Test Bank For Introduction to Biotechnology, 4th Edition by William J. Thieman Michael A Palladino C

Introduction to Biotechnology, 4e (Thieman) Chapter 1 The Biotechnology Century and Its Workforce 1) Scientists at the biotechnology company Genentech created the first recombinant DNA product for use in humans. Approved by the Food and Drug Administration in 1982, this product was ________.

A) a gene chip B) chymosin C) insulin D) human growth hormone E) erythropoietin Answer: C Section: 1.1 What Is Biotechnology and What Does It Mean to You? Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which area of biotechnology primarily involves using living organisms to process, degrade, and clean up environmental pollution?

A) Genomics B) Bioinformatics C) Bioremediation D) Marine biotechnology E) Agricultural biotechnology Answer: C Section: 1.2 Types of Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 3) The use of computer science to analyze biological data, such as DNA sequence comparison data, is known as ________.

A) genomics B) bioinformatics C) bioremediation D) nanotechnology E) recombinant DNA technology Answer: B Section: 1.4 The Biotechnology Workforce Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 4) Studying the entire complement of DNA in an organism's cells is known as ________.

A) genomics B) bioinformatics C) bioremediation D) nanotechnology E) recombinant DNA technology Answer: A Section: 1.1 What Is Biotechnology and What Does It Mean to You? Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 1 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Combining DNA from different sources is an example of ________.

A) genomics B) bioinformatics C) bioremediation D) nanotechnology E) recombinant DNA technology Answer: E Section: 1.2 Types of Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 6) ________ is customized medicine based on a person's genetics.

A) Genomics B) Bioinformatics C) Bioremediation D) Pharmacogenomics E) Recombinant DNA technology Answer: D Section: 1.3 What Will the New Biotechnology Century Look Like? An Example from Medical Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 7) ________ involves farm-raising finfish, shellfish, algae, and other aquatic organisms.

A) Biopharming B) Aquaculture C) Pharmacogenomics D) Bioremediation E) Transgenic technology Answer: B Section: 1.2 Types of Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 8) ________ is the use of normal genes or the replacement of diseased genes for treating human genetic disorders.

A) Genetics B) Genomics C) Pharmacogenomics D) Gene therapy E) Recombinant DNA technology Answer: D Section: 1.1 What Is Biotechnology and What Does It Mean to You? Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Selective breeding involves ________.

A) genetic engineering of animals and plants to improve growth characteristics B) mating organisms with desirable characteristics C) the use of fermentation to produce biotechnology products D) combining sperm and egg cells from different species to produce hybrid organisms E) none of these choices Answer: B Section: 1.1 What Is Biotechnology and What Does It Mean to You? Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 10) ________ is the use of living organisms or their products to clean up the environment, improve human health, and provide more nutritious and disease-free food.

A) Bioremediation B) Biotechnology C) Genetic engineering D) Biodegradation E) Bioprocessing Answer: B Section: 1.1 What Is Biotechnology and What Does It Mean to You? Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 11) Subtle differences in DNA sequences that vary from person to person are called ________.

A) genomics B) chromosomes C) DNA microarrays D) pharmacogenomics E) single-nucleotide polymorphisms Answer: E Section: 1.3 What Will the New Biotechnology Century Look Like? An Example from Medical Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 12) Explain at least two differences between a traditional pharmaceutical product and a biotechnology product.

Answer: A traditional pharmaceutical product is typically a small molecule synthesized by chemists and made into a pill form, which can be orally administered to a patient.

A biotechnology product is usually a large molecule that cannot be synthesized or taken orally. It must be produced in a cell line, purified from the cell line, and ultimately formulated to be administered to a patient by injection.

Section: 1.1 What Is Biotechnology and What Does It Mean to You? Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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13) Discuss some examples of different fields of biotechnology and what they study (e.g., bioremediation, which is used to assist in the clean-up of chemical spills, etc.).

Answer: Answers can vary.

Some answers include: • Microbial biotechnology, which is used to detect microbes for diagnostic purposes in humans, food samples, and other sources.

• Animal biotechnology, which helps produce antibodies in the milk of the animal without doing harm to the animal.

• Forensic biotechnology, which is useful in solving crimes and testing paternity.

• Medical biotechnology, which involves producing products to diagnose, treat, or cure a disease.

Section: 1.2 Types of Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 14) What are some nonscience job opportunities in a biotechnology company? Why would it still be useful to have some science background for these positions?

Answer: Some nonscience biotechnology jobs include working in regulatory affairs, marketing, sales, and the legal department of the company. Because the company products are ultimately biological in nature, employees will better understand how to do their jobs if they know the science as well. For example, if a sales representative does not understand any of the science behind the product they are selling, they cannot easily answer any questions the prescribing physician might ask them.

Section: 1.4 The Biotechnology Workforce Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 15) What are some of the advantages of a biosimilar drug versus a patented pharmaceutical product? What are the disadvantages?

Answer: Advantages: Biosimilars can cut costs because they are often approved for use without having to undergo the same expensive safety and effects studies required for pharmaceutical product.

Disadvantages: Biosimilars can still be more expensive to produce because biosimilars can be difficult to replicate exactly.

Section: 1.4 The Biotechnology Workforce Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 16) ________ is an approach to genome editing that makes it possible to correct genetic diseases and create novel genetic modification of genomes.

A) Synthetic genomes B) Gene cloning C) Gene therapy D) CRISPR-Cas E) High-throughput screening Answer: D Section: 1.1 What Is Biotechnology and What Does It Mean to You? Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 4 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

17) As of 2016, which of the following was the top selling biotechnology drug?

A) Herceptin B) Rituxan C) Humira D) Enbrel E) Avastin Answer: C Section: 1.1 What Is Biotechnology and What Does It Mean to You? Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which of the following is the application of biotechnology to industrial processes?

A) Microbial biotechnology B) Animal biotechnology C) Forensic biotechnology D) Medical biotechnology E) Industrial biotechnology Answer: C Section: 1.3 What Will the New Biotechnology Century Look Like? An Example from Medical Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 19) How can a physician use precision medicine to design a drug treatment strategy?

A) Based on the genes involved in the disease, design a drug treatment strategy that is nonspecific and applicable to a small population.

B) Based on the genes involved in the disease, design a drug treatment strategy that is nonspecific and somewhat effective.

C) Based on the genes involved in the disease, design a drug treatment strategy that is specific and somewhat effective.

D) Based on the genes involved in the disease, design a drug treatment strategy that is specific and most effective.

E) Based on the genes involved in the disease, design a drug treatment strategy that is specific and not based on the patient's genetic profile.

Answer: D Section: 1.3 What Will the New Biotechnology Century Look Like? An Example from Medical Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 20) What three locations account for approximately 95% of biotechnology countries?

A) Europe, Japan, and South America B) Europe, Japan, and North America C) Europe, China, and Canada D) Canada, Japan, and South America E) China, Europe, and North America Answer: B Section: 1.4 The Biotechnology Workforce Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 5 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

Introduction to Biotechnology, 4e (Thieman) Chapter 2 An Introduction to Genes and Genomes 1) The complementary base that hydrogen bonds with thymine in a DNA double helix is ________.

A) uracil B) thymine C) guanine D) adenine E) cytosine Answer: D Section: 2.2 The Molecule of Life Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following is a structural feature of DNA but not RNA? A) Single-stranded B) Containing the nitrogenous base adenine C) Containing phosphate groups D) Containing deoxyribose sugars E) Containing the nitrogenous base uracil Answer: D Section: 2.2 The Molecule of Life Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which type of base-pair substitution mutation has no effect on the amino acid sequence of a protein?

A) Missense mutation B) Nonsense mutation C) Silent mutation D) Frameshift mutation E) None of these choices Answer: C Section: 2.6 Mutations: Causes and Consequences Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which of the following is a characteristic of smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) but not rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)?

A) Protein synthesis B) Sending vesicles to the Golgi that contain proteins that are either secreted or become part of the plasma membrane C) Steroid synthesis D) Drug and alcohol detoxification E) Steroid synthesis and drug and alcohol detoxification Answer: E Section: 2.2 The Molecule of Life Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 1 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Which of the following enzymes is a component of the large ribosomal subunit and catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds between an amino acid attached to a peptidyl-tRNA and an amino acid from an aminoacyl-tRNA? A) Reverse transcriptase B) DNA polymerase C) Peptidyl transferase D) DNA ligase E) β-galactosidase Answer: C Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 6) Addition of a poly(A) tail to an mRNA molecule ________.

A) allows the mRNA to be recognized by ribosomes during translation B) allows mRNA molecules to be more stable in the cytoplasm C) results in removal of introns D) only occurs in bacteria E) is an important step in translation Answer: B Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 7) What enzyme separates strands of DNA during DNA replication to make DNA singlestranded so it can be copied?

A) DNA primase B) DNA polymerase C) DNA helicase D) DNA ligase E) Reverse transcriptase Answer: C Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 8) ________ bind to mRNA and tRNA during translation and allow for polypeptides to be synthesized.

A) Chloroplasts B) Ribosomes C) Nuclei D) RNA polymerases E) Chromosomes Answer: B Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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9) ________ is the enzyme that copies DNA during DNA replication. Thermostabile forms of this enzyme are essential for PCR. A) RNA polymerase B) DNA ligase C) DNA polymerase D) RNA primase E) DNA helicase Answer: C Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which of the following is the typical start codon in most mRNA molecules?

A) UGA B) AUG C) AAA D) GAA E) CAG Answer: B Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 11) Which type of point mutation creates a stop codon in a gene?

A) Nonsense B) Frameshift C) Silent D) Missense E) None of these choices Answer: A Section: 2.6 Mutations: Causes and Consequences Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 12) Nonprotein coding pieces of pre-mRNA that are removed during RNA splicing are called ________.

A) introns B) exons C) SNPs D) promoters E) poly(A) tails Answer: A Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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13) Which organelles form the site of ATP production by aerobic cellular respiration?

A) Lysosomes B) Mitochondria C) Ribosomes D) Golgi E) Rough endoplasmic reticulum Answer: B Section: 2.1 A Review of Cell Structure Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 14) Which type of RNA molecules transport amino acids to the ribosome during translation?

A) rRNA B) tRNA C) siRNA D) mRNA E) miRNA Answer: B Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 15) Which type of RNA molecule contains the genetic code of a gene that is read by ribosomes during translation?

A) rRNA B) tRNA C) siRNA D) mRNA E) miRNA Answer: D Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 16) In a nucleotide of DNA, which carbon of the deoxyribose sugar binds to the base?

A) 1' B) 2' C) 3' D) 4' E) 5' Answer: A Section: 2.2 The Molecule of Life Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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17) Which of the following sequences is most commonly found at eukaryotic promoters?

A) TATAAAA B) Poly(A) tail C) 7-methyl G cap D) 5'-GU . . . AG-3' E) Shine-Dalgarno sequence Answer: A Section: 2.5 Regulation of Gene Expression Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which of the following is a commonly used stop codon in most mRNA molecules?

A) UGA B) AUG C) AAA D) GAA E) CAG Answer: A Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 19) What is synthesis of RNA from a DNA template called?

A) Transformation B) Reverse transcription C) Transcription D) Translation E) None of these choices Answer: C Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 20) Synthesis of a protein from an mRNA molecule is called ________.

A) transcription B) translation C) transformation D) polymerization E) polyadenylation Answer: B Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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21) What is one role of the Golgi apparatus in cellular function?

A) Protein packaging B) Replication of DNA C) Protecting the integrity of the cell's shape D) Filling the cell space with fluid E) mRNA synthesis Answer: A Section: 2.1 A Review of Cell Structure Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which is NOT true of prokaryotes?

A) They contain ribosomes.

B) Their cells contain a true nucleus.

C) Their genes contain exons.

D) They include bacteria.

E) They are single-celled organisms.

Answer: B Section: 2.1 A Review of Cell Structure Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which of the following is NOT a function performed in the nucleus?

A) Storing genes on chromosomes B) Producing regulatory factors C) Packaging proteins and transport them around the cell D) Producing mRNA E) DNA replication Answer: C Section: 2.1 A Review of Cell Structure Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which part of a gene codes for the protein?

A) Promoter B) Exon C) Intron D) Enhancer E) Transcription factor Answer: B Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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25) Another term for a triplet code is ________.

A) an enhancer B) a promoter C) tRNA D) a factor E) a codon Answer: E Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 26) Why is mRNA a good intermediate for translation?

Answer: mRNA is a good intermediate because it must leave the nucleus and go to the cytoplasm to direct translation. DNA is the genetic code and cannot leave the nucleus and risk degradation. So, mRNA can carry the DNA information to the cytoplasm without causing any risk of harm to the original DNA molecule.

Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 27) Give three differences between DNA and RNA. Answer: DNA has the sugar deoxyribose and RNA has the sugar ribose.

DNA has the base Thymine and RNA has the base Uracil in place of Thymine.

DNA is double-stranded and RNA is single-stranded.

Section: 2.3 Chromosome Structure, DNA Replication, and Genomes Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 28) What is the difference between acquired and inherited mutations?

Answer: An acquired mutation is one that occurs in an organism after birth and throughout its life. It can be caused by, for example, too much exposure to radiation, which, over time, can cause a mutation or series of mutations that can lead to cancer. An inherited mutation is one in the germ line that can be passed from parent to offspring. For example, a person that has a gene that expresses a mutation for color blindness can be passed on from a parent to a child.

Section: 2.6 Mutations: Causes and Consequences Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 29) Why is it beneficial for the genetic code to be redundant?

Answer: Because there are several codons that code for each amino acid, there can be mutations that occur that change one nucleotide in the codon but still result in the same amino acid being produced. Thus, not all mutations will cause disease or render the protein inactive.

Section: 2.6 Mutations: Causes and Consequences Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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30) Briefly describe how Erwin Chargaff provided insight into the structure of DNA, and also describe how data from x-ray crystallography provided evidence about the structure of DNA. Answer: Erwin Chargaff provided insight into the structure of DNA by isolating DNA from a variety of different species, which revealed that the percentage of adenine bases in an organism's DNA was proportional to the percentage of thymine bases, and the percentage of cytosine bases was roughly proportional to the percentage of guanine. This insight suggested that the bases adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine were somehow intricately related components of the DNA structure. X-ray crystallography provided further evidence about the structure of DNA because the data indicated that DNA could have a helical structure, which eventually led Watson and Crick to assemble a wire model of DNA. Section: 2.2 The Molecule of Life Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 31) What is a more modern definition of a gene?

A) A unit of heredity that is voluntarily transferred from a parent to an offspring B) A sequence of nucleotides that leads to the expression of a protein C) Any DNA sequence that is used to produce RNA D) An element of DNA that controls the characteristics that an offspring will have by transmitting information in the sequence of nucleotides to expressed proteins E) An element of DNA that binds to proteins to induce translation Answer: C Section: 2.3 Chromosome Structure, DNA Replication, and Genomes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 32) What is a technique that analyzes chromosome structure and abnormalities?

A) Flow cytometry B) Cytogenetics C) Gel electrophoresis D) Southern blot E) High pressure liquid chromatography Answer: B Section: 2.3 Chromosome Structure, DNA Replication, and Genomes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 33) Which of the following techniques uses DNA probes to analyze chromosome structure and abnormalities?

A) Southern blot B) Northern blot C) PCR D) Fluorescence in situ hybridization E) Flow cytometry Answer: D Section: 2.3 Chromosome Structure, DNA Replication, and Genomes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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34) Which of the following RNA molecules do NOT code for proteins?

A) ncRNA B) tRNA C) rRNA D) mRNA E) None of the above Answer: A Section: 2.4 RNA and Protein Synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 35) What is one RNA molecule that is associated with epigenetic and post-transcriptional gene expression regulation?

A) snRNA B) tRNA C) snoRNA D) miRNA E) piRNA Answer: E Section: 2.5 Regulation of Gene Expression Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 36) Which of the following RNA molecules is an example of a small noncoding RNA? A) rRNA B) tRNA C) snoRNA D) mRNA E) lncRNA Answer: C Section: 2.5 Regulation of Gene Expression Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 37) What is a system that can be used to change or edit specific sequences in a genome?

A) Gas phase chromatography B) Karyotyping C) Fluorescence in situ hybridization D) Cytogenetics E) CRISPR-Cas Answer: E Section: 2.8 Immune Response Mechanism in Prokaryotes Results in Extraordinary New Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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Introduction to Biotechnology, 4e (Thieman) Chapter 3 Recombinant DNA Technology and Genomics 1) You just cloned a new gene from mice. Which of the following techniques would be the best choice to use if you wanted to determine the number of copies of this gene in the mouse genome?

A) Northern blot analysis B) RT-PCR C) Western blot analysis D) Southern blot analysis E) In situ hybridization Answer: D Section: 3.3 Laboratory Techniques and Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following techniques involves hybridizing a cDNA sample to a chip containing thousands of single-stranded DNA sequences, allowing one to study the expression of thousands of genes simultaneously?

A) PCR B) Southern blot C) FISH D) Agarose gel electrophoresis E) DNA microarray Answer: E Section: 3.3 Laboratory Techniques and Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 3) When making a complementary DNA (cDNA) library, which enzyme is used to copy mRNA into DNA? A) DNA ligase B) DNA polymerase C) Primase D) RNA polymerase E) Reverse transcriptase Answer: E Section: 3.2 How Do You Identify and Clone a Gene of Interest?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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4) In a recombinant DNA experiment, which enzyme is used to join together DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides? Recall that this same enzyme joins together Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand during DNA replication.

A) DNA primase B) DNA polymerase C) DNA helicase D) DNA ligase E) Reverse transcriptase Answer: D Section: 3.2 How Do You Identify and Clone a Gene of Interest?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 5) During library screening, PCR, Southern blotting, and other techniques, binding two pieces of DNA to each other by hydrogen bonding is called ________.

A) autoradiography B) hybridization C) DNA ligation D) reverse transcription E) polyadenylation Answer: B Section: 3.2 How Do You Identify and Clone a Gene of Interest?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 6) ________ is a DNA-binding dye that fluoresces when DNA in an agarose gel is illuminated with ultraviolet light.

A) Casein B) Ethidium bromide C) Malt D) Lactic acid E) Ethanol Answer: B Section: 3.3 Laboratory Techniques and Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which of the following vectors would be the best choice for gene transfer in plant cells?

A) Cosmid B) Bacterial artificial chromosome C) Bacteriophage vector D) Ti vector E) Plasmid Answer: D Section: 3.1 Introduction to Recombinant DNA Technology and DNA Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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8) A ________ is a single-stranded DNA molecule attached to a radioactive or fluorescent compound that is complementary to a specific sequence of DNA. Such pieces of DNA are used to identify and study cloned genes in hybridization experiments.

A) polypeptide B) promoter C) vector D) probe E) plasmid Answer: D Section: 3.2 How Do You Identify and Clone a Gene of Interest?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 9) Transformation in a cloning experiment is ________.

A) ligating pieces of foreign DNA together B) inserting DNA into bacteria cells C) cutting DNA with restriction enzymes D) using PCR to clone a gene E) a technique for determining gene copy number in a genome Answer: B Section: 3.1 Introduction to Recombinant DNA Technology and DNA Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about restriction enzymes?

A) Most restriction enzymes are isolated from bacteria.

B) Restriction enzymes usually recognize palindromic sequences.

C) Restriction enzymes create phosphodiester bonds between pieces of DNA in a cloning experiment.

D) Restriction enzymes can cut to create overlapping single-stranded ends of DNA. E) Restriction enzymes can cut to create blunt-ended pieces of DNA. Answer: C Section: 3.2 How Do You Identify and Clone a Gene of Interest?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 11) Based on what you know about which organisms naturally produce restriction enzymes and how restriction enzymes are named, which of the following enzymes is isolated from the bacterium Bacillus amyloliquefaciens?

A) EcoRI B) BamHI C) SmaI D) PstI E) HindIII Answer: B Section: 3.1 Introduction to Recombinant DNA Technology and DNA Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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12) Imagine you wanted to use a human genomic DNA library to clone the human gene for insulin. You will be using the rat insulin gene sequence as your DNA probe. In what order would you perform the following steps to accomplish this goal?

1. Use autoradiography to identify colonies containing DNA that hybridized to the probe 2. Grow transformed cells on media with antibiotics and X-gal for blue-white screening 3. Ligate genomic DNA and vector DNA 4. Cut genomic DNA and vector DNA with restriction enzymes 5. Hybridize library DNA with a labeled probe for the rat insulin gene 6. Transform bacteria with recombinant plasmid A) 2, 3, 6, 5, 4, 1 B) 1, 2, 5, 6, 4, 3 C) 4, 3, 6, 2, 5, 1 D) 4, 3, 5, 2, 6, 1 E) 2, 6, 5, 3, 1, 4 Answer: C Section: 3.3 Laboratory Techniques and Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 13) Approximately how large is the human genome?

A) 20,000 bp B) 1 billion bp C) 3 billion bp D) 13 million bp E) 30 billion bp Answer: C Section: 3.4 Genomics and Bioinformatics: The Hottest Disciplines in the History of Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 14) Approximately how many genes are present in the human genome?

A) 3 billion genes B) 20 billion genes C) 100,000 genes D) 20,000 genes E) 50,000 genes Answer: D Section: 3.4 Genomics and Bioinformatics: The Hottest Disciplines in the History of Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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15) Which of the following techniques is the best choice for amplifying DNA? A) Southern blot analysis B) PCR C) DNA sequencing D) Affinity chromatography E) Microarray analysis Answer: B Section: 3.2 How Do You Identify and Clone a Gene of Interest?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 16) Which of the following techniques is most commonly used to separate and analyze DNA by size?

A) PCR B) Agarose gel electrophoresis C) DNA microarray analysis D) Hybridization E) DNA libraries Answer: B Section: 3.3 Laboratory Techniques and Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 17) A ________ consists of cloned DNA fragments for all expressed genes in a particular tissue A) genomic DNA library B) cDNA library C) PCR library D) Guggenheim library E) shotgun library Answer: B Section: 3.2 How Do You Identify and Clone a Gene of Interest?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which of the following techniques is most efficient for transforming bacterial cells?

A) Gene gun B) ES cell transfer C) Electroporation D) Pronuclear microinjection E) Sperm-mediated transfer Answer: C Section: 3.1 Introduction to Recombinant DNA Technology and DNA Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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19) Which of the following statements about the human genome is INCORRECT? A) There are approximately 3.1 billion bp in the human genome.

B) Humans share a majority of genes with other species.

C) Less than 2 percent of the genome codes for proteins.

D) The human genome contains approximately 100,000 genes.

E) The functions of most human genes are still unknown.

Answer: D Section: 3.4 Genomics and Bioinformatics: The Hottest Disciplines in the History of Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 20) Dideoxyribonucleotides (ddNTPs) used for DNA sequencing lack oxygen atoms at ________.

A) the 1' carbon of the pentose sugar B) the 1' and 2' carbons of the pentose sugar C) the 2' and 3' carbons of the pentose sugar D) the 3' and 5' carbons of the pentose sugar E) the 5' carbon of the pentose sugar Answer: C Section: 3.3 Laboratory Techniques and Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 21) A recombinant DNA molecule produced artificially contains sequences ________.

A) from bacteria only B) from yeast only C) from unrelated organisms D) from cells that have been chemically modified E) from prokaryotic genes Answer: C Section: 3.5 Systems Biology and Synthetic Biology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 22) A linear strand of DNA is 1,000 bp long. A recognition sequence for the restriction enzyme Eco R1 is located 300 base pairs (bp) from the 5' end of this linear DNA molecule. Digesting this DNA molecule with Eco RI would produce ________.

A) one DNA fragment, 1,000 bp long B) three DNA fragments, two of them 300 bp long and one 400 bp long C) two DNA fragments, one 300 bp long and one 700 bp long D) two fragments, each 500 bp long E) none of the above Answer: C Section: 3.2 How Do You Identify and Clone a Gene of Interest?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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23) During molecular cloning, a gene of interest (insulin) is inserted into a bacterial structure called a ________ and enters a bacterial cell through a process called ________.

A) chromosome; electrophoresis B) nucleus; transformation C) plasmid; transcription D) plasmid; transformation E) genome; transformation Answer: D Section: 3.1 Introduction to Recombinant DNA Technology and DNA Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which of the following might lead to the generation of several incorrect PCR products?

A) An annealing temperature that is too low B) An annealing temperature that is too high C) Performing 30 cycles of PCR D) Using the correct primers E) Including an extension step Answer: A Section: 3.2 How Do You Identify and Clone a Gene of Interest?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 25) A bacteriophage is ________.

A) a small cloning vector used in humans B) a large cloning vector used in humans C) a type of bacterial protein D) a virus that specifically infects bother viruses E) a virus that specifically infects bacteria Answer: E Section: 3.1 Introduction to Recombinant DNA Technology and DNA Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 26) Explain the use of an antibiotic (e.g., ampicillin) resistance gene on a vector.

Answer: The antibiotic resistance gene is found on the vector (also known as the plasmid). This gene confers resistance to the recombinant DNA plasmid when transformed into bacterial cells and plated on agar media containing the antibiotic, such as ampicillin. Only bacterial cells that have taken up the vector can grow on media containing ampicillin, thus allowing for a selection of colonies that have taken up the vector.

Section: 3.1 Introduction to Recombinant DNA Technology and DNA Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 27) Describe two advantages for cloning a gene from a cDNA library versus a genomic DNA library.

Answer: A cDNA library is free of introns and it is enriched for the gene of interest because it is made from mRNA from the desired tissue type. In contrast, a genomic DNA library still has introns and it has every gene in the genome, making it more difficult to find the gene of interest.

Section: 3.2 How Do You Identify and Clone a Gene of Interest?

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28) Describe three reagents used and the three steps in the process of polymerase chain reaction.

Answer: The reaction calls for Taq polymerase, a pool of nucleotides, primers, and a thermo cycler. The three steps in the process are as follows: denaturation, which occurs at 94°C to separate the DNA strand; annealing, in which the temperature varies depending on the primers but is usually between 50°C and 60°C and allows the primers to adhere to the DNA strands; and extension, which occurs at 72°C, allowing for elongation of the DNA from the primer.

Section: 3.2 How Do You Identify and Clone a Gene of Interest?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 29) Explain the meaning and utility of RNA interference.

Answer: RNA interference (RNAi) is a process within living cells that moderates the activity of their genes.

Section: 3.3 Laboratory Techniques and Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 30) Explain the dideoxy sequencing method.

Answer: Sanger's method, which is also referred to as chain termination, is based on the use of dideoxynucleotides (ddNTP's) in addition to the normal nucleotides (NTP's) found in DNA. Dideoxynucleotides are essentially the same as nucleotides except they contain a hydrogen group on the 3' carbon instead of a hydroxyl group (OH). These modified nucleotides, when integrated into a sequence, prevent the addition of further nucleotides. This occurs because a phosphodiester bond cannot form between the dideoxynucleotide and the next incoming nucleotide, and thus the DNA chain is terminated. A nested set of products can then be used to determine the actual nucleotide sequence.

Section: 3.3 Laboratory Techniques and Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 31) Which of the following is NOT a feature of a DNA cloning Vector?

A) Origin of replication B) DNA sequencing primer sequences C) Selectable marker genes D) DNA polymerase E) Multiple cloning site Answer: D Section: 3.1 Introduction to Recombinant DNA Technology and DNA Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 32) Which of the following methods is used to clone smaller pieces of a gene?

A) Southern blot B) Western blot C) Whole genome sequencing D) PCR E) 2D gel electrophoresis Answer: D Section: 3.3 Laboratory Techniques and Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 8 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

33) Which of the following technologies is an example of third generation sequencing?

A) Single-molecule sequencing in real time B) Whole genome shotgun sequencing C) Real time PCR D) High-throughput DNA sequencing E) Sanger sequencing Answer: A Section: 3.3 Laboratory Techniques and Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 34) The ________ is one technique that allows for the genome to be targeted at a specific location and also allows for the removal of genes or insertion of genes in cultured cells or a whole organism.

A) site-directed mutagenesis system B) RNAi system C) gene knockout system D) CRISPR-Cas system E) siRNA system Answer: D Section: 3.3 Laboratory Techniques and Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 35) Which sequencing method allows for in situ analysis of gene expression and allow for quantitative analysis of all RNAs in a cell?

A) High throughput sequencing B) RNA-seq C) Shotgun cloning D) Whole-exome sequencing E) Microarray Answer: B Section: 3.3 Laboratory Techniques and Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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36) Describe a current technology used to sequence a single molecule of DNA. What are some advantages and disadvantages of the technology?

Answer: The single-molecule sequencing in real time (SMRT) method is one technology used to sequence a single molecule of DNA. SMRT works by attaching single-stranded molecules of the DNA to be sequenced to a single molecule of DNA polymerase as it synthesizes a strand of DNA. The DNA polymerase adds fluorescently tagged nucleotides to synthesize the DNA, and the fluorescent tag is cleaved off each base as it is added to the DNA strand. The DNA polymerase is confined within a hole that is in a thin layer of metal on a glass substrate, and such a configuration allows for the detection of individual nucleotides as they are added to single strands synthesized in the nanopore. Advantages include the ability to sequence and analyze genomes from a single molecule in a short amount of time. Disadvantages include a somewhat high error rate and they are expensive.

Section: 3.3 Laboratory Techniques and Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 37) Describe a potential application for CRISPR-CAS and include in your description the basic mechanism of CRISPR-CAS. Answer: One potential application for CRISPR-CAS includes replacing an existing sequence of DNA present in cells growing in culture with a new sequence of DNA, which would allow one to study a phenotype or signaling a pathway of interest. To do this, the new sequence of DNA would have a sequence that matches the existing sequence of DNA that needs to be edited, but does not match any other sequence in the genome. Then the CRISPR associated nuclease Cas9 will cut the DNA at the site of interest.

Section: 3.3 Laboratory Techniques and Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 38) How can the ENCODE project enhance our understanding of the genome?

Answer: The Encode findings have broadly defined the functional elements of the genome that regulate the expression of human genes. This information has informed our understanding of the genome because it has enhanced our knowledge of all the different functional elements (i.e., promoters, enhancers, transcriptional start sites) and their relationships, which allows for the design of better drugs to treat diseases.

Section: 3.4 Genomics and Bioinformatics: The Hottest Disciplines in the History of Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 39) ________ is a sequencing method that only sequences exons.

A) Whole-exome sequencing B) Single-cell sequencing C) Whole genome sequencing D) High throughput sequencing E) Exon-directed sequencing Answer: A Section: 3.4 Genomics and Bioinformatics: The Hottest Disciplines in the History of Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 10 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

40) ________ is a sequencing method that involves isolating genomic DNA from a single cell to analyze somatic mutations.

A) Whole-exome sequencing B) Single-site sequencing C) Whole genome sequencing D) High throughput sequencing E) Single-cell sequencing Answer: E Section: 3.4 Genomics and Bioinformatics: The Hottest Disciplines in the History of Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 41) What is a network map? Describe how network maps can be used to help scientists model potential interactions of molecules involved in normal and disease processes.

Answer: A network map is used in systems biology to show interacting proteins, genes, and other molecules. They can be used to help scientists model potential interactions of molecules involved in normal and disease processes because network maps generate computational models that allow the running of simulations to determine how signaling events occur. This information can inform scientists about potential drug targets and proteins that could be used for therapeutic purposes.

Section: 3.5 Systems Biology and Synthetic Biology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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Introduction to Biotechnology, 4e (Thieman) Chapter 4 Proteins as Products 1) Which recombinant protein is widely used to digest milk proteins for making cheeses?

A) Casein B) Chymosin C) Erythropoietin D) Insulin E) DNA ligase Answer: B Section: 4.1 Proteins as Biotechnology Products Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which of the following is NOT a recombinant protein isolated from bacteria?

A) Interferon B) monoclonal antibodies C) Insulin D) Erythropoietin E) Cellulase Answer: E Section: 4.1 Proteins as Biotechnology Products Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 3) Isolating and purifying a protein from biological materials to make a biotech product is known as ________.

A) bioprospecting B) bioprocessing C) bioremediation D) biofermentation E) bioengineering Answer: B Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 4) Quaternary structure of a protein refers to ________.

A) the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide B) alpha-helical or beta-sheet arrangements of protein structure C) three-dimensional coil of a polypeptide around itself D) the association of multiple polypeptide subunits to form a functional protein E) the number of amino acids in a polypeptide chain Answer: D Section: 4.2 Protein Structures Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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5) Which of the following techniques is designed for separating and analyzing proteins according to their size?

A) Agarose gel electrophoresis B) Affinity chromatography C) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis D) Microarray analysis E) Sanger sequencing Answer: C Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 6) ________ chromatography involves separating proteins by binding them to ligands.

A) Affinity B) Polyacrylamide C) Size-exclusion D) Ion-exchange E) Electrophoresis Answer: A Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 7) ________ involves separating proteins by differences in electrostatic charge.

A) Affinity chromatography B) Mass spectroscopy C) Size-exclusion chromatography D) Ion-exchange chromatography E) Gel-filtration chromatography Answer: D Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 8) Bioprocessing a protein often involves growing cells in carefully controlled environments using containers called ________.

A) bioreactors B) proteomes C) centrifuges D) chromatography E) electrophoresis Answer: A Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Cheese manufacturing involves enzymatic or microbial processing of the milk protein ________ to form a coagulated mixture called curd.

A) chymosin B) rennin C) malt D) lactic acid E) casein Answer: E Section: 4.1 Proteins as Biotechnology Products Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which recombinant protein is used to stimulate red blood cell growth and production?

A) Erythropoietin B) Insulin C) Factor VIII D) Interleukin E) Streptokinase Answer: A Section: 4.1 Proteins as Biotechnology Products Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 11) Alpha helices and β-pleated sheets represent the ________ structure of a protein.

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) All of the above Answer: B Section: 4.2 Protein Structures Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 12) Adding a carbohydrate group to a protein is known as ________.

A) phosphorylation B) acetylation C) glycosylation D) isomerization E) kinase activation Answer: C Section: 4.2 Protein Structures Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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13) Adding a phosphate or sugar group to a newly made protein is an example of ________.

A) a posttranscriptional modification B) a pretranscriptional modification C) an intron removal D) gene silencing E) a posttranslational modification Answer: E Section: 4.2 Protein Structures Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 14) Inclusion bodies ________.

A) are important for a protein's function B) can only be found in the primary structure C) assist in protein purification D) are insoluble clumps of foreign protein E) are often part of the final protein product Answer: D Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 15) An advantage of using bacterial cells to express proteins is that ________.

A) they are well understood B) they perform posttranslational modifications C) they are most like human cells D) they fold proteins correctly E) their media is expensive Answer: A Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 16) A disadvantage of using bacterial cells to grow proteins is that ________.

A) they are simple to grow B) their media is inexpensive C) they are most like human cells D) they do not correctly fold all proteins E) they grow quickly Answer: D Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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17) Cells must be lysed to release the protein of interest if ________.

A) the protein is secreted into the media B) the protein is intracellular C) the protein is hydrophobic D) the protein is positively charged E) the protein is hydrophilic Answer: B Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 18) HPLC is ________.

A) high-performance liquid chromatography B) high-pressure lyophilized chromatin C) heat pressure and liquid contents D) heat performance lyophilized chromatin E) heat particulate liquid chromatin Answer: A Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 19) Name and define the four levels of the structure of a protein. Are all proteins required to have all four levels of structures?

Answer: Primary, which is the string of amino acids that define the protein; secondary, in which the protein folds into alpha helices and beta sheets; tertiary, which is the binding within alpha helices and beta sheets; and quaternary, which happens when two or more proteins must associate into a final three-dimensional shape to be active.

A protein does not need all four levels; only two or more associated proteins forms a quaternary structure.

Section: 4.2 Protein Structures Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 20) If you are purifying a protein from an SEC column, what fractions do you want to collect?

Answer: It depends on whether or not your protein is large or small. Large proteins elute first because they go around the beads whereas small proteins go within the beads. So, for large proteins, you collect the first set of fractions. For smaller proteins, you collect the second set of proteins.

Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 21) Define upstream and downstream processing when producing a protein.

Answer: Upstream processing is the actual cell line expression of the protein of interest.

Downstream is the purification of the protein from all the other components in the cell to ensure purity.

Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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22) What is meant by lyophilization of proteins and why is it done?

Answer: It is the freeze-drying of a protein to prepare it to be placed into its final container. It helps to stabilize the protein in transit to the pharmacy or doctor's office, and it gives the protein better long-term storage capabilities.

Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 23) Which of the following enzymes can store genetic information and are capable of powering simple biochemical reactions?

A) Pectinases B) Lipases C) Amylases D) XNAzymes E) Hemicellulases Answer: D Section: 4.1 Proteins as Biotechnology Products Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 24) ________ are biological markers that could be used to predict the effectiveness of a drug for a particular patient.

A) Protein labels B) Gene elements C) Biomarkers D) Tissue samples E) Enzymes Answer: C Section: 4.2 Protein Structures Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 25) What is a molecular machine that has about a dozen individual proteins that can give clues about protein interaction?

A) Commander B) ProteinGo C) Human proteome D) Proteomics E) Proteome Answer: A Section: 4.2 Protein Structures Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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26) What is an example of a protein engineering method that uses the life cycle of M13 filamentous bacteriophage to evolve biomolecules?

A) SDS-PAGE B) SAGE C) IonX D) HPLC E) PACE Answer: E Section: 4.2 Protein Structures Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 27) ________ includes both the protein secretion machinery and the secreted proteins.

A) Proteome B) Secretome C) Genome D) Transcriptome E) Biome Answer: B Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which of the following analytical methods is used to purify mixtures of proteins?

A) FPLC B) HPLC C) SDS PAGE D) Mass Spec E) HIC Answer: A Section: 4.3 Protein Production Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 29) Which of the following methods provides near atomic resolution of protein structures and detailed structural information?

A) X-ray crystallography B) Mass spec C) HIC D) Cryo-electronic microscopy E) Electronic microscopy Answer: D Section: 4.4 Proteomics Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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Introduction to Biotechnology, 4e (Thieman) Chapter 5 Microbial Biotechnology 1) Which of the following is a native protein isolated from bacteria and used to digest starches?

A) Cellulase B) Amylase C) Chymosin D) Penicillin E) Polymerase Answer: B Section: 5.2 Microorganisms as Tools Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 2) Rod-shaped bacteria such as Escherichia coli are called ________ based on the shape of the cells.

A) bacilli B) cocci C) gram positive D) thermophiles E) anaerobes Answer: A Section: 5.2 Microorganisms as Tools Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 3) Spherical bacteria are called ________.

A) archaebacteria B) eukaryotes C) cocci D) bacilli E) none of these choices Answer: C Section: 5.2 Microorganisms as Tools Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which of the following is a native protein isolated from bacteria and used to soften cotton fibers in jeans and other clothes?

A) Cellulase B) Amylase C) Chymosin D) Penicillin E) Polymerase Answer: A Section: 5.2 Microorganisms as Tools Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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5) Gardasil is a recombinant subunit vaccine designed to protect women from ________.

A) hepatitis B) AIDS C) human papillomavirus D) influenza E) measles Answer: C Section: 5.4 Vaccines Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which of the following is NOT an example of antibody action?

A) Neutralization B) Inflammation C) Agglutination D) Sterilization E) Complement activation Answer: D Section: 5.4 Vaccines Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 7) The uptake of foreign DNA into bacterial cells is called ________.

A) translation B) transcription C) transgenesis D) transfection E) transformation Answer: E Section: 5.2 Microorganisms as Tools Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 8) The DNA fingerprinting network created by the U.S. Department of Agriculture and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for identifying outbreaks of microbes in contaminated foods is called ________.

A) BioLink B) Biosensor C) RFLP D) Ag-biotech E) PulseNet Answer: E Section: 5.7 Combating Bioterrorism Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Antibody-producing cells in humans are called ________.

A) macrophages B) plasma cells C) T cells D) NK cells E) hybridoma cells Answer: B Section: 5.4 Vaccines Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 10) The vaccine for which of these pathogens is an inactivated vaccine?

A) Hepatitis B) Human papillomavirus C) Influenza D) MMR E) Chicken pox Answer: C Section: 5.4 Vaccines Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 11) Ethanol fermenting microbes reduce ________ into ethanol.

A) glucose B) pyruvate C) NADH D) NAD+ E) lactate Answer: B Section: 5.3 Using Microbes for a Variety of Everyday Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 12) ________ are ethanol-fermenting yeasts commonly used when making beer and wine.

A) Lactobacillus delbrueckii B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae C) Thermus aquaticus D) Streptococcus thermophilus E) Aspergillus niger Answer: B Section: 5.3 Using Microbes for a Variety of Everyday Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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13) Which type of vaccine involves using a weakened pathogen incapable of replicating?

A) Subunit vaccines B) Attenuated vaccines C) Inactivated vaccines D) DNA vaccines E) None of these choices Answer: B Section: 5.4 Vaccines Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 14) The antibiotic bacitracin is isolated from ________.

A) B. subtilis B) E. coli C) T. aquaticus D) P. notatum E) S. erythraeus Answer: A Section: 5.3 Using Microbes for a Variety of Everyday Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 15) Streptomyces erythraeus is the bacterial source of which antibiotic?

A) Penicillin B) Streptomycin C) Erythromycin D) Bacitracin E) Ampicillin Answer: C Section: 5.3 Using Microbes for a Variety of Everyday Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 16) The antibiotic penicillin is isolated from ________.

A) B. subtilis B) E. coli C) T. aquaticus D) P. notatum E) S. erythraeus Answer: D Section: 5.3 Using Microbes for a Variety of Everyday Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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17) During calcium chloride transformation of bacteria, during which step does plasmid DNA enter the bacterial cells?

A) Brief incubation with CaCl2 on ice B) Brief electric shock following treatment with CaCl2 C) Selection on antibiotic plates D) Brief incubation at temperatures between 37°C and 42°C E) None of these choices Answer: D Section: 5.2 Microorganisms as Tools Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 18) The use of a brief electrical shock to introduce DNA into bacterial cells is called ________.

A) gene therapy B) electroporation C) electrophoresis D) electrocution E) chromatography Answer: B Section: 5.2 Microorganisms as Tools Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 19) Peptidoglycan in the cell wall of a bacterial cell is determined by ________.

A) a Southern blot B) an ELISA C) a screen with a probe D) a Gram stain E) None of the above Answer: D Section: 5.2 Microorganisms as Tools Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 20) Yeast can grow ________.

A) under aerobic conditions only B) under anaerobic conditions only C) under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions D) only in the presence of glucose and aerobically E) only in the presence of lactose and anaerobically Answer: C Section: 5.1 The Structure of Microbes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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21) Which of the following methods or steps has NOT been shown to allow DNA to enter cells?

A) Electroporation B) Transformation C) Heat shocking of cells at 42°C D) CaCl2 treatment of cells E) Restriction DNA analysis Answer: E Section: 5.2 Microorganisms as Tools Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 22) Which of the following recombinant therapeutic proteins, produced in bacterial cells, is used to treat blood cancers?

A) Erythropoietin B) Interferon C) Insulin D) tPA E) Growth hormone Answer: B Section: 5.3 Using Microbes for a Variety of Everyday Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 23) Which of the following recombinant therapeutic proteins, produced in bacterial cells, is used to treat patients after a heart attack or stroke?

A) Erythropoietin B) Interferon C) Insulin D) tPA E) Growth hormone Answer: D Section: 5.3 Using Microbes for a Variety of Everyday Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which of the following recombinant therapeutic proteins, produced in bacterial cells, is a blood clotting factor used to treat certain types of hemophilia?

A) Erythropoietin B) Superoxide dismutase C) Insulin D) tPA E) Factor VIII Answer: E Section: 5.3 Using Microbes for a Variety of Everyday Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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25) Describe how yeast differs from bacteria, and describe the roles of yeast in at least two important biotechnology applications.

Answer: Bacteria cells are simple, inexpensive to grow, and grow quickly. So, they are the cells of choice for protein expression, where possible. The problem is that bacteria do not correctly fold proteins or perform other posttranslational modifications. Yeast cells are a good alternative to bacterial cells because they are still relatively simple and inexpensive to grow, but they have the ability to fold proteins correctly and perform many posttranslational modifications. So, yeast cells are good for biotechnology because they are inexpensive, easy to grow, and perform posttranslational modifications and correct protein folding.

Section: 5.1 The Structure of Microbes Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 26) Name and very briefly describe the three strategies for making vaccines.

Answer: Subunit vaccines—made from portions of bacterial and viral structures Attenuated vaccines—producing vaccines through weakened pathogens Inactivated (killed) vaccines—killing the pathogen and using the killed pathogen for the vaccine DNA-based vaccines—plasmid containing a DNA sequence that could confer immunity to the pathogen Section: 5.4 Vaccines Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 27) Why is it important to sequence bacterial genomes?

Answer: It is important to sequence bacterial genomes so that 1) treatments against pathogenic bacteria can be found; 2) using comparative genomics, scientists can begin to understand what genes have been conserved across the spectrum of organisms; and 3) to protect against the use of bacteria as bioweapons.

Section: 5.5 Microbial Genomics Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 28) Define microbial diagnostics. Name one example of a technique used in microbial diagnostics.

Answer: This is the science of detecting and tracking microorganisms. Some techniques used in microbial diagnostics include the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis, whole-genome sequencing, and DNA sequencing.

Section: 5.6 Microbial Diagnostics Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 29) Cellulase and subtilisin are examples of enzymes used in which part of biotechnology?

A) Aquatic biotechnology B) Medical biotechnology C) Agricultural biotechnology D) Industrial biotechnology E) Animal biotechnology Answer: D Section: 5.2 Microorganisms as Tools Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 7 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) Which of the following describes layers of microbes that can coat surfaces like a medical device?

A) Thermophiles B) Bacterial biofilms C) Luciferase D) Anti-microbial films E) None of the above Answer: B Section: 5.3 Using Microbes for a Variety of Everyday Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 31) What is a weakness of DNA-based vaccines?

A) Low production of protein encoded by delivered genes B) Inability to penetrate plasma membrane C) Costs are high for DNA-based vaccines D) Non-specific targets E) None of the above Answer: A Section: 5.4 Vaccines Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 32) For which of the following has a live attenuated whole-virus vaccine shown promise?

A) HIV B) Zika virus C) Avian flu D) Tuberculosis E) Ebola virus Answer: E Section: 5.4 Vaccines Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 33) Which of the following is a method used in metagenomics?

A) Isolating DNA directly from a liquid sample B) Isolating DNA directly from a frozen sample C) Isolating DNA directly from a tissue sample D) Isolating DNA directly from an environmental sample E) None of the above Answer: D Section: 5.5 Microbial Genomics Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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34) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the human microbiome project?

A) As many 2,000 bacterial strains may be present in each person.

B) The microbiome starts at birth.

C) The microbiome remains stable over time in individuals.

D) The microbiome is different from individual to individual.

E) An estimated 10,000 bacterial species may be part of the total human microbiome.

Answer: A Section: 5.5 Microbial Genomics Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 35) Describe the problem of multidrug resistance, the different ways antibiotics work against microbes, and describe a solution to the problem of multidrug resistance.

Answer: Since most antibiotics attack bacterial cell walls in a limited number of ways, then resistance to one antibiotic often leads to resistance to other antibiotics. Antibiotics can work against microbes in three general ways: 1) inhibition of cell wall synthesis; 2) inhibition of protein synthesis; and 3) damage to the plasma membrane. One solution to multidrug resistance would be to change the chemical properties of existing antibiotics to create new mechanisms of action.

Section: 5.3 Using Microbes for a Variety of Everyday Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 36) Explain phage therapy, advantages of phage therapy, and discuss how a way that phage theory can incorporate CRISPR-Cas. Answer: Phage therapy uses bacteriophages, which can be used to kill bacteria, to treat infections. Advantages of phage therapy include the ability of phages to use a completely different mechanism of action than antibiotics, so they can be resistant against multidrugresistant bacteria, and phages are species-specific, so they can avoid killing naturally occurring bacteria that are needed to stay healthy. One way that phage theory can incorporate CRISPR-Cas is by having a phage injected into a bacterium to deliver CRISPR guide RNA and Cas. The CRISPR guide RNA would then target the antibiotic-resistance and Cas9 would cut the target sequence, killing the bacteria. This is a potential way of using phage therapy to treat antibiotic resistance.

Section: 5.3 Using Microbes for a Variety of Everyday Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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Introduction to Biotechnology, 4e (Thieman) Chapter 6 Plant Biotechnology 1) Golden rice gets its characteristic yellow color from beta-carotene that is converted into ________.

A) vitamin A B) vitamin C C) vitamin E D) vitamin D E) none of these choices Answer: A Section: 6.3 Practical Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 2) The main purpose of creating Flavr Savr tomatoes was ________.

A) to make larger tomatoes B) to make tomatoes ripen faster C) to make tomatoes rot-resistant D) to make tomatoes taste better E) to improve the vitamin A content of tomatoes Answer: C Section: 6.2 Genetic Engineering of Plants Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following techniques was used to create the Flavr Savr tomato?

A) Gene knockout B) Transgenic technology C) RNAi D) Antisense RNA E) Stem cell technology Answer: D Section: 6.2 Genetic Engineering of Plants Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 4) RoundUp-resistant plants are designed to ________.

A) improve nutritional value of crops B) make crops heat-resistant C) make crops cold-resistant D) increase vitamin B content E) provide resistance against herbicides Answer: E Section: 6.3 Practical Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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5) Bt transgenic crops are designed to ________.

A) improve the nutritional value of crops B) make crops heat-resistant C) make crops cold-resistant D) increase vitamin B content E) provide resistance to insects Answer: E Section: 6.3 Practical Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 6) Golden rice was created to increase the ________ content of rice.

A) EPSPS B) polygalacturonase (PG) C) cry D) Ti E) β-carotene Answer: E Section: 6.3 Practical Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 7) The microbial source of cry genes used to make insect-resistant transgenic plants is ________.

A) Thermus aquaticus B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens C) Bacillus thuringiensis D) Escherichia coli E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Answer: C Section: 6.3 Practical Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 8) The first genetically modified food product approved by the FDA was ________.

A) the Flavr Savr tomato B) Golden Rice C) ice-minus bacteria D) RoundUp Ready corn E) Bt corn Answer: A Section: 6.2 Genetic Engineering of Plants Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Plant cells with their cell walls removed are called ________.

A) calluses B) protozoa C) protoplasts D) germplasm E) auxins Answer: C Section: 6.1 Uses of Biotechnology to Enhance Selective Breeding Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 10) What microbe is responsible for crown gall disease in plants and is used to create transgenic plants incorporating Ti vectors?

A) Thermus aquaticus B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens C) Bacillus thuringiensis D) Escherichia coli E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Answer: B Section: 6.2 Genetic Engineering of Plants Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 11) Damaged plant cells that have a mass called a ________ can then go on to have redifferentiation capabilities.

A) callus B) fusion C) protoplast D) diploid E) hybrid Answer: A Section: 6.1 Uses of Biotechnology to Enhance Selective Breeding Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 12) A common herbicide that crops can be engineered to resist is ________.

A) glyphosphate B) ethanol C) diesel D) methane E) ethane Answer: A Section: 6.3 Practical Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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13) What are some of the benefits of using genetically modified crops?

Answer: The crops can be made resistant to heat, cold, pesticides, and other natural phenomena.

The crops can also be made to spoil at a much slower rate.

Section: 6.3 Practical Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 14) What is the harm that can come from genetically modified crops?

Answer: Although a clear answer to this is unknown, many people fear the long-term effects of these crops. Some fear they may do damage to human DNA or organs. The long-term health risks are just not well-documented at this time.

Section: 6.4 Health and Environmental Concerns Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 15) Define and explain the use of antisense technology in plant biotechnology.

Answer: Antisense technology blocks the mRNA of a gene and, therefore, blocks translation.

An example of this is blocking the gene for polygalacturonase (PG), an enzyme involved in the normal decay of plants. By using antisense technology, PG gene expression is partially blocked, thereby slowing the rotting process of the fruit. Antisense technology usually does not result in complete blockage of a gene product, but it can substantially block it.

Section: 6.3 Practical Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 16) Which of the following techniques can be used to select traits that exhibit low heritability?

A) Leaf fragment technique B) Protoplast fusion C) Mutation breeding D) Marker-assisted selection E) Chloroplast engineering Answer: D Section: 6.1 Uses of Biotechnology to Enhance Selective Breeding Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 17) Which of the following techniques can be used to increase the pool of available traits?

A) Leaf fragment technique B) Protoplast fusion C) Mutation breeding D) CRISPR-Cas E) Chloroplast engineering Answer: C Section: 6.1 Uses of Biotechnology to Enhance Selective Breeding Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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18) What technology can be used to delete a gene from a cell with high accuracy?

A) Leaf fragment technique B) CRISPR-Cas C) Mutation breeding D) Marker-assisted selection E) Chloroplast engineering Answer: B Section: 6.2 Genetic Engineering of Plants Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 19) Plants can be protected from viruses by using ________.

A) virus-like particles B) plant transformation C) protoplast fusion D) gene fusion technology E) antibodies Answer: A Section: 6.3 Practical Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 20) Each of the following is an example of herbicide, EXCEPT ________.

A) glyphosate B) glufosinate C) dicamba D) pyrophosphate E) 2-4D Answer: D Section: 6.3 Practical Applications Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 21) Describe how to create a gene stack.

Answer: One way to create a gene stack is to cross parental lines that each have one of the genes of interest, and then select offspring that inherit both genes. The genes in the parental lines can be inserted by genetic engineering.

Section: 6.2 Genetic Engineering of Plants Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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Introduction to Biotechnology, 4e (Thieman) Chapter 7 Animal Biotechnology 1) An enucleated egg cell ________.

A) contains an extra copy of a gene B) has two nuclei C) lacks a nucleus D) cannot be used for cloning E) is a type of stem cell Answer: C Section: 7.2 Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 2) What types of cells fuse together to form hybridomas for making monoclonal antibodies?

A) Bacterial cells and T cells B) Myeloma cells and spleen cells C) Liver cells and antibody-forming cells D) Monoclonal antibodies and myeloma cells E) None of these choices Answer: B Section: 7.4 Producing Human Antibodies in Animals Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 3) Which of the following approaches is NOT used to create a transgenic animal?

A) Sperm-mediated DNA transfer B) Pronuclear microinjection C) Transfection of ES cells D) Retrovirus-mediated transgenesis E) Embryo twinning Answer: E Section: 7.3 Transgenic Animals Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which of the following techniques involves using tiny DNA-covered spheres of gold or other metals to deliver transgenes into plant or animal cells?

A) Retrovirus-mediated transfer B) Pronuclear microinjection C) Electroporation D) Gene gun E) Calcium chloride transformation Answer: D Section: 7.3 Transgenic Animals Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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5) ________ animals contain an inserted and functional gene from another source.

A) Knockout B) Transgenic C) Polyploid D) Selectively bred E) Cloned Answer: B Section: 7.3 Transgenic Animals Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 6) A limitation of retrovirus-mediated gene transfer is that ________.

A) retroviruses cannot be used to make transgenic animals B) retroviruses only work with Ti vectors C) retroviruses only integrate DNA at specific sites D) retroviruses integrate DNA randomly in the genome E) retroviruses can only be used to make transgenic plants Answer: D Section: 7.3 Transgenic Animals Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 7) In what phase of clinical trials are animals in the lab used?

A) Preclinical testing B) Phase I C) Phase II D) Phase III E) Post launch Answer: A Section: 7.1 Animals in Research Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 8) What is the purpose of using animals in clinical trials?

A) To test the safety of a compound B) To assess the biological activity of a compound C) To decide how to produce (i.e., manufacture) the compound D) A and B E) A, B, and C Answer: D Section: 7.1 Animals in Research Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Embryo twinning refers to ________.

A) a cloning step that involves enucleation B) a cloning step that involves splitting embryos in half C) a technique used in only primate cloning D) a novel technique not yet employed by scientists E) a cloning step that involves one half of an embryo Answer: B Section: 7.2 Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which of the following transgenic techniques requires no vector to be used?

A) Embryonic stem cell method B) Retrovirus-mediated method C) Pronuclear microinjection method D) Sperm-mediated transfer method E) Plasma cell membrane fusion method Answer: C Section: 7.3 Transgenic Animals Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 11) Which of the following transgenic techniques requires linker proteins?

A) Embryonic stem cell method B) Retrovirus-mediated method C) Pronuclear microinjection method D) Sperm-mediated transfer method E) Plasma cell membrane fusion method Answer: D Section: 7.3 Transgenic Animals Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 12) Which of the following transgenic techniques requires ES cells to be collected from the inner blastocyst?

A) Embryonic stem cell method B) Retrovirus-mediated method C) Pronuclear injection method D) Sperm-mediated transfer method E) Plasma cell membrane fusion method Answer: A Section: 7.3 Transgenic Animals Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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13) In a gene knock-in experiment, ________.

A) the effect is exactly the same as a knockout B) the animal gene of interest is replaced with the human counterpart gene C) the gene is non-functional D) the embryo cannot survive to birth E) the gene product is produced to at least twice the normal levels Answer: B Section: 7.4 Producing Human Antibodies in Animals Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 14) Monoclonal antibodies ________.

A) are fairly non-specific B) have not yet been approved by the FDA C) have not been found to treat any disorders D) are produced from myeloma cells only E) are highly specific to a particular antigen Answer: E Section: 7.4 Producing Human Antibodies in Animals Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 15) What are the benefits of using animals in research?

Answer: The benefits include the development of vaccines, the development of treatment options such as dialysis, the development of new surgical techniques, and product isolation from transgenic animals.

Section: 7.1 Animals in Research Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 16) What are the three "Rs" related to regulation of animal research?

Answer: The three Rs are: • reduce the number of higher species used in animal testing (such as primates) • replace animals with alternative models where possible • refine tests and experiments to ensure the most human conditions possible Section: 7.1 Animals in Research Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 17) Why did Dolly the sheep die at a young age?

Answer: Although Dolly was created by animal cloning, it appears the characteristics and phenotype of the older sheep from which Dolly was cloned were passed on to Dolly. Therefore, because the donor organism was older, Dolly aged at a more rapid rate and experienced conditions usually not experienced until later in a sheep's life.

Section: 7.2 Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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18) Explain the idea of transgenic animals as "bioreactors."

Answer: The biotechnology product is made in the milk or eggs of the animal. For this to occur, the gene that produces the product of interest is inserted into the organism via transgenic techniques, and then the animal is raised to adulthood. The product is engineered to be isolated from the animal's milk or eggs, thus causing no harm to the animal.

Section: 7.3 Transgenic Animals Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 19) Explain "organs on a chip," give an example, and explain why such a system might be relevant for a clinical trial.

Answer: Organs on a chip are microengineered biological mimic systems that represent functional models of human organs, such as the heart, kidney, or liver. An example of an organ on a chip is with the liver on a chip, which replicates the active alveolar capillary barrier in the human lung. The relevance of these systems is that they can be used to validate the efficacy, safety, and druggability of potential targets early in the pipeline to increase the likelihood of success in clinical trials.

Section: 7.1 Animals in Research Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 20) What can be used to correct errors in human cells?

A) Somatic nuclear transfer B) Homologous recombination C) siRNA D) Nuclear transfer E) Pronuclear microinjection Answer: D Section: 7.2 Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 21) How many species of animals have been cloned since Dolly?

A) 4 B) 8 C) 10 D) 11 E) 17 Answer: B Section: 7.2 Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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22) Why are clones necessary?

A) Clones provide a control in experiments.

B) Clones can preserve smaller animals, but not larger animals.

C) Clones can be used in medical research.

D) Clones can add diversity to a species.

E) none of the above Answer: C Section: 7.2 Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 23) What is the name of the new technique that can be used to determine drug dosing?

A) Kidney on a Chip B) Lung on a Chip C) Liver on a Chip D) Advanced drug dosing E) None of the above Answer: A Section: 7.3 Transgenic Animals Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 24) Which one of the following is an example of a gene editing technology in animals?

A) FISH B) Organ on a chip C) CRISPR-Cas D) RNAi E) Both C and D Answer: E Section: 7.3 Transgenic Animals Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 25) There is a shortage of organs for people who need a heart, liver, or other organ replacement.

How can this shortage be addressed using animals?

Answer: Pig embryos can be injected with iPSCs (Figure 7.4 in the text). As the embryos grow, they form outer, middle, and inner layers, with each cell's precise location determining future growth. For example, certain cells in the inner layer of the embryo respond to protein signals by turning on the gene Pdxl. This can activate many other genes that trigger the maturation of the pancreas. Other cells in the middle layer turn on certain genes that start the formation of the kidneys. Using such technology, the shortage of organs can be addressed because new human organs can be developed using genetically modified animals, like pigs.

Section: 7.2 Cloning Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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Introduction to Biotechnology, 4e (Thieman) Chapter 8 DNA Fingerprinting and Forensic Analysis 1) Which scientist is credited with the first example of using DNA fingerprinting evidence to solve a crime?

A) Francis Crick B) Alex Jefferies C) Kary Mullis D) Colin Pitchfork E) Barry Sheck Answer: B Section: 8.3 Putting DNA to Use Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 2) The physical location of a gene on a chromosome is a gene's ________.

A) genome B) telomere C) locus D) allele E) none of these choices Answer: C Section: 8.1 What is a DNA Fingerprint?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 3) ________ are tandemly repeated sequences of DNA also called short tandem repeats.

A) VNTRs B) Microsatellites C) Minisatellites D) Telomeres E) Centromeres Answer: B Section: 8.3 Putting DNA to Use Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 4) Variations in restriction enzyme-cutting patterns of DNA from different individuals are called ________.

A) STRs B) VNTRs C) RFLPs D) microsatellites E) minisatellites Answer: C Section: 8.1 What is a DNA Fingerprint?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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5) DNA is present in all of the following human cell types EXCEPT ________.

A) skin cells B) erythrocytes (mature red blood cells) C) leukocytes (white blood cells) D) hair E) buccal (cheek) cells Answer: B Section: 8.1 What is a DNA Fingerprint?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 6) Single-stranded DNA molecules that can bind to and be used to detect other DNA molecules are called ________.

A) primers B) probes C) RFLPs D) STRs E) LINES Answer: B Section: 8.1 What is a DNA Fingerprint?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 7) VNTR analysis involves ________.

A) cutting DNA with a restriction enzyme and analyzing the banding pattern of fragments B) PCR amplification of specific genes C) analyzing specific loci for 2 base repeating units usually less than 100 bp in size D) analyzing specific loci for 2 to 4 bp repeating units E) none of these choices Answer: A Section: 8.1 What is a DNA Fingerprint?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which of the following cell types would NOT be suitable for DNA fingerprinting?

A) Skin cells B) Erythrocytes (mature red blood cells) C) Leukocytes (white blood cells) D) Hair E) Buccal (cheek) cells Answer: B Section: 8.1 What is a DNA Fingerprint?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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9) The DNA profiling database maintained by the FBI is called ________.

A) GenBank B) the Human Genome Project C) CODIS D) APHIS E) the Innocence Project Answer: C Section: 8.2 Preparing a DNA Fingerprint Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 10) The source of most mitochondrial DNA an organism inherits is ________.

A) the nucleus of the sperm B) the nucleus of the egg C) the cytoplasm of the sperm D) the cytoplasm of the egg E) none of these choices Answer: D Section: 8.5 Familial Relationships and DNA Profiles Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 11) Which technique uses the least amount of sample needed for forensic analysis?

A) PCR B) RFLP C) Genomic DNA D) cDNA isolation E) Southern blot Answer: A Section: 8.1 What is a DNA Fingerprint?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 12) A repeated sequence, which, for example, can be 10 copies of the sequence TTA, is called a ________.

A) VNTR B) RFLP C) STR D) HPLC E) PCR Answer: C Section: 8.1 What is a DNA Fingerprint?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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13) One of the biggest problems with using DNA forensic analyses to solve crimes is ________.

A) reliable technology B) sample contamination C) electrophoresis errors D) RFLP classification E) the lack of computer technology Answer: B Section: 8.2 Preparing a DNA Fingerprint Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 14) One of the most useful ways to determine paternity is with ________.

A) an RFLP analysis of the entire genome B) a PCR of the X chromosome C) a histochemistry workup D) Y-chromosome analysis E) blood cell analysis Answer: D Section: 8.5 Familial Relationships and DNA Profiles Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 15) The Frye standard is ________.

A) a method for determining paternity B) set to follow federal rules 402, 403, and 404 C) a means to allow controversial new scientific testing to be used in court if the foundation is solid D) using methods that are tested and have gained general acceptance from the scientific community E) a method that requires pretrial hearings to occur for scientific evidence Answer: D Section: 8.4 DNA and the Rules of Evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 16) The Daubert standard is ________.

A) a method for determining paternity B) set to follow federal rules 402, 403, and 404 C) a means to allow controversial new scientific testing to be used in court if the foundation is solid D) using methods that are tested and have gained general acceptance from the scientific community E) a method that requires pretrial hearings to occur for scientific evidence Answer: E Section: 8.4 DNA and the Rules of Evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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17) The Coppolino standard is ________.

A) a method for determining paternity B) set to follow federal rules 402, 403, and 404 C) a means to allow controversial new scientific testing to be used in court if the foundation is solid D) using methods that are tested and have gained general acceptance from the scientific community E) a method that requires pretrial hearings to occur for scientific evidence Answer: C Section: 8.4 DNA and the Rules of Evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 18) How many unique STR regions does the FBI use in forensic analysis?

A) 1 B) 5 C) 13 D) 50 E) 100+ Answer: C Section: 8.1 What is a DNA Fingerprint?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 19) Explain why using 13 STR regions helps the FBI to gain assurance that they have the correct information.

Answer: The more STR sites used, the greater the assurance that the DNA found at the crime scene matches that of the accused. If the FBI used one or two or even five STRs, there would still be a chance that the person accused might not be the crime's perpetrator. When all 13 "CODIS" sites are used, there is an over 99.9999% chance that the match is exact.

Section: 8.1 What is a DNA Fingerprint?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 20) How has the invention of forensic science helped with crime-solving?

Answer: Using DNA techniques, law enforcement can use much smaller samples from crime scenes than previously needed for traditional techniques. Forensic analysis provides greater assurances that the criminal has been identified. Blood typing, for example, merely rules someone out; it cannot prove that a match is a certainty.

Section: 8.3 Putting DNA to Use Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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21) What are some important steps that a forensic technician must follow to minimize evidence contamination?

Answer: • Wear and change disposable gloves frequently • Use disposable instruments • Avoid taking, sneezing, or coughing when handling samples • Do not touch anything that may contain DNA • Air-dry evidence • Store evidence in specially designed bags Section: 8.4 DNA and the Rules of Evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 22) What type of genetic information is shed by individuals in small amounts?

A) rRNA B) tRNA C) Touch DNA D) mRNA E) cDNA Answer: C Section: 8.4 DNA and the Rules of Evidence Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 23) Describe how protein analysis may join DNA forensics.

Answer: Protein analysis may join DNA forensics because protein is more robust than DNA and contains genetic variation in the form of single amino acid polymorphisms (SAPs). While people do not inherit proteins, they do inherit the DNA that produces proteins. Thus, using techniques that characterize proteins in a sample may be used in DNA forensics.

Section: 8.6 Nonhuman DNA Analysis Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 24) Which of the following methods could be used to detect the presence of a GMO in a sample?

A) Mass spectrometry B) HPLC C) Southern blot D) Multiplex PCR E) Western blot Answer: D Section: 8.6 Nonhuman DNA Analysis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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Introduction to Biotechnology, 4e (Thieman) Chapter 9 Bioremediation 1) Which bacterium is capable of withstanding doses of radiation that are several times higher than human cells can tolerate?

A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae C) Deinococcus radiodurans D) Escherichia coli E) Conus magus Answer: C Section: 9.2 Bioremediation Basics Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 2) Which is NOT an indigenous microbe used for bioremediation?

A) Piscirikettsis salmonis B) Pseudomonas putida C) Phanerochaete sordida D) E. coli E) Deinococcus radiodurans Answer: A Section: 9.2 Bioremediation Basics Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 3) Ananda Chakrabarty received the first U.S. patent for a GM organism. This organism was ________.

A) a transgenic mouse expressing the growth hormone gene B) the GloFish C) Dolly the cloned sheep D) cloned E. coli E) Pseudomonas engineered to degrade petroleum Answer: E Section: 9.5 Applying Genetically Engineered Strains to Clean Up the Environment Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 4) During which stage of wastewater treatment are methanogenic microbes most important?

A) Primary treatment B) Secondary treatment C) Disinfection D) Sludge digestion E) Biological oxidation Answer: D Section: 9.3 Cleanup Sites and Strategies Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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5) Anaerobic bacteria often play important roles in bioremediation. Which of the following is NOT an electron acceptor used by anaerobes during biodegradation reactions?

A) H2O B) CO2 C) SO4-2 D) NO3E) Fe(III) Answer: A Section: 9.2 Bioremediation Basics Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 6) Bioaugmentation is a process that involves ________.

A) using plants for bioremediation B) ex situ bioremediation C) adding microbes to a cleanup site D) bioventing E) sludge removal Answer: C Section: 9.2 Bioremediation Basics Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which bioremediation approach involves mixing contaminated soil with water, carbon dioxide, and fertilizers in a bioreactor to stimulate biodegradation?

A) Composting B) Biopile treatment C) In situ bioremediation D) In situ hybridization E) Slurry-phase bioremediation Answer: E Section: 9.3 Cleanup Sites and Strategies Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which bioremediation approach involves using plants to degrade pollutants?

A) Composting B) Land farming C) Biopile D) Phytoremediation E) None of these choices Answer: D Section: 9.6 Environmental Disasters: Case Studies in Bioremediation Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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9) During which stage of wastewater treatment is the primary effluent aerated to allow for biodegradation by aerobic microbes?

A) Primary treatment B) Secondary treatment C) Disinfection D) Sludge digestion E) Sedimentation Answer: B Section: 9.3 Cleanup Sites and Strategies Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which cleanup approach involves removing groundwater or soil from its natural setting to allow for bioremediation?

A) In situ bioremediation B) Ex situ bioremediation C) Phytoremediation D) Bioaugmentation E) None of these choices Answer: B Section: 9.3 Cleanup Sites and Strategies Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 11) The source of benzene as a chemical pollutant is ________.

A) wood preservative B) petroleum products C) pulp and paper bleaching D) rubber compounds E) plastic manufacturing Answer: B Section: 9.2 Bioremediation Basics Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 12) The source of polyvinylchloride as a chemical pollutant is ________.

A) wood preservative B) petroleum products C) pulp and paper bleaching D) rubber compounds E) plastic manufacturing Answer: E Section: 9.2 Bioremediation Basics Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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13) The source of dioxin as a chemical pollutant is ________.

A) wood preservative B) petroleum products C) pulp and paper bleaching D) rubber compounds E) plastic manufacturing Answer: C Section: 9.2 Bioremediation Basics Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 14) The source of cyanide as a chemical pollutant is ________.

A) wood preservative B) petroleum products C) pulp and paper bleaching D) mining processes E) plastic manufacturing Answer: D Section: 9.2 Bioremediation Basics Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 15) Compounds that cause cancer are called ________.

A) mutagens B) carcinogens C) chemicals D) acids E) bases Answer: B Section: 9.2 Bioremediation Basics Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 16) Bioremediation often requires the gain or loss of electrons as a mechanism to assist the process. Loss of electrons is known as ________.

A) reduction B) bioprocessing C) oxidation D) carboxylation E) hydrolysis Answer: C Section: 9.2 Bioremediation Basics Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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17) Bioremediation often requires the gain or loss of electrons as a mechanism to assist the process. Gain of electrons is known as ________.

A) reduction B) bioprocessing C) oxidation D) carboxylation E) hydrolysis Answer: A Section: 9.2 Bioremediation Basics Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 18) Aerobic degradation (pumping air or hydrogen peroxide into the contaminated site) is also known as ________.

A) bioprocessing B) biostimulation C) bioventing D) composting E) landfarming Answer: C Section: 9.3 Cleanup Sites and Strategies Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 19) Which of the following is an example of solid phase bioremediation?

A) Composting B) Bioventing C) Slurry phase D) Phytoremediation E) All of the above Answer: A Section: 9.3 Cleanup Sites and Strategies Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 20) Spreading contaminated soil on a pad so that water and other compounds can leak out of the soil is known as ________.

A) bioprocessing B) biostimulation C) bioventing D) composting E) land farming Answer: E Section: 9.3 Cleanup Sites and Strategies Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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21) Define oxidation and reduction reactions and explain why they are the key components to cleaning up the environment.

Answer: The gain and loss of electrons can help with cleaning up chemical pollutants. Oxidation is the removal of electrons and reduction is the gain of electrons. The removal of an electron from a chemical pollutant may render it harmless by changing its chemical properties. The same may be true if a chemical gains electrons during reduction. Oxidation and reduction are often coupled, thus known as redox reactions.

Section: 9.2 Bioremediation Basics Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 22) Explain the difference between ex situ and in situ bioremediation.

Answer: Ex situ means removing the contaminated soil or water to another site, cleaning it up, and then putting it back from where it came. In situ means treating the contaminated area on site without excavation or movement of contaminated materials to another location. Where possible, in situ is the preferred method, because moving contaminated soil or water to another site for cleanup often becomes very costly.

Section: 9.3 Cleanup Sites and Strategies Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 23) What is phytoremediation and why is it used?

Answer: This is the use of plants to clean up contaminated air, water, and soil. There are about 350 known species of plants that remove toxins. Phytoremediation can therefore be a safer and less costly form of bioremediation, because the plants occur naturally and they are not toxic.

Section: 9.5 Applying Genetically Engineered Strains to Clean Up the Environment Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 24) How can bioremediation be used to reduce macro- and microplastics in the environment?

Answer: It has been known that polyethylene terephthalate (PET) is a polymer present in plastic.

Recently, a group in Japan isolated a bacterium, Ideonella sakaiensis, which synthesizes two key enzymes in PET metabolism, degrades PET, and actually uses it as a carbon source. Thus, I. sakaiensis can be used to degrade PET in the environment, thereby reducing macro- and microplastics in the environment.

Section: 9.7 Challenges for Bioremediation Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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Introduction to Biotechnology, 4e (Thieman) Chapter 10 Aquatic Biotechnology 1) Known for their great strength and adhesive properties, components of byssal fibers produced by ________ are being studied for a variety of applications from medical sutures to adhesives.

A) Vibrio cholera B) Conus magus C) Crassotrea virginica D) Mytilus edulis E) Pfiesteria piscicida Answer: D Section: 10.4 Medical Applications of Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 2) Polyploid organisms ________.

A) are transgenic B) are created from ES cells C) are knockout organisms D) have different numbers of each chromosome E) have extra complete sets of chromosomes Answer: E Section: 10.3 Genetic Technologies and Aquatic Organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 3) The gene for green fluorescent protein (GFP), a commonly used reporter gene, was cloned from ________.

A) Pfiesteria piscicida B) Vibrio cholerae C) Sus domesticus D) Aequorea victoria E) Danio rerio Answer: D Section: 10.3 Genetic Technologies and Aquatic Organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 4) Growing aquatic plants and finfish species together with shared water resources is an example of ________.

A) hydroponics B) polyculture C) polyploidy D) fish farming E) none of these choices Answer: B Section: 10.2 Aquaculture: Increasing the World's Food Supply through Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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5) Which of the following is a pigment used to alter the color of salmon?

A) Green fluorescent protein B) Astaxanthin C) Auxin D) AFP E) Hydroxyapatite Answer: B Section: 10.2 Aquaculture: Increasing the World's Food Supply through Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 6) Transgenic salmon engineered to grow faster than nontransgenic strains contain extra copies of the ________ gene.

A) GFP B) GH C) AFP D) HA E) calcitonin Answer: B Section: 10.3 Genetic Technologies and Aquatic Organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 7) Marine cone snails, Conus magus, are the source of ________.

A) calcitonin used to treat osteoporosis B) growth hormone used to treat dwarfism C) hydroxyapatite used to treat arthritis D) cells for the LAL test used to detect bacterial contamination of surgical tools E) Prialt, a peptide used as a pain reliever Answer: E Section: 10.4 Medical Applications of Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 8) Limulus polyphemus are the source of ________.

A) calcitonin used to treat osteoporosis B) growth hormone used to treat dwarfism C) hydroxyapatite used to treat arthritis D) cells for the LAL test used to detect bacterial contamination of surgical tools E) Prialt, a peptide used as a pain reliever Answer: D Section: 10.6 Environmental Applications of Aquatic Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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9) ________ is/are a primary source of agar and agarose used in laboratories to create gels for electrophoresis.

A) Cone snails B) Fish C) Seaweeds D) Shrimp E) Mollusks Answer: C Section: 10.6 Environmental Applications of Aquatic Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about triploid species?

A) Triploid species have an extra copy of one chromosome.

B) Triploid species have three complete sets of chromosomes.

C) Triploid species are usually infertile.

D) Triploid species are an example of a polyploidy organism.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Section: 10.3 Genetic Technologies and Aquatic Organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 11) ________ is the farming of a variety of shellfish, crustaceans, finfish, and algae.

A) Aquaculture B) Tissue culture C) Organ culture D) Mariculture E) Protoplast culture Answer: A Section: 10.2 Aquaculture: Increasing the World's Food Supply through Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 12) The gene that can detect the expression of another gene is called a/an ________.

A) reporter gene B) transgene C) alternate gene D) inactivated gene E) functional gene Answer: A Section: 10.3 Genetic Technologies and Aquatic Organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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13) A drug that can create polyploids is known as ________.

A) growth hormone B) astaxanthin C) colchicine D) arrestin E) carrageenan Answer: C Section: 10.3 Genetic Technologies and Aquatic Organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 14) An aquaculture product that is used as a thickening agent and gives foods an improved texture is called ________.

A) growth hormone B) collagenase C) colchicine D) chitin E) carrageenan Answer: E Section: 10.6 Environmental Applications of Aquatic Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 15) An aquaculture product that is a protease used in tissue culturing is known as ________.

A) growth hormone B) collagenase C) colchicine D) chitin E) carrageenan Answer: B Section: 10.6 Environmental Applications of Aquatic Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 16) The attachment of organisms to surfaces (such as pipes and walls) is known as ________.

A) biosensing B) bioprocessing C) biomanufacturing D) biofilming E) bioaugmentation Answer: D Section: 10.6 Environmental Applications of Aquatic Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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17) Endotoxins must be eliminated from biomanufactured products because they ________.

A) render the product inactive B) interfere with the product's absorption C) cause pain, fever, and more severe symptoms in humans D) are from unknown origin E) cause problems for the cell line used to produce the product Answer: C Section: 10.6 Environmental Applications of Aquatic Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 18) Osama Shimomura, Martin Chalfie, and Roger Tsien won the Nobel Prize for Chemistry for their discovery and development of ________.

A) RT-PCR B) PCR C) a novel DNA sequencing method D) GFP E) RFLPs Answer: D Section: 10.3 Genetic Technologies and Aquatic Organisms Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 19) Give three reasons for utilizing aquatic organisms for biotechnology.

Answer: • To increase the world's food supply • To restore and protect marine ecosystems • To identify novel compounds to benefit human health • To develop new products through aquatic organisms • To use aquaculture to monitor and treat disease • To increase knowledge of biological processes in Earth's oceans Section: 10.1 Introduction to Aquatic Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 20) What are biosensors and how are they used?

Answer: Biosensors are living organisms used to detect or measure the biological effects of some factor. They can be used to detect pollutants, chemicals, toxins, and other materials, particularly those that are at low levels.

Section: 10.6 Environmental Applications of Aquatic Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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21) Give two examples of medical compounds derived from aquatic organisms and their medical utility.

Answer: (other examples may apply): • Magainins from a frog, used as antimicrobials • Calcitonin from salmon, used to treat osteoporosis • Hirudin from leeches, used as a blood thinner • Eribulin from a sea sponge, used to treat cancer • Yondelis from a sea squirt, used to treat soft tissue carcinomas Section: 10.4 Medical Applications of Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 22) ________ (country) is the largest producer of aquaculture, and marine aquaculture is called ________.

A) The United States; marine culture B) Canada; salmoculture C) China; mariculture D) South Africa; mariculture E) China; marine culture Answer: C Section: 10.2 Aquaculture: Increasing the World's Food Supply through Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 23) The tiny parasite that attaches to salmon and feeds on salmon blood is called ________.

A) Caligus elongatus B) Vibrio cholerae C) Danio rerio D) Sus domesticus E) Aequorea victoria Answer: A Section: 10.2 Aquaculture: Increasing the World's Food Supply through Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 24) Searching for potentially valuable drugs from plants and animals is called ________.

A) aquatic biotechnology B) integrated aquaculture C) marine drug pharming D) bioremediation E) bioprospecting Answer: E Section: 10.4 Medical Applications of Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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Introduction to Biotechnology, 4e (Thieman) Chapter 11 Medical Biotechnology 1) Which of the following is an example of in vivo gene therapy?

A) Using retroviruses to deliver therapeutic genes directly into a patient B) Pharmacogenomics C) Using retroviruses to deliver therapeutic genes into cultured cells D) Injecting stem cells into a patient E) None of these choices Answer: A Section: 11.5 Gene Therapy Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 2) ________ is the use of genes for treating human genetic disorders.

A) Genetics B) Genomics C) Pharmacogenomics D) Gene therapy E) Recombinant DNA technology Answer: D Section: 11.5 Gene Therapy Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 3) What types of cells fuse together to form hybridomas for making monoclonal antibodies?

A) Bacterial cells and T cells B) Myeloma cells and B cells C) Liver cells and antibody-forming cells D) Monoclonal antibodies and myeloma cells E) None of these choices Answer: B Section: 11.4 Precision Medicine and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 4) Proteins that are produced in a disease tissue and can act as a means of tracking a disease's progression (such as PSA in prostate cancer) is known as ________.

A) an embryonic marker B) an STR C) a microarray D) a biomarker E) a tag Answer: D Section: 11.2 Detecting and Diagnosing Human Disease Conditions Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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5) Which of the following genetic testing techniques would be the best choice for detecting a chromosome translocation?

A) FISH B) Microarray analysis C) VNTR analysis D) ASO test E) RFLP analysis Answer: A Section: 11.2 Detecting and Diagnosing Human Disease Conditions Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 6) Which of the following techniques would be the best choice for screening a person's genetic profile for 1,000 or more genes?

A) FISH B) Microarray analysis C) VNTR analysis D) ASO test E) RFLP analysis Answer: B Section: 11.2 Detecting and Diagnosing Human Disease Conditions Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 7) Which of the following is the source of embryonic stem cells?

A) Inner cell mass B) Spermatozoa C) Trophoblast D) Blastocoel E) Enucleated egg cells Answer: A Section: 11.6 The Potential of Regenerative Medicine Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 8) The first human genetic disease to be successfully treated by gene therapy was ________.

A) cystic fibrosis B) sickle cell anemia C) chronic myelogenous leukemia D) adenosine deaminase deficiency E) albinism Answer: D Section: 11.5 Gene Therapy Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Which of the following genetic disorders is created by a translocation between chromosome 9 and chromosome 22?

A) Sickle cell anemia B) Chronic myelogenous leukemia C) Cystic fibrosis D) Adenosine deaminase deficiency E) None of these choices Answer: B Section: 11.2 Detecting and Diagnosing Human Disease Conditions Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which of the following techniques would be used to prepare a fetal karyotype to detect trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)?

A) ASO test B) RFLP analysis C) Microarray analysis D) Chorionic villus sampling E) STR analysis Answer: D Section: 11.2 Detecting and Diagnosing Human Disease Conditions Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 11) All of the following descriptions of embryonic stem cells are true EXCEPT that they ________.

A) are derived from the inner cell mass of a blastocyst B) are self-renewing C) are present in all adult tissues D) are pluripotent E) can differentiate into all body cells Answer: C Section: 11.6 The Potential of Regenerative Medicine Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 12) Transplanting a tissue or organ from one species into another species is known as ________.

A) transgenesis B) transformation C) xenotransplantation D) autotransplantation E) regenerative medicine Answer: C Section: 11.6 The Potential of Regenerative Medicine Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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13) Which of the following statements best describes RNAi techniques for gene silencing?

A) siRNAs block DNA replication.

B) siRNAs inhibit transcription of a gene.

C) siRNAs inhibit mRNA splicing.

D) siRNAs trigger degradation of mRNAs to prevent their translation.

E) siRNAs prevent transport of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.

Answer: D Section: 11.5 Gene Therapy Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 14) What form of gene therapy involves direct injection of DNA into cells within the body?

A) In situ hybridization B) In vivo C) In vitro D) Ex vivo E) Liposome mediated Answer: B Section: 11.5 Gene Therapy Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 15) Mutation of the adenosine deaminase gene is the cause of what genetic disease?

A) Cystic fibrosis B) Albinism C) Down syndrome D) Severe combined immunodeficiency E) Acquired immune deficiency Answer: D Section: 11.5 Gene Therapy Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 16) Small, hollow membrane vesicles used to deliver therapeutic genes for gene therapy are called ________.

A) liposomes B) gold particles C) retroviruses D) biocapsules E) None of these choices Answer: A Section: 11.5 Gene Therapy Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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17) When making monoclonal antibodies, which of the following is a blood cell tumor type that is fused to B lymphocytes?

A) Hybridoma B) Myeloma C) Myostatin D) Protoplast E) ES cell Answer: B Section: 11.4 Precision Medicine and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 18) Which technique can be used to identify Down syndrome in a developing fetus?

A) PCR B) Southern blot C) Chorionic villus sampling D) Gel electrophoresis E) RFLP Answer: C Section: 11.2 Detecting and Diagnosing Human Disease Conditions Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 19) What is the name of the procedure in which in vitro fertilization is performed and diseasefree embryos are implanted into a womb?

A) Preimplantation genetic testing B) Chronic villus sampling C) In vivo testing D) Amniocentesis E) RFLP screening Answer: A Section: 11.2 Detecting and Diagnosing Human Disease Conditions Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 20) A technique similar to gene chips that is relatively new and can be used in disease diagnosis is called ________.

A) reverse transcriptase PCR B) genomics C) chorionic villus sampling D) SDS-PAGE E) protein microarrays Answer: E Section: 11.2 Detecting and Diagnosing Human Disease Conditions Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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21) Sickle cell disease is caused by a mutation that ________.

A) affects lipids B) causes abnormal hemoglobin structure C) causes excess mucus D) causes blindness and retardation E) can be diagnosed by using a karyotype Answer: B Section: 11.2 Detecting and Diagnosing Human Disease Conditions Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 22) What is pharmacogenomics and how is it useful in biotechnology and medicine?

Answer: Pharmacogenomics is the practice of customizing medicine by designing a patient's treatment strategy based on the person's genetic profile. In a sense, each person would have a file with their entire genetic pattern. Each year, many people have adverse reactions to medications and treatments, or the treatment is ineffective. Knowing how a person will respond to a treatment ahead of time would be an extremely powerful tool to ensure safe and effective therapies.

Section: 11.4 Precision Medicine and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 23) Explain nanotechnology and how it intersects with biotechnology.

Answer: Nanotechnology is a multidisciplinary science that builds structures at the nanometer (i.e., one billionth of a meter) scale. Applications are being developed in the field of nanomedicine, such as nanodevice sensors for better detection of glucose in diabetic patients and nanoparticles that can help unclog arteries. At this point in time, the applications of nanotechnology to medicine appear limitless and each day brings new discoveries.

Section: 11.4 Precision Medicine and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 24) Explain regenerative medicine and its application.

Answer: Regenerative medicine is a field of biotechnology that grows cells and tissues that can be used to replace or repair diseased or defective tissues or organs. This field could improve a patient's heart muscle following a heart attack or brain cells following a brain injury. So, it is a growing field—some companies, such as Tengion, have already successfully grown new bladders in the laboratory.

Section: 11.6 The Potential of Regenerative Medicine Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 25) Sometimes when tumor cells die they release ________ into the bloodstream.

A) ctDNA B) ssDNA C) dsDNA D) tDNA E) none of the above Answer: A Section: 11.2 Detecting and Diagnosing Human Disease Conditions Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 6 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

26) Which of the following technologies may replace microarrays?

A) Chip on Chip sequencing B) DNA and/or RNA sequencing C) Hi-throughput sequencing D) Whole biome sequencing E) Sanger sequencing Answer: B Section: 11.2 Detecting and Diagnosing Human Disease Conditions Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 27) Which of the following is valuable for analyzing somatic cell mutations?

A) Whole-exome sequencing B) Whole-genome sequencing C) Single-cell sequencing D) RNA sequencing E) Genome-wide association studies Answer: C Section: 11.3 Sequence Analysis of Individual Genomes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 28) Which of the following is valuable for transcriptome analysis?

A) Whole-exome sequencing B) Whole-genome sequencing C) Single-cell sequencing D) RNA sequencing E) Genome-wide association studies Answer: D Section: 11.3 Sequence Analysis of Individual Genomes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 29) Which of the following can reveal the heterogeneity of cell types in tumors?

A) Whole-exome sequencing B) Whole-genome sequencing C) Single-cell sequencing D) Single-cell RNA sequencing E) Genome-wide association studies Answer: D Section: 11.3 Sequence Analysis of Individual Genomes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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30) Antibodies that have been modified for use in humans are called ________.

A) genetically modified antibodies B) genetically engineered antibodies C) immunotherapeutic antibodies D) humanized antibodies E) human approved antibodies Answer: D Section: 11.4 Precision Medicine and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 31) Viruses that can be used to infect cancer cells are called ________.

A) retroviruses B) lentiviruses C) poliomyelitis viruses D) adenoviruses E) oncolytic viruses Answer: E Section: 11.4 Precision Medicine and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 32) Why is immunotherapy a promising cancer treatment? Also, describe an immunotherapy strategy.

Answer: Immunotherapy is a promising cancer treatment because it uses the patient's own immune system to kill cancer cells and has shown the ability to completely eliminate a patient's tumor. One immunotherapy strategy is to make chimeric antigen receptor (CAR)-T cells. These cells can recognize a tumor associated antigen without requiring activation by the antigen presenting cell. Thus, the cells can be programmed to recognize and destroy a tumor cell in a patient that would not normally be recognized by the immune system.

Section: 11.4 Precision Medicine and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 33) ________ use(s) DNA editing nucleases for genome editing.

A) CRISPR-Cas B) RNA interference C) Antisense RNA technology D) miRNA E) TALENS Answer: A Section: 11.5 Gene Therapy Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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34) Describe CRISPR and how it can be used to edit a genome.

Answer: CRISPR consists of delivering a single-stranded "guide" RNA sequence (sgRNA) that is complementary to the target gene sequence in the genome and attached to a nuclease called Cas9. When the sgRNA is delivered, a DNA template strand coding for a replacement sequence is delivered. Thus, the sgRNA-Cas9 binds to the targeted DNA sequence, and Cas9 generates a blunt, double-stranded break in the DNA. As the cell repairs the DNA damage caused by Cas9, repair enzymes incorporate template DNA into the genome at the CRISPR-Cas site, thereby replacing the target DNA sequence.

Section: 11.5 Gene Therapy Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 35) Which of the following is NOT an example of a successful CRISPR-Cas application?

A) Editing of FIX gene to treat hemophilia B B) Treatment of Leber's congenital amaurosis C) Editing of a mutation in the gene PCSK9 D) Replacement of Factor IX gene in mouse liver cells to cure hemophilia B E) AAV delivery of CRISPR-Cas9 in a mouse model of DMD Answer: A Section: 11.5 Gene Therapy Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 36) One method of producing human tissues by printing from cells is called ________.

A) organs on chip B) 3D bioprinting C) tissue engineering D) organoid synthesis E) 3D tissue printing Answer: B Section: 11.6 The Potential of Regenerative Medicine Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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Introduction to Biotechnology, 4e (Thieman) Chapter 12 Biotechnology Regulations 1) Which of the following regulatory agencies is charged with the regulation of plant pests and plants?

A) USDA B) IND C) EPA D) FDA E) USPTO Answer: A Section: 12.1 The Regulatory Framework Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 2) Phase ________ trials occur when a drug is tested on small groups of healthy individuals to determine the proper dose and route of administration.

A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V Answer: A Section: 12.4 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 3) Phase ________ trials occur when a drug is tested on several thousand people to determine its effectiveness compared to current drugs on the market.

A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V Answer: C Section: 12.4 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which U.S. regulatory agency oversees guidelines and laws that govern environmental applications of biotechnology and other sciences?

A) USDA B) EPA C) FDA D) NIH E) NSF Answer: B Section: 12.3 The Environmental Protection Agency Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 1 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Which of the following U.S. agencies oversees phase testing of drugs prior to their approval for clinical uses?

A) USDA B) EPA C) FDA D) NIH E) NSF Answer: C Section: 12.4 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 6) ________ is/are quality control regulations that govern procedures for human subject experimentation.

A) Good clinical practices (GCPs) B) Quality assurance (QA) C) Preclinical testing D) Good laboratory practices (GLPs) E) Good manufacturing practices (GMPs) Answer: A Section: 12.4 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 7) If you were developing a transgenic strain of pest-resistant watermelons, which federal agency would primarily be responsible for regulating this biotech product?

A) FDA B) DEP C) USDA D) EPA E) DOT Answer: C Section: 12.2 U.S. Department of Agriculture Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 8) Which federal agency oversees, regulates, and monitors the safety of biotech and pharmaceutical products and medical devices during consumer use?

A) National Institutes of Health B) U.S. Department of Agriculture C) Environmental Protection Agency D) Food and Drug Administration E) National Science Foundation Answer: D Section: 12.4 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Following successful completion of a phase III trial for a particular drug, a biotechnology company would apply for a (an) ________ to receive approval to sell the drug.

A) IND B) DNA C) NDA D) patent E) copyright Answer: C Section: 12.4 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 10) The ________ is the federal agency that provides a majority of federal funding for medical research in the United States and oversees all federally funded medical research in the United States.

A) Food and Drug Administration B) National Institutes of Health C) Environmental Protection Agency D) U.S. Department of Agriculture E) Department of Environmental Protection Answer: B Section: 12.4 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 11) A ________ provides an inventor with government-granted protection of an invention for a period of time, preventing others from using, making or selling the product without being licensed to do so.

A) clinical trial B) NDA C) patent D) royalty E) licensing agreement Answer: C Section: 12.6 Introduction to Patents Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 12) Phase ________ trials occur when a drug is tested on individuals with a disease to determine the effectiveness of a drug in treating a disease.

A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V Answer: B Section: 12.4 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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13) ________ needs to be approved before testing a new drug in humans.

A) An NDA B) An IND C) An FDA D) A CDE E) An EPA Answer: B Section: 12.4 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 14) The government regulations that are required for the making of a biologic medicine is known as ________.

A) GCP B) GLP C) GMP D) QA E) QC Answer: C Section: 12.4 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 15) Viral resistance in crops would be regulated by which agency?

A) FDA B) USDA C) EPA D) USPTO E) None of these choices Answer: B Section: 12.5 Legislation and Regulation: The Ongoing Role of Government Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 16) Which agency would be in charge of determining whether or not modified oil content is safe to eat?

A) FDA B) USDA C) EPA D) USPTO E) None of these choices Answer: A Section: 12.5 Legislation and Regulation: The Ongoing Role of Government Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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17) Which agency determines whether or not something is safe for the environment?

A) FDA B) USDA C) EPA D) USPTO E) None of these choices Answer: C Section: 12.5 Legislation and Regulation: The Ongoing Role of Government Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 18) A patent for a DNA sequence would be deemed to have substantive utility if it ________.

A) showed what the DNA sequence coded for B) showed a real-world use for the DNA sequence C) showed the nucleotide sequence of the DNA D) showed the protein sequence of the DNA E) showed that the DNA sequence was found in other organisms Answer: B Section: 12.6 Introduction to Patents Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 19) Is it true or false that the generally-recognized-as-safe rule means that the FDA sees a foreseeable threat from human use of the product?

A) True B) False Answer: B Section: 12.4 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 20) Distinguish between utility, design, and plant patents.

Answer: Utility patents protect processes, machines, and manufactured goods, such as computer hardware and medicines.

Design patents protect against the unauthorized use of new or original designs for manufactured goods. An example would be the look of a bike helmet or shoe.

Plant patents protect invented or discovered asexually produced plant varieties.

Section: 12.6 Introduction to Patents Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 21) Describe what is measured during the first three phases of clinical trials.

Answer: Phase I enrolls about 80 healthy patients to observe drug side effects. Phase II enrolls about 300 patients who have the disease to confirm efficacy and set dosages. Phase III enrolls between 1,000 to 5,000 patients and serves to show the efficacy of the drug against other drugs on the market or against a placebo. It is the longest-running phase of clinical trials.

Section: 12.4 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

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22) Describe what the FDA, EPA, and USDA oversee.

Answer: The Food and Drug Administration oversees food, medicines, and medical devices.

The Environmental Protection Agency oversees endangered species and car emissions, and regulates pesticides and herbicides. The U.S. Department of Agriculture oversees plant pests, plants, and veterinary biologics.

Section: 12.4 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing 23) Congress passed the ________ to accelerate the development of new drugs and reduce the time that regulations restrict drugs from the marketplace.

A) New Drug Acceleration Act B) Health Initiatives Act C) 21st Century Health Act D) 21st Century Cures Act E) none of the above Answer: D Section: 12.4 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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Introduction to Biotechnology, 4e (Thieman) Chapter 13 Ethics and Biotechnology 1) Bt transgenic crops are designed to ________.

A) improve the nutritional value of crops B) make crops heat-resistant C) make crops cold-resistant D) increase vitamin B content E) provide resistance to insects Answer: E Section: 13.2 Examples of Ethics and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 2) In clinical trials, control groups of individuals who receive a safe but noneffective treatment instead of the drug being studied are being given ________.

A) stem cells B) a placebo C) a double-blind trial D) efficacy E) none of these choices Answer: B Section: 13.2 Examples of Ethics and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 3) Studies, such as clinical trials, that are completely randomized so that neither the physicians nor the patients know who is receiving an experimental drug are called ________.

A) placebo studies B) homeopathic medicine C) regenerative medicine D) double-blind trials E) none of these choices Answer: D Section: 13.2 Examples of Ethics and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 4) Which of the following statements regarding the use of genetically modified foods in the United States is INCORRECT? A) Bt crops are not intended for human consumption.

B) All GM foods for consumer use must be labeled as such.

C) Not all GM crops involve transgenic plants.

D) DNA tests can be used to identify many GM plants.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Section: 13.2 Examples of Ethics and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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5) Cloning of an entire organism is known as ________.

A) gene cloning B) genomics C) regenerative medicine D) reproductive cloning E) therapeutic cloning Answer: D Section: 13.2 Examples of Ethics and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 6) Cloning an embryo to derive stem cells for the treatment of disease is known as ________.

A) gene cloning B) genomics C) regenerative medicine D) reproductive cloning E) therapeutic cloning Answer: E Section: 13.2 Examples of Ethics and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 7) A utilitarian approach to a bioethical issue would ________.

A) focus on absolute principles of "right" or "wrong" B) emphasize intentions, not outcomes of the decision C) be designed to produce the greatest positive effect for the greatest number of people D) always ensure that all actions are favorable for all parties E) never allow the end result of a decision to justify the means Answer: C Section: 13.1 What is Ethics?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 8) Risk assessments must involve ________.

A) statistical measurements B) proving that something will never do any harm to anyone C) assuring proper use of all new techniques developed D) minimal input from all parties involved with the project E) none of these choices Answer: A Section: 13.2 Examples of Ethics and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

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9) Understanding the risks in participating in a clinical trial and agreeing to participate is known as ________.

A) the placebo effect B) the drug affect C) informed consent D) drug-drug interaction E) a double-blind study Answer: C Section: 13.2 Examples of Ethics and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 10) Which of the following is NOT true about regenerative medicine?

A) Stem cells are involved.

B) Repair of damaged tissues takes place.

C) Ethical debates have happened around regenerative medicine.

D) There are no U.S. companies working on regenerative medicine.

E) Regenerative medicine has made progress in bladder and kidney treatments.

Answer: D Section: 13.2 Examples of Ethics and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 11) What is a potential future treatment option for preventing mtDNA based disease transmission?

A) Mitochondrial DNA swapping B) Mitochondrial replacement therapy C) Mitochondrial DNA therapy D) mtDNA therapy E) None of the above Answer: B Section: 13.2 Examples of Ethics and Biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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