Test Bank For Managing and Organizations An Introduction to Theory and Practice,7th Edition By Stewa

Test Bank For Managing and Organizations An Introduction to Theory and Practice,7th Edition Stewart R. Clegg, Tyrone S. Pitsis, Matthew Mount Chapter 1-14

Multiple choice bank Chapter 1: Managing and organizations 1. To say managing is a practice means that ______? a. You have to do training b. Practice makes perfect c. It is what managers do d. All of the above Ans: C

2. Sensemaking means ______ a. The process through which objects are perceived as real b. The process through which events become confused and unexplainable c. The process through which novel, unexpected and confusing events are explained d. All of the above Ans: C

3. Sensemaking can be ______ a. Puzzling b. Prospective c. Retrospective d. Retrospective or prospective Ans: D

4. Framing is ______

a. Deciding what is relevant or irrelevant for a particular situation b. Creating lots of windows on the world c. Setting someone up for something they haven‟t done d. Something you do to pictures Ans: A

5. Sensegiving ______? a. Is a festive holiday b. The same as sensemaking c. Influencing the sensemaking of others d. Subtle tacit knowledge Ans: C

6. Economic rationalism means ______? a. Being economical with the truth b. Government interventions are the best determinants of economic value c. Markets and prices are the best determinants of economic value d. Being a risk aversive accountant will sustain profits Ans: C

7. Bounded rationality is ______. a. Making decisions that are satisfactory b. Making decisions that are optimally the best c. Reasoning that is free of time and space constraints d. A leap of faith when making a decision Ans: A

8. According to your textbook, an example of irrationality is ______. a. Employees wilfully and happily following a leader‟s change initiative b. Employees resistance to change implemented by management c. Spending your last dollar on beer

d. None of the above Ans: B

9. Managerialism is ______. a. A unitary view of organizational life b. Acontextual c. An ideology that espouses management hierarchy as the only source of authority, legitimacy and decision-making. d. All of the above Ans: D

10. A coherent set of beliefs, attitudes and opinions is ______? a. A logic b. An Ideology c. An organization d. A culture Ans: B

11. The high degree of commonality in organizing practices means organizations can be thought of as ______. a. Tools to get things done b. Highly rational entities c. Baroque structures d. Constraints on liberty Ans: A

12. What is making modern organizations more alike? a. Government bureaucracy b. Managing & Organizations c. Highly professionalized knowledge d. Globalization

Ans: C

13. Knowledge-intensive work relies on much more ______. a. Subtle tacit knowledge b. Clear rules c. Online training d. Digital innovations Ans: A

14. Which of the following is NOT a core characteristic of the Gig Economy? a. Freelance work b. Short-term contracts c. Stable permanent work d. Use of platform technology Ans: C

15. Who hypothesized that the media become extensions of our nervous systems? a. Steve Jobs b. Elon Musk c. Marshall McLuhan d. Woody Allen Ans: C

16. Which of the following is a circle game? a. Hierarchy b. Holocracy c. Democracy d. Autocracy Ans: B

17. Which of the following is a company celebrated for its distinctiveness in organizational circles? a. Zappa b. Zappos c. Zelda d. Zorba Ans: B

18. What devices do digital nomads use? a. Caravans b. Laptops c. Bicycles d. Coffee Shops Ans: B

19. What are two essential aspects of modern organizational life? a. Digital spaces and time zones b. Offices and furniture c. Facework and presence d. All of the above Ans: A

20. What is EDI? a. Equity, Divergence and Economy b. Emnity, Diversity and Inequality c. Equality, Diversity and Identity d. Equity, Diversity and Inclusion Ans: D

21. What is ESG? a. A food additive

b. Extra Salted Good c. Economy, Science and Government d. Economy, Society and Governance Ans: D

22. What tensions are remaking the modern world of organizations? a. Tensions between the Western and the Eastern philosophy b. Tensions between globalization and de-globalization c. Tensions between religions d. All of the above Ans: B

Multiple choice bank Chapter 2: Managing individuals 1. Organizational behaviour is the study of ______ a. The human mind and behaviour b. Why people tend to work better as part of an organization rather than alone c. How individual processes interact with group, team and organizational practices to inhibit or enable organizational performance d. All of the above Ans: C

2. Much of the theorizing in psychology implicitly deals with the question of what makes us who we are. Some argue we are the way we are because of genetics, and others say it is because of our learning and environment. This debate is commonly known as the ______ debate. a. Nature versus Nurture b. Biology versus Psychology c. Who versus What d. All of the above Ans: A

3. What is the term that reflects the belief that humans naturally behave in hedonistic ways to ensure their genes prevail over their competitors? a. Competition b. Cooperation

c. The survival of the fittest d. The survival of the fastest Ans: C

4. The process by which you attend to, process, store and use stimuli to make sense of the world is called ______ a. Evaluation b. Retention c. Sensing d. Perception Ans: D

5. Structures of meaning that affect thinking, planning and behaviour concerning others are referred to as ______ a. Role Schemas b. Self-Schemas c. Person Schemas d. Others Schemas Ans: C

6. Specific self-conceptions about ourselves are referred to as ______ a. Role Schemas b. Self-Schemas c. Person Schemas d. Others Schemas Ans: B

7. ______ are schemas about how we operate in our world and understand and remember information a. Social Schemas b. Role Schemas

c. Scheming Schemas d. Script Schemas Ans: D

8. ______ are schemas about appropriate and inappropriate behaviour in specific contexts a. Social Schemas b. Role Schemas c. Ethical Schemas d. Script Schemas Ans: B

9. The process of grouping objects into simplistic categories based on one‟s generalized perceptions of those objects a. Stereotyping b. Grouping c. Dissonance d. Affect Ans: A

10. The process by which a person who holds a belief or expectation, irrespective of its validity, causes it to come true because they behave as if it is true is known as the ______ a. Affective Forecast b. Cognitive Dissonance c. Self-Fulfilling Prophecy d. Wishful thinking syndrome Ans: C

11. Which of the following is NOT an example of the Halo-Effect? a. Assuming a competent medical doctor will also be more likely to be a competent manager b. Assuming a vegetarian will make a poor abattoir worker c. Assuming a highly skilled engineer will make an excellent manager

d. Assuming a very good-looking person is more trustworthy Ans: B

12. The theory that concerns itself with explaining how people attribute cause and affect to their own and other people‟s behaviour is known as ______ a. Causal theory b. External attribution c. Attention theory d. Attribution theory Ans: D 13. Which one of the following best defines „dispositional attribution‟? a. Dispositional attribution is the tendency to make internal attributions when explaining the causes of the behaviour of others b. Dispositional attribution is the tendency for people to attribute their own successes to internal causes and their failure to external causes c. Dispositional attribution is the tendency to feel anxiety and discomfort when we hold inconsistent and conflicting sets of cognitions d. Dispositional attribution is the tendency to attribute the cause of an individual‟s behaviour to their innate nature, such as being generous or being mean Ans: D

14. Which of the following would not be an example of System 1 thinking a. Solving the equation 2 + 2 = 4 b. I must learn to make a chocolate soufflé c. I am asked whether I would like chocolate or coffee d. I am asked whether I should cut class and go to a movie instead Ans: B

15. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of values? a. Values serve as guiding principles in people lives

b. Values can create tension between subjective values and societies values c. Values are transitional d. Values are easy to change to suit the situation Ans: D 16. What is meant by the term „value priorities‟? a. That we only ever behave in ways consistent with those values important to us b. That we should constantly re-evaluate which values are important to us c. That our values are ordered in terms of their importance to us in guiding us through life d. That we change which values are important to us to suit the situation we find ourselves in Ans: C

17. The stable patterns of behaviour and internal states of mind that help explain a person‟s behavioural tendencies are referred to as ______. a. Personality b. Values c. Schemas d. All of the above Ans: A 18. Which of the following is NOT a „Big Five‟ personality factor? a. Emotional stability b. Openness c. Agreeableness d. Introversion Ans: D

19. What does Alfred Bandura mean by the term reciprocal determinism? a. Personality is already determined when we are born, and so it shapes how we view and interact with our environment

b. Personality is determined by our behaviour, our thoughts and feelings, in interaction with our environment c. Personality is the result of the environment, and only the environment can determine a person‟s personality d. Personality is determined by our behaviour, our thoughts and feelings, in interaction with our environment and is the result of the environment, and only the environment can determine a person‟s personality Ans: B

20. The tendency to project emotions into the future and to overestimate the intensity of the emotion to be felt is known as ______ a. Impact Bias b. Anxiety Bias c. Affective Bias d. Social Bias Ans: A

21. The tendency to focus on the first piece of information when making decisions about the future, resulting in error because we place too much importance on one aspect of an event is known as ______. a. Overestimation b. Impact Bias c. Focalism d. Incrementalism Ans: C

Multiple choice bank

Chapter 3: Managing teams and groups 1. In your textbook, the assumptions, beliefs and expectations held by members in a team about the nature and function of the relationship between them are called ______. a. A team dynamic b. A psychological contract c. A group circle d. None of the above Ans: B

2. Teams and groups differ in a subtle way: The difference is that ______. a. A team is made up of two or more people b. Members of a team are trying to achieve similar goals c. Members of a team are bound together through a psychological contract d. There is no difference between a team and a group Ans: C

3. According to your textbook, why do people form teams? a. Because they are obliged to b. Because of a sense of belongingness and identity c. So that they do not feel alone d. In case someone becomes sick Ans: B

4. When people in an organization begin to form cliques, and their group identity becomes so strong that they include and exclude people based on whether they fit the group‟s bias and perceptions it is called ______. a. „Team dynamics‟ b. „Racism‟ c. „In-group bias‟ d. „Team bonding‟

Ans: C

5. What is a common outcome of social facilitation for people performing simple tasks? a. On simple tasks, people will lower their level of performance in the presence of others b. On simple tasks, people will increase their level of performance in the presence of others c. People can only ever perform simple tasks in the presence of others d. People can only perform complex tasks in the presence of others Ans: B

6. The phenomenon whereby members of a group overlook or disregard problems so as to maintain group cohesion and harmony is termed ______? a. Group cohesion b. Harmony c. Groupthink d. Social loafing Ans: C

7. The phenomenon whereby members of a group exert less effort on a given task, than if those people were working as individuals, is known as ______. a. Social facilitation b. Social loafing c. Groupthink d. In-group bias Ans: B

8. Which one of the following is NOT a central part of Social Impact Theory? a. Spatial closeness of people in the group b. Number of people in the group c. Strength of character of people in the group d. Strength of ties between people in the group Ans: C

9. Based on Hollenbeck et al. (2012), in your textbook there are three „building blocks‟ for differentiating teams – which ONE of these is NOT one of them? a. Temporal stability b. Skill differentiation c. Team Composition d. Authority differentiation Ans: C

10. According to Laughlin (2011), homogenous groups will outperform heterogeneous groups when the team: a. Is performing complex tasks b. Is made up of high-ability individuals c. Is made up of different age groups d. All of the above Ans: B

11. Which of the following is characteristic of a virtual team? a. People operate across time, space and organizational boundaries b. They use computer-mediated communications c. People can also meet face-to-face d. All of the above Ans: D

12. The concern with how groups form, their structure, size, processes, and how they function is known as a. Group process theory b. Teaming c. Storming d. Group dynamics Ans: D

13. According to your textbook, a closed group in which members operate in illicit and illegal ways, and can often involve bullying and dangerous initiation rituals can be referred to as: a. A high-performance team b. A typical team c. A motor cycle club d. A gang Ans: D

14. Which one of the following are NOT one of West‟s (2008) four dimensions for team differentiation? a. The degree of permanence b. Skills and competencies c. Organizational culture d. Nature of the task Ans: C

15. ______ is the process of thinking about the effect of one‟s role, assumptions and behaviour on a given action or object, and of considering the effect that the action has on how we continue to think and behave a. Teamwork as practice… b. Teamwork as dynamic… c. Teamwork as reflexivity… d. Teamwork as forming, storming, norming and performing…

Ans: C

16. ______ is the process of thinking about the effect of one‟s role, assumptions and behaviour on a given action or object, and of considering the effect that the action has on how we continue to think and behave a. Teamwork as practice…

b. Teamwork as dynamic… c. Teamwork as reflexivity… d. Teamwork as forming, storming, norming and performing…

Ans: C

17. Which one of the following three sets of team roles is NOT part of Belbin‟s Team Roles? a. Plant, Shaper, Specialist b. Plant, Implementer, Teamworker c. Plant, Coordinator, Monitor Evaluator d. Plant, Resource Investigator, Criticizer Ans: D

Multiple choice bank Chapter 4: Managing motivation 1. Which of the following constitutes parts of motivation? a. Physiological Drives b. Social and Personal Motives c. Cognition, Affect and Behaviour d. All of the above Ans: D

2. Which one of the following is NOT part of Maslow‟s hierarchy of needs? a. Physiological needs b. Safety needs c. Psychological needs d. Esteem needs Ans: C

3. According to Clegg et al. (2024), early motivation theories might have been limited by their primary focus on: a. The impact of social factors on motivation b. The internal biological needs c. The external environment‟s impact on motivation d. Maslow‟s hierarchy as a pyramid rather than ladder Ans: B 4. Intrinsic motivation refers to… a. Those internal states that drive us towards behaviours that directly meet esteem needs b. Those internal states that drive us towards behaviours that directly meet self-actualization needs c. Those internal states that drive us towards behaviours that directly meet sexual needs d. All of the above Ans: B 5. Extrinsic motivation refers to… a. Those internal states that drive us towards behaviours that directly meet esteem needs b. Those internal states that drive us towards behaviours that directly meet self-actualization needs c. Those internal states that drive us towards behaviours that directly meet belongingness need d. All of the above Ans: A

6. If you are motivated by achievement needs, you are likely to: a. Focus on getting along with classmates b. Study hard to excel in exams c. Prioritize social activities over studying d. Avoid taking challenging courses Ans: B

7. According to Hollenbeck et al. (2014) ______ theory holds that if a leader is stimulated in a positive or negative way, he or she will have an opposite reaction once that stimulus is removed. a. Attribution Theory b. Opponent Process Theory c. Opponents Motivation Theory d. Focal Error Ans: B

8. Which of the following examples is most representative of Herzberg‟s hygiene factor? a. Your team mates congratulate you for a job well-done b. You feel a sense of pride after completing a difficult task c. You are given a higher salary because of good performance d. Your work gives you many opportunities for learning and personal development Ans: C

9. According to Clegg et al. (2024), the main criticism of content theories of motivation is ______? a. They fail to account for the role of money in motivation b. They are too complex for practical application in the workplace c. They only focus on physiological needs d. They do not consider the role of emotions and thoughts in motivation Ans: D

10. According to Herzberg‟s Two Factor Theory, if your job involved photocopying documents daily, and the photocopier rarely worked, you would feel: a. Job-dissatisfaction b. Motivated to buy a photocopier c. Hygienic d. Less motivated

Ans: A

11. Rats tolerating electric shocks in exchange for opportunities to explore their environment is an example of ______. a. The importance of food on motivation b. The importance of intrinsic motivation c. The importance of extrinsic rewards on motivation d. The importance of punishment on motivation Ans: B

12. According to Clegg et al. (2024), many scholars argue against the distinction between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation; however, what finding might indicate that they are distinct concepts? a. Intrinsic motivation has shown to align well to content theories and extrinsic motivation aligns well to process theories b. Intrinsic motivation only works with positive reinforcement, whereas extrinsic motivation only works with negative reinforcement c. Intrinsic and extrinsic factors activate different neural pathways in the brain d. One starts with the letter „I‟ and the other starts with the letter „E‟, so they are clearly different Ans: C

13. According to Clegg et al. (2024), what is the main difference between free will and determinism? a. Free will has a scientific origin, while determinism has religious origins b. Free will is mostly associated with negative consequences, while determinism is mostly associated with positive consequences c. Free will suggests we have the power to choose, while determinism suggests all choices are predetermined d. Free will suggests all decisions are random, and determinism suggests all decisions are intentional

Ans: C 14. How does „soft‟ determinism differ from „hard‟ determinism? a. Soft determinism argues all choices are completely random b. Soft determinism allows for a limited range of free choices within boundaries c. Soft determinism focuses on internal factors influencing choices d. Soft determinism is a more recent philosophical concept than hard determinism Ans: B

15. According to Clegg et al. (2024), intentionality refers to ______. a. The desire to be successful at what you do b. The ability to feel and display emotions c. The power of the mind to represent and be about things d. The ability to choose and act freely Ans: C

Multiple choice bank Chapter 5: Managing leadership 1. Which of the following is NOT true: A leader may be seen as… a. A set of personality traits b. A set of observable behaviours c. Dependent upon the situation d. A very good manager Ans: d 2. Which of the following statements describe leadership? a. Leadership involves the ability to mentor and motivate people b. Leadership means getting people to do what you tell them c. Leadership involves command and control of the organization d. Leadership involves being aloof from the rank and file

Ans: a 3. The view that leadership performance is a function of the time and place within which the leader acts belong to which theory? a. Postmodern theory b. Contingency/situational Theory c. Trait Theory d. Behavioral Theory Ans: b 4. The view that leadership performance is dependent upon personality and genetics comes from which theory? a. Situational theory b. Trait Theory c. Contingency Theory d. Behavioural Theory Ans: b 5. What, if any, of the following, are central concepts in all behavioural theories of leadership? a. Concern for production and concern for people b. Initiating structure and consideration c. Employee centered and task-centered d. All of the above Ans: d 6. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of transformational leadership? a. They are able to inspire and motivate people towards change b. They are able to align people towards the organization‟s vision and mission c. They are able to work for long periods of time, even under the most monotonous and boring situations d. They tend to delegate managerial tasks like policies, plans and budgets Ans: c 7. Under what condition would transactional leadership be most effective? a. Stable environments with well-defined tasks

b. Situations requiring innovation and creativity c. During periods of major organizational change d. When there is a need to build strong emotional bonds within a team Ans: a 8. Which of the following statements, according to your textbook, is MOST true of leadership as a field of research, theory and practice a. Leadership is a complex, confusing and contradictory domain b. Leadership theory has provided all organizations with the opportunity to identify and develop outstanding leaders c. We now have a definitive and practical understanding of leadership through the concept of transformational leadership d. Organizations are better off leaderless Ans: a 9. Which of the following is an example of a leadership substitute? a. Giving people permission to work from home? b. A clear set of rules and objectives within a team c. Ensuring people wear uniforms with rank and/or seniority clearly visible d. All of the above Ans: b

10. The idea that capitalism has spread into every area of society, and in every part of the globe, such as the media, education, health, sport, the arts, sciences, as consumerism is central to the concept of ______. a. Neoliberalism b. Capitalism c. Postmodernity d. Americanization Ans: c

11. According to your textbook, a leader with an overinflated sense of self and high levels of self-love is a ______ leader. a. Exemplary leader b. Machiavellian leader

c. Servant leader d. Narcissistic leader Ans: d 12. What, according to your textbook, is the main difference between coaching and leadership? a. A leader has followers, A coach has leaders b. A leader directs people, a coach develops people c. A leader leads, a coach coaches d. All of the above Ans: b

13. Which of the following is not an integral component of Positive Psychological Capital? a. self-efficacy b. hope c. optimism d. power Ans: d

14. Which of the following statements is true concerning Authentic Leadership? a. The authentic leader does make mistakes but takes responsibility and accountability for their actions and seek to amend the situation. b. The authentic leader must never make mistakes and have strong moral values and attitudes and ensure everyone always adheres to those values. c. The authentic leader is a myth and will never exist because people are ultimately motivated by self-interest. d. The authentic leader accepts fools gladly Ans: a 15. What term do Haslam et. al. (2024) use to describe present day leadership that serves to preserve 19th century elitism? a. Elitist leadership b Woke Leadership c. Zombie leadership

d. charismatic leadership Ans. c 16. Which one of the following best describes “socialized leadership”? a. Leadership best suited to socialist and communist states b. Leadership in social enterprises c. Leadership in virtual and non-hierarchical contexts d. Leadership that has evolved through years of socialization and education Ans c.

Multiple choice bank Chapter 6: Managing cultures 1. Which one of the following statements is most accurate? Clegg et al. (2024) view culture as: a. Something that is organic and situated in everyday practices, rather than as formally decided by authority b. Something that is critical to ensuring everyone is guided to behave ethically all the time c. Something that ensures how organizations do things endure and cannot be impacted by individuals d. Something that leadership decide upon, and must implement and reinforce every day Ans: A

2. Which of the following is part of the definition of culture? a. A pattern of learned and shared assumptions b. How things are done or are expected to be done in a particular organization c. The framing of how organizational members think, perceive and feel d. All of the above Ans: D

3. Why is culture important?

a. It allows organizational members to understand what is acceptable behaviour within the organization b. It establishes a set of norms that can be transferred to new organizational members c. It aligns members behaviour to the objective of the organization d. All of the above Ans: D

4. If all members of an organization understand, share and are committed to the organization‟s systems of beliefs and values, that organization is said to have what? a. Sub-cultures b. A strong culture c. A weak culture d. A total institution Ans: B

5. Edgar Schein conceptualized culture as existing at three levels. Which one of the following is NOT one of those levels? a. Espoused values b. Basic assumptions c. Climate d. Artefacts Ans: C 6. Which of the following is an incorrect assumption about „strong‟ organizational culture? a. Strong culture means everyone in the organization shares and is committed to the organization‟s norms b. Organizations with strong cultures will always outperform other organizations c. A strong culture can lead to organizational problems like groupthink d. Both a and b Ans: B

7. The argument that a strong organizational culture leads to superior organizational performance was originally articulated by ______. a. Marx b. Schein c. Peters and Waterman d. Terence and Patrick Ans: C

8. If a sub-culture reflects a cohesive group and is a defender of plausible ideas it may become ______. a. A danger to organizational culture b. An illegitimate sub-culture c. A legitimate subculture d. None of the above Ans: C

9. If sub-culture challenges legitimate values it becomes ______. a. A counterculture b. A dominant culture c. A legitimate subculture d. A deadly subculture Ans: A

10. What are the three perspectives of organization culture identified in your textbook? a. Integration, Fragmentation, Anthropological b. Integration, Differentiation, Instrumental c. Instrumental, Integration, Fragmentation d. Integration, Differentiation, Fragmentation Ans: D

11. Which one of the following would NOT be typical of the fragmentation perspective of organizational culture? a. Culture defragments people into a unified, strong culture b. Culture promotes ambiguity, which provides a protective shroud from the meaninglessness of everyday organizational life c. Culture is never consistent nor clearly contested, it forms around certain emergent issues and then dissolves as people regulate their position within cultural spaces created for and around them d. All of the above Ans: A 12. Which of the following statements are characteristics of „postmodernist’ conceptions of organizational culture as text? a. Organization culture is complex and can be read in fragments b. Culture can be viewed more as a „text‟ c. All texts suppress, silence and marginalize some elements of discursive reality d. All of the above Ans: D

13. Which one of the following constructs are NOT one of Hofstede‟s cultural dimensions? a. Power distance b. Indulgence versus restraint c. Power status d. Masculinity versus femininity Ans: C

14. According to Social Identity Theory, why are individuals attracted to certain groups? a. Because the groups offer financial benefits b. Because the groups share similar interests c. Because the groups enhance their self-esteem d. Because the groups are geographically close

Ans: C

15. What is the main disadvantage caused by unequal opportunities in the workplace according to your textbook? a. Increased creativity among employees b. Lower overall productivity for the organization c. Reduced employee satisfaction d. Difficulty attracting new talent Ans: D

16. Why do professionals tend to react negatively to managerial intervention according to your textbook? a. Managers are not qualified to understand professional work b. Managers are seen as a threat to professional autonomy c. Managers lack the necessary social skills for interaction d. Managers often ask professionals to perform unethical tasks Ans: B

17. What is the main consequence of attempting to assimilate a newly acquired company‟s culture according to your textbook? a. Increased employee morale in both companies b. Loss of the innovative capabilities of the acquired company c. Difficulty attracting new talent to the merged entity d. Improved communication between departments in both companies Ans: B

18. Which one of the following constructs are NOT one of the variables of culture identified in the GLOBE Project? a. Power distance b. Humane orientation c. In-group collectivism

d. Risk-avoidance Ans: D

Multiple choice bank Chapter 7: Managing conflict 1. Fill in the blank with the correct response: „______ results from the expression of the actual or perceived opposition of needs, values and interests between people working together‟. a. Organizational communication b. Organizational culture c. Organizational conflict d. Organizational learning Ans: C

2. According to Clegg et al. (2024), many early organization theorists‟ conceptions viewed ______ as illegitimate. a. Conflict b. Leadership c. Employees d. Marx Ans: A

3. Your textbook suggests that Aristotle and Plato‟s concepts of conflict were ______. a. Dialectical b. Dialogical c. Pathological d. Axiological Ans: C

4. If conflict is thought of as constructive, what is this approach called? a. Irresponsible b. Collaborationist c. Functionalist d. Marxist Ans: C

5. In a conflict typology framework, we can identify ______, ______, and ______ conflict. a. Marx‟s, Hegel‟s and Hobbes‟ b. Good, bad and ugly c. Task, relationship, and process d. Productive, unproductive and fun Ans: C

6. Why might an organization want to stimulate conflict? a. To create innovation b. To identify internal dissidence c. Because they are sadistic d. All of the above Ans: A

7 Which one of the following is NOT one of the levels of conflict identified in Clegg et al.

(2024)? a. Interpersonal b. Intrapersonal c. Intergroup d. Inter-organizational Ans: B

8. Which of the following are the four types of organizational conflict identified in your textbook?

a. Task, Relationship, Process, Intermarital b. Task, Relationship, Process, Interpersonal c. Task, Relationship, Process, International d. Task, Relationship, Process, Intrapersonal Ans: D

9. The normative school emphasizes ______ approaches to conflict resolution, often by identifying practical steps that the disputants should take to deal with conflict, its causes, and consequences. a. Punitive b. Pernicious c. Prescriptive d. Passive Ans: C

10. Which of the following is most TRUE of relationship conflict? a. It is more likely to affect trust negatively b. It is more likely to increase creativity c. It is more likely to be manageable d. It is more likely to foster innovation Ans: A

11. What is the main point William Ury makes about conflict? a. Conflict is always between two individuals with opposing views b. There is a hidden „third side‟ to every conflict that can help resolve it c. Conflicts are inevitable and should be fought to the finish d. Conflict only exists in personal relationships, not in organizations Ans: B

12. Which of the following is NOT one of Barge and Little‟s notions of voice? a. Singular voice

b. Blended voice c. Unified voice d. Pluralist voice Ans: D

Multiple choice bank Chapter 8: Managing power, politics and decision-making 1. According to Clegg et al. (2024), the networks between people in and around organizations that entail power relations are called ______.

A. Organizational dynamics b. Social networking c. Organization politics d. Power couples Ans: C

2. In Clegg et al. (2024), if power is exercised according to one‟s own interests rather than one‟s sanctioned authority within the bureaucracy, it is said to be ______. a. Legitimate b. Illegitimate c. Corrupted d. Powerful Ans: B

3. According to Chapter 8 of your textbook, many early organization theorists‟ conceptions of hierarchy viewed ______ as legitimate, and ______ as illegitimate. a. Power/Authority b. Authority/Power c. Leaders/Subordinates d. Ethics/Authority

Ans: B

4. Your textbook identifies a range of bases of power, legitimacy being one. Which one of the following is NOT central to the concept of power as legitimation? a. People already want to do what it is that you want them to do b. Legitimation is achieved through the management of meaning c. Legitimate power forces people to accept that you will always be above them, and so they do what they are told d. People already want to do what it is that you want them to do, and legitimation is achieved through the management of meaning Ans: C

5. Unlike earlier researchers, post-World War II researchers increasingly argued that ______ is a source of power rather than a constraint on its exercise. a. Uncertainty b. Bureaucracy c. Leadership d. Legitimacy Ans: A

6. Organizations responding to resource contexts by adaptation (i.e. through internal changes to strategies or operations) and/or by domination (i.e. through efforts to control the environment) is an example of the ______? a. Strategic contingency theory b. Resource-based View c. Game theory d. Tyrone Power Theory Ans: B

7. Which of the following give rise to organizational politics according to Pettigrew (2002)? a. The management and legitimization of meaning

b. It involves structural divisions c. History of past politics in an organization d. All of the above Ans: D

8. In your textbook, the phenomenon in which those in power who control resources, attract more resources, which in turn gives them more power and others less power is called ______. a. A vicious spiral b A zero-sum game c. A power play d. Inequality Ans: B

9. Which of the following is NOT one of Mintzberg‟s political games? a. Counter-insurgency b. Resource hoarding c. Empire building d. Lording Ans: B

10. In its simplest form, soft domination can be described as ______. a. The effects of scientific management b. The use of organizational rules with penalties for their infringement c. The use of individual payment by results systems d. The subtle mechanisms through which obedience is produced Ans: D

11. Which of the following are typical of total institutions? a. A psychiatric institution b. A prison

c. A boarding school d. All of the above Ans: D

12. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of the rational decision-making model? a. Define the problem and collect all the information that will lead to a solution b. Review the data and come up with a decision c. Discuss the decision with employees and together decide on the optimum solution d. Implement the decision from top–down and evaluate its effectiveness Ans: C

13. Simon (1960) contrasted between two types of decisions managers may have to deal with; these two types are ______ and ______ decisions. a. Good and bad b. Rational and irrational c. Programmed and non-programmed d. Hard and soft Ans: C

14. The ______ of decision-making states that decisions are made when solutions, problems, participants and choices flow around and coincide at a certain point. There is a large element of randomness in where they come to rest. a. Rational Decision-Making Model b. Artificial Intelligence Heuristics Model c. Bradford Studies d. Garbage Can Model Ans: D

15. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways of connecting decision-making and implementation, as highlighted in your textbook? a. Social connectedness

b. Continuous connectedness c. Causal connectedness d. Anticipatory connectedness Ans: A

Multiple choice bank Chapter 9: Managing communications 1. Communication that occurs between one person to another, such as an employee and a manager, is termed ______. a. Small group communication b. Dyadic communication c. Triadic-communication d. Organizational communication Ans: B

2. Which of the following would a researcher study if they are interested in cybernetics? a. Feedback b. Machines c. Living organisms d. All of the above Ans: D

3. Communication that is based on interdependence and each person‟s behaviour is a consequence of the other‟s behaviour is referred to as ______. a. Interrelation b. International c. Interpersonal d. Intrapersonal Ans: C

4. To say communication has a „meta-communication‟ aspect to it is to say what? a. A message is successfully understood only if it is sent and received in interpersonal settings b. Managing how a message is projected and received is as important as its content c. A carefully constructed message will always be understood after it is sent d. Clear communication is a myth because how a message is received will always differ Ans: B

5. Agreements within an organization about what is real and what is illusory can be referred to as ______. a. Illusory meaning b. Realizations c. Shared meanings d. Dreaming Ans: C

6. According to your textbook, what was an early and very effective form of mass communication? a. The Church b. The Fax c. The Internet d. The Industrial Revolution Ans: A

7. Which of the following are NOT one of the four important functions of communication processes highlighted in your textbook? a. Informative function b. Systemic function c. Social function d. Figurative function

Ans: C

8. The communication role of ______ is one that involves representing and communicating an organization‟s goals within and to its environment, as well as acquiring necessary information from the outside. a. Interlocker b. Boundary spanner c. Environmentalist d. Representative Ans: B

9. What are TV, print, radio, the Internet and specifically targeted events, all types of? a. Distribution channels b. Modes of communication c. Technology d. Media Ans: A

10. Which one of the following is NOT a reason why branding is a key to success? a. Brands make choice easier for consumers b. Brands offer consistency and continuity for consumers c. Brands help build and communicate a consumer‟s identity d. Brands mean you don‟t have to worry about competitors Ans: D

11. Polyphony is defined as: a. The presence of many voices and hence different ideas and perspectives b. The failure to communicate a clear brand message c. The presence of one overarching vision that informs organizational communication on all levels d. Both b and c

Ans: A

12. The study of feedback and other communication mechanisms in machines, living organisms and organizations is known as ______. a. Informatics b. Scientology c. Cybernetics d. Information systems Ans: C

13. Your textbook identified six reasons why organizations collaborate with other organizations. Which of the following is NOT one of them? a. Asymmetry b. Stability c. Symmetry d. Efficiency Ans: C

14. Groupthink occurs when a group of people used to work together end up thinking the same way. Which of the following are negative impacts of groupthink? a. Groups limit the discussion of alternatives to only a few and do not consider the whole range of possible solutions b. The group does not re-examine disfavoured alternatives c. Once a decision is made, the group is so confident that it does not think of alternatives for plan B scenarios d. All of the above Ans: D

15. A member of two organizations who is able to know things that they communicate because of their dual positions is known as ______ a. A boundary spanner

b. An interloper c. An interlocker d. A boundary shaper Ans: C

Multiple choice bank Chapter 10: Managing knowledge and learning 1. Which management „guru, ______. claimed that the difference between successful and unsuccessful companies is based on their ability to learn? a. Edgar Schein b. Peter Senge c. Michael Porter d. Max Weber Ans: B

2. Chapter 10 of your textbook argues that ______ is the process of detecting and correcting errors, continuously improving and reflecting on ways of accomplishing actions. a. Leadership b. Knowledge management c. Organizational learning d. Sustainability management Ans: C

3. Which of the following is an example of explicit knowledge? a. Riding a bike for the first time b. Learning your way around a new city c. Cooking a new souffle recipe d. Making a new friend Ans: C

4. Which of the following is NOT one of Nonaka‟s four basic patterns of knowledge? a. Socialization (tacit to tacit) b. Combination (explicit to explicit) c. Formalization (tacit to explicit) d. Internalization (explicit to tacit) Ans: C

5. Argyris and Schön (1978) identified two types of organizational level learning. The process of optimizing skills and acquiring knowledge to resolve an organizational problem is called ______ learning. a. Single loop b. Double loop c. Triple loop d. Problem loop Ans: A

6. Argyris and Schön (1978) identified two types of organizational level learning. Changing the frame of reference that normally governs behaviour is called ______ learning. a. Single loop b. Double loop c. Triple loop d. Problem loop Ans: B

7. Wenger (1998) argues different communities of practice define what constitutes competencies. Which of the following are NOT one of the three elements that define different competencies within communities? a. A sense of joint enterprise b. Relationships of mutuality c. Boundary spanners

d. Shared enterprise Ans: C

8. An ambidextrous organization is one that can separate and balance both ______ and ______. a. Left-brain and right-brain thinking b. Management and workers c. Single-loop and double-loop learning d. Exploration and exploitation Ans: D

9. What popular assumptions does Brunsson (1998) question in relation to organizational learning? a. That organizational learning leads to greater efficiency and performance b. That all learning organizations eventually fail c. That non-learning is dysfunctional d. Both a and c Ans: D

10. According to Wenger (2002), when people who have common interests in a problem come together, share ideas and find solutions, this is called ______. a. Interorganizational learning b Brain-storming c. A social learning system d. A learning organization Ans: C

11. Foucault argues exams like the one you are doing right now serve the three major power functions, which of the following is NOT one of those? a. Visibility b. Individuality

c. Subservience d. Case Ans: C 12. Foucault‟s concept of „visibility‟ during examinations refers to: a. Students being able to clearly see the exam questions b. The supervisor‟s clear understanding of each student‟s unique strengths and weaknesses c. Students becoming the focus of attention and scrutiny during the exam d. the way examiners can track student progress over time and compare them to other students Ans: C

13. Doing things more cheaply, quickly and efficiently through the routinization, standardization and formalization of what is already known and done is referred to as ______. a. Exploitation of knowledge b. Exploration of knowledge c. Imitation of knowledge d. Formalization of knowledge Ans: A

14. What type of organization, according to Brunsson (1998), can be more tolerant of contradictions as they accomplish what they have to do, and benefit from the gap between talk, action and decisions? a. The learning organization b. The ambidextrous organization c. The non-learning organization d. The triple-loop learning organization Ans: C

Multiple choice bank

Chapter 11: Managing innovation and change 1. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three stages of innovation in Ven de Ven et al.‟s (1999) road map to innovation? a. Initiation b. Development c. Execution d. Implementation Ans: C

2. Which one of the following is the best example of process innovation: a. Implementing a new user centred design methodology for doing product innovation b. Adding a physical lens zoom to the camera of the iPhone 16 c. Implementing a digital platform so customers can manage and pay bills via their portable devices d. All of the above Ans: A 3. Laursen and Salter‟s (2014) „paradox of openness‟ for innovation occurs when ______. a. Organizations open-up to external stakeholders outside their direct control, but then must allow those external stakeholders to own and profit from the innovation b. Organizations open-up to external stakeholders outside their direct control, so to gain control again they use contracts which then limit the opportunities for innovation c. Organizations open-up to external stakeholders outside their direct control, which then causes internal stakeholders to also want to have freedom from organizational control d. Organizations open-up to external stakeholders outside their direct control, which results in greater levels of trust in the public Ans: B

4. In innovation what is defined as an evolving eco-system that is created from many interconnected pieces?

a. A dynamic ecosystem b. A social network c. A platform d. A product life-cycle Ans: C

5. According to your textbook, platform leaders are ______ a. Companies that shape the structure of overarching systems architecture b. Specialized agents who interact to enhance efficiency and effectiveness c. A leadership group in which innovation managers discuss best practice cases and collectively learn to innovate d. All of the above Ans: A 6. Who, in your textbook, is credited with the term „creative destruction‟? a. Matthew Mount b. Donald Trump c. Joseph Schumpeter d. Salvador Dali Ans: C

7. According to Clayton M. Christensen, the reason for the innovator‟s dilemma is: a. Bad management b. Good management c. Growing international competition d. Overregulation Ans: B

8. According to your textbook, what two forces shape social innovations: a. Unemployment and drug use b. Technology and the human dimension

c. „Wokeism‟ and capitalism d. All of the above Ans: B

9. Your textbook identifies four types of change, which of the following is NOT one of those? a. Dialectical (struggle-based) b. Spiritual (faith-based) c. Life cycle d. Teleological (vision-based) Ans: B

10. Kurt Lewin developed his model of change in the 1950s and continues to have relevance today. Which of the following is NOT part of his model of change? a. Dissolve b. Move (or change) c. Re-freeze d. Unfreeze Ans: A 11. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a „planned theory of change‟? a. Change is accomplished through rational plans b. Change plans are developed, implemented and monitored by management c. Change programmes are put in place to minimize future changes d. Change involves a fivefold process of mindfulness, mobilizing, mapping, masks and mirrors Ans: D

12. According to Richard Badham‟s 5M model, managing change is defined as the process of influencing others to accomplish an objective. Which of the following is one of the 5Ms??

a. Mapping b. Mastering c. Manhandling d. Managing Ans: A

13. Which one of the following is NOT one of Pascale‟s complexity theory-based 4 principles of innovation? a. Self-organization is important b. Equilibrium equals death c. Doing nothing is better than doing it badly d. Complex tasks need complex problem solving Ans: C

14. One way to foster creativity and change, as implied by March (1988) is to ______. a. Carefully manage and control staff to ensure you capture any great ideas that they might come up with b. Allow people to experiment with the technology of foolishness (i.e. let them play and do things they do not normally do). c. Look at what your competitor is doing and copy it and do it even better d. All of the above Ans: B

Multiple choice bank Chapter 12: Managing ethically and sustainably 1. Corporate social responsibility occurs when an organization ______. a. Returns a profit to all their shareholders irrespective of their religion, gender and ethnicity b. At the very least adheres to the minimum government regulations sanctioned for the industry that they belong to

c. Engages in an open dialogue with their stakeholders and establishes a code of conduct that guides their behaviour internally d. Exceeds the minimum legal obligations to their stakeholders as specified through regulation and corporate governance Ans: D

2. According to your textbook, which of the following is NOT offered as an example of the difference between taking a shareholder versus a stakeholder view of business? a. A shareholder view sees the primary responsibility of business is to return a profit to shareholders b. A stakeholder view sees the responsibility of business is to create value for relevant stakeholders, such as workers, customers, etc. c. A stakeholder view stipulates that business should only focus on the longer-term gains and returns for the primary stakeholders: the owners and investors d. A shareholder view stipulates a firm must create profit without deception or fraud Ans: C

3. What is the triple bottom line? a. An accounting approach that looks at the impact on people, planet and profits b. A management strategy that states all the attention should be on profits c. A management strategy that focuses on corporate social responsibility d. An accounting approach that looks at cost, profit and loss Ans: A

4. Generally speaking animal ethics means ______: a. To accept it is an unfortunate but necessary condition that animals sacrifice themselves for humanity‟s sake b. To judge suffering as unnecessary and have empathy with animals based on the universal principle of respect for living beings c. Animals can intentionally stop a construction projects, as was the case with Denmark‟s Moore frogs

d. Animals have a right to work and earn a wage equivalent to that of a human doing the same or similar job Ans: B

5. When a firm markets and promotes itself in a very positive light, while at the same time breaching or lying about their ecological commitments, it is typically referred to as ______. a. Corporate greed b. Business as usual c. Greenwashing d. Corporate social responsibility Ans: C

6. Corporate greening is defined as a process ______. a. Of introducing principles of Corporate Social Responsibility in as many facets of the business as it is possible b. That involves trying to adopt green principles and practices in as many facets of the business as it is possible c. Of introducing Codes of Conduct in as many facets of the business as it is possible d. Of ensuring as many living plants are placed in offices and open spaces throughout the building Ans: B

7. The circular economy is a perspective that focuses on ______. a. Reuse b. Recycling c. Remanufacturing d. All of these Ans: D

8. According to your textbook, which of the following is NOT one of the nine planetary boundaries: a. Freshwater use/availability b. Rate of biodiversity loss c. Ocean acidification d. Food contamination Ans: B

9. Governing organizational behaviour through a corporate code of ethics to be followed by all members of an organization is typically associated with ______ of ethics a. The normative school b. The moral school c. The positive school d. The corporeal school Ans: A

10. According to the critical approach to ethics, when profits are paramount ______ a. An organization‟s ethics transform b. An organization‟s ethics prosper c. An organization‟s ethics suffer d. An organization‟s ethics transform and ethics prosper Ans: C 11. The concept of „ceremonial myth‟ refers to ______: a. A company‟s core values that guide its decision-making b. A set of ethical principles that all employees are expected to follow c. A shared understanding of ethical behaviour within a specific industry d. A code of conduct that is used for public relations purposes but not necessarily followed in practice Ans: D

12. Which of the following is NOT representative of the idea of „Ethics Pays‟ in relation to philanthropy as presented in your textbook? a. Companies should use their philanthropic budget only to improve their competitive context b. The more closely a company‟s philanthropy is linked to its competitive context the greater the contribution to society c. Philanthropy produces better outcomes for the company when it establishes a separate business unit to oversee its implementation d. Strategic philanthropy is an intangible resource for competitive advantage Ans: C

Multiple choice bank Chapter 13: Managing diversity and inclusion 1. In Chapter 13 of your textbook, the idea that all people should have equal organizational rights and treatment, be welcomed and included and not experience disadvantage because of a particular identity is known as ______ a. Equal employment opportunity (EEO) b. Equality, diversity and inclusion (EDI) c. Wokeism gone mad (WGM) d. Environment, social and governance (ESG) Ans: B

2. What is the specific principle that enables all organizational members to participate in organizational life and influence decision-making called? a. Inclusion b. Diversity c. Equality d. Hegemony Ans: A

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways Harrison and Klein (2007) explain how diversity can be conceptualized? a. Diversity as separation b. Diversity as variety c. Diversity as disparity d. Diversity as divisiveness Ans: D

4. What, according to Ely and Thomas (2020), is to be blamed for the lack of progress with diversity initiatives and lack of empirical support for its business case? a. There is no real proof that diversity improves organizational effectiveness and performance b. Compared to white men, there are too few women and people of colour (male or female) who actually want to be in positions of power c. Organizations are unwilling to reshape their power structures to change things d. All of the above Ans: C

5. What does the word Sukoku refer to? a. The integrationist policy of mandatory workplace diversity in management positions in Japan b. The anti-separatist policy designed to restrict the power of the indigenous tribal people of Japan compared to other Japanese people in the workplace c. An elitist policy stating that a special version of Sodoku can only be played by members of the Japanese royal family d. An isolationist policy of Japan that limits imports and migration to preserve a vision of Japan as a monolingual, monocultural and racially homogenous society Ans: D

6. According to Chapter 13 of your textbook, which of the following is most TRUE of sexual orientation as a protected characteristic?

a. Discrimination against sexual orientation is illegal in all British Commonwealth countries b. Sexual orientation is not considered a protected characteristic, and it is up to the employer to decide if it will be protected or not c. Sexual orientation is a protected characteristic in many countries, but in many countries it is not. Even in 30 British Commonwealth countries a person can be given the death penalty for sexual orientation d. Diversity in sexual orientation leads to greater workplace cohesion and productivity Ans: C

7. A business that gives graduate jobs to a graduand from Harvard Business School in the USA over a graduand from Ohio University Business School because Harvard is associated with high quality, is an example of ______. a. Good business b. Nepotism c. Equality, diversity and inclusion d. Meritocracy Ans: D 8. According to your textbook: „______ denotes belonging to a population group or subgroup made up of people who share a common cultural background or descent‟ a. Race b. Ethnicity c. Stereotype d. In-group Ans: B

9. An employer consistently celebrating a team‟s success with bacon sandwiches and beer at the end of each week, despite some members in the organization being Jewish and Muslim, is at risk of discrimination based on______. a. Language b. Dietary preference

c. Religion or belief d. Race Ans: C

10. A manager constantly making fun of an employee‟s Northern Geordie accent is an example of ______. a. Accentism b. Regionalism c. Classism d. Good fun Ans: A

11. According to your textbook, what is the main idea of intersectionality? a. Different social groups have distinct experiences that separate them from each other b. Multiple identities can influence a person‟s experiences c. The legal system is biased against certain identity groups d. Exclusion is based solely on age and language Ans: B

12. Hwang and Beauregard (2022) argue that: a) All members of a minority group will tend to experience the same disadvantages b) Age is proving to be the most important factor in workplace discrimination c) Intersectionality can lead to disadvantages, but it can also lead to privileges d) The ability to speak English reduces the level of racial discrimination towards immigrants Ans: C

13. Which of the following is NOT one of Leslie‟s (2019) typologies of unintended consequences of diversity initiatives? a. Backfire b. False progress c. Positive spillover

d. Negative spirals Ans: D

14. What are the three suggestions Edmondson (2018) argues will help foster psychological safety in the workplace? a. Setting the stage, inviting engagement, responding with appreciation b. Setting the stage, inviting appreciation, responding with humour c. Spirit of equality, culture of diversity, inviting inclusivity d. Safe spaces, authentic leadership, speaking up Ans: A

15. According to Chapter 13 of your textbook, what are some common criticisms of Equality, Diversity and Inclusivity initiatives? a. They are not focused on profit-making b. They create unnecessary documentation rather than changing culture and practices c. They are oriented towards assimilating differences based on stereotypes serving the interests of the dominant group d. All of the above Ans: D

Multiple choice bank Chapter 14: Managing organizational design 1. According to Cooke (2003), modern-day organizational practices emerged from forms of punishment and control used in ______. a. The building of ancient pyramids of Giza b. The design of spinning machines c. The slave trade d. The U.S. military Ans: C

2. In your textbook, the principle that establishes a capacity to be all seeing and an awareness of those being seen that they are always potentially under surveillance is known as the ______ principle. a. Capitalist b. Slavery c. Taylorist d. Panoptical Ans: D

3. If a manager selects an employee to fit the task, trains that employee so she learns the best way of doing things, and then monitors her closely to ensure she is performing, that manager would be adhering to the principles of ______. a. Human relations b. Autocratic management c. Scientific management d. Transactional management Ans: C

4. When labour is divided and defined into smaller specific tasks rather than being seen as a general task that anyone might do, this is known as ______. a. Specialization b. Professionalization c. Homogenization d. De-skilling Ans: A

5. Which one of the following is NOT one of Henri Fayol‟s 14 principles for management training? a. Specialization of labour b. Discipline

c. Esprit de corps d. Delegation of power to employees Ans: D

6. Max Weber‟s idea that people will obey orders if they believe those giving the orders act in accordance to a code of legal rules and regulations is called ______. a. Irrational beliefs system b. Rationality c. Rational-Legal precepts d. Functional Roles Theory Ans: C

7. Which one of the following is NOT one of the 15 principal dimensions of Weber‟s bureaucracy? a. Power belongs to an office, not an office holder b. Rules are formally codified c. Productive workers must be rewarded over non-productive workers d. Delegation of powers is expressed in terms of duties, rights, obligations and responsibilities Ans: C

8. What is Bauman‟s (1989) critique of bureaucracy according to Clegg et al. (2024)? a. Bureaucracies lead to Nazism b. Bureaucracy as a legitimate means can serve illegitimate ends c. Bureaucracy will lead to unmanageable levels of documentation d. Bureaucracy leads to a lack of innovation Ans: B

9. Which of the following is NOT a principle of Chester Barnard‟s ideas about organizing? a. Where individuals work with common values rather than common orders, they work much more effectively

b. Effective and efficient communication is central to decision-making c. The real role of the manager is to manage the values of the organization, which should be set by the chief executive d. Managers must ensure workers accept and adhere to their status as workers, ensuring management rules are followed Ans: D

10. Which one of the following management theorists argued that organizations should emphasize co-active power between people, rather than management power-over people? a. Mary Parker Follett b. Elton Mayo c. Henri Fayol d. F. W. Taylor Ans: A

11. Which one of the following is NOT one of the four major mechanisms of Ritzer‟s idea of McDonaldization? a. Control: for example, minimizing variation in every ingredient in the organizational assembly of people and things b. Predictability: for example, the specific product should look, taste, feel the same no matter where it‟s bought c. Calculability: for example, the cheapest production method is used d. Quality: for example, the quality of materials, production and outputs must be maximized to the highest degree possible Ans: D

12. An organic organizational design is typified by extensive levels of ______. a. Standardization b. Delegation c. Administration d. Authority

Ans: B

13. A mechanistic organizational design is typified by high levels of ______. a. Autonomy b. Standardization c. Delegation d. All of the above Ans: B

14. What, according to your textbook, is a focal point of Institutional Theory in Organizational Studies? a. How organizations can maximize profit through efficient design b. Understanding how management can resolve conflicts between interest groups c. Explaining how strong leaders display behaviours that can be copied by employees d. Explaining how organizations gain legitimacy in the eyes of stakeholders Ans: D

15. Which one of the following is an advantage of a matrix organization structure according to Clegg et al. (2024)? a. Provides a greater range of opportunities and personal development b. It increases job security of middle management because of clearer lines of command c. It decreases the need for communication due to greater autonomy d. It creates greater clarity and certainty for workers around their roles and responsibilities Ans: A