Test Bank For Managing Organisational Change Allan Ramdhony, Christoph Thiele

Test Bank For Managing Organisational Change Allan Ramdhony, Christoph Thiele Chapter 2-11

Multiple choice questions Chapter 2: The nature of change and role of change management 1. What is the role of philosophy in organisational change management? a. It enables change agents to analyse complex change situations. b. It helps maximise process efficiency. c. It is a key determinant of how change agents make sense of reality. d. It is a tool to effectively communicate strategic decisions.

Ans: C

2. Which statement best describes Heraclitus’ worldview? a. Nothing ever stands still and change is the only constant. b. Most things in life have a meaning. c. Nothing in the very nature of the world really changes and change itself is just an illusion. d. A phase of change is always followed by a phase of stagnation.

Ans: A

3. Which of the following is the least susceptible to change? a. The day-to-day routines and activities of an organisation. b. The core social values that define a social enterprise. c. An organisation’s IT platform. d. Customer preferences and behaviours.

Ans: B

4. Which of the following is an example of ‘external flows’ that can have a significant impact on organisational functioning? a. Disruptions and shockwaves in an organisation’s operating context. b. The flow of goods along an assembly line. c. Communication patterns between functional departments. d. The value-adding activities that underpin finished products.

Ans: A 5. Which of the statements below is associated with the common assumption that ‘change is the only constant’? a. Change agents have to battle the forces of change in an increasingly chaotic and unpredictable business context. b. Change agents have to learn how to live and let live. c. The on-going development of ICTs have brought about the Industrial Internet of Things. d. Change is not an end in itself but a lever for optimising organisational functioning.

Ans: C

6. Which one of the following statements best explains the basic meaning of organisational change? a. A deliberate move towards some desired state in an attempt to ensure the survival and growth of the organization. b. A simple and straightforward process that aims to transform an organisation. c. A necessary but impossible task. d. A major shift in an organisation’s external environment.

Ans: A

7. Which of the following is associated with operational change? a. An approach to change that involves long-range planning. b. A radical redesign of an organisation’s business model. c. Expanding business to new markets.

d. An attempt to improve the efficiency of business processes.

Ans: D

8. Which of the following is not a dichotomous conception of organisational change? a. Localised v. organisation-wide change. b. Localised v. regionalised change. c. Continuous v. discontinuous change. d. Evolutionary v. revolutionary change.

Ans: B

9. What are the main characteristics of transformational change? a. Low-intensity, localised and gradual. b. Rapid, prescribed and involving small-scale changes. c. High-intensity, organization-wide, radical and often irreversible. d. Broken down in smaller stages over a period of time.

Ans: C

10. Which of the following is a true statement according to the theory of punctuated equilibrium? a. Relatively long periods of low-intensity, incremental change punctuated by shorter, compact periods of high-intensity, transformational change. b. There are short periods of relative stability punctuated by longer bursts of disruptive and rapid change. c. Significant evolution occurs during long periods of relative stability. d. Significant evolution occurs when organisations have good leaders.

Ans: A

11. Which of the following does not account for an organisation’s deep structures? a. Strategic goals and objectives. b. Structural arrangements and work patterns. c. Mode of governance and power distribution.

d. An organisation’s network of external partners.

Ans: D

12. What is the meaning of upward causation? a. When employees exert a causal influence on top management. b. When an organisation has a causal impact on its wider operating context. c. When external causal forces have a significant impact on the organisation’s strategy. d. When a complex web of causal forces impacts an organisation from above.

Ans: B

13. Which of the following is not a benefit of causal modelling? a. It can be used to map out significant causes underlying change initiatives. b. It can enable accurate predictions regarding the effectiveness of change leaders. c. It allows change agents to track emergent causal influences throughout the change process. d. It can be used to plot evidence-based courses of action.

Ans: B

14. What is the primary focus of organisational development (OD)? a. Optimisation of organisational well-being and performance. b. Successful completion of specific tasks. c. Monitoring the performance of individual employees. d. Ensuring that change interventions are broken down into clearly identifiable stages.

Ans: A

15. Which of the following statements about project management (PM) is true? a. PM is always an ongoing process. b. PM is the sole responsibility of top management. c. Primary focus of PM is on the timely and successful completion of specific tasks. d. PM needs to be led by external consultants.

Ans: C

Multiple choice questions Chapter 3: Strategic change 1. Which of the following statements is not true? a. Strategic change can involve different types of change. b. Strategic change is dependent upon a range of necessary resources. c. Strategic change is deployed to primarily achieve short-term goals. d. Strategic change is driven by a clear set of goals and objectives.

Ans: C

2. What is the meaning of change agency? a. The causal power and intentional action of change agents in generating certain desired outcomes. b. A consultancy firm specialising in change management. c. The prerogative of change agents. d. The power relations between change leaders and their followers.

Ans: A

3. Which of the following best describes determinism? a. Draws attention to how change agents determine what happens in their change context. b. Locks change agents in a rather passive and reactive mode of thought and behaviour. c. Posits that change agents are free and unrestrained in following chosen courses of action. d. Portrays change agents as having a leading role in shaping the external forces of change.

Ans: B

4. Which philosophical concept posits that people are free and unrestrained in their ability to make their own decisions and follow chosen courses of action? a. Positivism.

b. Determinism. c. Voluntarism. d. Constructionism.

Ans: C

5. What is a planned approach to strategic change? a. A holistic, rational and proactive way of dealing with strategic change. b. A way to effectively react to unanticipated changes in the external environment. c. An approach to change that is underpinned by a determinist outlook. d. A plan that is not fully formed before its actual implementation.

Ans: A

6. Which of the following describes an emergent approach to strategic change? a. The implementation of a fully formed strategic plan. b. A systematic process of diagnosis, forecasting, formulation, implementation and evaluation. c. An ability of change agents to predict future outcomes. d. An adaptive, ad hoc and reactive approach to strategic change.

Ans: D

7. Following Quinn, it is possible to navigate a middle course between planned and emergent change. Which one of the following concepts describes such an approach to strategic change? a. Determinism. b. Voluntarism. c. Logical incrementalism. d. Emergentism.

Ans: C

8. Which of the following is not included in Minztberg’s pattern of strategy formation and development?

a. Intended strategy. b. Emergent strategy. c. Unrealised strategy. d. Improvised strategy.

Ans: D

9. Which of the following is one of the defining features of strategic improvisation? a. Entails an agile and craft approach to strategic change in an increasingly unpredictable global business context. b. Places an emphasis on the ability of change leaders to drive change from the top. c. Underlines the need to constantly change business models to sustain competitive advantage. d. Involves the combination of multiple strategies as a key source of innovation.

Ans: A

10. What are the four key types of ambidextrous strategic change? a. Market development, product development, technological innovation and process optimisation. b. Separation, switching, self-organising and the ecosystem approach. c. Planned, emergent, realised and unrealised strategies. d. Strategic flexibility, vigilance, innovation and entrepreneurship.

Ans: B

11. What is a key determinant of quantum strategic change? a. Operating within the manufacturing industry. b. Developing an online business model. c. An ability of business organisations to harness technological innovations brought about by quantum technology. d. A change strategy developed by quantum physicists.

Ans: C

12. The PESTLE analysis is usually used in conjunction with another diagnostic tool. Which tool is it? a. The value chain. b. The SWOT analysis. c. The business incubator. d. The critical path analysis.

Ans: B

13. What is the primary purpose of a strategic change canvas? a. To map out the strategic implications of current business practices. b. To consolidate the strategic position of the organisation. c. To enable change leaders to map out and gain a panoramic understanding of the new change strategy. d. To identify key industry rivals and assess their impact on the organisation’s change strategy.

Ans: C

14. What does the acronym VUCA stand for? a. Value, Uniqueness, Competitiveness and Assets. b. Volatile, Uncertain, Complex and Ambiguous. c. Vision, Unanimity, Collaboration and Ambition. d. Viable, Useful, Creative and Affordable.

Ans: B

15. Which one of the following statements about a VUCA business world is not true? a. Promotes a view of strategic change as an agile, adaptive and emergent process. b. Calls for an in-depth understanding of the complex web of causal relationships that underpins organisational functioning and the changes situation as a whole. c. Warrants a systematic, command and control approach to change leadership. d. Requires a departure from traditional, top-down approaches to change leadership.

Ans: C

Multiple choice questions Chapter 4: Theories and models of change management 1. Which change theory locates the organisation within its wider environment? a. Systems theory. b. Process theory. c. Motivation theory. d. Leadership theory.

Ans: A 2. Which of the following change theories is underpinned by the idea that ‘the whole is greater than the sum of its parts’? a. Process theory. b. Motivation theory. c. Culture theory. d. Systems theory.

Ans: D

3. Why is field theory of central importance to organisational change? a. It enables an analysis of the driving and constraining forces of change. b. It employs visual tools and techniques. c. It focuses on the technological fields of organisational change. d. It is informed by multiple disciplines.

Ans: A

4. Which of the following statements about contingency theory is not true? a. Different change situations require different styles of change leadership. b. There is need to consider the multiple factors that can impact change initiatives. c. Sticking firmly to the plan throughout the change process is of paramount importance.

d. The approach to change has to be adaptive, open-ended and emergent.

Ans: C

5. Why is communication theory one of the building blocks of change modelling? a. It emphasises the importance of stakeholder feedback and open dialogue in reaching consensus and coordinating action towards the achievement of change goals and objectives. b. There is a growing body of literature on the subject. c. Effective communication serves to protect managerial interests. d. It allows change leaders to exert greater control over employees.

Ans: A

6. How can change leaders optimise the motivation of employees? a. By demonstrating their own motivation. b. By providing employees with a self-help motivational toolkit. c. By effectively addressing the different types and sources of motivation that relate to physiological, psychological, social and developmental needs of employees. d. By recruiting highly motivated individuals.

Ans: C

7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good change model? a. It has to be as simple as possible. b. It has to be as complex and detailed as possible. c. It has to represent reality as accurately as possible. d. It allows for sound causal explanations.

Ans: B

8. What is the correct sequence in Lewin’s 3-step model of change? a. Starting, moving, stopping. b. Unfreezing, changing, refreezing. c. Forming, storming, norming.

d. Planning, doing, reviewing.

Ans: B

9. Which step is not part of Kirkpatrick’s linear model of organisational change? a. Establishing a timetable. b. Analysing probable reactions. c. Implementing the change. d. Determining the status quo.

Ans: D

10. What is a key strength of Weisbord’s six-box model of organisational change? a. Integrating the strategic, structural, technological, relational and motivational dimensions of change. b. Explaining causality. c. Allowing for deep systemic understanding. d. Facilitating quick wins.

Ans: A

11. Which statement about Kotter’s integrative model of organisational dynamics is correct? a. Organisations are viewed as closed systems with interconnected parts. b. The centrepiece of the model is people. c. It is two-dimensional and linear. d. It emphasises the interconnectedness of an organisation’s sub-systems and the combined effects on change outputs.

Ans: D

12. Which model makes good use of practical bottom-line questions to frame organisational change? a. Kotter’s 8-step checklist for leading change. b. Weisbord’s six-box model of organisational change. c. Kirkpatrick’s linear model of organisaional change.

d. Burke-Litwin’s causal model of organisational change and performance.

Ans: B

13. Which of the following statements about Burke-Litwin’s model is correct? a. The model enables the development of a rich ‘causal complex’ that underlies the transformation of change inputs into desirable outputs. b. The model enables change agents to make precise predictions. c. The model draws no distinction between transactional and transformational change variables. d. The model does not allow for a ‘level-of-analysis’ approach to strategic change.

Ans: A

14. What are the key transformational factors identified in the Burke-Litwin model? a. Tasks and individual roles. d. Structures and management practices. c. Mission and strategy, leadership and organisational culture. d. Systems and work unit climate.

Ans: C 15. Why are systemic models seen as being of ‘superior value’? a. They are holistic, context-sensitive, multi-dimensional, action-oriented and have high explanatory power. b. They provide step-by-step guidance on how to effectively implement change. c. They can be applied to any change situation. d. They are best suited to technological innovations.

Ans: A

Multiple choice questions

Chapter 5: Reactions to change 1. What are the key characteristics of people who are change-ready? a. They tend to embrace new and different things. b. They are naturally resistant to change. c. They do not like to step out of their comfort zone. d. They tend to shun away from everything that challenges them.

Ans: A

2. What are the three basic types of human reactions identified by Kirkpatrick? a. Anger, happiness and indifference. b. Positive, negative and mixed reactions to change. c. Resistance, revolt and responsiveness. d. Positive, negative and neutral reactions to change.

Ans: B

3. In what way can Kirkpatrick’s typology of human reactions to change be used as a sensitising tool? a. It can be used to gauge the reactions of employees at individual, group and organisational levels. b. It enables change managers to exercise total control over employees. c. It can be used to drive top management’s interest throughout the change process. d. It can be used to eliminate negative employee reactions to change.

Ans: A

4. What are the key stages of the coping cycle? a. Disengagement, engagement and performance. b. Experimentation, knowledge sharing and organisational learning. c. Denial, defence, discarding, adaptation and internalisation. d. Psychological, social and cultural.

Ans: C

5. Which stage of the coping cycle can entail various reactions such as indifference, anger and depression? a. Adaptation. b. Denial. c. Discarding. d. Defence.

Ans: D

6. Which of the following statements about the coping cycle is not true? a. The coping cycle charts the psychological responses an individual typically displays when experiencing change. b. The discarding stage of the coping cycle involves a tension between the past, the present and the future. c. The internalisation stage involves a process of letting go of the past and accepting the present. d. In the denial stage, a person can consciously ignore what is happening in their immediate external environment and pretend that it is of little or no consequence to them.

Ans: C

7. Which of the following best describes passive resistance to change? a. When employees express their opposition to change. b. When employees discreetly resist change. c. When employees withdraw and mentally pull out from the work environment. d. When employees display aggressive behaviours.

Ans: C

8. What is the meaning of adaptive resistance to change? a. A subtle form of active resistance to change. b. When employees make deliberate errors and resort to go-slow tactics. c. When employees voice out their opinions openly.

d. When employees do not fully embrace change and do ‘just enough’ to avoid repercussions.

Ans: D

9. When can resistance prove to be beneficial to change initiatives? a. When it is led by senior managers. b. When it is founded on rational and legitimate concerns. c. When it does not directly impact on the profitability of the company. d. When it reflects the interests of top management and other dominant stakeholder groups.

Ans: B

10. According to Paton and McCalman, why is resistance something that can never be completely suppressed? a. Because a lack of trust between change stakeholders is inevitable. b. Because, unlike managers, low-level employees do not have the ability to think strategically. c. Because of the fear of the unknown and people are naturally apprehensive of the uncertainties of change. d. Because change always results in a culture shock.

Ans: C

11. What are background conversations? a. Conversations between change leaders to figure out how to best implement the change initiative. b. The different narratives of change that can create and sustain different types of resistance to change. c. A form of free dialogue to help employees cope with change. d. Conversations that provide the background for transformational change.

Ans: B

12. Which of the following sentences describe background conversations for complacency?

a. This type of background conversation uses past accomplishments as an excuse to downplay the importance of change. b. This type of background conversation provides the justification for resisting change on the basis that it will inevitably end up badly. c. This type of conversation relates to employees’ doubt about the real motives of change agents as demonstrated by past behaviours. d. This type of conversation is associated with negative feelings such as discouragement, low self-esteem and apathy.

Ans: A

13. What is the value of a social systemic conception of resistance to change? a. It provides explicit guidance on how change agents can socialise with employees to avoid collective forms of resistance to change. b. It allows for a deeper understanding of the tensions between individual and collective forms of resistance and their compound effect on the change process. c. It shows how resistance is a function of employee participation and collaboration. d. It is a powerful reminder of how resistance to change is inevitable and unmanageable.

Ans: B

14. Which of the following conditions does not account for a dialogic approach to managing resistance to change? a. A suspension of inequality in power relations. b. A freezing of taken-for-granted assumptions. c. A fixation on overcoming all forms of resistance to change. d. A willingness to give a voice to all participants-in-dialogue.

Ans: C

15. Which of the following best describes a psychologically safe and socially empowering dialogic space? a. The elimination of negative background conversations around the proposed change. b. Mandatory training focused on how to achieve the new strategic goals and objectives.

c. The provision of counselling services to ease the redundancy process. d. The provision of an on-going support mechanism to build change readiness and commitment to change.

Ans: D

Multiple choice questions Chapter 6: Culture change 1. Which of the following is true about culture as a complex and multidimensional concept? a. Culture consists of four complex dimensions. b. Culture is beyond human understanding. c. The concept of culture carries many meanings and connotations. d. Alternative definitions of culture contribute to its elusive and ambiguous nature.

Ans: C

2. Which of the following is one of the key roles of metaphors in the context of change? a. Communicate with external stakeholders. b. Make sense of reality and justify particular beliefs, decisions and behaviours. c. Identify deep-seated causal relationships. d. Provide a framework for technological innovation.

Ans: B

3. Which of the following is a key insight generated by the metaphor of culture as a river? a. Culture remains stagnant and unchanging over time. b. Culture is a fixed and rigid system of ideas and beliefs and assumptions that restricts individuality. c. Culture is in a constant state of flux, evolving and always changing. d. Culture is like a mountain with deep-rooted traditions that never change.

Ans: C

4. Which of the following is not associated with the metaphor of culture as a software operating system? a. Culture is reflected in the stated beliefs, values and mission of the organisation. b. Culture can be used to programme the minds and behaviours of organisational members. c. Culture can be turned into an oppressive tool of mind control. d. Culture is an outdated concept that no longer has relevance in modern organisations.

Ans: D

5. Which metaphor best describes culture as mostly invisible and inaccessible through surface understanding? a. Culture is as an iceberg. b. Culture as traffic signs. c. Culture as a river. d. Culture as a software operating system.

Ans: A

6. What do artefacts refer to in Schein’s layers of organisational culture? a. Mostly pre-conscious elements such as perceptions, feelings and philosophies. b. Partially observable elements that need to be probed. c. Concrete and obvious elements such as company logos, dress codes and office layouts. d. Conscious principles and standards of behaviour such as integrity, commitment and diversity.

Ans: C 7. What is often referred to as ‘deep culture’ in the context of organisational change? a. Basic underlying assumptions that can have a significant impact on decision-making and action. b. Personal values that have a deep impact on other people. c. Inaccessible values that are bound to remain hidden. d. Unconscious feelings and experiences formed by past cultural habits.

Ans: A

8. What are the six overlapping and interrelated dimensions of Johnson and Scholes’ cultural web? a. Stories, symbols, power structures, organisational structures, control systems, routines and rituals. b. Stories, metaphors, power structures, organisational structures, managements systems, policies and procedures. c. Stories, symbols, industrial relations, management structures, control systems, routines and rituals. d. Legends, symbols, power plays, organisational dynamics, control systems, routines and rituals.

Ans: A

9. What are cultural symbols? a. Basic underlying assumptions with a low level of visibility. b. Policies and procedures explaining the symbolic aspects of culture. c. Visual representations of an organisation’s dominant culture that serves as powerful signifiers for culturally influenced things. d. The visual representation of an organisation’s functional areas and processes.

Ans: C

10. When do organisational subcultures develop? a. When groups of employees deviate from the status quo and initiate change on their own. b. When employees at different organisational levels cluster around a common set of values and ways of doing things that deviate from the dominant culture. c. When different managerial groups develop their own cultural manifestos. d. When individual employees challenge the existing organisation’s chosen strategy.

Ans: B

11. In what ways can the cultural web be used as a tool for managing change? a. To maximise the efficiency of the change agents responsible for culture change.

b. To create a homogeneous organisational culture. c. To take stock of the current cultural status of an organisation and develop appropriate recommendations to frame culture change. d. To enable the continuous transformation of the organisation’s core cultural values.

Ans: C

12. What is enculturation? a. A process through which an individual or a group of people internalise the dominant culture of their own organisation. b. A process through which organisational members let go of their original culture to embrace that of another organisation. c. A process whereby an organisation adopts the key elements of another organisation’s culture while maintaining those of their own culture. d. A process whereby change agents align the dominant culture of the organisation with the new change strategy.

Ans: A

13. Which term below refers to the process of adopting the cultural values of another organisation, while maintaining one’s own culture? a. Enculturation b. Acculturation c. Assimilation d. Integration Ans: D

14. Which key dimension of Hofstede’s model of national cultural differences is used to measure the extent to which unequal power distribution is accepted by those with less power? a. Uncertainty Avoidance Index. b. Power Distance Index. c. Indulgence v. Restraint

d. Individualism v. Collectivism.

Ans: B

15. What is the primary aim of a dialogic approach to managing culture change? a. To clarify the meaning of the proposed change and avoid the need for an ongoing exchange of information throughout the change implementation process. b. To convince external stakeholders of the importance of the organisation’s espoused values. c. To locate culture within an ongoing process of free and open dialogue to increase the likelihood of change success. d. To establish once and for all an organisation’s cultural value system.

Ans: C

Multiple choice questions Chapter 7: Leading change 1. Which of the following is one of the most important responsibilities of change leaders? a. Change leaders are primarily concerned with creating a vision and setting a direction for change. b. Change leaders are responsible for translating the change plan into action. c. Change leaders operate mostly at a tactical level. d. Change leaders are mostly concerned with the ‘hard’ aspect of change.

Ans: A

2. Why is the distinction between change leaders and change managers important? a. It shows how leaders are far more important than change managers in the pursuit of change success. b. It shows that it is primarily the role of managers to build trusting relationships with employees. c. It brings to the fore the distinctive yet complementary roles of both change leaders and managers.

d. It shows that change managers are easily replaceable and thus not so vital to change success.

Ans: C

3. What is the main premise underpinning leadership traits theory? a. All outstanding leaders share the exact same set of skills and dispositions. b. Some people possess genetically determined and relatively stable characteristics and qualities that enable them to be effective as leaders. c. Leaders are made not born. d. True leaders do not need any training.

Ans: B

4. Which of the following statements is in line with the leadership styles theory? a. The primary focus of leadership styles theory is on the personality of the leader. b. Autocratic leadership is grounded in the assumption that human beings enjoy work and are driven by a sense of purpose. c. Continuums of leadership styles vary between the two opposite poles of autocratic and democratic forms of leadership. d. Democratic leaders tend towards exploitive, controlling and dictatorial leadership styles.

Ans: C

5. What is the main assumption underlying situational leadership? a. The personal situation of the leader determines their leadership style. b. The leader should involve their followers in making sense of the change situation. c. The culture of the organisation is the key determinant of leadership style. d. There is no one best way to lead and the leader can switch between styles to fit different situations.

Ans: D

6. According to Hersey and Blanchard, what are the four main leadership styles that leaders can adopt depending on the levels of competence and commitment of their followers?

a. Telling, selling, participating and delegating. b. Imposing, supporting, demonstrating and delegating. c. Leading, managing, coaching and mentoring. d. Empowering, accommodating, selling and delegating.

Ans: A

7. Which of the following is not true of transformational leadership? a. Transformational leaders are focused on short-term goals and day-to-day operations. b. Transformational leaders are charismatic, inspirational and motivational. c. Transformational leaders are primarily concerned with change and innovation. d. Transformational leaders can have a positive influence on employee attitudes and behaviours vital to change success.

Ans: A

8. What can transformational leaders do about Organisational Cynicism About Change (OCAC)? a. Adopt an autocratic style to clamp down on OCAC. b. Use manipulative tactics to further their own interests. c. Simply ignore it in the hope that it will die down. d. Identify and swiftly address the underlying causes of OCAC. Ans: D

9. What is the meaning of collective leadership? a. A large group consisting of at least 10 different leaders. b. Leadership that is distributed and diffused across different organisational levels. c. A collection of leaders who operate in hiding. d. A constellation of external partners who have a stake in the organisation.

Ans: B

10. Which of the following statements about eco-leadership is incorrect?

a. An eco-leader is solely focused on the impact of their organisation on the natural environment. b. The concept of eco-leadership fosters an ethos of integrity, fairness and equity in the employment relationship. c. An eco-leader is both inward- and outward-looking. d. The concept of eco-leadership reengages the leader with their ethical responsibilities.

Ans: A

11. What is the meaning of regenerative leadership? a. Regenerative leadership is just another term for transformational leadership. b. Regenerative leadership is primarily focused on the formation of future leaders. c. Regenerative leadership is founded on life-giving and affirming principles that can potentially contribute to more sustainable futures for both businesses and societies. d. Regenerative leadership is mostly focused on the inner workings of the organisation and its capacity to renew its technological capabilities.

Ans: C 12. Which of the following best describes a ‘quantum leader’? a. A leader who is responsible for marketing quantum-based products. b. A leader who is well-versed in quantum physics. c. A leader who is able to pay attention to the tiny details that can adversely impact a change project. d. A leader who is able to cope with uncertainty and can easily adapt to fluctuations and chaotic disruptions in their change situation.

Ans: D

13. On which of the following premises is the notion of servant leadership based? a. The notion of servant leadership is only applicable to religious institutions. b. Decent human beings have a natural disposition to serve others and an effective leader is first and foremost a servant. c. A servant leader requires followers who demonstrate humility, empathy and integrity.

d. A servant leader puts the interests of the organisation first.

Ans: B

14. Which of the following is a common stereotype that tends to perpetuate gender inequality in leadership? a. Women are seen as more communal and people-oriented and can therefore only act in a supportive capacity as leaders. b. Male leaders have fundamentally the same natural dispositions as women. c. Women leaders should be evaluated against their ability to play to their strengths and use their unique talents to bring about change success. d. Male leaders can be both performance-driven and people-oriented.

Ans: A

15. What are the three key elements of dialogic leadership? a. Empathy, empowerment and encouragement. b. Strategy, structure and culture. c. Talk, reflection and action. d. Learning, knowledge transfer and experimentation.

Ans: C

Multiple choice questions Chapter 8: Communicating change 1. What is the primary focus of the human pragmatics of communication? a. The practicalities of organisational change. b. The non-verbal, behavioural and relational dimensions of human communication. c. The written form of human communication. d. Remote forms of human communication.

Ans: B

2. What does the term cuneiform refer to? a. An audio system that led to the commercialisation of the radio and TV. b. A medium to transmit messages at long distance. c. The first known writing system that used pictograms and numerals to convey information. d. A sign language which became a popular mode of communication in business and journalism.

Ans: C

3. What is the Internet of Things? a. The interconnected material resources of a business organisation. b. A wide array of digital platforms to conduct business online. c. All the functional areas that have to do with the production of material goods. d. An interconnected network of people, machines and all sorts of electronic devices that is revolutionising work and enabling the development of new business models.

Ans: D

4. Which of the following is not true? a. Internet-based communication is not applicable to SMEs. b. Human communication is a basic primal need which, if not properly addressed, is bound to have a negative effect on change initiatives. c. Non-verbal, behavioural and relational dimensions of communication account largely for its effectiveness and cannot be ignored in strategies for communicating change. d. Written forms of communication give a sense of permanence to things and help solidify the strategic intent driving change.

Ans: A

5. What are the key components of Shannon and Weaver’s model of communication? a. Face-to-face, radio, email and video conferencing. b. Change leader, change message, followers and impact. c. Sender, medium, receiver, feedback loop and noise. d. Semantic, psychological, socio-cultural and physical.

Ans: C

6. Which of the following is not a cause of poor organisational communication? a. Employees are not ready to listen to change leaders. b. Lack of clarity of the purpose of change. c. An autocratic leadership style. d. A selective dissemination of information.

Ans: A

7. Which of the following is a consequence of poor communication? a. Positive forms of resistance to change. b. Feelings of belonging and being valued members of the organisation. c. A lack of transparency and shared understanding around the proposed change. d. Perceived equity in access to information vital to effective change implementation.

Ans: C

8. What is a key disadvantage of a spray and pray communication strategy? a. It involves a scattergun approach that tends to end in a ‘hit or miss’ outcome. b. It involves a form of distributive justice where everybody gets access to the same quantity and quality of information. c. It involves throwing all the available information relating to change at employees. d. It involves the receiver making sense of the change message.

Ans: A

9. Which of the following best describes the underscore and explore communication strategy? a. It reflects an autocratic leadership style. b. It is the least desirable approach to change communication. c. It provides the parameters for employee input while leaving some scope for feedback and input on how to best implement the change plan. d. It is applicable to all change situations.

Ans: C

10. Which of the following is not one of the criteria for choosing the right medium for communicating change? a. The extent to which it supports interaction. b. The extent to which it allows change leaders to control the change situation. c. The extent to which it allows for immediate response and feedback. d. The extent to which it allows for a degree of personalisation to meet the needs of its recipients.

Ans: B

11. Which of the following communication medium scores the highest on both media richness and interactivity? a. Intranet postings. b. Emails and text messages. c. Face-to-face. d. Print.

Ans: C

12. What is organisational silence? a. The refusal of employees to offer feedback on change implementation issues. b. A systemic, collective-level phenomenon that entails the widespread withholding of information about potential problems or issues from employees. c. An approach to change communication that favours action over talk. d. A sign that everything is going on well with the change implementation.

Ans: B

13. Which of the following is not a consequence of organisational silence? a. Low levels of performance and productivity. b. Impoverished decision-making. c. Swift detection and correction of errors.

d. Erosion of employee motivation and commitment.

Ans: C

14. What are the key steps of a dialogic model for communicating change? a. Design, development and delivery of change message. b. Telling, selling and exploring the meaning of the change plan. c. Ideological positioning, social engagement and marketing of change plan. d. Creation of meaning, extraction of meaning, negotiation of meaning and shared meaning.

Ans: D

Multiple choice questions Chapter 9: Implementing change 1. How would you describe directed change implementation? a. The change implementation is directed by external stakeholders. b. It is usually the upshot of an emergent approach to change. c. It involves a hard approach to change implementation, led from the top and driven by economic interests. d. It lends itself to a democratic leadership style.

Ans: C

2. What is facilitated change implementation? a. It is derived from a strictly planned approach to change. b. A soft, more people-oriented approach to change implementation. c. It lends itself to an autocratic leadership style. d. It fits with a withhold and uphold communication strategy.

Ans: B

3. What is the primary aim of Business Process Reengineering (BPR)? a. A re-configuration of the organisation’s IT platform.

b. A re-structuring of the back-end processes of the business. c. A strategic re-orientation of the production process. d. A radical redesign of current business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in terms of performance, productivity and quality.

Ans: D

4. Which of the following is not true? a. BPR warrants a tight alignment with business strategy. b. BPR is not scalable. c. BPR is usually rapid and radical. d. BPR is customer centric.

Ans: B

5. Under what conditions is BPR applicable to SMEs? a. BPR has to be scaled down to address the specific contexts and needs of SMEs. b. BPR is totally inapplicable to SMEs. c. BPR is applicable to only SMEs operating in the manufacturing industry. d. BPR is applicable to SMEs with an HR function.

Ans: A

6. With which change implementation method is process mapping usually employed? a. Communities of practice. b. Lean interventions. c. Six-Sigma. d. BPR. Ans: D

7. Which of the following is not a Lean principle? a. Value specification. b. Market differentiation. c. Customer pull.

d. Elimination of waste.

Ans: B

8. Which of the following is the Japanese term to describe a commitment for continuous improvement? a. Mura. b. Jidoka. c. Kaizen. d. Heijunka.

Ans: C

9. What is Value Stream Mapping? a. A skills map to identify value-adding activities. b. A visual tool used to identify process inefficiencies and areas for improvement. c. A map of the value chain to identify key functional areas and activities. d. A visual map for identifying training needs across key functional areas.

Ans: B

10. Which of the following is not a core principle of Six-Sigma? a. Elimination of defects. b. Professional training. c. Critical discourse analysis. d. Statistical methods.

Ans: C

11. What does the DMAIC stand for? a. Define, Measure, Analyse, Improve and Control. b. Delineate, Mitigate, Accentuate, Investigate and Captivate. c. Design, Modify, Assess, Invest and Compete. d. Develop, Motivate, Activate, Influence and Coach.

Ans: A

12. In what way can BPR, Lean and Six-Sigma be detrimental to employees? a. They are untenable in the longer term. b. They provide a mathematical voice to employees. c. They can lead to downsizing and forced redundancies. d. They can lead to a drop in customer morale.

Ans: C

13. What are the commonalities between Lean and Six-Sigma? a. They both require advanced qualifications in statistical methods. b. They both need to be led by external consultants. c. They are both not applicable to SMEs. d. They are both driven by a concern to eliminate waste, reduce production costs and optimise process efficiency and productivity.

Ans: D

14. Which of the following is not a key feature of Lean-Six-Sigma (LSS)? a. A combination of visual mapping techniques and statistical tools. b. The integration of key elements of JIT and DMAIC. c. A blending of formal and informal approaches to learning. d. An imbalance between individual and organisational needs.

Ans: D

15. Which of the following conditions does not apply when choosing the right change implementation method? a. It should be skewed in favour of top management. b. It should be aligned with the organisation’s change strategy. c. It should be underpinned by a systemic perspective. d. It should be scalable.

Ans: A

Multiple choice questions Chapter 10: Evaluating change 1. What is the meaning of evaluation in the context of organisational change? a. A process designed to determine the value of a change project against a set of indicators to improve its overall effectiveness. b. A one-off exercise to determine the financial performance of a changing organisation. c. A systematic appraisal of the performance of change leaders. d. A cosmetic exercise to keep all key stakeholders happy.

Ans: A

2. When should a change evaluation be designed? a. As and when the need arises. b. Before the actual change implementation. c. Once the change initiative is completed. d. During the initial stage of the change implementation.

Ans: B

3. What are the two key types of change evaluation? a. Resource-based and task-focused evaluation. b. Business- and people-oriented evaluation. c. Formative and summative evaluation. d. Incremental and transformational evaluation.

Ans: C

4. Which of the following is not true about a process model of change evaluation? a. It is a tactical tool designed to demonstrate compliance with business auditing standards. b. It involves a phased approach to change evaluation. c. It allows for the combination of both quantitative and qualitative measures.

d. It calls for strong leadership.

Ans: A

5. Which of the following is associated with the pre-evaluation stage? a. Conduct formative evaluations at key milestones. b. Assess impact on value chain activities. c. Record short-term gains and losses. d. Develop a change evaluation system.

Ans: D

6. What is the Balanced Scorecard (BSC)? a. A tool to enable an alignment between the organisation’s core values and vision. b. A tool to ensure a fundamental balance between short-term and long-term outcomes. c. A multi-dimensional evaluative tool that integrates multiple perspectives and measures to enable a comprehensive and continuous assessment of change. d. An implementation tool that is mainly applicable to SMEs. Ans: C

7. What are the four key interdependent dimensions of the BSC? a. Operations, finance, human resources and marketing. b. Financial, customer, internal business and learning and growth. c. Material, intellectual, technological and capital. d. Local, regional, global, national and international.

Ans: B

8. Which of the following measures apply to the internal business dimension of the BSC? a. Cycle time, unit cost and defects rate. b. Customer satisfaction index, market share index and customer retention. c. Sales revenue, expenses and taxes and net profit. d. Training effectiveness, employee engagement with technology, and employee involvement in teamwork.

Ans: A

9. Which of the following is not a criticism that has been directed at the BSC? a. It is resource-intensive and can be a very costly exercise. b. There is limited guidance on how to apply the measures and access the information that is needed for it to work properly. c. It tends to have a one-sided focus on the positives. d. It aims to expand the company’s vision and strategy beyond solely economic interests.

Ans: D

10. What does research into change evaluation in SMEs suggest? a. SMEs are not at all interested in evaluating their performance. b. There is a positive relationship between the application of the BSC and performance improvement. c. The application of the BSC in SMEs seems to be focused on long-term performance. d. Over time, all SMEs will be able to adopt a full-blown version of the BSC. Ans: B

11. Which of the following are examples of cost-effective techniques that SMEs can employ to improve their processes and performance? a. Process mapping, value-stream mapping and business canvasses. b. Exclusively non-quantitative tools and techniques. c. Qualitative, text-based measures. d. Learning centres, teamwork and communities of practice.

Ans: A

12. Why are online evaluative tools appealing to SMEs? a. They do not require any particular skill. b. They do not use statistical methods. c. They are affordable and scalable. d. They use only visual data.

Ans: C

13. Which of the following is not a principle of a critical approach to change evaluation? a. The need for a clear change evaluation strategy. b. The need for exclusively quantitative measures. c. The need for a view of change evaluation as an ongoing process. d. The need for a total buy-in on the part of change leaders.

Ans: B

Multiple choice questions Chapter 11: Sustaining change 1. What is the meaning of change sustainability? a. The ability of an organisation to maintain certain new processes, activities or ways of working to achieve certain desired outcomes over a specified period of time. b. The ability of an organisation to sustain change efforts for an indeterminate period of time. c. The ability of an organisation to stay in business in the longer term. d. The ability of an organisation to sustain superior performance over its competitors over time.

Ans: A

2. Which of the following is an accurate definition of sustaining change? a. A process designed to continuously change for the sake of change. b. A practically oriented process designed to optimise the ability of an organisation to manage sustainable change. c. An organisation’s ability to stabilise old ways of working. d. The ability of an organisation to fix only things which are not working.

Ans: B

3. What are the key dimensions of sustainability as a multidimensional concept?

a. Financial, social, cultural and internal processes. b. Psychological, sociological, technological and environmental. c. Economic viability, environmental protection, social responsibility and enabling cultural values. d. Political, socio-cultural, technological and ecological.

Ans: C

4. How can organisations embed sustainability in their value chain? a. By setting up a task force to address sustainability issues and concerns. b. By transforming themselves into ‘green companies’. c. By recalibrating their production processes. d. By integrating sustainability issues and concerns into the value chain and making them an integral part of the work routines and day-to-day processes.

Ans: D 5. Which of the following are effective ways to embed sustainability in the ‘operations’ stage of the value chain? a. Product usage and safety protocols. b. Elimination of production waste and optimal energy consumption. c. Ethical advertising and brand building. d. Reduction of transportation waste and exhaust.

Ans: B

6. What is action research? a. A participatory process of inquiry involving professional researchers and active participants of the client organisation that aims to generate practical solutions to issues of pressing concern. b. A research method that privileges practice over theory. c. An approach to research based on a set of generic actionable solutions. d. A type of research focused on reinforcing activities that work well.

Ans: A

7. What are the key stages of action research? a. Problem identification, problem diagnosis, action planning, implementation of action plan and evaluation. b. Theory development, hypothesis testing, interpretation of findings and corrective action. c. Recruiting of research experts, collaborative inquiry, evaluation and actionable solutions. d. Planning, execution, implementation and corrective action.

Ans: A

8. Which of the following is a correct description of appreciative inquiry? a. A type of research method that is primarily focused on the dysfunctional and deficient aspects of organisational functioning. b. Underlines the importance of individual learning as a primary driver of change. c. A form of participative inquiry that focuses on the positive and life-enriching properties of the organisation. d. An approach to change which is appreciative of the efforts of change stakeholders.

Ans: C

9. Which of the following is not true of appreciative inquiry? a. It is focused on the best practices across the organisation’s value chain. b. It is designed and executed by top management. c. It aims to facilitate participation and dialogue as a means of achieving consensus. d. It fosters collective learning and experimentation.

Ans: B

10. What are the key steps of the 4-D model used in appreciative inquiry? a. Design, deploy, deliver and debrief. b. Design, develop, delegate and deliver. c. Decide, design, deploy and deliver. d. Discover, dream, design, and deploy.

Ans: D

11. What are communities of practice? a. Formal groups of people who are experts in a particular domain of organisational functioning. b. An elite group of employees consisting of technical experts. c. Groups of people informally bound together by shared expertise and passion for a joint enterprise and who are committed to practical outcomes. d. Formal groups of people focused on delivering mandatory training.

Ans: C

12. Which of the following is a key feature of Communities of practice? a. Participation is dependent on a rigorous process of recruitment and selection. b. They are meant to provide a psychologically safe and mutually supportive space for knowledge exchange and social learning. c. They can only be conducted face-to-face. d. Although informal, they are subject to close supervision.

Ans: B

13. What is simulation modelling? a. It entails the use of appropriate simulation software to try and test business models and predict the outcomes of change strategies before deploying them in real-life situations. b. It is based on scientific experiments and models. c. It is a tactical tool used to improve current processes and operations. d. It is focused on the past history of the organisation.

Ans: A

14. What are the three key phases of simulation modelling? a. Planning, implementation and modelling. b. Planning, diagnosis and problem-solving. c. Modelling, simulation and evaluation. d. Problem identification, modelling and action.

Ans: C

15. Which of the following is not a key principle for sustaining change? a. The need to establish a sustainability culture. b. The need to fix new ways of working to prevent future disruptions. c. The need for change leaders to take ownership of the process for sustaining change. d. The need for clear, organisation-wide and two-way communication via effective channels between change leaders and employees.

Ans: B