graph

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. B 12. A 13. A 14. A 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. B 21. A 22. D 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. C 29. A 30. C 31. C 32. C 33. B 34. C 35. D 36. A 37. B 38. A 39. A 40. B

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. Usability refers to five aspects of a person's use of an item. What are two of these aspects?

2. One factor affecting whether you decide to review, evaluate, or test a draft of a document is the document's relative importance. What are the other two factors?

3. Chapter 13 discusses five usability study settings. One of these settings is focus groups.

What are three more?

4. In performing usability testing, why is it a bad idea to use your own company's employees as test participants?

5. Chapter 13 discusses eight categories of usability problems. Two of them are maintainability and support. Name three more categories.

6. In usability testing, what is informed consent?

7. What is an SME?

8. According to Chapter 13, what is a prototype?

9. What is the purpose of Nielsen's severity rating scale?

10. What are some advantages and disadvantages of testing documents in real-world contexts?

11. Usability can be defined as a measure of how successfully a document achieves its purposes and meets its audience's needs.

A) True B) False

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12. The goal of remote monitoring is to make ongoing improvements based on actual usage data.

A) True B) False

13. To save money, it is a good idea to use company employees as participants in a usability test.

A) True B) False

14. Test administrators must obtain informed consent from test participants in writing.

A) True B) False

15. Testing documents in a lab provides richer feedback than can be gathered by testing them in a working context.

A) True B) False

16. Usability labs are designed to limit the number of variables that users encounter during a test.

A) True B) False

17. It is a good idea for the test administrator to have a script to follow during a usability test.

A) True B) False

18. Post-test interviews and questionnaires are best conducted and completed several weeks after the test, when participants have had time to think further about their experiences.

A) True B) False

19. To ensure that a test stays on schedule, the test administrator should set a time limit for each task.

A) True B) False

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20. A heuristic evaluation is usually performed by a focus group.

A) True B) False

21. One factor affecting the usability of a document or website is its efficiency of use. What does efficiency of use measure?

A) the time it takes a person to carry out a task after learning how to do it B) the time it takes a person to learn to use the item C) a person's ability to remember how to carry out a task D) the ease with which a person recovers from errors made in carrying out a task.

22. One factor affecting a decision about whether to evaluate or test a document is that document's relative importance. What are two other factors?

A) subjective satisfaction and ease of learning B) time and money C) error frequency and subjective satisfaction D) time and memorability

23. Which of the following is NOT an example of a setting for a usability study?

A) a guided evaluation B) your own review of a document that you created C) user testing in context D) remote monitoring

24. What is another term for a guided evaluation?

A) lab evaluation B) heuristic evaluation C) study evaluation D) criteria test

25. Who usually serve as the participants in a guided evaluation?

A) real-world users of the document B) people who match the profile of potential users of the document C) volunteers D) experts in usability, technical communication, or the subject matter of the document

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26. Which of the following kinds of problems would a usability study be LEAST likely to uncover?

A) problems with navigation B) confusing icons or design elements C) information that does not interest the reader D) problems with the organization of information

27. How does money affect the decision to conduct a usability test?

A) Participants in a usability test need to be compensated for their time.

B) You must pay to file a copy of the usability report with your company's central office.

C) Each test must be reviewed by a lawyer or board-certified specialist.

D) You must purchase special software for recording participants' comments.

28. Focus groups are most likely to be held at which stage of development of a document?

A) design stage B) prototype stage C) published stage D) planning stage

29. Who are the best participants to include when you are testing documents in a controlled setting or lab setting?

A) subject-matter experts B) usability experts C) representative users of the document D) company employees

30. Which of the following should a test administrator NOT do during a usability test?

A) Ask the participant to think aloud while using a document or website.

B) Ask leading questions when the participant gets stuck.

C) Respond to the participant's questions with direct answers such as ―Yes, click that link.‖ D) Use neutral phrasing to avoid biasing the test participant.

31. Who are the participants in a contextual inquiry?

A) users in a real workplace environment B) subject-matter experts C) usability experts D) people who match the profile of potential users

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32. Which of the following tools provides visualizations of the areas on a website that users have clicked most frequently?

A) web analytics B) heat mapping tools C) online feedback forms D) post-test questionnaires

33. What kinds of questions should a test administrator ask of a participant in a usability test who is unable to complete a task?

A) closed questions B) demographic questions C) biased questions D) leading questions

34. You work for a company that makes high-volume photocopiers for use in business settings. Your team is preparing to test the usability of the new repair manual for the company's Series 400 photocopier system, and you are helping to write the test materials. Which of the following is an appropriate task to ask a user of the Series 400 repair manual to complete?

A) Find "toner replacement" in the index.

B) Find the instructions for toner replacement.

C) Follow the instructions for replacing the toner in the Series 400 copier.

D) Find every chapter that refers to "toner replacement."

35. Which of the following is an example of a cognitive walk-through?

A) An evaluator is asked to carry out a set of tasks using a document or website.

B) A test participant is asked to think aloud while using a document or website.

C) A test participant is interviewed after a usability test and asked to describe what he or she was thinking during the test.

D) A test participant fills out a post-test questionnaire.

36. Which of the following is NOT part of obtaining informed consent?

A) asking for permission to record the test participant B) explaining the purpose of the recording and how it will be used C) explaining that the participant can stop the test or leave at any time D) asking questions about the participant's background

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37. Which of the following steps is NOT part of the process of conducting a usability test in a lab setting?

A) staffing the test team B) preparing test materials C) preparing for a site visit D) selecting participants

38. Which of the following is an example of quantitative data?

A) numerical counts of errors that evaluators found on a website B) responses to interview questions C) discursive responses on post-test questionnaires D) notes taken by test administrators as they observed participants

39. When is the appropriate time to monitor documents remotely?

A) during the planning stage B) during the design phase C) when the document is in prototype form D) after documents are published or ―go live‖

40. In the context of usability studies, what is a prototype?

A) the best possible version of a document B) a wireframe, mockup, draft, or other early version of a document or product C) a usability expert D) a set of criteria to be used for evaluating a document

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. A 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. B 21. A 22. B 23. B 24. B 25. D 26. C 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. C 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. C 35. A 36. D 37. C 38. A 39. D 40. B

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. Provide an example of a letter cliché.

2. Provide an example of a salutation.

3. What does the notation "cc" stand for in a letter, memo, or email?

4. Chapter 14 describes two common letter formats. One is modified block. What is the other format described in the chapter?

5. Chapter 14 offers several guidelines for writing inquiry letters. One is to explain who you are and why you are writing. What is another guideline?

6. What are three categories of cultural differences in business correspondence?

7. What is flaming?

8. What is the name for a letter in which you respond to a claim and tell the writer how you plan to handle the situation described in the letter?

9. Chapter 14 offers ten suggestions for representing your organization on a microblog.

Two are to decide on your audience and purpose and to learn the technology. What are three other suggestions?

10. Chapter 14 states two reasons to avoid language errors in correspondence. One is that they suggest a lack of respect for your reader and for yourself. What is the other reason?

11. Email is usually archived digitally (backed up in some way).

A) True B) False

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12. A salutation is a greeting at the beginning of a letter, traditionally consisting of the word "Dear," the reader's courtesy title and last name, and a colon.

A) True B) False

13. The number following an enclosure notation at the bottom of a letter indicates the number of sheets of paper enclosed with the letter.

A) True B) False

14. Tweets and Facebook posts can be forms of business correspondence.

A) True B) False

15. The terms letter and memo are interchangeable.

A) True B) False

16. One disadvantage of correspondence clichés is that they can be hard to understand.

A) True B) False

17. Generally speaking, the netiquette guidelines that apply to microblog posts do not apply to email.

A) True B) False

18. In some cultures, a person is more likely to walk down the hall to deliver a brief message than to send an email, because doing so shows more respect.

A) True B) False

19. In a bad-news adjustment letter, there is no sense trying to salvage goodwill; the reader is so angry that he or she will never do business with you again.

A) True B) False

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20. According to Chapter 14, it is inappropriate to use headings in memos.

A) True B) False

21. When it appears in a letter, memo, or email, what does the symbol "c" stand for?

A) confidential B) contract C) copy D) correspondence

22. Chapter 14 describes two common letter formats. One is modified block. What is the other format?

A) full block B) modified block with enhanced formatting C) simplified block D) full-justified block

23. According to Chapter 14, three elements should appear at the top of the second and subsequent pages of a memo. One is the page number. What are the other two?

A) the date of the memo and the subject line B) the date of the memo and the name of the writer C) the attention line and the subject line D) the date of the memo and the name of the recipient

24. Which of the following best defines writing that projects the "you attitude"?

A) writing that clearly puts the responsibility for a problem on the reader B) writing that has the tone and style you would like to see in a letter you received C) writing that conveys defensiveness and self-protection D) writing that addresses the reader as "you"

25. According to Chapter 14, which of the following is NOT a guideline for effective on-the-job microblogging?

A) Sound like a person.

B) Apologize when you make a mistake.

C) Regard your followers as a market for your company's products and services.

D) Learn the technology.

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26. Which of the following is NOT a netiquette guideline?

A) Avoid dispensing harsh criticism.

B) Take a friendly, casual tone.

C) Don't send jokes or other nonbusiness messages.

D) Avoid forwarding a message to online forums without obtaining the writer's permission.

27. Which of the following statements is true?

A) Memos are commonly written to people outside your own organization.

B) Memos are commonly written to people within your own organization.

C) Memos are a highly formal type of workplace correspondence.

D) Memos should not contain content with section headings.

28. A writer working for the state department of agriculture wishes to educate farmers statewide about upcoming changes in irrigation policies. Which of the following types of communication would be most effective?

A) memo B) email C) letter D) fax

29. A small manufacturer of computer games discovers an error in the instructions shipped with the latest product. A writer at the company has been asked to write a letter to recent purchasers of the product explaining the correct information and apologizing for the mistake. Which of the following would NOT appropriately be included in this letter?

A) blind-copy notation B) a heading C) a subject line D) an offer of a discount on another product

30. Memos and letters are often distributed electronically through which of the following means?

A) through online discussion forums B) through microblog posts C) as attachments to email messages D) through file-sharing services

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31. According to Chapter 14, which of the types of correspondence below is generally considered the LEAST formal?

A) letters B) email C) memos D) microblogs 32. You are writing a research paper on the impacts of hydraulic fracturing (―fracking‖) on groundwater in your state. Through your research, you have found that a professor at a university in another state, Dr. Thomas Henry Wright, has conducted extensive research on the subject. You decide to write an inquiry letter to ask him some questions. Which salutation is most appropriate for your letter?

A) Dear Tom: B) Dear Thomas Henry Wright: C) Dear Dr. Wright: D) Dear Professor:

33. Which of the following sentences effectively uses plain language appropriate for business correspondence?

A) As per your request, attached please find the information about the new landscaping equipment.

B) Pursuant to our agreement of March 14, I have enclosed a check for the final payment.

C) We wish to advise you that the new contract will be issued next week.

D) Attached is a copy of the contract for you to sign.

34. You are one of four people on a search committee interviewing candidates for a marketing manager position in your department. The Human Resources (HR) department has asked each person on the committee to provide feedback after every interview. The candidate you interviewed this afternoon, Mr. Zoolander, did not seem at ease, and you were disappointed in several of his responses to questions. Which would be the best passage to include in your email to the HR department?

A) I was disappointed with several of Mr. Zoolander's responses to our questions. He did not show that he had thought deeply about the issues our department is facing.

B) Zoolander is a no-go. Kind of a bug-eyed weirdo if you ask me.

C) Zoolander almost blew a gasket when I asked him for a specific example of his leadership. And he went to that college on the other side of the state? That's all you need to know right there.

D) Mr. Zoolander presents a curious case for this committee. I think his nervousness belies his enthusiasm for the position, but one cannot be too sure. I find myself in a position of ambivalence.

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35. Your company intends to open a new office on the other side of the country. The goal is to expand the company's operations and move into some new and more exclusive markets. This is a major step for the company, and you want your shareholders to be impressed. Which type of correspondence should you use to communicate with your shareholders?

A) memo B) letter C) email D) microblog post

36. Which of the following statements is true?

A) Clichés make your writing shorter and more efficient.

B) Clichés are a good way to write with the "you attitude."

C) Clichés give your writing a stilted tone.

D) Clichés give your writing a contemporary touch.

37. What does it mean to "link generously" when posting to a microblog at work?

A) Post links to websites and articles that are relevant to a subject you are discussing online.

B) Post links to as many online articles about your company as possible.

C) Post links for opportunities to give to charities.

D) Post links to a competitor's website after each link to your own company's information.

38. In what situation should you use an attention line in a letter?

A) You hope your letter will attract the reader's attention.

B) You want to convey a sense of urgency.

C) You do not know the name of a specific person at the company you are writing to, so you do not know who will read the letter.

D) You want to identify the subject of your letter.

39. What is the function of a claim letter?

A) to request information B) to respond to questions C) to respond to a complaint D) to make a complaint

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40. Which of the following should NOT be included in a memo?

A) a subject line B) an inside address C) headings D) a clear statement of purpose

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. A 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. C 31. D 32. C 33. D 34. A 35. B 36. C 37. A 38. C 39. D 40. B

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. According to Chapter 15, what are the four main steps in planning a job search?

2. Chapter 15 lists four job-search strategies. One is to look for a job through a job board on the Internet. Name two of the other ways to look for a job.

3. Chapter 15 lists four questions you should ask before posting an electronic résumé on an Internet job board. One question is "Who has access to your résumé?" What is one of the other questions?

4. In terms of how they are organized, what are the two major types of résumés discussed in the chapter?

5. According to Chapter 15, what is an elevator pitch?

6. What are the four paragraphs commonly found in the body of a job-application letter?

7. According to Chapter 15, what should you do after interviewing for a job?

8. According to Chapter 15, what does it mean to be a passive applicant?

9. Chapter 15 lists five guidelines for building the foundation of your professional brand.

One is to research what others have done. Name two other guidelines.

10. Why is it important to include keywords in your LinkedIn profile?

11. A job-application letter should expand on all the information contained in your résumé.

A) True B) False

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12. If the information you want to include on your résumé takes up a page and a half, you should eliminate or condense some material to make it fit on one page.

A) True B) False

13. As you develop your professional brand online, you should include keywords that employers look for in your field.

A) True B) False

14. Any picture of yourself that you display on your LinkedIn profile or your portfolio must be taken by a professional.

A) True B) False

15. If you write your own résumé instead of paying someone else to do it, you will be more likely to adapt the résumé to different situations.

A) True B) False

16. According to Chapter 15, doing a self-inventory is part of planning a job search.

A) True B) False

17. The chronological résumé is popular among job candidates who are re-entering the workforce or who have changed jobs frequently.

A) True B) False

18. The best way to find keywords for your résumé is to study the job titles for jobs you like.

A) True B) False

19. It is safe to assume that former employers in your recent past will serve as references for you.

A) True B) False

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20. If you are rejected for a position, you should not write back to the employer.

A) True B) False

21. Which of the following formatting recommendations is NOT appropriate for a plain-text résumé?

A) Limit the length of each line to 65 or fewer characters.

B) Use special characters such as boldface and italics for emphasis.

C) Use all uppercase or repeated characters to signal headings.

D) Make sure most of the information is left justified.

22. According to Chapter 15, what should you do after interviewing for a job?

A) Call to express your continued interest in the position.

B) Refrain from taking any action until the interviewer follows up with you.

C) Write a letter or email of appreciation.

D) Share information about the interview on social media.

23. According to Chapter 15, finding the right positions to apply for involves four tasks.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four tasks?

A) Learn about your field.

B) Learn about potential employers.

C) Do a self-inventory.

D) Participate in mock interviews.

24. Chapter 15 lists four questions you should consider before posting an electronic résumé on an Internet job board. One question is "Who has access to your résumé?" What is one of the other questions?

A) How will you know if an employer requests your résumé?

B) Will the formatting of your résumé remain unchanged once the résumé is converted to an electronic file?

C) Will a prospective employer have to pay a fee to retrieve your résumé?

D) How secure are the servers where your résumé is stored?

25. What are the two major types of résumés discussed in the chapter?

A) descriptive résumé and narrative résumé B) skills résumé and chronological résumé C) narrative résumé and developmental résumé D) descriptive résumé and summary résumé

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26. Like the one shown in Chapter 15, job-application letters generally have four paragraphs. Two are the introductory paragraph and the concluding paragraph. What are the other two?

A) education paragraph and employment paragraph B) professional-interests paragraph and personal-interests paragraph C) employment paragraph and references paragraph D) education paragraph and references paragraph

27. According to Chapter 15, what does it mean to be a "passive applicant" for jobs?

A) Your résumé uses more passive verbs than active verbs.

B) You do not submit application letters, but you do send out plain-text copies of your résumé.

C) You maintain contacts with professionals in your field and keep an open mind about future job opportunities.

D) You pay a placement firm to submit your job-application materials for you.

28. Which of these is NOT a guideline presented in Chapter 15 for establishing your professional brand?

A) Research what others have done.

B) Describe your job skills.

C) Focus on problem-solving and accomplishments.

D) Focus on academic accomplishments and awards.

29. According to Chapter 15, what is a "transferrable skill"?

A) a skill that you can apply across many different job settings and professional fields B) a skill that you apply when you transfer from one company to the same job in a different company C) a skill that you develop through attending special training classes D) a skill that you learn through a mentoring technique called skill-transfer

30. Which of these is a guideline presented in Chapter 15 for preparing for a job interview?

A) Study organizations that are similar to the one where you have an interview.

B) Study lists of common interview questions.

C) In case you get to ask questions, prepare some questions on company salary and benefit policies.

D) Avoid mock interviews or any type of rehearsing.

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31. In 2000, you received a B.S. in computer programming. Although you have had several jobs over the years, including positions at two major companies, your work history is irregular because you opted to stay at home with your two young children until they began elementary school. You now wish to return to the workforce but realize that your lack of familiarity with recent changes in computer technology and your irregular work history may be disadvantages. Which is the most appropriate strategy for dealing with your employment history in your résumé?

A) Omit the dates of employment.

B) Omit the dates of employment but explain in the application letter that you were out of the workforce because of child-care responsibilities.

C) Include the dates of employment and explain in the application letter that you chose to leave the workforce to care for your children.

D) Modify the dates of employment to eliminate the gaps.

32. At 23, Becky has just received her B.S. in horticulture from a state college. She has been interested in flowers and gardening since grade school. While in high school, she won several state-fair ribbons for her flowers, which she grew in her spare time while working part-time at a fast-food restaurant and going to school. She continued working at the restaurant while in college. What advice would you give Becky as she prepares her résumé in order to apply for a full-time position as a horticulturist for the local county extension service?

A) Write a skills résumé.

B) Write a chronological résumé.

C) Write either style of résumé, but leave out the employment section.

D) Write either style of résumé, but add a detailed paragraph in the professional information section that describes in professional terms her love of flowers.

33. Which of these statements best explains how your use of social media affects your professional brand?

A) Potential employers will review your social-media use as one way to judge how well you would succeed at marketing.

B) Potential employers will review your social-media use to see if you are a fun person to be around.

C) Potential employers will review your social-media use as one way to assess how you would behave on the job.

D) Potential employers will review your social-media use to see if you take good pictures.

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34. What is most important to convey in the employment section of your résumé?

A) information about your successful accomplishments on the job B) information about how to contact your previous managers C) information about relevant courses you took during your academic career D) information about the size of each company you have worked for

35. Which of the following statements best displays appropriate levels of both confidence and politeness?

A) I hope you will have some time available to consider my qualifications for this position. Please contact me at (123) 555-5555 if you would be able to set up a time.

B) I am eager to meet with you to discuss my qualifications for this position. Please contact me at (123) 555-5555 to set up a time.

C) I am clearly a solid candidate for this position. Call me at (123) 555-5555 to get this thing going.

D) I hope you will be able to consider me for this position. Please contact me at (123) 555-5555 if you would be able to meet with me. Thank you for your time.

36. Which of these questions would be most useful in a self-inventory carried out to plan a search for a position in engineering?

A) Which engineering companies attend our annual job fair on campus?

B) Which engineering companies are listed on the NASDAQ exchange?

C) Which engineering companies provide the highest starting salaries?

D) What kind of company will give me the best opportunities to develop into an engineering project manager?

37. Which of the following statements about applying for jobs is true?

A) The types of information disclosed in job applications are standard around the world.

B) Outside the United States, you might have to include in a job application personal information such as date of birth or marital status.

C) With the widespread use of the Internet, the job-application process is standard around the world.

D) Federal legislation prohibits employers from other countries from requesting personal information about U.S. citizens.

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38. While a college student, you spent two years as an officer of the campus chapter of your field's main professional association. Which of the following statements best conveys what you accomplished?

A) In my two years on the leadership team, membership was increased by 12 percent.

B) In my two years on the leadership team, my work on recruiting and retention led to a 12-percent increase in membership.

C) In my two years on the leadership team, we conducted several meetings about becoming professional engineers.

D) I served on the leadership team for two years.

39. Which of the following statements about plain-text résumés is true?

A) The word plain refers to the language you use to write your résumé.

B) The word plain refers to the visual style of your résumé.

C) The word plain refers to the email you use to send your résumé.

D) The word plain refers to the formatting of your résumé.

40. You are majoring in environmental studies. Last year, you worked for six months as a volunteer caregiver at an orphanage in Asia. Does this help you in your job search?

A) Yes. It gives you opportunities to discuss the transferrable skills you developed in areas such as problem-solving and collaboration.

B) No. It is not related to your intended field of study.

C) No. It shows that you took time off from finishing school.

D) Yes. It shows that you are willing to work for free, which employers like.

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. B 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. B 19. B 20. B 21. B 22. C 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. B 31. C 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. B 36. D 37. B 38. B 39. D 40. A

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. Proposals have two kinds of deliverables. What are they?

2. To be persuasive, proposal writers must demonstrate that they understand the context—readers' needs. According to Chapter 16, what other two things must they demonstrate?

3. According to Chapter 16, the introduction to a proposal must answer seven questions, one of which is "What is the problem or opportunity?" What is another question the introduction should answer?

4. In a proposal budget, what are direct costs?

5. Which type of graphic commonly used to portray task schedules communicates the interdependence among various tasks in a project?

6. What is the difference between formative evaluations and summative evaluations?

7. To make sure that you will be able to carry out a project if you get the go-ahead, you must determine whether you have the resources you will need in what three basic categories?

8. What do the initials IFB stand for?

9. What do the initials RFP stand for?

10. Chapter 16 discusses five dishonest tactics to avoid when writing a proposal. One is saying that certain qualified people will participate in the project, even though they will not. What are two other dishonest tactics to avoid?

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11. The proposed program section of a proposal should contain an itemization of the costs associated with the project you are proposing.

A) True B) False

12. Indirect costs are intangible expenses such as general secretarial and clerical expenses not devoted exclusively to any one project, as well as operating expenses such as the cost of utilities and maintenance.

A) True B) False

13. Formative evaluations are intended to assess the quality of a completed project.

A) True B) False

14. A task schedule is almost always presented in one of three graphical formats: table, bar chart, or network diagram.

A) True B) False

15. According to Chapter 16, some readers might not consider a proposal if it does not include an effective summary.

A) True B) False

16. A solicited proposal is one that you send to a customer who has not requested it.

A) True B) False

17. According to Chapter 16, both internal proposals and external proposals are arguments that an organization should do something.

A) True B) False

18. According to Chapter 16, proposals are not expensive to write, so companies submit unsolicited proposals often.

A) True B) False

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19. According to Chapter 16, one way to demonstrate professionalism in a proposal is to discuss your work history.

A) True B) False

20. According to Chapter 16, proposals are usually prepared by a single writer.

A) True B) False

21. According to Chapter 16, a proposal typically results in one of two types of deliverables.

One type is research. What is the other type?

A) a progress report B) a tangible product, a service, or some combination of the two C) transfer of real property D) a grant

22. Which of the following best describes what a proposal is?

A) a persuasive argument B) a description C) an inquiry D) a research report

23. According to Chapter 16, the introduction to a proposal must answer seven questions, one of which is "What is the problem or opportunity?" What is another question the introduction must answer?

A) What are your qualifications to carry out the proposed project?

B) How much will the proposed project cost?

C) What are your sources of information?

D) What quality-control measures will you use to ensure that the proposed project results in a suitable deliverable?

24. According to Chapter 16, what must you demonstrate to show that your organization can complete the work described in a proposal?

A) efficiency B) qualifications and experience C) program information D) certification and authorization

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25. According to Chapter 16, which of these is NOT a useful guideline to follow in creating a proposal for an audience in a different culture?

A) Budget time for translation.

B) Understand that what makes an argument persuasive can differ from one culture to another.

C) Focus on costs.

D) Ask if the prospective customer will do a read-through.

26. According to Chapter 16, what is a common name for the leader of a proposed research project?

A) principal investigator B) research lead C) investigator-in-principle D) project principal

27. Which of these is NOT a subject of a goods and services proposal?

A) offering to provide 150 computers to a state agency B) offering to install new landscaping around a government building C) asking for resources to study how a new pesticide affects lettuce and cabbage crops D) asking for a contract to provide cleaning and janitorial services to a government building for one year

28. According to Chapter 16, what is the best way to describe the problem or opportunity being addressed by a proposal?

A) in general descriptive terms B) using economic principles of supply, demand, and opportunity cost C) in general financial terms D) in specific monetary terms

29. According to Chapter 16, which of these is an example of an indirect cost associated with a proposal?

A) travel costs for personnel going to a remote work site B) cost of insurance benefits for personnel going to a remote work site C) cost of supplies used at a remote work site D) cost of operating a company's telephone system

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30. ABC Electronics wants someone to install in its two buildings a top-of-the-line burglar-alarm system, which will not only sound an alarm but also simultaneously notify authorities and the company president. Video surveillance of the premises should also be a capability of the security system. In order to obtain price quotes, what should ABC Electronics write?

A) an unsolicited proposal B) an internal proposal C) an external proposal D) a request for proposals

31. Which of the following does the proposed program section of a proposal NOT customarily include?

A) an explanation of the work you intend to do B) references to appropriate research or scholarship C) a justification of your claims D) a budget

32. Hardy Grocery Store has issued an RFP for the construction of a two-story warehouse addition to its main store. The warehouse must be built on 5,000 square feet of adjacent property, but it must have at least 9,000 square feet of storage space and have loading platforms for both North and East Street entrances. R&F Architects has responded with a proposal acknowledging the grocery's property restrictions and space requirements.

R&F's proposal includes a sketch of the warehouse the company proposes to build, with multiple entrances from the exterior as well as entrances from the existing building. The proposal has a chart showing the phases of the project, including the completion date, and a section describing R&F's staff and similar past projects. The proposal ends with a bid. What should R&F add to the proposal to better compete with other organizations bidding on the project?

A) a description of its quality-control measures B) a listing of the research methods to be used C) a description of the problem or opportunity D) a clearer focus on the readers' needs

33. Which of these types of proposals is NOT discussed in Chapter 16?

A) solicited external proposals B) unsolicited external proposals C) unsolicited internal proposals D) internal proposals

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34. Which of the following is an important part of persuading readers of a proposal that you can complete the proposed work successfully?

A) You must show readers that you understand how to submit the proposal.

B) You must show readers that you sympathize with their frustrations.

C) You must show readers that you are enthusiastic.

D) You must show readers that they can trust you to do a good job.

35. What are the main categories of resources required to complete a proposed project?

A) personnel, potential, and qualifications B) personnel, facilities, and equipment C) qualifications and experience D) personnel, budget, and tangential resources

36. Which of these is NOT a common deliverable at the end of a research project?

A) completion report B) progress report C) recommendation report D) project report

37. You are writing an internal proposal advocating that your company purchase a new ticket-tracking system, called Tick-Track, for the company's information-technology help desk. Which of the following is the best point to make in the introduction of your proposal?

A) Tick-Track is made by a company that was just bought by Google.

B) Tick-Track is designed to take advantage of the latest developments in database-search technology.

C) You estimate that the response delays caused by your company's current ticket-tracking system are costing the company $1,000 per day in lost productivity.

D) Tick-Track is a web-based system.

38. In which of the following situations would a school district be likely to issue a request for quotation (RFQ)?

A) The school district needs to purchase 30 iPad tablet computers for an elementary school.

B) The school district needs landscaping for the new district headquarters building.

C) The school district needs someone to provide training for more than 1,000 teachers on developing curricula to meet Common Core standards.

D) The school district needs to refurbish an older building and bring it in line with current building codes.

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39. Which of the following is NOT an example of a quality-control measure?

A) a formative evaluation conducted by members of the project team B) a performance test conducted by a third party C) a list of all the heavy equipment used in a construction project D) an on-site evaluation conducted by the customer

40. In which situation might you present your proposal as a memo?

A) when your proposal is lengthy—more than 10 pages B) when your audience is external C) when your audience is internal D) when the scope of the project is large

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. B 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. B 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. C 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. D 30. D 31. D 32. A 33. C 34. D 35. B 36. B 37. C 38. A 39. C 40. C

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. According to Chapter 17, what is the common goal of all informational reports?

2. What are the five basic formats for informational reports discussed in Chapter 17?

3. According to Chapter 17, what is the primary purpose of a directive?

4. According to Chapter 17, what does an incident report describe?

5. According to Chapter 17, what is the primary purpose of a field report?

6. Identify three of the issues you should be sure to address in a field report.

7. According to Chapter 17, what are the two organizational patterns frequently used in progress reports?

8. How can you ensure that readers can easily find any appendixes you create for a report?

9. What course of action should you take if you find that you will not be able to meet your original deadline for delivery of a report?

10. What is another name for a status report?

11. For routine reports, you can sometimes use sections of previous reports or boilerplate.

A) True B) False

12. A directive should include the reasoning behind a new policy or procedure so that readers will be persuaded that the new policy or procedure is desirable or at least necessary.

A) True B) False

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13. A status report is usually organized according to task.

A) True B) False

14. A directive is an informational document, not a persuasive one.

A) True B) False

15. Whether you have good news or bad news to share, it is important to use a professional, measured tone in an informational report.

A) True B) False

16. It is appropriate to use a defensive tone in an informational report if something has not happened according to plan.

A) True B) False

17. It is not appropriate to add appendixes to informational reports.

A) True B) False

18. In writing a set of meeting minutes, you should interpret the events of the meeting for your readers.

A) True B) False

19. If an argument arises during a meeting, the person taking minutes should record both the argument and its outcome in order to ensure comprehensiveness.

A) True B) False

20. The primary purpose of a directive is to direct the reader to additional sources of information.

A) True B) False

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21. If you are writing an informational report for a nontechnical audience, which of the following options is a good strategy?

A) Leave out difficult concepts.

B) Keep the number of pages in the report to a minimum.

C) Define any important terms that might be unfamiliar to the audience.

D) Incorporate many graphics to entertain the audience.

22. What is the difference between a progress report and a status report?

A) There is no difference.

B) A progress report communicates the current status of an ongoing project, whereas a status report is an update on the entire range of operations of a department or division of an organization.

C) A status report communicates the current status of an ongoing project, whereas a progress report is an update on the entire range of operations of a department or division of an organization.

D) A progress report is written for readers outside of the originating organization, whereas a status report is written for readers within the organization.

23. Chapter 17 notes that, in writing meeting minutes, you should be comprehensive and clear. According to the chapter, what else should you do?

A) Be objective and diplomatic.

B) Record emotional exchanges between participants.

C) Record the details of any disagreements.

D) Create a planning document for use in preparing for the group's next meeting.

24. You are writing a progress report about a project that is going poorly. According to Chapter 17, what should you do?

A) Report on the positive aspects of your progress and save the bad news for the completion report at the end of the project.

B) Ask for more time to complete the project.

C) Explain objectively what has happened and how the overall project will be affected.

D) Defend your work on the project and explain who is to blame for the problems.

25. According to Chapter 17, which two of the following organizational patterns are frequently used in progress reports?

A) spatial pattern and cause-and-effect pattern B) time pattern and task pattern C) cause-and-effect pattern and progression pattern D) progression pattern and time pattern

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26. You are a floor supervisor at a manufacturing company. Yesterday, an important piece of equipment failed, stopping production for a full day. You need to explain to the company owners what happened. What kind of report will you write?

A) a directive B) a field report C) a status report D) an incident report

27. Which of these is NOT a typical field report as described by Chapter 17?

A) a report on a visit to a potential building site for a client's office B) a report on maintenance performed on a broken piece of machinery in a shop C) a report on an inspection conducted at a customer's site D) a report on an experiment conducted in your company's laboratory

28. After a minor accident at the laboratory where you work, your manager has decided to institute some new safety procedures. She asks you to write a memo to employees explaining the new procedures. What kind of informational report is she asking you to write?

A) a directive B) a lab report C) an incident report D) a field report

29. In which of the following kinds of reports are you most likely to use graphics extensively?

A) a status report B) meeting minutes C) an incident report D) a directive

30. A writer in the research division of Radworth Pharmaceutical, Inc. is preparing a monthly progress report on the development of a new drug. What is the best way to organize the body of the report?

A) by time B) from most important to least important accomplishments C) by task D) based on the budget allocated for the project

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31. You have been sent by your employer, Madison Construction Company, to a regional conference dealing with ways to improve communication between management and workers in the field. Which of the following would NOT be an acceptable way to submit an informational report on your trip?

A) discussing the trip in your next status report B) issuing a directive C) writing a one-page memo reporting on your trip D) filling out the company's standardized trip form

32. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A) Progress reports are similar to, but not identical to, status reports.

B) Correctly written meeting minutes record everything that occurs at the meeting.

C) Field reports may conclude with suggestions for future action.

D) Incident reports are appropriate for describing accidents that occur in the workplace.

33. According to Chapter 17, field reports ―explain problems, methods, results, and conclusions, but they deemphasize methods and can include recommendations.‖ What does it mean to deemphasize methods?

A) Spend less effort describing how you did the field study and more effort reporting what you learned from it.

B) Write fewer words describing how you did the field study and what you learned from it.

C) Always make sure that your methods section is not the first section.

D) Describe the methods but explain that they are not important.

34. You are an independent contractor. The due date for your current project falls right after your vacation, which means you are going to miss a deadline to deliver some of the work to your client. Which of the following statements in a progress report sent before your deadline is most ethical?

A) I anticipate meeting the deadline.

B) Against my protestations, the project manager pressured me to accept an overly aggressive schedule.

C) I did not realize how much my vacation would affect my final tasks on this project.

I might need 1–2 extra days to complete everything.

D) I have never missed a deadline with a client.

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35. According to Chapter 17, which of the following is NOT a typical informational report?

A) an incident report about the response of your company's security team to an unauthorized visitor on your property B) a proposal to study why a piece of your company's machinery failed at a customer's site C) a directive about where employees should park while a construction crew will be blocking some parking spaces D) meeting minutes recording decisions reached during a committee meeting 36. According to Chapter 17, you should be ―clear, comprehensive, objective, and diplomatic‖ when writing meeting minutes. Which two of these ideal goals have the greatest potential to conflict with each other?

A) clarity and comprehensiveness B) comprehensiveness and objectivity C) objectivity and diplomacy D) comprehensiveness and diplomacy

37. In general, why would someone need to write an incident report?

A) Readers have followed the guidelines established in a recent directive.

B) Something unexpected happened, and the results are good news.

C) Work on a project has been completed.

D) Something unexpected happened, and the results are bad news.

38. According to Chapter 17, which of the options below is NOT an advantage of using a commercial template to record meeting minutes?

A) The note taker can enter the notes directly into his or her computer rather than typing up written notes afterward.

B) The template prompts the note taker to enter information he or she might otherwise overlook.

C) The template automatically distributes the minutes to all meeting attendees.

D) Because the template is a table, readers quickly become accustomed to reading it and locating the information they need.

39. Which of these is NOT an important question to answer when writing an incident report?

A) What happened?

B) Whose camera recorded the incident?

C) Why did the incident happen?

D) What should be done in response to this incident?

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40. Chapter 17 discusses three common problems that you might need to explain in a progress report. Which of the following is NOT one of those common problems?

A) You won't meet the budget.

B) You won't meet your schedule.

C) The deliverable won't be what you thought it would be.

D) Key personnel have left the project.

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. A 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. B 19. B 20. B 21. C 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. B 26. D 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. C 31. B 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. C 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. D

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. A feasibility report is an argument that answers three kinds of questions. One kind is questions that concern possibility. What is one other kind of question?

2. What three decisions do you need to explain in the discussion or footnotes that accompany a decision matrix?

3. What fundamental question does the results section of a recommendation report answer?

4. What fundamental question does the conclusions section of a recommendation report answer?

5. What fundamental question does the recommendations section of a recommendation report answer?

6. The back matter section of a recommendation report serves two primary purposes.

Identify one.

7. In what order should definitions relevant to a report be presented in a glossary?

8. If your report presents multiple recommendations, how should you consider presenting them?

9. In a decision matrix, which factor demonstrates a criterion's importance?

10. Into what two categories can criteria be classified?

11. The introduction to a recommendation report should never mention your recommendations; only the recommendations section should inform the reader of your recommendations.

A) True B) False

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12. In the results section of a recommendation report, you should interpret or comment on the data you have compiled.

A) True B) False

13. According to Chapter 18, the conclusions section of a typical recommendation report provides a summary of the report.

A) True B) False

14. In the recommendations section of a recommendation report, you should avoid recommending that the organization take no action or no action at this time.

A) True B) False

15. According to Chapter 18, the methods section of a recommendation report answers the question "What did you do?"

A) True B) False

16. According to Chapter 18, the results section of a recommendation report answers the question ―What did you see?‖ A) True B) False

17. According to Chapter 18, decision criteria fall into two categories: necessary and imperative.

A) True B) False

18. According to Chapter 18, you must establish your decision criteria before you determine your options for addressing the problem.

A) True B) False

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19. According to Chapter 18, a report does not need a letter of transmittal if the writer and the reader work in the same organization.

A) True B) False

20. You should always avoid recommending a course of action that is inconsistent with the conclusions you derived.

A) True B) False

21. What is the name for a table or spreadsheet used to systematically evaluate options according to specific criteria?

A) problem-solving model B) recommendation generator C) decision matrix D) flowchart

22. Which of these would be included in the front matter for a report?

A) the introduction B) the glossary C) the executive summary D) the recommendations

23. According to Chapter 18, which of the following is NOT an acceptable way to present your conclusions in a recommendation report?

A) Rank all of the options.

B) Refer the reader to an appendix.

C) Present a compound conclusion.

D) Classify the options as either acceptable or unacceptable.

24. Which of these is an example of documentation in a report?

A) a citation for an article that gave you information for the report B) a title for a table you created C) a list of symbols you use throughout the report D) an appendix

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25. The R&D division of Nickelburg Steel has just completed testing to determine the best high-strength, low-alloy steel to use for future projects. Of the five steel samples, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, steel samples A and B amply satisfied the minimum requirements, samples C and D were just barely acceptable, and sample E failed the tests. Which of the following should appear in the recommendation section of the formal report to the CEO? A) We conclude that samples A and B should be used to fill all future orders.

B) We are confident that the following recommendations will correct the failures of the procedures already developed by the company: 1. Samples A and B should be used to fill all future orders.

2. Samples C and D should be used only if A and B are out of stock.

3. Sample E should not be used.

C) We recommend that samples A and B be used to fill all future orders, C and D be used only if A and B are out of stock, and E be rejected.

D) We recommend the following actions: 1. Use samples A and B to fill all future orders.

2. Use samples C and D only if A and B are out of stock.

3. Do not use sample E.

26. Which of the following questions would be answered in a feasibility report?

A) Which university has the most prestigious business school?

B) Which truck has more of the options we want, the Ford or the Chevrolet?

C) Is it ethical to pursue this course of action?

D) Is it practical to pursue this course of action?

27. The results section of a recommendation report is most likely to contain which of the following kinds of information?

A) analyses B) data C) suggestions D) summaries

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28. A consulting company hired by Best Builders has just completed a study to determine the best fencing for a condominium complex Best Builders will construct. The technical writer preparing a recommendation report based on the feasibility study has compiled the following information to be used in the report: Because the complex will be located in an environmentally sensitive area, the fence must visually enhance the property while blending in with its surroundings, yet at the same time adding a measure of safety. In order to keep monthly condominium dues as low as possible, the fence must not require a high degree of maintenance. Its minimum life should be 25 years, and it should cost under $70,000.

The options researched were stone, vinyl, vinyl-coated iron, and wood.

Both types of vinyl fencing will last up to 25 years, stone up to 50 years, and wood up to 15 years. Wood fencing must be painted or stained periodically. Maintenance for vinyl and stone fencing consists of occasionally washing with water. Based on two bids for each type of fencing, all types fall within the maximum allowable cost. Wood was cheapest, followed closely by vinyl. Stone and vinyl-coated iron were the most expensive.

We think the best course of action is to have a stone wall built by Masonry Builders, Inc., to enclose the new condominium complex.

What additional information is needed for the recommendation report?

A) recommendations for each type of fencing B) conclusions about each option studied C) a budget D) a task schedule

29. The air-conditioning system of Marcus Department Store has not been adequately cooling the store's first-floor office pod. At this point, the problem is not serious because three large shade trees overhang this portion of the building and ceiling fans provide air circulation. Although slumping sales prohibit any large expenditures at this time, the store's owner still wants to determine the reasons for the cooling failure. Consequently, his staff should conduct a study that will result in which of the following?

A) a proposal B) an informational report C) a recommendation report D) an incident report

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30. The excerpt below is the beginning of the results section of a recommendation report about exercise equipment for a new fitness center. What is wrong with the excerpt?

Results In this section, we describe our research into the best exercise equipment for your new fitness center. We consulted Consumer Reports and Health Fitness and interviewed Dr. Hilda Candlish, exercise physiologist, to evaluate the type and quality of equipment that best meets your needs.

Treadmills Treadmills are essential equipment for your fitness center, especially with the limited number of outdoor running trails available in your neighborhood. Johnsung Cardio Trainer, TreadTrainer SJ928, and the Pacer Elite 1100 are the most popular models (―Treadmills,‖ Consumer, p. 102). Studies have shown these models to be the most effective for cardio health (Candlish). We also researched the ProTread 44 and Precision Treader models 24 and 28. We found that the SJ928 had the best overall performance ratings (―Treadmills,‖ Consumer, p. 103) and is priced very competitively locally (Sportshoppe, GymTastic). We conclude that your center should purchase a dozen of these treadmills for zone C of our floor diagram, shown below.

Stationary Bicycles Both types of stationary bicycles, recumbent and upright, should be available at every fitness center (Candlish). Though the TrueFitness 356 has the best fitness rating (Health), it has received low ratings for durability and reliability (―Latest,‖ Consumer), and . . .

A) Conclusions should not be integrated into the results section.

B) The advance organizer is not needed because each section begins with a subhead.

C) Because this is a recommendation report, text citations are not needed.

D) Task lists describing the methodology used should introduce each section.

31. Jan is a technical writer for Endco, Inc., a company that has just completed a study to determine whether to convert to a more advanced type of server software. Jan is now compiling information for a report that will document the study and will be presented to Endco's CEO, budget director, and operations manager. Jan made a table showing the pros and cons of each of the three brands of software under consideration, along with costs. And Endco's Computer Services director gave Jan his conclusions about each brand and suggestions for what the company ought to do next. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Jan should prepare an informational report.

B) Jan's report should include a description of the problems that initiated the study.

C) Jan's report should not include the Computer Services director's recommendations because the CEO is the final decision maker.

D) Jan's report should not include the table about software because her most important readers are not knowledgeable about server software.

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32. The essential questions answered in the introduction of a recommendation report are similar to those answered in the introduction to what other kind of document?

A) a proposal B) an incident report C) meeting minutes D) a job-application letter

33. What is the difference between the conclusions section and the recommendations section of a report?

A) The two sections are interchangeable.

B) Conclusions explain what the collected data mean, whereas recommendations list specific actions to take.

C) Recommendations explain what the collected data mean, whereas conclusions list specific actions to take.

D) Conclusions are directed toward your internal audience, whereas recommendations are directed toward your external audience.

34. You are writing a recommendation report about how to improve the quality of your hotel's customer service. You believe that an online employee training system called Star Service would be helpful. Employees would log on to Star Service for 15 minutes every two weeks to watch videos and answer quiz questions. Where in your report should you mention your recommendation to purchase access to Star Service?

A) in the executive summary B) in an appendix C) in the back matter D) in the results sections

35. You are writing a recommendation report on which vendor of audiovisual services to hire for your company's annual conference. The three vendors you considered are Adams, MicMasters, and Zenith. You concluded that Zenith was by far the best option, followed by Adams and then MicMasters, both of which were barely satisfactory.

However, you have just learned that the top two managers at Zenith, with whom you met, have left the company. The personal service provided by these managers was a big factor in your positive assessment of the company. What recommendation should you make now?

A) Recommend Zenith anyway.

B) Recommend the next best company, Adams.

C) Recommend postponing a decision until you know more about the new management at Zenith.

D) Recommend starting over on the report.

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36. Which of the following recommendation statements is NOT effective?

A) NerveCenter software shows excellent potential for helping us increase our productivity.

B) We should buy NerveCenter software because other companies have successfully used it to address problems similar to ours.

C) We should buy NerveCenter software to address our productivity problem.

D) We should buy new software to fix our productivity problem.

37. Which of these is a limitation of a decision matrix?

A) It is less effective with decision criteria that are primarily qualitative and not quantitative.

B) It is less effective with decision criteria that are primarily quantitative and not qualitative.

C) Some readers may resist the bottom-line presentation of scores.

D) None of the responses are correct.

38. What is the term for a report section that functions as a brief condensation of the report addressed to managers?

A) letter of transmittal B) executive summary C) abstract D) logic tree

39. Which is NOT a function of back matter in a report?

A) to provide information that elaborates on details in the body of the report B) to help readers know where to go for additional information C) to give readers answers to questions that the body of the report does not cover D) to provide a brief technical summary of the report

40. What is the purpose of providing front matter in a report?

A) to help readers understand the whole report and find the information they seek B) to give readers answers to questions that the body of the report does not cover C) to help readers know what sources to consult for additional information D) to give readers detailed information about the data you compiled

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. B 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. C 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. D 26. D 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. B 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. C 36. D 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. A

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. According to Chapter 19, most lab reports consist of eight basic elements. One is the introduction. What are two other elements found in most lab reports?

2. Chapter 19 provides four guidelines for including equations in a lab report. One is to use an equation editor or write the equations by hand. What are the other three guidelines?

3. In the context of a lab report, what does replicability mean?

4. The acknowledgments section of a lab report is typically used to identify and thank people who have assisted the author during a study or in preparing the report. What is another typical use of the acknowledgments section?

5. What are author guidelines?

6. Which of the procedures you performed should you mention in the "Materials and Methods" section of your report?

7. Why do scientists have a strong tradition of using the passive voice in lab reports?

8. How familiar should you assume your audience will be with the particulars of your experiment?

9. What does prepublication permit an author to do and what is it designed to take advantage of?

10. Ideally, what will the title and abstract of a report help readers do?

11. A written lab report is the primary evidence on which your audience will judge your credibility and skills as a researcher.

A) True B) False

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12. Scientific research does not entail persuasive writing; providing the facts established in an experiment is sufficient.

A) True B) False

13. You should write the sections of a lab report in the order in which they will appear in the report.

A) True B) False

14. Although a lab report is organized as a single cohesive argument, most readers probably will not read it in a linear fashion, from start to finish.

A) True B) False

15. In describing your methods, you might include a picture of the equipment in your lab as you used it.

A) True B) False

16. If you consulted a source during your research but you did not cite it, you should leave the source out of your references list.

A) True B) False

17. Science and engineering journals usually instruct authors to use the Modern Language Association (MLA) style guide.

A) True B) False

18. The discussion portion of a lab report is also called an analysis.

A) True B) False

19. A descriptive abstract states the topics covered in the lab report but doesn't present important results or conclusions.

A) True B) False

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20. The discussion section of a lab report is the appropriate section in which to interpret or explain your findings to readers.

A) True B) False

21. Your methods should be detailed enough that another researcher could perform the same experiment using the same materials and methods. What term describes this goal?

A) iteration B) redundancy C) redaction D) replicability

22. How should you present your data in the results section?

A) in text only B) in graphics only C) in a mix of text and graphics appropriate for your audience D) in a table only

23. Which of the following is NOT one of the questions readers of abstracts typically ask?

A) What questions motivated your study?

B) What answers did you discover?

C) What are the implications of your findings?

D) How much did your equipment cost?

24. Which section should include a concise review of previous research relevant to your study?

A) introduction B) methods and materials C) discussion D) appendix

25. Which of these guidelines should you NOT follow when writing conclusions?

A) Review the purpose of your lab and the hypothesis (or hypotheses) you tested.

B) Summarize the most important implications of your findings.

C) Do not introduce any new information or analysis in this section.

D) Introduce new information and analysis to support your conclusions.

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26. According to Chapter 19, which of these is NOT an element common to most lab reports?

A) task schedule B) title C) discussion D) conclusion

27. According to Chapter 19, what is the process of peer review?

A) Professionals evaluate inconsistent data to achieve a breakthrough in understanding.

B) Qualified professionals test the replicability of an experiment before publishing an article about it.

C) Qualified professionals review and comment on an article before it is published in a professional or academic journal.

D) A third party reviews the qualifications of the people in a laboratory before recommending that others use its services.

28. According to Chapter 19, where should you write about research data that are atypical or problematic in some way?

A) in the discussion section B) in the results section C) in an appendix D) in the acknowledgments

29. According to Chapter 19, what affects the persuasiveness of the evidence you present to your readers?

A) the quantity of your evidence; more is better B) the quantity of your words C) the way you present your evidence D) the way you describe your materials and methods

30. Which of the following tasks is NOT one that the introduction to a lab report should accomplish?

A) Describe the hypothesis or question that your study attempted to answer and why this hypothesis or question is important.

B) Provide an extensive, detailed review of previous research relevant to your study.

C) Briefly describe the methods you used to find an answer to your research question.

D) Define the important terms and present the theoretical background concepts you expect your readers will need to know.

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31. Which of the following statements about lab reports is NOT correct?

A) A lab report is a carefully crafted argument meant to persuade an audience to accept your findings and conclusions.

B) Supporting evidence is often presented with a combination of graphics and text.

C) The most effective way to write a lab report is to write it in sequence, beginning with the introduction.

D) In organizing the discussion of your data, you should begin by presenting the most important findings.

32. The references section of a lab report should contain which of the following?

A) references for all of the sources you consulted, whether or not you cited them in the report B) references for only the sources you cited in the report C) references for only the sources you cited in the body of the report D) references for the sources you cited as well as other sources you want to recommend to readers

33. Why is it important to follow a standard pattern when writing a lab report?

A) The pattern is built into many available templates.

B) The pattern allots space for acknowledgment of peer reviewers.

C) The pattern reflects the scientific method used by other scientists and engineers.

D) The pattern has major sections in alphabetical order.

34. Which of the following is the LEAST effective title for a lab report or scientific article?

A) Three-dimensional Imaging of Enzymes B) Intensification in the Activity of Lipase Enzyme Using Ultrasonic Irradiation and Stability Studies C) Immunoassays of Fungal Laccases for Screening of Natural Enzymes and Control of Recombinant Enzyme Production D) Evaluation of Butyrate-induced Production of a Mannose-6-phosphorylated Therapeutic Enzyme Using Parallel Bioreactors

35. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a descriptive abstract?

A) It contains a list of topics covered in the report.

B) It does not include the important results of the study.

C) It does not include the conclusions of the study.

D) It includes important results and conclusions of the study.

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36. Which part of a lab report or a scientific report might be distributed more widely than the report itself?

A) the introduction B) the discussion C) the abstract D) the acknowledgments

37. How does writing articles based on lab research differ from writing lab reports in an academic class?

A) Academic audiences and professional audiences are similar, so there is no difference.

B) Class work is seen by one or a few instructors, but professional work is often seen by a larger audience of professional peers.

C) Academic work focuses on generating new knowledge in a field, while professional writing focuses on demonstrating existing knowledge in a field.

D) Although professional work is often published for the use of large audiences, the standards for punctuation and spelling are more relaxed than those in academia.

38. Which of the following actions is unethical?

A) submission of relevant data B) emphasis of relevant data C) omission of uncited sources D) omission of relevant data

39. What is the function of an acknowledgments section in a lab report?

A) to provide information about sources you cited in your report B) to give credit to people who provided you with assistance or funding for your study C) to provide more detailed information about the equipment used in the study D) to acknowledge any additional data that did not fit with your conclusions

40. Which sentence is written in a style that is typical of lab reports?

A) Twenty samples were divided into two groups.

B) We tested twenty samples.

C) I tested twenty samples.

D) We divided the samples into two groups.

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. A 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. A 20. A 21. D 22. C 23. D 24. A 25. D 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. C 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. D 36. C 37. B 38. D 39. B 40. A

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. Chapter 20 lists three steps in writing definitions. One is analyzing the writing situation.

What are the other two steps?

2. How is the following definition flawed: "Booting a computer is when you turn it on"?

3. How is the following definition flawed: "In a bankruptcy action, a nonsecured debt is a debt that is not secured"?

4. What technique is used to clarify the term inflammable in the following definition: "An inflammable substance is not a substance that cannot catch fire; on the contrary, an inflammable substance catches fire quite easily‖?

5. What technique is used in the following definition: "RADAR originally stood for 'radio detection and ranging,' but these days it is rarely used as an acronym and instead appears as the noun radar"?

6. Placing definitions directly in the text is a common practice. According to Chapter 20, what are two other logical locations for definitions?

7. What are the three types of descriptions discussed in Chapter 20?

8. What are the four signal words commonly used to indicate the levels of seriousness in comments?

9. The introduction to a set of instructions should answer six questions, one of which is "Why should the reader carry out this task?" According to Chapter 20, what is one other question?

10. What is the function of a conventions section?

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11. Step-by-step instructions should be written in the imperative mood.

A) True B) False

12. A conventions section explains to readers how a manual uses typography to signify different kinds of information. One example is using the Courier typeface for text the reader is supposed to type.

A) True B) False

13. It is important to revise, edit, and proofread instructions to ensure that readers will be able to complete the task described safely.

A) True B) False

14. A set of instructions is a type of definition.

A) True B) False

15. Part of the challenge of deciding where to put a definition lies in the fact that a writer has several viable options.

A) True B) False

16. According to Chapter 20, many companies are uneasy about using instructional videos and so prefer to rely on printed documentation instead.

A) True B) False

17. According to Chapter 20, there is no absolute distinction between a set of instructions and a manual.

A) True B) False

18. According to Chapter 20, the safety of your company's products (and the effectiveness of your company's instructions) is a matter of contract law.

A) True B) False

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19. Descriptions are rarely incorporated into longer documents; instead, they usually appear as separate documents.

A) True B) False

20. The partitioning technique for creating an extended definition often appears in tandem with one or more other techniques.

A) True B) False

21. Which two types of organizational patterns are most commonly used for mechanism descriptions?

A) comparison and contrast and general to specific B) functional and spatial C) spatial and cause and effect D) chronological and functional

22. What is one common way of concluding a set of instructions?

A) with a summary of the steps in the process B) with a list of resources for additional information about the task C) with a review of warnings D) with a troubleshooting guide

23. According to Chapter 20, an effective process description fully describes which of the following?

A) glossary terms B) substeps C) subplots D) frames of reference

24. According to Chapter 20, what is an effective way to conclude a description?

A) with a restatement of key points from the introduction B) with a summary of major points and, in some cases, a brief description of how the parts or process steps work together C) with information on maintenance or troubleshooting D) with distinguishing characteristics

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25. According to Chapter 20, what is the primary way to indicate the nature and the scope of a description?

A) writing an effective title or section heading to precede the description B) using color cues and formatting changes C) describing the nature and scope in the introduction to the report D) creating a sentence definition that mentions the nature and the scope of the description

26. Which of the following is an effective sentence definition?

A) Cardiovascular exercise equipment is used by people to exercise their cardiovascular system.

B) A canteen is a clear Nalgene bottle used to hold liquids such as water, lemonade, soda, and sometimes hot beverages.

C) Velo binding is when two plastic strips are placed on either side of the document and bound together with heat.

D) Thermography is a printing process in which a special powder is added to the wet ink on the surface of the paper and then heated.

27. A writer is creating an employee handbook for assembly-line workers and their supervisors. One particular extended definition is approximately a page long. Where should the writer place this definition if it will be of interest to only the supervisors?

A) in a marginal gloss B) in a footnote C) in an appendix D) in the text

28. A writer wants to describe how screen printing works. Which of the following is NOT likely to appear in the process description?

A) a diagram illustrating the parts of the screen-printing machine B) a step-by-step guide to performing the process C) a sentence definition of screen printing D) a section heading or title indicating the nature and scope of the description

29. While reviewing a draft of a trip report discussing the importance of a presentation she attended, a writer decides that some readers may not know the meaning of one of the terms she included. Which of the following strategies should the writer use if she wants to clarify the term briefly and unobtrusively?

A) Include a parenthetical definition.

B) Define the term in an appendix.

C) Include an extended definition.

D) Include a sentence definition.

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30. A writer is drafting the conclusion of a lengthy process description explaining to consumers how a company's new voice-recognition product works. Which of the following elements would be LEAST appropriate for the conclusion?

A) a brief review of the uses of voice-recognition technology B) a sales message summarizing the benefits of the product C) a short summary of the principal steps in the process D) a brief discussion of the implications of the process

31. Read the following instruction steps for creating an automated index of web files. Then indicate which instruction steps are NOT effectively written.

1) Open Windows Explorer to c:\ program files\autoindex\ .

2) Copy the folders containing your web files to the folder named ―indexer.‖ If autoindex does not contain an indexer folder, you must reinstall the software. See the installation booklet.

3) Type the appropriate path—for instance, c:\ program files\autoindex\ indexer\ indexer.exe webfolder1, webfolder2, etc.

4) Indexer now has a folder called IndexSearch. The executable file, index.exe, may be run to view the searchable index of your web files.

A) steps 1 and 3 B) steps 2 and 3 C) steps 3 and 4 D) steps 2 and 4

32. To minimize product-liability lawsuits in the event of improper use of Phillips lawn mowers, which of the following instructions should the company's lead technical writer NOT give to the company's manual writer?

A) Repeat safety information if you think that the repetition will increase the probability of its being read.

B) If our company does not have an appropriate safety symbol, create your own text symbol through the use of highlighting, larger point size, and a text box.

C) For ease of use, place all safety information in the Introduction so that users can read through all of it at once before using the product. Then, in the instruction steps, merely cross-reference to the Introduction.

D) Do not choose safety labels arbitrarily.

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33. You are a technical writer for Landson Toy Company. Landson has just designed a new, more durable swing set for 6- to 10-year-olds. Which of the following should you include in the Introduction to the assembly guide for the swing set?

A) a list of the tools the user needs to assemble the swing set B) the reasons the user should carry out the instructions C) the safety precautions the user must take D) a list of parts included with the swing set for assembly

34. H&G Garden Supplies is revising its instruction booklet for assembling and installing its redwood garden arbor. The set contains two 6-foot trellises, two planter boxes, and a pair of adjustable arches. Which of the following should you NOT include in the back matter of the instruction booklet?

A) a troubleshooting guide B) instructions on how to order replacement parts C) warranty information D) safety information

35. Several organizations have guidelines and standards for communicating information about safety. Which of the following is NOT one of these organizations?

A) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) B) American National Standards Institute (ANSI) C) International Organization for Standardization (ISO) D) Institute of Safety Ordinances (ISO)

36. Which of the following is the most effective title for a section in a set of instructions on bicycle maintenance and repair?

A) Caliper Brake Shoe Yaw Angle Adjustment B) Adjusting the Yaw Angle of Caliper Brake Shoes C) Fixing Caliper Brake Shoes D) How-to Adjusting Brake Shoes Yaw Angle

37. You are writing a manual for a deep fryer designed for home cooks. Which statement would be appropriately set off with Note as a signal word?

A) Corn balls will be very hot when removed from the oil.

B) The fry zone is very hot when the power is on. To avoid serious burns, do not touch the fry zone while it is heated.

C) The fry basket can hold 4–6 small doughnuts at a time.

D) Do not attempt to fix the deep fryer while it is connected to a power source.

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38. Which of the critiques listed below applies to the following description of a process?

"Getting a College Degree" First, you must apply to schools you want to attend. Pick good schools to apply to.

Next, you must enroll at a college.

After you have enrolled, you must pick a degree program. Take every course you need.

After you take all of your courses, you will have a degree. Congratulations!

A) This description has an effective introduction.

B) This description lacks sufficient detail on substeps.

C) This description has an effective conclusion.

D) This description challenges readers to learn new vocabulary.

39. Which of the following provides the best conclusion to a set of instructions for children under age 10 on how to assemble a toy airplane?

A) Have fun!

B) --End Of Page-C) Have fun with your toy airplane, but be careful about how and where you send it off.

D) The propeller should turn as you roll the airplane's wheels. If the propeller does not turn, make sure the wheel axle is turning the gear on the motor.

40. Which of the following best describes the definition "A conjunctive adverb is an adverb that has a conjunctive function between two clauses"?

A) This is a simple, but effective, sentence definition.

B) This is a circular definition.

C) This sentence definition describes its item with clear distinguishing characteristics.

D) This is a stipulative definition.

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. A 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. D 23. B 24. B 25. A 26. D 27. C 28. B 29. A 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. D 36. B 37. C 38. B 39. C 40. B

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. What are the four types of oral presentations described in Chapter 21?

2. In an oral presentation, what is an advance organizer?

3. Chapter 21 suggests using three techniques to make your language memorable. One technique is to refer to people, not to abstractions. What is one other technique described in the chapter?

4. An effective graphic for an oral presentation has five characteristics. One is that it presents a clear, well-supported claim. What are two other characteristics mentioned in the chapter?

5. According to Chapter 21, there are four techniques for concluding a presentation. One is to look to the future. What is one other?

6. Chapter 21 lists a number of points to keep in mind if you become nervous before giving an oral presentation. One is to realize that you are prepared. What is one other mentioned in the chapter?

7. Inexperienced speakers encounter problems with five aspects of vocalizing. One aspect is volume. Name two other aspects of vocalizing that can be a source of problems.

8. Chapter 21 offers four suggestions for making your presentation more accessible to people with varying physical abilities. What are two of those suggestions?

9. In a question-and-answer session, what should you do if you are asked a question you do not understand?

10. What should you do if a belligerent audience member rejects your response during a question-and-answer session and insists on restating his or her point?

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11. One disadvantage of using handouts during a presentation is that your audience might read the handout instead of listening to you.

A) True B) False

12. If you are asked a question you do not understand during a question-and-answer session, you should first ask for clarification, then respond to the question, and then ask if you have answered the question adequately.

A) True B) False

13. According to Chapter 21, an effective 20-minute presentation could take 13 hours to prepare.

A) True B) False

14. To invite questions after your presentation, a simple "Any questions?" is appropriate.

A) True B) False

15. According to Chapter 21, it is better to plan ahead to say something funny or witty than to do so spontaneously.

A) True B) False

16. According to Chapter 21, audience members are more likely to remember what you say if you connect it to things that they can see, touch, or easily imagine.

A) True B) False

17. According to Chapter 21, you do not need to announce the end of your presentation.

Listeners can tell when you are ending.

A) True B) False

18. Usually, your audience is more aware of your nervousness than you are.

A) True B) False

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19. Because a presentation occurs only once, you must work harder than you do when writing a document to direct the audience's attention to what you say.

A) True B) False

20. One technique a presenter can use to make his or her language memorable is to involve the audience.

A) True B) False

21. According to Chapter 21, which of the following is NOT true of presentations created using the free version of the Prezi presentation tool?

A) Your presentations will be visible to all who visit the Prezi site, so you must be careful about the information you put in them.

B) You must connect to the Internet to show your presentations.

C) You must connect to the Internet to make changes to your presentations.

D) Your team members will not be able to collaborate on your slides from remote locations.

22. Chapter 21 lists a number of techniques for overcoming nervousness and releasing nervous energy before giving an oral presentation. One is to remind yourself that you are prepared. What is another technique mentioned in the chapter?

A) Jog rapidly in place for a few minutes.

B) Talk with someone for a few minutes.

C) Drink two or three 8-ounce glasses of water.

D) Focus your gaze on the far wall for the first few minutes of your presentation.

23. Which is NOT one of the four types of oral presentations described in Chapter 21?

A) contemporaneous presentations B) extemporaneous presentations C) scripted presentations D) memorized presentations

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24. What is an advance organizer?

A) a note card listing some of the major points of your presentation, prepared in advance as a memory aid B) a stress-relief exercise that you perform in the last few minutes before you begin to speak, to shake off some of the nervousness that you will probably experience C) an assistant or colleague who helps prepare the room to ensure that your audiovisual aids are working, the lighting and room temperature are appropriate, and sufficient seating is available for the audience D) a statement that tells the listener what you are about to say

25. Chapter 21 discusses four aspects of the speaking situation that you should take into account when planning the graphics you'll use in an oral presentation. Which of the following is NOT one of those four aspects?

A) audience aptitude and experience B) setting C) equipment D) formality of the presentation

26. According to Chapter 21, maintaining eye contact is one way to use your body effectively. Which of the following is NOT a good strategy?

A) Use natural gestures.

B) Control the audience's attention.

C) Avoid blocking the audience's view of the screen.

D) Pace back and forth to maintain the audience's interest.

27. Which of the following is NOT recommended in Chapter 21 as a tip for presenting to an audience that comes from a different culture and has a different native language?

A) Hire translators and interpreters if necessary.

B) Use graphics effectively to reinforce your points.

C) Be aware that gestures can have cultural meanings.

D) Anticipate that the audience will adapt quickly to your presentation style.

28. One of the suggestions in Chapter 21 for introducing your presentation is to introduce yourself. What is another suggestion from the chapter?

A) Have the audience read your title slide aloud.

B) Explain the purpose of the presentation.

C) Ask the audience for questions.

D) Tell the audience how many slides you will use.

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29. According to Chapter 21, where on a presentation slide should you place the claim you are making?

A) in the headline area at the top B) in the body of the slide C) in a graphic in the middle of the slide D) in the middle of the footer area

30. According to Chapter 21, how many times should you rehearse an extemporaneous presentation?

A) once B) twice C) three times D) none; let the moment make it truly extemporaneous

31. If you are presenting to nonnative speakers of English, which of the following should you do?

A) Survey your audience for the most commonly spoken languages and arrange for translations of your slides into those languages.

B) Offer to provide free translations of the slides to any interested audience members following the presentation.

C) Include, directly on your slides, brief translations of the most essential content in the most commonly spoken languages.

D) Use simple vocabulary and slow down the pace of your delivery.

32. Which of the following forms of delivery is best to use if a presenter must clearly communicate precise safety data?

A) impromptu B) extemporaneous C) scripted D) memorized

33. According to Chapter 21, what should you do to analyze the speaking situation for a presentation?

A) Analyze your audience and purpose and budget your time.

B) Choose the equipment you will use.

C) Begin creating your slides.

D) Do research on your topic.

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34. A manager has asked a colleague to deliver a 15-minute presentation explaining the latest test data at tomorrow's department meeting. Ideally, the colleague should do all except which of the following to prepare for this presentation?

A) Rehearse the presentation at least three times.

B) Visit the site of the presentation.

C) Prepare appropriate presentation graphics.

D) Memorize the presentation.

35. A presenter is preparing to deliver a presentation at an annual conference. Over 200 people are expected to attend this presentation. Which of the following is the LEAST effective technique for making a lasting impression on the audience?

A) Open with a joke.

B) Focus on the audience's interests.

C) Describe the topic in human terms.

D) Use specific numbers, dollars, or percentages.

36. Which of the following is an example of a nonfluency?

A) When you say ―rural juror,‖ the audience hears ―ruhr juhr.‖ B) When you get nervous, you say, ―And, um. . . .‖ C) You pronounce the word nuclear as ―nuke-you-lar.‖ D) The speech that took 10 minutes when you practiced it is over in 5 minutes.

37. According to Chapter 21, which statement about oral presentations is correct?

A) The audience and purpose will be basically the same for any oral presentation you give.

B) The audience for an oral presentation will be receptive to your message; otherwise, they will not attend.

C) You can always find a way to fit all of your ideas into the allotted time.

D) Some oral presentations call for both informing and persuading the audience.

38. Which statement accurately describes PowerPoint and Prezi, the presentation-slide programs mentioned in Chapter 21?

A) Prezi is organized as a network or web, while PowerPoint is linear.

B) PowerPoint is organized as a network or web, while Prezi is linear.

C) Both PowerPoint and Prezi allow you to arrange your images in a web with seamless transitions.

D) Both Prezi and PowerPoint require you to arrange graphics linearly.

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39. According to Chapter 21, what is one advantage of using a presentation template?

A) A template allows you to access your presentation on the Internet.

B) A template allows you to collaborate with team members on your presentation.

C) A template allows you to maintain a consistent look for your slides without having to design each one individually.

D) A template allows you to change the sequence of your slides each time you deliver the presentation.

40. Which of the following statements signals a transition?

A) My name is Susan Tratz, and I represent the Bureau of Environmental Quality.

B) In this presentation, I will discuss the causes of political gridlock as well as three potential solutions.

C) Now that we have discussed the symptoms of the disease, I would like to discuss its probable causes.

D) This system is much more expensive; therefore, it is not the best choice.

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Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. A 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. A 21. D 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. D 26. D 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. C 31. D 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. A 36. B 37. D 38. A 39. C 40. C

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