Test Bank For Management Information Systems Harnessing Technologies for Business & Society Tomayess

Test Bank For Management Information Systems Harnessing Technologies for Business & Society Tomayess Issa, Theodora Issa, Sarita Hardin-Ramanan, Bilal Abu-Salih, Lydia Maketo, Rohini Balapumi, S. Zaung Nau, Raadila Hajee Ahmud-Boodoo Chapter 1-11 Chapter 1: Management information systems introduction 1. IT is an abbreviation for a. information technology b. information technique c. information tools d. information technologies Ans: A

2. IS is an abbreviation for a. information society b. information sample c. information systems d. information software Ans: C

3. Information systems are used to a. gather, process, store, analyse, disseminate information b. gather, process, stop, analyse, disseminate information c. gather, process, stop, analyse, disseminate information d. gather, process, store, align, disseminate information Ans: C

4. Information technology involves: a. using computers and telecommunications b. using systems and technology c. using computers and tools d. using computers and telephone

Ans: A

5. Information technology experts deal with: a. systems configuration, testing and maintenance b. systems configuration, implement and maintenance c. systems configuration, evaluate and maintenance d. systems configuration, planning and maintenance Ans: B

6. Information systems experts deal with: a. planning, analysis, design, programming, testing, implementation and maintenance b. planning, analysis, planning, programming, testing, implementation and maintenance c. planning, analysis, design, training, testing, implementation and maintenance d. planning, analysis, design, programming, testing, implementation and maintenance Ans: D

7. Which industry employs a data analyst? a. Information technology b. Information telecommunication c. Information systems d. Information society Ans: C

8. Which industry employs a green information technology officer? a. Information systems b. Information technology c. Information programming d. Information implementation Ans: B

9. The three information systems/technology strategies are:

a. strategic level systems, management level systems, operational level systems b. strategic level systems, organization level systems, operational level systems c. strategic level systems, controlling level systems, managing level systems. d. strategic level systems, running level systems, operational level systems Ans: B

10. The four M’s of resources are a. machines, people, frameworks and raw materials b. machines, users, models and materials c. machines, personnel, methods and materials d. machines, personnel, methods and raw materials Ans: C

11. Which of the following is not an example of system software? a. Language translator b. Utility software c. Communication software d. Word processors Ans: D

12. Which of the following is designed to solve a specific problem or to do a specific task? a. Application software b. System software c. Utility software d. User Ans: A

13. Which of the following is not an open-source software? a. LibreOffice b. Microsoft Office c. GNU image manipulation

d. MySQL Ans: B

14. Which of the following is a characteristic of SaaS? a. The typical licence is subscription-based or usage-based and is billed on a recurring basis. b. The software is available over the Internet globally through a browser on demand. c. The software and the service are monitored and maintained by the vendor. d. All of these Ans: D

15. Users might invite some viruses into his/her system by clicking the: a. shareware b. spyware c. URL d. adware Ans: D

16. SRAM is more preferably in non-volatile memory because it: a. is low-cost b. is high-cost c. has low power consumption d. has a transistor as a storage element Ans: C

17. Whenever a large memory is required in a microcomputer system, the memory subsystem is generally designed using: a. static RAM b. dynamic RAM c. both static and dynamic RAM d. ROM Ans: B

18. The ISA standard buses are used to connect: a. RAM and processor b. GPU and processor c. Hard disc and processor d. CD/DVD drives and processor Ans: C

19. The key feature of the PCI bus is its: a. low-cost connectivity b. plug and play capability c. expansion of bandwidth d. none of these Ans: B

20. A functional requirement a. specifies the tasks the program must complete b. specifies the tasks the program should not complete c. specifies the tasks the program should follow some guidelines d. All of these Ans: A

Test Bank

Chapter 2: Project management and PMBOK 1. Which of the options below is a characteristic of a project? a. Projects are routine. b. Projects can go on forever. c. Projects are temporary in nature. d. Project outcomes do not always have to be unique.

Ans: C

2. Successful project management requires: a. a rigid, zero-compromise approach b. an agile mindset and people-centric approach c. money, money and only money d. change avoidance Ans: B

3. Which of the options below is an example of a project deliverable? a. The project client b. The project sponsor c. The project constraints d. The project plan Ans: D

4. Which one of the following options is not a possible reason for project failure? a. Poor risk management b. Sound project management practices c. Little to no stakeholder engagement d. Scope creep Ans: B

5. What are the competing constraints on a project? a. Scope, time, cost, quality, risks, resources and stakeholder expectations

b. The final project output, unexpected outcomes and the project sponsor c. Lack of communication, unclear project objectives, no project feedback and change d. Technology, roles and responsibilities, lessons learnt Ans: A

6. Which of the options below is not part of the project initiation phase? a. Understanding enterprise environmental factors and their influence on the project b. Identifying high level project objectives c. Project charter sign-off d. Anticipating the impact of changes and amending the project management plan accordingly Ans: D

7. What are organizational project assets (OPAs)? a. The money allocated to the project b. The external project environment c. The internal templates and reports d. The people working in the organization Ans: C

8. What is the difference between project monitoring and project control? a. The terms are synonymous. b. Monitoring requires measurement of actual data and its comparison with planned data whereas control requires changes to the project plan to bring the project back on target. c. Monitoring requires measurement whereas control is about oversight. d. Monitoring oversees all dimensions of the project whereas control is only about people.

Ans: B

9. Why is project closure important? a. To forget about the project

b. For client-sign off and/or contract closure as well as the recording of lessons learnt and historical data c. To celebrate the end of the project d. To close the business Ans: B

10. Which of the following is not one of the nine project management knowledge areas? a. Lean management b. Procurement management c. Integration management d. Stakeholder management Ans: A

11. The project conflict is: a. a process to estimate cost and time b. a process to identify the project scope c. a process to improve team communication d. a process to observe that the other team is frustrated Ans: D

12. Project conflict can occur in project management due to a lack of: a. communication b. honesty and trust c. commitment and cross-cultural awareness d. all of these Ans: D

13. The three traditional types of conflict are: a. goal-oriented b. authority based c. interpersonal

d. all of these Ans: D

14. Personality conflict occurs due to: a. disagreements on interpersonal issues b. disagreements about the timing c. disagreements about the cost d. disagreements about the scope Ans: A

15. Conflict over schedules is due to: a. disagreements about the cost b. disagreements about the scope c. disagreements about the timing d. disagreements about human resources Ans: C

16. The withdrawal method: a. resolves the conflict b. provides a short-term solution c. does not resolve the conflict d. provides a long-term solution Ans: C

17. The forcing method used to resolve conflict: a. provides a short-term solution b. may result in hard feelings being expressed later in another form c. provides a long-term solution d. provides a final solution Ans: B

18. The problem-solving method used to resolve conflict: a. provides a short-term solution b. provides a medium-term solution c. provides a long-term solution d. provides a final solution Ans: D

19. In project management, risk is the: a. result of uncertainty or chance events that planning cannot avoid or control b. result of planning and control phases c. result of timing and cost d. the outcome of the scoping phase Ans: A

20. The steps involved in the management of project risk are: a. risk identification, risk assessment, risk response development, risk response control b. risk identification, risk scope, risk response development, risk response control c. risk identification, risk assessment, risk cost, risk response control d. risk identification, risk assessment, risk response development, risk tasks.

Ans: A

Test Bank Chapter 3: Ethics, ethical mindsets, corporate social responsibility and the triple bottom line 1. Kohlberg (1958) identified six stages in moral development of the human being. These are: a. obedience and punishment, self-interest, good boy/girl, law and order, social contract, principled conscience b. punishment, interest, good, order, social, conscience c. obedience, self, law, contract, principled, genders d. self-interest, good boy/girl, social contract, principled, conscience

Ans: A

2. Schon’s reflection-in-action can be best defined as: a. reflection triggers when you are acting as part of a role play b. reflection triggers when you are acting as a project manager c. reflection triggers when events are unusual/or problematic d. reflection triggers when events are going well Ans: C

3. Schon’s reflection-on-action can be best defined as: a. this is something that grows in fighting b. retrospective analysis of what occurred to change and adapt c. this is something that develops during the combat d. this is analysis of what doesn’t need to change Ans: B

4. For Critical Thinking, Hilsdon (2010) identifies three areas that need attention: a. description, analysis, evaluation b. deed, achievement, encounter c. demand, accomplishment, engagement d. task, time, target Ans: A 5. Issa (2009) coined the concept ‘Ethical Mindsets’ – in her research she came out with ______ components of ‘Ethical Mindsets’ a. ten b. five c. eight d. seven Ans: C

6. According to Shaw et al. (2013, 2016, 2021) ‘Ethics of Care’ is considered a ______ of Ethical Theory a. deontological b. Machiavellian c. virtue d. challenge Ans: C 7. According to Shaw et al. (2013, 2016, 2021) ‘W.D. Ross’ is considered a ______ of Ethical Theory a. deontological b. egoism c. golden rule d. virtue Ans: A 8. According to Shaw et al. (2013, 2016, 2021) ‘Utilitarianism’ is considered a ______ of Ethical Theory a. teleology b. virtue c. Plato philosophy d. golden rule Ans: A 9. According to Shaw et al. (2013, 2016, 2021) ‘Aristotle development of excellent person’ is considered ______ of Ethical Theory a. egoism b. virtue c. caring for others d. utilitarianism Ans: B

10. According to Shaw et al. (2013, 2016, 2021) ‘Kant’s treating others as ends in themselves’ is considered one a ______ of Ethical Theory a. Machiavellianism b. utilitarianism c. deontology d. teleology Ans: C 11. According to Shaw et al. (2013, 2016, 2021) ‘Achieving the moral agent’s best long-term interest’ is known as: a. egoism b. altruism c. self-sacrifice d. utilitarianism Ans: A

12. Fisher and Lovell (2006, 2009, 2011) provide a framework for ethical theories, dividing them into four quarters of a. ______ b. ______ c. ______ d. ______ Ans: Individual processes, such as adaptability and responses, institutional structure, such as fixity and consistency, policy ‘doing good’, principle ‘doing right’.

13. In Fisher and Lovell (2006, 2009, 2011) framework for ethical theories, virtue ethics sits between ______ and ______ Ans: Virtue ethics sits between the individual processes and the principle (doing right).

14. In Fisher and Lovell (2006, 2009, 2011) framework for ethical theories, ethical learning and growth sits between ______ and ______ Ans: Ethical learning and growth sit between individual processes and policy (doing good).

15. In Fisher and Lovell (2006, 2009, 2011) framework for ethical theories, Deontological Ethics sits between ______ and ______ Ans: Deontological ethics sits between the principle (doing right) and institutional structure, such as fixity and consistency.

16. In Fisher and Lovell (2006, 2009, 2011) framework for ethical theories, Teleological Ethics sits between ______ and ______ Ans: Teleological ethics sits between policy (doing good) and institutional structure, such as fixity and consistency.

17. Carroll’s 1991 Corporate Social Responsibility pyramid highlights how many types of responsibilities: a. four b. eight c. three d. ten Ans: A

18. How many benefits does Forte (2013) identify for Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) a. seven b. two c. five d. ten Ans: C

19. Corporate Social Responsibility and according to Steckstor (2012) has ______ types: a. ten

b. six c. twelve d. four Ans: B

20. The triple bottom line stands for: a. profit, peace, patch b. piece, pack, profit c. planet, people, profit d. planet, profit, product Ans: C

Test Bank Chapter 4: Sustainability, sustainable design and green IT 1. What is the most commonly used definition of sustainable development? a. Development which protects the environment. b. Development which focusses on economic growth and social welfare. c. Development that meets the needs of the present without comprising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. d. Economic development to raise the standard of living and ensure both current and future growth.

Ans: C

2. What is the focus of economic sustainability? a. Making money b. Unlimited use of natural resources c. Financial gain for social benefits d. Responsible production, distribution and consumption Ans: D

3. Why is sustainable development important? a. To contain the effects of climate change b. To balance economic, environmental and social development c. To make people happy d. To ensure economic growth Ans: B

4. Which one of the following is a United Nations Sustainable Development Goal? a. Gender equality b. Economic growth at any cost c. Going back to the roots d. To be happy and rich Ans: A

5. Data play an important role in sustainable development. How it is used in this regard? a. To monitor the amount of money being generated. b. To monitor waste production. c. To accurately determine the economic, environmental and social development impacts before strategies are devised for sustainability purposes. d. To make use of the latest technology.

Ans: C

6. How can accurate and reliable data support sustainable supply chains? a. Data are not important – carbon-free production is. b. Data are important to determine profitability only. c. Data are important only to identify processes which worked and can be repeated. d. Real-time data collection and sharing facilitate communication and coordination among different supply chain stakeholders for efficient production, smart distribution and improved customer satisfaction.

Ans: D

7. How can Industry 4.0 support sustainable development? a. Automation of monotonous/physically demanding jobs can help improve work-life quality. b. Humans will not have to work as robots can/will perform all possible tasks. c. Job security is threatened. d. Industry 4.0 technology does not produce any form of waste.

Ans: A

8. Which of the following options is not an issue associated with sustainability? a. Sustainable development often requires high investment and operational costs. b. Carbon tax may impel some businesses to relocate to carbon-tax-free countries. c. Industry 4.0 technology supports resource-efficient and clean production. d. Reporting on sustainable development can be tedious and costly.

Ans: C

9. Which of the following options is not a benefit derived from sustainable development? a. Increased business reputation and competition b. High investment costs c. Increased customer loyalty d. Smarter logistics management Ans: B

10. How has the COVID-19 pandemic been conducive to the achievement of SDGs? a. Closure of borders and reduced productivity have severely impacted economies and world trade. b. Good health and social well-being are no longer a reality for many. c. Home confinements and lockdowns have resulted in an increase of domestic violence. d. Covid-related lockdowns have resulted in improved air quality, reduction of GHG emissions and less noise pollution.

Ans: D

11. GIT stands for:

a. Green Information Technique b. Green Information Tools c. Green Information Technology d. Green Information Tips Ans: C

12. HCI stands for: a. Human Communication Interaction b. Human Collaboration Interaction c. Human Collaboration International d. Human Computer Interaction Ans: D

13. The inclusion of usability features in product design is intended to make a system or device: a. easy to learn b. easy to remember c. easy to use and to evaluate d. all of these Ans: D

14. The design features of a HCI comprise: a. text style b. fonts c. layout, graphics and colour d. all of these Ans: D

15. IoT stands for: a. Internet of Things b. Internet of Tools

c. Internet of Technology d. Internet of Transfer Ans: A

16. Augmented reality (AR): a. enables the display of an entirely virtual space b. enables the virtual presentation of any data from the real environment c. is a branch of computer science d. is a peer-to-peer technology Ans: B

17. Artificial Intelligence (AI) is: a. used to combine virtual things exhibited in the real world b. protected using encryption methods c. a branch of computer science that focuses on building intelligent machines that function and behave like people d. a field that explores methods for analysing data sets that are too huge Ans: C

18. Blockchain is: a. a peer-to-peer technology which records information shared between the parties in a legitimate/real and immutable/ complete way b. one of the networking technologies c. useful for analysing huge data sets d. useful for recycling devices Ans: A

19. Sustainable design aims to: a. apply environmental principles b. conserve natural resources c. ensure energy efficiency

d. all of these Ans: D

20. Environmental principles are: a. recyclable b. recyclable c. renewable d. all of these Ans: D

Test Bank Chapter 5: Computer networks and information security 1. A(n) ______ interconnects multiple end-devices in the same LAN. a. RFID receiver b. WiMax receiver c. access point d. switch Ans: C

2. Each computer on a network must contain which of the following that facilitates networking connectivity in a computer? a. Network interface device b. Switch c. Router d. Hub Ans: A

3. Arrange the following networks based on their geographic area coverage, from smallest to largest: a. PAN, MAN, LAN, WAN

b. PAN, LAN, MAN, WAN c. LAN, PAN, MAN, WAN d. WAN, MAN, LAN, PAN Ans: B

4. Client/server computing is a: a. network that connects sensors to desktop computers b. network where centralized server computers serve local devices c. centralized model of computing for large corporations d. distributed computing model where clients are linked to one another through a network that is controlled by a network server computer e. centralized computing model where local computers are connected to one another by a network Ans: D

5. Which of the following is NOT true about peer-to-peer network? a. Computing devices on the network are connected to each other directly. b. Each computing device on the network has equal role and privileges on the network. c. A centralized computer manages storage and sharing of resources in the network. d. Network performance decreases when number of computing devices increases in the network.

Ans: C

6. A network communication protocol is a. a device that handles the switching of voice and data in a local area network b. a standard set of rules and procedures for the control of communications in a network c. a communications service for microcomputer users d. a pathway through which packets are routed Ans: B

7. In the TCP/IP protocol, the Internet Protocol (IP) is responsible for which of the following? a. Disassembling and reassembling packets during transmission b. Establishing an Internet connection between two computers c. Moving packets over the network d. Sequencing the transfer of packets e. Breaking messages down into packets Ans: A

8. What are the four layers of the TCP/IP reference model? a. physical, application, transport and network interface b. physical, application, Internet and network interface c. application, transport, Internet and network interface d. application, hardware, Internet and network interface e. software, hardware, network interface and Internet Ans: C

9. Which of the following is not true about packet switching? a. Packets travel independently of each other. b. Packets are routed through many different paths. c. Packet switching requires point-to-point circuits. d. Packets include data for checking transmission errors. e. Packets are reassembled into the original message when they reach their destinations.

Ans: C

10. An intranet is: a. an encrypted private network configured within a public network b. more expensive than a dedicated network c. an Internet-based service for delivering voice communications d. a company’s internal network that enables communication and collaboration with their employees and users

e. an internal network extended to provide access to external users such as customers, vendors, partners or others outside the organization Ans: D

11. An extranet is: a. an encrypted private network configured within a public network b. more expensive than a dedicated network c. an Internet-based service for delivering voice communications d. an internal company network that enables communication and collaboration with employees and users e. an internal network extended to provide access to external users such as customers, vendors, partners or others outside the organization Ans: E

12. A VPN is: a. an encrypted private network configured within a public network b. more expensive than a dedicated network c. an Internet-based service for delivering voice communications d. an internal network that enables communication and collaboration with employees and users e. an internal network extended to provide access to external users such as customers, vendors, partners or others outside the organization Ans: A Information Security 13. ______ are policies, procedures and control measures used to prevent unauthorized access or damage to information systems resources. a. security b. controls c. benchmarking d. algorithms e. identity management

Ans: A

14. ______ is a cyber-attack that uses malware to take control of a user’s computer and then extorts ransom from the users in exchange for giving back access. a. a Trojan horse b. ransomware c. spyware d. a virus e. sniffing Ans: B

15. Careless Internet surfing is ______ and is an ______ mistake. a. a human error; intentional b. a human error; unintentional c. social engineering; intentional d. social engineering; unintentional Ans: B

16. ______ is an attack in which the perpetrator uses social skills to trick or manipulate legitimate employees into providing confidential company information such as passwords. a. espionage b. malware c. profiling d. social engineering Ans: D

17. Peter received an email supposedly from his bank asking for his account’s username and password. He later found out that the email was not from his bank and realized that he had given sensitive information to someone who subsequently gained access to his accounts. This is an example of a ______.

a. worm b. Trojan horse c. phishing attack d. denial of service attack Ans: C

18. An employee at a company downloaded an email and opened the attachment accompanying the message. Shortly afterwards, all employees were blocked from accessing files on the company’s servers and the cyber criminals told the company that they would have to pay a large amount of money to regain access to their files. The company was a victim of ______. a. ransomware b. identity theft c. spyware d. cyber warfare Ans: A

19. A(n) ______ is a system that prevents a specific type of information from moving between untrusted networks and private networks. a. anti-malware system b. social engineering c. ERP d. firewall Ans: D

20. Suppose you have a primary location in City A where your main corporate servers are located. Just in case something happens in City A, you have a network configured with all the necessary equipment including backup servers that are updated every minute in City Y, office space, furniture, communications capabilities and computer equipment, which allow immediate recovery from a disaster. It also includes staffing to manage and monitor the equipment. This is an example of a ______ site.

a. cold b. hot c. medium d. warm Ans: B

Test Bank Chapter 6: Mobile technologies 1. Which of the following is true for first generation wireless systems? a. Efficient b. Digital technology c. High data rate d. Low data rate Ans: D

2. Which of the following is one of the disadvantages of 2G standards? a. Short messaging services b. Digital modulation c. Limited capacity d. Limited Internet browsing Ans: D

3. The ______ cellular phone system can provide universal personal communication. a. First generation b. Second generation c. Third generation d. None-of these Ans: C

4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the 3G network?

a. Communication over VoIP b. Unparalleled network capacity c. Multi-megabit Internet access d. Long-term evolution (LTE)-based network Ans: D

5. CDMA is: a. similar to FDMA b. similar to TDMA c. combination of both d. none of these Ans: C

6. In which multiplexing technique are different users assigned to different channels? a. TDMA b. FDMA c. CDMA d. All of these Ans: B

7. In which of the following does the single channel have the ability to carry all transmissions simultaneously? a. CDMA b. TDMA c. FDMA d. none of these Ans: A

8. What are the benefits of Bluetooth technology? a. Cable replacement, ease of file sharing b. Robust, low energy consumption

c. Low-cost technology d. All of these Ans: D

9. What is wireless communication? a. Sending data from one location to another via a physical medium b. Sending data from one location to another without the use of a physical medium c. Sending data from one location to another without the use of a virtual medium d. None of these Ans: B

10. What is the nominal range of Bluetooth? a. 1 km b. 10 m c. 1 m d. 10 km Ans: B

11. The speed of Bluetooth version 5 is ______ a. 2 Mbps b. 4 Mbps c. 8 Mbs d. None of these Ans: A

12. The outdoor range of Bluetooth version 5 is ______ a. 200 m b. 40 m c. 80 m d. None of these Ans: A

13. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a cellular telephone system? a. Accommodates a large number of users b. Covers a large geographic area c. Limited frequency spectrum d. Large frequency spectrum Ans: C

14. On which IEEE standard is Wi-Fi based? a. 802.11 b. 802.13 c. 802.15 d. 802.16 Ans: A 15. What is an ‘evil twin’ attack? a. An attack that mimics the user’s MAC address to enter your network. b. An attack that denies service to the user’s router. c. An attack that creates a mock website or tricks a user into divulging secure information. d. An attack that copies all the files from the user’s router to a secondary hard drive on a hacker computer.

Ans: C 16. Which type of wireless network threat is posed when ‘communication is unknowingly going through an adversary’? a. Malicious Association b. Man in the middle attack c. Network Injection d. Accidental Association Ans: B

17. How many components are there in the RFID system? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four Ans: B

18. Which RFID tag has the least range? a. Active b. Semi-passive c. Passive d. None of these Ans: C

19. The lifetime of ______ RFID is unlimited. a. Active b. Passive c. Both a and b d. None of these Ans: B

20. Of the various wireless options for wearable devices, which one needs to connect to a smart phone, and is the most popular? a. Bluetooth b. Wi-Fi c. RFID d. OCR Ans: A

Test Bank

Chapter 7: Social computing and social commerce 1. Which generation of the World Wide Web has revolutionized social computing? a. Web 1.0 b. Web 2.0 c. Web 3.0 d. Web 4.0 Ans: B

2. What is the outcome of the interplay between people and Web 2.0 in the conceptual model of social computing? a. Human-computer interaction b. Online social platform c. User-generated content d. IT infrastructure Ans: C

3. What is the key difference between Web 1.0 and Web 2.0? a. Interactivity b. Website’s accessibility c. Information availability d. Information delivery Ans: A

4. The generation of the Web that aims to enable computers to understand the meaning of data is known as: a. Web 3.0 b. Web 4.0 c. Web 5.0 d. Web 6.0 Ans: A

5. Q&A sites are: a. online social networks b. social review sites c. Wikis d. discussion forums Ans: D

6. Which of the following entities is involved in the internal interaction of businesses with social computing? a. Employee b. Customer c. Supplier d. Competitor Ans: B

7. Which of the following is a correct statement? a. Adobe has been negatively affected by the propagation of social advertising. b. S-commerce is a quick means of expanding the customer base. c. S-commerce refers to commerce conducted by means of OSNs only. d. S-commerce has made it easier to measure financial gains.

Ans: B

8. Which of the following firms is considered the pioneer of s-commerce? a. Google b. IBM c. Microsoft d. Yahoo Ans: D

9. Which of the following is not an essential part of an s-commerce definition? a. Social media

b. Web 2.0 technology c. Buying and selling d. Company website Ans: D

10. Which of the following is a feature of e-commerce? a. Transactions are conducted via the C2C model. b. The static Web can be used. c. It can offer a personalized shopping experience. d. It strongly supports group shopping.

Ans: B

11. GoTryItOn is an example of: a. group purchase b. a social shopping site c. purchase sharing d. flash sale Ans: B

12. The key feature that distinguishes Shopkick from other competitors is that: a. it offers its customers a user-friendly site b. it sells customer analytics to local merchants c. it offers reward points to customers d. it engages customers in the manufacturing process Ans: C

13. A narrow window of time available for conducting a purchase is referred to as: a. group purchase b. purchase sharing c. flash sale d. P2P commerce

Ans: C

14. Which of the following is not related to better understanding the role of people in the scommerce framework? a. The views of the empowered consumers b. Social heuristics and psychology c. Social demographics d. Type of platform used for s-commerce Ans: D

15. The business management department that focuses on a company’s interactions with its customers is called: a. customer marketing b. customer supply c. customer relationship d. customer accounting Ans: C

16. A company’s profile data is an example of: a. business self-representative information b. business annual profits c. business market share d. business internal operations Ans: A

17. Which of the following is a consequence of the emergence of s-commerce? a. mild market competition b. easier handling of customer information c. fewer touchpoints with customers d. greater privacy issues Ans: D

18. Which of the following is a strategy applied to obtain a competitive advantage? a. Limiting the number of products or services b. Encouraging competitors to enter the market c. Limiting the collaboration with business partners d. Improving overall business processes Ans: D

19. S-commerce urges businesses to establish new touchpoints with their customers by means of: a. E-mail b. Chatbot c. Phone call d. Fax Ans: B

20. Which of the following is a correct statement? a. Social computing is a new term coined after the beginning of the social media revolution. b. With the propagation of social networks, B2C activities have flourished and B2B activities have diminished. c. S-commerce has made the handling of data silos an easy task. d. Yahoo Shoposphere is one of the earliest s-commerce platforms.

Ans: D

Test Bank Chapter 8: Smart technologies 1. What are the three key attributes of virtual reality? a. Presence, interaction, immersion. b. Headsets, games, PCs. c. Reality, virtuality, extended reality.

d. Motion trackers, haptic output devices, VR glasses.

Ans: A

2. What is the difference between AR and VR? a. There is no difference. AR is synonymous with VR. b. AR stands for ‘accepted reality’ whereas VR is the short form of ‘virtual reality’. c. AR is used in the field of medicine whereas VR is popular only in the gaming realm. d. VR simulates reality whereas AR enhances reality by adding digital elements to it.

Ans: D

3. Which of the following is not an issue associated with VR? a. Simulacra b. Improved gaming experience c. Motion sickness. d. Antisocial behaviour Ans: B

4. What is the metaverse? a. The space beyond the universe. b. The new name for Facebook, Inc. c. A gaming universe. d. A collection of virtual 3D spaces accessible to multiple users through their avatars.

Ans: D

5. How can the metaverse enhance the working experience? a. It enables employees to play games. b. It provides access to innovative technology. c. It provides an immersive platform for more engaging, connected and balanced remote work. d. It transports employees to a parallel world for relaxation.

Ans: C

6. Which of the following statements is false? a. Virtual reality provides an immersive experience in an alternate reality. b. Through augmented virtuality, a virtual reality is enhanced with objects from real life. c. Cyber-crime can be committed within the metaverse. d. Machines are not human and can therefore never be a threat to mankind.

Ans: D

7. AR is an abbreviation for: a. augmented reality. b. augmented real c. augmented really d. augmented rattling Ans: A

8. Sensorama was developed in which year? a. 1960 b. 1970 c. 1950 d. 1940 Ans: C

9. In which year did NASA use a hybrid synthetic vision system on their X-38 spacecraft? a. 1992 b. 1990 c. 1991 d. 1999 Ans: D

10. When did Google Glass first appear? a. 2000

b. 2012 c. 2014 d. 2016 Ans: C

11. The IKEA Place application was developed in which year? a. 2012 b. 2014 c. 2016 d. 2017 Ans: D

12. Designhubz was developed in which year? a. 2017 b. 2018 c. 2019 d. 2020 Ans: C

13. In which year did Volkswagen develop the Marta app? a. 2008 b. 2009 c. 2010 d. 2013 Ans: D

14. Niantic’s Pokémon GO app belongs to which sector for AR? a. Marketing b. Health c. Education d. Gaming

Ans: D

15. The benefits of AR are: a. it increases people’s knowledge and information b. it improves people’s experience c. it is easy to use d. all of these Ans: D

16. The negative aspects of AR are: a. it is expensive b. it raises privacy and security concerns c. it encourages risky behaviour d. all of these Ans: D

17. AR has become a critical tool in the healthcare industry because: a. it makes training more accessible b. it facilitates innovative treatments c. it produced virtualization d. all of these Ans: D 18. In which year did Myron Kruger establish the ‘Videoplace’ lab? a. 1950 b. 1974 c. 1964 d. 1975 Ans: B

19. In which year did Boeing researcher Tim Caudell use augmented reality?

a. 1985 b. 1990 c. 1991 d. 1992 Ans: B

20. In which year did Ivan Sutherland develop the first AR technology? a. 1960 b. 1968 c. 1969 d. 1970 Ans: B

Test Bank Chapter 9: Artificial intelligence and knowledge graphs 1. When was the term Artificial Intelligence officially coined? a. 1945 b. 1966 c. 1956 d. 1980 Ans: C

2. If machines are given conscious intelligence, this is an example of? a. Weak AI b. Narrow AI c. Strong AI d. Limited AI Ans: C

3. Why are AI solutions popular nowadays?

a. They allow the propagation of data where conventional technical solutions are no longer applicable. b. Unlike the solutions developed decades ago, AI offers an easy solution to business problems. c. There is a decline in human skills and intelligence. d. The automation of the decision-making process has proven to be less effective and is no longer required.

Ans: A

4. Which of the following best describes ML algorithms? a. Enabling machines to learn b. Enabling machines to mimic human behaviours c. Enabling machines to perform faster d. Enabling machine-to-machine communication Ans: A

5. Which one of the following is a true difference between AI and ML? a. There are no differences: the terms AI and ML are used interchangeably. b. ML is concerned with achievement, while AI is concerned with accuracy. c. Intelligent search engines pertain to ML; virtual assistants pertain to AI. d. The functions of both AI and ML are based on previous experiences only.

Ans: C

6. Which of the following is a correct statement? a. Customer segmentation is a prominent example of unsupervised learning. b. AI represents an impractical means of handling big data. c. Search engines are the only beneficiaries of KGs. d. All types of ML are distinguishable from each other.

Ans: A

7. Which of the following is not necessary for the implementation of supervised Machine Learning? a. Historical observations b. An explicit class label c. Supervised ML algorithm d. Hidden patterns Ans: D

8. AlphZero is an example of: a. a reinforcement learning algorithm b. an unsupervised learning algorithm c. a supervised learning algorithm d. a deep learning algorithm Ans: A

9. Why have many businesses recently incorporated virtual assistants in their business operations? a. They are free to access. b. They help to create customer satisfaction. c. They can replace humans. d. They are easy to implement.

Ans: B

10. Which of the following statements is false? a. Deep learning is a specific ML algorithm that cannot be applied to supervised learning. b. A typical KG must consist of entities and the relationships between these entities. c. Semantic meanings are given to data via data annotation. d. In a typical case of reinforcement learning, the predictions are made successively.

Ans: A 11. What was the main reason that drove Mad Over Donuts™ to use DoNut Talk?

a. The high reputation of Jumper.ai b. To offer customers free purchase coupons c. To bridge the gap between online and offline sales d. To carry out a customer segmentation Ans: C

12. An example of a relationship that can be seen in a KG: a. Barack Obama b. Louvre c. Jan 1st 1990 d … is a friend of Ans: D

13. What is the key difference between Google’s KG and a Knowledge Panel? a. A Knowledge Panel is the back-end of KG. b. A Knowledge Panel is fed by facts obtained from KG. c. Information is much easier to explore in KG than in a Knowledge Panel. d. Information in a Knowledge Panel is not limited to a particular entity.

Ans: B

14. The interlinking of entities in different vocabularies in order to obtain a better understanding of entities is referred to: a. lexical interlinking b. vocabulary interlinking c. semantic interlinking d. philological interlinking Ans: C

15. Which of the following is not a component of an RDF triple? a. Subject b. Tail

c. Relation d. Body Ans: D

16. Which of the following does not describe domain-specific KGs: a. their construction is usually based on a predefined schema b. they describe a specific domain or its subdomain c. DBPedia is an example of domain-specific KGs d. they are generally limited to one or few vocabularies Ans: C

17. The bottom-up approach is an example of: a. schema-based KG construction approach b. schema-free KG construction approach c. hybrid KG construction approach d. open KG construction approach Ans: A

18. What can transform a search engine into a knowledge engine? a. Adding more data sources b. Changing the search graphical user interface c. Providing more personalized search results d. Integrating advanced technologies Ans: D

19. Which one of the following types of ML is the best solution to reward-based problems? a. Supervised learning b. Unsupervised learning c. Reinforcement learning d. Deep learning Ans: C

20. Which of the following types of knowledge bases accommodate the KG construction technique that relies on the openness of the Web? a. Schema-based knowledge base b. Schema-free knowledge base c. Structured knowledge base d. Hybrid knowledge base Ans: B

Test Bank Chapter 10: Data analytics 1. The big data analytics process involves: a. data acquisition b. data extraction, transformation and loading c. data analysis d. interpretation e. all of these Ans: E

2. Which one of the following factors does NOT enable us to harness big data for business data analytics? a. Emerging landscape of cloud-based environments b. Sophisticated parallel and distributed systems c. Ever-increasing complexity of consumer behaviour d. Significant technological advancements in computing memory, storage, processing power, networking infrastructure and communication e. Evolving visualization technologies Ans: C

3. Match each definition with the corresponding type of data analytics.

a. Descriptive analytics

1. To predict what could happen in the future by considering the impact of one or more factors

b. Diagnostic analytics

2. To describe what happened in the past

c. Predictive analytics

3. To discover the best course of action to take to achieve the desired outcome/s

d. Prescriptive analytics

4. To determine the reason/s for a specific occurrence

Ans: a. Descriptive analytics

2. To describe what happened in the past

b. Diagnostic analytics

4. To determine the reason/s for a specific occurrence

c. Predictive analytics

1. To predict what could happen in the future by considering the impact of one or more factors

d. Prescriptive analytics

3. To discover the best course of action to take to achieve the desired outcome/s

4. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to health care analytics? a. It can be used to detect the fraudulent medical or health service claims. b. It can be used to conduct diagnostic assessments and issue prescriptions automatically. c. It can be used to collect real-time data from in-hospital and in-home devices and analyse it to monitor the patients’ safety and predict adverse events. d. It can be used to perform the genomic analytics for gene sequencing more effectively and efficiently. e. It can be used to analyse disease patterns and track disease outbreaks.

Ans: B

5. Which of the following statements is true? a. Meta data is useful only for the data custodian but not in any stage of the data analytics process. b. Advanced data management techniques allow us to integrate the data from various sources without difficulty. c. A larger number of datasets means that we can conduct more insightful or meaningful data analytics.

d. Using the most sophisticated or complex analysis method enables us to overcome all challenges during the analysis and modelling stage of data analytics. e. It is important to document all assumptions made at each stage of the data analytics process and to consider them when interpreting the findings so as to obtain accurate contextual insights.

Ans: E

6. Which of the following visual channels need to be considered in the visual representation of visualization? a. Semantic channels b. Geometric channels c. Topological and relational channels d. Optical channels e. All of these Ans: E

7. Which of the following processes is not one of the four stages of the visualization pipeline? a. Data enrichment and enhancement b. Visualization and mapping c. Display d. Data generation e. Rendering Ans: B

8. Match the definitions with the corresponding design principles. a. Modularity

1. To adopt a consistent style appropriate for a targeted audience without implications produced by strong graphic styles or overly minimalist designs.

b. Context Independence

2. To use text explanation along with graphics to facilitate memory and lookup

c. Clear Graphics

3. To minimize overcrowding and to allow different combinations of visual representations

d. Style Neutrality

4. To keep content context-free and abstract for reusability

Ans: a. Modularity

3. To minimize overcrowding and allow different combinations of visual representations

b. Context

4. To keep content context-free and abstract for reusability

Independence c. Clear Graphics

2. To use text explanation along with graphics to facilitate memory and lookup

d. Style Neutrality

1. To adopt a consistent style appropriate for a targeted audience without implications produced by strong graphic styles or overly minimalist designs.

9. Which of the following is NOT the purpose of information visualization? a. To solve the problems by digesting the large amount of data with computer-supported, interactive visual representations b. To facilitate external memorization c. To direct our attention for concept grasping d. To present the findings from data analytics process in more appealing format e. To disseminate knowledge and insight Ans: D

10. Which of the following visualization methods can be used to illustrate the networks, connectivity, centrality and betweenness of the data points? a. Tree/hierarchical visualization b. Multidimensional visualization c. Network visualization d. Geospatial visualization e. Volumetric visualization Ans: C

11. Which of the following is not part of five-layer business intelligence architecture? a. ETL layer b. Data source layer c. End-user layer d. Networking and communication layer e. Meta data layer Ans: D

12. Analytical applications for the modelling and forecasting process are found in the: a. ETL layer b. data source layer c. end-user layer d. data warehouse layer e. meta data layer Ans: C

13. During which process can the extracted data be sent back for correction due to data errors? a. Loading process b. Transformation and cleaning process c. Data integration process d. Data extraction process e. Data query and reporting process Ans: B

14. Which of the following is not part of a data warehouse layer? a. Data warehouse b. Meta data repository c. Data mart d. Operational data store

e. None of these Ans: B

15. Match the definitions with the corresponding business intelligence techniques. a. Forecasting

1. Imitating how the human brain works and representing how the arrays of neurons function in biological learning and memory, so that computing models can have the ability to learn or adopt, to categorize or to generalize the findings with iterative processing

b. Logistic Analysis

2. Forecasting the value from stationary, trend and seasonal time series data sets

c. Clustering Analysis

3. Predicting the binomial response variable by considering more than one explanatory variable and its procedure is moderately similar to the steps taken in the multiple regression model

d. Fuzzy time series

4. Predicting the likely course of future conditions or events based on the historical data

e. Artificial neural network analysis

5. Grouping similar observations into a number of clusters based on the observed values of several variables for each individual

Ans: a. Forecasting

2. Forecasting the value from stationary, trend and seasonal time series data sets

b. Logistic Analysis

3. Predicting the binomial response variable by considering more than one explanatory variable and its procedure is moderately similar to the steps taken in the multiple regression model

c. Clustering Analysis

5. Grouping similar observations into a number of clusters based on the observed values of several variables for each individual

d. Fuzzy time series

4. Predicting the likely course of future conditions or events based on the historical data

e. Artificial neural

1. Imitating how the human brain works and representing how

network analysis

the arrays of neurons function in biological learning and memory, so that computing models can have the ability to learn or adopt, to categorize or to generalize the findings with iterative processing

Test Bank Chapter 11: Emerging technologies in the digital age: Big data, IoT, cloud computing and blockchain 1. The cloud computing service where consumers use the applications but do not control any of the infrastructure, applications or hardware is known as: a. platform as a service (PaaS) b. service as a service (SaaS) c. infrastructure as a service (IaaS) d. client service (CS) e. server service (SS) Ans: B

2. Which of the following is not a feature of cloud computing? a. Computing resources are run from a hard drive b. Shared pool of configurable computing resources c. Applications and services delivery over the Internet d. Flexibility and scalability Ans: A

3. Which cloud computing delivery model is a composition of all the other models? a. Public b. Private c. Hybrid d. Community Ans: C

4. Which of the following is not an example of cloud computing? a. Google Drive b. Email services c. Dropbox d. MS Office saved on the desktop Ans: D

5. When users can deploy and run applications online without having to take on the responsibilities of managing and maintaining them, the service being offered is a. Infrastructure as a service b. Platform as a service c. Service as a service d. Online application service Ans: A

6. Which of the following is not a characteristic of big data? a. Volume b. Velocity c. Validity d. Variety Ans: C

7. Velocity refers to: a. the diverse types of data and data sources b. the quality and provenance of the big data c. the mass quantities of the data that organizations can harness to generate insights on business operations in order to improve decision-making across the enterprise d. the rate at which data are generated and/or acquired, and the speed with which they are analysed prior to taking subsequent action if necessary Ans: D

8. Veracity refers to: a. the diverse types of data and data sources b. the quality and provenance of the big data c. the mass quantities of the data that organizations can harness to generate the insights of business operations for improving the decision making across the enterprise d. the rate at which data are generated and/or acquired and the speed of analysing them and taking actions, as necessary Ans: B

9. Data profiling is used: a. to identify any correlations among the dimensions of big data b. to catalogue the data sources c. to determine and subsequently eliminate any data redundancies and to monitor the data usage to identify the ‘cold spots’ of unused data which can be reduced or offloaded to offline storages d. to maintain the metadata of big data Ans: C

10. The high dimensions of big data produce the following problems: a. noise accumulation b. incidental endogeneity c. spurious correlation d. heterogeneity e. all of these Ans: E

11. IoT comprises the following: a. smart devices b. Internet connectivity c. data processing

d. IoT applications e. all of these Ans: E

12. The source of IoT data is the ______. a. computer chip b. sensor c. broadband connection d. Bluetooth Ans: B

13. Which of the following technologies have contributed to the rise of IoT? a. Wireless and mobile technologies, IPv6, broadband Internet, 5G networks b. Wireless and mobile technologies, IPv4, broadband Internet, 5G networks c. Wireless and mobile technologies, IPv6, broadband Internet, 3G networks d. Wireless and mobile technologies, IPv6, narrowband Internet, 5G networks Ans: A

14. In which of the following is IoT NOT applied? a. Smart home b. Smart city c. Self-driven cars d. Cash registers Ans: D

15. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of IoT for business organizations? a. Ability to monitor performance, quality and reliability of products and services b. Gaining insight into new products and services c. Security of networks and data gathered d. Remote troubleshooting of products Ans: C

16. ______ are/is the underlying technology for digital currencies such as Bitcoin. a. Blockchain b. Disintermediation c. Reverse auctions d. Smart cards Ans: A

17. Which of these refers to a distributed ledger represented by a sequential chain of data blocks that records transactions, establishes identity of the user and establishes contracts? a. Network b. Hierarchical c. Object-oriented d. Blockchain Ans: D

18. Which of the following does NOT apply to blockchain? a. It is virtually impossible to alter its records. b. It is a form of Bitcoin that can be used internationally. c. It circumvents the need for banks or brokers for some consumers. d. It can be lifesaving in the instance of certain bacterial outbreaks.

Ans: B

19. Which of the following are real-world applications of blockchain? a. Banking b. Healthcare c. Retail d. All of these Ans: D

20. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of blockchain for business?

a. Transparency in transactions b. Traceability of transactions c. Cost of third-party transaction verifications d. Secure transactions Ans: C