Test Bank For Introduction to Forensic Science The Science of Criminalistics, 1E James T. Spencer

Test Bank For Introduction to Forensic Science The Science of Criminalistics, 1E James T. Spencer Chapters 1-19

Table of Contents Preface and acknowledgements I. Introduction Chapter 1: Introduction to Forensic Science: Introduction, Historic Development, and Legal Roles of Forensic Science Chapter 2: Crime Scene Investigations and the 4th Amendment Chapter 3: Science, Pseudoscience and the Law II. Biological Evidence Chapter 4: Methods for Examining Biological Evidence Chapter 5: Forensic DNA Chapter 6: Forensic Serology Chapter 7: Anatomical Evidence: The Outside Story Chapter 8: Forensic Medicine: The Inside Story Chapter 9: Forensic Anthropology Chapter 10: Forensic Ecology III. Chemical Evidence Chapter 11: Overview of Chemical Evidence Chapter 12: Forensic Spectroscopy Chapter 13: Forensic Toxicology Chapter 14: Forensic Fire and Explosives IV. Physical Properties in Evidence Chapter 15: Physical Properties: Mineralogical, Soil, Glass, and Paint Analysis Chapter 16: Firearms, Ballistics, and Impression Evidence Chapter 17: Forensic Document Analysis, Photographic and Video Analysis, and Voice Identification and Linguistics Chapter 18: Forensic Engineering and Computer Science V. Behavioral Forensic Evidence Chapter 19: Behavioral Forensic Sciences Sources and Credits Appendices Index

Equations and Tables

Constants: c = 3.00 x 108 m/sec h = 6.63 x 10-34 Js mp = 1.67 x 10-24 g (mass of proton) Rydberg Constant (RH) = 2.18 x 10-18 J Avogadro‟s Number (Na): 6.022 x 1023 Equations: c = lv KE= ½ mv2 Momentum (p = mv) Work (W = Fd) Force (F = m a) ⌈(

)

(

)⌉

Engineering Equations: o Velocity at the beginning of a skid: v = (2 g f d)½, where g is the gravitational constant, f is the frictional coefficient, and d is the distance; o Velocity at the beginning of a skid with an impact/crush: v = [2 g d f + 2 (K/m) x]½, where K is the measured crush coefficient for the car, x is the crush depth measured from the crashed car, and m is the mass of the car;

o o

Minimum speed skid formula: S1 = √ , where S1 is the initial speed at the start of the skid (in mph), d1 is the distance of the skid before stopping, and f is the frictional coefficient; Initial speed when striking a vehicle at the start of the skid: Sc = ] [ ], where Sc is the initial speed at the start √[ of the skid (in mph), d1 is the distance of the skid before impact, f is the frictional coefficient, d2 is the depth of the crush in ft, and cf is the crush factor in lb./ft.

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by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter One Questions 1. Explain the importance of the Joiner (1995) case as it pertain to forensic testimony. a. It required that experts limit their opinions to straightforward extensions of the data. b. It set the trial judge as the “gatekeeper” for what scientific testimony is admissible. c. It established the minimum standards for the admissibility of scientific evidence. d. It required analysts to “face” defendents in court when presenting scientific analyses. e. It required courts to stand by earlier decisions of higher courts.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Joiner: There must be a significant connection between the science/facts and the testimony of an expert in the field.

2. How did the Frye decision of 1923 impact the admissibility of forensic evidence? a. It required that experts limit their opinions to straightforward extensions of the data. b. It set the trial judge as the “gatekeeper” for what scientific testimony is admissible. c. It established the minimum standards for the admissibility of scientific evidence. d. It required analysts to “face” defendents in court when presenting scientific analyses. e. It required courts to stand by earlier decisions of higher courts.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Established the scientific discipline as the gatekeeper for scientific evidence and established minimum standards for the admissibility of scientific evidence into courtroom proceedings.

3. How does basic research differ from applied research? a. Basic research uses physical principles discovered through scientific research to obtain a desired goal. b. Basic research focuses upon the simpler aspects of a field while applied research studies more complex problems. c. Basic research deals primarily withjust the fundamental understanding of phenomena. d. Basic research seeks to understand the physical world for its own sake while applied research usually has an immediate problem to solve. e. It required courts to stand by earlier decisions of higher courts.

Correct Answer Reply: D. “The realm of science can be divided into pure science, or research, and applied science. Basic research seeks to understand the physical world for its own sake; in applied science we seek to use the physical principles discovered to obtain a desired goal.” [K. Inman and N. Rudin.

Principles and Practice of Criminalistics: The Profession of Forensic Science, CRC Press, 2001] Chemistry, biology and physics are generally basic scientific fields while disciplines such as medicine, engineering, and forensic science are applied sciences.

4. In his famous book of 1248, “Washing Away of Wrongs” or “Injustices Rectified”, the Chinese magistrate named Sung T‟ze described one particularly famous case to determine the person who committed homicide in a rice field using a harvesting knife.

The field that he primarily employed to solve the case was: a. Forensic blood spatter. b. Forensic entomology. c. Forensic fingerprint analysis. d. Forensic medicine. e. Forensic ballistics.

Correct Answer Reply: B. In his text, Sung T‟ze reports the first written use of forensic entomology to solve a murder case where a worker in the rice fields had been murdered by means of a harvest scythe. Through physical inspection, such as looking for blood and identifying marks, no evidence could be found linking any possible assailants with the crime. To solve the case, however, T‟ze ingeniously had all the suspects line up before him in the hot afternoon sun while holding their scythes. Only one of the scythes attracted a swarm of blowflies to the blade – the one with invisible, minute traces of blood remaining on the blade. The owner later confessed to the crime. This use of forensic entomology to solve a case brought about by an understanding of how the natural world works, a basic tenant of forensic science.

5. Locard‟s Principle says that: a. The trial judge will serve as the gatekeeper regarding the admissibility of evidence in court. b. While two objects may be indistinguishable, no two objects are ever identical.

c. Whenever two objects come into contact they must affect each other in some way (material transferred between the two). d. Scientific evidence provides the most accurate evidence presented in court. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Locard formulated the basis for a principle today bearing his name that is fundamental to all of forensic science today – Locard‟s Exchange Principle. Locard wrote that: “Wherever he steps, wherever he touches, whatever he leaves, even without consciousness, will serve as a silent witness against him. Not only his fingerprints or his footprints, but his hair, the fibers from his clothes, the glass he breaks, the tool mark he leaves, the paint he scratches, the blood or semen he deposits or collects. All of these and more, bear mute witness against him.”

6. Probably one the earliest true forensic expert and detective from fiction was the character of C. Auguste Dupin who appeared in The Murders in the Rue Morgue (1841), The Mystery of Marie Roget (1842), and The Purloined Letter (1844). The author of these books, and inventor of this early true forensic detective, was: a. Sherlock Holmes. b. Arthur Conan Doyle. c. Edgar Allen Poe. d. Agatha Christie. e. F. Scott Fitzgerald.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The fictional Dupin used a combination of deductive reasoning and insightful imagination to uncover the hidden causes and effects of baffling criminal mysteries – techniques that were not commonly employed by real investigators during the age when the stories were written. Adgar Allen Poe‟s work came about even before the term detective had been put forward. The groundbreaking detective work of his fictional Dupin, a private citizen investigating crime for his own motivations rather than an official of the police force, proved to be both very popular with readers and led the way to new paths of thinking about solving crimes.

7. Some credit an ancient scholar as the original “father of forensic science.” This person is: a. Aristotle. b. Democritus. c. Archimedes. d. Julius Caesar. e. Leonardo DaVinci.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Some credit Archimedes as the “father of forensic science” and there are a number of instances where he certainly used science to unravel difficult legal questions, including his most famous “case” concerning the question of cheating in the creation the emperor‟s new crown.

8. The Daubert standard relies upon help from the scientific field by considering all of the following except: a. if the technique or theory has been tested; b. if the technique or theory has been subjected to peer review; c. if the technique‟s potential error rate is known; d. if there are standards controlling the performance of the analysis; e. if it is presented in court by a bona fide forensic expert.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All are true except (e): whether or not something is presented by an expert is irrelevant to its admissibility in court.

9. The Joiner case (1995) was based primarily upon the premise that: a. certain chemicals used by a company caused cancer in a patient. b. an automotive tire blowout, and subsequent accident, resulted from a defective tire. c. a certain pharmaceutical caused limb deformaties in newborn children. d. improperly manufactured airbags caused injury that the company had hidden from inspection. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The case, called General Electric Co. v. Joiner, was brought and asserted, based on loosely-linked animal studies, that certain chemicals used by the company caused cancer in a patient. In the decision, the court limited how far an expert may “stray” from either the data or from commonly accepted practice. They said that: “conclusions and methodology are not separate.

10. The fictional detective Sherlock Holmes was based upon a real-life person? a. true. b. false. c. Arthur Conan Doyle d. no one knows. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The fictional Holmes was loosely based upon Doyle‟s medical school professor. Dr. Joseph Bell, from the University of Edinburgh Medical School.

11. The main advantage and difference of the Daubert Standard over the Frye Standard is that: a. The admissibility of scientific evidence under the Daubert Standard is easier to determine. b. The Daubert standard relies upon the relevant scientific field to determine the admissibility of evidence.

c. The Daubert standard allows new types scientific evidence to be used in court faster. d. Daubert is based upon a more recent case. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The importance of the Daubert rule replacing Frye is that expert testimony does not require general acceptance by the scientific community to be admissible in court. Instead, it sets up a series of three standards for the admissibility of scientific evidence and expert testimony. This makes the admissibility of new discoveries and scientific methods in court possible much faster than under the Frye standard.

12. The requirement that a new scientific method be generally accepted by the appropriate scientific community to be admissible in court, based upon a 1923 case involving polygraph evidence, is called: a. the Federal Rules of Evidence. b. the Frye standard. c. the Daubert standard. d. Voir Dire. e. The Joiner Standard.

Correct Answer Reply:B. The Federal Circuit Court of Appeals in the District of Columbia, dismissed a case against Mr. Frye on the grounds that the lie detector evidence should have been admitted. The decision to exclude the lie detector evidence was, however, upheld on the higher court appeal and the court set the first real precedent for determining when scientific evidence could be admitted in court when they wrote: “Just when a scientific principle or discovery crosses the line between the experimental and demonstrative stages is difficult to define.

Somewhere in this twilight zone the evidential force of the principle must be recognized, and while courts will go a long way in admitting expert testimony deduced from a well-recognized scientific principle or discovery, the thing from which the deduction is made must be sufficiently established to have general acceptance in the particular field in which it belongs (Circuit Court of Appeals in the District of Columbia, 1923, Judge Van Orsdel).”

13. What is a good definition for forensic science? a. The study of science that predicts criminal behavior. b. The use of scientific methods to help answer legal problems. c. The field of law that uses physical evidence to inform the court. d. The study of chemistry, biology and psychology in criminal justice. e. The legal reulation of scientific practice.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Forensic science specifically deals with using the scientific method to inform legal decisions. It must encompass both science and must be relevant to a particular legal question under consideration, otherwise it's irrelevant and inadmissible. To do this, techniques are used from various

scientific disciplines (e.g., chemistry, biology, physics, psychology, anthropology, etc.) to analyze physical evidence.

14. What is meant by a “precedent” case? a. When an earlier conviction of a defendant is used to show their criminal intent. b. When a prior action of the defendant is shown to be probative to a current case. c. When the background of an expert witness is called into question based upon their earlier court appearances. d. When an earlier court decision can be related to a current case to provide legal guidance. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. When a prior legal decision is used as a standard for consideration of subsequent cases. Both the Frye and Daubert cases are precedent cases.

15. What is meant by the “CSI Effect” when it comes to jury expectations during a trial? a. When a jury‟s verdict relys more upon the personalities of the defense and prosecution lawyers than on the weight of the evidence presented. b. Describes the enormous effect that forensic expert witnesses have on the decisions of juries. c. When jurors believe that they know more about forensic science than the experts and expect complete forensic data for all investigations. d. When juries examine specific episodes of televised forensic cases to provide background for their deliberations. e. All of the above are components of the CSI effect.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Definition of CSI Effect (Nolo’s Plain English Law Dictionary): “A phenomenon reported by prosecutors who claim that television shows based on scientific crime solving have made actual jurors reluctant to vote to convict when, as is typically true, forensic evidence is neither necessary nor available.” The jurors often feel that they are expert in forensic evidence from watching TV and know more than the experts providing testimony.

16. What is the Daubert standard? a. The standard protocol used for processing a crime scene. b. A legal precedent concerning the admissibility of evidence into court. c. A requirement that experts limit their opinions to straightforward extensions of the data and have limitations on what they can say. d. A standard for admissibility of scientific evidence in court by requiring general acceptance of the scientific methodology by the relevant field. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The Daubert Standard sets the trial judge as the “gatekeeper” for what scientific testimony is admissible and sets a legal precedent for the admissibility of evidence.

17. What is the main precedent set in thee Joiner case? a. The standard protocol used for processing a crime scene. b. A legal precedent concerning the admissibility of evidence into court. c. Requires that experts limit their opinions to straightforward extensions of the data and have limitations on what they can say. d. Standard for admissibility of scientific evidence in court as requiring general acceptance of the scientific methodology. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The Joiner case requires that experts limit their opinions to straightforward extensions of the data and have limitations on what they can say.

18. What is the major reason for the increase of forensic laboratories in the US? a. DUI analyses. b. drug-related analyses. c. fingerprint analyses. d. psychological profiling analyses. e. No one need for the laboratories predomindates over the others.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The increasing demand for drug analyses has been the single most important factor in the recent expansion of crime laboratory services in the United States.

19. What standard replaced the Frye standard regarding the use of forensic evidence at trial? a. Daubert b. Kuhmo c. Joiner d. Mincy e. Miranda Correct Answer Reply: A. The Daubert Standard replaced Frye in many jurisdictions and established modified standards for scientific evidence and established the judge the gatekeeper of scientific evidence.

20. Which “standard” of admissibility of scientific evidence established the judge as the gatekeeper? a. Frye b. Kuhmo c. Mincey d. Daubert e. Colbert

Correct Answer Reply: D. The Daubert standard designates the judge as the person who decides whether a particular piece of scientific testimony is sufficiently established and is relevant to the issue at hand. This requires the judge to determine if the “reasoning or methodology underlying the testimony is scientifically valid and whether that reasoning or methodology properly can be applied.”

21. The voir dire process can be used for: a. qualifying an expert for testimony. b. swearing in witnesses. c. cross-examining witnesses. d. entering evidence into the proceedings. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The voir dire process (“speaking the truth”) involves a preliminary examination of an expert witness or a potential juror. The voir dire process is used to establish their expertise and validity to present to the court.

22. The Principle of Individuality means that: a. two objects may be identical but they are never indistinguishable. b. two objects may be indistinguishable but they are never identical. c. two individual objects may never be indistinguishable. d. whenever two objects come into contact they must affect each other in some individual way. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The principle of Individuality (principle of uniqueness) is the idea that even though two objects may be indistinguishable, they can never be exactly identical. This means that, while we might not be able to tell the difference between two objects, at some level – maybe even only at the atomic or molecular level – they must be different. This idea says that we should be able to determine whether two samples came from one original source or from two completely separate sources.

23. Which of the following statements about Edmond Locard are true? (i) he established the first dedicated modern forensics laboratory. (ii) he established the principle that when a criminal comes in contact with an object or person, a cross transfer of evidence occurs. (iii) he established the principle of individuality. (iv) he used anthropometry, measurement of body features, to identify repeat criminal offenders. a. all are correct. b. none are correct. c. i, ii and iii are correct. d. i and ii are correct.

e. i, ii and iv are correct.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The correct answer (statements i and ii are correct) is derived from the fact that Locard was successful both in establishing the first true forensics lab in the world (in France) but also propounded the idea that a crosstransfer of material (evidence) occurs when two objects come into contact.

24. One definition of truth, relative to forensic investigations, is: a. that which is characteristic of being fair. b. that which is in accordance with fact or reality and/or a fact or belief that is accepted. c. that which is not subject to perception or interpretation. d. all of the above. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The correct answer (“that which is in accordance with fact or reality and/or a fact or belief that is accepted”) shows the difference between truth and justice/fairness. Truth is focused on a comparison between a fact/belief in question with an accepted standard. Justice, however, primarily is focused upon fairness.

25. Who was the first scientist to employ the idea of anthropometry? a. Calvin Goddard b. Alphonse Bertillion c. Sung T‟zu d. Albert S. Osborne e. Edmond Locard Correct Answer Reply: B. Alphonse Bertillion was a French police officer who applied the anthropological technique of anthropometry and biometrics to law enforcement to form an identification system based on physical measurements.

26 Which of the following cases developed the idea of “general acceptance” at a trial or hearing? a. Michigan v. Tyler. b. The Will Williams Case. c. The Daubert Case. d. Frye v. United States Case. e. Mincy v. Arizona Case.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The Frye ruling said; “Just when a scientific principle or discovery crosses the line between the experimental and demonstrative stages is difficult to define. Somewhere in this twilight zone the evidential force of the principle must be recognized, and while courts will go a long way in admitting expert testimony deduced from a well recognized scientific principle or discovery, the thing from which the deduction is made must be

sufficiently established to have general acceptance in the particular field in which it belongs (Circuit Court of Appeals in the District of Columbia, 1923, Judge Van Orsdel).”

27. In the Fyre Standard, ways that are often used to show acceptance of a technique by the relevant scientific community include all of the following except: a. books. b. personal affirmation. c. papers. d. prior judicial decisions. e. length of time the technique has been in existence.

Correct Answer Reply: B. All are acceptable ways of establishing general acceptance of a technique except a person‟s affirmation (their personal testimony that the technique is acceptable).

28. The principle of individuality states that: a. individual characteristics can help identify materials. b. objects can be organized by physical characteristics. c. when two objects come into contact, a cross transfer of evidence occurs. d. objects can be compared on a one-to-one individual basis. e. while two objects may be indistinguishable, no two objects are ever identical.

Correct Answer Reply: E. In forensic science, the principle of individuality (or principle of uniqueness) states that even though two objects may be indistinguishable, they can never be exactly identical.

29. What did the Melendez-Dias case conclude about the admissibility of forensic testimony? a. The Daubert standard applies to all experts, not just those giving scientific testimony. b. The conclusions of the expert must be a straightforward extension of the data. c. The actual individual who performs a scientific analysis may be required to testify in court. d. An expert can only testify in court when the judge has decided that their testimony is scientifically valid. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The defense in the Melendez Dias case argued that the individual lab technician that ran a scientific analysis had to testify in person because of the defendant‟s 6th amendment right to face their accusers. The US Supreme Court upheld this argument.

30. Who is considered to be the first person to trace bullets to the individual firearms they were shot from? a. Henry Goddard

b. Karl Landsteiner c. Alphonse Bertillion d. Edmond Locard e. Mathiew Orflia Correct Answer Reply: A) Henry Goddard worked for Scotland Yard and used bullet comparisons to trace bullets found in victims back to the individual weapons that fired them.

32. What is a function of a forensic scientist? a. Perform appropriate analyses. b. Examine evidence. c. Testify in court. d. Render a conclusion based on evidence. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. These activities are all responsibilities of a practicing forensic scientist. Generally, this work will occur in a crime lab although some analysis may be performed at the scene.

33. What is meant by precision in measurement? a. Precision is how closely individual measurements agree with each other. b. Precision is how close are the measurements are to the true value. c. Precision is related to the number of significant figures. d. Precision does not exist because there is intrinsic inaccuracy in measurements. e. Precision is when a measurement provides the true value each time.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Precision is when individual measurements agree with each other. The measured values do not have to be near the true value to be precise.

34. What is meant by accuracy in measurement? a. Accuracy is how closely individual measurements agree with each other. b. Accuracy is how close are the measurements are to the true value. c. Accuracy does not exist because no measurement is perfect. d. Accuracy is how closely grouped together measurements are. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. When measuring something, accuracy is how closely the measurements agree with the true value. It can be visualized as hitting the bullseye on a target.

35. How did the Kumho Tire (1999) decision affect expert testimony? a. The trial judge acts as a “gatekeeper” and can decide when to allow an expert to testify.

b. It established minimum standards for expert testimony, based on “general acceptance.” c. A scientist or technician who ran an analysis can be required to provide testimony. d. The Daubert standard applies to all expert testimony, regardless of whether it is scientific or experience based. e. Testimony provided by a witness cannot make large leaps between their data and conclusion.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The Supreme Court ruled that the Daubert standard applied to all expert testimony – whether scientific or “skill or experience-based.”

They said that the court must “make certain that an expert…employs the same level of intellectual rigor that characterizes the practice of an expert in the relevant field.”

36. Which of the following is NOT true about the Salem Witch Trials? a. The victims had symptoms that included fever, pain, and strange dances. b. Recent studies have proposed that a form of fungus was responsible. c. Several people, including men, were convicted of witchcraft. d. The hysteria caused by the Trials lasted for many, many years. e. Weather, timing, symptoms, and location were factors that lead to this event.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The Salem Witch trials lasted from about late 1691 to September of 1692. By late 1692, the hysteria that swept through Puritan Massachusetts had largely ended. This timing is supported by the theory that a fungus had caused hallucinogenic ergotism among the community.

37. What are some of the tensions found between law and science? i. The law wants certainty in facts while science can only easily disprove them. ii. The law is concerned with reality while science is the pursuit of fairness. iii. In law, there is a fixed end point for a verdict but not in science. iv. The legal system primarily seeks justice while science looks for truth. a. i and iv b. i, iii, and iv c. i, ii, and iii d. iv only e. All of the above Correct Answer Reply: B. The tensions between science and law are in certainly, time, and their ultimate goals. The law wants absolute certainly in facts, has a fixed endpoint, and seeks justice. However, science involves inherent uncertainty, is often open ended, and is focused on the pursuit of truth.

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by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Two Questions 1. A piece of carpet from a living room where a pooling of blood from the victim has been found is being examined to evaluate the possibility that multiple blood samples exist in the one pool. This evidence should be placed into: a. a paper bag. b. an open plastic container c. an airtight metal container. d. any of the above can be used. e. none of the above can be used.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Moist biological evidence should be placed in a container that would facilitate its drying, such as a cardboard box or paper bag with the goal of allowing those items to dry under as close to natural conditions as possible without damage (e.g., mold).

2. A piece of carpet from a living room where fire erupted is being examined to evaluate the possibility that the fire was started purposefully. This evidence should be placed into: a. a paper bag. b. an open plastic container. c. an airtight metal container. d. any of the above can be used. e. none of the above can be used.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Volatile materials, liquids and powdered controlled substances usually need to be packaged in air-tight containers. In the case of a fire, the concern is the use of accelerants (e.g., gas, turpentine, etc.) to start the blaze. In this case, the volatile accelerants must be contained in a sealed metal can.

3. Evidence that can be associated with a particular source with an extremely high degree of probability is said to possess: a. comparative characteristics. b. class characteristics. c. identifying characteristics. d. individual characteristics. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Individual characteristics are features that are of a unique and specific origin with a very high degree of certainty while class

characteristics are features that place the piece of evidence only within a particular group.

4. Evidence that can be associated with a single, unique source is called: a. physical evidence. b. individual evidence. c. class evidence. d. testimonial evidence. e. circumstantial evidence.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Individual Evidence contains properties of evidence that can connect a sample with a specific common source with a high degree of certainty.

5. In physical evidence, class evidence is: a. evidence that can only be associated with a general group of materials. b. evidence that connects a sample with a standard from a common source. c. evidence that measures the physical properties of a substance. d. evidence that can be useful in classifying an organism found at the crime scene. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Class characteristics are those that place the piece of evidence within a particular group, such as a lead pipe, or a particular model automobile tire, or type of blood (e.g., AB+).

6. In the case of Michigan v Tyler, with respect to the collection of evidence, the main importance was: a. limit what items can be collected at a crime scene. b. set limits on the collection of evidence to the reasonable extent. c. require securing a crime scene during evidence collection. d. establish the control of who has access to a crime scene for processing. e. require a chain of custody for all evidence collected.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The Tyler case required securing a crime scene during evidence collection and established a requirement of obtaining a search warrant once emergency conditions have ended.

7. In the case of Mincy v Arizona, with respect to the collection of evidence, the main importance was: a. limit what items can be collected at a crime scene. b. set limits on the collection of evidence as to the reasonable extent and duration of an emergency. c. require securing a crime scene during evidence collection. d. establish the control who has access to a crime scene for processing. e. require a chain of custody for all evidence collected.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The Mincy case set limits on the collection of evidence including the reasonable extent and duration of an emergency and established a requirement of obtaining a search warrant once emergency conditions have ended.

8. Matching key features found in an unknown sample with candidates from a very large pool of known possibilities is commonly referred to as: a. one-to-one matching. b. individual matching. c. one-to-many matching. d. random-pool matching. e. comparative matching.

Correct Answer Reply: C. A process involves matching key features found in an unknown sample with candidates from a very large pool of known possibilities, often many millions of records is called one-to-many matching. In forensic work, this approach might arise when a fingerprint from an unknown person is found at a crime scene or the identity of a set of unknown human remains must be properly identified by DNA. In these cases, the data from the crime scene is matched against a pool of potentially millions of fingerprints or DNA features of know people to look for a match.

9. Once evidence is collected at a crime scene, its handling, storage and examination must be carefully documented – specifically where it has been and that it has been handled in a secure fashion. The document that certifies that a piece of evidence has been handled properly from discovery to analysis to allow admission into court is referred to as: a. certified mail receipt. b. evidence submission list. c. chain of custody form. d. crime lab receipt. e. police duty rooster.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The chain of custody (CoC) for a piece of evidence documents its chronological control from the time that it is first discovered until it is needed in court. It provides details of every transfer of the evidence, including what is done to the sample (e.g., analysis, storage, etc.), where it is located, when these transfers happen, and who transfers and controls the evidence, to form a continuous and provable record of every moment of the evidence‟s existence after it‟s collected.

10. Police can search without a warrant except when: a. an emergency exists. b. there is the immediate destruction of evidence occurring. c. when someone is being lawfully arrested. d. when someone agrees to the search.

e. when no one is at home and the door is open.

Correct Answer Reply: E. “Special” circumstances that allow warrantless searches include: (1) consent, (2) searches during legal arrests, (3) emergency circumstances, (4) plain view, (5) airport, border, and sea searches, (6) “stop and frisk”, (7) inventory searches, (8) national security, and (9) administrative searches. Occupancy of the location is not a requirement.

11. The police are not required to obtain a search warrant if they are: a. in the process of a legal arrest. b. investigating the murder of a fellow officer. c. unable to locate a judge to issue a warrant. d. certain their suspect is guilty. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. There are some exceptions to the 4th amendment‟s requirement for a prior warrant before a search and seizure can happen. These “special” circumstances that allow warrantless searches include: (1) consent, (2) searches during legal arrests, (3) emergency circumstances, (4) plain view, (5) airport, border, and sea searches, (6) “stop and frisk”, (7) inventory searches, (8) national security, and (9) administrative searches.

12. The scene sketch is required to triangulate all objects located within the crime scene. Triangulation refers to: a. measuring each object to two other objects of interest and the distance between those objects to form a triangle of known measurements. b. measuring each object to a fixed location in the crime scene and the distance between those fixed location to form a triangle of known measurements. c. measuring each object to two other objects of interest to form the two sides of a triangle. d. measuring each object to two fixed locations of the crime scene to form the sides of a triangle. e. none of these.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Triangulation is the process of using two fixed points in the crime scene (e.g., the corner of a building, fire hydrant, or telephone pole) and then measuring the distance (or angles) between an object in the crime scene and the two fixed reference points which serve to fix the position of the object accurately.

13. Under what circumstances can illegally obtained evidence be used? a. during pre-trial arraignment processes. b. during pre-trial jury selection. c. during the criminal phase of the trial. d. during post-trial sentencing. e. never.

Correct Answer Reply: D. illegally obtained evidence can only be used in posttrial sentencing, after a person has been found guilty and the verdict rendered (where the illegally obtained evidence had no part in convicting the person). The reasons for the inadmissibility of the evidence is also explained at the sentencing point.

14. What is not specified in a search warrant? a. the time window of the search. b. the place for the search to take place. c. the names of the searching officers. d. the object(s) to be searched for. e. all of the above are required.

Correct Answer Reply: C. A search warrant is issued for a specific place, time, and describes what items are to be looked for. The names of the specific searchers is usually not part of the warrant.

15. What shows that evidence has always been under someone's direct supervision and is, therefore, admissible as evidence in court? a. evidence submission list. b. chain of custody form. c. mail receipt. d. crime lab receipt. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The chain of custody (CoC) for a piece of evidence documents its chronological control from the time that it is first discovered until it is needed in court. It provides details of every transfer of the evidence, including what is done to the sample (e.g., analysis, storage, etc.), where it is located, when these transfers happen, and who transfers and controls the evidence, to form a continuous and provable record of every moment of the evidence‟s existence after it‟s collected. Evidence with breaks in its chain of custody record is highly unlikely to be useful in court since it authenticity can readily be challenged.

16. When securing a crime scene for the investigative team, the following person must be allowed to enter the secured area, even if evidence is compromised: a. the chief of police. b. the news reporter for the local TV station. c. the emergency medical personnel. d. all of the above. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. First responders should assist medical personnel in avoiding evidence and document the movement of people or physical items by the EMTs. EMTs have precedent in saving lives and rendering help, even if it

compromises or destroys evidence. Once proper medical aid has been given and any victims transported off of the site, the EMF personnel need to leave the site to avoid further contamination of the scene.

17. Which are the primary roles and duties of First Responders? a. establish the boundaries of the crime scene. b. secure the crime scene and necessary render aid. c. search for evidence and begin the chain of custody log. d. notify family members and neighbors of the crime. e. All of the above ore required.

Correct Answer Reply: B. First responders deal with emergency situations and are first required to assess the situation, make things safe and secure from immediate threat and provide any assistance that they can, such as first aid. All other choices involve jobs that arise later.

18. Which is an example of identification analysis? a. fingerprint feature matching to the Automated Fingerprint Identification System (AFIS). b. forensic DNA. c. one-to-many matching. d. random-pool matching. e. spectrophotometric identification of a cocaine sample.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Identification analysis focuses upon describing the components or composition of an unknown sample. The goal of this approach is to identify the relevant features of a piece of evidence with as much specificity and certainty as possible, leading to an unambiguous identification of the material – what is the material is. The only one from the list in the question that does this is the identification of the cocaine sample, the rest are comparative analyses.

19. Which of the following are individual characteristics: a. the determination that a pipe is 28% iron and 72% lead. b. the determination that a blood sample is type AB+. c. the determination that a shoe imprint from a crime scene was left by a Nike size 11 men‟s athletic shoe. d. the scratch marks found on a bullet casing. e. none of the above are individual characteristics.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Individual characteristics relate the sample to a unique and specific origin with a very high degree of certainty, such as the fine details found in the pattern in a fingerprint or scratches on a test fired bullet. All of the other choices place the sample within a group (class) of materials.

20. Which of the following statements are true about forensic evidence?

i. Evidence provides information that can and should influence the beliefs of an observer about a specific legal question. ii. Evidence must be relevant to the question at hand. iii. Evidence must be more prejudicial than probative on an issue in question. iv. Experts must employ the same level of intellectual rigor as experts in the relevant field. a. i and ii. b. ii and iv. c. i, ii and iii. d. i, ii and iv. e. All are correct.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Answer “iii” must be incorrect since evidence must be more probative than prejudicial. (the other responses are correct).

21. Which of the following statements best describes the “Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine”: a. it is aimed at informing the court where the court lacks expertise. b. any evidence found through an illegal search also cannot be used to find other evidence. c. it can disprove an eye witness‟s account of the events associated with a crime. d. any evidence resulting from an illegal search cannot be used as direct evidence in court. e. it can scientifically prove a particular hypothesis regarding a crime.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine states that any evidence found from an illegal search also cannot be used to find other evidence.

22. Who is required to have a warrant to search a person or their property? a. the EMT attending a wounded victim. b. the police officer responding to a shooting call. c. the firefighter entering a smoldering building. d. the meter reader to check electrical usage. *e. the police investigators at the crime scene once it‟s secured.

Correct Answer Reply: E. First responders (EMTs, police, fire fighters, etc.) do not need a warrant in an emergency situation. Nor does a routine meter inspection (administrative search) usually require a warrant. Only a police investigator, after the emergency is over, is required to have a warrant from the list of possible answers.

23. What is wrong with the following statement: "A goal of forensic evidence is to establish that a particular person or thing was at a particular place at a specific time?" a. Forensic Science, as a science, cannot establish only test. b. Forensic evidence cannot implicate a particular person.

c. Forensic evidence cannot specify a particular place. d. Forensic evidence cannot specify a particular time. e. Forensic science must be limited simply to the facts without expert opinion.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Science cannot prove anything beyond very simple facts (and even rarely in those circumstances). Science can test whether something is consistent or inconsistent with a hypothesis. So, a correct statement would be "A goal of forensic evidence is to test whether a particular person or thing was at a particular place at a specific time."

24. In this question, consider the provisions of the Fourth Amendment to the US Constitution in identifying the best answer as to whether the indicated warrantless search was legal or not and why. The police, without a warrant, find incriminating evidence after searching trash bags (non-see-thru type) that have been placed out on a curb for garbage collection. Is this a legal search and seizure? a. Yes, there was no reasonable expectation of privacy. b. Yes, the garbage was in plain view and legally searchable. c. No, the garbage was in a non-see-thru bag and the person‟s garbage was private. d. No, a warrant is required since this was not an emergency situation. e. Cannot determine from the information provided.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Since the garbage is placed in a public place with no security or intention of keeping it private, it is legally searchable. The key here is “expectation of privacy” and plain view doesn‟t enter the picture since it was a non-see-thru bag.

25. In this question, consider the provisions of the Fourth Amendment to the US Constitution in identifying the best answer as to whether the indicated warrantless search was legal or not and why. After she violates her school‟s cell phone policy by having a phone in class, a student‟s confiscated cell phone is searched by school officials for evidence of illegal activity. Is this a legal search and seizure? a. Yes, school officials are not government officials so are not required to follow th the rules of the 4 Amendment. b. Yes, the phone was properly seized and its contents, therefore, are available for search. c. No, neither the confiscation of the phone nor searching it was legal since the student had a reasonable expectation of privacy in her cell phone. d. No, while confiscating the cell phone was legal, the subsequent search of the phone‟s contents was not legal and required a warrant. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The Supreme Court has ruled that school officials are actually representatives of the State and are, therefore, government officials that th must follow the 4 Amendment. The Court did say, however, that because of the unique environment of schools and the need to maintain order, that some of the

needs for a warrant would be relaxed, but that there still needed to be a reasonable need for a search and seizure from the very beginning and that it needed to be specific to a particular student – not a vague and general need to search students.

While the seizure of the phone was legal since she violated the school rules by having a phone, the contents of the phone failed the “reasonableness test” for a warrantless search because the student had an expectation of privacy and was th protected by the 4 amendment.

26. In this question, consider the provisions of the Fourth Amendment to the US Constitution in identifying the best answer as to whether the indicated warrantless search was legal or not and why. In order to collect evidence, the police place a wiretap in a public telephone booth (an enclosed small room with a door but with glass on all sides making it soundproof but visible from the street) frequently used by an individual who is suspected of illegal gambling. Is this legal? a. Yes, there was no reasonable expectation of privacy since the person could be easily seen from outside the booth from the public street. b. Yes, since the evidence was in plain view from the outside. c. No, since there was a reasonable expectation of privacy. d. Yes, because the fourth amendment protections don‟t cover speech. e. Cannot determine from the information provided.

Correct Answer Reply: C. While the person in this case was in plain view and their actions carried no expectation of privacy, they certainly believed that their conversation was private. Therefore, their conversation was protected from warrantless search by reason of expectation of privacy.

27. Items discovered at a crime scene must be: a. marked for identification with the collector‟s initials and date of collection. b. packaged in an appropriate container. c. initially tested for evidentiary value. d. handled by authorized representatives, such as from the crime laboratory‟s evidence unit. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All the answers form part of the process of properly collecting and starting the chain of custody for evidence. th

28. The 4 Amendment to the US Constitution says that: a. People have the right to a quick and speedy public trial. b. People should be secure in their persons, paper, and houses against unreasonable searches and seizures. c. People cannot be charged with a capital offense without an indictment by a Grand Jury. d. People have the right to bear arms. e. None of the above is the 4th amendment.

Correct Answer Reply: B. In the United States, a person‟s right to privacy and the protection of their property is guaranteed by the Fourth Amendment to the US th Constitution, a notion deeply rooted in 18 Century English Law. The fourth amendment specifically guards against unreasonable searches and seizures of both a person and their property by government officials under most circumstances.

“The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.”

29. The first step in gathering physical evidence involves: a. Packaging, conveying and storing it. b. Showing it to the lead investigator. c. Collecting, recording and identifying it. d. Discovering/recognizing it. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The key to this question is to consider what comes first. Before any evidence can be packaged, collected, recorded or examined it must first be recognized (discovered) as a relevant piece of evidence.

30. When it comes to securing and isolating a crime scene, which of the following is true? a. Only authorized personnel should be allowed on the scene. b. Every person who enters the scene is a potential destroyer of viable physical evidence. c. Obvious physical evidence should be protected. d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. All of these factors should be considered when securing a crime scene. The goal is to initially keep any potential evidence and the crime scene itself as pristine as possible. Reducing the number of people on the scene and protecting the evidence is, therefore, very important.

31. Which of the following would be an initial method of recording the crime scene: a. Taking photographs of the crime scene. b. Sketching the crime scene. c. Both A and B. d. Having a witness describe the scene to a crime scene investigator. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Photography is a good way to record permanently the crime scene but a hand-drawn sketch, especially if some measurements are included, is also a good way to initially record a crime scene. Later, a more

detailed drawing can be rendered using the sketch, on site careful measurements and photographic data.

32. Which of the following would qualify as a legal warrantless search at a crime scene? a. The existence of emergency circumstances. b. The need to prevent the immediate loss or destruction of evidence. c. A search made by the consent of the parties involved. d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. These “special” circumstances that allow warrantless searches include:  Consent.  Searches during legal arrests.  Emergency circumstances.  Plain view.  Airport, border, and sea searches.  “Stop and frisk”.  Inventory searches.  National Security.  Administrative searches.

33. Evidence that can be associated with a group of items is said to possess: a. comparative characteristics. b. class characteristics. c. identifying characteristics. d. individual characteristics. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Individual characteristics: Features that are of a unique and specific origin with a very high degree of certainty. Class characteristics: Features that place the piece of evidence within a particular group.

34. Matching key features found in an unknown sample with candidates from a very large pool of known possibilities is commonly referred to as: a. one-to-one matching. b. individual matching. c. one-to-many matching. d. random-pool matching. e. comprehensive matching.

Correct Answer Reply: C. One-to-many matching: The process that involves matching key features found in an unknown sample with candidates from a very large pool of known possibilities. One-to-one matching is defined as the

comparison a set of features observed in an unknown sample with either just one reference or among a very small number of “standard” possibilities.

35. What analysis of physical evidence most likely allows a scientist to determine if two samples have a common origin? a. Identification b. Individual analysis c. Comparison d. Class analysis e. None of the above Correct Answer Reply: C. Comparison is where standard and suspect samples are analyzed to determine if they have a common origin and how certain is the correlation.

36. Which of the following would NOT be considered as being class (group) evidence? a. ABO blood type b. Model of a car c. Length of shoe d. Fingerprints e. Caliber of ammunition Correct Answer Reply: D. Class evidence is evidence that can only be associated with a general group and not a common source. They cannot be used to connect a sample with an individual source.

37. Which is NOT a feature of crime scene reconstruction? a. Asks what the crime is and how it was committed. b. Determination of the sequence of events based on physical evidence. c. Aids a jury in arriving at an appropriate verdict. d. Involves the collection of data such as witness statements. e. All of these are elements of crime scene reconstruction.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All are important when considering reconstruction.

Other elements include forming and testing hypothesis by using the physical evidence as well as drawing well supported conclusions.

38. In this question, consider the provisions of the Fourth Amendment to the US Constitution in identifying the best answer as to whether the indicated warrantless search was legal or not and why. A mall security officer randomly searches the bags of shoppers for evidence of shoplifting. Is this legal? a. No, the shoppers have a reasonable expectation of privacy. b. No, a warrant is required since there not an emergency. c. Yes, leaving the mall would constitute potential destruction of evidence. d. Yes, the 4th amendment only applies to government officials. e. Not enough information is given.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The 4th amendment does not apply to private security guards such as mall security. Therefore, the security officer is not limited by the provisions against warrantless searches.

39. What doctrine or rule says that any evidence resulting from an illegal search cannot be used as direct evidence in court? a. Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine. b. Exclusionary Rule. c. Plain View Doctrine. d. Good Faith Rule. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The Exclusionary Rule states that any evidence from an illegal search cannot be used as direct evidence in court.

40. When can illegally seized evidence be used in court? i. During the sentencing portion of a trial ii. In civil cases or deportation cases iii. Attacking the credibility of a witness a. i and ii b. i only c. ii and iii d. i, ii, and iii e. Illegally seized evidence is never allowed in court.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Illegally seized evidence can considered by a judge when deciding on an appropriate sentence after conviction, admitted in civil and deportation cases, and be used by a prosecutor to impeach a witness in trial.

41. Which of the following correctly describes a member of the evidence team and their responsibilities? a. Evidence recovery personnel record the crime scene through photographs and sketches. b. The team leader controls access to the scene and coordinates with all groups involved. c. The photographer makes measurements of the scene and prepares a diagram of the area. d. The team leader is responsible packaging evidence. e. Specialists ensure that evidence is collected safely.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The team leader assumes control and access of the scene and determinations on assignments of other team members. The photographer is responsible for taking pictures of the entire scene with both wide view and close up images. The sketch preparer draws a diagram of scene and makes measurements of major items. Evidence recovery personnel ensure that the

evidence is properly recorded and package evidence properly. Specialists may be necessary depending on the type of crime or physical evidence.

42. Which of the following is an example of class evidence? a. Wear pattern on a car tire. b. Microscopic marks from a tool. c. Color of a paint chip. d. A fingerprint. e. A full DNA profile.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Class evidence has properties that can only be connected with a broad group. Individual evidence can connect a sample with a specific source with a high degree of certainty.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Three Questions 1. A controlled experiment is designed to test a(n): a. conclusion. b. hypothesis. c. data. d. theory. e. an experiment.

Correct Answer Reply: B. A control is used to test the validity of the experiment by checking to see that we obtain an answer that has been measured before and to assure the observer that the instrumentation and experiment is working as planned. In any case, the experiment is designed to test a trial hypothesis.

2. A possible explanation for a set of observations is known as a (n): a. variable. b. hypothesis. c. determination. d. conclusion. e. experimental result.

Correct Answer Reply: B. A hypothesis is a statement or explanation made on the basis of the limited data available that serves as a starting point for further investigation.

3. A prediction or statement that can be tested is a(n)____. a. conclusion. b. observation. c. control. d. hypothesis. e. datum.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The inseparable connection between a hypothesis and testing is central to the scientific method. The other answers are all involved with the experimentation itself, rather than the idea (the “prediction or statement”) that is being tested.

4. A process of investigation that in one or more ways resembles science but deviates from the scientific method is/involves: a. empirical evidence. b. pseudoscience. c. math.

d. science. e. anthropology.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Pseudoscience (or “junk”, “fringe”, or “alternative” science) is the practice or set of beliefs that are not founded in the basics of the scientific method.

5. A statement that describes what scientists expect to happen every time under a given set of conditions, and has been extensively tested previously, is called a scientific: a. observation. b. hypothesis. c. inference. d. law. e. experiment.

Correct Answer Reply: D. When a hypothesis has been tested over and over and found valid in all the circumstances examined, it may take on added importance and is then referred to as a scientific theory or law.

6. Astrology is an example of pseudoscience. Why is astrology considered a pseudoscience, unlike astronomy, which is a science? a. because it not based on empirical evidence. b. because it can be easily replicated by other scientists. c. because it is based on the scientific method. d. because astrology is older than astronomy.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Astrology is not based upon any observable evidence and has been shown to provide no information beyond what would be expected statistically. It is not reproducible and is not based upon the scientific method.

7. Facts, figures, and other evidence learned through observation are called: a. variables. b. experiments. c. questions. d. theories. e. data.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Data are the results of experiments and can take many forms, including numbers, observations and other information.

8. Four data points were measured in a blood alcohol determination. These were: 0.024, 0.091, 0.089, and 0.110. Using a Q-test calculation, can the point at 0.024 be eliminated from the data set? a. Yes b. No c. Cannot determine from the information provided.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The Q-test is a rough test to justify ejecting an outlying data point from a set. The equation used is given in chapter 3.

9. Scientific explanations do not change. a. True b. False Correct Answer Reply: B. As more data becomes available from experiments, we continue to refine our understanding of the universe. Thus, scientific theories and explanations are never static but change as our understanding becomes deeper.

10. Scientific explanations should be logical and testable. a. True b. False Correct Answer Reply: A. These are basic foundations of the scientific method – they must be testable and consistent (logical) with known data.

11. The is the frequency of occurrence of an event. a. standard deviation b. probability c. mode d. mean e. median Correct Answer Reply: B. Probability is the field that deals with representing the likelihood that a particular event or set of events will occur given a set of reference data. In contrast, the standard deviation is a numeric value that gives an indication of the breadth and the distribution of data in a set. The mean is the sum of the values of each of the individual data points divided by the total number of data points in the set while the median is the half-way point in the data – half of the data points present have greater and half have lesser values than the median. The mode is the most common value.

12. The gives an indication of the breadth of the distribution of the data. a. standard deviation b. probability c. mode d. mean e. median Correct Answer Reply: A. The standard deviation is a numeric value that gives an indication of the breadth and the distribution of data in a set. Probability, however, is the field that deals with representing the likelihood that a particular

event or set of events will occur given a set of reference data. The mean is the sum of the values of each of the individual data points divided by the total number of data points in the set while the median is the half-way point in the data – half of the data points present have greater and half have lesser values than the median. The mode is the most common value.

13. The length of shard of glass recovered from a crime scene was measured repeatedly.

Given the data set below of these measurements, what is the mean?

1.4, 1.5, 1.5, 1.6, 1.7, 1.7, 1.7, 1.7, 1.9. a. 1.7 b. 14.7 c. 1.5 d. 1.47 e. 1.6 Correct Answer Reply: E. The Mean of a set of numbers is the sum of the values of each of the individual data points divided by the total number of data points in the set. Thus, to get the mean of the numbers in the set in this question, just add them all up and then divide that answer by the number of data points (9 in this case).

14. The number and type of tests needed to identify a substance must be sufficient to all other substances from consideration. a. include b. consider c. exclude d. evaluate e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The answer must be exclude since, after you‟ve eliminated all the possibilities except for one, you‟ve arrived at the only answer. Sounds a bit like Sherlock Holmes‟ famous quote “How often have I said to you that when you have eliminated the impossible, whatever remains, however improbable, must be the truth.”

15. True or False: Physical evidence cannot be used to exclude or exonerate a person from suspicion of committing a crime. a. True b. False Correct Answer Reply: B. Physical evidence can certainly disprove a fact, or exonerate a person but cannot usually prove something.

16. What characteristic must be true of a good hypothesis? a. It must be correct. b. It must have been observed many times.

c. It must involve quantitative data. d. It must be testable by observation or experiment. e. It must sound scientific.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The key feature of any good hypothesis is that it is testable. Hypotheses have no prerequisite to be correct, simply that it can be tested. Of course, scientists try to make the very best hypothesis that they can initially to facilitate the design and later interpretation of experiments 17. What is the probability of drawing three sixes consecutively from a shuffled deck of standard playing cards (52 cards per deck)(Note, the answers are given in percentages)? a. 3 in 52 b. 0.018% c. 0.045% d. 0.077% e. 0.000077% Correct Answer Reply: B. The probability of drawing a 6 card (of any suit) from a deck is 4 in 52 or about 0.077. Therefore, the probability of drawing three in a row is simply multiplying each event or: 0.077 x 0.077 x 0.077 = 0.00045.

Expressing this as a percent, it is 0.00045 x 100 or 0.045%.

18. Which of the following claims is not scientifically testable? a. It is likely to rain this week. b. There are six moons orbiting the planet Pluto. c. Soon, a great opportunity will be made available to you. d. Cancer is caused by eating too many vegetables. e. The height of Mt. Everest is slowly decreasing.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Since it is very subjective is “a great opportunity will be made available to you”, this is not testable and verifiable. All of the other answers can be checked by experimentation and/or observation.

19. Which of the following is not a characteristic of pseudoscience? a. pseudoscience makes claims that are not testable. b. pseudoscience often leads to new experiments and areas of understanding. c. pseudoscience is not progressive. d. pseudoscience often involves no serious effort to conduct research. e. pseudoscience does not need to be correct.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Pseudoscience is often a “blind alley” that leads to no broader or deeper understanding of a phenomenon. The other answers are indeed features of pseudoscience.

20. Which of the following is not true of scientific claims?

a. A scientific claim must be testable. b. A scientific claim must be observable. c. A scientific claim must be falsifiable. d. A scientific claim must be an undisputed fact. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Scientific claims have no requirement that they must be undisputed, in fact scientific theories are often intensely debated and refined as more data from experiments become available.

21. Which of the following steps to solve a scientific problem is usually completed last when employing the scientific method? a. analyzing the data. b. recognizing and identifying the problem. c. drawing conclusions. d. testing a hypothesis. e. refining the original hypothesis.

Correct Answer Reply: E. The scientific method is comprised of five key steps: observation, hypothesis formulation, predictions based upon the hypothesis, experimentation, analysis of the results followed by refining or refuting the original hypothesis. Thus the final step is refining the original hypothesis.

22. Which sentence best describes a scientific theory? a. It can never change. b. It changes every time it is tested. c. It can be proven conclusively. d. It is well-tested and explains a wide range of observations. e. It is based in scientific intuition.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Scientific theories frequently change as more data become available and we refine our understanding of the problem being explored.

It does not, however, change every time that it is tested – sometimes an experiment verifies the theory while leading to new experiments. Also, science can rarely prove anything conclusively (although we can disprove things) but rather can say that the experiment either supports or refutes the theory.

23. If the person committing a crime is known to be a left-handed and red-haired male, the percentage of the population that would meet those requirements would be ______ (Given: 13% of people are left handed, 3% are red-haired and 50% are male): a. 13% b. 50% c. 3% d. 0.195% e. 0.00195%

Correct Answer Reply: D. The probability of several coupled events happening together is determined by multiplying together the probabilities of each individual event. Therefore, the probability in a population of a person to be a left-handed, red-haired male is: 13% x 3% x 50%. More specifically, however, the probability is calculated by using the decimal form so the calculation is really: 0.13 x 0.03 x 0.50 = 0.00195. But since the answers are given as percentages, you need to convert this decimal back into a percentage by multiplying by 100. So, the final answer is: (0.00195)100 = 0.195%.

24. Which is an example of pseudoscience? a. cosmology. b. astronomy c. astrology. d. psychology. e. all are examples of pseudoscience.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Astrology is a pseudoscience from many perspectives (untestable, unreliable, etc.). Just a note, cosmology is the study of the origin, evolution, and eventual fate of the universe.

25. The median in a set of numbers is: a. the sum of the values of each of the individual data points divided by the total number of data points in the set. b. is the half-way point in the data (half the data above and half below). c. the value that occurs most frequently in a data set. d. the value that gives an indication of the breadth and the distribution of data in a set. e. a convenient way to show directly on a plot the distribution and reliability of each data point.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The correct statement is simply the definition of the median.

26. The mean in a set of numbers is: a. the sum of the values of each of the individual data points divided by the total number of data points in the set. b. is the half-way point in the data (half the data above and half below). c. the value that occurs most frequently in a data set. d. the value that gives an indication of the breadth and the distribution of data in a set. e. a convenient way to show directly on a plot the distribution and reliability of each data point.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The correct statement is simply the definition of the mean.

27. The mode in a set of numbers is: a. the sum of the values of each of the individual data points divided by the total number of data points in the set. b. is the half-way point in the data (half the data above and half below). c. the value that occurs most frequently in a data set. d. the value that gives an indication of the breadth and the distribution of data in a set. e. a convenient way to show directly on a plot the distribution and reliability of each data point.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The correct statement is simply the definition of the mode.

28. The standard deviation in a set of numbers is: a. the sum of the values of each of the individual data points divided by the total number of data points in the set. b. is the half-way point in the data (half the data above and half below). c. the value that occurs most frequently in a data set. d. the value that gives an indication of the breadth and the distribution of data in a set. e. a convenient way to show directly on a plot the distribution and reliability of each data point.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The correct statement is simply the definition of the standard deviation.

29. (Fill in the blanks) Examples of the skills used in the scientific method include ____ and ____. a. ideas, precedents. b. clues, detectives. c. thoughts, inferences. d. observations, measurements. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The correct statement “Examples of the skills used in the scientific method include observations and measurements” is a recognition that modern forensic is built upon measurable facts and scientific observations/reasoning.

30. In the scientific method, what characteristic must be true of a good initial hypothesis? a. It must be correct. b. It must have been observed many times. c. It must involve inferences. d. It must be testable by observation or experiment. e. It must not change with time.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The only real requirement for a hypothesis is that it must be testable through experimentation and observation. Initial hypotheses are often incorrect and, therefore, must change with time. The number of times something is observed and the inferences made don‟t really apply well to establishing a good working (initial) hypothesis.

31. In the picture at right, the highlighted point (arrow) is best described as the: a. median. b. average. c. mode. d. mean. e. standard deviation.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The correct statement is simply the definition of the Median.

32. Cognitive bias is: a. Consciously favoring one particular outcome for personal reasons. b. An unconscious tendency to see what you expect to see. c. A subconscious expectation for a particular outcome before having all the facts. d. Failure to choose a sample that represents the greater population. e. An unconscious tendency to look for and interpret data in a way that is consistent with one‟s own beliefs.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The correct statement is the definition of cognitive bias. This type of bias can be broken down to more specific types of bias such as contextual bias.

33. Confirmation bias is: a. Consciously favoring one particular outcome for personal reasons. b. An unconscious tendency to see what you expect to see. c. A subconscious expectation for a particular outcome before having all the facts. d. Failure to choose a sample that represents the greater population. e. An unconscious tendency to look for and interpret data in a way that is consistent with one‟s own beliefs.

Correct Answer Reply: E. The correct statement is the definition of confirmation bias.

34. Motivational bias is: a. Consciously favoring one particular outcome for personal reasons. b. An unconscious tendency to see what you expect to see. c. A subconscious expectation for a particular outcome before having all the facts. d. Failure to choose a sample that represents the greater population.

e. An unconscious tendency to look for and interpret data in a way that is consistent with one‟s own beliefs.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The correct statement is the definition of motivational bias.

35. What is the systematic knowledge of the physical world gained through observation and experimentation? a. Pseudoscience. b. Mathematics. c. Science. d. Law. e. Empirical Evidence.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The question is simply a restatement of the definition of science 36. Which of the following is NOT considered a part of the scientific method? a. Drawing a hypothesis. b. Prediction of results. c. Observation of trends. d. Forming untestable claims. e. Experimentation.

Correct Answer Reply: D. A key feature of the scientific method is that they must be testable and consistent with known data. Claims that are not testable are considered pseudoscience.

37. Which of the following is a feature of pseudoscience? a. Not enough detail is provided to allow others to reproduce the results. b. Publications are found in peer-reviewed journals. c. Hypotheses are continually revised as new data is found. d. Claims are clearly stated and supported by evidence. e. Experiments are designed to both provide confirmation and probe for limitations in hypothesis.

Correct Answer Reply: A. In pseudoscience, there is no requirement for reproducible results and proponents often provide only vague details on the methodology. In contrast, scientists must provide enough information to be reproducible by others to similar results.

38. __________ is concerned with determining the characteristics of a large population by interpreting data collected from a small subset of that group. a. Probability. b. Standard deviation. c. Mean. d. Median.

e. Statistics.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Statistics is the field that focuses on the collection, handling, validation, and interpretation of data. Probability is the field that deals with representing the likelihood that a particular event or set of events will occur given a set of reference data. In contrast, the standard deviation is a numeric value that gives an indication of the breadth and the distribution of data in a set. The mean is the sum of the values of each of the individual data points divided by the total number of data points in the set while the median is the halfway point in the data – half of the data points present have greater and half have lesser values than the median.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Four Questions 1. A compound microscope is equipped with two objectives lenses (5x and 50x) and also has a 10x ocular lens. The highest possible magnification attainable with this instrument is: a. 10X b. 50X c. 55X d. 250X e. 500X Correct Answer Reply: E. 2. In scanning electron microscopy, the:

a. electron beam passes through the sample. b. light bounces off of the sample. c. light is scattered by the sample. d. the electron beam bounces off of the sample. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 3. In the picture at right, the diagram best describes which microscopic technique. (a) brightfield microscopy. (b) darkfield microscopy. (c) phase contrast microscopy. (d) comparison microscopy. (e) polarizing microscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: B.

4. A microscope is equipped with one 20x objective lens. If the total magnification attainable with this instrument is 100x, what is the magnification of the ocular lens? a. 50x b. 120x c. 80x d. 5x e. 10x Correct Answer Reply: D. The total magnification of a microscope is obtained by multiplying the magnification of the objective lens with the ocular lens. Therefore, the magnification of the ocular lens is calculated by dividing the total magnification by the objective lens.

5. Which is NOT a basic unit of measurement in the SI system? a. Length. b. Temperature. c. Energy. d. Mass. e. Time.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The seven basic units of the SI system is length (meters), Mass (kilogram), Temperature (Kelvin), Time (second), Quantity (mole), Electric Current (ampere), and Light Intensity (candela). The unit of energy is a combination of these base units (kgm2s-2).

6. What is random error? a. How closely the measurements in a group agree with each other. b. When unknown or unpredictable forces act to affect a measurement. c. How close a measurement is to the true value. d. A way of relating the uncertainty in a measurement. e. When measurements are off by a consistent amount, often due to instrumental errors.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Random errors are errors that occur when unknown forces act on a measurement and lead to inconsistent values in repeated measurements. In contrast, systematic errors are not introduced by random chance and affect all measurements similarly.

7. Which of the following numbers contains 4 significant figures? a. 0.0305 b. 3.10 x 10-3 c. 4.98 d. 1300 e. 2.024 Correct Answer Reply: E. The answer contains exactly 4 significant figures without any ambiguity. The rules are as follows: (1) all non-zero digits are significant, as are zeroes in between them, (2) zeroes to the left of the left-most non-zero digit are not significant, (3) zeroes at the end of a number but to the right of a decimal point are significant, and (4) a zero at the end of a number without a decimal place is not significant.

8. Which of the following microscopes would you find a firearms examiner using most frequently? a. Compound microscope. b. Phase contrast microscope. c. Scanning electron microscope. d. Comparison microscope. e. Brightfield microscope.

Correct Answer Reply: D.

9. Which of the following techniques use special molecules that absorb light and then reemit the light at a longer wavelength? a. Fluorescence microscopy.

b. Polarized light microscopy. c. Transmission electron microscopy. d. Stereo microscope. e. Dark field optical microscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Fluorescence microscopy is a form of optical microscopy where a sample is irradiated with light that excites molecules in the sample to emit fluorescent light that is then detected. Often, it uses dyes added to the sample to enhance contrast.

10. Which form of light microscopy relies on the „twisting‟ of light to view a sample? a. Fluorescence microscopy. b. Polarized light microscopy. c. Scanning electron microscopy. d. Bright field optical microscopy. e. Phase contrast microscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Polarized light microscopy uses plane polarized light to enhance contrast. This involves the ability of some compounds to twist light in a different orientation.

11. Which type of microscopy is commonly used to study the surface features of a specimen using very high magnification (~2000 x to 10,000x)? a. Transmission electron microscopy. b. Scanning electron microscopy. c. Fluorescence microscopy. d. Confocal microscopy. e. Polarized light microscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Scanning electron microscopy.

12. Which type of microscopy is used to observe the internal structures of thin sections of specimens? a. Scanning electron microscopy. b. Polarized electron microscopy. c. Transmission electron microscopy. d. Atomic force microscopy. e. Localized electron microscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Transmission electron microscopy 13. What is the main advantage of using polarized light microscopy in forensic analysis? a. High resolution. b. 3D imaging. c. Ability to observe living cells. d. Enhanced contrast in birefringent materials. e. Fluorescent labeling.

Correct Answer Reply: D.

14. Which type of microscopy is particularly useful for analyzing fired bullets and cartridge casings? a. Scanning electron microscopy. b. Atomic force microscopy. c. Infrared microscopy. d. Comparison microscopy. e. Fluorescence microscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 15. Which microscopic technique uses a focused beam of electrons to create highresolution images of a specimen? a. Confocal microscopy. b. Fluorescence microscopy. c. Scanning electron microscopy. d. Atomic force microscopy. e. Raman microscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 16. Which microscopic technique is particularly useful for analyzing the fracture and stress patterns of glass samples? a. Scanning electron microscopy. b. Polarized light microscopy. c. Transmission electron microscopy. d. Atomic force microscopy. e. Fluorescence microscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 17. What is the main advantage of using a comparison microscope over a regular microscope? a. Higher magnification. b. Ability to analyze DNA. c. Simultaneous side-by-side viewing. d. Compatibility with electron microscopy. e. Infrared light detection.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 18. What is the main principle behind optical microscopy? a. Electron scattering. b. X-ray diffraction. c. Light interaction. d. Radioactive decay.

e. Magnetic resonance.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Light interaction.

19. Which component in a microscope focuses light onto the specimen? a. Eyepiece. b. Objective lens. c. Condenser lens. d. Diaphragm. e. Stage.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Condenser lens.

20.Which parameter determines the resolving power of a microscope? a. Light wavelength. b. Magnification. c. Numerical aperture. d. Depth of field. e. Working distance.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Light wavelength.

21. Which microscopic technique is based on blocking the direct light waves to show only refracted light to the viewer? a. Bright-field microscopy. b. Phase-contrast microscopy. c. Dark-field microscopy. d. Differential interference contrast (DIC) microscopy. e. Polarized light microscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: C.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Five Questions 1. The basic building block in DNA, consisting of a phosphate group, a sugar and a base, is called a(n): a. nuclei acid. b. nucleoside. c. nucleoplast. d. nucleotide. e. amino acid.

Correct Answer Reply: D. DNA, at its most fundamental level, is made up of repeating units connected in a polymeric fashion. In DNA, one nucleic acid unit is linked to another to form a long, linear chain. These nucleic acid building blocks are themselves composed of three simpler components: (1) a phosphoric acid residue (PO42-), (2) a five-carbon sugar unit (specifically, DNA uses a deoxyribose sugar ) and (3) a nitrogen-containing base form what is known as a nucleotide.

2. A child has the genotype 12, 15 at the THO1 STR locus (one location on a DNA strand). Which of the following couples could be its parents? a. mother 12, 15; father 8, 14. b. mother 12, 12; father 8, 15. c. mother 12, 10; father 8, 12. d. mother 3, 5; father 12, 15. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. In this problem, the 12-repeat STR section must come from one parent while the 15 must come from the other. What we are, therefore, looking for is either parent (either the mother or father) to have a 12 STR repeat while the other parent has the 15-repeat. The only answer that meets this requirement if answer B. 3. Where are the chromosomes located in the body? a. genes. b. genotype. c. nucleus. d. phenotype. e. cell membrane.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Chromosomes are located in the nucleus – in fact, DNA itself is referred to as a nuclei acid since it is found in the nucleus. Genes

are just specific lengths of the DNA polymer that are used to direct protein synthesis and the genotype is how these genes are expressed in a living organism.

4. The basic building block of DNA is known as a(n): a. carbohydrate. b. enzyme. c. nucleotide. d. protein. e. starch.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The unit containing a phosphoric acid residue (PO42), a five-carbon sugar unit, and a nitrogen-containing base is a nucleotide and is used to build the DNA biopolymer. Carbohydrates are sugars, enzymes are proteins, proteins are made of amino acid building blocks and a starch is similar to a carbohydrate.

5. When DNA is “read: (translated), _____ nitrogenous bases are needed to code for a single amino acid in a protein. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6 Correct Answer Reply: B. Three nucleotides linked together are required to code of each specific amino acid. For example, the nucleotide sequence of GAC codes for the amino acid Aspartame while AGA codes for Arginine. These sets of three nucleotides describe all the chemical information necessary to build a unique protein.

6. Use the DNA RFLP pattern of evidence shown below from a rape investigation to answer the following question.

From the RFLP data above, which suspect(s) cannot be eliminated from consideration? a. suspect A. b. suspect B. c. suspect C. d. ALL can be eliminated. e. NONE can be eliminated.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Since the semen recovered from the victim (provided by the attacker) is indistinguishable from the pattern shown for Suspect A, this person cannot be eliminated. The other three suspects have different DNA RFLP patterns so they cannot have provided the semen and can be eliminated. Note that Suspect A cannot be eliminated but it doesn‟t mean that they were the attacker – it‟s just that they cannot be eliminated from this single test result.

7. STR data sets typically identify 13 specific loci within the human geneome – an example is seen in the figure below. A suspect and control set can then be compared using a gel electrophoreses. STR is an acronym that stands for:

a. Short Tandem Repeats. b. Suspicious Transient Reports. c. Sustained Transfer Reactions. d. Short Transverse Repeats. e. Short Tandem Restrictions.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Short tandem repeats are a region of DNA in which a small sequence of nucleotides (2 to 6 nucleotides) is repeated multiple times.

8. The method employed for separating out the different lengths of DNA after using a restriction enzyme to cut it into fragments is gel electrophoresis. These fragments are separated using: a. a pressurized gas. b. a liquid moving past a solid with differing forces of attraction. c. infrared light to cause the fragments to vibrate. d. electricity that results in the smaller portions moving the farthest in the gel. e. gamma radiation that fixes the fragments in specific locations.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Gel electrophoresis is the process of separating DNA fragments based upon their charge and size. Charged DNA fragments are placed in a gel bed and moved through the medium by applying an electric current.

Shorter fragments move fastest and farthest through the gel while longer fragments move the least.

9. A nucleotide is composed of three component portions that are: a. a phosphate, a starch, and a nitrogenous base. b. a sulfate, a sugar, and a hydrocarbon. c. a phosphate, a sugar, and a nitrogenous base. d. a sulfate, a starch, and a hydrocarbon. e. a carbonate, a starch, and a nitrogenous base.

Correct Answer Reply: C. A Nucleotide is the basic building block of DNA, consisting of a phosphate, a deoxyribose sugar, and a nitrogen base.

10. PCR is a technique that: a. can produce many exact copies of segments of DNA. b. produces information regarding the sequence of nitrogenous bases. c. provides a statistical analysis of the nitrogenous-base pairings. d. cuts DNA in specific places. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. PCR refers to the polymerase chain reaction which is the laboratory method for the rapid replication of regions of DNA. So, it produces many copies of small segments of DNA. 11. Given the data below in Table 1, a person from what location would you expect to have the lesser chance of being heterozygous for 13 and 15 repeats of the D13S317 STR fragment,?

*a. China. b. US. c. Australia. d. the probabilities are the same. e. locations do not matter.

Correct Answer Reply: A. For someone from the US with 13 and 15 STR repeats at this locus (location on the DNA strand), the probability is 0.1093 x 0.0330 = 0.00361 while someone from China has a probability (from the chart) of

0.0314 x 0.000 = 0.000. Clearly, the person from China has the lesser probability of having the 13,15 pairing (since it‟s essentially zero).

12. How many possible different nitrogenous bases are available for use during the creation of a single strand of DNA? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 Correct Answer Reply: D. There are only for possibilities: Adenine (A), which pairs only with Thymine (T), and Guanine (G), which pairs only with Cytosine (C) in DNA. 13. A protein is a biopolymer built by decoding a portion of the DNA strand and is composed of many units connected in a chain. a. amino acid b. sugar c. nucleotide d. lipid e. ester Correct Answer Reply: A. Proteins are made up of amino acid building blocks.

In contrast, DNA uses nucleotide building blocks while carbohydrates use sugar building blocks to make the respective biopolymers.

14. The method employed for separating the different lengths of DNA fragments from either a RFLP or PCR/STR approach most commonly is: a. GC/mass spectrometry. b. thin layer chromatography. c. infrared spectroscopy. *. gel electrophoresis. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Gel electrophoresis is the process of separating DNA fragments based upon their charge and size.

15. In a gel chromatogram, the smallest fragments _____: a. can travel the farthest. b. smaller fragments stay near the origin. c. smaller fragments can travel the least. d. smaller fragments cannot move due to binding with the gel. e. cannot be determined.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Since the mixture of different sized pieces of cut DNA starts at the origin, the fastest moving DNA segments will be found the farthest down the gel. Since smaller fragments move fastest, due to the fact that they squeeze through the microscopic fibers of the gel most easily, the smaller fragments are found farthest from the origin.

16. The DNA nitrogen base thymine is always paired with a. Adenine. b. Guanine. c. Cytosine. d. Thymine. e. none of the above.

.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Adenine (A) pairs only with Thymine (T), and Guanine (G) pairs only with Cytosine (C) in DN 17. The sequence of nucleotides in one strand of DNA is TCGATC. The sequence of the complementary strand would be: a. AGCTAG b. TCGATC c. CTAGCT d. GCTAGC e. GATCGA Correct Answer Reply: A. Since Adenine (A) pairs only with Thymine (T) and Guanine (G) pairs only with Cytosine (C) in DNA, wherever there‟s a T in the original strand of DNA, the complimentary strand places an A in the sequence.

Similarly, wherever there‟s a G in the original strand, the complimentary strand places a C. So, for the original TCGATC strand, the complimentary strand must be AGCTAG. 18. A nucleotide in DNA is composed of _____. a. only a deoxyribose sugar and a nitrogen base. b. only a deoxyribose sugar and a phosphate group. c. only a phosphate and a nitrogen base. d. a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogen base. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. A Nucleotide consists of a phosphate, a deoxyribose sugar, and a nitrogen base.

19. Just considering one locus, evidence at a crime scene shows a genotype of 5, 9 STR repeats at this locus. The general population frequencies for the alleles 5 and 9 are 0.100 and 0.300, respectively. How frequent would the genotype 5, 9 be expected to be in the general population? a. 0.400

b. 0.030 c. 0.200 d. 3.000 e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. To find the probability of a genotype of 5, 9 STR repeats, you have to multiply together the individual probabilities of each event (either having a 5 or a 9 STR repeat are each events). So, the probability of the 5,9-pairing would be 0.100 x 0.300 = 0.030.

20. The importance of looking for STRs on the Y chromosome in forensic science is that: a. the frequency of Y chromosome occurrence in the general population is very small. b. the Y chromosome is shorter by sixty nucleotides than the X chromosome. c. the X chromosome is shorter by sixty bases than the Y chromosome. d. STRs are easier to locate and measure on Y chromosomes. e. the Y chromosome originates only from a male donor.

Correct Answer Reply: E. The key feature here is that the Y chromosome originates only from a male donor. This allows us to follow the male lineage backwards to father-grandfather-etc. or to look at other related male relatives.

21. DNA is a(n): a. protein. b. enzyme. c. carbohydrate. d. nucleic acid. e. starch.

Correct Answer Reply: D. DNA is a nucleic acid and composed of long chains of nucleotides.

22. Given the data below in Table 1, what is the probability that someone from the US would be heterozygous for 8 and 10 repeats of the D13S317 STR fragment?

a. (0.1026) b. (0. 1026) x (0. 1026) c. (0. 1026) x (0.0662) d. (0.0662) x (0.0662) e. (0.0662)

Correct Answer Reply: C. Someone from the US would have (from the table) probabilities of 0.1026 to have 8-repeats and a probability of 0.0662 to have 10 repeats. The probability of having the 8,10-pairing combination would then be (0.

1026) x (0.0662).

23. Which of the following areas of DNA research has led to facial reconstruction? a. Bacterial DNA analysis. b. DNA tracking and surveillance. c. Complex DNA mixtures. d. DNA phenotyping. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Creating a biological profile including facial features using DNA is known as DNA phenotyping. This refers to a person‟s biochemical features that are determined by genetics and environmental influences.

24. Which component(s) of DNA forms just the backbone of the DNA molecule? a. a phosphate group. b. a nitrogenous base. c. a deoxyribose sugar. d. a phosphate, a deoxyribose sugar and a nitrogenous base. e. only a phosphate and a deoxyribose sugar.

Correct Answer Reply: E. The DNA backbone contains only phosphate and deoxyribose sugar units. The nitrogen-bases are not part of the backbone but “hang” off of the phosphate-sugar “clothesline.”

25. Restriction enzymes: a. reduce the DNA replication rate. b. reduce the time required for a PCR analysis. c. limit the amount of protein produced in the cell. d. cut DNA at specific sites. e. inhibit DNA replication.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Restriction Enzyme are proteins that locates a specific DNA sequence and cuts the DNA strand at that location. This breaks the DNA into very specific lengths that depends directly on the nucleotide sequences.

26. The process of using mRNA to dictate the order of amino acids in a protein that occurs on the ribosome is referred to as: a. transduction b. transcription c. translation d. transmutation e. none of the above

Correct Answer Reply: C. Translation is the final step in the synthesis of proteins directed by a mRNA template. The information contained in the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA is read as three letter words where each word stands for one particular amino acid.

27. The RFLP technique provides a method for: a. cutting DNA into small length fragments. b. making many copies of a DNA fragment from one fragment. c. identifying DNA fragments by their colors. d. denaturing DNA by heating the sample. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism) cuts the DNA strand at very specific sequences, leading to unique DNA fragment lengths that depends directly on the original DNA nucleotide sequence.

28. In PCR, the step that completes the DNA sequence by adding nucleotides (A, T, C, and C) to the growing chain beginning at the primers is called: a. denaturation b. annealing c. extension d. replication e. polymerization Correct Answer Reply: C. The 1st PCR step separates DNA double strand into two single strands (denaturation). The 2nd step adds markers (primers) to show where to start copying DNA strands (hybridization). The final step completes the strand by filling in complimentary bases starting at the primers (extension).

29. Which is NOT a component of a nucleotide? a. a phosphorous containing group. b. an amino acid. c. a sugar. d. a nitrogen-containing base. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Amino acids are not found in DNA but are rather components of proteins.

30. Which statement regarding RFLPs is NOT true? a. Restriction enzymes are used to cut RFLPs from the DNA helix. b. There is little variation in the number of repeats from person to person. c. All humans have DNA sections with repeated portions. d. Typically, a core repeat sequence in RFLP would consist of 15-30 bases. e. Analysis may be undertaken using a technique called Southern Blotting or gel electrophoresis.

Correct Answer Reply:B. Statement B, that “there is little variation in the number of repeats from person to person” is definitely wrong since the entire premise in DNA typing is that it detects the variation in the number of repeats from person to person at a particular DNA location. The other statements are correct.

31. During gel electrophoresis, the DNA is: a. undergoing hybridization. b. separated by fragment size. c. extracted from the cell nuclei. d. cut into fragments. e. visualized using X-rays.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Gel electrophoresis is the process of separating DNA fragments based upon their charge and size.

32. STR analysis has replaced RFLP DNA typing mainly because it: a. is less subject to sample degradation. b. requires a smaller sample size. c. can be implemented using the PCR process. d. reduces the time to obtain results from a sample. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All of these statements are true (refer to the table in the text chapter for a comparison).

33. Means to detect the amelogenin gene are included in commercial STR kits used in crime labs because this gene allows for the determination of: a. ethnicity. b. blood type. c. gender. d. eye color. e. age.

Correct Answer Reply: C. One locus on the X and Y chromosomes has been chosen to determine gender (the gene for tooth enamel) and it is the amelogenin gene. The X and Y carry different DNA for this gene, allowing the determination of the XX (female) vs XY (male) components.

34. As currently performed, DNA-profiling technology cannot provide information helpful in: a. matching a suspect to biological evidence found at a crime scene. b. deciding immigration cases based on family relationships. c. settling matters of questioned paternity/maternity. d. determining whether an individual carries a genetic defect.

e. ruling out a suspect.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Since forensic DNA analysis does not actually sequence the DNA (just looks for the number of STR repeats at a particular location), it generally cannot detect genetic defects in a person‟s genome. This would usually require a full sequencing of someone‟s DNA and this is not part of forensic DNA usage.

35. CODIS is a national system of: a. computers to track the movement of sex offenders released from prison. b. shared databases of DNA typing information from convicted felons and crime scene evidence. c. vastly enhanced 911 emergency systems. d. computerized system for storing and retrieving fingerprint records. e. standards for forensic science evaluators.

Correct Answer Reply: B. CODIS contains several databases (called indices) including DNA information for convicted offender, forensic (samples collected from crime scenes), missing persons and their relatives.

36. In the PCR method, the step that separates the DNA double strand into two singlestrands is called: a. Denaturation. b. Annealing. c. Extension. d. Ligation. e. Hybridization.

Correct Answer Reply: A The 1st PCR step separates DNA double strand into two single strands (denaturation). The 2nd step adds markers (primers) to show where to start copying DNA strands (hybridization). The final step completes the strand by filling in complimentary bases starting at the primers (extension).

37. The specific proteins produced by a cell are directly related to the: a. sequence of nucleotides in the DNA of the cell. b. number of mitochondria in the cell. c. length of the chromosomes. d. sequence of sugars and phosphates in the cell. e. sequence of amino acids in the DNA. Correct Answer Reply: A. Three nucleotides linked together are required to code of each specific amino acid. These sets of three nucleotides describe all the chemical information necessary to build a unique protein. So, the sequence of nucleotides in the DNA of the cell directs the specific proteins produced by a cell.

38. In the PCR process, the first step is to heat the DNA strands. This is to permit the:

a. DNA to coil very tightly in the helical shape. b. process to take place without DNA degradation. c. hybridization process to take place. d. double-stranded molecules to separate from the cell completely. e. DNA to be extracted from the nucleus of the cell.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The 1st PCR step separates the DNA double strand into two single strands (denaturation). The 2nd step adds markers (primers) to show where to start copying DNA strands (hybridization). The final step completes the strand by filling in complimentary bases starting at the primers (extension).

39. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited: a. from the mother and father b. from the mother only c. from the father only d. randomly from mother and father e. from enitehr mother nor father – it is not inherited Correct Answer Reply: B. The mirochondria in the sperm from fathers are not transferred to the fertilized egg. This means that none of the father‟s mirochondrial DNA ends up in the fertilized egg, resulting in the inheritance of mirochondiral DNA only from mothers.

40. A permanent alteration or change in the sequence of nucleotides in the DNA of an organism is called a(n): a. transmigration b. transgenic shift c. mutation d. transmutation e. modification Correct Answer Reply: C. A Mutation is an inheritable change in the base sequence of DNA. 41. A forensic scientist was conducting a genetic investigation and identified a satellite (STR sequence) on a chromosome and constructed the primer CTTGCAA. What is the corresponding template DNA sequence? a. CTTGCAA b. GAACGTT c. TCCATGG d. TCCACAA e. none of the above Correct Answer Reply: B. Since Adenine (A) pairs only with Thymine (T) and Guanine (G) pairs only with Cytosine (C) in DNA, wherever there‟s a T in the

original strand of DNA, the complimentary strand places an A in the sequence. Similarly, wherever there‟s a G in the original strand, the complimentary strand places a C. A primer is a complimentary strand of DNA that relates to a specific original sequence of the DNA polymer. So, for the original CTTGCAA strand, the complimentary strand must be GAACGTT. 42. What did the Human Genome Project accomplish? a. Identified the function of human genes. b. Determined the DNA base sequence of all human genes. c. Identified the nucleotides that code for each amino acid. d. Determined the DNA base sequence of biologically important DNA only. e. None of the above Correct Answer Reply: B. Completed in 2003, the Human Genome Project completely determined the base sequence of all 30,000 human genes. They found that humans share 93% of our DNA code with roundworms and that only 1.5% of DNA codes for biologically important compounds.

43. Forensic scientists from time to time must reconstruct the DNA profile for a missing person from analysis of DNA profiles of close relatives. In this case, a mother of four children is missing. All children have the same biological father. Results from a single locus probe DNA fingerprint analysis for the four children and their father are shown in the figure (at right).

Unfortunately, the forensic scientist forgot to label the lane with the father's DNA. Nevertheless, you are able to deduce that the alleles of the missing mother are: a. B and C b. A and B c. A and C d. B and D e. A and D Correct Answer Reply: E. First, determine which column (lane) must be from father – which of the five columns has at least one marker in common with all of the others. By looking at the plot, it must be that the father‟s DNA is in lane 1.

That means that the father must have B and C alleles. By elimination, that means that the mother must have alleles A and D (those not present in the father but that are present in the children).

45. DNA can be used to: a. determine the age of a suspect. b. determine the general health of a suspect. c. determine the identity of badly damaged or decomposed remains.

d. determine the height and weight of an unknown suspect. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. DNA can only provide genetic information so the only answer rooted in the genes relates to the identity of degraded remans.

46. What is the purpose of DNA gel electrophoresis? a. To extract genes from the DNA. b. To isolate the DNA from the sample. c. To separate the DNA fragments by size and develop a visual profile of these markers. d. To compare known DNA profiles to an unknown sample to determine if a suspect was or wasn‟t at a crime scene. e. To remove the nucleus from the cell.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Gel electrophoresis is the process of separating DNA fragments based upon their charge and size. Charged DNA fragments are placed in a gel bed and moved through the medium by applying an electric current.

Shorter fragments move fastest and farthest through the gel while longer fragments move the least.

47. Assume that two strands of DNA have been separated and that the base sequence on one strand is TTGC. What is the sequence of bases on the complimentary strand? a. GGTA b. CGTT c. AACG d. CCAT e. TTGC Correct Answer Reply: C. In DNA base-pairing, A pairs with T and C pairs with G. So, in the sequence TTGC, the corresponding (complimentary) stand must be AACG. 48. To characterize DNA using RFLP, the DNA must be cut into smaller pieces using: a. a probe. b. a primer. c. a restriction enzyme. d. STRs. e. none of these.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Restriction Enzymes are proteins that locates a specific DNA sequence and cuts the DNA strand at that location.

49. A procedure that separates DNA fragments according to fragment size is: a. chromatography. b. mass spectrometry.

c. gel electrophoresis. d. a restriction enzyme. e. spectrometry.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Gel electrophoresis is the process of separating DNA fragments based upon their charge and size. Charged DNA fragments are placed in a gel bed and moved through the medium by applying an electric current.

Shorter fragments move fastest and farthest through the gel while longer fragments move the least.

50. An exact location on the DNA molecule of a gene or area on interest is called: a. a chromosome. b. a DNA fingerprint. c. a locus. d. a nucleotide. e. the hypervalent DNA. Correct Answer Reply: C. Locus (loci) is a specific position on the DNA strand.

51. All human cells contain: a. 13 chromosomes b. 20 chromosomes c. 23 chromosomes d. 32 chromosomes e. 46 chromosomes Correct Answer Reply: C. 52. Which of the following is not a nitrogenous base found in DNA? a. Adenine b. Guanine c. Uracil d. Cytosine e. Thymine Correct Answer Reply: C. Uracil is only found in RNA. It replaces thymine which is found in DNA only.

53. What is a primary function of DNA? a. It contains information that codes for different proteins. b. It serves as structural support for the cell. c. It connects amino acids together to form proteins. d. It protects the cell from bacteria and viruses. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The order of nucleotides and DNA can be transcribed and translated to prepare proteins in the cell. The areas of DNA coding that are used for this purpose are called genes.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Six Questions 1. Which type of blood cell is involved in transporting hemoglobin to cells? a. erythrocytes b. leukocytes c. thrombocytes d. electrocytes e. t-cells Correct Answer Reply: A. The erythrocytes (red blood cells) have as their primary function to carry oxygen from the lungs to the cells and return waste carbon dioxide from the cells back to the lungs. Leukocytes are white blood cells and thrombocytes are the platelets.

2. A person with type B blood has which type(s) of antibodies in their blood serum? a. anti-A b. anti-B c. anti-C d. both anti-A and anti-B e. neither anti-A nor anti-B Correct Answer Reply: A. You carry antibodies (such as anti-A and anti-B) for the protein that is NOT present in your blood. Thus, if you have antigen (protein) A in your blood, making you type A blood, you carry the antibodies for B (antiB). If you are type B, you carry antibodies for A (anti-A). AB-type blood caries no antibodies while type-O carries antibodies for both A and B. 3. The components of blood that are most active in identifying foreign bodies (infection) and combating the foreign body are the: a. leukocytes. b. erythrocytes. c. blastocytes. d. thrombocytes. e. immunocytes.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Leukocytes (white blood cells) are primarily responsible for dealing with infections. Red blood (erythrocytes) cells transport oxygen and thrombocytes ( platelets) deal with forming clots.

4. Arterial gush blood spatter from a wound is a type of: a. active/projected bloodstain.

b. passive bloodstain. c. transfer blood stain. d. gravity blood stain. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Arterial gush is blood forced through a wound under the pressure of the heart (blood pressure). Thus, it is a type of projected blood.

Passive blood patterns occur when the droplet is acted upon only by the force of gravity.

5. The fluid portion of blood as it is removed from someone (containing the antibodies) that accounts for approximately 55% of blood is known as the: a. RBC fraction. b. WBC fraction. c. serum. d. plasma. e. hemocritical fluid.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Plasma is the liquid portion of blood that comprises about 55% of its volume consisting of a complex mixture of cellular, biochemical, and inorganic components in a water-based solution, including antibodies.

6. A precipitin test can be used to identify: a. if blood is present. b. if the blood found is human. c. what is the blood type of the evidential blood. d. the spatter pattern. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The Precipitin Test is an immunoassay test in which a soluble antigen reacts to form a precipitate when it combines with a specific antibody in the presence of an electrolyte. It is very specific if a particular type of blood. For example, it can be used to react only with human blood, rabbit blood or dog blood. Thus, it is a method to determine if the blood found is human blood.

7. Antibodies are generally found: a. on the red blood cells. b. on the white blood cells. c. in the solid portion of blood (blood proteins). d. in the blood plasma. e. in the fibrinogen.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Antibodies are Y-shaped protein molecules that can combine with a foreign antigen to disable or destroy the antigen. They are found in the blood plasma (blood serum has the antibodies removed).

8. Blood distributed by the contact of one object/surface with another is referred to as a: a. projected bloodstain. b. passive bloodstain. c. transfer blood stain. d. arterial blood stain. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Passive blood patterns occur when the droplet is acted upon only by the force of gravity and projected blood is expelled by a force. A transfer stain, however, is a pattern created when a wet, bloody surface comes in contact with another surface to form a print-like pattern.

9. Which of these fluids is NOT analyzed in forensic serology? a. Urine b. Sweat c. Semen d. Saliva e. All of these have forensic usefulness.

Correct Answer Reply: E. A variety of body fluids can be used in forensic

investigations including saliva, semen, urine, sweat, bile, and vitreous humor.

These fluids provide different types of evidence about the crime that occurred.

10. The component in blood that contains the antigen proteins and is used to identify the blood type of an individual are the: a. white blood cells. b. red blood cells. c. platelets. d. none of these contain antigen protein. e. all of these contain the antigen protein.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Red blood cells (erythrocytes, RBC) are the flexible, disc-shaped cells, concave on both sides, that account for about 96% of the cellular portion of blood. The proteins A, B, and H (antigens) re part of the outer coating of the RBC, giving the blood its characteristic typing.

11. If blood is found to have the neither antigen and both the A and B antibodies, it is typed as (in the ABO blood system): a. A b. B c. AB d. O e. Rh Positive

Correct Answer Reply: D. You carry antibodies (such as anti-A and anti-B) for the protein that is NOT present in your blood. Thus, if you have antigen (protein) A in your blood, making you type A blood, you carry the antibodies for B (antiB). If you are type B, you carry antibodies for A (anti-A). AB-type blood caries no antibodies while type-O carries antibodies for both A and B. 12. A preliminary test, such as spraying luminol, can be used to most directly answer which important question? a. Is it blood? b. Whose blood is it? c. What blood type is it? d. How was the blood distributed within the crime scene? e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Luminol is a chemical that is oxidized by hydrogen peroxide when hemoglobin is present to emit light though chemiluminescence. It is most often used to visualize the patterns of blood stains that are not visible to the unaided eyes.

13. Type AB blood contains: a. anti-A antibodies and B antigens. b. anti-A antigens and anti-B antibodies. c. both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. d. neither anti-A and anti-B antibodies. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. You carry antibodies (such as anti-A and anti-B) for the protein that is NOT present in your blood. Thus, if you have antigen (protein) A in your blood, making you type A blood, you carry the antibodies for B (antiB). If you are type B, you carry antibodies for A (anti-A). AB-type blood caries no antibodies while type-O carries antibodies for both A and B. 14. Paternity testing was done involving a woman with type AB blood who had accused a man with type B blood of fathering her child who has tested type AB. What can be determined in this case? a. The male definitely is the father of the child. b. The male could have fathered the child. c. The male is definitely NOT the father of the child. d. none of the above. e. all of the above are possible.

Correct Answer Reply: B. In this case, if the man were the father he must have “donated” the B antigen and the mother must have donated the A in order to have an AB child. Since this is possible, the man could have been the father. If the man did not carry the B antigen, he could not have been the father. But, in this problem the man was type B so he cannot be eliminated as the possible father

15. Which of the following should NOT be done when collecting blood evidence? a. Photograph bloodstain patterns. b. Handle blood as if it carries diseases. c. Packaging bloody evidence in paper bag. d. Measurement of blood stains. e. Storage in sealed plastic bag.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Blood should not be stored in a plastic bag as it can decompose and putrefy in these conditions. Evidence items with wet blood should be placed in a paper bag.

16. The component in blood mostly responsible for blood clotting and the initial repair response to wounds are: a. the red blood cells (erythrocytes). b. the white blood cells (leukocytes). c. the blood proteins. d. the blood serum. e. the platelets (thrombocytes).

Correct Answer Reply: E. Platelets (thrombocytes) are cellular components of blood accounting for about 1% of blood cells that are important in blood clotting and self-repair processes of blood vessels.

17. A protein that destroys a specific antigen is called a(n)? a. agglutinate. b. antibody. c. DNA. d. gene. e. thrombocyte.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Antibodies react to destroy antigens for which they have been specifically created.

18. The portion of the blood containing electrolytes, nutrients, waste products, water, vitamins, hormones, clotting factors, and proteins such as albumin and immunoglobulins (antibodies) is: a. serum. b. erythrocytes. c. leukocytes. d. plasma. e. thrombocytes.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Plasma is the liquid portion of blood that comprises about 55% of its volume consisting of a complex mixture of cellular, biochemical, and inorganic components in a water-based solution, including antibodies.

19. One of the best ways to answer the question “Is it human blood?” is to perform the following test: a. luminol test. b. blood type test. c. ninhydrin test. d. hematocrit test. e. precipitin test.

Correct Answer Reply: E. The Precipitin Test is an immunoassay test in which a soluble antigen reacts to form a precipitate when it combines with a specific antibody in the presence of an electrolyte. It is very specific if a particular type of blood. For example, it can be used to react only with human blood, rabbit blood or dog blood. Thus, it is a method to determine if the blood found is human blood.

20. Type B blood contains: a. anti-A antibodies and B antigens. b. anti-B antibodies and A antigens. c. both A and B antigens. d. both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. e. none of the above: type AB blood has no antigens or antibodies.

Correct Answer Reply: A. You carry antibodies (such as anti-A and anti-B) for the protein that is NOT present in your blood. Thus, if you have antigen (protein) A in your blood, making you type A blood, you carry the antibodies for B (antiB). If you are type B, you carry antibodies for A (anti-A). AB-type blood caries no antibodies while type-O carries antibodies for both A and B. 21. To determine whether a bloodstain is of human or non-human animal origin, the serologist will perform: a. a precipitin test. b. a luminol test. c. RIA. d. an analysis with Hemastix strips. e. a GC/MS analysis.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The Precipitin Test is an immunoassay test in which a soluble antigen reacts to form a precipitate when it combines with a specific antibody in the presence of an electrolyte. It is very specific if a particular type of blood. For example, it can be used to react only with human blood, rabbit blood or dog blood.

22. Which is true about monoclonal antibodies? a. They are produced utilizing rapidly multiplying cancer cells. b. They are produced by injecting “immortal cells” with an antigen.

c. They are sometimes called medicine's version of the "magic bullet." d. They can be produced in limitless supply. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. A monoclonal antibody is an artificially stimulated antibody that is more uniform than our natural antibodies that attacks and binds to only one site on a chosen antigen. Prepared using spleen cells that have been activated to produce antibodies and then fused to fast-growing cancer cell strains that are selected and cultured to generate a nearly limitless supply of the antibody.

23. When blood is directed towards the source of the force that caused the spatter, it is called a: a. forward spatter. b. back spatter. c. ricochet spatter. d. satellite spatter. e. cast-off spatter.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Projected blood is expelled by a force. When it is directed back towards the course of the blood, it is referred to as back spatter.

24. Blood falling from an wound only under the influence of gravity is referred to as a: a. projected bloodstain. b. passive bloodstain. c. transfer blood stain. d. arterial blood stain. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Passive blood patterns occur when the droplet is acted upon only by the force of gravity while projected blood is expelled by a force. A transfer stain is a pattern created when a wet surface comes in contact with another surface.

25. When the clotting factors are removed from the liquid portion of blood through clotting, the remaining solution is called: a. platelets. b. blood serum. c. red blood cells. d. white blood cells. e. blood plasma.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Blood plasma is the liquid portion of blood that comprises about 55% of its volume consisting of a complex mixture of cellular, biochemical, and inorganic components in a water-based solution, including antibodies. When the clotting factors are removed by allowing clotting to occur, the remaining liquid is referred to as blood serum.

26. Another name for red blood cells is: a. erythrocytes. b. leukocytes. c. thrombocytes. d. granulocytes. e. osteocytes.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Erythrocytes are the red blood cells [leukocytes are the white blood cells and the thrombocytes are the platelets].

27. A person with type-A blood has which antigens on their red blood cell surfaces? a. A b. B c. A and B d. O e. H Correct Answer Reply: A. You carry the antigen on the surface of your red blood cells that matches your blood type. You also carry antibodies in your blood (such as anti-A and anti-B) for the protein that is NOT present in your blood.

Thus, if you have antigen (protein) A in your blood, making you type A blood, you carry the antibodies for B (anti-B). If you are type B, you carry antibodies for A (anti-A). AB-type blood caries no antibodies while type-O carries antibodies for both A and B. 28. A person with type AB blood has only which type of antibodies in their blood serum? a. anti-A b. anti-B c. anti-O d. none of the above e. all of the above Correct Answer Reply: D. You carry antibodies (such as anti-A and anti-B) for the protein that is NOT present in your blood. Thus, if you have antigen (protein) A in your blood, making you type A blood, you carry the antibodies for B (antiB). If you are type B, you carry antibodies for A (anti-A). AB-type blood caries no antibodies while type-O carries antibodies for both A and B. 29. The study of body fluids looking for the presence of drugs and poisons is called: a. pathology. b. toxicology. c. virology. d. urology. e. odontology.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Toxicology is the discipline that involves the study of the adverse effects of chemical substances on living organisms and the practice of diagnosing and treating exposures to toxins.

30. Blood serum contains all of the following except: a. vitamins. b. hormones. c. clotting factors. d. proteins. e. electrolytes.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Blood serum is the liquid portion of blood consisting of a complex mixture of cellular, biochemical, and inorganic components in a water-based solution, including antibodies and when the antibodies (immunoglobulins) are removed by allowing clotting to occur.

31. Which is false about red blood cells (hint: figure out which statements are true and the remaining one must be the answer): a. they do not have a nucleus. b. they have a spherical shape. c. they do not contain hemoglobin. d. they do not produce antibodies. e. they do not live long (<120 days).

Correct Answer Reply: B. Red blood cells (erythrocytes, RBC) are the flexible, disc-shaped cells, concave on both sides (biconcave), that account for about 96% of the cellular portion of blood. Their primary function is to carry oxygen from the lungs to the cells and return waste carbon dioxide from the cells back to the lungs. The main chemical component of RBC‟s is protein called hemoglobin, which accounts for about 90% of the dry weight of a red blood cell.

32. What is medically known as ischemia? a. A low oxygen state in tissues from decreased blood flow in tissues. b. The fluid in blood serum is plasma after it has clotted. c. A reduction of nerve impulses through the spinal cord. d. when your blood lacks enough healthy red blood cells or hemoglobin. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Ischemia is a low oxygen state in tissues primarily due to an obstruction or otherwise decreased blood flow in tissues.

33. Charlie Chaplin was type O blood and was accused of fathering a type B child with a type A mother. Could he have been the father (not was he, but could he have been based on blood typing)? a. Yes b. No

c. Cannot tell the difference.

Correct Answer Reply: B. No, Chaplin could not have been the father of the child. Since the mother was A and the child was B, the mother could not have contributed the B antigen gene. This means that the B antigen must have come from the biological father. Since Chaplin was type-O blood, he could not have contributed the missing B antigen.

34. When blood travels in the same direction as the direction of the force that cause the spatter, it is called: a. Cast-off spatter b. Back spatter c. Forward spatter d. Satellite spatter e. Passive spatter Correct Answer Reply: C. When projected blood is directed along the same direction as the force or energy that caused the spatter, it is called forward spatter.

35. In the blood spatter droplet shown below, the arrow indicates the:

a. direction of travel of the droplet. b. the direction to the source of the droplet. c. the direction of back spatter. d. the angle of impact. e. the elevation profile of the droplet.

Correct Answer Reply: A. When a blood droplet hits a surface, it forms a teardrop shaped stain with the narrow end pointing in the direction of travel of the droplet.

36. Typically the percent blood volume loss that would lead to irreversible shock is: a. half to two-thirds of the blood volume. b. 10% c. 20% d. 30% Correct Answer Reply: A. While it depends upon a person‟s overall health, typically 50% to 65% blood loss leads to irreversible shock.

37. Which of the following is the fluid component of blood that contains the antibodies and clotting factors: a. plasma.

b. erythrocytes. c. leukocytes. d. thrombocytes. e. serum.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The liquid portion of blood comprises about 55% of its volume and is known as plasma. If the blood is first allowed to clot, however, and then the solids are removed by centrifugation (rapid spinning of the sample), a slightly yellow solution, known as blood serum, is obtained. The main difference between plasma and serum is that the serum contains none of the clotting factors found in plasma (principally fibrinogen and platelets).

38. Which blood components are often used regarding forensic aspects of blood identification? a. plasma b. erythrocytes c. leukocytes d. thrombocytes e. serum Correct Answer Reply: B. The erythrocytes (red blood cells) contain proteins on their outside that are used for most blood-typing systems, especially in the most common ABO system.

39. In serology terms, any object that causes an immune response is referred to as a(n): a. antigen b. antibody c. agglutination body d. leukocyte e. none of the above Correct Answer Reply: A. An ntibody is a Y-shaped protein molecule that can combine with a foreign antigen to disable or destroy the antigen while an antigen is any substance that can stimulate the production of antibodies.

40. Blood spatter patterns that are distributed only by the force of gravity are referred to as: a. transfer spatter patterns. b. projected spatter patterns. c. passive spatter patterns. d. ballistic spatter patterns. e. gravitational spatter patterns.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Passive bloodstain - A bloodstain formed primarily by the action of gravity alone.

41. Type O blood contains, on the surface of the red blood cells, what typing protein? a. H protein b. O protein c. A Protein d. B Protein e. None of the above Correct Answer Reply: A. Type O-blood has neither the A nor B proteins present on the surface of the blood cell. The base protein, however is present and that is referred to as the “O” protein.

42. Given the table below, if the father is type-AB blood and the mother is type-A blood, the child cannot be: a. O b. A c. B d. AB e. None of the above And the Father Is:

If the Mom is:

A

B

AB

O

A

A or O

A, B, AB, or O

A, B, or AB

A or O

B

A, B, AB or O

B or O

A, B, or AB

B or O

AB

A, B, or AB

A, B or AB

A, B, or AB

A or B

O

A or O

B or O

A or B

O

The Child Must Be

Correct Answer Reply: A. 43. A test for the presence of blood that uses an ultraviolet light to locate the stain is the: a. Ninhydrin Test. b. Fluorescein Test. c. Kastle-Meyer Test. d. Cyanoacrylate Test. e. Luminol Test.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Luminol - A chemical that is oxidized by hydrogen peroxide when hemoglobin is present to emit light though chemiluminescence.

44. A blood pattern that shows an almost mist-like appearance to the pattern is most likely caused by a(n): a. low velocity impact. b. medium velocity impact. c. high velocity impact. d. ultrasonic velocity impact. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The fine “misting” of the blood seen is typical of a high velocity impact.

45. The determination of whether or not a substance is blood is often best made by means of a preliminary color test such as the Kastle-Meyer color test. This particular test primarily uses the color change from the chemical reagent: a. precipitin. b. benzidine. c. p30. d. phenolphthalein. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Kastle-Meyer Test - A presumptive blood test using phenolphthalein and hydrogen peroxide. If blood is present, the indicator immediately turns pink.

46. The forensic scientist must be prepared to answer the question(s) when examining dried blood: a. from what species did the blood originate? b. how closely can a human blood sample be associated with one particular person? c. is it blood? d. how was the blood distributed at the crime scene? e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 47. Bloodstains that are known as cast-off bloodstains are created when: a. blood is flung off a blood-soaked object as a result of its movement or a sudden cessation in its movement. b. blood is transferred to a surface by direct contact, e.g. when a bloody footprint hits the ground. c. blood drips onto a horizontal surface such as a floor. d. blood is propelled from an arterial wound. e. blood is impacted by an object.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Blood can be flung from an object coated with blood as it moves quickly or stops suddenly, such as occurs in an attack. These patterns are referred to as cast off and cessation bloodstains, respectively. Since blood cast off of a weapon, such as a knife, travels in a straight line, these types of patterns are easily recognized and are particularly useful in determining the direction of the movement of the weapon.

48. An ___________ is a substance that can trigger an immune response, often resulting the production of ____________ as defense against infection. a. Antibody; antigens b. Antigen; agglutinates c. Antibody; DNA d. Antigen; antibodies e. Agglutinate; erythrocyte Correct Answer Reply: D. An antigen is any substance that can stimulate the production of antibodies. Antibodies react to destroy antigens for which they have been specifically created.

50. Which of the following tests is NOT usually used to answer the question “Is it blood?” a. Benzidine test. b. Precipitin test. c. Kastle-Meyer test. d. Luminol test. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The precipitin test is used to determine whether a blood sample is from a human source and is used after determining whether a sample is blood.

51. What type of test screens for a substance like blood but requires further testing to be definitive? a. Presumptive test. b. Precipitin test. c. Confirmatory test. d. Antibody test. e. Immunoassay .

Correct Answer Reply: A. A presumptive test is an analysis that can screen for, but not confirm, the presence of a particular substance in the sample.

52. Another name for white blood cells is: a. erythrocytes. b. leukocytes. c. thrombocytes.

d. granulocytes. e. osteocytes.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Erythrocytes are the red blood cells, leukocytes are the white blood cells and the thrombocytes are the platelets.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Seven Questions 1. The fingerprint pattern class-type shown below displays a(n):

a. arch. b. whorl. c. loop. d. bifurcation. e. double loop .

Correct Answer Reply: B. The Whorl Pattern contains ridges that complete at least one 360° “circuit” in the pattern, although not always forming a regular circular pattern. The Arch Pattern has ridges beginning at one side of the fingerprint and running completely to the other side of the fingerprint without a backwards turn. Loop Patterns contain ridge lines that enter on one side of the fingerprint, run towards the middle of the print, and then curve backwards to exit on the same side that they entered the pattern.

2. Which of the following types of fingerprints require dusting powder or a chemical like ninhydrin or iodine in order to see them? a. visible b. plastic c. latent d. hidden e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Ninhydrin is a chemical that reacts with the amino acids found in a fingerprint and, upon gentle heating, forms a typically purple/blue-colored pattern of a latent fingerprint.

3. The middle, often hollow, portion of a human hair is called the: a. cuticle. b. cortex. c. root.

d. follicle. e. medulla.

Correct Answer Reply: E. The Cuticle is the outermost translucent protective layer of a hair shaft which appears similar to the shingles on a roof. The Cortex is the inner potion of a hair fiber that makes up most of the bulk of the hair shaft and gives the hair it‟s characteristic elasticity. The Medulla is the part of the hair at the center of the fiber that is characterized by either very spongy cells or no cells at all, forming a canal-like structure in the center of the shaft (medullary canal).

4. The minutae type shown (black lines) is a:

a. bifurcation. b. trifurcation. c. delta.. d. island e. crossover.

Correct Answer Reply: A. When a ridge line splits into two, that is referred to as a bifurcation.

5. The outermost portion of the hair fiber that resembles scales is the: a. cortex. b. cuticle. c. medulla. d. root. e. follicle.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The Cuticle is the outermost translucent protective layer of a hair shaft which appears similar to the shingles on a roof. The Cortex is the inner potion of a hair fiber that makes up most of the bulk of the hair shaft and gives the hair it‟s characteristic elasticity. The Medulla is the part of the hair at the center of the fiber that is characterized by either very spongy cells or no cells at all, forming a canal-like structure in the center of the shaft (medullary canal).

6. The fingerprint pattern class type shown below displays a(n):

a. arch. b. whorl. c. loop. d. bifurcation. e. double loop.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The Whorl Pattern contains ridges that complete at least one 360° “circuit” in the pattern, although not always forming a regular circular pattern. The Arch Pattern has ridges beginning at one side of the fingerprint and running completely to the other side of the fingerprint without a backwards turn. Loop Patterns contain ridge lines that enter on one side of the fingerprint, run towards the middle of the print, and then curve backwards to exit on the same side that they entered the pattern.

7. Which of the following types of fingerprints will most likely be found impressed in soft wax? a. visible b. plastic c. latent d. hidden e. molded Correct Answer Reply: B. Plastic prints are those that are occur when someone touches a soft, pliable surface, such as clay, putty, wax, or wet paint, and leaves behind an impression of the ridge pattern of their fingers. Visible prints, as the name implies, are those that are readily seen by the naked eye. Latent Fingerprints are not observable to the naked eye but are present in oils and amino acids that have been left behind on a surface when touched by a finger that may later be developed to become visible.

8. A polypeptide is: a. a polymer of composed of amine monomers. b. a polymer of amino acid monomers. c. a polymer of sugar monomers. d. a part of nucleic acid monomers. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. A polypeptide is a protein and proteins are built from chains of amino acids.

9. Which feature in the following list does not directly affect the properties of polymers? a. length of chain. b. 3D arrangement of chains. c. branching of chain. d. composition of monomer units. e. All of the above affect the properties of polymers.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All of these directly affect the properties of a polymer.

10. Hair can most often be best characterized as originating from a particular animal species by examining: a. its thickness. b. the cortex. c. both medulla and cortex. d. it‟s color. e. its scale (cuticle) structure.

Correct Answer Reply: E. The Cuticle is the outermost translucent protective layer of a hair shaft which appears similar to the shingles on a roof. The cuticle provides the most recognizable pattern based upon species of origin for a hair fiber.

11. When discussing biometric indicators, which criterion states that the biometric trait used cannot be easily defeated through the use of a substitute? a. Universality. b. Uniqueness. c. Permanence. d. Circumvention. e. Ease of use.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Circumvention refers to how easily the biometric trait can be “defeated” or gotten around through the use of a substitute, such as a fingerprint casting or a contact lens with a false iris pattern.

12. Nylon is classified as a: a. regenerated fiber. b. animal fiber. c. natural fiber. d. synthetic fiber. e. plant fiber.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Synthetic fiber: Regenerated Fibers are made by chemically processing naturally occurring materials into fibers of desired shape and structure. Synthetic Fibers are prepared from chemical feedstocks and are

typically formed through polymerization reactions that lead to long chain molecules.

13. In what stage of a hair‟s growth cycle is the hair actively growing? a. anagenic. b. telogenic. c. catagenic. d. analgesic. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The anagen phase is the active growth time for hair formation. The catagen phase is transitional phase in hair growth when the hair stops growing and the portion of the follicle surrounding the hair root shrinks considerably. The telogen phase is the resting period for the follicle in the hair growth cycle.

14. Which part of the hair shaft is most resistant to chemical decomposition? a. medulla. b. cortex. c. follicle. d. cuticle. e. shaft.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The Cuticle is the outermost translucent protective layer of a hair shaft which appears similar to the shingles on a roof. It is the most resistant since it protects the fiber from environmental action.

15. The central canal running through many, but not all, human hairs is known as the: a. medulla. b. canal. c. cortex. d. cuticle. e. follicle.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The Cuticle is the outermost translucent protective layer of a hair shaft which appears similar to the shingles on a roof. The Cortex is the inner potion of a hair fiber that makes up most of the bulk of the hair shaft and gives the hair it‟s characteristic elasticity. The Medulla is the part of the hair at the center of the fiber that is characterized by either very spongy cells or no cells at all, forming a canal-like structure in the center of the shaft (medullary canal).

16. Fingerprints are examples of what classification of evidence? a. anthropological. b. bulk. c. medicolegal. d. impression.

e. latent.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Fingerprint are impressions of the ridges on the fingers so it forms a type of impression evidence.

17. What type fingerprint pattern is shown below?

a. loop. b. whorl. c. center arch. d. tented arch. e. double whorl.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The Whorl Pattern contains ridges that complete at least one 360° “circuit” in the pattern, although not always forming a regular circular pattern. The Arch Pattern has ridges beginning at one side of the fingerprint and running completely to the other side of the fingerprint without a backwards turn. Loop Patterns contain ridge lines that enter on one side of the fingerprint, run towards the middle of the print, and then curve backwards to exit on the same side that they entered the pattern.

18. Which part of the hair is less helpful to a forensic scientist regarding human hair identification, but is often very useful in identifying other animal species hair? a. medulla. b. cortex. c. follicle. d. cuticle. e. sebaceous gland.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The medulla is simply a canal (tube) so provides little information. The follicle and sebaceous glands are not part of the hair itself.

19. The monomers (small units) connected together in the synthesis of proteins are: a. starches. b. amino acids. c. sugars. d. fatty acids. e. nucleotides.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins.

20. The keratinized outside portion of the hair shaft is known as the: a. cortex. b. cuticle. c. follicular tag. d. medulla. e. none of these.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The Cuticle is the outermost translucent protective layer of a hair shaft which appears similar to the shingles on a roof composed largely of keratin.

21. When examining the properties of a polymer, which of the following needs to be examined: a. the length of chain. b. the 3D arrangement of chains. c. the branching of chain. d. the composition of monomer units. e. all of the above must be considered.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All of these features are important in polymer identification and examination.

22. A protein is: a. a polymer of amino acids. b. a polymer of carbohydrates. c. a polymer of nucleic acids. d. a polymer of sugar molecules. e. a polymer of vinyl chloride molecules Correct Answer Reply: A. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins.

23. In what stage of a hair‟s growth cycle is the hair falling out? a. anagenic b. catagenic c. telogenic d. xenogenic e. none of the above Correct Answer Reply: B. The anagen phase is theactive growth time for hair formation. The catagen phase is transitional phase in hair growth when the hair stops growing and the portion of the follicle surrounding the hair root shrinks considerably, leading to hair loss. The telogen phase is the resting period for the follicle in the hair growth cycle.

24. Which of the fingerprint minutiae pictures below represents an enclosure?

a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Correct Answer Reply: B. A is a bifurcation, B is an island, C is a cross-over, D is a bifurcation and E is a bridge.

25. The following type of fingerprint is made up of impressions of the fingerprint left behind by being pressed into a soft media: a. impacted b. latent c. partial d. plastic e. visible Correct Answer Reply: D. Plastic prints are those that are occur when someone touches a soft, pliable surface, such as clay, putty, wax, or wet paint, and leaves behind an impression of the ridge pattern of their fingers. Visible prints, as the name implies, are those that are readily seen by the naked eye. Latent Fingerprints are not observable to the naked eye but are present in oils and amino acids that have been left behind on a surface when touched by a finger that may later be developed to become visible.

26. Which of the fingerprint minutiae pictures below represents a cross-over?

a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E

Correct Answer Reply: C. A is a bifurcation, B is an island, C is a cross-over, D is a bifurcation and E is a bridge.

27. Which of the fingerprint minutiae pictures below represents a bridge?

a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Correct Answer Reply: E. A is a bifurcation, B is an island, C is a cross-over, D is a bifurcation and E is a bridge.

28. Which of the following is NOT a technique utilized in the visualization of latent prints? a. iodine fuming. b. luminescence. c. ninhydrin. d. super glue fuming. e. all of the above are visualization techniques used with latent prints.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All of the above are visualization techniques.

29. Pigment granules that impart hair with color are found in the: a. cuticle. b. medulla. c. cortex. d. both A and B. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The Cortex is the inner potion of a hair fiber that makes up most of the bulk of the hair shaft and gives the hair it‟s characteristic elasticity. It is where coloration occurs. If the coloration were in the cuticle (outermost layer), washing or wear would quickly remove all the coloration.

30. Which of the following types of fingerprints are unable to be seen without the use of dusting or similar techniques? a. visible. b. plastic.

c. latent. d. hidden. e. molded.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Plastic prints are those that are occur when someone touches a soft, pliable surface, such as clay, putty, wax, or wet paint, and leaves behind an impression of the ridge pattern of their fingers. Visible prints, as the name implies, are those that are readily seen by the naked eye. Latent fingerprints are not observable to the naked eye but are present in oils and amino acids that have been left behind on a surface when touched by a finger that may later be developed to become visible.

31. A fiber whose microscopic appearance includes being ribbon-like in shape (flat) with twists at irregular intervals is: a. polyester. b. cotton. c. nylon. d. linen. e. wool.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The fiber of cotton looks like long and flat twisted fibers.

32. The rate of human hair growth per month is about: a. 1 inch per month. b. 1 meter per month. c. 1 cm per month. d. 1 mm per month. e. 10 cm per month.

Correct Answer Reply: C. While it varies from person to person, the typical hair growth rate about 1 cm/month.

33. The monomers involved in the synthesis of carbohydrate polymers, such as cellulose and starch, are: a. sugars. b. amino acids. c. fatty acids. d. starches. e. lipids.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The building blocks for carbohydrate polymers are simple sugars. In contrast, proteins are built from amino acids and DNA from nucleotides.

34. Cellulose is the basic component of: a. sugar.

b. starch. c. wood. d. wool. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Cellulose makes up wood (cellulose is composed of sugars).

35. AFIS is a(n): a. computerized system for storing and retrieving fingerprint records. b. method used to determine the age of a latent print. c. shared database of DNA typing information from convicted felons and crime scene evidence. d. assay technique used to identify drugs. e. computer software designed to track fingerprint evidence within the chain of custody.

Correct Answer Reply: A. AFIS is a fingerprint database abbreviation for Automated Fingerprint Identification System.

36. The friction skin ridges: a. have no useful purpose other than identification. b. are thought to provide a firmer grip. c. are thought to resist grip slippage. d. both B and C. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Ridges are thought to provide both a firmer grip (more surface area) and resists slippage.

37. A single friction ridge that splits into two ridges is called a: a. bifurcation. b. ridge ending. c. enclosure. d. dot. e. delta.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Bifurcation.

38. A good way to make visible a latent fingerprint is to use the: a. luminol test. b. ALS test. c. cyanoacrylate (super glue) treatment. d. Marquise test. e. precipitin test.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Luminol and the ALS finds blood, the precipitin test IDs the blood and the Marquise test is a toxicology test.

39. Which statement is true? a. The racial origin of hair can always be identified. b. Hair can be identified through its trace elemental composition. c. Hair is routinely examined to determine sex. d. A single hair can be individualized to one person. e. Two hairs from the same head may not have the same morphological characteristics.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All are false except that two hairs from the same head may not have the same morphological characteristics. Typically, around 50 hairs are reuired from a single person to obtain a representative sample.

40. Rayon is classified as a: a. natural fiber. b. synthetic fiber. c. plant fiber. d. regenerated fiber. e. animal fiber.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Regenerated Fibers are made by chemically processing naturally occurring materials into fibers of desired shape and structure.

Synthetic Fibers are prepared from chemical feedstocks and are typically formed through polymerization reactions that lead to long chain molecules.

41. Which type of characteristic do hair samples that have naturally shed from a person possess? a. individual. b. class. c. gender. d. age. e. chronological.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Hair only provide class information, typically, unless some unusual abnormality is present.

42. Who is considered the “father of fingerprinting?” a. Henry Faulds b. Edmond Locard c. Sherlock Holmes d. Auguste Dupin e. Alexandre Lacassagne Correct Answer Reply: A. Henry Faulds.

43. In terms of fingerprint identification, a ridge line is: a. the feature formed where a loop pattern reaches its farthest point towards the middle of the print and begins to turn backwards and constitutes the innermost ridge of the curve. b. the point of ridge divergence in a fingerprint pattern where the upward and downward deflected ridges meet the looping ridges. c. the point in a fingerprint pattern where a single ridge splits into two new ridges. d. the top of the fingerprint ridge pattern on our fingers. e. an isolated feature in a fingerprint appearing as an “encapsulated” ridge.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 44. The technique that uses a vapor of cyanoacrylate to develop fingerprints is most often called: a. super glue fuming. b. ninhydrin development. c. precipitin testing. d. plastic print identification. e. iodine fuming.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 45. Which type of print has a ridge pattern that starts on one side and exits on the opposite side of the print? a. arch. b. loop. c. whorl. d. bifurcation. e. circle.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Arch Pattern: The fingerprint pattern that has ridges beginning at one side of the fingerprint and running completely to the other side of the fingerprint without a backwards turn.

46. The minutia type where a ridge is split into three ridges is an example of a: a. ridge ending. b. bridge. c. trifurcation. d. splitting. e. bifurcation.

Correct Answer Reply: C. trifurcation: The point in a fingerprint pattern where a single ridge splits into three new ridges.

47. Lip marks may also be used as impression evidence?

(a) True (b) False Correct Answer Reply: A. Cheiloscopy: The furrows of the human lips used for individual identification.

48. The three general patterns into which fingerprints are divided are ______________, _________________, and ________________. (a) arch, whorl, delta. (b) whorl, loop, bifurcation. (c) bifurcation, ridge ending, bridge. (d) arch, loop and whorl. (e) none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The terms bifurcation, ridge ending, bridge and delta refer to minutiae patterns. The correct answer, therefore, must be (and is) arch, loop and whorl.

49. By looking at a hair sample, the inner layer made up of strands of mostly keratin packed together is the: a. cuticle. b. cortex. c. follicle. d. medulla. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 50. A general definition for a polymer is a substance: a. formed by linking amino acids together. b. formed of hydroxyaldehydes and ketones. c. that can be molded into a variety of shapes. d. formed by joining together a large number of smaller molecules of low molecular weight. e. only formed by man-made processes.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Polymers: Long chain molecules that are composed of smaller units, called monomers, strung together.

51. Which statement is most likely to be true? a. Hair can be individualized through its trace elemental composition. b. Hair is routinely examined to determine gender. c. A single hair can be individualized to one person. d. Two hairs from the same head may not have the same morphological characteristics. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Hair fibers are chemically very similar to one another so that a chemical composition analysis would not be useful to tell one person‟s hair from another person. Gender is also very difficult, if not impossible, to determine from hair samples. Finally, two hairs from the same person‟s head may be very different so many hairs are needed for a comparison.

52. Which of the following properties is usually examined when comparing two synthetic fibers? a. Diameter. b. Color. c. Chemical composition. d. The presence or absence of dye particles. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply:E, 53. Which of the following is not a ridge characteristic of a fingerprint? a. Bifurcation. b. Core. c. Trifurcation. d. Island. e. Ridge ending.

Correct Answer Reply: B. All the choices are ridge characteristics except core.

54. For which of the following items would dusting for fingerprints usually NOT work? a. Lab table. b. Plastic bottle. c. Victim‟s clothing. d. Metal chair. e. Smartphone screen.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Dusting is suitable for visualizing fingerprints on hard or non-absorbent surfaces. Chemical treatments must be applied for porous surfaces such as paper or cloth.

55. Which is usually the best way to process a glass jar for fingerprints while at a crime scene? a. Ninhydrin. b. Luminol. c. Fluorescein. d. Dusting. e. Iodine fuming.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Dusting, although not the only way, is usually the best for visualizing fingerprints on hard or non-absorbent surfaces at a crime scene. Chemical treatments must be applied for porous surfaces such as paper or cloth 56. What is usually the best (although not the only) way to process a porous piece of paper for fingerprints? a. Precipitin testing. b. Fingerprint dusting. c. Luminol treatment. d. Magnetic powder treatment. e. Ninhydrin treatment.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Chemical treatments must be applied for porous surfaces such as paper or cloth. Ninhydrin is a chemical that reacts with the amino acids found in a fingerprint and, upon gentle heating, forms a typically purple/blue-colored pattern of a latent fingerprint.

57. Which technique for visualizing fingerprints uses a chemical that reacts with amino acids found in the print and typically forms purple-colored patterns? a. Fluorescein fuming. b. Ninhydrin development. c. Superglue fuming. d. Dusting. e. Precipitin testing.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Ninhydrin is a chemical that reacts with the amino acids found in a fingerprint and, upon gentle heating, forms a typically purple/blue-colored pattern of a latent fingerprint.

58. Which technique for visualizing fingerprints uses crystals that sublime in a chamber and reacts with oils in a fingerprint to form brown colored patterns? a. Iodine fuming. b. Ninhydrin development. c. Superglue fuming. d. Dusting. e. Precipitin testing.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Iodine is an element that reacts readily with the oils left behind by fingers to form a somewhat transient, observable, brown color where the finger oils were deposited. The use of this process to visualize fingerprints is known as iodine fuming.

59. What is the best definition of a pigment that is found in paint? a. A volatile liquid that allows control over the consistency of the paint. b. Something that suspends colored particles and fixed them to the surface.

c. A colored compound that binds itself directly to the surface. d. Particles of a colored compound that are suspended in a medium bound to the surface. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. A pigment is particles of a colored compound that is suspended in a medium. They are commonly derived from finely ground minerals. Answer C describes best a dye.

60. Which of the following is an example of a natural fiber? a. Rayon fiber. b. Silk fiber. c. Polyester fiber. d. Nylon fiber. e. Polyvinylchloride fiber.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Silk is a natural fiber that comes from an animal (insect) source.

61. What is the application of statistical methods to different types of biological data, often based upon finding some measurable individualized trait? a. Phenotyping. b. Individualization. c. Fingerprinting. d. DNA analysis. e. Biometrics.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Biometrics is the application of statistical methods to biological data and is based upon finding some measurable individual trait of a person that can distinguish them from all others. These traits can be biological, such as fingerprint or iris pattern, or behavioral in nature, such as how a person acts.

62. When discussing biometric indicators, which criterion states that all people to be authenticated must have the same trait or biological structure in common? a. Universality. b. Uniqueness. c. Circumvention. d. Measurability. e. Ease of use.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Universality - In order to be useful, the trait must be something that all people to be authenticated have in common. The analysis must be based upon common biological structures or developed behavioral patterns

63. When discussing biometric indicators, which criterion states that any biometric feature, such as fingerprinting, must persist unchanged for a long time in a person, preferably for their entire lifetime? a. Universality. b. Uniqueness. c. Permanence. d. Measurability. e. Ease of use.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Permanence - Any biometric tool must persist unchanged for a very long time in a person, ideally for an entire lifetime.

64. When discussing biometric indicators, which criterion states that the biometric trait used cannot be easily defeated through the use of a substitute? a. Universality. b. Uniqueness. c. Permanence. d. Circumvention. e. Ease of use.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Circumvention refers to how easily the biometric trait can be “defeated” or gotten around through the use of a substitute, such as a fingerprint casting or a contact lens with a false iris pattern.

65. A carbohydrate is: a. a polymer of amino acids. b. a polymer of sugars. c. a polymer of nucleic acids. d. a polymer of sugar molecules. e. a polymer of vinyl chloride molecules Correct Answer Reply: B.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Eight Questions 1. The time interval since death is known as the: a. death interval. b. relaxation time. c. time of death. d. PMI . e. AAS. Correct Answer Reply: D. Postmortem Interval (PMS) is the time elapsed between and actual death and the time that the body was found.

2. The process by which the blood in a body settles to the lowest point after death is known as: a. rigor mortis. b. algor mortis. c. livor mortis. d. denaturation. e. ambient degradation.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Rigor Mortis is a stiffening of the muscles and joints in the body after death. Algor Mortis is the cooling of the body after death. Livor Mortis is the discoloration of parts of the body after death from the settling of the blood.

3. Which person, among the following local, state, or federal officials, is usually charged with the responsibility to determine the cause, manner, and mechanism of death? a. coroner. b. medical examiner. c. death investigator. d. forensic radiologist. e. forensic chemist.

Correct Answer Reply: B. A. Medical Examiner is a physician charged with investigating deaths to determine the cause and manner of death. A Coroner is an official whose primary function is to investigate deaths. In the US, this is usually an elected official without the requirement of medical training.

4. Which of the following is NOT a reason for a medical examiner to be called in: a. dies of natural causes at home as determined by decedent‟s physician.

b. cause of death is a potential threat to the public health. c. the decedent was a prisoner who dies in prison. d. the decedent was a victim of a violent crime/death. e. the decedent dies suddenly and unexpectedly.

Correct Answer Reply: A. As long as a physician is able to sign the death certificate, the ME is not required to intervene.

5. The type of trauma caused when a person is hit by a swung baseball bat is called: a. Abrasive trauma. b. Incision trauma. c. sharp force trauma. d. high-velocity trauma. e. blunt force trauma.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Blunt Force Trauma is a wound trauma that is caused by the impact of a non-penetrating object, such as from a bat, a car, or the floor.

Sharp Force Trauma is a penetrating injury caused by and object having a sharp edge. An abrasion is a wound caused by rubbing or scraping an object across the skin – usually involves just the outer layers of the skin. A Contusion is a bruise that is usually caused by an impact that damages blood vessels and causes them to leak into the surrounding tissue. An incision is a cut wound that is longer than wide, usually caused by drawing a sharp object across the skin.

6. The process by which the body cools after death is known as: a. rigor mortis. b. algor mortis. c. livor mortis. d. denaturation. e. ambient degradation.

Correct Answer Reply:B. Algor Mortis is the cooling of the body after death.

Rigor Mortis is a stiffening of the muscles and joints in the body after death.

Livor Mortis is the discoloration of parts of the body after death from the settling of the blood.

7. Which of the following can be identified as the manner of death for a victim from a crime scene? a. heart attack. b. homicide. c. stroke. d. blood loss (exsanguination). e. none of the above are manners of death.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Manner of Death: The fashion and circumstances that resulted in a death, usually categorized into homicide, suicide, accidental,

natural or undetermined manners of death while the cause of Death is the specific medical reason, agent or event that causes a death.

8. Which of the following can be identified as the manner of death for a victim from a crime scene? a. exsanguination. b. stroke. c. suicide. d. blood loss (exsanguination). e. none of the above are manners of death.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Manner of Death: The fashion and circumstances that resulted in a death, usually categorized into homicide, suicide, accidental, natural or undetermined manners of death while the cause of Death is the specific medical reason, agent or event that causes a death.

9. A difference between a medical examiner and a coroner is that the: a. coroner is responsible for suicide prevention efforts whereas the medical examiner is not. b. coroner has specialized training in forensic pathology. c. coroner is usually an elected official whereas the medical examiner is appointed and is an MD. d. coroners are usually qualified medical doctors and may perform autopsies while medical examiners may or might not. e. Coroners are responsible for safeguarding from public health threats.

Correct Answer Reply: C. A Medical Examiner is a physician charged with investigating deaths to determine the cause and manner of death. A Coroner is an official whose primary function is to investigate deaths. In the US, this is usually an elected official without the requirement of medical training.

10. Which of following best defines rigor mortis? a. the body cools after death. b. the pooling of blood to the lowest portion of the body after death. c. observed postmortem rigidity. d. the postmortem medical examination. e. brain death.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Rigor Mortis is a stiffening of the muscles and joints in the body after death. Algor Mortis is the cooling of the body after death. Livor Mortis is the discoloration of parts of the body after death from the settling of the blood.

11. Homicide, suicide, accident, natural and undetermined are: a. Causes of death. b. Proximal causes of death.

c. Manners of death. d. Mechanisms of death. e. Modes of death.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Manner of Death: The fashion and circumstances that resulted in a death, usually categorized into homicide, suicide, accidental, natural or undetermined manners of death while the 12. Livor mortis is: a. the rigidity of a body shortly after death. b. the cooling of a body after death. c. the pooling of blood after death. d. the decomposition of a body after death. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Livor Mortis is the discoloration of parts of the body after death from the settling of the blood. Rigor Mortis is a stiffening of the muscles and joints in the body after death. Algor Mortis is the cooling of the body after death.

13. A body is discovered hanging in a home from a interior doorway. The victim has a pronounced blue skin color, burst blood vessels in the eyes and inflated lungs.

Forensic pathologists examine the rope marks on the neck and determined that they did not contain inflamed and bruised edges. The rope marks on the victim's neck are examined and found that they matched the rope found at the scene of crime. What is the most probable cause of death from among the choices provided? a. suicide b. exsanguination c. asphyxiation d. accidental e. cardiac arrest Correct Answer Reply: C. The cause of Death is the specific medical reason, agent or event that causes a death. In this case, the signs point to cutting off the oxygen from the victim: asphyxiation.

14. A body is discovered hanging in a home from a interior doorway. The victim has a pronounced blue skin color, burst blood vessels in the eyes and inflated lungs.

Forensic pathologists examine the rope marks on the neck and determined that they did not contain inflamed and bruised edges. The rope marks on the victim's neck are examined and found that they matched the rope found at the scene of crime. What is the most probable manner of death from among the choices provided? a. suicide b. exsanguination c. asphyxiation d. accidental

e. cardiac arrest Correct Answer Reply: A. Manner of Death is the fashion and circumstances that resulted in a death, usually categorized into homicide, suicide, accidental, natural or undetermined manners of death. This case has the hallmarks of a suicide from among the choices given.

15. In the US, we have both coroner and medical examiner (ME) systems in operation.

This has been a subject of intense debate lately. What is a primary advantage of the medical examiner system over the coroner system? a. the coroner is a trained MD. b. coroners are elected officials. c. the ME is a trained MD. d. MEs are elected officials. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. MEs have medical training and forensic specialization while a coroner may have neither (they are elected).

16. The chief function of the heart organ system is: a. circulation. b. blood purification. c. glucose regulation. d. structural support. e. RBC storage.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Circulation.

17. The chief function of the liver system is: a. circulation. b. blood purification. c. glucose regulation. d. structural support. e. RBC storage.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Blood purification.

18. The chief function of the pancreas organ system is: a. circulation. b. blood purification. c. glucose regulation. d. structural support. e. RBC storage.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Glucose regulation through the secretion of insulin.

19. The chief function of the skeletal organ system is: a. circulation. b. blood purification. c. glucose regulation. d. structural support. e. RBC storage.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Structural support.

20. The chief function of the spleen organ system is: a. circulation. b. blood purification. c. glucose regulation. d. structural support. e. RBC storage.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Red blood cell (RBC) storage and recycling.

21. What is a commonly found abnormality in the heart organ system that might lead to a cause of death determination: a. arrhythmia. b. cirrhosis. c. cancer. d. asphyxia. e. ulceration.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Arrhythmia is associated with the heart (an abnormal heart rhythm).

22. What is a commonly found abnormality in the liver organ system that might lead to a cause of death determination: a. arrhythmia. b. cirrhosis. c. exsanguination. d. asphyxia. e. ulceration.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Cirrhosis is associated with the liver (Cirrhosis is a condition in which the liver does not function properly due to long-term damage.

This damage is characterized by the replacement of normal liver tissue by scar tissue.)

23. What is a commonly found abnormality in the pancreas organ system that might lead to a cause of death determination: a. arrhythmia. b. cirrhosis.

c. cancer. d. asphyxia. e. ulceration.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Cancer.

24. What is a commonly found abnormality in the pulmonary organ system that might lead to a cause of death determination: a. arrhythmia. b. cirrhosis. c. abrasion. d. asphyxia. e. ulceration.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Asphyxia (lack of oxygenation).

25. What is a commonly found abnormality in the digestive organ system that might lead to a cause of death determination: a. arrhythmia. b. cirrhosis. c. ischemia. d. asphyxia. e. ulceration.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Ulceration (bleeding “wounds”).

26. Which is typically not one of the six questions “posed” during an autopsy? a. Who are you? b. When did you become ill or hurt and when did you die? c. Who are your nearest relatives? d. Where did you get hurt and where did you die? e. Did you die as a result of an accident, violence, natural causes or some combination of reasons?

Correct Answer Reply: C. The others are part of the six questions “posed” during the autopsy.

27. What is forensic taphonomy: a. the cooling of the body after death. b. the time between the actual death and when the body is found. c. the movement of the body after death. d. the measurement of the organs during an autopsy. e. none of the above describes the term.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Taphonomy is the study of processes that affect decomposition of remains after death, such as extent of burial, postmortem

movement or disturbance of the remains, or the effect of environmental conditions of decomposition.

28. Which is not one of the five categories typically used in a manner of death classification in the US? a. Homicide. b. suicide. c. natural. d. undetermined manners of death. e. medical malpractice.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Manner of Death is the fashion and circumstances that resulted in a death, usually categorized into homicide, suicide, accidental, natural or undetermined manners of death.

29. The medicolegal professional that is specifically trained in forensic medicine is the: a. district attorney. b. pathologist. c. coroner. d. medical examiner. e. all of the above are trained medical professionals.

Correct Answer Reply: D. A district attorney (a lawyer) and a coroner (elected official) are not required to have any medical training. While a pathologist and a medical examiner are physicians (MD), only the medical examiner has specific training in forensic medicine.

30. Which one the following is not a classification for manner of death in the US? a. homicide. b. suicide. c. medical malpractice. d. natural. e. accidental.

Correct Answer Reply: C. While some countries use medical malpractice, it is not currently in common usage in the United States.

31. The deaths that are most commonly required to be examined by medical examiners include: a. When violence is suspected. b. when death is sudden or unexpected. c. when there is the possibility of a threat to public health. d. when a prisoner or person in prison dies. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E.

32. Which of the follow are typically NOT true regarding algor mortis: a. the initial body temperature may be abnormal. b. the postmortem body temperature drops ca. 1.5° F per hr (normal conditions). c. the body cools more slower in water. d. the body cooling is affected by wind and insulation. e. the body temperature may rise in very hot environments.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The body typically cools faster, not slower, in water than in the air due to more efficient thermal transfer.

33. The determination of the “cause of death” is: a. a series of events that brought about the death. b. the initial injury that leads to death. c. classified into homicide, suicide, accidental, natural and undetermined. d. typically not changeable from the initial determination. e. solely a medical determination.

Correct Answer Reply: E. The cause of death, unlike manner of death, is solely a medical determination and relates to the disease or injury that actually brings about the death of the person. The cause of death can be thought of as the medical condition that ultimately leads to a person‟s death.

34. Homicide is defined as: a. an unexpected death that was not caused by any intentional act. b. a death brought about intentionally by the person who dies. c. a death classified into homicide, suicide, accidental, natural and undetermined. d. a death caused by another individual, whether by intent or inadvertently. e. a death due to disease, illness or pathology.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Homicide is defined as a death caused by another individual, whether by intent, through negligent actions, or inadvertently.

35. The time at or around the time of death is referred to as the: a. postmortem period. b. premortem period. c. circamortem period. d. antemortem period. e. perimortem period.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Perimortem: At or about the time of death.

Postmortem: After death. Antemortem: Prior to death.

36. The process of a human body cooling after death is known as: a. ambient thermolysis. b. livor mortis.

c. denaturation. d. rigor mortis. e. algor mortis.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Algor Mortis: The cooling of the body after death.

37. Which one of these typically cannot be used as an indicator for time of death in a homicide investigation? a. body temperature. b. stomach contents. c. insect infestation. d. dental records. e. vitreous humor.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Dental records are used primarily for personal identification while the others are used for time indicators.

38. What field is the postmortem investigation of any sudden or unexpected death or trauma most closely associated with? a. Forensic Geriatric Medicine. b. Forensic Serology. c. Forensic Oncology. d. Forensic Pathology. e. Forensic Autopsy Correct Answer Reply: D. The postmortem investigation of sudden or unexpected death or trauma to the living is most closely associated with forensic pathology. Forensic pathology is a subspecialty of pathology that deals with death investigations.

39. Which is NOT a method that may be used to identify an individual? a. Cause of death. b. DNA testing. c. Fingerprint comparisons. d. Medical record comparisons. e. Next of kin identification.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Methods of personal identification include visual ID by friends or family, ID cards, physical traits like tattoos, radiographic comparisons, fingerprints, dental records, and DNA. Cause of death is used to help determine the sequence of events that lead to a person‟s death.

40. Which process used to estimate the postmortem interval is most closely associated with blanching where pressure is applied to an area of settled blood in a dead body? a. Algor mortis. b. Livor mortis.

c. Decomposition. d. Rigor mortis. e. Blood loss.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Livor mortis is caused by blood settling in the lowest part of the body due to gravity. If pressure is put on parts of the body where blood is pooling, the skin will appear lighter (blanched) before it ultimately becomes fixed.

41. What kind of injury is caused by the rupture of blood vessels by an impact, causing blood to leak into surrounding tissue? a. Incision. b. Laceration. c. Contusion. d. Abrasion. e. Puncture.

Correct Answer Reply: C. A Contusion is a bruise that is usually caused by an impact that damages blood vessels and causes them to leak into the surrounding tissue.

42. Which of the following would you associate most closely with a near contact or intermediate range gunshot wound? a. Abrasions. b. Lacerations. c. Petechial hemorrhage. d. Pugilistic pose. e. Stippling.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Stippling is powder burns on the skin when the gun is inches to a few feet away from the victim. It is caused by unburnt gunpowder and soot created from the shot.

43. Which of the following would you associate most closely with a death caused by fire? a. Abrasions. b. Lacerations. c. Petechial hemorrhage. d. Pugilistic pose. e. Stippling.

Correct Answer Reply: D. In cases of death by burning, bodies largely consumed by fire typically assume a “pugilistic attitude” caused by dehydration of the body tissues and contraction of proteins 44. Which of the following is an application of MRI that may be specifically used in forensic investigations?

a. Supporting and extending autopsy work as part of a virtopsy. b. Measuring and preserving a detailed record of biological information. c. Performing anatomical reconstructions (e.g., facial and organ reconstructions). d. Estimating time of death through postmortem biochemical and structural changes and profiles. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Magnetic resonance imaging can be applied in all of these areas.

45. Which of the following chemical features allowed magnetic resonance imaging to work? a. Proton Spin (magnetism). b. Ionization (forming charged particles). c. Polarity. d. Solubility. e. Electron Spin (magnetism).

Correct Answer Reply: A. Protons (hydrogen nuclei) are charged, spinning subatomic units. When the charged particle spins, it creates a magnetic field – the hydrogen atom forms a tiny magnet. MRI probes the spin of hydrogen nuclei in the molecules of our bodies. To gain an image, the body is placed in a very strong magnetic field causing most of the magnetized hydrogen atoms to align with the external field. Radio frequency light is used to “bump” the tiny hydrogen magnets out of alignment and the amount of energy required for this provides information about the hydrogen containing chemicals in the body.

46. Which organ stores glycogen, functions to remove waste products from blood, and exhibits cirrhosis from chronic alcohol consumption? a. Lungs. b. Kidneys. c. Liver. d. Stomach. e. Intestines.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The liver is a very large organ with multiple functions that include glycogen storage, removal of waste products from the blood, protein production, and other key biological functions. Some diseases, such as cirrhosis, which can arise from chronic alcohol consumption, cause the liver to become very fatty, yellow, hardened, and dysfunctional.

47. Which organ is key to insulin production and blood sugar regulation? a. Lymph nodes. b. Pancreas. c. Liver. d. Kidneys.

e. Gall bladder.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The key function of the pancreas is the production and regulation of insulin and several important digestive enzymes that are required to convert our food into cellular energy.

48. What kind of injury is caused by the cutting of a tissue with a sharp knife? a. Incision. b. Laceration. c. Contusion. d. Abrasion. e. Puncture.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 49. The type of trauma caused when a person is hit by a fast moving automobile: a. Abrasive trauma. b. Incision trauma. c. sharp force trauma. d. high-velocity trauma. e. blunt force trauma.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Blunt Force Trauma is a wound trauma that is caused by the impact of a non-penetrating object, such as from a bat, a car, or the floor.

Sharp Force Trauma is a penetrating injury caused by and object having a sharp edge. An abrasion is a wound caused by rubbing or scraping an object across the skin – usually involves just the outer layers of the skin. A Contusion is a bruise that is usually caused by an impact that damages blood vessels and causes them to leak into the surrounding tissue. An incision is a cut wound that is longer than wide, usually caused by drawing a sharp object across the skin.

50. The type of trauma caused when a person is impaled on a metal rod: a. Abrasive trauma. b. Incision trauma. c. sharp force trauma. d. high-velocity trauma. e. blunt force trauma.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Blunt Force Trauma is a wound trauma that is caused by the impact of a non-penetrating object, such as from a bat, a car, or the floor.

Sharp Force Trauma is a penetrating injury caused by and object having a sharp edge. An abrasion is a wound caused by rubbing or scraping an object across the skin – usually involves just the outer layers of the skin. A Contusion is a bruise that is usually caused by an impact that damages blood vessels and causes them to leak into the surrounding tissue. An incision is a cut wound that is longer than wide, usually caused by drawing a sharp object across the skin.

51. What kind of injury is caused by falling and scraping your knees on the pavement? a. Incision. b. Laceration. c. Contusion. d. Abrasion. e. Puncture.

Correct Answer Reply: D.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Nine Questions 1. A forensic anthropologist was asked to look at some human bone remains. The anthropologist noted that there was a fracture on the person‟s humerus that appears to have undergone significant repair and healing. The term that best describes the time that the fracture occurred was: a. ante-mortem b. post-mortem c. peri-mortem d. supra-mortem e. circa-mortem Correct Answer Reply: A. Antemortem trauma is an injury that occurs before the time of death. Perimorten trauma is an injury that occurs at about the time of death. Postmorten trauma is an injury that occurs after the time of death or after death.

2. The bone labeled “B” in the picture is the:

a. fibia b. sternum c. scapula d. clavicle e. rib Correct Answer Reply: D. Clavicle (shoulder bone).

3. A forensic anthropologist was asked to look at some human bone remains. The anthropologist noted that there was a fracture on the person‟s tibia and that there were no signs of healing. Additionally, the fractured part of the bone appeared to be discolored from the surrounding soil. The term that best describes the time that the fracture occurred was: a. ante-mortem b. post-mortem

c. peri-mortem d. pre-mortem e. circa-mortem Correct Answer Reply: B. Antemortem trauma is an injury that occurs before the time of death. Perimorten trauma is an injury that occurs at about the time of death. Postmorten trauma is an injury that occurs after the time of death or after death.

4. The “U-shaped” or “V-shaped” notch at the front (anterior) part of the pelvis where the two hip bones come together is called the: a. coccyx. b. pubic symphysis. c. sciatic fossa. d. pubic arch. e. mandibular notch.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Pubic arch.

5. What bone among those listed below is usually the most useful in determining the sex of a decedent from skeletal remains? a. femur. b. metacarpals. c. skull. d. pelvis. e. patella.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The pelvis is the most useful in sex determination from skeletal remains, followed by the skull and then longer bones.

6. The bone at the front (anterior) of the chest, joining the ribs together, is called the: a. thorasus. b. humerus. c. sternum. d. patella. e. scapula.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Sternum.

7. Using the dental eruption chart in the textbook for permanent teeth (age when the permanent teeth erupt), what is the approximate age of a decedent whose skeletal remains show the eruption of a second lower molar but not the second upper molar? a. about 7 years old. b. about 8.5 years old. c. about 10 years old. d. about 12 years old.

e. older than 15 years old.

Correct Answer Reply: D. In determining the age by tooth eruption, the estimated times for the eruption (breaking the skin to be exposed in the mouth) of various teeth are compared to a normal timeline (shown in the figure). This allows you to “bracket” the age of the decedent from the time estimated for the last erupted tooth but before the next expected unerupted tooth.

8. Using the dental eruption chart in the textbook for permanent teeth (age when the permanent teeth erupt), what is the approximate age of a decedent whose skeletal remains show the eruption of a upper first premolar bicuspid but not the lower first premolar bicuspid? a. less than 6 years old. b. about 8 years old. c. about 10 years old. d. about 12 years old. e. older than 14 years old.

Correct Answer Reply: C. In determining the age by tooth eruption, the estimated times for the eruption (breaking the skin to be exposed in the mouth) of various teeth are compared to a normal timeline (shown in the figure). This allows you to “bracket” the age of the decedent from the time estimated for the last erupted tooth but before the next expected unerupted tooth.

9. The part of the skeleton that forms the upper arm bone is called the: a. fibia. b. humerus. c. illium. d. radius. e. scapula.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Humerus (upper arm bone).

10. The bone that is attached to the bones of the hand and wrist and is closest to the thumb is called the: a. fibia. b. humerus. c. illium. d. radius. e. scapula.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Radius 11. Forensic Odontology is the study of: a. teeth, dental records, and teeth impressions. b. bone, bone structure, and the skeleton.

c. disease and unexpected death or trauma to the living. d. biochemical pathways that begin post-mortem. e. fingerprints and the percentages with which they are found in the human population.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Odontology has to do with teeth. B is osteology, C is pathology, D is biochemistry and E is bioinformatics.

12. A forensic anthropologist was asked to look at some human bone remains. The anthropologist noted that there was a fracture on the person‟s ulna that appears to have undergone no significant repair and healing, but shows that the damage was made to living tissue (bone). The term that best describes the time that the fracture occurred is: a. ante-mortem. b. post-mortem. c. peri-mortem. d. pre-mortem. e. circa-mortem.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Perimorten trauma is an injury that occurs at about the time of death. Antemortem trauma is an injury that occurs before the time of death. Postmorten trauma is an injury that occurs after the time of death or after death.

13. Which of the following is not typically included in a biological profile prepared by a forensic anthropologist? a. age of decedent. b. stature of decedent. c. weight of decedent. d. pathologies noted. e. all of the above are included.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Weight of decedent is not usually possible to estimate from the skeletal remains.

14. What bone among those listed below is found in the leg of skeletal remains? a. femur. b. metacarpals. c. skull. d. pelvis. e. patella.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Femur 15. In the radiograph below, one of the long bones found in the lower leg is broken in the middle. What is the name of this bone?

a. ulna. b. radius. c. humerus. d. patella. e. tibia.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Since this is the leg, it has to be either the tibia or the fibula but only the tibia is given as a choice.

16. In the case of skeletalized human remains, which of the following features is not of potential use in making a personal identification? a. Dentition. b. Bone disorders. c. Tattoos. d. Pathologies. e. Abnormal bone features.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Tattoos do not persist in the skeletal remains (only in the flesh).

17. Which of the following is true when it comes to forensic taphonomy? a. The growth of plants can shed light on when remains were deposited. b. The presence of scavengers can spread remains over a wide area. c. Animals can disturb bones and leave distinctive marks. d. Taphonomic changes can result from individual, cultural and environmental sources. e. All of the above are true.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All of these factors may be considered by a forensic anthropologist when locating, describing, and observing bones.

18. With regard to skeletalized human remains, which of the following may be used to estimate the age of an individual at the time of his/her death? a. Epiphyseal union. b. Photosuperimposition. c. Adipocere formation. d. Facial reconstruction.

e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Epiphyseal unions develop as one ages so it can be a good age estimation point.

19. An "ideal" bone (or group of bones) for identifying the age of a young decedent (between birth and 25 years old) is the: a. humerus. b. pelvis. c. tibia. d. cranium. e. mandible (and embedded bones).

Correct Answer Reply: E. Teeth are embedded in the mandible (the jaw bone).

20. Forensic anthropology can often give the following information about a decedent EXCEPT: a. biological profile. b. possible occupation. c. gender. d. country of birth. e. pathologies.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Country of birth is typically not “imprinted” on the skeletal remains. It is sometimes possible to learn about someone‟s occupation from repetitive wear patterns on the bones.

21. The part of the pelvis that is most useful in determining the gender of a decedent is the: a. pubic brim. b. sacral promontory. c. ilium. d. pubic symphysis. e. pubic arch.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Pubic Arch.

22. The small bone at the knee, sometimes called the “kneecap,” is also known as the: a. sternum. b. patella. c. iliac. d. coccyx. e. phalange.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Patella.

23. Forensic anthropology involves the application to legal questions of the data, theory, and methods of which subdiscipline of anthropology? a. Historical anthropology. b. Cultural anthropology. c. Biological anthropology. d. Statistical anthropology. e. All of the above Correct Answer Reply: C. Biological (or physical) anthropology.

24. All of the following are examples of typical anthropological physical evidence from a human burial EXCEPT: a. decomposing human remains. b. clothing. c. perimortem trauma (e.g., gunshot wounds, knife marks). d. handwriting. e. projectile.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Handwriting typically has nothing to do with forensic anthropology while the others are either from the remains themselves or are often found with the skeletalized remains.

25. Perimortem trauma refers to injuries sustained: a. during the time after death. b. during the time before death. c. around the time of death. d. from a blunt force attack. e. from a sharp force attack.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Antemortem trauma is an injury that occurs before the time of death. Perimorten trauma is an injury that occurs at about the time of death. Postmorten trauma is an injury that occurs after the time of death or after death.

26. What type of information typically cannot be determined by a forensic anthropologist when examining a complete set of skeletal remains? a. decedent‟s perimortem injuries. b. decedent‟s age. c. decedent‟s height. d. decedent‟s gender. e. decedent‟s surgical history.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Typically, a decedent‟s surgical history is not determined by a forensic anthropologist.

27. How can information about the sex of a decendent be gained from examination of a person's pelvic bones? a. shape of the pubic arch. b. shape of the tibia. c. shape of the patella. d. size of the femur. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The shape of the pubic arch is the best determinant for a decedent‟s age. The broad “U”-shaped arch is typically from a female while a sharper “V” shaped arch is characteristic of a male.

28. Can the pubic symphysis be used for sex determination? a. Yes. b. Cannot tell the sex from the pubic symphysis. c. No. Correct Answer Reply: A. The shape of the pubic arch is the best determinant for a decedent‟s age. The broad “U”-shaped arch is typically from a female while a sharper “V” shaped arch is characteristic of a male.

29. When the pubic arch of the pelvis is more “U-shaped”, rather than “V-shaped”, is it more likely to have come from a male or female? a. Male. b. Female. c. Cannot tell from the pelvis.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The shape of the pubic arch is the best determinant for a decedent‟s age. The broad “U-shaped” arch is typically from a female while a sharper “V-shaped” arch is characteristic of a male.

30. Which of the following is not an example of blunt force trauma? a. Hit by a rock. b. Hit by a baseball bat. c. Hit by a fist. d. Slashed by a knife. e. all of the above are blunt force trauma.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Blunt Force Trauma derives from a wound trauma that is caused by the impact of a non-penetrating object, such as from a bat, a car, or the floor. A bullet or a knife wound is a sharp for trauma (although it is usually given its own category of bullet wound).

31. Which is not an example of sharp force trauma? a. Wounds from baseball bat. b. Wounds from sword.

c. Wounds from knife. d. Wounds from flying sharp objects, such as a glass shard. e. all of the above are sharp force trauma.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Sharp Force Trauma is a penetrating injury caused by and object having a sharp edge.

32. A mandible was found with all permenent teeth except for the eruption of a lower second molar. Using the data in the textbook, what would you estimate as the age at death for this person? a. about 2 years old. b. about 5 years old. c. about 10 years old. d. about 12 years old. e. older than 14 years old.

Correct Answer Reply: D. In determining the age by tooth eruption, the estimated times for the eruption (breaking the skin to be exposed in the mouth) of various teeth are compared to a normal timeline (shown in the figure). This allows you to “bracket” the age of the decedent from the time estimated for the last erupted tooth but before the next expected unerupted tooth.

33. What is responsible for giving bones their strength and rigidity? a. Hydroxyapatite. b. Hyrdoxyphosphate. c. Polyphosphate. d. Calcium. e. Collagen.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Hydroxyappetite (Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2).

34. What is the most abundant protein in the body? a. Hydroxyappetite. b. Hyrdoxyphosphate. c. Polyphosphate. d. Calcium. e. Collagen.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Collagen is the main structural protein in the extracellular space in the various connective tissues in animal bodies. As the main component of connective tissue, it is the most abundant protein in mammals, making up from 25% to 35% of the whole-body protein content.

35. Which of the following characteristics best indicates a female from skeletal remains? a. a triangular pubic arch. b. a U-shaped pubic arch.

c. an acute (small angle) pubic arch. d. dominant brow ridge. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The U-shaped pubic arch is the most useful (and commonly used) way to determine of a particular pelvis belonged to a female.

All of the other choices are most commonly observed in male skeletal remains.

36. The bone that makes up your upper arm (between your shoulder and elbow) is the: a. tibia. b. humerus. c. ulna. d. radius. e. femur.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Humerus.

37. Which of the following is the connective tissue that connects muscles to bones? a. Ligaments. b. Cartilage. c. Tendons. d. Periosteum. e. Epiphyses.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Tendons connect muscles to bones while ligaments connect bone to bone.

38. The place where both halves of the pelvis meet in the front (anterior) is often used for determining the sex of the decedent by a the size and shape of the pubic arch. The pubic arch is found directly below the: a. pelvic symphysis. b. diaphysis. c. pubic epiphysis. d. pubic symphysis. e. pelvic diaphysis.

Correct Answer Reply: D. One of the most important differences between males and females can be observed at the front of the pelvis - an area called the symphysis pubis (pubic symphysis), which is the front point of connection between the two hip bones (where the pubic bones meet and are held together by cartilage).

39. Determination of age at death for children and young adults (<25 years old) is often done using the _____________. a. mastoid process. b. frontal bone.

c. teeth. d. pelvic bone. e. femur.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Teeth.

40. Taphonomic analysis can primarily help to determine: a. the diet of the individual. b. the stature of the individual. c. the sex of the individual. d. if the individual was moved after death. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Taphonomy - how remains decay and are moved, distributed, or otherwise disturbed after death. Also, how the environment is affected by the remains.

41. How is perimortem trauma distinguished from antemortem injury? a. With perimortem trauma, there is often evidence for healing. b. With antemortem trauma, there is often evidence for healing. c. Perimortem trauma is usually more severe. d. Antemortem trauma is usually more severe. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Antemortem trauma - injury that occurs before the time of death. Perimorten trauma - - injury that occurs at about the time of death.

42. The metacarpals are bones of the: a. wrist. b. hand. c. fingers. d. foot. e. skull.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Hand.

43. Suture lines on the __________ are helpful in determining the __________ of a victim. a. skull, age b. jaw, identity c. femur, stature d. humerus, sex e. skull, sex

Correct Answer Reply: A. Suture lines, the line where two bones come together, are best found in bones of the skull and can be ued to determine the age of a young decedent.

44. In the King Tut case, the virtopsy used to examine his body showed that the wound in the back of his head was: a. an antemortem wound. b. a perimortem wound. c. a postmortem wound. d. a circamortem wound. e. from a blunt force trauma.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Was intentionally placed there as part of the mumification process.

45. A set of skeletal remains were discovered and were found to be from a male. From an examination of the upper arm bone, it was found that the proximal end had not completely fused while the distal end was completely fused. Using the table below, what would you propose as the age at death of the decedent?

Table 9.1. Fusion times (in years) of epiphyses in humans.

Bone

Complete fusion

Earliest fusion

Complete fusion

Earliest fusion

Male

male

female

female

Distal tibia and fibula

19

14-16

12

16

Humerus (proximal)

25

17

25

17

Humerus (distal)

21

16

21

16

a. between 12 and 16 years old. b. between 16 and 17 years old. c. between 14 and 16 years old. d. between 21 and 25 years old. e. between 16 and 21 years old.

Correct Answer Reply: D. From the table for the male, the proximal end fusion was not completely fused so the person was less than 25 years old. The distal end, however, had fused so the they were at least 21 years old. Putting this together makes the estimate of age at death as between 21 and 25 years old.

46. Forensic osteology is the study of: a. Changes in the body from blunt force trauma injuries. b. Bone, bone structures, and the skeleton. c. Disease processes and unexpected death or trauma to the living.

d. Biochemical pathways that begin post-mortem. e. Fingerprints and their type probability in a population.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Osteology is the study of skeletal remains.

47. What would you call one of the long bones in the foot? a. Metatarsal. b. Metacarpal. c. Tibia. d. Ulna. e. Ilium.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Metatarsal bones are found in the foot. Metacarpal bones are found in the hands. The tibia is the lower leg bone, the ulna is found in your arm, and the ilium makes up your hips.

48. Which of the following bones is an example of a flat bone? a. Femur. b. Tarsal. c. Patella. d. Sternum. e. Metacarpal.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The sternum is a flat bone located in the middle of the chest.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Ten Questions 1. Use the plot below for the green bottle fly (Lucilia sericata). The largest larva removed from body was found to be 4.1 mm. If the body were found indoors by a partially open window and the temperature was constant was at 70° F, what would be the age of this larva (Note: the grid lines on the plot are for degrees C while the temp in F is shown at right side in the plot)?

a. 1 day. b. 2 day. c. 3 day. d. 4 day. e. cannot be determined.

Correct Answer Reply: A. An isomegalen diagram is a plot that shows the relationships between the time necessary for a larva to grow to a given size and the temperature of its surroundings. In this method, the largest maggots are measured and the isomegalen plot is used to determine their age. The general assumption is that the largest larvae found on the remains are the oldest and, therefore, developed from the first egg-laying cycle that occurred on the remains.

These larva can, be used, therefore, to provide a reasonable estimate of the amount of time that the body has been colonized by flies.

2. The focus on the analysis of the interactions between plant life and animal life in a particular environment would fall under the heading of Forensic: a. Botany.

b. Ecology. c. Medicine. d. Serology. e. Spectroscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Forensic Ecology.

3. Aspects of Forensic Ecology may be used to: a. estimate the postmortem interval (PMI). b. locate human remains and determine if the remains have been moved. c. determine relationships between people and places. d. recreate a timeline of events in a crime commission. e. all of these may use the application of Forensic Ecology.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All of these use the application of Forensic Ecology.

4. In the developmental stages in the life cycle of the fly, the last stage before hatching into an adult fly is the: a. 3rd Instar stage. b. Egg stage. c. 1st Instar stage. d. Pupal stage. e. Maggot stage.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Pupa.

5. Small amounts of identifiable material from an ecosystem that can indicate with relatively high accuracy information about the entire ecosystem from which they originated are known as: a. ballistic markers. b. proxy indicators. c. refractive indices. d. ecological markers. e. tempered analyses.

Correct Answer Reply: B. A proxy Indicator is evidence that points to a particular biological organism, habitat or similar.

6. In a high profile case discussed, a man named David Westerfield was convicted of the brutal homicide of a 7 year old girl. The conviction was based upon examination of the remains of the girl found later in the desert. The key evidence involved a careful determination of the postmortem interval that was based on which of the following pieces of evidence: a. Chromatographic methods applied to a mixture recovered from the scene. b. Mass spectrometry of powders recovered from scene.

c. Entomological evidence that showed that the suspect was out of town and without alibi at the time of the abduction and murder. d. The pager of the suspect was found at the scene under the victim‟s body. e. A virtual autopsy of the remains that provided the manner and cause of death.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Entomological evidence that showed that the suspect was out of town and without alibi at the time of the abduction and murder.

7. The Decay Stage of decomposition is best described as the stage that: a. commences at death, ends when bloating is first evident and includes the breakdown of protein and carbohydrates into simpler compounds. b. putrefaction begins and the gasses produced by anaerobic bacteria inflate the abdomen. c. begins when the abdominal wall breaks, gasses escape and the carcass deflates. d. involves mainly skin, cartilage, and bones. e. mainly involves only bones and hair and can last several months to years.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Stages of decay. Fresh Stage: the "fresh" stage begins immediately after the heart stops beating. From the moment of death, the body begins cooling or warming to match the temperature of the ambient environment with biochemical breakdown. Bloat Stage: the bloat stage provides the first visual sign that microbial proliferation is underway. In this stage, anaerobic metabolism takes place, leading to the accumulation of gases. The accumulation of gases within the bodily cavity causes the distention of the abdomen and gives a cadaver its overall bloated appearance. Decay Stage: decay is characterized by the period of greatest mass loss. This loss occurs as a result of both the voracious feeding of maggots and the purging of decomposition fluids into the surrounding environment. Dry Stage: All that remains of the cadaver at this stage is dry skin, and bone.

8. The Dry Stage of decomposition is best described as the stage that: a. commences at death, ends when bloating is first evident and includes the breakdown of protein and carbohydrates into simpler compounds. b. putrefaction begins and the gasses produced by anaerobic bacteria inflate the abdomen. c. begins when the abdominal wall breaks, gasses escape and the carcass deflates. d. mainly involves only bone and hair and can last for several months to years. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The stages of decay. Fresh Stage: the "fresh" stage begins immediately after the heart stops beating. From the moment of death, the body begins cooling or warming to match the temperature of the ambient environment with biochemical breakdown. Bloat Stage: the bloat stage provides the first visual sign that microbial proliferation is underway. In this stage, anaerobic metabolism takes place, leading to the accumulation of gases. The accumulation of gases within the bodily cavity causes the distention of the

abdomen and gives a cadaver its overall bloated appearance. Decay Stage: decay is characterized by the period of greatest mass loss. This loss occurs as a result of both the voracious feeding of maggots and the purging of decomposition fluids into the surrounding environment. Dry Stage: All that remains of the cadaver at this stage is dry skin, and bone.

9. The Bloat Stage of decomposition is best described as the stage that: a. commences at death, ends when bloating is first evident and includes the breakdown of protein and carbohydrates into simpler compounds. b. putrefaction begins and the gasses produced by anaerobic bacteria inflate the abdomen. c. begins when the abdominal wall breaks, gasses escape and the carcass deflates. d. involves mainly skin, cartilage, and bones. e. mainly involves only bones and hair and can last several months to years.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The stages of decay are: Fresh Stage: the "fresh" stage begins immediately after the heart stops beating. From the moment of death, the body begins cooling or warming to match the temperature of the ambient environment with biochemical breakdown. Bloat Stage: the bloat stage provides the first visual sign that microbial proliferation is underway. In this stage, anaerobic metabolism takes place, leading to the accumulation of gases.

The accumulation of gases within the bodily cavity causes the distention of the abdomen and gives a cadaver its overall bloated appearance. Decay Stage: decay is characterized by the period of greatest mass loss. This loss occurs as a result of both the voracious feeding of maggots and the purging of decomposition fluids into the surrounding environment. Dry Stage: All that remains of the cadaver at this stage is dry skin, and bone.

10. Using the isomegalen chart provided, if you know that the maggot being analyzed is 10 mm long and was found in an environment that maintained an average daily temperature of 25°C, how old is that maggot?

a. 1 day. b. 2 days.

c. 3 days d. 4 days. e. 5 days.

Correct Answer Reply: B. An isomegalen diagram is a plot that shows the relationships between the time necessary for a larva to grow to a given size and the temperature of its surroundings. In this method, the largest maggots are measured and the isomegalen plot is used to determine their age. The general assumption is that the largest larvae found on the remains are also the oldest and, therefore, developed from the first egg-laying cycle that occurred on the remains.

These larva can be used, therefore, to provide a reasonable estimate of the amount of time that the body has been colonized by flies.

11. Which of the following factors should not be considered important in the alterations/adjustment of PMI calculations based upon insect evidence: a. urban environment vs. rural environment. b. victim‟s usage of drugs. c. current weather conditions. d. presence of wounds. e. all of the above must be considered.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All of the above must be considered.

12. The first insect species to typically arrive at a body after death is the: a. cheese skipper. b. flesh beetle. c. blow-fly. d. wolf spider. e. maggot.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The blow-fly arrives often within minutes of death under good “flying” conditions.

13. In forensic entomology, one of the last insect species to arrive at a body during the dry stages is the: a. flesh fly. b. carrion beetle. c. blow fly. d. house fly. e. cheese skipper Correct Answer Reply: B. Carrion beetle.

14. The factor(s) that affect the rate of maggot growth and development on a body the most is/are: a. species. b. temperature.

c. none of the above. d. both A and B. e. just B. Correct Answer Reply: D. Both temperature and species affects rate of maggot growth and development.

15. Using the blowfly development plot at right, how long would you expect it to take for a maggot to grow to 8 mm at 15°C?

a. 2 days. b. 5 days. c. 9 days. d. 12 days. e. 15 days.

Correct Answer Reply: B. An isomegalen diagram is a plot that shows the relationships between the time necessary for a larva to grow to a given size and the temperature of its surroundings. In this method, the largest maggots are measured and the isomegalen plot is used to determine their age. The general assumption is that the largest larvae found on the remains are also the oldest and, therefore, developed from the first egg-laying cycle that occurred on the remains.

These larva can, be used, therefore, to provide a reasonable estimate of the amount of time that the body has been colonized by flies).

16. Which is not a factor in determining the PMI from blowfly maggot growth and development? a. presence of toxins. b. temperature of the body. c. presence of a significant maggot mass. d. sunny vs. shady location of the body. e. age of the person at death.

Correct Answer Reply: E. The age of the person at death does not substantially affect the PMI determination from insect data.

17. A blow fly almost always lays its eggs in: a. water. b. manure. c. rotting flesh. d. moist soil. e. living tissue.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Rotting flesh. House flies, in contrast, depost their egg is manure/feces.

18. To estimate the postmortem interval for a decedent, it is important to collect as many insects as possible and also to have a good estimate of the: a. body weight. b. temperature history. c. soil conditions. d. body's clothing. e. person's age.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The most important information is the local temperature history during the time the flies develop.

19. Forensic entomology typically can be used for all of the following except: a. location of wounds to the body. b. determination of post-mortem interval. c. movement of the body after death. d. presence of poisons in the body. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 20. Typically, the most important forensic insects in a PMI determination are the: a. annelids. b. spiders. c. beetles. d. flies. e. moths.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Flies.

21. During the fresh stage of decomposition, the most important events is/are: a. the initial breakdown of proteins and carbohydrates without bloating. b. the putrefaction begins and gases inflate abdomen. c. the breaking of the abdominal wall and gas escape.

d. the drying of the skin, cartilage and bones. e. the bleaching of the bones and hair.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The stages of decay. Fresh Stage: the "fresh" stage begins immediately after the heart stops beating. From the moment of death, the body begins cooling or warming to match the temperature of the ambient environment with biochemical breakdown. Bloat Stage: the bloat stage provides the first visual sign that microbial proliferation is underway. In this stage, anaerobic metabolism takes place, leading to the accumulation of gases. The accumulation of gases within the bodily cavity causes the distention of the abdomen and gives a cadaver its overall bloated appearance. Decay Stage: decay is characterized by the period of greatest mass loss. This loss occurs as a result of both the voracious feeding of maggots and the purging of decomposition fluids into the surrounding environment. Dry Stage: All that remains of the cadaver at this stage is dry skin, and bone.

22. Using the plot below for Lucilia sericata, the largest larva removed from a body was found to be 4 mm. If the temperature for the previous week was steady at 60° F, what would be the age of this larva?

a. 1 day. b. 2 days. c. 3 days. d. 4 days. e. >5 days.

Correct Answer Reply: B. An isomegalen diagram is a plot that shows the relationships between the time necessary for a larva to grow to a given size and the temperature of its surroundings In this method, the largest maggots are measured and the isomegalen plot is used to determine their age. The general assumption is that the largest larvae found on the remains are also the oldest and, therefore, developed from the first egg-laying cycle that occurred on the remains.

These larva can, be used, therefore, to provide a reasonable estimate of the amount of time that the body has been colonized by flies.

23. What is meant by the term biome? a. the community of plants that occupy a habitat in the natural world. b. the community of animals that occupy a habitat in the natural world. c. A large community of plants and animals that occupy a habitat in the natural world. d. the Earth and all of it‟s living an non-living components. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. A Biome is a large community of plants and animals that occupy a habitat in the natural world.

24. What is taxonomy? a. the science of description and classification of living organisms. b. the science of description and classification of plants. c. the science of description and classification of animals. d. the movement of the body after death. e. The preservation and mounting of animal hides for display.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Taxonomy is the science of description and classification of living organisms.

25. In which phylum does entomology focus? a. insecta. b. animalia. c. protozoa. d. arthropoda. e. annelida.

Correct Answer Reply: D. arthropoda (note the PHYLUM was requested in the question), the largest phylum in the animal kingdom.

26. What is a necrophageous insect? a. An insect that eats other animals. b. An insect that lives of an animal carcass. c. An insect that eats only plant materials. d. An insect that causes death in an organism e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Necrophagous insects feed directly upon dead animal remains.

27. Assuming that conditions are good for a fly to fly, how quickly after the death of an animal will blow flies deposit their eggs?

a. within minutes. b. in about an hour. c. within a day. d. it varies greatly. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Within minutes (assuming that the weather conditions are favorable for them to fly).

28. How does burial impact the decay process? a. Burial can significantly slow the decay process. b. Burial can significantly speed the decay process. c. Burial has little effect the decay process. d. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Burial can significantly slow the decay process by making the body difficult to reach by the insects.

29. Forensic entomology is primarily concerned with the interpretation of insect evidence found in association with decomposing corpses from suspicious circumstances. An examination of the development stages of the insects present typically is used to directly determine: a. the movements of the decedent. b. the post-mortem interval. c. the identification of the deceased. d. the age of the deceased. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. While forensic entomology (study of insect life) can be used for a variety of things, including the movements of the decedent and their identification, the examination of the development stages of the insects is primarily used for determination of the postmoretem interval [Post mortem interval (PMI) – The length of time from the death of the organism to the time that the remains are found].

30. What is the term that relates to the study of tiny materials, such as pollen? a. Zoology. b. Botany. c. Etymology. d. Mycology. e. Palynology.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Palynology is the study of pollen, spores and similar materials along with the organic matter and traces of soils.

31. What field includes the study of mushrooms and molds? a. Zoology.

b. Botany. c. Etymology. d. Mycology. e. Palynology.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Mycology is the study of fungi, which include mushrooms and molds.

32. Which of the following is most likely NOT an example of a material that is useful as a proxy indicator? a. Bark from a tree that only grows in localized warm and wet environments. b. Pollen from an invasive grass species that grows in all environments and is widely distributed by the wind. c. Seeds of a flower that is only found near one particular lake. d. Leaves from a plant that only grows in desert areas. e. Mushrooms that survive in a specific forest environment.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Proxy indicators are small amounts of identifiable material from an ecosystem that can indicate with relatively high accuracy the information about the entire ecosystem from which they originated. A grass that can grow anywhere is not a useful proxy indicator.

33. What about a Palo Verde tree in a 1992 homicide case in the textbook that led to the conviction of Mark Bogen for murder? a. The DNA of seed pods from the tree. b. The shape of Palo Verde tree leaves. c. The unique chemistry of tree sap. d. A microscopic analysis of wood. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. DNA of Pola Verde seed pods found in the suspect‟s truck was identical to those from the individual tree at the crime scene.

34. How can plants or parts of plants be used in forensic investigations? a. Tracking movements through plant origin and damage. b. Validating proposed timelines through plant growth patterns. c. Dealing with plant-based poisons.a d. Determining a postmortem interval. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Plants and parts of plants have been used in many types of forensic investigations including, tracking a suspect‟s movements, validating alibis and proposed timelines of events, determining how long someone has been dead, dealing with issues of plant-based poisons and toxicology, investigating food adulteration cases, and others.

35. The scientific name for the brown bear is Ursus arctos. What is the species name for this animal? a. Arctos. b. Mammalia. c. Animalia. d. Ursus. e. Not enough information is given.

Correct Answer Reply: A. In biology, an organism is named by giving its genus and species. So, in this case, Ursus is the genus and arctos is the species of the brown bear.

36. What is a predatory insect? a. An insect that eats other insects attracted to remains but generally not the remains themselves. b. An insect that migrates between different seasonal habitats. c. An insect that only eats plant materials. d. An insect that feeds directly on remains. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Predatory and parasitic insects feed on the necrophagous species that are found on the remains but not directly on the remains themselves.

37. What is the correct order for the five stages of decay? a. Fresh, obturated, purged, decayed, dry. b. Fresh, decay, bloated, dry, post-decay. c. Fresh, bloated, decay, post-decay, dry. d. Fresh, putrefied, decomposed, skeletal, dry. e. None of the above Correct Answer Reply: C. A mammal undergoes a series of identifiable stages of decay after death. This predictable series of stages are often referred to as the fresh stage, bloated stage, decay stage, post-decay stage (or advanced decay stage), and dry stage.

38. What is a potential result of maggot mass? a. The internal temperature of the body is raised. b. Larval developmental rates change. c. Larvae attract other predatory insect species. d. The mass becomes its own microenvironment. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All of these effects can be observed when large numbers of maggots begin feeding on remains.

39. Which field does forensic ecology usually closely collaborate with in order to investigate illegal wildlife trade? a. Anthropology. b. Medicine. c. Economics. d. Law enforcement. e. Criminal courts.

Correct Answer Reply: D 40. The study of order of insect colonization on a decomposing body is known as: a. Insect succession. b. Paleontology. c. Botany. d. Zoology. e. Plant succession Correct Answer Reply: A 41. A forensic ecologist is most likely to be involved in which situation? a. Analyzing cybercrimes. b. Studying ancient civilizations. c. Determining time of death using plant growth. d. Investigating financial fraud. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 42. Which tool can be used to analyze the age of a tree to determine the timing of an event? a. Infrared spectroscopy. b. A Leaf blower. c. Mass spectrometry. d. Tree ring analysis. e. Quantitative chemical analysis.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 43. What is the role of forensic ecologists in cases involving illegal logging? a. Analyzing handwriting samples. b. Tracing financial transactions. c. Identifying wood species and origin. d. Studying digital evidence. e. Footprint wear pattern analysis.

Correct Answer Reply: C.

44. What is the primary focus of forensic botany? a. Studying digital evidence. b. Analyzing toxicology reports. c. Identifying plant species at crime scenes. d. Investigating cybercrimes. e. Investigating poisonous mushrooms.

Correct Answer Reply: C.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Eleven Questions 1. The law of the conservation of mass may best be stated as: a. for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. b. the total energy of a system is conserved in the course of a chemical reaction. c. atoms are neither created nor destroyed in chemical reactions. d. all atoms of a given element are identical. e. each element is composed of extremely small particles.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 2. Somebody has tried to be funny by adding the contents of the salt shaker to the bowl of sugar on your breakfast table. After you pour the contents of the sugar bowl onto your cereal, what is now in the cereal bowl is: a. an element. b. a compound. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. e. a poison.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 3. Pure granulated sugar (C12H22O11, sucrose) is: a. an element. b. a compound. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a solution. e. a fluid.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 4. The element oxygen exists in two primary forms in nature called dioxygen (O2) and ozone (O3). These two forms are examples of: a. isotopes. b. allotropes. c. isomers. d. metalloids. e. enantiomers.

Correct Answer Reply: B.

5. An atom of the most common isotope of gold 197Au79 has: a. 197 protons, 79 neutrons, and 118 electrons. b. 118 protons, 79 neutrons, and 39 electrons. c. 79 protons, 197 neutrons, and 197 electrons. d. 79 protons, 118 neutrons, and 118 electrons. e. 79 protons, 118 neutrons, and 79 electrons.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 6. Quantitative analysis deals primarily with: a. what is the identity of the substance present. b. how much of a substance is present. c. whether the analysis is destructive or non-destructive. d. what level of analysis is required (99% vs 99.47%). e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 7. Which field of chemistry deals specifically with questions such as determining the elemental or molecular composition of an unknown sample? a. Molecular chemistry. b. Physical chemistry. c. Analytical chemistry. d. Inorganic chemistry. e. Qualitative chemistry.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Analytical chemistry is the branch of modern chemistry that deals with the separation, purification, identification and quantification of chemical substances. Identification of chemical substances includes the determination of elemental or molecular composition.

8. Which of the following is an example of quantitative analysis? a. Determining the color of a paint chip. b. Comparing the temperature of two samples through touch. c. Determining that marijuana is present in a mixture. d. Describing the characteristics of a crystal. e. Determining the mass of an unknown sample.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Quantitative analysis is the measurement of the amounts of the components in a substance. Qualitative analysis is the determination of the identities of characteristics of the components in a substance.

9. Which of the following is an example of a qualitative analysis? a. Determining the color of a chemical spot test. b. Measuring the length of a sample accurately. c. Determining the amount (in grams) of a drug in a sample.

d. Determining the mass of a sample. e. Mearing the temperature of a sample with an accurate digital thermometer.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Quantitative analysis is the measurement of the amounts of the components in a substance. Qualitative analysis is the determination of the identities of characteristics of the components in a substance.

10. What is an analyte in an analytical test? a. A chemical added to facilitate the test. b. The type of test being conducted. c. A chemical that interferes with the test. d. The target substance of the analysis. e. The solvent that a substance is dissolved in.

Correct Answer Reply: D. An analyte is the target substance for which an analysis is being conducted.

11. Which are the three particles that make up an atom? a. Electrons, nucleons, photons. b. Protons, electrons, neutrons. c. Photons, protons, electrons. d. Positrons, quarks, bosons. e. Nucleus, electrons, elements.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Atoms are composed of three particles called protons (positive charge), electrons (negative charge), and neutrons (no charge).

12. What are isotopes? a. Atoms with different numbers of neutrons but the same number of protons. b. Molecules with the same number of atoms but are arranged differently. c. Atoms with different numbers of protons and the same number of neutrons. d. Two molecules with the same types of atoms but with different empirical formulas. e. Atoms with different numbers of electrons but the same number of protons.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Isotopes are atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. Common examples include hydrogen (1H) and deuterium (2H) or carbon-12 and carbon-13.

13. What are isomers? a. Atoms with different numbers of neutrons and the same number of protons. b. Two molecules with the same number of each type of atom present but with the atoms arranged differently. c. Atoms with different numbers of protons but the same number of neutrons. d. Molecules with the same types of atoms but with different empirical formulas. e. Atoms with different numbers of electrons but the same number of protons.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Isomers are chemical compounds with the same molecular formula but with different arrangements of the atoms and displaying different properties.

14. Given the equation, CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O, which of the following are true? a. The conservation of mass is maintained. b. Oxygen is a reactant. c. The reaction proceeds towards the formation of CO2 and water. d. Water is a product. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. The conservation of mass is maintained because there are the same number of atoms on each side of the reaction. Molecules on the left side of the equation are reactants while those on the right side are products. The arrow shows the direction of the reaction as it proceeds from reactants to products.

15. Given what you know about the states of matter. Which of the following is true? a. A solid has a fixed volume but no fixed shape. b. A liquid has a fixed shape but no fixed volume. c. A gas has strong interactions with its neighboring molecules. d. A liquid expands to fill the shape of a container holding it. e. A solid has atoms/molecules that are held in position so that it has a fixed volume and a fixed shape.

Correct Answer Reply: E. A gas has no fixed shape or volume but expands to fill the shape of the container holding it. A liquid has a fixed volume but no fixed shape (liquids don‟t expand appreciably – they are mostly incompressible). A solid is defined by both a fixed volume and a fixed shape. In a solid, the molecules are usually held in position quite tightly by fairly strong interactions with their neighbors, allowing relatively little motion of the molecules.

16. Which of the following is NOT an example of a physical separation technique? a. A Separation using the different densities of two compounds. b. A Separation using chromatographic methods. c. A Separation using a chemical reaction with different component reactions. d. A Separation using different freezing points of two compounds. e. A Separation using different solubilities of two compounds.

Correct Answer Reply: C. A physical separation technique relies on the different physical properties of the different components and does not change the identity of a substance. A chemical spot test does not meet these requirements.

17. What is a chemical spot test?

a. A rapid chemical test that shows the presence of a specific chemical, often by observing a color change. b. A chemical test that involves to use of instrumentation such as a chromatograph. c. A form of titration that only requires a very small amount of sample. d. A chemical analysis that relies upon the binding of an antibody with its antigen. e. A process of separating the components of a mixture.

Correct Answer Reply: A. A spot test is a rapid chemical test used to show the presence of a chemical or component in a sample.

18. A scientist wants to identify the type of pen used to write a letter by separating the dyes that make up the ink so that she can visually see the component colors. What is most likely the best technique to do this? a. Titration. b. Chromatography. c. Mass spectrometry. d. Neutron Activation Analysis. e. Chemical spot test.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Chromatography can be used to separate the ink using the paper as the stationary phase.

19. Which one of the following is a physical process? a. rusting of iron. b. condensation of water vapor. c. baking of a potato. d. the formation of polyethylene from ethylene. e. the explosion of nitroglycerine.

Correct Answer Reply: B 20. Which of the following is a chemical property of copper? a. It melts at 1083°C. b. Its density is 8.96 g/cm3. c. It conducts electricity. d. Its specific heat is 0.385 J/g•°C e. It displaces silver ion from an aqueous solution.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 21. A pure substance which can be decomposed into two or more pure substances is a(n): a. element. b. mixture. c. compound. d. atom.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 22.

and a. protons, electrons. b. protons, neutrons. c. neutrons, electrons. d. photons, protons. e. none of these.

reside in the atomic nucleus:

Correct Answer Reply: B. 23. All atoms of a given element have the same: a. mass. b. number of neutrons. c. number of protons. d. same ratio of protons and neutrons. e. there is nothing constant about a given element.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 24. A physician conducts an analysis for glucose in a patient's blood and obtains values of 59.6 mg/dl, 60.0 mg/dl and 59.9 mg/dl. Given this information only, for these results we could say that the physician had: a. good accuracy. b. good precision. c. good accuracy and good precision. d. poor precision. e. exhibited dumb luck.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 25. Avogadro's number represents the number of: a. Grams in one mole of a substance. b. Number of molecules in one mole of a substance. c. Moles in one gram of a substance. d. Atoms in one molecule of a substance. e. Mass of 1 gram of a substance.

Correct Answer Reply:B. 26. The molar mass of a substance is: a. The mass of one mole of the substance. b. The volume of one mole of the substance. c. The number of atoms in one mole of the substance. d. The charge of one mole of the substance.

e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 27. The molar mass of a compound is the sum of the molar masses of its: a. Ions. b. Elements. c. Isotopes. d. Atoms e. Molecules Correct Answer Reply: D.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Twelve Questions 1. In combustion analysis, the unknown compound is heated in the presence of: a. oxygen. b. nitrogen. c. carbon dioxide. d. carbon monoxide. e. hydrogen.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 2. Mass spectrometers are most often used to determine which of the following? a. the composition of the sample. b. the concentration of elements in sample. c. the relative mass of atoms. d. the chemical properties of the sample. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 3. In mass spectrometer, the sample that has to be analyzed is typically bombarded with which of the following? a. Protons. b. Electrons. c. Neutrons. d. Alpha particles. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 4. No two different molecules will be fragmented and ionized in exactly the same manner in a mass spectrometer. a. True b. False Correct Answer Reply: A. 5. The procedure for mass spectrometry starts with which of the following processes? a. The sample is bombarded by electron beam. b. The ions are separated by passing them into electric and magnetic field. c. The sample is bombarded by a proton beam.

d. The ions are detected. e. The sample is converted into gaseous state.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 6. In the gas chromatograph shown, how many main components make up the original sample mixture?

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 Correct Answer Reply: D. 7. In the figure shown, the process shown illustrates: a. absorption. b. commission. c. transmission. d. outgassing. e. emission .

Correct Answer Reply: E. 8. Which of the following has values that are not quantized? a. a piano keyboard. b. a typewriter. c. a violin. d. a football game score. e. all are quantized.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The violin is the only one where any value can be obtained.

9. When you view the many colors of fireworks, you are watching examples of: a. molecular emission. b. molecular absorption. c. atomic emission. d. atomic absorption. e. atomic transmission.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Light is given off, or emitted, characteristic of the different types of atoms found in the sample.

10. What must an electron do to move from a lower energy level to a higher energy level? a. gain (absorb) energy. b. loose (emit) energy. c. keep the same amount of energy but reverse the electron spin. d. be ejected from the atom. e. energy changes do not accompany this process.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 11. What is meant by the term ground state for an electron? a. the highest energy level of an atom. b. the ending energy level when an electron moves. c. the lowest energy configuration of an atom. d. the starting energy level when an electron moves. e. the highest energy level of an atom.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 12. What is meant by the term excited state for an electron? a. the highest energy level of an atom. b. the ending energy level when an electron moves between energy levels. c. the lowest energy configuration of an atom. d. the starting energy level when an electron moves. e. an energy level higher than the ground state for an atom.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 13. What is an absorption spectrum? a. the measurement of the wavelengths that light is given off by an atom/molecule. b. the measurement of the wavelengths that light is emitted by an atom/molecule. c. the energy required for an atom/molecule to absorb a substance. d. the measurement of the wavelengths that light is absorbed by an atom/molecule. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 14. How does the use of infrared light in spectroscopy differ from the use of visible or UV light? a. Infrared spectroscopy involves the absorption of energy while visible and UV spectroscopy involves the emission of energy by molecules. b. Infrared light causes molecules to vibrate in specific ways while visible and UV light causes electrons to move between energy levels. c. Infrared light causes electrons to move between energy levels while visible and UV light causes molecules to vibrate in specific ways. d. Infrared spectroscopy involves the emission of energy while visible and UV spectroscopy involves the absorption of energy by molecules. e. They involve the same processes within the molecule.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 15. Which analytical method is most often used in breath-alcohol concentration determination? a. infrared spectroscopy. b. atomic emission spectroscopy. c. ultraviolet (UV) spectroscopy. d. atomic absorption spectroscopy. e. visible (vis.) spectroscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 16. Which is one of the three principal types of radioactive decay? a. Alpha-rays. b. Delta-rays. c. Pi-rays. d. X-rays. e. Z-rays.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 17. What is the basis for 14C dating of organic compounds? a. radioactive decay. b. stable isotope analysis. c. neutron activation analysis. d. gel electrophoresis. e. mass spectrometry.

Correct Answer Reply: A.

18. A forensic anthropologist is given a piece of cotton cloth taken from a body discovered at a construction site. The anthropologist needs to determine its age in order to determine if it is of only historical significance or should be looked at as a possible criminal investigation. The amount of 14C is analyzed and found to be 25.0% of the normal amount found in living organic material. How old is the cloth and should a criminal investigation be started given that the ½-life of 14C is about 5700 years? a. about 10 years. b. about 25 years. c. about 5,700 years. d. about 11,400 years. e. about 22,800 years.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Two half-lives have elapsed since death of the cotton making up the cloth. That means it is approximately 2 x 5,700 years of 11,400 years old.

19. When two atoms share electrons that draws them closer together, this would be an example of: a. ionic bonding. b. harmonic resonance. c. antibonding. d. molecular attraction. e. chemical bonding.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 20. Which molecule below would be deflected the least from a straight-line trajectory by the magnetic field inside of a mass spectrometer? a. H2O b. CH3OH c. C2H5OH d. C3H8OH e. C15H31OH Correct Answer Reply: A. 21. What happens to the frequency of light in a vacuum when the wavelength is doubled? a. Frequency is quartered. b. Frequency is halved. c. Frequency is doubled. d. Frequency quadrupled. e. Frequency stays the same.

Correct Answer Reply: B. The equation relating the speed of light to wavelength and frequency is c=λν (where c is the speed of light, λ is the

wavelength and ν is the frequency). Since the light is in a vacuum so the speed does not change, doubling the wavelength requires the frequency to be halved.

22. In an analysis, the electrons in a molecule are excited by absorbing light energy in the 300 – 700 nm range. What type of technique is being used? a. IR spectroscopy b. Mass spectrometry c. UV-Vis spectroscopy d. Fluorescence spectroscopy e. Atomic absorption spectroscopy Correct Answer Reply: C. UV-Vis spectroscopy is the measurement of absorption of light between ~150 – 750 nm by molecules 23. What form of spectroscopy uses electron impact to ionize and fragment a molecule in the gas phase? a. Electron ionization mass spectrometry. b. Neutron Activation Analysis. c. Fast atom bombardment. d. X-ray photoelectron spectroscopy. e. Atomic absorption spectroscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Electron ionization is a technique for creating charged ions in mass spectrometry using electron impacts.

24. A scientist wants to analyze the molecular weight of a compound and its chemical structure. However, her molecule is sensitive and must be treated gently. What technique might she use? a. Neutron Activation Analysis. b. UV-vis spectroscopy. c. Chemical ionization mass spectroscopy. d. Gas chromatography. e. Atomic fluorescence spectroscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: C. MS analyzes ions to provide information about the molecular wright and chemical structure of a compound. Chemical ionization uses an ionized molecular gas which then gently ionizes the molecule of interest and is considered a milder method of ionization.

25. What causes the separation of ions and molecular fragments in mass spectrometry? a. Particle Energy. b. Stationary phase. c. Wavelength of light. d. Magnetic field. e. Temperature.

Correct Answer Reply: D. A mass spectrometer uses a magnetic field that separates the ions by their mass/charge ratio.

26. Which of the following uses the measurement of quantized atomic electron energy levels for chemical identification and determining analyte concentration? a. IR spectroscopy. b. Mass spectrometry. c. Gas chromatography. d. Neutron activation analysis. e. Atomic emission spectroscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Atomic absorption and emission spectroscopy rely on the measurement of atomic energy levels (as opposed to molecular energy levels).

27. Which of the following is not an example of molecular spectroscopy/spectrometry? a. UV-Vis spectroscopy. b. IR spectroscopy. c. Molecular absorption spectroscopy. d. Mass spectrometry. e. Combustion analysis.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Combustion analysis is not form of spectroscopy.

28. When visible light is absorbed by an object, what color do you see? a. The same color as the absorbed light. b. The complementary color of the absorbed light. c. Black (no light). d. White light (all wavelengths). e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. When white light is transmitted or reflected by a colored object, some wavelengths are absorbed. The remaining light (that not absorbed) has the complementary color to the absorbed light.

29. What technique measures the absorption of light in a range that causes molecular vibrations? a. IR spectroscopy. b. Mass spectrometry. c. UV-Visible spectroscopy. d. Fluorescence spectroscopy. e. Atomic emission spectroscopy.

Correct Answer Reply: A. IR Spectroscopy is the measurement of the absorption or emission of light between 500 – 4000 cm-1 that causes quantized vibrations in molecules

30. What must happen for an electron to move from a higher energy level to a lower one? a. Gain (absorb) energy. b. Loose (emit) energy. c. Reverse its electron spin. d. Be ejected as an electron from an atom. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. When an electron in an excited energy state returns to a lower energy state, the energy difference is emitted as light.

31. What is light? a. Scientists cannot explain light yet. b. An electric and magnetic field together. c. Many particles that have mass. d. A beam of intense atomic nuclear particles. e. Something that makes up only visible colors.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Electromagnetic radiation, or light, is a form of energy that consists of two basic components put together: an electric field and a magnetic field.

32. What is mass spectrometry primarily used for? a. Measuring molecular volume. b. Measuring molecular mass. c. Measuring molecular temperature. d. Measuring molecular pressure. e. Measuring molecular color.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Measuring mass.

33. What is the purpose of the electron impact ion source in mass spectrometry? a. To accelerate ions. b. To create a vacuum. c. To ionize the sample by bombarding it with electrons. d. To analyze the mass of the ions. e. To measure the volume of the ions.

Correct Answer Reply: C. To ionize the sample by bombarding it with electrons.

34. Infrared spectroscopy is a technique used to study which property of molecules? a. Mass. b. Color. c. Vibrational modes. d. Magnetic moment. e. Molecular fragmentation.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Vibrational modes.

35. What is forensic spectroscopy primarily used for? a. DNA analysis. b. Fingerprint identification. c. Drug testing. d. Chemical analysis e. Blood typing.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Chemical analysis.

36. Which spectroscopic technique is commonly used in forensic laboratories for drug identification? a. Raman spectroscopy. b. gamma-ray spectroscopy. c. X-ray spectroscopy. d. Mass spectrometry. e. nuclear magnetic resonance.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Mass spectrometry.

37. Which spectroscopic technique is used to determine the elemental composition of a sample? a. NMR spectroscopy. b. UV-Visible spectroscopy. c. Combustion Analysis. d. Infrared spectroscopy. e. X-ray diffraction.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Combustion Analysis.

38. Which spectroscopic technique involves the deflection of charged particles in a magnetic field to determine their mass-to-charge ratio? a. Mass spectrometry. b. NMR spectroscopy. c. UV-Visible spectroscopy. d. Infrared spectroscopy. e. Magnetic resonance imaging.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Mass spectrometry.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Thirteen Questions 1. One of the most commonly found laboratory techniques that is used for identifying a poison in a blood sample is: a. atomic absorption. b. gas chromatography. c. ultraviolet-visible spectrophotometry. d. gas chromatography-mass spectrometry (GCMS). e. neutron activation analysis.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The tandem combination of gas chromatographymass spectrometry is the most powerful commonly employed method for identifying chemical forensic samples.

2. A narcotic drug: a. stimulates the central nervous system. b. reduces or eliminates pain and brings sleep. c. depresses the central nervous system. d. causes psychoactive effects. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Narcotics are drugs that brings relief from pain and brings sleep. Stimulants are compounds that increase alertness and activity.

Depressants are compounds that act to depress the functioning of the central nervous system, bringing about calmness and sleep. Hallucinogens (psychoactive drugs) are compounds that alter normal thought processes, perceptions, personal awareness, and psychological moods. Steroids are compounds that promote muscle growth and repair, regulate metabolism and immune function, and control blood properties.

3. One route for alcohol elimination from the body is to eliminate it chemically unchanged as CH3CH2OH. This occurs through elimination in the: a. Urine. b. Breath. c. Perspiration. d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. All of the choices eliminate alcohol directly.

4. The study of body fluids for the presence of drugs and poisons is called: a. pathology. b. toxicology. c. virology. d. urology. e. odontology.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Toxicology.

5. Which of the following is not a depressant? a. Valium. b. barbuturates. c. Cocaine. d. Ethyl Alcohol. e. all of these are depressants.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Cocaine is a stimulant (not a narcotic which reduces pain and brings sleep).

6. Most alcohol enters the bloodstream through the: a. stomach. b. small intestines. c. large intestines. d. liver. e. pancreas.

Correct Answer Reply: B. About 20% of ethanol enters the bloodstream through the stomach and 80% enters through the small intestines.

7. Cocaine is considered to be a: a. depressant. b. stimulant. c. narcotic. d. hallucinogen. e. steroid.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Cocaine is a stimulant (not a narcotic which reduces pain and brings sleep).

8. Marijuana is considered to be a: a. depressant. b. stimulant. c. narcotic. d. hallucinogen. e. steroid.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Hallucinogen (compounds that alter normal thought processes, perceptions, personal awareness, and psychological moods).

9. The formula for the alcohol most commonly consumed in alcoholic beverages is: a. CH3OH. b. CH3CH2OH. c. CH3CH2CH2OH. d. CH3C(O)OH. e. CH3OCH3.

Correct Answer Reply: B. CH3CH2OH. 10. According to the Controlled Substances Act, drugs that have the highest potential for abuse and without any accepted current medical use are listed in which schedule of the Act? a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV e. Schedule V Correct Answer Reply: A. Schedule I: Schedule I drugs, substances, or chemicals are defined as drugs with no currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. Schedule II: Schedule II drugs, substances, or chemicals are defined as drugs with a high potential for abuse, with use potentially leading to severe psychological or physical dependence. These drugs are also considered dangerous. Schedule III: Schedule III drugs, substances, or chemicals are defined as drugs with a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence. Schedule III drugs abuse potential is less than Schedule I and Schedule II drugs but more than Schedule IV. Schedule IV: Schedule IV drugs, substances, or chemicals are defined as drugs with a low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence. Schedule V: Schedule V drugs, substances, or chemicals are defined as drugs with lower potential for abuse than Schedule IV and consist of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics. Schedule V drugs are generally used for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes.

11. Alcohol is oxidized by the body primarily in the: a. kidneys. b. small intestine. c. stomach. d. liver. e. lungs.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Liver.

12. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Most alcohol absorption occurs in the stomach. b. Alcohol is considered to be a depressant. c. Any alcohol that is absorbed into the blood stream is very rapidly distributed relatively evenly throughout water-based portions of the body. d. The chemical formula for the alcohol consumed in alcoholic beverages is CH3CH2OH. e. All of the above are true.

Correct Answer Reply: A. A is incorrect since about 20% of ethanol enters the bloodstream through the stomach and 80% enters through the small intestines.

13. Which drug is often incorrectly classified as a narcotic? a. codeine. b. morphine. c. marijuana. d. heroin. e. they are all narcotics.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Marijuana (a hallucinogen).

14. Which is/are factor(s) in determining the rate at which alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream? a. the alcoholic content of the beverage. b. the amount consumed. c. the presence or absence of food in the stomach. d. all of the above. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. All of the above.

15. The presence of high levels of carbon monoxide in the blood of a victim found at the scene of a suspicious fire is suggestive that the victim: a. Died elsewhere and was brought to the fire scene after death. b. Died before the fire started. c. Was the arsonist. d. Perished after the fire started. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Perished after the fire started.

16. The concentration of alcohol in a exhaled breath is in direct proportion to that in the blood (Henry's Law) of the individual. The ratio of this relationship is closest to: a. 10:1 b. 100:1 c. 200:1 d. 1000:1

e. 2000:1 Correct Answer Reply: E. About 2000:1. In other words, 1 mL of blood will have about the same alcohol content at about 2100 mL of air from the lungs (assuming they are in contact in the lungs and there is alcohol in the blood).

17. The LD50 dose of cyanide for a 60 kg person is (Note; LD50 for cyanide is 10 mg/Kg): a. 10 mg. b. 600 mg. c. 7 mg. d. 600 grams. e. 700 mg.

Correct Answer Reply: B. To determine this, multiply the LD50 for the compound times the weight of the person (in Kg): (60Kg x 10 mg/Kg) = 600 mg.

18. Which of the following statements is false? a. Alcohol is broken down in the liver by oxidation. b. Alcohol depresses the central nervous system. c. Alcohol is distributed nearly evenly throughout water (aqueous) portions of the body by the blood. d. Most of the consumed alcohol is absorbed through the small intestine walls. e. Methanol (wood alcohol) and isopropyl alcohol (rubbing alcohol) are much less toxic than ethyl alcohol.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Methanol and isopropyl alcohol are much more toxic than ethanol.

19. In the table that gives the LD50 values for selected chemicals, which is most toxic from among the choices listed below?

a. aspirin. b. morphine. c. cyanide. d. nicotine. e. Heroin.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The higher the LD50, the less toxic a compound is (more is needed to produce a 50% death effect in a population).

20. Alcohol for human consumption is most commonly prepared by: a. the reaction of organic compounds with oxidizing agents. b. the fermentation of sugars. c. pyrolyzing carbohydrates at high temperatures. d. chemically reducing organic carboxylic acids. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Alcohol is usually produced by the fermentation of sugars from almost any source.

21. Faster gastric emptying usually results in a higher blood alcohol level. a. True b. False c. It has no effect on blood alcohol level Correct Answer Reply: A. True.

22. The Controlled Substances Act uses which of the following to place a drug in one of the five schedules: a. medicinal value. b. potential for abuse. c. potential for addiction. d. all of these. e. none of these.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Controlled Substance Act: Schedule I has the least chance for abuse and dependence and known medicinal value while a schedule V drug has the greatest chance for abuse and dependence and no known medical use. The Schedules in between grade between these two extremes.

23. Several methods have been developed to measure the amount of alcohol found in blood (BAC). Most new methods used in the field employ spectroscopic techniques for determining the alcohol content of expelled air from a person‟s lungs. The basis for these direct-measurement instruments in the field (outside of the laboratory) is: a. gas chromatography. b. thin-layer chromatography. c. infrared spectrometry. d. atomic absorption. e. neutron activation analysis.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Infrared spectrometry is the only direct method in the list and is used extensively in the field in breathalyzers.

24. The following information, usually found listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), can be used to determine the amount of the substance that would be responsible for killing half of the population: a. Rf50. b. Spec50. c. PMA50. d. MS50. e. LD50.

Correct Answer Reply: E. LD50 (lethal dose 50%) is found on MSDS sheets, the other answers have nothing to do with toxicology or materials safety.

25. The following is an example of a corrosive poison, a substance that actually destroys tissue outright and not a metabolic poison that interferes with a biochemical mechanism: a. Arsenic, As. b. carbon monoxide gas, CO. c. cyanide gas, HCN. d. mercury, Hg. e. phosgene – a mustard gas used in WWI (delivers HCl to the lungs).

Correct Answer Reply: E. Phosgene makes HCl in the lungs and that is a corrosive poison. Corrosive Poisons: Substances that physically destroy tissues upon direct contact and usually act immediately, such as strong acids and bases.

Metabolic Poisons: Compounds that act by affecting the biochemical functioning of cells and tissues.

26. Drugs deemed to have the lowest potential for abuse/addiction and having current medical uses are listed in which schedule of the Controlled Substances Act? a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV e. Schedule V Correct Answer Reply: E. Schedule I: Schedule I drugs, substances, or chemicals are defined as drugs with no currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. Schedule II: Schedule II drugs, substances, or chemicals are defined as drugs with a high potential for abuse, with use potentially leading to severe psychological or physical dependence. These drugs are also considered dangerous. Schedule III: Schedule III drugs, substances, or chemicals are defined as drugs with a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence. Schedule III drugs abuse potential is less than Schedule I and Schedule II drugs but more than Schedule IV. Schedule IV: Schedule IV drugs, substances, or chemicals are defined as drugs with a low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence. Schedule V: Schedule V drugs, substances, or chemicals

are defined as drugs with lower potential for abuse than Schedule IV and consist of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics. Schedule V drugs are generally used for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes.

27. Opiates and the derivatives of opium are considered to be: a. Depressants. b. Stimulants. c. Narcotics. d. Hallucinogens. e. Tranquilizers.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Narcotics (drugs that brings relief from pain and brings sleep).

28. Which of the following is a stimulant? a. Dihydrogen Monoxide. b. Caffeine. c. Marijuana. d. Ethyl Alcohol. e. all of these are stimulants.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Only Caffein is a stimulant (compounds that increase alertness and activity).

29. The body system that is primarily affected by stimulants and depressants is the: a. circulatory system. b. endocrine system. c. nervous system. d. respiratory system. e. pulmonary system.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Nervous system.

30. During the metabolism of ethanol in the human body, only 20% is absorbed in the ________ while 80% is absorbed in the _______________. a. large intestine, small intestine. b. small intestine, large intestine. c. small intestine, stomach. d. stomach, large intestine. e. stomach, small intestine.

Correct Answer Reply: E. About 20% of ethanol enters the bloodstream through the stomach and 80% enters through the small intestines.

31. Which of the following provides the most accurate measure of BAC? a. Blood test.

b. Breathalyzer test. c. Urinalysis. d. Coordination test. e. Hematocrit.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Blood test.

32. A drug that primarily induces alterations in perception and mood is known as: a. a depressant. b. a hallucinogen. c. a stimulant. d. a narcotic. e. all of the above can cause this effect.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Hallucinogens are compounds that alter normal thought processes, perceptions, personal awareness, and psychological moods.

Narcotics are drugs that brings relief from pain and brings sleep. Stimulants are compounds that increase alertness and activity. Depressants are compounds that act to depress the functioning of the central nervous system, bringing about calmness and sleep. Steroids are compounds that promote muscle growth and repair, regulate metabolism and immune function, and control blood properties.

33. Which of the following terms is used to describe the dose of a drug required to kill 50% of a group of animals? a. LD50 b. LD1 c. ED50 d. 50-ED e. KD50 Correct Answer Reply: A. LD50.

34. Use the table that gives the LD50 values for selected chemicals. For a 70 Kg person, which of those chemicals listed below is the least toxic?

a. aspirin. b. morphine. c. cyanide. d. nicotine. e. Heroin.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The higher the LD50, the less toxic a compound is (more is needed to produce a 50% death effect in a population).

35. Morphine is type of: a. stimulant. b. depressant. c. hallucinogen. d. narcotic. e. steroid.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Narcotic (drugs that brings relief from pain and brings sleep).

36. Breadth testing is based upon Henry's Law. Henry's Law states that: a. when a volatile compound is dissolved in a liquid, there is a fixed ratio between the concentration of the compound in the air around the liquid and that in the liquid. b. when a volatile compound is dissolved in a liquid, there is a variable ratio between the concentration of the compound in the air around the liquid and that in the liquid. c. there is a relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas at a fixed temperature. d. the amount of alcohol in blood can be directly determined by measuring its infrared absorbance in the blood sample. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Henry‟s Law: when a volatile compound is dissolved in a liquid, there is a fixed ratio between the concentration of the compound in the air around the liquid and that in the liquid.

37. Cyanide (CN) is a: a. metabolic poison. b. corrosive poison. c. hallucinogen. d. stimulant. e. depressant.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Metabolic Poisons: Compounds that act by affecting the biochemical functioning of cells. Corrosive Poisons: Substances that physically destroy tissues upon direct contact and usually act immediately, such as strong acids and bases.

38. Most narcotics are: a. physically addicting. b. obtained from opium.

c. bring about sleep. d. pain relievers. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All of the above.

39. Which is not derived from opium? a. morphine. b. cocaine. c. heroin. d. codeine. e. norcodeine.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Cocaine.

40. Methamphetamine (an amphetamine drug) is a: a. depressant. b. hallucinogen. c. stimulant. d. tranquilizer. e. narcotic.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Stimulants are compounds that increase alertness and activity. Narcotics are drugs that brings relief from pain and brings sleep.

Depressants are compounds that act to depress the functioning of the central nervous system, bringing about calmness and sleep. Hallucinogens are compounds that alter normal thought processes, perceptions, personal awareness, and psychological moods. Steroids are compounds that promote muscle growth and repair, regulate metabolism and immune function, and control blood properties.

41. Which of the following, if blood is not available, can the medical examiner not use in order to determine the body's alcohol concentration to a reasonable degree of accuracy? a. urine. b. cerebrospinal fluid. c. vitreous humor. d. all of the above may be used. e. none of the above may be used.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Urine cannot be used to determine the concentration of alcohol in the body: it is good for detection of the presence but not how much since it depends upon your hydration state too much.

42. The percentage of alcohol absorbed through the stomach walls is approximately: a. 20%.

b. 40%. c. 60%. d. 80%. e. virtually all (100%).

Correct Answer Reply: A. About 20% of ethanol enters the bloodstream through the stomach and 80% enters through the small intestines.

43. A breath test reflects the alcohol concentration in the: a. aorta. b. left ventricle. c. brachiocephalic artery. d. pulmonary artery. e. superior vena cava.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Pulmonary artery (in lungs).

44. Upon entering the bloodstream, heroin is almost immediately metabolized into: a. morphine. b. procaine. c. opium. d. cocaine. e. codeine.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Morphine.

45. ELISA is a(n): a. immunoassay test. b. presumptive test. c. spectrophotometric test. d. metathesis test. e. crystallization test.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a test based upon the antibody-antigen response, making it an immunoassay technique.

46. Most drugs and metabolites are oxidized before removal and prior to elimination in the: a. the kidneys. b. the bile. c. the lungs. d. the liver. e. the perspiration, saliva, and tears.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The liver is response for most waste and purification processes in the body.

47. The LD50 dose of strychnine for a 50 kg person (LD50 for strychnine is 0.08 mg/Kg) is: a. 1 mg. b. 4 mg. c. 0.08 mg. d. 50 mg. e. 625 mg.

Correct Answer Reply: B. To determine this, multiply the LD50 for the compound times the weight of the person (in Kg).

48. Carbon monoxide (CO) is a metabolic poison because it: a. binds to the lung tissue preventing oxygen transfer. b. prevents enzyme function. c. displaces oxygen from hemoglobin. d. destroys blood cells. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Metabolic Poisons: Compounds that act by affecting the biochemical functioning of cells and tissues. CO binds to hemoglobin, reducing its biochemical activity to transport oxygen.

49. Cyanide (CN) is a metabolic poison because it: a. binds to the lung tissue preventing oxygen transfer. b. prevents enzyme function. c. displaces oxygen from hemoglobin. d. destroys blood cells. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Metabolic Poisons: Compounds that act by affecting the biochemical functioning of cells and tissues. Cyanide binds to enzymes in cells that are required to process oxygen in respiration, stopping its usual biochemical functioning.

50. Heroin is a chemical derivative of: a. Morphine. b. Barbituric acid. c. Codeine. d. Methadone. e. Amphetamine.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Morphine.

51. Which of the following is synthetically produced and does not occur naturally? a. Cocaine. b. Amphetamine. c. Morphine. d. Opium. e. Ethyl alcohol.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Amphetamine, all the others may be derived from natural products.

52. The fastest mode of absorption of a drug is found if the drug is: a. injected intravenously (IV). b. injected subcutaneously (SQ). c. smoked. d. nasallt introduced. e. inhaled.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Injected intravenously directly into the bloodstream is the fastest delivery mode.

53. Hydrochloric Acid (HCl) is a: a. metabolic poison. b. corrosive poison. c. hallucinogen. d. stimulant. e. depressant.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Corrosive Poisons: Substances that physically destroy tissues upon direct contact and usually act immediately, such as strong acids and bases. Metabolic Poisons: Compounds that act by affecting the biochemical functioning of cells and tissues.

54. Lead (Pb) is a: a. metabolic poison. b. corrosive poison. c. hallucinogen. d. stimulant. e. depressant.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Metabolic Poisons: Compounds that act by affecting the biochemical functioning of cells and tissues. Corrosive Poisons: Substances that physically destroy tissues upon direct contact and usually act immediately, such as strong acids and bases.

55. Alcohol is a: a. stimulant.

b. depressant. c. hallucinogen. d. narcotic. e. steroid.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Depressant (compounds that act to depress the functioning of the central nervous system, bringing about calmness and sleep).

56. Paracelsus (1493-1541), often called the father of modern toxicology, famously said “All things are poison and nothing without poison. Solely the determines that a thing is not a poison.” a. drug. b. toxcicity. c. dose. d. LD50. e. pharacokinetics.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 57. Using the LD50 table, the LD50 dose of lead for a 150 lb person (70Kg) would be approximately:

a. 20 mg. b. 140 mg. c. 700 mg. d. 1000 mg. e. 1400 mg.

Correct Answer Reply: E. The LD50 is calculated from the toxcicity times the weight (in Kg). So, for this example, the body weight (mass) is 70 Kg and the LD50 for lead is 20 mg/Kg) the LD50 would be 70 times 20 or 1400 mg.

58. Which of the following is a corrosive poison? a. cocaine. b. strychnine. c. marijuana. d. sulfuric acid. e. carbon monoxide.

Correct Answer Reply: D. All of the choices are metabolic poisons except sulfuric acid, a corrosive poison, which acts by the outright destruction of tissues.

59. Which field is primarily focused on the study of poisons? a. medicine. b. entomology. c. odontology. d. toxicology. e. anthropology.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Toxicology: The field that deals with the effects or poisons and their effects.

60. Which steps are often involved with finding new drugs by ethnopharmacology? a. Researching traditions of shamans and tribal healers. b. Isolating active ingredients and determining their structures ingredients. c. Determining if the effects are fact of fiction. d. Synthesis of compounds found to be therapeutically active (potentially new drugs). e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Ethnopharmacology: The exploration of traditional folk remedies for finding new drugs.

61. In the “Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention & Control Act of 1970”, which of the choices below is typically not a consideration when assigning a drug to a schedule? a. accepted medical uses. b. prevalence of use in society. c. potential for abuse. d. potential for dependence. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. How widely use a drug is in society is not taken into consideration when assigning a drug to a schedule. Instead, the drug is evaluated by its therapeutic usefulness and its potential for abuse and dependence.

62. The drugs Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone are example of which schedule of drugs a. Schedule I. b. Schedule II. c. Schedule III. d. Schedule IV. e. Schedule IV. Correct Answer Reply: A. All are currently schedule I drugs (Federal law may be diffrnt from state law).

63. Steroids are drugs that: a. bring relief from pain and bring sleep. b. alter normal thoughts, perceptions and moods. c. depress functions of central nervous system, cause calm and bring about sleep. d. increase alertness and activity. e. promote muscle growth.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Steroids: Compounds that promote muscle growth and repair, regulate metabolism and immune function, and control blood properties.

64. Most Ethyl Alcohol (CH3CH2OH) that is taken by mouth (oral ingestion) is oxidized by which organ? a. liver. b. kidneys. c. stomach. d. small intestines. e. large intestines.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 65. The ratio of alcohol in the blood to alcohol in air in the lungs (blood alcohol:air alcohol ratio) is approximately: a. 1:2100 b. 2100: 1 c. 1:1500 d. 1500:1 e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Henry’s Law: The physical principle that states that when a solution containing a dissolved volatile compound is brought into contact with a gas, a fixed equilibrium is setup between the amount of the volatile compound in the air and the amount dissolved in the liquid.

66. What type of alcoholic drink is produced by the fermentation of barley or another grain? a. Wine. b. Cider. c. Brandy. d. Ethanol. e. Beer.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Beer is usually produced from Barley steeped in water to make it germinate (called Malt) and boiled with hops to produce flavor and aroma. The resultant liquid (called Wort) is then fermented. Various

methods of production after the fermentation stage, produce the range of different beers we have today.

67. What is urine typically used for in a serological examination? a. Qualitative identification of drugs or toxins. b. Quantitative determination of drugs or toxins. c. Estimate post-mortem interval. d. Handling sexual assault cases. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Urine is principally used for the qualitative analysis of drugs and alcohol to determine is a certain drug had been consumed. There is very little cellular material in urine for DNA analysis.

68. What is the study of how a drug affects an organism? a. Pharmacokinetics. b. Serology. c. Odontology. d. Pharmacodynamics. e. Pharmaceuticals.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Pharmacodynamics is a subfield of toxicology that studies how a drug affect an organism.

69. What is the study of how the organism affects the drug? a. Pharmacokinetics. b. Serology. c. Odontology. d. Pharmacodynamics. e. Pharmaceuticals.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Pharmacokinetics is a subfield of toxicology that deals with how the organism affects the drug.

70. What is the difference between acute and chronic toxicity? a. Acute toxicity occurs over time while chronic toxicity has immediate effects. b. Acute toxicity exhibits symptoms while chronic toxicity does not. c. Acute toxicity has immediate effects while chronic toxicity occurs over time. d. Acute toxicity can be lethal but chronic toxicity is not. e. Acute toxicity cannot be medically treated but chronic toxicity can be treated.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Acute toxicity is when effects are immediate.

Chronic toxicity is when effects occur over an extended period of time 71. What is information that would NOT typically be found on a materials safety data sheet (MSDS) for a substance? a. Its LD50.

b. Its infrared vibrational frequencies. c. Its Safety and First Aid. d. Its physical properties and names. e. Its chemical hazards.

Correct Answer Reply: B. MSDS provide specific toxicological (including LD50), chemical, and physical data about a compound such as physical properties, chemical incompatibilities, and safe handling information. Vibrational frequencies are spectroscopic data that would not be found on an MSDS. 72. Potassium hydroxide (NaOH) is a: a. Metabolic poison. b. Corrosive poison. c. Narcotic. d. Hallucinogen. e. Stimulant.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Corrosive Poisons: Substances that physically destroy tissues upon direct contact and usually act immediately, such as strong acids and bases. Metabolic Poisons: Compounds that act by affecting the biochemical functioning of cells and tissues.

73. What is targeted drug discovery? a. Screening large libraries of similar compounds to see which have medical use. b. Discovery of drugs caused by unintended circumstances. c. Using traditional treatments to identify new drugs. d. Random selection of a drug treatment for use on rare diseases. e. A planned approach to develop new drugs based upon the known active parts of molecules.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Targeted drug delivery uses a planned approach to finding new drugs. Often, drugs only need to have correct functional groups to be active and the rest of the molecule can be manipulated chemically.

74. According to the Controlled Substances Act, drugs that have a high potential for abuse and severe psychological and physical dependence, but have a currently accepted medical use are listed in which schedule of the Act? a. Schedule I. b. Schedule II. c. Schedule III. d. Schedule IV. e. Schedule V. Correct Answer Reply: B. Schedule II: Schedule II drugs, substances, or chemicals are defined as drugs with a high potential for abuse, with use potentially leading to severe psychological or physical dependence. However, the

substance has a currently accepted medical use for treatment. These drugs are also considered dangerous.

75. Which of the following factors affects the rate of alcohol absorption (not metabolism) into the bloodstream (rate = amount of alcohol absorbed into the bloodstream in a given amount of time)? a. The rate at which the contents of the stomach are moved to the intestinal tract. b. The amount of food in the stomach. c. Physical exercise that tends to slow gastric emptying. d. The amount of alcohol consumed. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. A number of factors influence the rate of alcohol absorption into the bloodstream including gastric emptying, food and drugs, physical condition, and the amount of alcohol consumed.

76. In terms of field sobriety testing, what is horizontal gaze nystagmus? a. A test that requires a person to perform several simultaneous tasks. b. The ability to balance on one foot. c. A measurement of a person‟s blood alcohol level. d. The involuntary jerking of the eye when tracking an object. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The horizontal gaze nystagmus test is a test examines the involuntary jerking of the eye as a person looks from side to side.

77. What is the class of drugs that are specifically used to secretly reduce a person‟s inhibitions? a. Club drugs. b. Steroids. c. Narcotics. d. Alcohol. e. Hallucinogens.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Club drugs include several depressants, along with a few drugs from other classes and are specifically being used clandestinely to reduce a person‟s natural inhibitions and to bring about amnesia of what happened while under the influence of the drug. They include rohypnol, ketamine, and ecstasy.

78. Which of the following drugs is an example of a Schedule V drug? a. Marijuana. b. Oxycontin. c. Tylenol. d. Ketamine. e. Heroin.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Tylenol, along with some cough medicines and others, is considered a Schedule V drug.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Fourteen Questions 1. The chemical reaction associated with fire is: a. reduction. b. oxidation. c. precipitation. d. augmentation. e. metathesis.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Oxidation is the chemical reaction that can either transfer oxygen atoms to or remove electrons from another chemical compound.

2. Which is NOT a high explosive? a. black powder b. dynamite c. TNT d. RDX e. TATP Correct Answer Reply: A. Black powder is a low explosive is a compound that undergoes reactions that occur at rates well less than 1,000 m/sec. A high explosive is a compound that yields very rapid chemical reactions where the charge typically reacts at a speed greater than 1,000 m (1094 yards) per second.

3. Fireworks for celebrations are illustrations of: a. energy emission. b. energy absorption. c. energy adsorption. d. infrared spectroscopy. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Energy emission results in the visible light from the explosion.

4. Explosions involve the very rapid a. reduction b. deflagration c. oxidation d. elimination e. contraction

of a fuel substance.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Oxidation is the chemical reaction that can either transfer oxygen atoms to or remove electrons from another chemical compound.

5. A victim is found at the scene of a suspicious fire. Blood is drawn and blood carbon monoxide levels are tested. It is found that there is very little carbon monoxide present in the victim. This evidence suggests to the medical examiner that the victim: a. probably died before the fire started. b. probably died due to asphyxiation after the fire started. c. could have died at anytime, carbon monoxide does not offer the medical examiner any information.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Probably died before the fire started.

6. An explosive that can detonate upon friction, impact or heating is called a: a. primary explosive. b. low explosive. c. secondary explosive. d. high explosive. e. shock sensitive explosive.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Primary explosive: a compound that is sensitive to heat, flame, shock or friction and typically detonates quickly rather than burns.

Secondary explosive: an explosive compound that is relatively stable to heat or shock a requires more energy to be detonated, usually provided by a primary explosive.

7. Which one of the following is the best definition of a deflagration: a. a small explosion used to set off a main charge of explosive. b. A type of chemical explosion in which the speed of the of the explosive front moves slower than the speed of sound and is propagated mainly by a flame front rather than by a supersonic shock wave. c. A type of chemical explosion in which the speed of the of the explosive front moves faster than the speed of sound and is propagated mainly by supersonic pressure waves. d. the name given to any explosion that occurs in a condensed explosive. e. the type of explosion that results from secondary explosives.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Deflagration: a combustion reaction, often generated by a low explosive, that is propagated mainly by a subsonic flame front (low intensity pressure wave).

8. A secondary explosive, by definition, is: a. a deflagrating explosive. b. the main charge of an explosive device that must be set off by a small quantity of a primary explosive. c. the type of explosive used to set off the main charge of an explosive device.

d. a dispersed explosive. e. a low explosive.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Secondary explosive: an explosive compound that is relatively stable to heat or shock a requires more energy to be detonated, usually provided by a primary explosive. Primary explosive: a. compound that is sensitive to heat, flame, shock or friction and typically detonates quickly rather than burns.

9. Which of the following points of origin may strongly indicate arson? i. two or more distinct points of origin where fires started independently. ii. the fire started in the kitchen. iii. the fire started in the middle of the room, away from furniture and other items and then moved in a linear manner. a. Only (i) is correct. b. Only (i) is correct. c. Only (iii) is correct. d. Only (ii) and (iii) above are correct. e. All are correct.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Only (i) and (iii) above are correct. Fires starting in a kitchen zare not unusual.

10. Which of the following is not considered to be part of the fire triangle (or fire tetrahedron)? a. heat. b. oxygen (oxidizer). c. combustion. d. fuel. e. All are required.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Combustion is not part of the fire triangle.

11. A chemical transformation (reaction) in which heat energy is liberated is called a(n): a. mesothermic reaction. b. endothermic reaction. c. combustion reaction. d. exothermic reaction. e. free radical reaction.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Exothermic Reaction: a chemical reaction that liberates heat.

12. A main analytical technique used to analyze samples suspected of containing liquid fire accelerants is:

a. ultraviolet-visible spectroscopy. b. X-ray diffraction. c. gas chromatography. d. atomic absorption spectroscopy. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Gas chromatography.

13. The flammability limit of a compound/material is: a. the minimum temperature where a substance will spontaneously ignite without an external ignition. b. the lowest concentration of fuel/air mixtures beyond which combustion cannot be sustained. c. the point where a sustainable chain reaction may occur. d. the lowest temperature where a fuel will vaporize sufficiently to form an ignitable mixture with air. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Flammability limits: The upper and lower threshold limits of the air-fuel mixtures that re required for combustion to occur.

14. Telltale signs of arson include: a. separate points of origin. b. "streamers "connecting burned areas. c. trails of burn patterns. d. the presence of accelerant containers. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All of the above.

15. The chemical reaction of oxygen with a fuel, which produces a noticeable release of energy is called: a. the flash point. b. an explosion. c. liberation. d. ignition. e. combustion.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Combustion.

16. The minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel will produce enough vapor to burn is called the: a. ignition temperature. b. sublimation temperature. c. critical temperature. d. flash point.

e. flammable temperature.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Flash point: the lowest temperature at which a fuel will vaporize sufficiently to form an ignitable mixture with air that will combust when an ignition source is supplied.

17. Which instrumentation is considered the most sensitive and reliable for detecting and characterizing flammable residues? a. NMR b. IR c. GC d. TLC e. EMIT Correct Answer Reply: C. Gas chromatography (GC).

18. Combustion reactions, such as fire, are: a. endothermic. b. exothermic. c. neothermic. d. pseudothermic. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Exothermic Reaction: a chemical reaction that liberates heat.

19. Accelerant residues, such as gasoline and kerosene, are best characterized by: a. visible spectroscopy b. infrared spectroscopy c. nuclear magnetic resonance d. gas chromatography e. gel electrophoresis Correct Answer Reply: D. Gas chromatography (GC).

20. An example of a reaction typically identified as a combustion reaction is (equations not balanced): a. CH3CH2OH + O2 ------> CO2 +H2O b. Fe(s) + O2(g) ------> FeO c. CO2 + H2O(g) ------> H2CO3 d. H2 + FeO(s) ------> Fe(s) + H2O(l) e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The oxidation of ethanol is an oxidation reaction that can be part of combustion. Combustion: the rapid oxidation of a compound

where a fuel reacts with an oxidant to form new compounds from each element in the fuel combined with the oxidant, and the generation of heat and light.

21. Which of the answers below is the best definition of activation energy. a. the energy given off by the reaction (system). b. the energy required by the reaction (system). c. the energy necessary to initiate a reaction. d. the energy produced by a shock wave. e. the energy produced by an actively enlarging fire.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The energy necessary to initiate a reaction.

22. What is the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction? a. It aids in starting a chemical reaction but is not consumed in the course of the reaction. b. It aids in starting a chemical reaction and is consumed in the course of the reaction. c. It starts a chemical reaction by providing the activation energy. d. It starts a chemical reaction by providing the exothermic energy. e. It slows down a chemical reaction.

Correct Answer Reply: A. A catalyst provides the activation energy necessary to overcome the energetic barrier to a chemical reaction and is not consumed in the reaction.

23. What is meant by the autoignition temperature? a. the minimum temperature where a substance will spontaneously ignite without an external ignition source. b. the lowest concentration of fuel/air mixtures beyond which combustion cannot be sustained. c. point where a sustainable chain reaction may occur. d. the lowest temperature where a fuel will vaporize sufficiently to form an ignitable mixture with air. e. the lowest temperature at which a substance will ignite in a normal atmosphere.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Auto-ignition temperature (or kindling point): the minimum temperature at which a substance will spontaneously ignite without an external source of ignition.

24. How do nitroglycerine and black powder differ with respect to the source of its fuel and oxidant? a. Black powder contains both the oxidizer and fuel within one single compound while nitroglycerine requires a separate source of oxygen/oxidizer. b. Nitroglycerine contains both the oxidizer and fuel within one single compound while black powder requires a separate source of oxygen/oxidizer.

c. Nitroglycerine is a primary explosive while black powder is a secondary explosive. d. Black powder is a primary explosive while nitroglycerine is a secondary explosive. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Nitroglycerine contains both the oxidizer and fuel within one single compound while black powder requires a separate source of oxygen/oxidizer.

25. In what state of matter must a fuel be in order for it to oxidize in a fire? a. Solid phase. b. Liquid phase. c. Gas phase. d. Meta phase. e. heterogeneous phase.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The fuel in the gas phase is required for combustion (oxidation) in a fire.

26. What is an accelerant? a. A compound that lowers the activation energy of a chemical reaction. b. A chemical that undergoes an extremely rapid chemical reaction that releases both kinetic and thermal energy. c. A compound that reacts very quickly with the production of heat, light, and accompanied by the rapid outward expansion of gasses. d. A compound that facilitates the initiation and/or growth of a fire. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Accelerant: A compound that facilitates the initiation and/or growth of a fire.

27. True or False: The point of origin of a fire is usually found at the spot of deepest charring. a. True. b. False. c. Cannot tell.

Correct Answer Reply: B. False.

28. What is the best choice below for the legal definition of arson? a. The act of burning a building down. b. The criminal act of intentionally setting fire without lawful consent. c. The setting of unlawful explosions. d. None of the above. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Arson: the criminal act of intentionally setting fire without lawful consent.

29. If an arson investigator finds that there are no known natural or accidental causes for a fire, is this enough to prove arson in a court of law? a. Yes. b. No. c. Cannot be determined.

Correct Answer Reply: B. No, arson must be proved and is not the default if no other source is found (although it may be suspected).

30. What types of evidence collection containers are typically used for materials collected at the scene of a fire that is suspected as arson? a. paper bag. b. plastic bag (sealed). c. Metal, air-tight cans. d. cellophane envelopes. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Metal, air-tight cans are needed to trap any volatile accelerant gases that might be present in the sample 31. What is the very slow, low temperature burning of compounds without a visible flame usually called? a. Precipitation. b. Smoldering. c. Fire. d. Ember maturation. e. Initiating Explosive.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Smoldering is the slow, lower temperature combustion of compounds without a flame, often giving incomplete combustion products such as CO. 32. What is the loss of electrons in a chemical reaction called? a. Reduction. b. Oxidation. c. Exotherm. d. Precipitation. e. Single Replacement.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Oxidation is the chemical reaction that can either transfer oxygen atoms to or remove electrons from another chemical compound.

This reaction is associated with fire.

33. Which is NOT a requirement for combustion? a. Presence of a fuel. b. Enough heat to initiate and sustain the reaction. c. Enough oxygen to react with the fuel. d. Presence of a catalyst. e. All of these components are required Correct Answer Reply: D. Heat, fuel, and oxygen are the components of the fire triangle. A catalyst is not required for combustion although it may make it easier to initiate the reaction.

34. Which of the following is a low explosive? a. Smokeless powder. b. Mercury fulminate. c. TNT. d. RDX. e. C4.

Correct Answer Reply: A. A low explosive is a compound that undergoes reactions that occur at rates well less than 1,000 m/sec. A high explosive is a compound that yields very rapid chemical reactions where the charge typically reacts at a speed greater than 1,000 m (1094 yards) per second.

35. What is, by definition, an explosive charge that reacts at a relatively slow rate, often much less than 1000 m/sec? a. Primary explosive. b. High explosive. c. Low explosive. d. Secondary explosive. e. Deflagration.

Correct Answer Reply: C. A low explosive is a compound that undergoes reactions that occur at rates well less than 1,000 m/sec. A high explosive is a compound that yields very rapid chemical reactions where the charge typically reacts at a speed greater than 1,000 m (1094 yards) per second.

36. What type of explosive would you find in a blasting cap? a. Non-initiating explosive. b. Secondary explosive. c. Black powder. d. Deflagration powder. e. Primary explosive.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Primary (initiating) high explosives are sensitive to head, flame, shock, or friction and are often used in detonators like blasting caps.

They are not used as the main charge because of their sensitivity but detonate less sensitive non-initiating explosives.

37. Which is NOT a method of fire suppression? a. Cooling down the fire. b. Using carbon dioxide to remove oxygen from the fuel. c. Removal of a fuel source. d. Blowing air into the area containing the fire. e. Introducing a halogenated radical compound to stop the fire‟s chain reaction.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The addition of air will not suppress the fire because it introduces more oxygen available for combustion.

38. What variables do NOT affect the rate at which heat was released during the fire? a. Identity of the fuel (which fuel is used). b. Surface area of the fuel that is available for combustion. c. The moisture content of fuels. d. The arrangement/orientation of the burning materials. e. All of these factors affect heat release.

Correct Answer Reply: E. The rate at which heat is release during a fire is called the heat release rate. Variables that affect this value include size of area burning, identity of the fuel, moisture content of the fuels, surface area available, orientation of materials, and method of heat transfer.

39. What is forensic arson primarily concerned with? a. Solving missing person cases. b. Determining the cause of fires. c. Investigating cybercrimes. d. Analyzing fingerprints. e. Examining fraud records.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Determining the cause of fires.

40. What is the first step in a forensic fire investigation? a. Collecting witness statements. b. Gathering physical evidence. c. Examining financial records. d. Analyzing DNA samples e. Determining the cause of fires.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 41. Which type of evidence is crucial in determining whether a fire was intentionally set? a. Witness testimonies.

b. Fire department reports. c. Burn patterns and fire spread. d. Weather conditions. e. Insurance records.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Burn patterns and fire spread 42. What is a "fire point of origin" in a fire/arson investigation? a. The last location where the fire was active. b. The area where accelerants were most concentrated c. The place where the fire started. d. The point where firefighters gained control over the fire. e. The locations of “V” burn patterns.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The place where the fire started.

43. What is the role of a fire investigator in a criminal trial? a. Providing expert testimony on the identity of the suspect. b. Determining the sentence for the convicted arsonist. c. Presenting evidence related to the cause and origin of the fire. d. Representing the accused in court. e. Describing insurance records.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Presenting evidence related to the cause and origin of the fire.

44. What is the main purpose of documenting the entire fire scene before conducting an investigation? a. To create an accurate inventory of fire department equipment. b. To estimate the total financial losses caused by the fire. c. To ensure firefighters' safety during the investigation. d. To preserve the initial condition of the scene for analysis. e. To record witness testimony.

Correct Answer Reply: D. To preserve the initial condition of the scene for analysis

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Fifteen Questions 1. A chemical property of a pure substance: a. describes how that pure substance reacts with another substance. b. includes properties such as melting point, boiling point, and color. c. changes depending upon the history of the sample. d. includes none of the above. e. includes all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Chemical properties: Properties that can be measured only by attempting to change the chemical identity of the material itself through some sort of chemical transformation. Physical properties: Properties that can be measured without changing chemical identity of a material.

2. The order in which the bullets pierced the window below;

a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 1 c. 3, 1, 2 d. 2, 1, 3 e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. New cracks cannot pass through existing cracks so the process is to find radical cracks from each bullet and find whether they cross radial cracks from other bullets. If they cross, they came first.

3. A frontal view of a piece of broken glass is shown at right. Which number correctly determines a concentric fracture that has formed due to the impact?

a. 1 b. 2 c. neither represents a concentric fracture d. both represent concentric fractures Correct Answer Reply: B. Concentric cracks: Fractures in glass that form rings that approximately circle the point of impact. Radial cracks: Fractures in glass that extend or “radiate” outwards from the central point of impact, producing a branching???star-like pattern.

4. The refraction of light as it passes between two media is fundamentally caused by: a. the absorption of light by the medium. b. the bending of the light waves by the molecules of the medium. c. the different densities of the two media. d. the distribution of the wavelengths of light through the medium. e. the change in the speed of light as it enters the second medium.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Refractive Index: The ratio of the speed of light between two transparent substances (usually the air and another substance such as glass or plastic), calculated as velocity of light in vacuum (or air) divided by the velocity of light in the substance.

5. Students measured and recorded the density of 4 samples by creating the density column and the data table below. The density column that they used had three layers: corn syrup (density = 1.02 g/mL), water (density = 1.00 g/mL), and oil (density = 0.85 g/mL). Which of the samples will probably „sink‟ to the bottom of the corn syrup layer?

Sample Density (g/mL) A 1.02 B 0.96 C 1.15 D 0.82 a. A

b. B c. C d. D e. E Correct Answer Reply: C. Since it‟s density is greater than that of the corn syrup.

6. Which of these is a physical property? a. melting point. b. boiling point. c. color. d. density. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Chemical properties: Properties that can be measured only by attempting to change the chemical identity of the material itself through some sort of chemical transformation. Physical properties: Properties that can be measured without changing chemical identity of a material.

7. A piece of plastic is immersed in liquid “A” and suspends itself in the middle of the liquid layer. The same piece of plastic is immersed in liquid “B” and sinks to the bottom of the liquid. From these data, we can say that the density of the plastic sample is: a. greater than the density of liquid A but less than the density of liquid B. b. greater than the density of liquid B but less than the density of liquid A. c. about equal to the density of liquid A but greater than the density of liquid B. d. about equal to the density of liquid B but less than the density of liquid A. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. More dense materials will sink but will be suspended in layers of about the same density.

8. Which is NOT an intensive property of matter? a. Density. b. Refractive index. c. Weight. d. Temperature. e. Specific heat.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Intrinsic properties: Properties that are the same no matter how much material is present in the sample.

9. The refractive index of a substance varies with: a. its temperature. b. the wavelength of the light passing through it.

c. the color of the light passing through it. d. all of the above. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. All of the above.

10. Sublimation is defined as a change of state from: a. gas to liquid. b. liquid to solid. c. solid to liquid. d. solid to gas. e. liquid to gas.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Sublimation is the direct transition between the solid and gas phases.

11. Which physical state has definite volume but no specific shape: a. Gas. b. Liquid. c. Solid.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Liquid.

12. In physical evidence, individual evidence is: a. evidence that can be associated with a general group of materials. b. evidence that uniquely connects a sample with a standard from a known source. c. evidence that measures the physical properties of a substance. d. evidence that can be useful in classifying an organism found at the crime scene. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Individual evidence uniquely connects a sample with a standard from a known source.

13. When a shard of glass is in a liquid of the same density, it: a. floats. b. sinks. c. dissolves. d. is suspended in the middle. e. disappears.

Correct Answer Reply: D. More dense materials will sink but will be suspended in layers of about the same density.

14. Fractures in glass emanating outward from a hole are called: a. concentric fractures. b. radial fractures.

c. entrance fractures. d. exit fractures. e. beveled fractures.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Concentric cracks: Fractures in glass that form rings that approximately circle the point of impact. Radial cracks: Fractures in glass that extend or “radiate” outwards from the central point of impact, producing a branching, star-like pattern.

15. Which of the following best illustrates a physical property? a. The baking of a potato. b. The rusting of a piece of iron. c. The melting of ice. d. The burning of gasoline. e. None of the above illustrates a physical property.

Correct Answer Reply: C. No chemical change occurs in melting. Chemical properties: Properties that can be measured only by attempting to change the chemical identity of the material itself through some sort of chemical transformation. Physical properties: Properties that can be measured without changing chemical identity of a material.

16. Which of the following is a true statement about refractive index? a. Refractive index measures how light is reflected from an object. b. Refractive index is used to measure and classify opaque objects. c. Refractive index is always the same no matter which surface of a transparent solid is measured. d. Refractive index relates to the speed of light in air compared with the speed in the object. e. all of the above are true.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Refractive Index: The ratio of the speed of light between two transparent substances (usually the air and another substance such as glass or plastic), calculated as velocity of light in vacuum (or air) divided by the velocity of light in the substance.

17. The picture is meant to illustrate:

a. refraction. b. diffraction.

c. reflection. d. absorption. e. dispersion.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Refraction: the change in speed of light between two transparent substances (usually the air and another substance such as glass or plastic).

18. Which of the following is false about glass? a. Glass is typically made of mostly silicon dioxide. b. Glass is amorphous. c. Glass cannot provide individual characteristics. d. Glass can give class characteristics. e. All of the above are true.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All of the above are true.

19. Laminated glass is: a. glass made by sandwiching a piece of plastic between two pieces of glass. b. glass that is stressed by rapid heating and cooling during manufacture. c. glass in which boron oxide is added during manufacture. d. glass made simply of soda-lime, sand, and a metal oxides. e. glass formed by rolling between large drums.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Laminated glass: A form of safety glass where a piece of clear plastic or resin is sandwiched or “laminated” between two pieces of glass.

20. Pyrex or heat resistant glass is: a. glass made by sandwiching a piece of plastic between two pieces of glass. b. glass that is stressed by rapid heating and cooling during manufacture. c. glass in which boron oxide is added during manufacture. d. glass made simply of soda-lime, sand, and a metal oxides. e. glass formed by rolling between large drums.

Correct Answer Reply: C. glass in which boron oxide is added during manufacture.

21. Tempered glass: a. glass made by sandwiching a piece of plastic between two pieces of glass. b. glass that is stressed by rapid heating and cooling during manufacture. c. glass in which boron oxide is added during manufacture. d. glass made simply of soda-lime, sand, and a metal oxides. e. glass formed by rolling between large drums.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Tempered glass: Glass that has been either heated or chemically treated to change the stresses within the glass to make it safer upon breaking.

22. Patterned glass is: a. glass made by sandwiching a piece of plastic between two pieces of glass. b. glass that is stressed by rapid heating and cooling during manufacture. c. glass in which boron oxide is added during manufacture. d. glass made simply of soda-lime, sand, and a metal oxides. e. glass formed by rolling between large drums.

Correct Answer Reply: E. glass formed by rolling between large drums, imprinting pattern on the glass.

23. If the laboratory can piece together broken glass from a particular window or a single headlight, then the evidence has ________ characteristics. a. identification b. comparative c. individual d. class e. cannot determine from the information given Correct Answer Reply: C. Individual characteristics.

24. Which of the following is not a physical property of a substance? a. boiling point b. color c. melting point d. weight e. oxidation Correct Answer Reply: E. Chemical properties: Properties that can be measured only by attempting to change the chemical identity of the material itself through some sort of chemical transformation. Physical properties: Properties that can be measured without changing chemical identity of a material.

25. Which plastic has the highest density? a. HDPE b. foam polystyrene c. highly branched polyethylene d. LDPE e. LD polypropylene Correct Answer Reply: A. HDPE is High Density PolyEthylene

26. Floatation is a method used by scientists to determine the glass. a. mass. b. density. c. refractive index. d. weight. e. color.

of a particle of

Correct Answer Reply: B. Density.

27. In a glass fracture, a fracture always terminates at an existing line of fracture. a. True. b. False. c. Cannot be determined.

Correct Answer Reply: A. True.

28. Glass is composed primarily of which two elements? a. O and C. b. O and B. c. Si and O. d. Si and C. e. C and Ca. Correct Answer Reply: C. Glass is primarily Si and O. 29. In the picture of a Radial fracture of a piece of glass (shown looking at the edge of the broken glass), from what direction did the force come that broke the glass?

a. top. b. bottom. c. left side. d. right side. e. cannot tell from the information provided.

Correct Answer Reply: A. for radial fractures, the force comes from the rear side relative to the side that the ribs make a right angle, in this case the right angle is on the bottom of the picture meaning the force must come from the top.

30. Which of the following is not a typical component of paint: a. pigment. b. medium. c. diluent liquid.

d. inorganic filler. e. none are components of paint.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The inorganic filler is typically not a basic component of paint.

31. Which is not part of the composition of paint in general? a. solvent. b. adhesive. c. pigment. d. binder. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. An adhesive is typically not a basic component of paint.

32. If the sample of glass, shown side-on in the picture at right, is from a radial fracture then the force that made the fracture must have come from the:

a. top (blue arrow). b. bottom (red arrow). c. right side. d. left side. e. cannot be determined.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 33. Which of the following is possible evidence of a grave site? a. Disturbed plant roots. b. Changes in the stratigraphic pattern. c. New plant growth. d. Soil upcast on the surface. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. These are all things a forensic geologist may look for when considering evidence of a grave site.

34. Physical properties of a substance: a. measure how a substance reacts in a chemical reaction. b. measure the way a substance changes.

c. change if the amount of material in the sample changes. d. can be measured without changing the substance. e. are the same no matter how much of the material in the sample.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Physical properties: properties that can be measured without changing chemical identity of a material. Chemical properties: properties that can be measured only by attempting to change the chemical identity of the material itself through some sort of chemical transformation.

35. Which of the following is an extrinsic property? a. Density. b. Mass. c. Temperature. d. Boiling Point. e. Refractive Index.

Correct Answer Reply: B. An extrinsic property is one that changes if the amount of material in a sample changes.

36. What describes the resistance of a liquid to flow? a. Buoyancy. b. Density. c. Refractive index. d. Thickness. e. Viscosity.

Correct Answer Reply: E. Viscosity is the resistance of a liquid to flow.

37. What is the Becke line used to measure? a. Refractive index. b. Density. c. Diffusion. d. Viscosity. e. Reflection.

Correct Answer Reply: A. The Becke line is optical phenomenon used in measuring the refractive index of an object.

38. What is the application of earth sciences to legal matters? a. Forensic entomology. b. Forensic ecology. c. Forensic geology. d. Forensic anthropology. e. Forensic odontology.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Forensic geology is the scientific application of Earth sciences to legal matters.

39. What items might a forensic geologist examine? a. Soil samples. b. Mineral samples. c. Fossils. d. Rock samples. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. A forensic geologist is responsible for identifying, analyzing, and comparing earth materials, such as soil, rocks, minerals, and fossils found on or in a receptor to possible source areas.

40. Light from the air enters a block of glass, which has a higher refractive index than the air, with an incident angle of 45 degrees. What would be the refractive angle of the light? a. 150 degrees. b. 90 degrees. c. 95 degrees. d. 105 degrees. e. 75 degrees.

Correct Answer Reply: D. When light enters an object with a higher refractive index, it will bend towards the surface normal, causing the refractive angle to be lower than the incident angle 41. What type of color mixing occurs when pigments are mixed together resulting in a color from white light being absorbed? a. Additive color mixing. b. Subtractive color mixing. c. Blending. d. Layered color mixing. e. Reversed chromatography.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Subtractive color mixing occurs when mixing pigments together and arises from one color being removed from white light through absorption by the pigment.

42. Which type of glass is commonly used in automobile windshields due to its safety features? a. Tempered glass. b. Laminated glass. c. Soda-lime glass. d. Borosilicate glass. e. Pyrex glass.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Laminated glass.

43. Which type of glass is less likely to leave glass fragments on clothing or surfaces upon breaking? a. Tempered glass. b. Annealed glass. c. Laminated glass. d. Float glass. e. Blown glass.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Laminated glass.

44. What is the primary component of glass? a. Silicon dioxide. b. Aluminum dioxide. c. Calcium carbonate. d. Sodium chloride. e. sodium dioxide.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Silicon dioxide.

45. What is forensic soil analysis primarily used for? a. Identifying plant species. b. Determining soil fertility. c. Linking a suspect to a crime scene. d. Analyzing geological formations. e. finding human remains.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Linking a suspect to a crime scene.

46. Soil transferred between a crime scene and a suspect's clothing is an example of what kind of evidence? a. Trace evidence. b. Circumstantial evidence. c. Direct evidence. d. Hearsay evidence. e. Individual evidence Correct Answer Reply: A.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Sixteen Questions 1. This question relates to the information that can be obtained by the examination of spent cartridge cases and projectiles found at the scene of a shooting incident. Which of the following are individual characteristics that help to establish the probable gun(s) involved in the incident (note: what helps to link the gun to the projectile and what does not)? a. The pattern of minute parallel striations made by a particular rifling on bullet(s) recovered from the scene. b. The twist direction of any rifling marks found on bullet(s) recovered from the scene. c. The caliber of the spent cartridge case(s). d. The relative positions of extractor and ejector marks on the spent cartridge case(s). e. All of the above are class characteristics.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Answers B and C refer to class characteristics.

2. This question relates to the information that can be obtained by the examination of spent cartridge cases and projectiles found at the scene of a shooting incident. Which of the following are class characteristics that have the potential to help establish the identity of the particular gun(s) involved in the shooting? a. The relative positions of extractor and ejector marks on the spent cartridge case(s). b. The caliber of the spent cartridge case(s). c. The manufacturer of the spent cartridge case(s). d. The twist direction of any rifling marks found on bullet(s) recovered from the scene. e. All of the above are class characteristics.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 3. Which one of the following is often used to analyze gunshot residues (GSR)? a. Density measurements. b. Scanning electron microscopy. c. Neutron activation analysis. d. Refractive index measurements. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B.

4. In a forensic firearm investigation, rifling is _____: a. A series of straight, smooth channels in the barrel of any non-shotgun type of firearm. b. A series of checkerboard patterns found only in shotgun-type firearms. c. A series of straight indentations found only in rifles but not in handguns or shotguns. d. A pattern of minute parallel striations made by a particular barrel of the firearm. e. A series of grooves that form a spiral shape in the barrel of non-shotgun types of firearm.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 5. What are the striations that are found on a fired bullet? a. The serial number that is micro-etched onto the head of the bullet. b. The marks found on a bullet before it is fired from a gun. c. A series of markings made on a bullet as it passes through the rifling and out the barrel from imperfections found in the barrel of a gun. d. A thumbprint that has been located on a shell casing through a forensic examination. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 6. What is typically the main purpose of a forensic firearm examination? a. To recover a weapon for the original owner of a firearm after it has been stolen. b. To study which gunpowder is best suited for each particular firearm. c. To determine how many guns of a specific caliber are used to commit crimes. d. To examine the characteristics of a firearm it to link specific projectiles to one firearm. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 7. The feature of a rifle that includes the surfaces of the original bore in the barrel of the firearm remaining between the groves is/are: a. Lands. b. Calipers. c. Groves. d. Calibers. e. Striations.

Correct Answer Reply: A. When rifling is made in a barrel, the grooves are cut into the walls of the barrel. The remaining original bore surfaces, those not cut in the rifling process, are the lands.

8. The diameter of the gun barrel, often measured between opposite lands, is referred to as the firearm‟s: a. Land ratio. b. Caliper. c. Groove. d. Caliber. e. Striation.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 9. Which of the following is NOT expected to show any evidential striations or impressions? a. a fired bullet from a handgun. b. a cartridge casing fired from a handgun. c. a cartridge casing fired from a shotgun. d. a shotgun pellet. e. All of the above will show markings.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 10. The term ballistics refers to: a. The process of firing a projectile from a firearm. b. The result of when a projectile hits a target. c. The mechanism used to expel a projectile from a firearm. d. The science of the travel of a projectile in flight. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 11. The ideal bullet shape for maximum accuracy is: a. A sphere. b. An ellipse (“egg” shaped”). c. A thin needle. d. A rod-shape. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 12. The main evidence in the Sacco and Venzetti case involved: a. Fiber analysis. b. Questioned document analysis. c. Impression evidence. d. Firearm evidence. e. Forensic psychology assessment.

Correct Answer Reply: D.

13. The most important tool available to the firearm examiner in the identification of firearms is: a. a digitizing videocamera. b. the comparison microscope. c. a laser illumination instrument. d. a mylar film and a high-voltage electrode. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 14. Relative to a rifled firearm, shotguns have: a. equal number of grooves and lands. b. no characteristic markings since the barrel is smooth. c. more groove than land markings. d. more lands than groove markings. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 15. Tool marks are most often encountered at which type of crime scene? a. sexual assault. b. homicide. c. arson. d. burglary. e. document forgery.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 16. The best way to preserve shoe and tire marks that have been impressed into soft earth is: a. using a high-voltage electrode. b. rough sketch and finished sketch. c. photography and casting. d. using an electrostatic lifting device. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 17. In the examination of tool mark impressions, individuality of a tool can be ascertained by: a. patterns of stains from oil and other maintenance activities. b. patterns of grooves and lands resulting from the machining process. c. patterns of hills and valley imperfections. d. patterns of striations and scratches created by the manufacturer of the tool. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 18. One method for identifying a shooter at a crime scene is centered on: a. forensic profiling of the potential shooter. b. the observation of gunpowder residue at the crime scene. c. the detection of residue deposited on the hands of the shooter at the time of firing. d. the electron microscopic examination of powder residue on the victim‟s clothing. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 19. Firearm identification to find the weapon that actually fired a specific round as a crime scene often uses the following features except (note: which evidence do you think helps to link the gun to the projectile and what does not): a. size and shape of the bullet/casing. b. rifling matching. c. striation matching on the bullets. d. serial numbers. e. identification of the specific manufacturer of the ammunition used.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 20. Personal injury from bullets typically arise from: a. laceration. b. crushing. c. cavitation. d. shock waves. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 21. Once a stamped serial number has been filed off of a handgun, is cannot be recovered: a. true. b. false. c. cannot be determined.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 22. In the Saco and Vanzetti case, one of the key types of evidence was: a. the identification of a unique “mixture” of different manufacturers of the ammunition found both at the crime scene and in Saco‟s possession. b. fingerprints that were found on the weapon matched Saco‟s fingerprints.

c. gunshot residue was found on Saco‟s hands after his arrest. d. document analysis showed that Saco had purchased the crime weapon. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 23. Which if the following is typically not considered to be impression evidence: a. footprints. b. bitemarks. c. scratch marks from a burglary entry. d. tire track marks. e. all of these are impression evidence.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 24. In the Ted Bundy serial homicide case, which type of impression evidence was important in his conviction? a. footprints. b. bitemarks. c. scratch marks from a burglary entry. d. tire track marks. e. fingerprints.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 25. What is the function of a percussion cap? a. it provides the charge to expel the projectile down the barrel of the weapon. b. it generates a shock wave that travels after the weapon is fired. c. it combines primer, the main charge and the bullet all enclosed in a single casing. d. when struck, it ignites and sets off the main charge of the ammunition. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 26. What information might be uniquely determined from the depth of the heel and toe imprints of a footprint found at a crime scene (specifically, what new information can be obtained that is usually not gotten from other features of the footprint)? a. the direction of travel. b. the size and make of the footwear. c. the speed that the person is walking/running. d. the height of the individual. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. While it might be possible to determine direction of travel and information about the size/make of a person‟s footwear from toe/heel

marks, only the depth of toe/heel marks can provide information about whether a person is running or walking.

27. What is the difference between a bullet and a cartridge? a. The bullet is a projectile and is a component of the cartridge. b. The bullet is a projectile, and the cartridge is the size of the bullet. c. The cartridge is a metal casing that is a component of the bullet. d. The bullet is a round of ammunition that is contained by a cartridge. e. There is no difference.

Correct Answer Reply: A. A bullet is a projectile fired from a firearm and a cartridge is a round of ammunition that consists of a metal cartridge case, a primer, powder, and the bullet.

28. What is considered to be the first simple version of a firearm? a. Handguns. b. Chinese hand-cannons. c. Percussion cap revolvers. d. Rifles. e. Shotguns.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Hand cannons are considered to be the first primitive firearms. They worked simply by placing gun powder at the closed end of a tube, tamping projectiles, such as stones or metal shrapnel, into the tube and igniting the gunpowder through a small hole above the powder.

29. Which of the following are individual characteristics that may be found on a spent cartridge case that may help to establish the probable gun(s) involvement (note: which helps to link the gun to the projectile and what does not)? a. Impressions left by the breech block. b. Impressions left by the firing pin. c. Microscopic marks left by the extractor or ejector. d. Microscopic striations left by imperfections in the chamber of the firearm. e. All of the above are individual characteristics.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All of these are correct. Firing pin impressions are left when the firing pin strikes the primer. Breech face impressions are left when the cartridge is propelled backwards into eh breech block. Extractor or ejectors marks are found when the case is taken out of the firearm after being fired.

Chamber or case wall marks are made when the cartridge case is inserted or extracted from the chamber of the firearm.

30. What does gunshot residue generally consist of? a. Gases from the muzzle of the firearm. b. The fragments of the bullet after striking a target. c. Unreacted powder and solid combustion byproducts.

d. Striated marks left on the bullet or cartridge case. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Gunshot residue of unreacted explosive material and solid combustion byproducts that are discharged from openings in the gun into the nearby environment upon firing.

31. How are sample bullets most commonly obtained for comparison? a. Firing into a sand barrel. b. Being pushed through the barrel of the firearm. c. Firing into ballistic gel. d. Firing into a water tank. e. Firing into a Kevlar pad.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Sample bullets are obtained by firing a similar projectile from the suspect gun into a water or cotton-filled tank.

32. What is the scientific definition of a firearm? a. An assembly consisting of a slide and a frame that propels ammunition using heat created from combustion. b. An assembly consisting of a barrel and a mechanical action from which a projectile is propelled by the products of combustion. c. An assembly of a frame that propels bullets through a series of small explosions. d. An assembly consisting of a barrel and a fire control components that propels a cartridge through combustion. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. A firearm is an assembly consisting of a barrel and a mechanical action that allows a projectile(s) to be propelled forward through the action of an extremely fast combustion reaction.

33. What is internal ballistics? a. The study of the bullet‟s path when it hits the target. b. The study of what happens to a bullet inside a human target. c. The part of a bullet‟s path that occurs in the barrel of the firearm. d. The part of a bullet‟s path between the firearm and the target. e. The spiral groove inside a firearm barrel that cause a bullet to spin.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Internal ballistics is the consideration of the part of a bullet‟s path that occurs within the firearm itself.

34. What is external ballistics? a. The study of a bullet‟s path when it hits the target. b. The study of what happens to a bullet inside a human target. c. The part of a bullet‟s path that occurs in the barrel of the firearm.

d. The part of a bullet‟s path between the firearm and the target. e. The spiral groove inside a firearm barrel that cause a bullet to spin.

Correct Answer Reply: D. External ballistics the study of the flight of the bullet from the time it leaves the end of the weapon‟s barrel until it reaches the target.

35. What feature allows for serial number restoration? a. The serial number is cut very deeply using a sharp tool. b. A different type of metal is used to make the numbers. c. The dyes in a serial number are permanent. d. Metal that has been deeply stressed by pressure from stamping. e. Serial number restoration is not possible.

Correct Answer Reply: D. The stamping of a serial number produces a great deal of pressure in the metal. When this happens, the crystal structure of the metal underneath the stamped numbers is deeply stressed by the stamping process. Removing the outermost layer of metal through scratching or grinding fortunately cannot change the deep modification of the metal‟s structure that happens during stamping.

36. Which law enforcement database relates to firearms examination? a. ELISA. b. SABIS. c. AFTE. d. CODIS. e. NIBIN. Correct Answer Reply: E. NIBIN is the National Integrated Ballistic Information Network. ELISA is an immunoassay technique, SABIS is for latent prints, CODIS is for DNA. AFTE is the Association of Firearm and Tool Mark Examiners which is the professional organization for the field.

37. What is the main difference that is used to distinguish between a revolver and a pistol? a. A revolver has a rotating cylinder that contains rounds of ammunition. b. A revolver has a magazine that feeds the chamber. c. A revolver is meant to be shot from the shoulder with two hands. d. A revolver is generally meant to shoot small pellets (shot) instead of a single projectile. e. A revolver is loaded from the muzzle and uses flint for ignition.

Correct Answer Reply: A. A revolver is a firearm in which ammunition is moved into place for firing by means of rotating a cylinder that contains a number of separate firing chambers loaded with filled cartridges 38. What is the primary function of a firearm's firing pin?

a. To hold the bullet in place. b. To ignite the primer. c. To control recoil. d. To stabilize the bullet. e. to extract the spent cartridge.

Correct Answer Reply: B. To ignite the primer.

39. What is the term for the distinctive pattern of lands and grooves inside a firearm barrel? a. Firing pin impressions. b. Rifling. c. Chambering. d. Bore lining. e. Striations.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Rifling.

40. What does the term "caliber" refer to in relation to firearms? a. The length of the firearm. b. The size of the bullet's casing. c. The diameter of the bullet's barrel. d. The type of propellant used. e. the length of the firearm‟s barrel.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 41. Of the choices below, what type of evidence is commonly studied to determine the distance between a firearm and a target when a shot was fired? a. Powder residue. b. Firing pin impressions. c. Bullet weight. d. Primer composition. e. Bullet striations.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Powder residue.

42. What is the term for the markings left on a bullet's surface as it passes through a firearm's barrel? a. Striations. b. Impressions. c. Riflings. d. Scuffs. e. Grooves.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Striations.

43. In a fully automatic weapon, by pulling and holding down the trigger, the weapon: a. Fires one shot. b. Fires two shots. c. Fires continuously. d. The weapon reloads. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 44. What is the primary goal of impression evidence analysis in forensic science? a. Identifying the manufacturer of the tool. b. Linking a specific weapon to the crime. c. Establishing a time of death. d. Determining the presence of drugs. e. Identifying the type of powder used.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Linking a specific weapon to the crime.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Seventeen Questions 1. Which of the following statements is not true? a. The influence of alcohol or drugs may cause variation in an individual's handwriting. b. The handwriting of an individual is unaffected by advancing years. c. An individual's handwriting may show variation as a result of stress or illness. d. The handwriting of an individual shows natural variation. e. All of the above are true.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 2. Which of the following methods used in the analysis of ink may be described as “destructive?” a. Infrared microscopy. b. GC-MS. c. Using an electrostatic detection apparatus. d. Comparison microscopy. e. None of the above are destructive.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 3. The electrostatic detection apparatus (ESDA) in questioned document analysis is typically used: a. To visualize indented writing. b. To verify whether a signature is a forgery. c. To date inks. d. To examine watermarks. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 4. An exemplar is: a. A series of handwriting guidelines. b. A handwriting sample from a known person. c. A handwriting comparison. d. A handwriting sample from a questioned document. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B.

5. Which of the following terms describes when no attempt is made to disguise handwriting or a signature, but the writing is just written in the forgers own handwriting. a. Forged. b. Simulated. c. Traced. d. Intentional forgery. e. Fictitious.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 6. __________ are accomplished by adding content with similar ink or print to change the original context of writing in a questioned document. a. Obliterations. b. Alterations. c. Prints. d. Adjustments. e. Redeterminants.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 7. Which field of forensic science deals with the examination of documents for authenticity and genuineness? a. Forensic anthropology. b. Forensic psychology. c. Forensic questioned documents. d. Forensic entomology. e. Forensic graphology.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Forensic questioned documents.

8. The examination of ink, paper, printing methods, and other physical attributes of documents is known as: a. Inkography. b. Paperology. c. Forensic graphology. d. Document analysis. e. Chemical analysis.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Document analysis.

9. Which type of forgery involves copying a genuine signature or handwriting using a transparent overlay? a. Simulated forgery. b. Blind forgery. c. Traced forgery.

d. Cut-and-paste forgery. e. Freehand forgery.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Traced forgery.

10. Which characteristic of handwriting refers to the flow and rhythm of the writing? a. Slant. b. Pressure. c. Speed. d. Fluency. e. Slope.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Fluency.

11. A questioned document examiner may use chromatography to analyze: a. Ink composition. b. Paper weight. c. Signature size. d. Paper watermark. e. Paper manufacturer.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Ink composition.

12. Which type of forgery attempts to imitate the general appearance of a signature or handwriting? a. Simulated forgery. b. Blind forgery. c. Traced forgery. d. Cut-and-paste forgery. e. Freehand fogery.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Simulated forgery.

13. Which of the following is the least likely purpose of forensic handwriting analysis? a. Identifying the author of a document. b. Determining the emotional state of the author. c. Detecting forgery. d. Establishing the authenticity of a document. e. Establishing the authenticity of a signature.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Determining the emotional state of the author.

14. What is forensic linguistics? a. The study of ancient languages. b. The study of languages used in courtrooms. c. The study of language in criminal investigations.

d. The study of linguistic evolution. e. The study of word origins and use.

Correct Answer Reply: C. The study of language in criminal investigations.

15. Which of the following is a technique used in forensic linguistics? a. Sentence structure analysis. b. Handwriting analysis. c. Voice identification through acoustics (voice print). d. Social media sentiment analysis. e. Accent identification.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Voice identification through acoustics.

16. What term is used to describe the deliberate alteration of a photograph with the intent to deceive or mislead? a. Photomanipulation. b. Photoalteration. c. Image Forgery. d. Pixelation. e. Photoshoped image.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 17. What is the process of determining whether a photograph is an original unaltered capture or a reproduction of an existing image? a. Image Verification. b. Photo Verification. c. Forensic Authentication. d. Photographic Analysis. e. Obliteration.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Forensic Authentication.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Eighteen Questions 1. Which of the following is NOT a primary goal of forensic engineering? a. Preventing future failures. b. Identifying responsible parties. c. Maximizing profits for companies. d. Ensuring public safety. e. Reporting to the court when necessary.

Correct Answer Reply:C. 2. Which type of engineering is often involved in forensic investigations of transportation accidents? a. Civil engineering. b. Biomedical engineering. c. Electrical engineering. d. Chemical engineering. e. Aerospace engineering.

Correct Answer Reply:A. 3. What is the main focus of forensic structural engineering? a. Analyzing cybercrimes related to structures. b. Investigating structural failures and collapses. c. Studying the psychological aspects of building design. d. Developing new construction materials. e. collecting eye witness testimony.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 4. The term "chain of custody" in forensic engineering refers to: a. The sequence of events leading to a failure. b. The legal documentation process for preserving the integrity of the evidence. c. The process of analyzing witness testimonies. d. The chronological order of engineering principles. e. The collection of evidence at the crime scene.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 5. Which of the following is an example of a human error contributing to a forensic engineering case?

a. Natural disaster. b. Material fatigue. c. Design flaw. d. Lightning strike. e. Earthquake damage.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 6. What is the main goal of a failure reconstruction in forensic engineering? a. Identifying potential witnesses. b. Recreating the sequence of events and reasons for the failure. c. Assigning legal blame. d. Developing new engineering standards. e. Studying the psychological aspects of building design.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 7. The concept of "foreseeable misuse" is often considered in which phase of forensic engineering? a. Analysis. b. Documentation. c. Reconstruction. d. Design. e. Construction.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 8. What is a "black box" in the context of forensic investigation of transportation accidents? a. A device used to analyze forensic evidence. b. A secretive engineering technique. c. A recorder that captures relevant data from vehicles. d. A tool for gathering witness testimonies. e. A GPS unit.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 9. What is the primary purpose of conducting a failure analysis in forensic engineering? a. Assigning blame to individuals. b. Identifying the sequence of events. c. Understanding the mechanisms of failure. d. Preventing future incidents. e. Studying the psychological aspects of building design.

Correct Answer Reply: C.

10. The process of recreating the events leading to a failure is called: a. Analysis. b. Reconstruction. c. Documentation. d. Preservation. e. Construction.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 11. What is phishing? a. Extracting data from a physical device. b. Intercepting wireless communications. c. Sending malicious emails to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information. d. Deleting files from a computer. e. Injecting malware into someone‟s hard drive.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Sending malicious emails to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information.

12. What does "IoT" stand for in cybersecurity? a. Internet of Things. b. Input/Output Terminal. c. Integrated Operating Technology. d. Information Over Technology. e. Information On Time.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Internet of Things.

13. What is the primary purpose of an antivirus program? a. To encrypt data on a device. b. To block internet access. c. To prevent physical theft. d. To detect and remove malicious software. e. To intercept unwanted communications.

Correct Answer Reply: D. To detect and remove malicious software.

14. What type of attack involves a malicious fraud in order to steal personal data? a. Phishing. b. Ransomware. c. DDoS d. Insider threat. e. IoT. Correct Answer Reply: A. Phishing.

15. Which cybersecurity practice involves analyzing and managing potential risks to information assets? a. Cryptography. b. Risk assessment. c. Intrusion detection. d. Port scanning. e. Phishing.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Risk assessment 16. Which type of building load results from temperature-induced expansion and contraction? a. Thermal load. b. Wind load. c. Seismic load. d. Live load. e. Exothermic load.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 17. What is the purpose of a penetration test? a. To physically break into a building/ b. To test the strength of passwords. c. To identify vulnerabilities in a system. d. To monitor network traffic. e. To purposefully destroy a hard drive.

Correct Answer Reply: C. To identify vulnerabilities in a system.

18. Which type of malware spreads by attaching itself to other files or programs? a. Trojan horse. b. Spyware. c. Rootkit. d. Virus. e. Worm.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Virus.

19. What is social engineering in the context of cybersecurity? a. Creating strong passwords. b. Manipulating people into revealing confidential information. c. Hacking social media accounts. d. Encrypting email communications. e. Gaining unauthorized access to a person‟s computer.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Manipulating people into revealing confidential information.

20. What is the primary purpose of encryption in cybersecurity? a. To prevent physical theft. b. To hide a computer's IP address c. To secure sensitive data from unauthorized access. d. To optimize network performance. e. To prevent phishing.

Correct Answer Reply: C. To secure sensitive data from unauthorized access 21. The force exerted by soil and retained fluids against a structure is known as: a. Wind load. b. Seismic load. c. Soil load. d. Hydrostatic load. e. Thermal load.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Hydrostatic load.

22. What is computer forensics primarily concerned with? a. Repairing computers. b. Investigating cybercrimes. c. Developing software. d. Networking solutions. e. Detecting phishing.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Investigating cybercrimes.

23. Which type of data is often targeted in computer forensics investigations? a. Temporary files. b. Personal emails. c. System logs. d. Unwanted software. e. RAM files.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 24. What is the first step in the computer forensics process? a. Collecting evidence. b. Analyzing evidence. c. Reporting findings. d. Obtaining a warrant. e. Copying the hard drive.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Obtaining a warrant.

25. What does RAM stand for in the context of computer forensics? a. Read-Only Memory. b. Random Access Memory. c. Real-Time Analysis Module. d. Remote Access Manager. e. Readable Access Memory.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 26. What does "volatile data" refer to in computer forensics? a. Data that is stored in encrypted format. b. Data that is temporarily stored in memory. c. Data that is archived for long-term storage. d. Data that is shared over a network. e. Data that is stored in the cloud.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Data that is temporarily stored in memory.

27. What is the purpose of capturing a forensic image of a storage device? a. To duplicate and sell copyrighted software. b. To create a backup of the data. c. To preserve the state of the original storage device for analysis. d. To recover lost passwords. e. To decrypt hidden files.

Correct Answer Reply: C. To preserve the state of the original storage device for analysis.

28. Which of the following is a volatile source of evidence in computer forensics? a. Hard drive. b. Optical disc. c. RAM. d. External USB drive. e. ROM. Correct Answer Reply: C. RAM. 29. How is AI utilized in forensic science? a. Analyzing fingerprints. b. Conducting autopsies. c. Jury selection. d. Courtroom testimonies. e. Collecting crime secene physical evidence.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 30. What is the primary advantage of using AI in forensic analysis? a. Eliminates the need for human expertise. b. Provides error-free results. c. Facilitates the rapid analysis of very large datasets. d. Reduces the cost of investigations to zero. e. Increases the complexity of the analysis.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 31. AI algorithms can predict potential crime hotspots based on historical data and current trends. This is known as: a. Precognition. b. Predictive policing. c. Forensic prediction. d. Digital profiling. e. Forecast analysis.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 32. What is the term for AI algorithms that learn from large data sets, given predetermined rules, to perform tasks without explicit programming? a. Expert systems. b. Reinforcement learning. c. Machine learning. d. Rule-based systems. e. Artificial Intelligence.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Machine learning.

33. AI can help in analyzing social media and online platforms to gather information about suspects and potential leads. This process is known as: a. Virtual profiling. b. Digital surveillance. c. Social media analysis. d. Cybernetic investigation. e. Phishing.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Social media analysis.

34. What is the primary goal of forensic crime scene reconstruction? a. To arrest suspects. b. To collect evidence. c. To determine the cause of death. d. To recreate the crime‟s sequence of events.

e. To prevent future crimes.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 35. Which engineering discipline often plays a role in analyzing vehicle collisions and determining their causes? a. Civil Engineering. b. Mechanical Engineering. c. Electrical Engineering. d. Chemical Engineering. e. Biomedical Engineering.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Mechanical Engineering.

36. Which engineering field might assist in analyzing electronic devices and retrieving digital evidence from them? a. Software Engineering. b. Civil Engineering. c. Biomedical Engineering. d. Electrical Engineering. e. Mechanical Engineering.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Electrical Engineering.

37. In the context of forensic reconstruction, what does the term “reverse engineering” mean”? a. Deconstructing crime scene structures. b. Reconstructing past events based on evidence starting at the endpoint and working backwards. c. Modifying existing engineering designs. d. Analyzing crime scenes using sound waves. e. Using mechanical engineering to take apart and rebuild devices.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 38. What type of load is a constant force applied to a structure over a long period? a. Static load. b. Dynamic load. c Impact load. d. Wind load. e. Themal load.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Static load.

39. Which of the following loads is caused by the gravitational force acting on a structure?

a. Wind load. b. Seismic load. c. Dead load. d. Live load. e. Thermal load.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Dead load.

40. An earthquake generates which type of load on a structure? a. Wind load. b. Seismic load. c. Dead load. d. Live load. e. Thermal load.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 41. Which load is associated with the weight of movable objects like furniture and people? a. Dead load. b. Live load. c. Wind load. d. Snow load. e. Object load.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 42. Which load is caused by atmospheric conditions and affects structures horizontally? a. Dead load. b. Live load. c. Wind load. d. Snow load. e. Thermal load.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 43. A building's own weight is an example of which type of load? a. Dead load. b. Live load. c. Wind load. d. Seismic load. e. Permanent load.

Correct Answer Reply: A.

CONFIDENTIAL PLEASE DO NOT SHARE ANY OF THESE WITH STUDENTS! Introduction to Forensic Science: The Science of Criminalistics

by James T. Spencer, Ph.D., Syracuse University FNSSI Chapter Ninteen Questions 1. Hypnosis is generally a state of: a. heightened awareness. b. reduced awareness. c. sleep. d. decreased awareness. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Hypnosis, rather than being the sleep state often portrayed in movies, instead involves a state of heightened awareness and concentration, deep relaxation, inner absorption and enhanced suggestibility.

2. What is the best definition of Forensic Psychology? a. Application of psychological theory and skills to the functioning of the legal and criminal justice system. b. Application of psychological theory and skills to the functioning of the psychomedical system. c. The practice of providing an assessment of the “dangerousness” of defendants. d. The practice of profiling, monitoring and rehabilitating serious offenders. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Forensic Psychology: A subdiscipline of psychology that deals with the application of psychological theories and practices to inform legal questions.

3. A forensic psychologist may work in which of the following areas: a. Evaluating threats from stalking and stalkers. b. In the courtroom. c. Determining the likely truthfulness of eyewitness testimony. d. Determining the suitableness of a jury member. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All are tasks that the forensic psychologist may be called upon to work.

4. The role of a Forensic Psychologist working directly for the Court in the criminal phase of a trial may include: a. Advising police about the type of person likely to be the victim of a particular crime. b. Counselling victims after they have been involved in an attack.

c. Helping to rehabilitate the offender of a crime. d. Providing a recommendation to the court on a competency of a defendant to stand trial. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. This is the only correct response. A is involved in the pre-trial phase and B and C are typically not allowed during the trial phase.

5. Forensic Psychologists working directly for the Court in a criminal case may: a. Provide psychological assessment and treatment to offenders in prison. b. Provide psychological assessment and treatment to victims. c. Provide psychological assessments of defendants. d. None of the above. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 6. When considering whether a person is mentally competent to stand trial, a Forensic Psychologist typically may: a. Take into consideration recommendations from a victim. b. Base their opinion on past cases involving similar offences. c. Base their opinion on a psychological assessment of the defendant. d. None of the above. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: C. 7. When a forensic psychologist advises police about the “type of person likely to have committed a particular crime or crimes”, they are said to be providing a: a. Victomology assessment. b. Forensic psychological profile. c. Defense evaluation. d. Defense brief. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 8. When making the assessment, criminal profiling of a serial crime often includes information such as: a. A likely employment status. b. A likely marital status. c. A likely personality (e.g., introvert, extrovert, etc.). d. Information about how the crime was committed. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 9. Courtroom uses of forensic psychology typically may involve all of the following except: a. jury selection. b. competency for hearings. c. custody cases. d. forensic profiling. e. all of the above are courtroom uses of forensic psychology.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Forensic profiling is not typically admissible in court and is a pre-trial use of forensic psychology.

10. The technique known as “brain fingerprinting” involves the use of: a. brain wave monitoring. b. polygraph testing. c. heartbeat/blood pressure monitoring. d. states of heightened awareness. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 11. The term Modus Operandi (MO) is: a. a legal defense where the offender had a reduced ability to understand the crimes that they committed. b. the term for “guilty mind” used to describe the criminal intent of an event. c. the term for the method of how the crime was committed. d. the term for a “guilty act” used to describe the criminal intent of an event. e. none of the above Correct Answer Reply: C. As a side note, and you didn‟t need to know this, but the other incorrect responses are involved with criminal cases: answer A refers to diminished capacity, B refers to actus reus, and D refers to mens rea (although its not correctly defined in the response).

12. Uses for forensic psychology relative to courtroom proceedings may often include the following except: a. jury selection. b. competency to stand trial. c. custody cases. d. providing counseling to suspects/defendants. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. forensic psychologists, when involved in the criminal courtroom are not allowed to provide any counseling to defendants.

13. The Voir Dire terms refers to: a. the term for a “guilty act” used to describe the specific act of a criminal event. b. the process through which potential jurors are questioned to determine their suitability for jury service. c. the term for “guilty mind” used to describe the criminal intent of an event. d. a legal defense where the offender had a reduced ability to understand the crimes that they committed. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. In the selection process, each potential juror is usually subjected to the voir dire process (from the Old French meaning “to speak the truth”).

14. Which tasks are commonly involved in forensic psychology? a. Testing for mental illness. b. Assessing a suspect‟s sanity. c. Establishing the mental state of a suspect at time of crime. d. Detecting signs of deception and malingering. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 15. Which of the following is not a typical pre-trial use of forensic psychology? a. Crime Scene Analysis. b. Profiling. c. Interrogations. d. Evaluating confessions. e. Establishing a legal insanity defense.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 16. Which of the following is a typical post-trial use of forensic psychology? a. Type of post trial commitment. b. Profiling. c. Evaluating confessions. d. Establishing a legal insanity defense. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 17. Forensic psychological profiling often attempts to address which questions? a. What was the attraction of the attacker to the victim? b. What was the motive in the crime? c. How did the killer get at the victim? d. What was done? e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. 18. Which of the following is not a disputed technique with respect to admissibility in court? a. polygraph. b. lie detector. c. hypnosis. d. psychological assessment. e. All are disputed.

Correct Answer Reply: D. 19. The polygraph test: a. has been for around for about 25 years. b. measures and records physiological responses to questions. c. is admissible in court. d. passes the Daubert Test. e. all of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: B. 20. In forensic psychology, malingering usually refers to: a. faking or exaggeration. b. loitering. c. when a criminal justifies their actions. d. when a person has a reduced ability to understand the crimes that they committed. e. none of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. 21. What is the field that examines how individuals or groups behave in the context of society? a. Psychology. b. Pathology. c. Sociology. d. Anthropology. e. Psychiatry.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Sociology is field that examines how individuals and groups function and behave within the context of larger societies and how individuals form social networks that collectively operate together as complex organizations 22. Which of the following is a difference between clinical and forensic psychology?

a. Clinical psychology is cooperative while forensic psychology is in an adversarial system. b. Forensic psychology is only concerned with the diagnosis, not the treatment. c. Psychological findings from forensic examinations are not expected to evolve or change. d. a and c only. e. a, b, and c.

Correct Answer Reply: E. These are all differences between clinical and forensic psychology.

23. Which of the following is the role a forensic psychologist may have in the pretrial or investigative phase of a criminal case? a. Crime scene and threat analysis. b. Jury selection. c. Competency evaluations. d. Sentencing opinions. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: A. In the pretrial or investigative phase, psychologists can use their knowledge to identify a perpetrator and in building a case, this includes performing crime scene or threat analyses.

24. When considering interrogation defense mechanisms, what is it called when an individual provides explanations to justify their actions? a. Profiling. b. Rationalization. c. Projection. d. False Confession. e. Minimization.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Rationalization is a mental process in which the criminal justifies their actions by providing explanations that they feel are reasonable and reflect favorably upon themselves.

25. When considering interrogation defense mechanisms, what is it called when an individual places the blame on someone else? a. Profiling. b. Rationalization. c. Projection. d. False Confession. e. Minimization.

Correct Answer Reply: C. Projection is a means whereby the criminal places blame for the crime on someone else, projecting the blame, often onto the victim.

26. What is a projective test? a. A test used to determine a subject‟s personality type. b. A test to determine the extent of impairment due to brain injury. c. A test that explores a person‟s cognitive capacity. d. A test that explores how a subject thinks about themselves in their world. e. A test that evaluates common traits such as extraversion or agreeableness.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Projective tests are psychological tests that try to evaluate a subject‟s personality and thought processes by exploring how the test subject thinks about themselves and their world and performed by evaluating that subject‟s responses to ambiguous images or new situations.

27. What questions may be asked in a behavioral criminal investigative analysis (profiling)? a. Whether a crime was planned or spontaneous. b. How participants acted during a crime. c. What were the motivations for a crime. d. What participants were thinking during the crime. e. All of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: E. All of these are critical questions in behavioral criminal investigative analysis. The investigator tries to find psychological threads linking information from the crime scene, statements, and known prior activities.

28. What is an equivocal death? a. A death where the circumstances surrounding it are known. b. A death involving an argument between two people. c. A death that was heard by witnesses. d. A death where the circumstances surrounding a death are unclear. e. None of the above.

Correct Answer Reply: D. Equivocal deaths are deaths where the reasons and intentions of the victim and/or the circumstances surrounding the death are not clear.

29. What subdiscipline of psychology looks at the molecular components of the brain to understand memory, emotion, and other psychological factors? a. Neurobiological psychology. b. Molecular psychology. c. Clinical psychology. d. Cognitive psychology. e. Biochemical psychology.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Neurobiological psychology is a subdiscipline of psychology that examines the molecular and cellular components of the brain and

nervous system to discover how memory, emotion, perception, reasoning and other traits are stored and processed at the microscopic level.

30. What is a consideration for a forensic scientist when determining whether someone is competent to stand trial? a. Whether a defendant had control of his actions during the time of the crime. b. Whether a defendant is faking their psychological symptoms. c. Whether a defendant understands the proceedings at the time of trial. d. Whether a defendant understood the consequences of their actions during the crime. e. Whether a defendant had the proper motives for their crime.

Correct Answer Reply: C. In order to stand trial, therefore, the US Supreme Court has defined adequate competency only when a defendant has both “sufficient present ability to consult with his lawyer with a reasonable degree of rational understanding” and a “rational as well as factual understanding of the proceedings against him.” This competency determination is specifically to evaluate a defendant‟s competency at the time of trial and does not consider the person‟s mental state at the time the crime was committed. It tends to be a rather low bar to pass.

31. Which legal principle involves the defendant being considered not criminally responsible due to a mental disorder? a. Double jeopardy. b. psychological impairment. c. Insanity defense. d. Entrapment. e. Hearsay Correct Answer Reply: C. Insanity defense. Answer B is not necessarily linked to any legal considerations.

32. What is the primary goal of criminal profiling in forensic psychology? a. To determine guilt or innocence. b. To predict future criminal behavior. c. To rehabilitate offenders. d. To provide expert testimony in court. e. To analyze handwriting samples.

Correct Answer Reply: B. To predict future criminal behavior.

33. Which factor contributes most to the phenomenon known as the "CSI effect"? a. Inaccurate forensic evidence. b. Lack of psychological training. c. Overwhelming case loads. d. Influence of television shows.

e. Language barriers Correct Answer Reply: D. Influence of television shows.

34. Which statement is true regarding the role of a forensic psychologist in child custody cases? a. They solely consider the wishes of the child. b. They are not allowed to make recommendations. c. They provide therapeutic interventions for the child. d. They assess the best interests of the child. e. They only evaluate the mental health of the parents.

Correct Answer Reply: D. They assess the best interests of the child.

35. What term refers to the tendency to rely on cognitive shortcuts and stereotypes when making decisions about individuals from different groups? a. Confirmation bias. b. Groupthink. c. Prejudice. d. Cognitive dissonance. e. Stereotyping Correct Answer Reply: E. Stereotyping.

36. What is the primary purpose of risk assessment in forensic psychology? a. To predict an individual's potential for criminal behavior. b. To determine the severity of a crime. c. To evaluate the mental competency of a suspect. d. To assess the impact of trauma on a victim. e. To identify the presence of psychopathy in a suspect Correct Answer Reply: A. To predict an individual's potential for criminal behavior.

37. What does "victimology" refer to in forensic psychology? a. The study of criminal behavior. b. The assessment of victims' mental health. c. The study of victims and their relationships with offenders and the criminal justice system. d. The assessment of forensic evidence. e. The study of crime scene analysis Correct Answer Reply: C. The study of victims and their relationships with offenders and the criminal justice system.

38. What type of psychological assessment is the Rorschach test considered?

a. Personality inventory. b. IQ test. c. Neuropsychological assessment. d. Aptitude test. e. Behavioral observation.

Correct Answer Reply: A. Personality inventory 39. The Rorschach test primarily involves interpreting responses to: a. Written prompts. b. Abstract images. c. Auditory stimuli. d. Mathematical problems. e. Kinesthetic exercises.

Correct Answer Reply: B. Abstract images.