Test Bank for Human Resource Management 6CE Sandra Steen, Raymond Andrew Noe, John R. Hollenbeck, Ba

Test Bank for Human Resource Management 6CE Sandra Steen, Raymond Andrew Noe, John R. Hollenbeck, Barry Gerhart, Patrick M. Wright

Chapter 1-11Answers are at the Eand of Each Chapter Chapter 1 Student name:__________ 1) Managers and economists traditionally have seen human resource management as a source of

value to their organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2) The concept of "human resource management" implies that employees are interchangeable,

easily replaced assets that should be managed like any other physical asset. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3) No two human resource departments will have precisely the same roles and responsibilities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

4) Recruitment refers to the process by which an organization selects applicants with the right

knowledge, skills, and abilities to help the organization achieve its goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

5) Performance management requires that employee activities and outputs match the

individual's goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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6) Important decisions in planning pay and benefits include how much to offer employees in

salary or wages, as opposed to bonuses, commissions, and other performance-related pay. ⊚ true ⊚ false

7) The shift to self-service requires HR to spend more time on day-to-day transactional tasks. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8) Compliance with laws and regulations is not an HR responsibility, but rather the sole

responsibility of managers within the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9) HR is increasingly becoming a purely administrative function. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10) As part of its strategic role, one of the key contributions HR can make is to engage in

evidence-based HRM. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11) Canada underperforms the United States with respect to productivity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12) HRM should have a significant role in carrying out a merger or acquisition. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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13) Non-traditional workers e.g. contractors and temporary workers, currently represent more

than 50 percent of the workforce, and this percentage is expected to increase significantly. ⊚ true ⊚ false

14) Setting up a business enterprise in another country (e.g. building a factory in China) is called

outsourcing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

15) Recent surveys indicate that the general public and managers do not have positive

perceptions of the ethical conduct of businesses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

16) HR activities are carried out exclusively by HR specialists in small organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

17) Canada's labour force is aging. ⊚ true ⊚ false

18) Mobile devices are increasingly being used to access HR processes, information, and

collaborative tools. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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19) As a type of resource, human capital refers to: A) the wages, benefits, and other costs incurred in support of HR functions within an

organization.

B) executive talent within an organization.

C) the tax-deferred value of an employee's pension plan.

D) employee characteristics that can add economic value to the organization.

E) substitutes for physical assets.

20) Human capital refers to an organization's employees described in terms of all of the

following, EXCEPT? A) Profitability B) Training C) Relationships D) Intelligence E) Experience

21) When an organization is better than competitors at something, and can hold that advantage

over a sustained period of time, it is said to have a: A) differentiated focus.

B) sustainable competitive advantage.

C) core competency.

D) low-cost competitive advantage.

E) absolute advantage.

22) In the context of human resources, EX represents: A) Experience level B) Emotional intelligence C) Employee engagement D) Employee experience E) Employee expectations

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23) The degree to which employees are fully involved in their work and the strength of their

commitment to their organization is called: A) employee engagement.

B) employee satisfaction.

C) core competency.

D) differentiated focus.

E) workplace potential.

24) Which one of the following refers to the process of getting detailed information about jobs?

A) Job design B) Recruitment C) Selection D) Job analysis E) Performance management

25) What do you call the process through which an organization seeks applicants for potential

employment?

A) Recruitment B) Selection C) Onboarding D) Job analysis E) Performance management

26) Development programs often focus on: A) enabling employees to learn job-related knowledge, skills, and behaviour.

B) ensuring that employees' activities and outputs match the organization's goals.

C) preparing employees for leadership responsibilities.

D) identifying the top qualities employers look for in employees.

E) increasing the profitability of each employee.

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27) Which one of the following refers to a planned effort to enable employees to learn job-related

knowledge, skills, and behaviours?

A) Orientation B) Selection C) Recruitment D) Training E) Development

28) The process of ensuring that employees' activities and outputs match the organization's goals

is called: A) job analysis.

B) strategic management.

C) quality assurance.

D) performance management.

E) development.

29) Use of quantitative tools and scientific methods to analyse data from HR databases and other

sources to make evidence-based decisions is called: A) people (human capital) analytics.

B) productivity improvement.

C) performance management.

D) strategic HRM. E) self-service.

30) The COVID-19 pandemic put the role of ________ into prominent focus as HR leaders

endeavoured to meet the needs of their organization’s workforce while navigating changing legislation.

A) business partner services B) strategic partner C) administrative services D) administrative transactions E) stakeholder collaborator

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31) __________ is a systematic and planned effort to train, develop, and engage the performance

of highly skilled employees and managers.

A) Evidence-based HRM B) Job analysis C) Talent acquisition D) Talent management E) Performance management

32) ______________ refers to demonstrating that human resource practices have a positive

influence on the company's profits or key stakeholders.

A) Strategy B) Evidence-based HRM C) Productivity improvement D) Compliance E) Performance management

33) Companies that rely primarily on non-traditional employment to meet service and product

demands are competing in the _______ economy.

A) self-service B) gig C) contractor D) on-demand E) evolving

34) A small manufacturing company decides to have its accounting function performed by a

medium-sized accounting firm. This is an example of: A) offshoring.

B) expatriation.

C) outsourcing.

D) joining forces through a merger.

E) productivity improvement.

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35) Employees who take assignments in other countries are called: A) knowledge workers.

B) immigrants.

C) expatriates.

D) nationalists.

E) outsourcees.

36) The highest people-related risks identified by Canadian HR managers include all of the

following, EXCEPT? A) Workforce exhaustion B) Data privacy C) Supply chain management D) Deteriorating mental health E) Communicable health conditions

37) Which of the following terms describes an organization’s ability to profit and/or achieve its

goals without depleting its resources, including employees, natural resources, and the support of the surrounding community?

A) Organizational effectiveness B) Total rewards C) Talent management D) Sustainability E) Corporate governance

38) Which of the following refers to a collection of corporate performance evaluation criteria that

assesses the robustness of a company’s governance mechanisms and its ability to effectively manage its environmental and social impacts?

A) Talent management B) ESG strategies C) Sustainability D) Corporate governance E) Organizational effectiveness

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39) Truth and Reconciliation Commission of Canada: Calls to Action provides directives to: A) Support diversity, equity, and inclusion in the workplace.

B) Prevent the harassment and exploitation of Canada’s youth.

C) Transition formal workplaces to embrace remote and hybrid work options.

D) Build meaningful and sustainable relationships with Indigenous peoples.

E) Support employee psychological safety.

40) Which of the following was one of the first companies to use analytics to make people

decisions by creating algorithms to predict in which job candidates were most likely to succeed?

A) Amazon B) Tesla C) Google D) Facebook E) Twitter

41) According to a study from Randstad Canada, non-traditional workers currently make up

_______ of the workforce and this number is expected to rise in the next decade.

A) half B) 10 percent C) three-quarters D) 60 percent E) 20 to 30 percent

42) In 2021, ______ were welcomed to Canada, which was the highest number in any one year

of Canada’s history, even in spite of the pandemic.

A) 50,000 permanent residents B) 150,000 permanent residents C) 250,000 permanent residents D) 400,000 permanent residents E) 650,000 permanent residents

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43) The widespread trend of a significant number of workers leaving their jobs during the

COVID-19 pandemic has been dubbed: A) Boomer-exodus B) CERB Addition C) The Great Resignation D) The Floodgates to Retirement E) Pseudo-retirement

44) A cluster of competencies related to using the levers available to HR professionals to

maximize the performance of organizations, teams, and individuals within the context of executing the organization's strategy refers to what grouping of the HR Professionals' competency framework illustrated in your course materials?

A) Employee and labour relations B) Total rewards C) Workforce planning and talent management D) Professional practices E) Organizational effectiveness

45) Ethics refer to: A) one's religious beliefs.

B) what is required by law.

C) one's political values and beliefs.

D) the fundamental principles of right and wrong.

E) what is acceptable to the company.

46) Which of CPHR Canada’s general competencies means synthesizing and analysing all

relevant information to understand and address a situation?

A) Relational intelligence B) Data and sensemaking C) Business acumen D) Working digitally E) Leadership

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47) Which of CPHR Canada’s general competencies means forging positive relationships and

developing self-awareness in regard to the impact on others?

A) Relational intelligence B) Data and sensemaking C) Business acumen D) Working digitally E) Leadership

48) Which of the choices is the general term that refers to all people willing and able to work?

A) Labour force B) Internal labour force C) External labour market D) Knowledge workers E) Passive labour force

49) Statistics Canada predicts: A) the number of Canadians in the labour force is projected to decrease between now and

2036.

B) Canada’s overall labour force participation rate is expected to decline.

C) Canada’s overall labour force participation rate is expected to increase.

D) the Canadian Pension Plan will be depleted by 2036.

E) Canada will not suffer from any labour shortages in the near future.

50) In 2022, Canada’s labour force participation rate was reported as: A) 50 percent B) 58 precent C) 75 percent D) 65 percent E) 85 percent

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51) ________ are presently becoming the "newest" faces in organizations.

A) Traditionalists B) Generation Z C) Millennials D) Baby Boomers E) Generation X

52) Statistics Canada reports the Indigenous-identity population of Canada is approximately

_______ percent of Canada’s total population.

A) 5 percent B) 2.5 percent C) 15 percent D) 8 percent E) 1.5 percent

53) ________ became the first country to collect and publish gender diversity data by asking a

survey question in the 2021 Census that differentiated between “sex at birth” and “gender”— previous census data only asked to identify “sex.”

A) The United States B) Norway C) Australia D) The Netherlands E) Canada

54) The proportion of transgender and non-binary people is highest among: A) Generation Z B) Millennials C) Generation X D) Baby boomers E) Indigenous peoples

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55) Funmi is a marketing analyst who provides highly specialized social marketing expertise to

her employer. Funmi is _________.

A) a knowledge worker B) a millennial C) passive talent D) a data scientist E) an expatriate

56) Almost 1 in _____ people in Canada's labour force in 2022, had a university degree (or

higher).

A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 10 E) 20

57) _________ is a technology that simulates human thinking. It works through queries that

allow it to learn from data over time so that it can identify trends and patterns that influence future searches and suggestions.

A) Robotics B) Social network C) Knowledge work D) Evidence-based HRM E) Artificial intelligence

58) A computer system used to acquire, store, retrieve, and distribute information related to a

company's human resources is called: A) big data.

B) a human resource information system (HRIS).

C) a gig system.

D) an HR dashboard.

E) artificial intelligence.

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59) Arcady views and accesses important HR metrics and other important indicators that are

prominently displayed on his computer's desktop and mobile device. This ___________ also provides access to important HR metrics for conducting people analytics.

A) application of artificial intelligence B) application of robotics C) HR dashboard D) psychological contract E) cloud

60) List the four qualities associated with human resources that help an organization gain a

sustainable competitive advantage.

61) What is meant by employee engagement? Describe an engaged employee and how a manager

can influence employee engagement.

62) One way to define the responsibilities of HR departments is to think of HR as a business

within the organization with three product lines. Briefly describe each of these product lines.

For each of these product lines what type of HR expertise is needed?

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63) What are the top five attributes that employers say they are looking for in job candidates?

64) Discuss the three pillars of ESG and provide an example of each.

65) Describe the foundation upon which Indigenization is built.

66) Explain what is meant by evidence-based HRM?

67) How does the Business Development Bank of Canada (BDC) explain the gap in productivity

between Canada and the United States?

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68) Are non-traditional employment relationships good or bad? Discuss both perspectives.

69) What are some of the specific ways human resources professionals support the organization's

strategy?

70) Explain why supervisors and managers are expected to be familiar with the basics of HRM.

List 5 examples of the types of HR responsibilities supervisors and managers are expected to perform.

71) Give three examples of CPHR Canada’s general competencies.

72) Describe three of HRPA’s enabling competencies.

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73) What are knowledge workers? What do they contribute to the organization and what are the

organizational implications of employing knowledge workers?

74) Describe Canada’s multi-generational workforce.

75) Describe artificial intelligence on a continuum from least to most intelligent.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) A 26) C 27) D 28) D 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) C 35) C 36) C 37) D

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38) B 39) D 40) C 41) E 42) D 43) C 44) E 45) D 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) D 51) B 52) A 53) E 54) A 55) A 56) B 57) E 58) B 59) C 60) Short Answer

The four qualities are: 1. Human resources are valuable. High-quality employees provide a needed service as they perform many critical functions.

2. Human resources are rare. A person with high levels of the needed skills and knowledge is not common. An organization might spend months looking for a talented and experienced manager or technician.

3. Human resources cannot be imitated. To imitate human resources at a high-performing competitor requires one to first figure out which employees are providing the advantage and how to recruit people who can do precisely the same thing.

4. Human resources have no good substitutes. When people are well trained and highly motivated, they learn, develop their abilities, and care about customers. Few, if any other resources can match committed and talented employees.

61) Short Answer

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Employee engagement refers to the degree to which employees are fully involved in their work and the strength of their commitment to their job and the organization.

Engaged employees are often described as being passionate about their work. They are seen as being very committed to the company and its mission, and work hard to contribute.

Employees’ engagement is influenced by how managers treat them as well as by HR practices 62) Short Answer

The three HR product lines are: • Administrative services and transactions—Handling administrative tasks such as processing tuition reimbursement applications and answering questions about benefits efficiently and with a commitment to quality. This requires expertise in the particular tasks.

• Business partner services—Developing effective HR systems that help the organization meet its goals for attracting, keeping, and developing people with the skills it needs. For the systems to be effective, HR people must understand the business so it can understand what the business needs.

Requires HR to understand the business so it can understand what the business needs.

• Strategic partner—Contributing to the company's strategy through an understanding of its existing and needed human resources and ways HR practices can give the company a competitive advantage.

HR professionals must understand the business, its industry, and its competitors.

63) Short Answer

Top Attributes Employers Look for in Employees Ability to work in a team Problem-solving skills Analytical/quantitative skills Communication skills (verbal) Communication skills (written) 64) Short Answer

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1. → Environmental → - What is the business doing to reduce its impact on the environment? a. → For example: Utilizing renewable energy resources, Reducing waste and pollution, 2. → Social → - What importance and focus does the business place on issues that impact employees, contractors, and the wider community? a. → For example: Safety, Diversity, equity, and inclusion, Ethical supply chain. Mental health, Truth and Reconciliation Commission of Canada: Calls to Action 3. → Governance - How does the business operate? a. → For example: Diversity of the board of directors, Responsible executive compensation 65) Short Answer

The foundation of Indigenization is built upon strengthening core values of non-Indigenous people to learn about and respect Indigenous worldviews, knowledge, and perspectives, and collaborating with Indigenous peoples and communities, for example, on organizational and HR policies, practices, and systems.

Indigenizing workplaces refers to the practise of welcoming Indigenous knowledge and perspectives genuinely and authentically by empowering Indigenous voices (while ensuring that Indigenous voices are not replaced in this process).

66) Short Answer

As part of its strategic role, one of the key contributions HR can make is to engage in evidencebased HRM. Evidence-based HRM refers to demonstrating that human resource practices have a positive influence on the company's profits or key stakeholders (employees, customers, community, shareholders). This practice helps show that the resources invested in HR programs are justified and that HR is contributing to the company's goals and objectives. For example, data collected on the relationship between HR practices and productivity, turnover, workplace injuries, and employee engagement may show that HR functions are as important to the business as finance, accounting, and marketing.

67) Short Answer

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The Business Development Bank of Canada (BDC) explains the gap in productivity between Canada and the United States is mainly attributable to two factors: 1. → Canada’s GDP (Gross Domestic Product) is more heavily weighted to small and mediumsized businesses than the United States. Fifty-three percent of Canada’s GDP comes from small and medium-sized businesses versus 46 percent in the United States.

2. → Canada’s small and medium-sized businesses are less productive than their U.S. counterparts. U.S. small and medium-sized businesses are 67 percent as productive as large businesses; however, Canadian small and medium-sized businesses are only 47 percent as productive as large businesses.

68) Short Answer

Some labour analysts argue that these work arrangements are substandard jobs featuring low pay, fear of underemployment, poor benefits, and dissatisfying work. Others claim that these jobs provide flexibility for companies and employees alike. With non-traditional employment arrangements, organizations can more easily modify the number of their employees. Continually adjusting staffing levels is especially cost effective for an organization that has fluctuating demand for its products and services. And when an organization downsizes by laying off temporary and part-time employees, the damage to morale among permanent full-time workers is likely to be less severe.

69) Short Answer

The specific ways in which human resources professionals support the organization's strategy vary according to their level of involvement and the nature of the strategy. Strategic issues include emphasis on innovation and decisions about growth. Human resource management can support these strategies, including efforts such as attracting and retaining critical talent, productivity improvement, mergers and acquisitions, and restructuring. For example, a decision to use outsourcing can make an organization more efficient but can also give rise to many human resource challenges. Global expansion similarly presents a wide variety of HRM challenges and opportunities. In an agile organization, HR needs to provide the same services it's always provided—attracting and hiring, training and development, performance management, compensation and rewards—but in ways that are responsive to the ongoing changes in the culture and work style of the organization.

70) Short Answer

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Although many organizations have human resource departments, HR activities are by no means limited to HR specialists. Supervisors and managers need to be familiar with the basics of HRM and their role with regard to managing human resources. In small organizations, there may be an HR specialist, but many HR activities are carried out by supervisors and managers who typically have responsibilities related to all the HR functions. Organizations depend on supervisors and managers to help them determine what kinds of work need to be done (job analysis and design) and in what quantities (workforce planning). They typically interview job candidates and participate in the decisions about which candidates to hire. Many organizations expect supervisors and managers to train employees in some or all aspects of the employees' jobs. They conduct performance appraisals and may recommend pay increases. They also play a key role in employee relations, representing the company on a day-to-day basis.

71) Short Answer

Data and sensemaking means “synthesize and analyse all relevant information to understand and address a situation.”

Relational intelligence means “forge positive relationships, establish meaningful connect and interaction with people, and develop self-awareness in regard to the impact on others.”

Business acumen means “understand and use foundational drivers of business to create opportunities and strategies that add value, and implement them to benefit the organization, stakeholders, and society.”

Leadership means “take initiative and action to achieve shared outcomes, as an individual or by inspiring others.”

Working digitally means “understand and proficiently use the appropriate tool(s) to increase efficiency, effectiveness, and connectivity. Leverage the power of digital tools automation to drive efficiency and connectivity.”

72) Short Answer

Critical thinking analysis means “analysing problems and challenges with perceptiveness and insight; having the capacity for flexible and innovative thinking; seeing how the various parts or facets of a problem relate to each other.”

Relationship management means “building networks; establishing effective working relationships; and working productively with others.”

Business acumen means “effectively leveraging the context and dynamics of business.”

Strategic and organizational leadership means “working in, building, and leading teams; and demonstrating competence in goal setting, planning and organization, collaboration, process management, empathy, flexibility, responding to feedback, and conflict management.”

Technological savvy means “making use of various technologies to best advantage; seeing the possibilities in emerging technologies; and managing the implementation of new technologies.”

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73) Short Answer

Knowledge workers are employees whose main contribution to the company is specialized knowledge such as knowledge of customers, a process, or a profession. Employees cannot simply be ordered to perform tasks; they must share knowledge and collaborate on solutions.

Knowledge workers contribute specialized knowledge that their managers may not have, such as information about customers. Managers depend on them to share information. Knowledge workers have many job opportunities. If they choose, they can leave a company and take their knowledge to a competitor. Knowledge workers are in demand because companies need their skills and jobs requiring them are growing.

74) Short Answer

Baby boomers (born between 1946 and 1965), accounted for 19.7 percent of working age persons in 2021 and tend to have a strong work ethic, value unexpected rewards, opportunities for learning, and time with management.

Generation X (born between 1966 and 1980) represented 29.5 percent of working age people in 2021. Generation X tend to be pragmatic and cynical and have well-developed self-management skills.

Millennials (born between 1981 and 1996, represent the largest share of working age people in Canada-—about one-third (33.2 percent). Millennials tend to value work–life balance and flexible work arrangements, professional development, and experiencing a sense of purpose in their work.

Generation Z (born between 1997 and 2006), the newest arrivals to the workforce, make up 17.6 percent of Canada’s working age population and tend to value individual expression and ongoing dialogue to solve conflicts and improve the world.

75) Short Answer

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Assisted intelligence. Humans perform the task, manage the process, and make the decisions with assistance from technology. For example, virtual assistants (like Alexa or Siri) can guide someone through the process of applying for a job and chatbots can answer employees’ questions on basic employment topics such as vacations and other benefits.

Augmented intelligence. The strengths of humans and machine capabilities are combined. For example, the technology keeps learning from new employee data and improves accuracy over time to accurately predict which employees may be at most risk of resigning from the organization. The HR professionals review the predictions and determines strategies to retain talent.

Autonomous intelligence. The technology functions independently from humans. The technology not only learns and adapts but also makes decisions without human intervention. For example, the technology makes the decision about which candidate to hire, without any review or input from a manager or HR professional. Arguably, when it comes to HR decisions, this type of autonomous intelligence for HR decision making may not be ideal

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Student name:__________ 76) The legal landscape for human resource management is complex and evolving, however the

laws are identical among the various jurisdictions in Canada. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77) Having people of different backgrounds and experiences represented in the workplace refers

to diversity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78) "Inclusion" is another name for "diversity". ⊚ true ⊚ false

79) Federal, provincial, and territorial governments in Canada all play an important role in

creating the legal environment for human resource management. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80) Approximately 93 percent of Canadian employers and their employees are covered by

provincial/territorial legislation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81) In Canada, banks are covered by provincial/territorial legislation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

82) Hospitals, schools, colleges, and universities are covered by federal legislation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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83) Discrimination means to treat someone differently, negatively, or adversely because of their

race, age, religion, sex, or other prohibited ground. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84) Direct discrimination involves practices or policies that appear to be neutral but have an

adverse effect on someone on the basis of a protected ground. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85) For a behaviour to be considered "harassment" it must be physical in nature. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) According to a recent Insights West poll of working women in Canada, approximately 1 in

10 say they have experienced sexual harassment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) Women are an employment equity designated group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88) The Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) gives

individuals the right to access and request correction of the personal information an organization may have collected about them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89) The use of unpaid interns is likely a violation of pay equity legislation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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90) Pay equity is a principle of nondiscrimination in wages that requires men and women

working the same number of hours to be paid the same. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91) The Canadian Human Rights Commission provides oversight and enforces human rights

legislation in organizations that fall under federal jurisdiction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92) The effective management of health and safety in the workplace includes more than legal

compliance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93) Safety in the workplace is based on the foundation of an external responsibility system

whereby governments are responsible for creating and maintaining safe and healthy work environments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

94) A health and safety committee is comprised of members from the government and

participating organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

95) The top organizational concern about the legalization of recreational cannabis is testing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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96) The Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System (WHMIS) is related to the worker's

"right to know." ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) Bill C-45 (Westray Bill) makes anyone who directs the work of others criminally liable for

safety offences. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98) In addition to ensuring a safe physical working environment, employers are responsible for

providing psychological safety for employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99) The number of time-loss injuries in Canada has declined each year since 2000. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100)

Experienced employees are unlikely to need safety retraining because they are familiar with the dangers associated with their work. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101)

Employee assistance programs (EAPs) focus primarily on treating alcoholism. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102)

Cultural and legal differences make it more difficult to ensure the safety of employees working internationally. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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103)

__________ is about behaviour that creates an environment where people experience a sense of belonging, feeling respected, valued, and seen as who we are as individuals.

A) Discrimination B) Diversity C) Inclusion D) Initiative taking E) Differential treatment

104)

Diversity can be calculated, tracked, and reported—it's about: A) inclusion.

B) differences.

C) similarities.

D) safety.

E) strategy.

105)

What level or type of government plays an important role in creating the legal environment for human resource management?

A) Municipal B) Territorial C) Provincial D) Federal E) Territorial, Provincial, and Federal

106)

Which of the following organizations are NOT covered by federal legislation?

A) Airlines B) Television and radio stations C) Grain elevators, feed, and seed mills D) Retail and hospitality businesses e.g. stores and restaurants E) Uranium mining and processing

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107)

Which of the following terms refers to the proportional participation at all levels of an institution?

A) Legitimate diversity B) Conditional inclusion C) Representational inclusion D) Representational equity E) Representational diversity

108)

According to a recent survey of more than 1,500 respondents, ______of Canadians believe that inclusion is more important now than prior to the pandemic.

A) one-third B) 10 percent C) two-thirds D) a quarter E) 50 percent

109)

Which of the following terms refers to any person who actively promotes and aspires to advance the culture of inclusion to create affirming and welcoming environments for everyone?

A) Ombudsperson B) Ally C) HR Specialist D) Social convener E) Socialist

110)

Which of the following events heightened awareness of workplace inequities and perilous conditions faced by some of Canada’s critical workers?

A) The 2008 financial crisis B) The war on Ukraine C) The Trump Presidency D) The COVID-19 pandemic E) The 2021 recession

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111)

In addition to heightening physical safety concerns of healthcare and other essential service workers, COVID-19 also raised awareness of which other aspect of employee safety?

A) Income inequality B) Minimum wage legislation C) Bill 124 D) Psychological safety E) Employment standards

112)

All of the following are protected (prohibited) grounds of discrimination under federal legislation, EXCEPT: A) Religion B) Gender identity C) Weight D) Pardoned conviction E) Age

113)

If a woman is denied a job on the basis that she has school-age children, but men with school-age children obtain employment, this is an example of: A) respectful behaviour.

B) compassionate treatment.

C) differential treatment.

D) strategic recruitment.

E) the duty to accommodate.

114)

How can companies avoid differential treatment?

A) Companies can ask questions and receive responses through written communication mediums exclusively.

B) Companies can advertise job openings to a single gender only.

C) Companies can evaluate the questions and investigations they use in making employment decisions.

D) Companies can ensure at least two HR associates are present during the interview and subsequent hiring decisions.

E) Companies can be more explicit on their preferred job requirements.

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115)

Is differential treatment of employees ever legal?

A) Yes, when employing people older than 55 years of age.

B) Yes, when there is a bona fide occupational requirement.

C) Yes, when employing people with disabilities.

D) Yes, when employees do not file complaints.

E) No, differential treatment of employees is always illegal.

116)

A bona fide occupational requirement (BFOR) must be: A) an industry-wide, recognized practice.

B) a necessary, not merely preferred, qualification for performing a job.

C) acceptable to all managers and supervisors.

D) acceptable to all employees.

E) a preferred qualification for performing a job.

117)

Who is responsible to prove the existence of a bona fide occupational requirement (BFOR) if any complaint of discrimination should arise?

A) Employer B) Employee C) Government D) Lawyers E) Privacy Commissioner

118)

The employer's duty to accommodate extends to the point of: A) inconvenience.

B) employer preference.

C) employee preference.

D) undue adjustment.

E) undue hardship.

119)

Harassment is a form of: A) discrimination.

B) accommodation.

C) work style.

D) communication.

E) differential treatment.

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120)

Which of the following is NOT a designated employment equity group?

A) Women B) Members of visible minorities C) Elderly people D) Persons with disabilities E) Aboriginal peoples

121)

What federal legislation provides rules for how private-sector organizations collect, use, or disclose information about employees in the course of for-profit commercial activities in Canada?

A) Canadian Human Rights Act B) Charter of Rights and Freedoms C) Employment Equity Act D) Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) E) Official Languages Act

122)

Employment/Labour Standards legislation covers all the following areas, EXCEPT: A) maximum wage.

B) hours of work and work scheduling.

C) minimum wage.

D) parental leave.

E) overtime pay.

123)

The four criteria usually applied to pay equity include all of the following, except?

A) Skill B) Experience C) Effort D) Responsibility E) Working conditions

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124)

Pay equity legislation is intended to address the _________ gap between men and women in the workplace.

A) skill B) Education C) pay D) age E) job satisfaction

125)

The Conference Board of Canada reports the gap in income between men and women in Canada is: A) successfully resolved.

B) negligible.

C) 19 percent.

D) 10 percent.

E) 28 percent.

126)

The ______________ provides individuals under federal jurisdiction a means to resolve complaints of discrimination.

A) Canadian Human Rights Commission B) (Office of the) Privacy Commissioner of Canada C) Pay Equity Advisor of Canada D) Canada Labour Code E) Canadian Tribunal

127)

Which of the following is NOT a role of Employment/Labour Standards offices?

A) Ensure that employees are paid fairly B) Provide tools and online resources for employees and employers C) Hear complaints D) Conduct investigations E) Address allegations of discrimination

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128)

Increasingly, organizations are taking a strategic approach to occupational health and safety by: A) focusing on legal compliance.

B) avoiding responsibility for worker health and safety.

C) holding employees solely responsible for safe operations.

D) adopting a values-based commitment to safe operations.

E) both "focusing on legal compliance" and "avoiding responsibility for worker health and safety."

129)

Safety in the workplace is based on the foundation of a(n): A) external responsibility system.

B) government system.

C) internal responsibility system.

D) dangerous system.

E) worker at fault system.

130)

Health and safety committees are __________ by the employer and employees at large (or union) to address health and safety issues in a workplace.

A) elected B) randomly assigned C) contracted D) judged E) jointly appointed

131)

At a minimum, employers, managers, and supervisors have a duty to provide a safe workplace. Their responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) pay employees more if they are willing to perform unsafe work.

B) identify the need for training for employees and themselves.

C) supply personal protective equipment and ensure workers know how to use the equipment.

D) take every reasonable precaution to ensure the workplace is safe.

E) immediately report all critical injuries to the appropriate government department.

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132)

_________, especially in safety-sensitive roles, is the top concern for employers as Canada became the first G7 country to legalize and regulate recreational cannabis on a national scale.

A) Data collection B) Safety C) Disclosure D) Cost E) Testing

133)

The Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System (WHMIS) relates to the worker's: A) right to refuse unsafe work.

B) right to know about actual and potential dangers in the workplace.

C) responsibility to follow safety rules and regulations.

D) right to participate in workplace health and safety activities.

E) right to refuse all dangerous work.

134)

Bill C-45 (the Westray Bill) increased the maximum consequences to organizations and anyone who directs the work of others to: A) $25,000 fine.

B) $100,000 fine.

C) unlimited fines.

D) life imprisonment.

E) both unlimited fines and life imprisonment for serious offences.

135)

Workplace safety includes both physical and _________ safety.

A) psychological B) regulated C) legal D) future E) informal

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136)

The well-publicized case of Metron Construction Corporation exemplifies: A) PIPEDA B) Due diligence C) A bona fide occupational requirement D) Bill 124 E) Bill C-45

137)

According to a recent survey conducted by Catalyst, approximately what percentage of Indigenous persons report not feeling psychologically safe at work?

A) 20 percent B) 40 percent C) 60 percent D) 80 percent E) 99 percent

138)

According to the Mental Health Commission of Canada, in a typical week, ______ Canadians are unable to work due to psychological issues.

A) 10,000 B) 50,000 C) 100,000 D) 250,000 E) 500,000

139)

Which of the following is a primary component of a safety awareness program?

A) Identifying and communicating hazards B) Reinforcing safe practices C) Promoting safety internationally D) Identifying and communicating hazards, reinforcing safe practices, and promoting safety internationally.

E) Only "identifying and communicating hazards" and "reinforcing safe practices."

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140)

The safety technique that involves breaking a job down into basic elements, then rating each element for its potential for harm or injury is known as: A) job design.

B) job hazard analysis technique.

C) job analysis.

D) hazard analysis.

E) technic of operations review.

141)

The first step of a technic of operations review analysis of an accident is to: A) establish the facts surrounding the incident.

B) identify the basic elements of the job.

C) rate each of the basic job elements for its hazard potential.

D) identify the single, systemic failure that most likely contributed to the incident.

E) identify two or three secondary factors that likely contributed to the incident.

142)

What type of worker is particularly vulnerable to workplace injury or illness?

A) Women B) Young and new C) Older D) More experienced E) All types of workers are equally at risk.

143)

One common technique for reinforcing safe practices is implementing a _____________ to reward workers for their support and commitment to safety goals.

A) safety incentive program B) safety awareness program C) performance pay program D) productivity incentive program E) bona fide occupational requirement

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144)

Organizations that place a strategic emphasis on corporate wellness achieve all of the following economic benefits, EXCEPT: A) reduced injury insurance costs.

B) enhanced productivity.

C) reduced costs due to less employee turnover.

D) increased absenteeism.

E) reduced disability insurance costs.

145)

A confidential, short term, counselling service for employees with personal issues that affect their work performance is called a(n): A) employee health and wellness program.

B) operations review.

C) employee assistance program (EAP).

D) job hazard analysis.

E) safety audit.

146)

Demonstrate your understanding of diversity and inclusion.

147)

Outline the legal framework of human resource management in Canada.

148)

Discuss DEIB metrics.

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149)

Select any one of Canada’s Best Diversity Employers from 2022 and describe their initiatives to promote diversity within the organization.

150)

Define discrimination. Differentiate between direct and indirect discrimination. Provide an example of each type of discrimination.

151)

Discuss paternalistic behaviour in the context of sexual harassment.

152)

Define sexual harassment, identify and discuss the two major types of sexual harassment, and indicate four steps firms may take to ensure workplaces are free from sexual harassment.

153)

Employment equity legislation attempts to eliminate employment barriers to four designated groups. Demonstrate your knowledge of employment equity by identifying and briefly explaining who is included in each of the designated groups.

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154)

Which factors are often sited to explain the wage gap between men and women?

155)

Discuss the Meiorin case insofar as it applies to a bona fide occupational requirement.

156)

What are some examples of contemporary workplace hazards and safety issues discussed in your textbook? Briefly discuss the implications of each of the examples identified.

157)

Employees have both rights and responsibilities with respect to workplace health and safety. Identify and briefly describe employees' rights and responsibilities that are protected by occupational health and safety legislation.

158)

How can wearable technology be used to monitor occupational health and safety risks?

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159)

What is the role of employers to reinforce safe behaviours? What practices do firms implement to reinforce safe behaviours in the workplace?

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) FALSE 25) FALSE 26) FALSE 27) TRUE 28) C 29) B 30) E 31) D 32) D 33) C 34) B 35) D 36) D 37) C

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38) C 39) C 40) B 41) B 42) A 43) E 44) A 45) C 46) D 47) A 48) B 49) C 50) C 51) A 52) E 53) D 54) C 55) E 56) A 57) B 58) B 59) E 60) A 61) E 62) C 63) E 64) D 65) B 66) A 67) B 68) A 69) D 70) C 71) Short Answer

Diversity refers to having people of different backgrounds and experiences represented in the workplace. Diversity is about differences that can be calculated, tracked and reported. On the other hand, inclusion refers to behaviours that create an environment where people experience a sense of belonging, feeling respected, valued, and seen for who they are as individuals.

72) Short Answer

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Approximately 94 percent of firms are covered by provincial or territorial legislation. 6 percent of firms are covered by federal legislation. It can be challenging to maintain compliance with legal requirements for firms with employees who work in more than one jurisdiction. Firms in the federal list include federal government departments, agencies, and most federal Crown corporations, airlines, banks, etc. (See Table 2.2). Provincially and territorially regulated organizations include retailers and hospitality businesses, hospitals, schools, colleges and universities and all other organizations not specifically listed as falling under federal legislation.

(See Table 2.2). Areas covered by all federal, provincial and territorial legislation include human rights, employment/labour standards, privacy, and health and safety.

73) Short Answer

We have learned that diversity can be calculated, tracked, and reported.

Outcome Metrics: These metrics typically measure person count, and answer questions such as: How many people from the Employment Equity groups receive a job interview? How many are employed with the organization? What positions do they hold? These types of outcome metrics are important because they can create a baseline to measure progress and can signal potential indications of bias.

Process metrics: Process metrics are useful to identify problems with HR processes such as recruitment, selection, performance management, and career development.

If the outcome metric reveals that an organization does not employ enough women, visible minorities, Indigenous peoples, or people with disabilities in senior professional roles, a process metric such as time it takes for advancing from entry level to senior technical analyst will provide insights on which HR practices need fixing to bring about meaningful change.

74) Short Answer

Table 2.3 - Sampling of Diversity Initiatives at Some of Canada’s Best Diversity Employers (2022) – lists myriad examples.

For instance, the Business Development Bank launched six new partnerships to support Black entrepreneurs, including sponsoring the Rise UP Competition which provided resources, workshops, and $10,000 in capital funding to Black women entrepreneurs throughout Canada.

KPMG created new roles dedicated to inclusion and diversity recruitment including a dedicated recruiter for Indigenous peoples and McMaster University enhanced employment equity reports to include intersectional data, data by faculty rank, and leadership composition data. Data is used to measure progress, conduct gap analysis, and inform strategic planning.

75) Short Answer

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Discrimination means to treat someone differently, negatively, or adversely because of their race, age, religion, sex, or other prohibited ground. See Figure 2.1.

Direct discrimination: Policies or practices that clearly make a distinction on the basis of a prohibited ground e.g. not hiring the job candidate likely to be the highest performer because she is pregnant.

Indirect discrimination: Polices or practices that appear to be neutral but have an adverse effect on the basis of a prohibited ground e.g. a company that has a policy of not employing any parttime workers appears to be equally applied to everyone, however, the effect of this policy is not neutral because someone with family responsibilities would be denied the ability to reduce their work hours.

76) Short Answer

Paternalistic behaviour based on gender, gender identity, or gender expression which a person feels undermines their dignity position of responsibility, may also be determined to be sexual harassment.

For example, a Tribunal found an employer’s repeated use of terms including “sweetheart,” “little lady,” “hun,” “sweetie,” and “dear” to be “terms of diminishment,” and that, within the broader context of his other sexualized overtures, the use of these terms created a poisoned work environment.

77) Short Answer

Sexual harassment refers to any conduct comment, gesture, or contact of a sexual nature that is likely to cause offence or humiliation to any employee.

The two major types of sexual harassment are: 1. Quid pro quo sexual harassment - perceived as placing a condition of a sexual nature on their employment 2. Hostile or poisoned work environment sexual harassment - offence or humiliation by another person's behaviour Steps firms should take: 1. Develop a clear policy statement stating that sexual harassment will not be tolerated.

2. Ensure all employees are aware of the policy and receive training.

3. Develop a mechanism for reporting harassment in a way that encourages people to speak out.

4. Act promptly to discipline those who engage in harassment, as well as to protect the victims of harassment.

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78) Short Answer

1. Women - self-explanatory.

2. Indigenous people - an Indigenous person is a North-American Indian or a member of a First Nation, Metis, or Inuit.

3. Members of visible minorities - a person in a visible minority group is someone, other than an Aboriginal person, who is non-white in colour regardless of place of birth.

4. Persons with disabilities - a person who has a long-term or recurring physical, mental, sensory, psychiatric, or learning impairment.

79) Short Answer

Women tend to fall behind men in terms of experience. This is often because the woman has extended time away from paid employment after the birth of a child. Sometimes it is because it is the woman who leaves work to care for elderly parents.

Other factors used to explain the wage differential include: (i) Men tend to work longer hours, (ii) Men tend to have more education, and (iii) Mess are less likely than women to work parttime.

80) Short Answer

Tawny Meiorin is a female forest firefighter who lost her job when she took 49.4 seconds too long to complete a 2.5 kilometre run. In short, she failed to meet a required aerobic fitness standard that had been established by the British Columbia Public Service Employee Relations Commission.

This standard had been put in place as a minimum requirement for all firefighters.

Ms. Meiorin filed a complaint stating that the fitness standard discriminated against women because women usually have less aerobic capability than men.

Although the employer argued the standard was a bona fide occupational requirement of the job, the Supreme Court of Canada ultimately ruled the standard was not a BFOR—the fitness standard was not reasonably necessary to fulfill a legitimate work-related purpose.

Ms. Meiorin was reinstated to her job and received compensation for lost wages and benefits.

81) Short Answer

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Psychological health and safety is at the forefront of safety issues in a post pandemic world. A psychologically safe workplace is "one that does not permit harm to employee mental health in careless, negligent, reckless or intentional ways." Workplace violence is a particular problem for certain occupational groups including health care workers, correctional officers, social service employees, teachers, and retail employees are some of the occupational groups more at risk.

Legalization of cannabis for recreational use is a significant organizational concern for a variety of reasons including workplace safety; impairment or intoxication at work; increased use inside and/or outside of work; testing; accommodation and disclosure; and associated cost.

Use of mobile devices relates to the associated potential hazards and distractions.

Worker fatigue has also emerged as a significant issue due to the connection between hours of sleep and workplace injuries.

82) Short Answer

Responsibilities: The internal responsibility system assigns responsibilities for health and safety to both employers, managers/supervisors, and employees. Employees' responsibilities include working in compliance with OH&S requirements, using personal protective equipment as directed by the employer, reporting workplace hazards and dangers, and working in a manner as required by the employer, and using the provided safety equipment.

Rights: All Canadian workers have three fundamental rights that are protected by occupational health and safety regulations: 1. The right to refuse unsafe work.

2. The right to participate in the health and safety in the workplace through a health and safety committee or as a health and safety representative.

3. The right to know or the right to be informed about actual and potential dangers in the workplace.

83) Short Answer

In safety-sensitive work environments, wearable technologies can be used to monitor fatigue including signs of impairment, for example: 1. Wearable devices that use sensors can monitor brain activity relative to fatigue.

2. Wearable devices that use cameras can monitor visual fatigue cues, including eye movement and “microsleeps.”

3. Fatigue monitoring analytics that use activity and sleep data from wearables can calculate fatigue levels and predict potential impairment.

84) Short Answer

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To ensure safe behaviours, employers should not only define how to work safely but also reinforce the desired behaviour. One common technique for reinforcement is implementing a safety incentive program to reward workers for their support and commitment to safety goals.

Such programs generally start by focusing on monthly and quarterly goals and encouraging suggestions for improving safety.

Programs can then be expanded to include more wide-ranging, long-term goals. Employers may distribute awards for safety in public such as company or department meetings. Besides focusing on specific jobs, organizations can target particular types of injuries or disabilities, especially those for which employees may be at risk. For example, organizations may target eliminating eye injuries through a combination of job analysis, workplace policies, safety training, protective eyewear, rewards and sanctions, and management support.

For companies that operate internationally, the organization will need to use strong communications and oversight to protect workers' health and safety. This is especially true when operating in countries that may have different cultural values related to safety and/or may interpret corporation-wide safety policies differently.

Student name:__________ 160)

A job is a set of related duties. A position is the set of duties performed by a one person. ⊚ true ⊚ false

161)

Work flow design is the process of analyzing the tasks necessary for the production of a product or service. ⊚ true ⊚ false

162)

The final step in work flow analysis is to identify the inputs required to carry out the work processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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163)

When authority is spread among many people, we say the organization's structure is centralized. ⊚ true ⊚ false

164)

When the goal is to empower employees, companies need to set up structures and jobs that limit responsibility. ⊚ true ⊚ false

165)

Job analysis is required in order to understand and match job requirements and people. ⊚ true ⊚ false

166)

Job analysis is the process of getting detailed information about job applicants. ⊚ true ⊚ false

167)

Once a job description has been developed there is seldom a need to review or update it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

168)

A job specification is a list of the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) that an individual must have to perform a particular job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

169)

While the job description focuses on the activities involved in carrying out a job, a job specification looks at the qualities or requirements that a person performing the job must possess. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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170)

KSAOs are observable only when individuals are carrying out the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of the job—and afterward, if they show the product of their labour. ⊚ true ⊚ false

171)

The tool created by the federal government to provide a standardized source of information about jobs in Canada's labour market is the National Occupational Classification (NOC). ⊚ true ⊚ false

172)

An advantage of the Position Analysis Questionnaire is that it can be filled out by almost anyone. ⊚ true ⊚ false

173)

The Fleishman Job Analysis System asks subject-matter experts to evaluate a job in terms of the abilities required to perform the job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

174)

Competency models focus more on how people work, whereas job analysis focuses more on work tasks and outcomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

175)

Job design is the study of jobs to find the simplest way to structure work. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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176)

Classical industrial engineering looks for the simplest way to structure work to maximize efficiency. ⊚ true ⊚ false

177)

A pure focus on efficiency is usually enough to make jobs motivating to employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

178)

Flextime is a scheduling policy that allows full-time workers to complete their weekly hours in fewer than five days. ⊚ true ⊚ false

179)

The use of mobile devices put workers at risk for repetitive-stress injuries. ⊚ true ⊚ false

180)

As more and more work activities become information processing activities, the need to consider cognitive ergonomics is likely to be an emerging trend. ⊚ true ⊚ false

181)

Through the process of ____________, managers analyze the tasks needed to produce a product or service.

A) business strategy B) work flow design C) HR strategy D) operational analysis E) organizational structure design

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182)

The set of duties (job) performed by one person is called: A) job task duties.

B) job analysis.

C) job activity.

D) a position.

E) a job.

183)

The first stage in work flow analysis is to identify the: A) outputs of a particular work unit.

B) work relationships within the work unit.

C) work processes used to generate the outputs of the work unit.

D) inputs used in the development of the work unit's product.

E) job requirements.

184)

Which of the following is a category of inputs to work flow analysis?

A) Raw inputs e.g. materials, data, and information.

B) Equipment e.g. special equipment, facilities, and systems.

C) Human resources e.g. competencies needed by those performing the tasks.

D) Raw inputs e.g. materials, data, and information, "equipment e.g. special equipment, facilities, and systems," and "human resources e.g. knowledge, skills, and abilities needed by those performing the tasks."

E) Only "raw inputs e.g. materials, data, and information" and "equipment e.g. special equipment, facilities, and systems."

185)

Ari wants to set up a manufacturing unit, so he meets with Fatima, a HR manager at his company. Fatima explains that in order to decide on the human resource needs for the unit, they should conduct a work flow analysis. She suggests they start by defining the outputs of the process. To do this, which of the following should Ari define?

A) The processes that will be involved in manufacturing B) The number of people required for production C) The type and number of products that will need to be manufactured D) The special equipment, facilities, and systems needed for production E) The data and information needed by the work unit

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186)

If the organization's structure is strongly based on function: A) workers tend to have low authority.

B) workers tend to work alone at highly specialized jobs.

C) workers tend to have broad responsibility.

D) workers tend to serve a particular group of customers or produce a particular product.

E) workers tend to have low authority AND tend to work alone at highly specialized jobs.

187)

To achieve high quality performance, organizations have to understand and match _______ and _________.

A) job requirements; people B) job design; work flow C) job analysis; work flow D) work flow; people E) job descriptions; job specifications

188)

The process of getting detailed information about jobs is known as: A) industrial engineering.

B) work flow analysis.

C) job analysis.

D) job evaluation.

E) job specification identification.

189)

Which of the following refers to a list of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that a particular job entails?

A) Competency requirements B) Job design requirements C) Work flow analysis requirements D) Job description E) Job analysis requirements

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190)

All of the following accurately describes a job description, EXCEPT? A) It gives the title of the job B) It gives an overview of the job C) It lists the main duties of the job.

D) It describes the knowledge the job holder must have to perform the job E) It should follow a consistent format within an organization.

191)

Which of the following contains a list of the knowledge, skills, abilities, other characteristics that a job holder must have to perform the job?

A) Job specification B) Job description C) Job analysis D) Job design E) Competency framework

192)

N-Pax Technology Corp., a microchip manufacturing company, is hiring for the position of marketing manager for its new division. Sergei, the HR manager, considers the requirements of the job, including the necessary knowledge, level of proficiency, and other personality traits, such as persistence and motivation to achieve. Which of the following documents includes these considerations to help Sergei in selecting a candidate?

A) Job description B) Job specification C) Job analysis D) Job design E) Competency model

193)

Which one of the following sources of job analysis information generally provides the most accurate information regarding the time spent performing various job tasks?

A) Supervisors B) Incumbents C) Customers and clients D) Senior managers and executives E) Human resource specialists

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194)

Which of the following sources of job analysis information generally provides the most accurate information regarding the importance of various job duties?

A) Supervisors B) Incumbents C) Customers or clients D) Senior managers and executives E) Human resource specialists

195)

Why was the National Occupational Classification (NOC) created?

A) To design jobs that motivate.

B) To replace job descriptions in Canadian organizations.

C) To provide standardized sources of information about jobs in Canada's labour market.

D) To support the development of flexible staffing options.

E) Both "to design jobs that motivate" and "to replace job descriptions in Canadian organizations."

196)

All of the following are true of the National Occupational Classification (NOC), EXCEPT? A) It is maintained by Employment and Social Development Canada, working with Statistics Canada.

B) It uses a numerical code to assigned monetary value to each job classification.

C) It provides a consistent way to identify and interpret the nature of work.

D) NOC 2021 Version 1.0 is the latest version.

E) It goes through a major review and revision process.

197)

ALTS Infosystems is a software consulting firm based in Ottawa. The firm uses a standardized job analysis questionnaire containing 194 questions about work behaviours, work conditions, and job characteristics that apply to a wide variety of jobs. In this scenario, ALTS Infosystems is using: A) a utilization analysis.

B) the Fleishman Job Analysis System.

C) a work flow design.

D) a conjoint analysis.

E) the Position Analysis Questionnaire.

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198)

Which of the following job analysis methods requires subject-matter experts to evaluate a job in terms of abilities required to a perform the job?

A) Work Sampling Technique B) Participant Observation Technique C) Fleishman Job Analysis System D) Position Analysis Questionnaire E) Conjoint Analysis Technique

199)

Which of the following is true of competency models?

A) They help HR professionals ensure that all aspects of talent management are aligned with an organization's strategy.

B) They identify and describe a few competencies required for success in a particular occupation or set of jobs.

C) They are only applicable to middle managers of an organization.

D) They focus more on tasks and outcomes and not on how people work.

E) They are only applicable to the organization's supervisors and managers.

200)

Which section of the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) describes the reasoning, decision making, planning, and information-processing activities involved in performing the job?

A) Job context B) Mental processes C) Work output D) Relationships with other persons E) Information input

201)

Which section of the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) describes the physical and social environments in which the work is performed?

A) Job context B) Mental processes C) Work output D) Relationships with other persons E) Information input

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202)

Which section of the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) describes the activities, tools, and devices used by the worker to perform the job?

A) Job context B) Mental processes C) Work output D) Relationships with other persons E) Information input

203)

The Fleishman Job Analysis System is: A) the broadest and best-researched instruments for analyzing jobs.

B) a standardized job analysis questionnaire containing 194 items that represent work behaviours, work conditions, and job characteristics that apply to a wide variety of jobs.

C) organized into six sections concerning different aspects of the job: D) based on 52 categories of abilities, ranging from written comprehension to deductive reasoning, manual dexterity, stamina, and originality.

E) rated each item on six scales: extent of use, amount of time, importance to the job, possibility of occurrence, applicability, and special code

204)

Maxwin Corp., a national logistics company, has announced the opening of a new unit for the manufacturing division. Jaxon, the HR manager, has been asked to help plan for the creation of the new unit. Which of the following relates to the task undertaken by Jaxon, if he is involved in the process of defining the way work will be performed and the tasks associated with the jobs in the new unit?

A) Job rotation B) Job evaluation C) Job design D) Job enrichment E) Job extension

205)

A focus on efficiency alone can create jobs that are so simple and repetitive that workers: A) have additional time for development.

B) stay motivated.

C) see practical benefits.

D) see their work as meaningful.

E) get bored.

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206)

Which one of the following approaches to job design involves seeking the "one best way" to perform a job?

A) Design for motivation B) Design for mental health and well-being C) Design for physical health and well-being D) Design for efficiency E) None of the choices are correct.

207)

______________ focuses on job design for efficiency, while _____________ focuses on job design for physical health and well-being.

A) Industrial engineering; ergonomics B) Ergonomics; industrial engineering C) Job enlargement; job extension D) Skill variety; ergonomics E) Ergonomics; task identity

208)

As a manager, you decide to design a job based on the principles of industrial engineering. Which of the following outcomes would NOT likely be achieved?

A) Increased efficiency B) Reduced complexity C) Increased meaningfulness D) Almost anyone can be trained quickly and easily E) Boring and repetitive jobs

209)

Which one of the following interventions would NOT be consistent with the motivational approach to job design?

A) Self-managed work teams B) Task specialization C) Job enrichment D) Flexible work schedules E) Job enlargement

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210)

The objective of job enlargement is to: A) make the job less repetitive and more interesting.

B) give employees more say in how their work is structured.

C) decrease the complexity of the job.

D) significantly increase the meaningfulness of the job.

E) engage workers by adding more decision making authority to their jobs.

211)

If, as a manager, you decided to combine the jobs of receptionist, data entry clerk, and file clerk into jobs containing all three kinds of work, you would be using which one of the following job design techniques?

A) Job rotation B) Dejobbing C) Job enrichment D) Job extension E) Self-managing work teams

212)

Frederick Herzberg is most associated with which job design technique?

A) Job extension B) Job rotation C) Job enrichment D) Job enlargement E) Designing efficient jobs

213)

If, as a manager, you were to give the sales staff in your store the authority to resolve customer problems, including the authority to decide whether to issue refunds or replace the merchandise, you would be using the technique of: A) job enlargement.

B) job extension.

C) job involvement.

D) job enrichment.

E) flexible work schedules.

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214)

If company XYZ requires its employees to be at work between the hours of 10 a.m. and 3 p.m., but allows employees to decide whether they will work their additional hours before or after this time period, it is using which one of the following?

A) Job sharing B) Flextime C) Compressed workweek D) Distributed work E) Dejobbing

215)

Job sharing involves two part-time employees carrying out tasks associated with: A) improving efficiency B) decreasing costs C) a single position D) several jobs E) distributed work

216)

A schedule in which full-time workers complete their weekly hours in fewer than five days is termed a: A) right-to-work workweek.

B) compressed workweek.

C) substandard workweek.

D) flexible workweek.

E) reduced hours workweek.

217)

The manager of a local grocery store introduces a short conveyor belt that requires customers to place their items on it prior to checking out. This saves the cashier from the physical strain of bending and reaching into the carts to retrieve the items. This change is an example of the _____ approach to job design.

A) remote work B) job enrichment C) ergonomic D) flextime E) job sharing

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218)

Which of the following is NOT a way to simplify a job's mental demands?

A) Limit the amount of information and memorization the job requires.

B) Provide easy-to-understand gauges and displays.

C) Encourage the use of checklists.

D) Provide clear instructions.

E) Encourage employees to juggle information from several sources at once.

219)

Aki, an HR manager at Synergy Inc. wishes to design jobs that do not exceed the mental capabilities and limitations of employees. To do so, Aki would most likely have to: A) allow employees to opt for a compressed workweek schedule.

B) limit autonomy and stress error-free work.

C) Increase the amount of reporting requirements and documentation.

D) train employees to multi-task and work in self-managed teams.

E) reduce the information processing requirements of jobs.

220)

Which characteristic of Hackman and Oldman’s Job Characteristics Model refers to the extent to which the job has an important impact on the lives of other people?

A) Skill variety B) Task identity C) Task significance D) Autonomy E) Feedback

221)

Which of the following industries is most likely to implement a hybrid work arrangement for their employees?

A) Manufacturing B) Mining C) Oil and gas D) Construction E) Insurance

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222)

One of the largest ergonomic challenges of mobile devices is: A) Decreased productivity B) Reduced focus C) Repetitive strain injuries D) Distraction E) Time management

223)

Which characteristic of Hackman and Oldman’s Job Characteristics Model refers to the degree to which the job allows an individual to make decisions about the way the work will be carried out?

A) Authority B) Task identity C) Task significance D) Autonomy E) Empowerment

224)

Describe the steps in a work flow analysis.

225)

Define the following: job analysis, job description, and job specification.

226)

Job analysis is so important that it has been called the "building block" of everything that HR does. Describe how job analysis information is used in four specific HR processes.

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227)

How does the use of competency models in job analysis support business success?

228)

Outline the six sections of the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ).

229)

Describe the three most critical dimensions for analyzing teamwork.

230)

Describe the five characteristics in Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham’s Job Characteristics Model.

231)

Discuss how employers use industrial engineering to design jobs with a view of maximizing efficiency.

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232)

What are the two techniques of job enlargement and what do they mean? Provide an example of how each may be accomplished.

233)

What are some of the ergonomic challenges associated with modern technology?

234)

Describe some ways for both an employer and an employee to reduce a job’s mental demands?

235)

Why do organizations need to be concerned about making jobs more motivating? Identify and briefly describe three ways to make jobs more motivating.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) B 23) D 24) A 25) D 26) C 27) E 28) A 29) C 30) D 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) B

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38) E 39) C 40) A 41) B 42) A 43) C 44) D 45) C 46) E 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) B 51) A 52) D 53) C 54) D 55) B 56) C 57) B 58) C 59) E 60) E 61) C 62) E 63) C 64) D 65) Short Answer

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For each type of work, such as producing a product line or providing a support service (accounting, legal support, and so on), workflow analysis identifies the output of the process, the activities involved, and the three categories of inputs (materials and information, equipment, and human resources). Outputs are the products of any work unit, such as a department, team, or individual. Outputs may be tangible, as in the case of a restaurant meal or finished part, or they may be intangible, such as building security or an answered question about employee benefits. In identifying the outputs of particular work units, work flow analysis considers both quantity and quality. Work flow analysis next considers the work processes used to generate the outputs identified. Work processes are the activities that a work unit's members engage in to produce a given output. They are described in terms of operating procedures for every task performed by each employee at each stage of the process. Finally, work flow analysis identifies the inputs required to carry out the work processes. Inputs fall into three categories: raw inputs (materials and information), equipment, and human resources (knowledge, skills, and abilities).

66) Short Answer

Job analysis is the process of gaining detailed information about jobs.

Job description is a list of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that a particular job entails.

Job specification is a list of the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics the job holder must have to perform a particular job.

67) Short Answer

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1. Work redesign—Often an organization seeks to redesign work to make it more efficient or to improve quality. The redesign requires detailed information about the existing job(s). In addition, preparing the redesign is like analyzing a job that does not yet exist.

2. Workforce planning—As planners analyze human resource needs and how to meet those needs, they must have accurate information about the levels of skill required in various jobs, so that they can tell what kinds of human resources will be needed.

3. Talent acquisition—To identify the most qualified applicants for various positions, decision makers need to know what tasks the individuals must perform, as well as the necessary knowledge, skills, and abilities.

4. Training, learning, and development—Almost every employee hired by an organization will require training and/or development. Any learning initiative requires knowledge of the tasks performed in a job, so that the learning is related to the necessary knowledge and skills.

5. Performance management—Performance management requires information about how well each employee is performing to reward employees who perform well and to improve their performance if it is below expectations. Job analysis helps in identifying the behaviours and the results associated with effective performance.

6. Job evaluation—Requires assessing the relative value of each job to the organization to set up fair pay structures. To put values on jobs, it is necessary to get information about different jobs and compare them.

68) Short Answer

When human resource management is actively engaged in talent management as a way to support strategy, organizations need to think beyond skills for particular jobs. They must identify the capabilities they need to acquire and develop in order to promote the organization's success.

For this purpose, organizations develop competency models. A competency is an area of personal capability that enables employees to perform their work successfully. A competency model identifies and describes all the competencies required for success in a particular occupation or set of jobs. Organizations may create competency models for occupational groups, levels of the organization, or even the entire organization. For each competency, the model identifies behaviours that are used to determine an individual's level of proficiency. Competency models focus more on how people work, whereas job analysis focuses more on tasks and outcomes.

69) Short Answer

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1. Information input. Where and how a worker gets information needed to perform the job.

2. Mental processes. The reasoning, decision making, planning, and information-processing activities involved in performing the job.

3. Work output. The activities, tools, and devices used by the worker to perform the job.

4. Relationships with other persons. The relationships with other people required in performing the job.

5. Job context. The physical and social contexts where the work is performed.

6.Other characteristics. The activities, conditions, and characteristics other than those previously described that are relevant to the job.

70) Short Answer

1. Skill differentiation—The degree to which team members have specialized knowledge or functional capacities.

2. Authority differentiation—The allocation of decision-making authority among individuals, subgroups, and the team as a whole.

3.Temporal (time) stability—The length of time over which team members must work together.

71) Short Answer

1. Skill variety—The extent to which a job requires a variety of skills to carry out the tasks involved 2. Task identity—The degree to which a job requires completing a “whole” piece of work from beginning to end (e.g., building an entire component or resolving a customer’s issue) 3. Task significance—The extent to which the job has an important impact on the lives of other people 4. Autonomy—The degree to which the job allows an individual to make decisions about the way the work will be carried out 5.Feedback—The extent to which a person receives clear information about performance effectiveness from the work itself.

72) Short Answer

Classical industrial engineering looks for the simplest way to structure work in order to maximize efficiency. Typically, applying industrial engineering to a job reduces the complexity of the work, making it so simple that almost anyone can be trained quickly and easily to perform the job. Such jobs tend to be highly specialized and repetitive. In practice, the scientific method traditionally seeks the "one best way" to perform a job by performing time-and-motion studies to identify the most efficient movements for workers to make. Once the engineers have identified the most efficient sequence of motions, the organization should select workers based on their ability to do the job, and then train them in the details of the "one best way" to perform that job.

The company also should offer pay structured to motivate workers to do their best.

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73) Short Answer

Job extension is enlarging jobs by combining several relatively simple jobs to form a job with a wider range of tasks. This approach to job enlargement is relatively simple, but if all the tasks are dull, workers will not necessarily be more motivated by the redesigned job.

An example might be combining the jobs of receptionist, data entry clerk, and records clerk into jobs containing all three kinds of work.

Job rotation does not actually redesign the jobs, but rather moves employees among several different jobs. This approach to job enlargement is common among production teams. For example, during the course of a week, a team member may carry out each of the jobs handled by the team. Team members might assemble components one day and pack products into cases another day.

74) Short Answer

Mobile devices like smartphones - typing with one’s thumbs to send frequent text messages on a smartphone can result in inflammation of the tendons that move the thumbs. Repetitive strain injuries are increasing among frequent users.

Tablets, laptops, and computers - because the screen and keyboard may be contained in a single device, it can be difficult to create the ergonomically correct standards of screen at eye level and keyboard low enough to type with arms bent at a 90-degree angle.

Touchscreen devices - pose their own risks. Although touchscreens are typically part of a mobile device, making them easy to move around for comfortable use, the employer cannot ensure an ergonomic setup. If a user must frequently tap on a touchscreen that is set up at a distance—say, a screen that is part of a laptop or desktop computer—shoulder pain can result.

75) Short Answer

One is to limit the amount of information and memorization that the job requires. Organizations can also provide adequate lighting, easy-to-understand gauges and displays, simple-to-operate equipment, and clear instructions.

Employees can try to reduce some of the mental demands of their jobs by creating checklists, charts, or other aids.

A well-designed information system can help by presenting information in a way that makes it easier to process, for example, with charts highlighting key information.

When workers need a great deal of information to perform a task, especially when that task is not frequently performed, a technology called mobile augmented reality may be highly effective in reducing the cognitive workload which could result in stress, frustration, and lead to errors.

76) Short Answer

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When organizations have to compete for employees, depend on skilled knowledge workers, or need a workforce that cares about customer satisfaction, a pure focus on efficiency will not achieve human resource objectives. These organizations need jobs that employees find interesting and satisfying, and job design should take into account factors that make jobs motivating.

Job enlargement: Broadening the types of tasks performed in a job. Two methods of job enlargement are job extension and job rotation. a) Job extension: Enlarging jobs by combining several relatively simple jobs to form a job with a wider range of tasks--e.g. combining the jobs of receptionist, data entry clerk, and file clerk. b) Job rotation: Enlarging jobs by moving employees among several different jobs--e.g. assembling components one day and packing them the next.

Job enrichment: Engaging workers by adding more decision making authority to jobs. Herzberg's two factor theory suggests employees are motivated more by the intrinsic aspects of work (e.g. the meaningfulness of a job) than by extrinsic rewards such as pay (e.g. giving employees authority to stop production when quality standards are not being met).

Self-managing work teams: Some organizations engage employees by designing work to be done by self-managing work teams. Jobs may be defined broadly and include sharing of work assignments. Team members may, at one time or another, perform every duty of the team thereby making work more interesting.

Flexible work schedules: Organizations may be able to be flexible in terms of when employees work. For example, Flextime, job sharing, and compressed workweeks are alternatives to the traditional 40-hour workweek.

Remote work arrangements: Flexibility can extend to work locations as well as work schedules.

These types of arrangements may be highly valued and accessible to knowledge workers.

Student name:__________ 236)

The sole purpose of workforce planning is to identify the numbers of employees the organization will need to meet its objectives. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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237)

The first step in the workforce planning process is forecasting. ⊚ true ⊚ false

238)

Trend analysis is the most basic forecasting method used by organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

239)

Statistical planning models are useful for workforce planning when there is a long, stable history that can be used to reliably detect relationships among variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false

240)

A transitional matrix is a statistical procedure requiring no human judgement that is used to forecast labour supply. ⊚ true ⊚ false

241)

HR planners need to consider only the internal labour supply within organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

242)

Very few strategies are available for dealing with projected shortages and surpluses of labour. ⊚ true ⊚ false

243)

Organizations are most likely to benefit from hiring and retaining employees who provide a core competency to the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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244)

As an option for avoiding an expected labour shortage, the use of new external hires is very fast, but is low in terms of ability to change later. ⊚ true ⊚ false

245)

The primary reason organizations engage in downsizing is to promote future competitiveness. ⊚ true ⊚ false

246)

Much of the evidence suggests that downsizing improves long-term organizational performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

247)

The most widespread methods for eliminating labour shortages are hiring temporary and contract workers and outsourcing work. ⊚ true ⊚ false

248)

The "gig economy" refers to the increased use of contract workers fuelled in part by mobile apps that link employers and workers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

249)

The final stage of workforce planning involves implementing the strategies and evaluating the outcomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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250)

The steps in a workforce utilization review are identical to the steps in the workforce planning process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

251)

Succession planning is a particular type of workforce planning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

252)

Succession planning focuses on employees who have been identified as lower-performers and identifies specific plans to enhance their performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

253)

The primary purpose of recruiting is to identify and attract potential employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

254)

Employer branding uses marketing techniques to attract, engage, and retain employees in the effort to become an employer of choice. ⊚ true ⊚ false

255)

Recruiting is increasingly becoming a digital experience. ⊚ true ⊚ false

256)

To attract a more diverse workforce, organizations often recruit through external sources. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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257)

An organization's recruitment efforts are rarely focused on passive job seekers because by definition they are individuals who are not actively seeking a job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

258)

In general, applicants respond best to recruiters who are similar i.e. the same age, sex, and/or race. ⊚ true ⊚ false

259)

Which of the following is NOT a stage of workforce planning?

A) Strategic planning B) Goal setting C) Forecasting D) Turnover reduction E) Program implementation and evaluation

260)

The first step in the workforce planning process is: A) forecasting.

B) goal setting.

C) program implementation.

D) program evaluation.

E) strategic planning.

261)

Leading indicators may include any of the following, EXCEPT: A) sales or inventory levels.

B) transitional matrix analysis.

C) changes in technology.

D) trends in the composition of the workforce.

E) actions of competitors.

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262)

Which one of the following is NOT true of a transitional matrix?

A) It shows the proportion (or number) of employees in different job categories at different times.

B) It is useful for charting historical trends in the company's supply of labour.

C) It is useful in predicting external labour market trends.

D) Under stable conditions, it is useful for developing future strategies to address labour shortages or surpluses.

E) It answers the questions: "Where did people who were in each job category go?" and "Where did people now in each job category come from?"

263)

The numbers in a transitional matrix represent: A) percentages B) averages C) dollars D) ratios E) proportions

264)

An organization seeking to reduce a projected labour surplus must select from a number of possible options aimed at obtaining that objective (e.g., retirements, layoffs, job sharing, etc.). This occurs at what step in the workforce planning process?

A) Forecasting labour demand B) Program evaluation C) Goal setting and strategic planning D) Forecasting labour supply E) Program implementation

265)

The goals that are set in the workforce planning process should come directly from: A) supervisors who tend to be most in touch with the organization's needs.

B) the analysis of labour supply and demand.

C) consultants' advice.

D) the feedback provided by the organization's customers.

E) the opinions of HR professionals.

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266)

Which of the following options is slow in getting results, but has the benefit of being low in the amount of human suffering caused?

A) Attrition B) Downsizing C) Pay reductions D) Transfers E) Demotions

267)

All of the following options to reducing a labour surplus are considered quick in terms of results, and cause a high to moderate amount of human suffering, EXCEPT? A) Downsizing B) Demotions C) Pay reductions D) Reducing hours E) A hiring freeze

268)

Which of the following options for avoiding a labour shortage is slow in achieving results and provides a low ability to change later?

A) Overtime B) Temporary employees C) Outsourcing D) Downsizing E) New external hires

269)

Your company's primary concern is to reduce an expected labour surplus fast; its secondary concern is to minimize human suffering. The options that would best address the company's concerns (in the priority indicated) are: A) downsizing and pay reductions.

B) transfers and reducing hours.

C) early retirement and retraining.

D) attrition and transfers.

E) overtime and outsourcing.

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270)

Skylar, an HR manager at Delair Inc., is expecting a labour surplus for the company in the month of December. This gives Skylar nearly eight months to deal with the problem. In order to reduce the labour surplus, Skylar decides to use a _____ strategy, which causes less suffering for employees.

A) downsizing B) demotion C) early retirement D) pay reduction E) transfer

271)

Which of the following options for avoiding an expected labour shortage has the benefit of being a fast solution while maintaining a high ability to change later?

A) Overtime B) Technological innovation C) Turnover reductions D) New external hires E) Technological innovation

272)

A small company that manufactures special-order wood furniture has kept its employees busy on a 40-hour-a-week schedule for the past two years. The company just received the largest contract in its history from a European company opening offices in the area. There is no expectation of repeat business from the European company. In order to complete the contract in the required three months, additional skilled woodworking employees are needed.

Under these circumstances, to avoid an expected labour shortage, the best option would be: A) overtime.

B) the use of temporary employees.

C) turnover reduction.

D) new external hires.

E) technological innovation.

273)

Downsizing has an immediate effect on costs, and much of the evidence suggests that it: A) improves communication.

B) strengthens social networks.

C) hurts long-term organizational effectiveness.

D) increases the motivation of remaining employees.

E) does not work to shrink the size of the internal labour force.

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274)

All of the following explain why many baby boomers are staying in the workforce after reaching the traditional age of retirement, EXCEPT? A) Improved health.

B) Jobs are becoming more physically demanding.

C) Having high levels of debt.

D) Enjoying work.

E) Lack of pensions.

275)

Statistics Canada reports that the transition rate of temporary foreign workers to permanent residents within 10 years, has increased to almost: A) 10 percent B) 20 percent C) 30 percent D) 40 percent E) 50 percent

276)

A comparison of the proportion of employees in protected groups with the proportion that each group represents in the relevant labour market is: A) adverse treatment analysis.

B) workforce utilization review.

C) subgroup reconciliation.

D) discrimination analyses.

E) workforce planning.

277)

Succession planning focuses on: A) prospective employees.

B) young employees.

C) high-potential employees.

D) former employees.

E) engineering and accounting professionals.

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278)

In human resource management, any practice or activity carried out by the organization with the primary purpose of identifying and attracting potential employees is known as: A) recruiting.

B) selection.

C) placement.

D) passive job seeking.

E) forecasting.

279)

A strategic approach of attaching a visual, emotional, or cultural brand to an organization is called: A) image advertising.

B) employer branding.

C) lead-the-market pay strategy.

D) brand advertising.

E) a bona fide marketing technique.

280)

Which of the following is an advantage of relying on internal recruitment sources?

A) Internal recruitment sources promote increased diversity.

B) Using internal recruitment helps ensure employees all think alike.

C) They are generally cheaper and faster than looking outside the organization.

D) For entry-level positions, there will always be many recruits from which to select.

E) They have higher levels of education than external sources.

281)

Which of the following is NOT a known "downside" of referrals as a source of recruits?

A) They limit the likelihood of exposing the organization to fresh viewpoints.

B) Referrals may contribute to hiring practices that appear unfair e.g. nepotism.

C) Using referrals is much more expensive than any other recruiting source.

D) They limit the chance of exposure to new viewpoints and may contribute to unfair hiring practices.

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282)

Which of the following statements about digital recruiting is FALSE? A) Employers have shifted using their spending on job ads away from print media to online job advertising or a combination of both.

B) Companies are turning to the use of social media including LinkedIn, Facebook, and Twitter to seek out job candidates.

C) Smaller and less well-known organizations are likely to be more successful that large well-known organizations in using their websites for recruiting.

D) Niche boards are smaller sites that focus on particular industries, occupations, geographic areas.

E) Most large companies and many smaller ones make career information available on their websites.

283)

An important source of recruits for entry-level professional and managerial vacancies is: A) yield ratios.

B) advertisements in newspapers and magazines.

C) nepotism.

D) on-campus interviewing.

E) executive search firms.

284)

Yield ratios express the: A) output yielded by a new hire in relation to the cost of recruiting the new hire.

B) percentage of applicants who successfully move from one stage of the recruitment and selection process to the next.

C) cost per hire.

D) quality of new hires based on manager feedback.

E) the cost of recruitment expressed as a proportion of training and onboarding costs.

285)

Cost per hire is: A) useful in assessing the efficiency of a recruiting source.

B) lower for executive search firms than for newspaper ads.

C) lower for executive recruits than for clerical recruits.

D) a measure of applicant quality.

E) a measure of recruiter quality.

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286)

People who apply for a vacancy without prompting from the organization are referred to

as: A) B) C) D) E)

287)

referrals direct applicants internal sources interior applicants headhunters

Nepotism refers to: A) the use of social media as a source of recruiting.

B) the hiring/promotion of relatives.

C) passive job seekers.

D) deceptive brand management.

E) digital recruiting.

288)

Keri, a trainer at Klemens Inc., plans on finding out how many candidates moved from the initial interview stage to the training selection stage in the past month. To find out, she needs to compare the: A) prospective costs.

B) cost per hire.

C) yield ratios.

D) return on investment.

E) liquidity ratio.

289)

Which of the following recruiter characteristics do applicants tend to respond to most positively?

A) Warm and informative B) Height and weight (approximately the same as the applicant) C) Age (approximately the same as the applicant) D) Personal well-being and attractiveness E) Taking on the role of an HR specialist

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290)

Realistic job previews: A) downplay negative features of the job opening.

B) exaggerate positive features of the job opening.

C) have no impact on minimizing turnover.

D) provide background information about a job's positive and negative qualities.

E) are a measure of recruiter quality.

291)

Define forecasting. Describe one method each for forecasting labour demand and supply.

292)

What is downsizing and what is the primary reason that organizations engage in downsizing? What are the four objectives organizations pursue in their downsizing efforts?

293)

What factors explain why so many Baby Boomers continue to work today, despite reaching the traditional retirement age?

294)

Why do so many downsizing efforts fail to meet expectations?

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295)

What is succession planning? What are the benefits of succession planning?

296)

What are the benefits to the employer of hiring temporary workers?

297)

What is employer branding? What does it mean to have an effective employment brand?

298)

Discuss the relative merits of internal versus external recruiting.

299)

Describe the measures used to evaluate various recruiting sources used by organizations.

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300)

Suppose you are a human resource executive for a large university. What characteristics and behaviours would you look for in your recruiters to increase the positive impact they have on job candidates?

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) FALSE 23) FALSE 24) D 25) A 26) B 27) C 28) E 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) E 33) E 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) A

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38) C 39) B 40) D 41) B 42) C 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) D 49) B 50) A 51) B 52) B 53) C 54) A 55) D 56) Short Answer

The attempts to determine the supply of and demand for various types of human resources, or to predict areas within an organization where there will be labour shortages or surpluses, is referred to as forecasting. An organization might use trend analysis to predict labour demand, constructing and applying statistical models that predict labour demand for the next year, given relatively objective statistics from the previous year. These statistics are called leading indicators—objective measures that accurately predict future labour demand. The analysis of a transitional matrix is a statistical procedure that can be used for analyzing labour supply. This is a chart that lists job categories held in one period and shows the proportion of employees in each of those job categories in a future period. It answers two questions: "Where did people who were in each job category go?" and "Where did people now in each job category come from?"

57) Short Answer

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Downsizing is the planning elimination of large numbers of employees with the goal of enhancing the organization's competitiveness.

The four objectives organizations strive to meet to promote future competitiveness through downsizing are: 1. Reducing costs—Labour is a large part of a company's total cost, so downsizing is an attractive place to start cutting costs.

2. Replacing labour with technology—Closing outdated factories, automating, or introducing other technological changes reduces the need for labour. Often, the labour savings outweigh the cost of the new technology.

3. Mergers and acquisitions—When organizations combine, they often reduce needless bureaucratic overhead, so they lay off managers and some professional staff members.

4. Moving to more economical locations—In recent years, many Canadian firms have shifted jobs to other countries, including Mexico, India, and China, where wages are lower.

58) Short Answer

Reasons include: improved health and well-being, jobs becoming less physically demanding, insufficient savings, high levels of debt, lack of pensions, and enjoyment of work (especially in higher-paying occupations).

Many workers fear their retirement savings and pension plans supplemented by the Canada/Quebec Pension Plan (CPP/QPP) and Old Age Security (OAS) pension will still not be enough to cover their expenses.

Finally, protection from discrimination and eliminating mandatory retirement has limited organizations’ ability to force older workers to retire.

59) Short Answer 1. Although the initial cost savings give a temporary boost to profits, the long-term effects

2.

3.

4.

5.

of an improperly managed downsizing effort can be negative. Downsizing leads to a loss of talent, and it often disrupts the social networks through which people are creative and flexible.

Unless the downsizing is managed well, employees feel confused, demoralized, and even less willing to stay with the organization.

Downsizing campaigns often eliminate people who turn out to be irreplaceable.

Downsizing efforts often fail because employees who survive the purge become selfabsorbed and afraid to take risks. Motivation drops because any hope of future promotions—or any future—with the company dies. Many employees start looking for other employment opportunities.

The negative publicity associated with a downsizing campaign can also hurt the company’s image in the labour market, making it harder to recruit employees later.

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60) Short Answer

Succession planning is the process of identifying and tracking high-potential employees who will be able to fill top management positions or other key positions when they become vacant.

Benefits of succession planning include: - It forces senior management to regularly and thoughtfully review the company's leadership talent.

- It assures that top-level management talent is available.

- It provides a set of development experiences that managers must complete to be considered for top management positions, so the organization does not promote managers before they are ready.

- Helps attract and retain ambitious employees by providing development opportunities.

61) Short Answer 6. Temporary employment is popular with employers because it gives them flexibility they

need to operate efficiently when demand for their products changes rapidly.

7. In addition to flexibility, hiring temporary workers offers lower costs.

8. Employing temporary workers frees the employer from many administrative tasks and financial burdens associated with being the “employer of record.”

9. Temporary workers may offer value not available from permanent employees. Because the temporary worker has little experience at the employer’s organization, this person brings an objective point of view to the organization’s problems and processes.

10. A temporary worker may have a great deal of experience in other organizations that can be applied to the current assignment.

62) Short Answer

Employer branding is a strategic approach of attaching a visual, emotional, or cultural brand to an organization. An employment brand is the impression the company makes on employees and job seekers. To be effective, the employment brand needs to differentiate an organization from the competition, target key benefits of the job to the right labour segments, and use multiple platforms to reach the right audiences. The employment brand should be honest and paint a realistic picture of the company based on an understanding of the organization's strengths and weaknesses and what the organization offers top talent that other employers cannot provide.

63) Short Answer

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Internal recruiting advantages: 1. Generates applicants who are well known to the organization.

2. Applicants are relatively knowledgeable about the company's vacancies—which minimizes the problem of unrealistic expectations.

3. Filling vacancies through internal recruiting is generally cheaper and faster than looking outside the organization.

External recruiting advantages: 1. For entry-level positions and some specialized upper-level positions, there may not be any internal recruits available.

2. Bringing in outsiders may expose the organization to new ideas or new ways of doing business.

3. Can gain a competitive advantage during a slow economy when other organizations are forced to avoid hiring, freeze pay, or even lay off talented employers 64) Short Answer

Yield ratio - A ratio that expresses the percentage of applicants who successfully move from one stage of the recruitment and selection process to the next. A high yield ratio (large percentage) means that the source is an effective way to find candidates. By comparing the yield rations of different recruitment sources, HR professionals can determine which is the best or most efficient for the type of vacancy.

Cost per hire - To calculate the cost per hire, find the cost of using a particular recruitment source for a particular type of vacancy. Then divide that cost by the number of people hired to fill that type of vacancy. A low cost per hire indicates that a particular recruitment source is efficient; it delivers qualified candidates at minimal cost.

65) Short Answer

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In general, applicants respond more positively to recruiters whom they perceive as warm and informative. In addition, at least according to one study, they perceive HR specialists as less credible and are less attracted to jobs when recruiters are HR specialists. Thus, HR specialists need to take extra steps to ensure that applicants perceive them as knowledgeable and credible.

The impact of other characteristics, such as age, sex, and race, is complex and inconsistent.

Recruiters should also demonstrate realism by providing information that is neither too positive or too negative.

As for behaviours, recruiters should be encouraged to: 1. Provide applicants with timely feedback.

2. Recruit in teams rather than individually.

Student name:__________ 301)

The organization's decisions about selecting people are primarily administrative and unrelated to its ability to survive, adapt, and grow. ⊚ true ⊚ false

302)

The process of selecting employees remains constant for all organizations and for all jobs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

303)

Candidate experience is a critical determinant of the organization's reputation and employer brand. ⊚ true ⊚ false

304)

Candidates can be asked indirect questions about prohibited grounds of discrimination but cannot be asked direct questions. For example, it is acceptable to ask a candidate: "What year did you graduate from high school?" ⊚ true ⊚ false

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305)

The reliability of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is from random error. ⊚ true ⊚ false

306)

The degree to which a measure is free from random error refers to its validity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

307)

Predictive validation uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and future performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

308)

Concurrent validation is more time consuming and difficult than predictive validation, but is a better measure of validity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

309)

A test that has content-validity exposes the job applicant to situations likely to occur on the job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

310)

Selection procedures that provide economic value greater than the cost of using them are said to have utility. ⊚ true ⊚ false

311)

An application form can request information regarding an applicant's marital status and age. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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312)

A usual way applicants introduce themselves to a potential employer is by submitting a résumé. ⊚ true ⊚ false

313)

References are an unbiased source of information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

314)

Candidates must provide their consent before a background check can be conducted. ⊚ true ⊚ false

315)

Aptitude tests measure a person's existing knowledge and skills. ⊚ true ⊚ false

316)

Achievement tests measure a person's existing skills and knowledge. ⊚ true ⊚ false

317)

Use of physical ability tests can make an organization vulnerable to human rights complaints. ⊚ true ⊚ false

318)

In terms of the "Big Five" personality traits, there is evidence that people who score high on conscientiousness tend to excel at work, because they use self-control to pursue goals and excel at overcoming obstacles. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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319)

Drug testing will uncover all problems with impairment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

320)

Situational interviews may have high validity in predicting job performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

321)

Research has shown that interviews tend to be highly reliable, valid, and inexpensive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

322)

The multiple-hurdle model is a more expensive selection process than the compensatory model. ⊚ true ⊚ false

323)

Recruitment, together with selection, is increasingly referred to as: A) organizational strategy.

B) hiring decision-making.

C) talent management.

D) employment testing.

E) talent acquisition.

324)

For most companies, the first step in the selection process is: A) verification of the applicant's qualifications through reference and background checks.

B) determining the best recruitment source.

C) screening the applications received to determine which meet the requirements for the job.

D) preparation of a job description.

E) Interviewing candidates.

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325)

Which stage of the selection process often involves supervisors and team members?

A) Recruitment B) Testing C) Reference and background checks D) Interviews E) Screening applications and résumés

326)

A job seeker's perception of and response to an employer's talent acquisition process is called: A) employer brand.

B) candidate experience.

C) employee review.

D) online review.

E) employee experience.

327)

All of the following questions are not permissible questions for applications and/or interviews, EXCEPT? A) Have you ever changed your name?

B) Are you planning to start a family in the near future?

C) Are you single or married?

D) Where does your spouse work?

E) What aspect of your previous job did you enjoy the most?

328)

The final stage of the selection process is: A) Testing and reviewing work samples B) Interviewing candidates C) Checking references D) Screening resumes E) Making a selection

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329)

Which step of the selection process precedes the actual selection of a candidate?

A) Testing B) Interviewing candidates C) Checking references and backgrounds D) Screening resumes E) Reviewing work samples

330)

A software application that streamlines the flow of information between job seekers is called: A) KSAOs B) An applicant tracking system (ATS) C) Game-based assessments (GBAs) D) Candidate experience warehouse E) National Qualification Classification

331)

A typical advantage of game-based assessments (GBAs) is: A) They improve applicant reactions compared to traditional employment tests.

B) They are perceived to be fairer by the applicant.

C) They are more ordinary and expected assessments.

D) They solicit common sense responses.

E) They do not affect the candidate experience.

332)

When a selection method is free from random error we say it is: A) reliable.

B) valid.

C) legal.

D) practical.

E) inexpensive.

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333)

The _____ of an employment test is indicated by the extent to which the test scores relate to actual job performance.

A) reliability.

B) validity.

C) ability to generalize.

D) utility.

E) physical ability.

334)

A measure of validity based on showing that there is a substantial association between test scores and job performance scores is called: A) criterion-related validity.

B) split-half validity.

C) content validity.

D) construct validity.

E) concurrent validation.

335)

The consistency between test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems that occur on the job is: A) predictive validity.

B) concurrent validity.

C) content validity.

D) construct validity.

E) concurrent reliability.

336)

Which of the following is true of validity?

A) Validity cannot be explained using correlation coefficients.

B) Validity identifies how free a measurement is from random error.

C) Validity measures the level of cultural fit.

D) Validity can only be measured in one way.

E) Validity helps to ensure the fairness of employment practices during selection procedures.

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337)

Sylvie is the HR Manager of Trelsoft Inc., a software company in Halifax. She wants to establish the validity of a test designed for computer technicians using a predictive validation strategy. Accordingly, Sylvie must administer the test to: A) at least half the present computer technicians in Trelsoft.

B) people doing similar jobs in other companies.

C) people applying for computer technician jobs in Trelsoft.

D) only those computer technicians in Trelsoft who are performing at acceptable levels.

E) a random selection of computer technicians currently employed at Trelsoft.

338)

TiaraInc., an international clothing brand, hired 15 people as brand managers. They all took a test as part of the hiring process. Three months after being hired, their test scores were analyzed along with their performance on the job to find a substantial correlation between the two factors. Which of the following methods of research is exemplified in this scenario?

A) content validation.

B) predictive validation.

C) concurrent validation.

D) construct validation.

E) diagnostic validation.

339)

Unlike predictive and concurrent validity, content validity is: A) based on expert judgment.

B) measured statistically.

C) more valid.

D) based on correlation coefficients.

E) not legally approved.

340)

For tests that measure abstract qualities like intelligence or leadership skills, validity would best be established by: A) predictive criterion-related validation.

B) content validation.

C) concurrent criterion-related validation.

D) construct validation.

E) concurrent validation.

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341)

A test that is valid in other contexts beyond the context in which it was developed is known as a(n) _____ method.

A) practical B) reliable C) generalizable D) invalid E) concurrent

342)

The extent to which the selection method provides economic value greater than its cost refers to: A) reliability.

B) utility.

C) validity.

D) generalizability.

E) profitability.

343)

Employers use employment applications for all but one of the following reasons. Select the exception from the list below.

A) They are a low-cost way to gather basic data from many applicants.

B) They provide the organization with certain standard categories of information such as contact information, specific work experiences, and educational background.

C) They provide information that has been verified for accuracy.

D) By including a date, they allow the employer to keep up-to-date records of job applicants.

E) They provide a standardized method to consistency collect information across applicants.

344)

Organizations typically use resumes: A) as substitutes for employment tests.

B) as a basis for deciding which candidates to consider further.

C) as a means of verifying applicants' ability to perform jobs.

D) to get around legal restrictions as the information provided is voluntary in nature.

E) as substitutes for interviews.

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345)

Review of resumes is most valid when their content is evaluated in terms of: A) the elements of a job description and job specifications.

B) other applicants' qualifications.

C) the incumbent's qualifications.

D) the values and wants of the supervisor rather than the HR professional.

E) their correlation with salary structure.

346)

Generally, the organization checks references: A) only if it believes the information provided by the applicant is "suspicious."

B) immediately after the applicant submits a résumé.

C) after it has determined that the applicant is a finalist for the job.

D) only for the least qualified applicants.

E) to avoid claims of defamation.

347)

Which of the following terms is used to describe a scenario whereby an employer is found liable for the harm an employee causes to others if references and background checks were not performed adequately?

A) misrepresentation.

B) negligent hiring.

C) defamation.

D) negligent omission.

E) negligent cycle time.

348)

A(n) _______________ is a way of verifying whether applicants are as they represent themselves to be.

A) resume B) interview C) assessment centre D) background check E) compensatory model

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349)

To remove unconscious bias that may present barriers or exclude some candidates from consideration some firms are using: A) physical ability tests B) personality inventories C) reference checks D) blind screening E) compensatory models

350)

The Public Service Commission of Canada reported that blind screening: A) had a significant positive effect on the screening decisions of applications from members of visible minority groups.

B) had a negligible positive effect on the screening decisions of applications from members of visible minority groups.

C) had a significant negative effect on the screening decisions of applications from members of visible minority groups.

D) had a negligible negative effect on the screening decisions of applications from members of visible minority groups.

E) had no effect on the screening decisions of applications from members of visible minority groups.

351)

Social media background checks on sites such as Facebook, Twitter, TikTok, and Instagram are being used by _______ of employers as a hiring tool A) 10 percent B) 25 percent C) 50 percent D) 70 percent E) 85 percent

352)

Which of the following tests assesses how well a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities?

A) Personality inventories B) Cognitive ability tests C) Achievement tests D) Aptitude tests E) Physical ability tests

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353)

A cognitive ability test is sometimes called a(n): A) emotional ability test.

B) general ability test.

C) endurance test.

D) emotional focus test.

E) intelligence test.

354)

A keyboarding speed and accuracy test for a data entry clerk is an example of a: A) spatial abilities test.

B) perceptual accuracy test.

C) job performance test.

D) mechanical test.

E) personality test.

355)

Job performance tests have the advantage of being: A) job-specific.

B) commercially available at very minimal cost.

C) generalizable.

D) inexpensive.

E) similar to personality tests.

356)

Which of the following tests measures the ability to juggle a variety of demands, as in a manager’s job?

A) An endurance test.

B) A general ability test.

C) An in-basket test D) A personality test.

E) An IQ test.

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357)

All of the following statements about personality inventories are accurate, EXCEPT? A) Evidence shows that people who score high on conscientiousness tend to excel at work, because they tend to use self-control.

B) The usual way to identify a candidate's personality traits is to administer one of the personality tests that are commercially available.

C) The relevance of personality dimensions may be job specific (e.g. extroverts tend to excel in sales jobs.)

D) Administering commercially available personality tests usually violates employment equity requirements.

E) One trend in favour of personality tests is the increasing use of teamwork in organizations.

358)

All of the following are included in the "Big Five" Personality dimensions, EXCEPT? A) Extraversion B) Friendliness C) Conscientiousness D) Inquisitiveness E) Agreeableness

359)

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The most well-known honesty test is the polygraph (lie detector) test.

B) The use of alcohol and drug testing has been increasing.

C) Drug testing will not uncover all problems with impairment.

D) Testing for alcohol or drugs is best considered a type of medical examination.

E) The legalization of recreational cannabis is not expected to pose any issues for organizations.

360)

Medical exams must be: A) related to job requirements.

B) given to all job applicants over the age of 45 years.

C) given only after the candidate has received a conditional job offer.

D) used to avoid charges of discrimination.

E) both "related to job requirements" and "given only after the candidate has received a conditional job offer."

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361)

The RCMP have developed an effective test to assess candidates’ physical abilities called: A) Core Abilities Action Protocol (CAAP) B) Core Strength Requirement Evaluation (CSRE) C) Physical Abilities Requirement Evaluation (PARE) D) Endurance, Strength, and Agility Evaluation (ESAE) E) Strength and Physical Endurance Assessment (SPEA)

362)

An interview may be _________ or __________.

A) nondirective; structured B) focused; unfocused C) compulsory; voluntary D) open; closed E) random; organized

363)

In what type of interview are candidates typically asked open-ended questions about strengths, weaknesses, and career goals?

A) Behavioural description B) Situational C) Nondirective D) Structured E) Panel

364)

Bae is being interviewed for the position of entry-level financial analyst at a well-known asset management company. Bae is being asked questions about the current state of the Canadian stock market, the current net worth of certain well-known firms, and concepts such as IPOs and mergers from a set of pre-determined questions that the interviewer has prepared. This is an example of a(n): A) structured interview.

B) in-basket exercise.

C) work-sample interview.

D) exit interview.

E) nondirective interview.

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365)

Which of the following statements about interviews is FALSE? A) Interviews should be focused, structured, and standardized.

B) Interviews should focus on accomplishing a few goals, so that at the end of the interview, the organization has ratings on several observable measures.

C) Interviews should not try to measure abilities and skills—for example, intelligence— that tests can measure better.

D) In-person interviewing is the most accurate basis for making a selection decision.

E) Interviews can be unreliable, low in validity, and biased.

366)

The Public Service Commission of Canada uses a test called the ______ to assess general cognitive abilities required for officer-level positions.

A) GCT1 B) GCT2 C) GCT3 D) PARE E) CARES

367)

Which dimension of the “Big Five” measures emotional stability?

A) Extroversion B) Adjustment C) Agreeableness D) Conscientiousness E) Inquisitiveness

368)

Which dimension of the “Big Five” measures cooperativeness and courtesy?

A) Extroversion B) Adjustment C) Agreeableness D) Conscientiousness E) Inquisitiveness

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369)

Which personality traits have been associated with effective teamwork?

A) Extroversion and Adjustment B) Conscientiousness and Extroversion C) Extroversion and Agreeableness D) Inquisitiveness and Conscientiousness E) Agreeableness and Conscientiousness

370)

A recent study provided evidence that integrity can be predicted from which three personality factors?

A) Inquisitiveness, agreeableness, and adjustment B) Conscientiousness, extroversion, and adjustment C) Extroversion, adjustment, and agreeableness D) Inquisitiveness, conscientiousness, and extroversion E) Conscientiousness, agreeableness, and adjustment

371)

The usual process for arriving at a selection decision, is to gradually narrow the pool of candidates for each job. This approach is called the: A) compensatory model.

B) multiple-hurdle model.

C) professional model.

D) behavioural planning model.

E) legally required model.

372)

The process of arriving at a selection decision in which a very high score on one type of assessment can make up for a low score on another is called the: A) multiple-hurdle model.

B) winner-take-all model.

C) compensatory model.

D) panel interview model.

E) structured interview model.

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373)

A mathematical model used to predict which job candidates are most likely to be high performers is a(n): A) ethical formula.

B) hiring algorithm.

C) multiple-hurdle equation.

D) compensatory algorithm.

E) selection equation.

374)

Which of the following is accurate regarding the ability to fill job vacancies with firstchoice candidates?

A) Service organizations are always able to hire their first-choice candidates.

B) Manufacturing organizations are always able to hire their first-choice candidates.

C) Only multi-national organizations are able to hire their first-choice candidates.

D) Filling executive vacancies with first-choice candidates occurs 90 percent of the time.

E) Filling management and skilled trade vacancies with first-choice candidates occurs 90 percent of the time.

375)

All of the following statements are accurate regarding the communication of the hiring decision, EXCEPT? A) The human resource department is often responsible for notifying applicants about the results of the selection process.

B) The offer should include the job responsibilities, work schedule, rate of pay, starting date, and other relevant details.

C) If placement in a job requires that the applicant complete a medical examination, the offer should state that contingency.

D) The person communicating the offer should also indicate a date by which the candidate should reply with an acceptance or rejection of the offer.

E) In all cases, the candidate and organization will negotiate pay, benefits, and work arrangements before they arrive at a final employment agreement.

376)

Define what is meant by candidate experience. How might candidate experience impact the organization's reputation and results?

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377)

Define what is meant by reliability, validity, and utility in the employment selection context.

378)

Demonstrate your knowledge of predictive validation and concurrent validation. Which method is the best measure of validity? Why? What is a disadvantage of this "best" method?

379)

Discuss the burden placed on people or organizations contacted as references for job candidates. How do organizations cope with this burden?

380)

What are cognitive ability tests? How do they differ from job performance tests and work samples?

381)

How can organizations avoid the pitfalls of using interviews as a selection method?

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382)

Organizations have choices about "who" will make the hiring decision. What are the options?

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) FALSE 23) E 24) C 25) D 26) B 27) E 28) E 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) E 37) C

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38) B 39) A 40) D 41) C 42) B 43) C 44) B 45) A 46) C 47) B 48) D 49) D 50) E 51) D 52) D 53) E 54) C 55) A 56) C 57) D 58) B 59) E 60) E 61) C 62) A 63) C 64) A 65) D 66) B 67) B 68) C 69) E 70) E 71) B 72) C 73) B 74) E 75) E 76) Short Answer

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Candidate experience is a job seeker's perception of and response to an employer's talent acquisition process. Candidate experience is a critical determinant of the organization's reputation and employer brand. For example, a positive candidate experience can result in more and better applicants, hires, and referrals and reduce the hiring cost and time to fill vacancies, whereas negative candidate experience can result in rapid sharing through social media. In addition, negative candidate experience may result in individuals withdrawing their support as customers and telling others about it in their personal and professional networks.

77) Short Answer

Reliability is the extent to which a measurement is free from random error. A reliable measurement therefore generates consistent results. Validity is the extent to which performance on a measure (such as a test score) is related to what the measure is designed to assess (such as job performance). Utility indicates that the selection methods provide economic value greater than the cost of using them.

78) Short Answer

1. Concurrent validation. This type of research administers a test to people who currently hold a job, then compares their scores to existing measures of job performance. If the people who score highest on the test also do better on the job, the test is assumed to be valid.

2. Predictive validation. This research uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and future performance. The researcher administers the tests, waits a set period of time, and then measures the performance of the applicants who were hired.

Predictive validation is the best measure of validity because: - Job applicants tend to be more motivated to do well on the tests.

- Job applicants' performance on the tests is not influenced by their first hand experience with the job.

- The group studied is more likely to include people who perform poorly on the test—a necessary ingredient to accurately validate a test Disadvantages of using predictive validation are that this method is more time-consuming and difficult 79) Short Answer

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Providing information as references for job candidates poses some burden on the people or organizations contacted for the purpose. Part of that burden is the risk of giving information that is seen as too negative or too positive. If the person who is a reference gives negative information, there is a chance the candidate will claim defamation, meaning the person damaged the applicant's reputation by making statements that cannot be proved truthful. At the other extreme, if the person gives a glowing statement about a candidate, and the new employer later learns of misdeeds such as sexual misconduct or workplace violence, the new employer might sue the former employer for misrepresentation. Because such situations occasionally arise, people who give references tend to give as little information as possible. Most organizations have policies that the HR department will handle all requests for references and that they will only verify employment dates and sometimes the employee's final salary. In organizations without such a policy, HR professionals should be careful—and train managers to be careful—to stick to observable, job-related behaviours and to avoid broad opinions that may be misinterpreted.

80) Short Answer

Cognitive ability tests (sometimes called "intelligence tests" are designed to measure such abilities as verbal skills, quantitative skills, and reasoning ability. Many jobs require all of these skills, so employers often get valid information from general tests.

In contrast, many kinds of jobs require candidates that excel at performing specialized tasks such as operating a certain machine, handling calls from customers, or designing advertising materials. To evaluate candidates for such jobs, the organization may administer tests of the necessary skills (job performance tests). Sometimes the candidates take tests that involve a sample of work, or they may show existing samples of their work. Testing may involve a simulated work setting, perhaps in a testing centre or in a computerized virtual environment.

81) Short Answer

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To avoid the pitfalls of using interviews as a selection method, human resource staff should keep the interviews narrow, structured, and standardized. The interview should focus on accomplishing a few goals, so that at the end of the interview, the organization has ratings on several observable measures, such as ability to express ideas. The interview should not try to measure abilities and skills—for example, intelligence—that tests can measure better.

Organizations can prevent problems related to subjectivity by training interviewers and using more than one person to conduct interviews. Training typically includes focusing on the recording of observable facts, rather than on making subjective judgments, as well as developing interviewers' awareness of their biases. Using a structured system for taking notes or scoring responses may be helpful for limiting subjectivity and helping the interviewer remember and justify an evaluation later. Finally, digital interviews (technology-based interviews i.e. the interviewee digitally records their responses to interview questions without live interaction with the interviewer may also be used to improve the efficiency, flexibility, and consistency of the interviewing process.

82) Short Answer

Sometimes the immediate supervisor or manager makes the final decision, often alone. The decision could also be made by a human resources professional using standardized, objective criteria. The decision could also be made by a work team or other panel of decision makers.

Alternatively, the organization may rely upon an application of people (human capital) analytics e.g. use a hiring algorithm to make evidence-based decisions to predict which job candidates are most likely to be high-performers.

Student name:__________ 383)

Training refers to an organization's planned efforts to help employees acquire job- related knowledge, skills, and behaviours with the goal of applying these on the job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

384)

Organizations with strong learning cultures are more likely to be averse to change. ⊚ true ⊚ false

385)

The last step in the instructional design process involves choosing a training method. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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386)

Usually, the needs assessment begins with the organization analysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

387)

Readiness for learning is a combination of employee characteristics and positive work environment that permit training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

388)

Social support refers to the ways an organization's people encourage training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

389)

Establishing objectives for the training program provides few benefits and can detract from the participants' learning experience. ⊚ true ⊚ false

390)

Instructor-led online learning has become the most widely used training method. ⊚ true ⊚ false

391)

On-the-job training takes various forms including apprenticeship, internships, and cooperative education. ⊚ true ⊚ false

392)

One of the most effective ways to teach interpersonal skills is through behaviour modelling. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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393)

An experiential program is a type of internship used to instruct new student employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

394)

Employees are most likely to learn when training is linked to their current job experiences and tasks. ⊚ true ⊚ false

395)

The ultimate goal of training implementation is transfer of learning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

396)

The best stage to prepare for evaluating a training program is when the program is being implemented. ⊚ true ⊚ false

397)

Organizations with strong learning cultures are more likely to conduct evaluations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

398)

Onboarding may be considered an elevated form of orientation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

399)

Diversity is a reality in labour and customer markets, however inclusion is a choice. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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400)

Diversity training is most effective when it is implemented as a stand-alone program. ⊚ true ⊚ false

401)

A protean career is a career that changes frequently based on changes in the person's interests, abilities, and values, and in the work environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

402)

Approaches to employee development fall into four broad categories: informal education, assessment, job experiences, and interpersonal relationships. ⊚ true ⊚ false

403)

Most employee development occurs through job experiences. ⊚ true ⊚ false

404)

Mentors and protégés (mentees) can both benefit from a mentoring relationship. ⊚ true ⊚ false

405)

Basic career management systems involve the four sequential steps of (1) data gathering, (2) feedback, (3) goal setting, and (4) action planning and follow-up. ⊚ true ⊚ false

406)

Goal setting is the first step in the career management process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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407)

The employee sets short- and long-term career objectives in the feedback step in the career management process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

408)

An organization's planned efforts to help employees acquire job- related knowledge, skills, and behaviours with the goal of applying these on the job is called: A) employee development.

B) orientation.

C) training.

D) career development.

E) e-learning.

409)

Talent development programs, courses, and events that are developed and organized by the organization describes: A) formal training.

B) informal learning.

C) training.

D) onboarding.

E) learning.

410)

Which of the following refers to the combination of formal education, job experiences, relationships, and assessment of personality and abilities to help employees prepare for the future of their careers?

A) employee development.

B) orientation.

C) training.

D) career development.

E) e-learning.

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411)

Continuous learning requires employees to do all the following, EXCEPT: A) understand the entire work system.

B) acquire new skills.

C) apply new skills on the job.

D) develop new formal training programs.

E) share their learning with other employees.

412)

The first step in the instructional design process is: A) evaluate results.

B) plan the training program.

C) select training methods.

D) ensure employees' readiness for training.

E) assess needs for training.

413)

All of the following are true of diversity and inclusion, EXCEPT? A) Diversity can be any dimension that differentiates one person from another.

B) Diversity is a reality in labour and customer markets.

C) Diversity is a social expectation and value.

D) Inclusion allows organizations to capitalize on the diversity of their employees.

E) While inclusion is useful internally for an organization, it has little impact on supplier relationships and community partners.

414)

All of the following statements about diversity is true, EXCEPT: A) Diversity is a reality in labour markets.

B) Diversity is a reality in customer markets.

C) Diversity is a social expectation.

D) Diversity and inclusion are words that can be used interchangeably.

E) Diversity is a value.

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415)

______ refers to creating an environment in which employees share a sense of belonging, mutual respect, and commitment from others so that they can perform their best work.

A) Diversity B) Diversity training C) Empathy D) Inclusion E) Onboarding

416)

Intercultural competency training is a requirement for designated employers in some provinces. This is an example of: A) Organization analysis B) Continuous learning C) DEIB education and training D) Inclusion Application Techniques E) Situational analysis

417)

The Atlantic Growth Strategy is: A) a program that supports employers to hire women and visible minorities from the region which includes only the Atlantic provinces.

B) a program that supports employers to hire foreign skilled workers and international graduates into vacancies they are not able to fill with local talent.

C) a program that supports employers who hire regional university students and provides a significant wage subsidy to those organizations.

D) a program that supports employers who incorporate sustainability initiatives into their manufacturing processes.

E) a program geared to hiring Indigenous peoples in preference to other applicants.

418)

A comprehensive onboarding process prepares employees in all of the following areas, EXCEPT: A) complying with policies and rules.

B) developing detailed project plans for ongoing work assignments.

C) understanding the organization's culture.

D) clarifying job requirements.

E) connecting to co-workers.

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419)

Training designed to prepare employees to perform their jobs effectively, learn about the organization, and establish work relationships is known as: A) orientation.

B) action learning.

C) role playing.

D) cross-training.

E) feedback.

420)

All of the following are true of onboarding, EXCEPT? A) Onboarding can improve productivity and new hire retention.

B) Onboarding is best considered an ongoing process with follow-up to ensure the new employees are making a successful transition.

C) Onboarding helps new employees adjust to both the social and the performance aspects of their jobs so they can quickly become productive contributors to the organization.

D) A Gallup poll found that 85 percent of employees strongly agree their organization does a great job of onboarding new employees.

E) Aa comprehensive onboarding process prepares employees in four areas: complying with policies and rules, clarifying job requirements, understanding the organization’s culture, and connecting with co-workers.

421)

The goals of a four-stage onboarding process include all of the following, EXCEPT? A) Connection B) Culture C) Clarification D) Compliance E) Complexity

422)

Which goal of the onboarding is designed to help new employees understand job and performance expectations?

A) Connection B) Culture C) Clarification D) Compliance E) Complexity

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423)

Which goal of the onboarding is designed to help new employees understand working and interpersonal relationships?

A) Connection B) Culture C) Clarification D) Compliance E) Complexity

424)

Which of the following is included in a needs assessment?

A) Organization analysis and person analysis B) Person analysis and task analysis C) Task analysis and competitive analysis D) Competitive analysis and organization analysis E) Organization, person, and task analysis

425)

When conducting a needs assessment, what type of analysis is generally performed first?

A) Task analysis B) Organization analysis C) Person analysis D) High-leverage analysis E) Situational analysis

426)

Which process identifies the tasks, knowledge, skills, and behaviour that training should emphasize?

A) Person analysis B) Task analysis C) Needs assessment D) Organizational analysis E) Work environment assessment

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427)

Readiness for learning is a combination of: A) employee characteristics and positive work environment.

B) trainee characteristics and trainer characteristics.

C) situational constraints and social constraints.

D) social support and manager support.

E) task analysis and person analysis.

428)

The outcome of the needs assessment is: A) A cost breakdown of the requirements to solve the problems that precipitated the needs assessment.

B) A training program to address the issues raised in the needs assessment.

C) able to identify how the “pressure points” can be circumvented.

D) A set of decisions about how to address the issues that prompted the needs assessment.

E) able to identify how the context can be adapted.

429)

Which of the following looks at training needs in light of the organization’s strategy, resources available, and management’s support for learning activities?

A) Person analysis B) Task analysis C) Needs assessment D) Organizational analysis E) Work environment assessment

430)

Which of the following is a process for determining individuals’ needs and readiness for learning?

A) Person analysis B) Task analysis C) Needs assessment D) Organizational analysis E) Work environment assessment

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Which of the following is NOT something decided during the “planning and designing the training program” stage?

A) Who will provide the training?

B) What topics will the training cover?

C) What training methods will be used?

D) Is the organization growing or shrinking?

E) How will training be evaluated?

431)

432)

Which of the following is a characteristic of effective training objectives?

A) Disclaimers to prevent exaggerated expectations B) Specified costs associated with the training C) Specified methods of performance objectives D) Names of the learners and people who will deliver the training E) Measurable performance standards

433)

Terrai Prime, an auditing firm, purchases a management information system called Alpha Duo. Most of Terrai's employees are unfamiliar with the functional aspects of Alpha Duo, and management decides to approach external vendors to train its employees. Raghavi, the company's training coordinator, is tasked with finding suitable training vendors. She sends an email, with a document outlining the company's training requirements, to multiple vendors and asks them to provide suitable trainer profiles and cost quotes. What is the document called that Raghavi sends out to training vendors?

A) A request for proposal (RFP) B) Articles of incorporation C) Instructional design D) Needs assessment form E) Organization analysis report

434)

______ training remains the most widely used method of training.

A) Instructor-led (classroom) B) Instructor-led (online) C) Instructor-led (blended) D) Self-paced E) Role-playing

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435)

Identify the training method that is used for conveying facts or comparing alternatives?

A) Hands-on method B) Presentation method C) Group-building method D) On-the-job training program E) Object class method

436)

Which of the following is a work-study training method that teaches job skills through a combination of on-the-job training and classroom training?

A) Internship B) Co-employment C) Apprenticeship D) Experiential programs E) Co-operative education

437)

KFC introduced a pirate-themed course for a new product promotion. Learners earned jewels after each activity and at the end of the course were able to use their jewels to decode an important message. KFC's course is an example of: A) a case study.

B) blended learning.

C) co-operative education.

D) gamification.

E) a simulation.

438)

Behaviour modelling is best for improving: A) technical skills.

B) interpersonal skills.

C) conceptual skills.

D) clerical skills.

E) marketing skills.

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439)

Which type of training is designed to develop teamwork and leadership skills through challenging, structured outdoor activities?

A) Behaviour modelling B) Adventure learning C) Experiential programs D) Virtual reality E) Business games

440)

Team members are required to understand and practise each other's skills so they are prepared to step in and take another member's place in: A) action learning.

B) e-learning.

C) coordination training.

D) cross-training.

E) adventure learning.

441)

In this type of training, teams or work groups get an actual problem, work on solving it, commit to an action plan, and are accountable for carrying out the plan.

A) Experiential learning B) Self-directed learning C) Action learning D) Team training E) Coordination training

442)

Use of _______, small chunks of learning less than 15 minutes in duration, is expected to increase significantly in the effort to keep employees' attention.

A) microlearning B) action learning C) experiential learning D) distance learning E) online communities of practice

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443)

Which one of the following statements about training and learning is FALSE? A) Employees are most likely to learn when training is linked to their current job experiences and tasks.

B) The training context—such as the physical setting or the images presented on a computer—should mirror the work environment.

C) Employees need a chance to demonstrate and practise what they have learned.

D) People tend to benefit most from one long practise session, rather than practise that occurs over several sessions.

E) Feedback on trainees' performance should focus on specific behaviours and be delivered as soon as possible after the trainees practise or demonstrate what they have learned.

444)

______ requires that employees actually learn the content of the training program and that the necessary conditions are in place for employees to apply what they learned.

A) Behaviour modelling B) Simulation C) Transfer of learning D) Virtual reality E) Action learning

445)

Measures of training success generally include all but one of the following. Select the exception.

A) Satisfaction with the program B) Margin of error C) Behaviour change D) Knowledge or skills learned E) Improvements in individual and/or organizational performance

446)

The four general approaches that companies use to develop employees are: A) formal education, assessment, job experiences, and interpersonal relationships.

B) job rotation, promotion, transfer, and job sharing.

C) psychological tests, assessment centres, Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, and performance feedback.

D) business games, formal courses, team building, and assessment.

E) formal education, informal education, training, and orientation.

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447)

All but one of the following is true of protean careers. Select the exception.

A) Protean careers are characterized by frequent changes due to both changes in the person's interests, abilities, and values, and changes in the work environment.

B) Employees take responsibility for managing their protean careers.

C) Protean careers have substantially increased companies' training and compensation costs.

D) Is consistent with the current psychological contract.

E) To remain marketable, employees must continually develop new skills.

448)

Thompson Design, a popular furniture manufacturer, provides employee support through various workshops on interior design techniques. It also offers three-month courses on various aspects of decorating a home, from suitable paint for a media room to contemporary outdoor furnishings. This adds to employees' existing knowledge and skill sets, helping create customer satisfaction. In this scenario, which of the following approaches to employee development is Thompson Design taking?

A) Assessment B) Formal education C) Job experiences D) Interpersonal relationships E) Counselling

449)

The energy dichotomy of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator indicates: A) the preparation individuals make before making decisions.

B) the amount of consideration individuals give to their own and others' values and feelings.

C) individuals' degree of introversion or extroversion.

D) the hard facts of a situation.

E) individuals' tendency to be either flexible or structured.

450)

Most employee development occurs through: A) performance appraisals.

B) job experiences.

C) mentoring programs.

D) job enlargement.

E) career conversations.

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451)

Which of the following is NOT an example of how job experiences are used for employee development?

A) Job rotation B) Mentoring C) Transfer D) Promotion E) Downward move

452)

An engineer accepting an assignment as a shift supervisor in order to develop his or her management skills is an example of a(n): A) lateral demotion.

B) sabbatical.

C) downward move.

D) externship.

E) promotion.

453)

Two types of relationships used for employee development are mentoring and ___________.

A) helping B) learning C) advising D) coaching E) supporting

454)

Jillian, a human resource executive, is setting up a mentoring program at her company.

Which of the following actions will best help the program succeed?

A) Making sure the performance management system rewards managers for employee development.

B) Selecting mentors based solely on their interpersonal skills.

C) Setting up the mentoring as a mandatory program for both mentors and mentees.

D) Cautioning mentors that only the mentees will benefit from the mentoring program.

E) Defining the mentor's role broadly—to help with personal problems as well as business-related skills.

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455)

A peer or manager who works closely with an employee to provide a source of motivation, help him or her develop skills, and provide reinforcement and feedback is a: A) coach.

B) role model.

C) mentor.

D) good person.

E) high-potential employee.

456)

Which one of the following is NOT a step in the career management process?

A) Data gathering B) Feedback C) Career path alignment D) Goal setting E) Action planning

457)

The first step in the career management process is: A) Action planning B) Feedback C) Career path alignment D) Needs assessment E) Data gathering

458)

Which of the following criteria for success belongs in the feedback stage of the career management process?

A) Specify developmental methods.

B) Measure success and adjust plans as needed.

C) Maintain confidentiality D) Verify that pace of development is realistic.

E) Focus on competencies needed for career success.

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459)

Which of the following criteria for success belongs in the action planning stage of the career management process?

A) Specify developmental methods.

B) Measure success and adjust plans as needed.

C) Maintain confidentiality D) Include a variety of measures.

E) Focus on competencies needed for career success.

460)

The ________ helps employees identify their occupational and job interests.

A) Self-Directed Search B) Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory C) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator D) Myers Inventory E) Self-Assessment Inventory Protocol

461)

______________ tools often include psychological tests, such as the Myers-Briggs Type Inventory and the Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory.

A) Self-assessment B) Reality check C) Goal setting D) Action planning E) Scenario planning

462)

The identified pattern or progression of jobs or roles within an organization refers to: A) job enrichment.

B) a development plan.

C) career paths.

D) succession planning.

E) action planning.

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463)

The final step in the career management process is: A) self-assessment.

B) feedback.

C) goal setting.

D) action planning and follow-up.

E) career pathing.

464)

What are the different stages of the instructional design process?

465)

Summarize the goals of a four-stage onboarding process.

466)

Outline the stages of the instructional design process.

467)

Name and discuss each of the three stages of the needs assessment process.

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468)

Write an objective that fulfils the three components of an effective training objective, and then indicate which words within the objective fulfill each of these components.

469)

Identify and discuss at least four training activities characteristic of an effective training program that allow employees to learn. Your response should identify training activities and one or more specific examples of how to provide each of the training activities you identified.

470)

What is the difference between diversity and inclusion? Discuss.

471)

What are the four approaches to employee development? What types of development activities are associated with each approach?

472)

What are the four steps of a basic career management system?

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473)

Identify and briefly discuss the 3 stages of an effective approach for developing highpotential employees.

474)

Discuss situational constraints in the work environment that may impact the readiness to learn or otherwise limit training’s effectiveness.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) FALSE 25) FALSE 26) C 27) A 28) A 29) D 30) E 31) E 32) D 33) D 34) C 35) B 36) B 37) A

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38) D 39) E 40) C 41) A 42) E 43) B 44) B 45) A 46) D 47) D 48) A 49) D 50) E 51) A 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) B 57) B 58) D 59) C 60) A 61) D 62) C 63) B 64) A 65) C 66) B 67) C 68) B 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) A 73) A 74) C 75) E 76) C 77) B

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78) B 79) A 80) C 81) D 82) Short Answer

An instructional design process begins with an assessment of the needs for training—what the organization requires that its people learn. Next, the organization ensures that employees are ready for training in terms of their attitudes, motivation, basic skills, and work environment. The third step is to plan the training program, including the program's objectives, instructors, and methods. The organization then implements the program. Finally, evaluating the results of the training provides feedback for planning future training programs.

83) Short Answer

Figure 6.1 in the text shows that a comprehensive onboarding process prepares employees in four areas: complying with policies and rules, clarifying job requirements, understanding the organization’s culture, and connecting with co-workers. To achieve these objectives, onboarding activities need to address social as well as task-related aspects of work and be mindful of issues and dynamics that underrepresented employees may face.

84) Short Answer

A complete instructional design process includes the steps shown in Figure 6.2. It begins with an assessment of needs—what the organization requires that its people learn. Next, the organization ensures that employees are ready in terms of their mindset (set of attitudes), motivation, basic skills, and work environment. The third step is to plan the program, including the program’s objectives, instructors, and methods. The organization then implements the program. Finally, evaluating the results provides feedback for planning future programs.

85) Short Answer

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The needs assessment process involves three major stages or analyses: (1) organization analysis, (2) person analysis, and (3) task analysis.

1. Organization analysis. Usually, the needs assessment begins with the organization analysis. It involves determining the appropriateness of training, given the company's business strategy, its resources available for training, and support by managers and peers for learning activities.

2. Person analysis. The process for determining individuals' needs and readiness for training. It involves answering several questions: Do performance deficiencies result from a lack of knowledge, skill, or ability? (If so, training is appropriate, if not, other solutions are more relevant.); Who needs training? and Are these employees ready for training?

3. Task analysis. The process of identifying the tasks, knowledge, skills, and behaviours that training should emphasize. Usually task analysis is conducted along with person analysis. The HR professional looks at the conditions in which tasks are performed e.g. equipment and environment of the job, time constraints (e.g. deadlines), safety considerations, and performance standard as a basis for a description of the activities i.e. tasks required by a person's job.

86) Short Answer

A training objective might read: "After training, the employee will be able to express concern to an irate customers with a brief (fewer than 10 words) apology once the customer has stopped talking and no matter how upset the customer is."

• The statement of what the employee is expected to do (performance or outcome) is illustrated by the words "the employee will be able to express concern to an irate customers with an apology."

• The statement of the quality or level of performance that is acceptable is illustrated by the words "brief (fewer than 10 words)."

• The statement of the conditions under which the trainee is expected to apply what he or she has learned is illustrated by the words "once the customer has stopped talking and no matter how upset the customer is."

87) Short Answer

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1. Communicate the learning objective: e.g., demonstrate the performance expected; give examples of questions to be answered.

2. Use distinctive, attention-getting messages: e.g., emphasize key points; use pictures, not just words.

3. Limit the content of training: e.g., group lengthy material into chunks; provide a visual image of the course material; provide opportunities to repeat and practise material.

4. Guide trainees as they learn: e.g., use words as reminders about sequence of activities; use words and pictures to relate concepts to one another and to their context; prompt trainees to evaluate whether they understand and are using effective tactics to learn the material.

5. Elaborate on the subject: e.g., present the material in different contexts and settings; relate new ideas to previously learned concepts; practise in a variety of contexts and settings.

6. Provide memory cues: e.g., suggest memory aids; use familiar sounds or rhymes as memory cues.

7. Transfer course content to the workplace: e.g., design the learning environment so that it has elements in common with the workplace; require learners to develop action plans that apply training content to their jobs; use words that link the course to the workplace.

8. Provide feedback about performance: e.g., tell trainees how accurately and quickly they are performing their new skill; show how trainees have met the objectives of the training.

88) Short Answer

Diversity can be considered to be any dimension that differentiates one person from another.

Diversity is a reality in labour and customer markets and is a social expectation and value. In contrast, inclusion refers to creating an environment in which employees share a sense of belonging, mutual respect, and commitment from others so that they can perform their best work.

Inclusion allows organizations to capitalize not only on the diversity of their employees but also on their customers, suppliers, and community partners.

89) Short Answer

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1. Formal education. Organizations may support employee development through a variety of formal educational programs, either at the workplace or off-site. These may include workshops designed specifically for the organization's employees, short courses offered by consultants, colleges, or universities, MBA and executive MBA programs. These programs may involve methods including lectures by business experts, business games and simulations, and experiential programs.

2. Assessment. Another way to provide for employee development involves assessment— collecting information and providing feedback to employees about their behaviour, communication style, or skills. This may involve the use of psychological tests (e.g. MBTI), assessment centres, assessment of emotional intelligence (EQ), and 360-degree feedback.

3. Job experiences. The combination of relationships, problems, demands, tasks, and other features of an employee's job. Job enlargement, job enrichment, transfer, downward move, job rotation, promotion or temporary assignment to another organization are job experiences used for employee development.

4. Interpersonal relationships. Employees can also develop skills and increase their knowledge about the organization and its customers by interacting with a more experienced organization member. Mentoring and coaching are two types of relationships used for employee development.

90) Short Answer

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A basic career management system involves four steps: data gathering, feedback, goal setting, and action planning and follow-up.

1) Data gathering: This is the first step in the career management process. Self-assessment refers to the use of information by employees to determine their career interests, values, aptitudes, and behavioural tendencies. The employee's responsibility is to identify opportunities and personal areas needing improvement. The organization's responsibility is to provide assessment information for identifying strengths, weaknesses, interests, and values.

2) Feedback: In the feedback step of the career management process, employees receive information about their skills and knowledge and where these assets fit into the organization's plans. The employee's responsibility is to identify what skills he or she could realistically develop in light of the opportunities available. The organization's responsibility is to communicate the performance evaluation and the opportunities available to the employee, given the organization's long-range plans. Opportunities might include promotions and transfers.

3) Goal setting: The employee sets short- and long-term career objectives in one or more of the following categories: desired positions, level of skill to apply, work setting, and skill acquisition.

The goals should be specific, and they should include a date by which the goal is to be achieved.

It is the employee's responsibility to identify the goal and the method of determining her or his progress toward that goal. The organization's responsibilities are to ensure that the goal is specific, challenging, and attainable and to help the employee reach the goal.

4) Action planning and follow-up: Employees prepare an action plan for how they will achieve their career goals. The employee is responsible for identifying the steps and timetable to reach the goals. The employer should identify resources needed, including courses, work experiences, and relationships. Action plans may involve any one or a combination of development methods—training, assessment, job experiences, or the help of a mentor or coach.

91) Short Answer

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Selection of high-potential employees—Organizations may select outstanding performers and employees who have completed elite academic programs, such as earning a master's degree in business administration. They may also use the results of psychological tests such as assessment centres.

Developmental experiences—As employees participate in developmental experiences, the organization identifies those who succeed in the experiences. The organization looks for employees who continue to show qualities associated with success in senior roles, such as communication skills, leadership talent, and inclusivity.

Active involvement with senior leadership—High-potential employees become actively involved with senior leaders in the organization, providing them with a greater understanding of the organization's culture. The development of high-potential employees may be a slow process.

Reaching stage 3 may take several years. which may include education, mentoring and coaching, and rotation through job assignments.

92) Short Answer

Situational constraints are the limits on training’s effectiveness that arise from the situation or the conditions within the organization. Constraints can include a lack of money for training, lack of time for training or practising, and failure to provide proper tools and materials for learning or applying the lessons of training. Conversely, trainees are likely to apply what they learn if the organization gives them opportunities to use their new skills and if it rewards them for doing so.

Student name:__________ 475)

The first step in the performance management process is to appraise performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

476)

Performance management is the process through which managers ensure that employees' activities and outputs contribute to the organization's goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

477)

The most frequent changes to performance management systems are adopting coaching and ongoing feedback including behavioural feedback. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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478)

Organizations establish performance management systems to meet three broad purposes: strategic, administrative, and developmental. ⊚ true ⊚ false

479)

Performance management can achieve its strategic purpose only when measurements are truly aligned with the organization's goals and when the goals and feedback about performance are communicated to employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

480)

Specific feedback is a criterion for effective performance management. ⊚ true ⊚ false

481)

Simply asking a supervisor to rate an employee's performance on a scale of 1 to 5 would likely have low interrater reliability. ⊚ true ⊚ false

482)

In the forced-distribution method, employees are ranked from lowest to highest. ⊚ true ⊚ false

483)

Approximately half of organizations use force distribution or have guidelines or recommendations in place to ensure a normal distribution of ratings. ⊚ true ⊚ false

484)

The critical-incident technique is a behavioural approach to performance management. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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485)

Behavioural approaches to performance measurement tend to have low validity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

486)

Management by objectives (MBO) systems seldom link employee performance to the organization's strategic goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

487)

In general, evaluation of results can be less subjective than other kinds of performance measurement. ⊚ true ⊚ false

488)

Balanced scorecards are widely used in both the public and private sector. ⊚ true ⊚ false

489)

Managers or supervisors are the most-used source of performance information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

490)

Rating all employees as somehow "average" or in the middle of the scale is a rating error called strictness error. ⊚ true ⊚ false

491)

Appraisal politics refers to evaluators purposefully distorting employees' ratings to advance their personal goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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492)

The feedback stage of performance is usually comfortable for managers but uncomfortable for employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

493)

Electronic monitoring of employees can improve productivity, however it can generate privacy concerns. ⊚ true ⊚ false

494)

What is the first step in the performance management process?

A) Develop employee goals, behaviour, and actions to achieve outcomes B) Provide support and ongoing performance conversations C) Evaluate performance D) Provide consequences for performance results E) Define performance outcomes for company, division, and department

495)

Step four of the performance management process, evaluating performance, involves: A) identifying what the company is trying to accomplish (its goals or objectives).

B) providing employees with training, necessary resources and tools, and ongoing feedback between the employee and manager.

C) the manager and employee meeting to discuss and compare targeted goals and supporting behaviour with actual results.

D) both the employee and manager identifying what the employee can do to capitalize on performance strengths and address gaps.

E) consequences for achieving (or failing to achieve) performance outcomes, for example, pay increases, bonuses, or action plans.

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496)

Step five of the performance management process, identifying improvements needed, involves: A) identifying what the company is trying to accomplish (its goals or objectives).

B) providing employees with training, necessary resources and tools, and ongoing feedback between the employee and manager.

C) the manager and employee meeting to discuss and compare targeted goals and supporting behaviour with actual results.

D) both the employee and manager identifying what the employee can do to capitalize on performance strengths and address gaps.

E) consequences for achieving (or failing to achieve) performance outcomes, for example, pay increases, bonuses, or action plans.

497)

Step three of the performance management process, organizational support, involves: A) identifying what the company is trying to accomplish (its goals or objectives).

B) providing employees with training, necessary resources and tools, and ongoing feedback between the employee and manager.

C) the manager and employee meeting to discuss and compare targeted goals and supporting behaviour with actual results.

D) both the employee and manager identifying what the employee can do to capitalize on performance strengths and address gaps.

E) consequences for achieving (or failing to achieve) performance outcomes, for example, pay increases, bonuses, or action plans.

498)

Organizations continue to establish performance management systems to meet three broad purposes: strategic, administrative, and: A) Behavioural.

B) Management.

C) Objective.

D) Valid.

E) Developmental.

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499)

Which purpose of performance management refers to how organizations use the system to provide information for day-to-day decisions about salary, benefits, and recognition programs?

A) Strategic B) Administrative C) Developmental D) Career transition E) Management

500)

Which purpose of performance management involves serving as the basis for developing employees' knowledge and skills?

A) Strategic B) Administrative C) Developmental D) Career transition E) Management

501)

Which performance management evaluation criterion is concerned with maximizing the overlap between actual job performance and the measure of job performance?

A) Reliability B) Acceptability C) Specific feedback D) Validity E) Fit with strategy

502)

Which performance management evaluation criterion is aimed at achieving employee behaviour and mindset that support the organization’s strategy, goals, and culture?

A) Reliability B) Acceptability C) Specific feedback D) Validity E) Fit with strategy

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503)

Which performance management evaluation criterion refers to consistency of results over time?

A) Test-retest reliability B) Acceptability C) Specific feedback D) Validity E) Fit with strategy

504)

Comparing salespeople on the basis on how many calls they make to customers could be a(n) _______________ measure because making a lot of calls does not necessarily improve sales or customer satisfaction.

A) unreliable B) deficient C) contaminated D) valid E) unacceptable

505)

Consistency of results when more than one person measures performance is called: A) internal consistency reliability.

B) interrater reliability.

C) interrater validity.

D) test-retest reliability.

E) None of the choices are correct.

506)

If a performance measure lacks ________ reliability, determining whether an employee's performance has truly changed over time will be impossible.

A) external B) interrater C) strategic D) long-term E) test-retest

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507)

The extent to which the performance measure gives guidance to employees about what is expected of them, refers to which criterion associated with effective performance measures?

A) Reliability B) Validity C) Specific feedback D) Acceptability E) Fit with strategy

508)

All of the following are considered be to comparative approaches to performance measurement, EXCEPT? A) Simple ranking B) Forced-distribution method C) Paired-comparison method D) Critical-incident method E) Alternation ranking

509)

What type of performance approach involves assigning a certain percentage of employees to each category in a set of categories?

A) Simple ranking B) Forced-distribution method C) Paired-comparison method D) Mixed-standard scales E) Graphic rating scale

510)

The most widely used method for rating attributes is the: A) management by objectives scale (MBO).

B) behavioural observation scale (BOS).

C) behaviourally anchored rating scale (BARS).

D) mixed-standard scale.

E) graphic rating scale.

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511)

If a manager considers one employee at a time and indicates a number or a word to signify the degree to which that employee demonstrates a particular attribute, he or she is using a: A) critical incidents approach.

B) mixed-standard scale.

C) behavioural observation scale.

D) graphic rating scale.

E) simple ranking.

512)

Which of the following is a plan for managing the behaviour of employees through a formal system of feedback and reinforcement?

A) Behaviourally anchored rating scale B) Mixed-standard scale C) Behavioural observation scale D) Graphic rating scale E) Management by objectives

513)

A customer service representative calmed an irate client and managed to successfully tackle the issue. For the representative's supervisor (in the context of performance management), this would be an example of a(n): A) MBO. B) OBM. C) critical incident.

D) BARS. E) balanced scorecard.

514)

Which method of performance measurement builds on the critical incident approach and is intended to define performance dimensions specifically, using statements of behaviour that describe different levels of performance?

A) Forced-distribution method B) Graphic rating scale C) Mixed-standard scale D) Behaviourally anchored rating scale (BARS) E) Balanced scorecard

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515)

A plan for managing the behaviour of employees through a formal system of feedback and reinforcement refers to: A) behaviourally anchored rating scale (BARS).

B) behavioural observation scale (BOS).

C) critical incidents.

D) organizational behaviour modification (OBM).

E) management by objectives (MBO).

516)

All of the following are benefits of ranking employees, EXCEPT? A) It counteracts the tendency to avoid controversy by rating everyone favourably or near the centre of the scale.

B) If some managers tend to evaluate behaviour more strictly (or more leniently) than others, a ranking system can erase that tendency from performance scores.

C) Some ranking systems can be useful for supporting decisions about how to distribute pay raises or layoffs.

D) Some ranking systems are easy to use, which makes them acceptable to the managers who use them.

E) Some can leave the basis for ranking open to interpretation, in which case they may not be helpful for employee development and may hurt morale or even result in legal challenges.

517)

Which method of performance measurement lists traits and provides a rating scale for each which will be used by the employer to indicate the extent to which the employee being rated displays the traits?

A) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS).

B) Graphic Rating Scale.

C) Critical Incidents.

D) Organizational Behaviour Modification (OBM).

E) Management By Objectives (MBO).

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518)

All of the following statements about attribute-based performance methods are accurate, EXCEPT? A) Employees tend to be defensive about receiving a mere numerical rating on some attribute.

B) They are easy to develop and can be applied to a wide variety of jobs and organizations.

C) If the organization is careful to identify which attributes are associated with high performance, and to define them carefully on the appraisal form, these methods can be reliable and valid.

D) Measurement of attributes are always clearly linked to the organization’s strategy.

E) It is the most popular way to measure performance in organizations.

519)

Which one of the following statements about peers as a source of performance information is FALSE? A) Peers have expert knowledge of job requirements and bring a different perspective to the evaluation which can provide extremely valid assessments of performance.

B) Friendships (or rivalries) have the potential to bias ratings.

C) Peer ratings are particularly useful when supervisors do not have the opportunity to observe employees.

D) Peers are willing to participate in reviews done for administrative decisions, regardless of whether it will impact themselves.

E) In careers such as law enforcement and sales, peers may have the most opportunity to observe the employee in day-to-day activities.

520)

When managers are being evaluated, ____________ are especially valuable sources of information because they often have the best chance to see how well a manager treats employees.

A) other managers B) direct reports C) previous customers D) their bosses E) peers

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521)

Ismah, an HR professional is using the collaborative capacity of social media to gather performance information from an employee's managers, peers, direct reports, self, and customers, as part of a performance appraisal process. This practice is best referred to as: A) 360-degree performance appraisal.

B) direct-report evaluation.

C) self-appraisal.

D) social collaboration.

E) crowdsourcing.

522)

________, a judgment outside of our consciousness, can result in rater errors in performance measurement.

A) Unconscious bias B) Cross-cultural bias C) Gender bias D) Stereotyping E) Personal experience

523)

Sheree was reflecting on recent performance feedback received from Steven, her manager. Steven said that Sheree was "bossy" in a recent team meeting when she offered advice without directly being asked. This scenario likely illustrates how _________ can result in gender-based double standards.

A) gender discrimination B) rating errors C) strictness D) unconscious bias E) distributional errors

524)

Research has demonstrated that the similar-to-me bias is: A) rarely observed in practice.

B) insignificant.

C) strong.

D) the same as a contrast error.

E) a result of distributional errors.

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525)

When a rater observes a worker on one occasion in a very favourable light, and then subsequently assumes this worker is always diligent, thorough, and high-performing in all of their behaviours, the rater error is known as: A) Leniency B) Strictness C) Central tendency D) Halo E) Horns

526)

Appraisal politics are likely to occur under all of the following conditions, except?

A) raters are accountable to the employee being rated.

B) the goals of rating are not compatible with one another.

C) performance appraisal is directly linked to highly desirable rewards.

D) Top executives do not tolerate or ignore distorted ratings.

E) Senior employees tell newcomers company “folklore” that includes stories about distorted ratings.

527)

Rating all employees as somehow "average" or in the middle of the scale is called: A) focus on activities.

B) recency emphasis.

C) central tendency.

D) contrast error.

E) None of the choices are correct.

528)

If a student evaluating his or her professor at the end of term rates the professor low on all performance criteria due to dissatisfaction with the professor's grading scale, the student has likely committed which rater error?

A) Similar-to-me error B) Halo error C) Central tendency D) Horns error E) Contrast error

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529)

An effective approach to reduce rating errors in performance appraisals includes all of the following, EXCEPT? A) Provide rating error training.

B) Use data analytics.

C) Provide unconscious bias training.

D) Implement calibration meetings.

E) Implement central tendency distribution ratings.

530)

What is the term used for a meeting at which managers discuss employee performance ratings and provide evidence supporting their ratings with the goal of eliminating the influence of rating errors?

A) Performance feedback B) Succession planning C) Calibration meeting D) Political behaviour E) Performance improvement meeting

531)

Which approach to performance feedback is recommended?

A) Problem-solving B) Tell-and-sell and problem solving C) Tell-and-listen D) Collaborative and Tell-and-sell E) Problem-solving and collaborative.

532)

A(n) _________ plan is a summary of the performance gap(s) and includes an action plan mutually agreed to by the employee and manager.

A) 360-degree B) performance improvement C) exit D) personality improvement E) attitude adjustment

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533)

Lawsuits related to performance management usually involve charges of illegal discrimination or: A) unjust dismissal.

B) reverse discrimination.

C) unfair labour practices.

D) sexual harassment.

E) employment equity.

534)

To protect against legal challenges, it is important to have a performance management system based on: A) representative workforce.

B) strategic planning.

C) workforce planning.

D) valid job analyses.

E) employee and manager needs.

535)

Because humans have tremendous limitations in processing information, they use _________ to make judgments about people.

A) political appraisals B) collaboration C) conscious bias D) heuristics E) calibration

536)

Biases such as gender-based double standards are often considered: A) a discriminatory heuristic.

B) an unconscious bias.

C) a political bias.

D) a bias heuristic.

E) a privacy heuristic.

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537)

Bill 88, the Working for Workers Act 2022: A) protects employees’ jobs after COVID-19.

B) protects employees’ privacy by requiring employers to disclose if and how they track them.

C) protects employees’ by giving them access to free Personal Protective Equipment (PPE).

D) protects employees’ safety by requiring every organization have a safe and healthy work environment.

E) protects employees’ wages by requiring a 1 percent wage rate every year for public sector employees in Canada.

538)

Which of the following protects employees’ privacy by requiring employers to disclose if and how they track employees’ use of cell phones, computers, GPS, or other devices?

A) Bill 100 B) Bill 124 C) Bill 88 D) Bill 109 E) Bill 108

539)

A substantial body of evidence has shown that white and Black raters: A) tend to give higher ratings to seniors over younger workers.

B) tend to give higher ratings to men over woman.

C) tend to give higher ratings to women over men.

D) tend to give lower ratings to members of their similar racial group.

E) tend to give higher ratings to members of their similar racial group.

540)

Employers are cautioned to consider the ________ rights of employees before they implement GPS systems, wearables, or other technologies that track and monitor employees.

A) communication B) privacy C) human rights D) personal E) both "communication" and "privacy."

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541)

Discuss the various purposes (3) of performance management systems.

542)

What are the benefits that effective performance management can provide?

543)

Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using each of the following sources of performance information: managers, peers, direct reports, self, and customers.

544)

Identify at least five types of errors and biases that commonly influence performance measurements.

545)

What is a calibration meeting and what is its purpose?

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546)

Identify and discuss approaches to reduce performance measurement errors.

547)

Identify the measures that a company should take to ensure a legally defensible performance management system.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) E 21) C 22) D 23) B 24) E 25) B 26) C 27) D 28) E 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) E 33) C 34) D 35) B 36) E 37) D

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38) C 39) C 40) D 41) D 42) E 43) B 44) D 45) D 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) D 50) C 51) D 52) D 53) C 54) D 55) E 56) C 57) E 58) B 59) A 60) D 61) D 62) B 63) B 64) C 65) E 66) B 67) Short Answer

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1. Strategic purpose. Effective performance management helps the organization achieve its business objectives. It does this by helping to link employees' behaviour with the organization's goals. Performance management starts with defining what the organization expects from each employee. It measures each employee's performance to identify where those expectations are and are not being met. This enables the organization to take corrective action, such as training, incentives, or discipline.

2. Administrative purpose. Performance management systems are often used to assist managers in making administrative decisions. These decisions include decisions about salary, benefits, and recognition programs. Performance management can also support decision making related to employee retention, termination for poor performance, and hiring or layoffs.

3. Developmental purpose. Performance management also has a developmental purpose, meaning that it serves a basis for developing employees' knowledge and skills. Effective performance feedback makes employees aware of their strengths and areas in which they can improve. Discussing areas in which employees fall short can help employees and their managers uncover the sources of problems and identify steps for improvement.

68) Short Answer

Benefits derived from effective performance management include: • Tells top performers that they are valued • Encourages communication between managers and employees • Establishes uniform standards for evaluating employees • Helps the organization identify its highest performers Provides information that all members of the organization want to know so they can be successful e.g. clarify what is expected and how the employee is doing to meet those expectations.

69) Short Answer

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1. Managers. Advantages: Usually, they have extensive knowledge of the job requirements and enough opportunity to observe their employees; they have an incentive to provide accurate and helpful feedback since their own success depends so much on their employees' performance; when managers try to observe employee behaviour or discuss performance issues in the feedback session, their feedback can improve performance; and employees tend to perceive the appraisal as accurate. Disadvantage: In some jobs, the manager may not have enough opportunity to observe the employee performing job duties.

2. Peers. Advantages: Peers are an excellent source of information about performance where the manager does not often observe the employee—peers may have the most opportunity to observe the employee in day-to-day activities; peers have expert knowledge of job requirements; and they bring a different perspective to the evaluation and can provide an extremely valid assessment of performance. Disadvantages: Friendships (or rivalries) have the potential to bias ratings, although research has provided little evidence that this is a problem; and peers are uncomfortable rating employees for decisions that may affect them (although generally they are more willing to participate in reviews to be used for employee development).

3. Direct reports. Advantages: For evaluating the performance of managers, direct reports are an especially valuable source of information, as they often have the best chance to see how well a manager treats employees. Disadvantages: Direct reports may be reluctant to say negative things about the person to whom they report—they prefer to provide feedback anonymously; direct reports tend to give managers higher ratings when they have to identify themselves; and given the power employees have in this type of evaluation, managers tend to emphasize employee satisfaction, even at the expense of productivity.

4. Self. Advantages: No one has a greater chance to observe the employee's behaviour than the employee himself or herself, and it is useful to get employees thinking about their performance before the feedback session. Self-assessment also offers a way to balance power in the process.

Disadvantages: Individuals have a tendency to inflate assessments of their performance, especially when used for administrative decisions; people tend to blame outside circumstances for their failures while taking a large part of the credit for their successes; and self-appraisals are not appropriate for administrative decision making.

5. Customers. Advantages: Customers are an excellent source of information about performance when the managers and peers do not have the opportunity to observe the employee; when an employee's job requires direct service to the customer or linking the customer to other services within the organization; and when the organization is interested in gathering information to determine what products and services the customer wants. Disadvantage: Customer surveys are expensive, and as a result, many organizations limit the information gathering to short periods once a year.

70) Short Answer

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1. Similar to me. Rating error of giving a higher evaluation to people who seem similar to oneself e.g. race, gender, background.

2. Contrast. Rating error caused by comparing employee's performance to co-workers rather than to an objective standard.

3. Leniency error. Rating error of assigning inaccurately high ratings to all employees.

4. Strictness error. Rating error of giving low ratings to all employees, holding them to unreasonably high standards.

5. Central tendency. Incorrectly rating all employees at or near the middle of a rating scale.

6. Recency emphasis. Rating error that occurs when an annual rating is based only on most recent work performed.

8. Halo error. Rating error that occurs when the rater gives the employee high ratings on all aspects of performance because of an overall positive impression of the employee.

9. Horns error. Rating error that occurs when the rater gives the employee low ratings on all aspects of performance because of an overall negative impression of the employee.

71) Short Answer

An important way to help ensure that performance is evaluated consistently across managers and to reduce the influence of unconscious bias and rating errors is to hold calibration meetings. A calibration meeting is a session at which managers discuss employee performance ratings and provide evidence supporting their ratings with the goal of eliminating the influence of rating errors. As they discuss ratings and they ways they arrive at ratings, managers may identify undervalued employees, notice whether they are much harsher or more lenient than other managers, and help each other focus on how well ratings are associated with relevant performance outcomes such as business results.

72) Short Answer

Possible answers include: 1. Rater error training - to make managers aware of rating errors and help them develop strategies for minimizing those errors.

2. Rater accuracy training - attempts to get raters to understand and use the same idea of high, medium, and low performance when making evaluations.

3. Unconscious bias training - focus on helping employees become aware of unconscious bias and reducing its impact.

4. Calibration meetings - provide meetings to discuss employees' performance with the goal of ensuring that similar standards are applied for their evaluations.

5. Using data analytics - to look for evidence of bias in performance evaluations.

6. Provide ratee training - to improve accuracy and acceptance of the performance management system.

73) Short Answer

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1. The system should be based on valid job analyses, with the requirements for job success clearly communicated to employees.

2. Performance management should evaluate behaviours or results, on the basis of objective criteria.

3. The organization should use multiple raters (including self-appraisals) and train raters (and rates) in how to use the system.

4. The organization should provide for a review of all performance ratings by upper-level managers and set up a system for employees to appeal when they believe they were evaluated unfairly.

5. Along with feedback, the system should include a process for coaching or training employees to help them improve, rather than simply dismissing poor performers.

Student name:__________ 548)

A comprehensive approach to compensating and rewarding employees is known as total rewards. ⊚ true ⊚ false

549)

A value proposition considers the total value, current or prospective employees receive in exchange for contributing their time and energy to the company. ⊚ true ⊚ false

550)

Total rewards influence the kinds of employees that are attracted to (and remain with) the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

551)

According to a survey on strategic rewards and pay practices, the most frequently cited reason for firms developing a total rewards strategy is to control costs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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552)

Benchmarking in compensation, involves the use of pay surveys that provide information about the going rates of pay at the organization's competitors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

553)

Job evaluation provides the basis for decisions about the relative worth of jobs outside of the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

554)

A graphed line showing the mathematical relationship between job evaluation points and pay rate is called a pay policy line. ⊚ true ⊚ false

555)

A pay range for a particular job includes an established minimum, maximum, and midpoint of pay. ⊚ true ⊚ false

556)

Broadbanding increases the number of levels in the organization's job structure. ⊚ true ⊚ false

557)

Incentive pay is a form of pay that is linked to an employee's performance as an individual, group member, or organization member. ⊚ true ⊚ false

558)

A drawback of merit pay from the employer's perspective is, that it can quickly become expensive because it gets rolled into base pay. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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559)

Gainsharing is a type of organizational incentive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

560)

With profit sharing, employees are more likely to cooperate and less likely to focus on narrow self-interest. ⊚ true ⊚ false

561)

Employers in Canada rarely provide benefits unless they are required by law. ⊚ true ⊚ false

562)

Employment Insurance (EI) is a federal program that provides temporary financial assistance to non-working eligible people including coverage to parents caring for a newborn or adopted child. ⊚ true ⊚ false

563)

By offering an employee wellness program, the organization may lower the cost of health insurance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

564)

A pension plan that guarantees a specific level of retirement income is called a defined contribution plan. ⊚ true ⊚ false

565)

Public sector employees are less likely to have a defined benefit plan than private sector employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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566)

Some companies recognize that pets are "family" and provide employees with paid time off when they get a pet or are coping with the death of a pet. ⊚ true ⊚ false

567)

Flexible benefits plans have the advantage of being less costly than plans that provide the same benefits package to all employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

568)

Managers play a significant role in communicating total rewards to employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

569)

The balanced scorecard approach is useful in designing executive pay. ⊚ true ⊚ false

570)

A comprehensive approach to compensating and rewarding employees is frequently referred to as: A) total compensation.

B) total rewards.

C) total benefits.

D) complete compensation.

E) total direct compensation.

571)

Employers may not base pay differences on any of the following, EXCEPT? A) Age B) Ethnicity C) Race D) Experience E) Family status

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572)

Employers are able to base pay differences on which of the following?

A) Age B) Ethnicity C) Race D) Education E) Family status

573)

Indigenous employees: A) are still unable to demand accommodation for religious or ceremonial observances.

B) may require accommodation for fishing or hunting leaves or to attend traditional ceremonies.

C) are exempt from accommodation due to sincerely held beliefs.

D) are afforded a single exemption for all nations to observe ceremonial traditions.

E) enjoy an appreciable amount of empathy and understanding from all managers who authentically respect their spiritual practices.

574)

The COVID-19 pandemic made legislated policies for ________ a top of top-of-mind issue for employers and employees.

A) gender discrimination B) bereavement C) racial discrimination D) Indigenous employees E) service workers

575)

Ontario’s “Working for Workers” Act, 2021 (Bill 27), provides employees: A) with the right to privacy.

B) with the right to disconnect from work.

C) with the right to reliable transportation to work.

D) with the right to flexibility in their schedules.

E) with the right to affordable childcare.

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576)

Legally required benefits for federally regulated industries include all of the following, EXCEPT? A) Canadian pension plan B) Employment insurance C) Worker’s compensation D) Paid sick leave E) Comprehensive dental insurance

577)

CPP/QPP is a mandatory contributory plan that provides: A) retirement pensions B) retirement pensions and disability benefits C) survivor benefits and disability benefits D) retirement pensions, disability benefits, and survivor benefits.

E) retirement pensions and survivor benefits

578)

__________ consists of the relative pay for different jobs within the organization.

A) Job structure B) Fixed pay C) Incentive plans D) Pay level E) Base pay

579)

The organization's pay structure helps the organization achieve goals related to all of the following, EXCEPT? A) employee motivation.

B) cost control.

C) the ability to attract employees.

D) the ability to retain employees.

E) Target marketing

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580)

Organizations should evaluate pay as: A) a cost.

B) an unnecessary pressure.

C) an investment that can generate returns in attracting, retaining, and motivating a highqualityworkforce.

D) as optimal when the organization pays at or below the market rate.

E) as optimal when the organization pays above the market rate.

581)

The procedure through which an organization compares its own practices to those of successful competitors is known as: A) gainsharing.

B) commercial intelligence.

C) benchmarking.

D) profiling.

E) hightailing.

582)

_________ is an administrative procedure for measuring the relative internal worth of the organization's jobs.

A) Compensable evaluation B) Product market analysis C) Pay equity evaluation D) Job evaluation E) Pay differential evaluation

583)

Job evaluation provides the basis for decisions about the relative ________ of a job.

A) external worth B) internal worth C) market worth D) job analysis E) benchmark

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584)

The pay policy line shows the _____________ relationship between job evaluation points and pay rate.

A) predicted B) planned C) hypothetical D) mathematical E) conceptual

585)

Sets of jobs having similar worth or content, grouped together to establish rates of pay are called: A) pay grades.

B) hourly rates.

C) pay policy groups.

D) pay ranges.

E) broadbands.

586)

A pay range includes which of the following?

A) Minimum.

B) Midpoint.

C) Maximum.

D) Minimum, midpoint, and maximum.

E) Minimum and midpoint only.

587)

Some organizations increase flexibility by reducing the number of pay ranges in the organization's job structure. This is referred to as: A) red-circling.

B) broadbanding.

C) green-circling.

D) job evaluation.

E) redbanding.

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588)

Competency-based pay systems are also known as: A) broadbanding.

B) pay for individual performance.

C) skill-based pay systems.

D) variable pay.

E) standard hour plan.

589)

Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with a competency-based pay system?

A) Changing technology requires employees to continually widen and deepen their knowledge.

B) They help make organizations more flexible and innovative.

C) It rewards employees for acquiring skills that they may not use.

D) It rewards employees based on their knowledge and skills.

E) There are no known disadvantages associated with competency-based pay systems.

590)

Incentive pay is also referred to as: A) piecework rate.

B) market rate.

C) standard hour plan.

D) skill-based pay.

E) pay for performance.

591)

An employee who produces 12 components in an hour earns $18.00 ($1.50 x 12). This is an example of: A) piecework rate.

B) a commission plan.

C) gainsharing.

D) straight salary plan.

E) standard hour plan.

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592)

Piecework rates are _________ suitable for __________ jobs with output that is easy to measure.

A) least; routine B) most; routine C) not; routine D) most; complex E) somewhat; motivating

593)

An incentive plan that pays workers extra for getting a job done in less time than a predetermined, acceptable amount of time called: A) piecework B) standard hour plan C) merit pay D) performance bonus E) gainsharing

594)

A clear advantage of ________ is the direct link between how much work the employee does and the amount the employee earns.

A) standard hour plan B) piece rates C) performance bonus D) gainsharing E) merit pay

595)

According to the Conference Board of Canada, approximately how many organizations link base pay increases to performance and, A) 12 percent B) 25 percent C) 44 percent D) 82 percent E) 65 percent

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596)

Organizations that want employees to focus on efficiency may adopt a _________ program, which measures increases in productivity and effectiveness and distributes a portion of each gain to employees.

A) commission B) piecework C) gainsharing D) merit pay E) bonus

597)

Profit sharing involves awarding pay: A) that becomes part of employees' base pay, in a manner similar to merit pay.

B) in order to discourage employees from thinking like owners.

C) that is a percentage of the organization's profits.

D) based on individual performance.

E) that is determined by annual bonuses.

598)

Employees have come to expect that benefits will help them maintain: A) complete financial freedom.

B) job satisfaction.

C) equity and equality.

D) economic security.

E) work-life balance.

599)

All of the following statements about employee benefits are correct, EXCEPT? A) Benefits contribute to attracting, retaining, and motivating employees.

B) The variety of available benefits also helps employers tailor their offerings to the kinds of employees they need.

C) A large employer without health and retirement benefits would have difficulty competing in the labour market.

D) Benefits are expected by many of today's employees.

E) The private sector cannot afford to pay the same level of benefits as the public sector.

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600)

The Canada Pension Plan (CPP) and the Quebec Pension Plan (QPP) are: A) optional plans.

B) mandatory plans.

C) contributory plans.

D) optional, mandatory, and contributory plans.

E) mandatory and contributory plans.

601)

Which of the following statements about Workers' Compensation is FALSE? A) Workers' Compensation is a provincial program.

B) An injured employee needs to show that the employer was grossly negligent in order to receive compensation.

C) Is entirely funded by employers.

D) Workers' Compensation operates under a principle of "no-fault liability."

E) Benefits include wage-loss benefits, medical services, and rehabilitative services.

602)

What is the name for a set of communications, activities, and facilities designed to change health-related behaviours in ways that reduce health risks?

A) Health spending account B) Employee assistance program C) Workers' compensation D) Defined contribution plan E) Employee wellness program

603)

Talco Inc. recently began offering employees one-on-one financial coaching sessions and providing employees access to a web-based app to enhance their financial well-being. This example best illustrates a corporate culture that supports employee: A) retirement planning.

B) gainsharing.

C) financial wellness.

D) mental well-being.

E) life skills coaching.

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604)

Employers ____________ offer retirement plans beyond CPP/QPP. A) are required to B) have no obligation to C) rarely D) are encouraged by stockholders to E) always

605)

A gradual transition into full retirement by reducing hours or job responsibility is called: A) defined retirement.

B) flexible retirement.

C) deferred retirement.

D) phased retirement.

E) paced retirement.

606)

A defined ____________ plan offers a guaranteed level of retirement income.

A) contribution B) non-contributory C) benefit D) retirement E) spending

607)

Hannah works for a large private sector employer that provides benefits including parental leave payments, elder care services, and even the ability to take up to two paid days off if she were to get a pet. These types of benefits are referred to as: A) wellness programs.

B) family-friendly benefits and services.

C) an employee assistance program.

D) career counselling.

E) comprehensive insurance.

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608)

Which of the following statements about communicating total rewards to employees is FALSE? A) Managers play an important role in communicating total rewards to employees.

B) Employees require a good understanding of their total rewards.

C) Organizations are increasingly using technology for communicating total rewards to employees due to privacy concerns.

D) Employees and job applicants usually have a very clear understanding of the market value of the total rewards that an organization offers.

E) Employers have many options for communicating information about their total rewards.

609)

Most CEO compensation takes the form of: A) tickets to cultural and sporting events.

B) gainsharing.

C) team rewards.

D) performance-related pay.

E) Canada Pension Plan/Quebec Pension Plan.

610)

Employees draw conclusions about the fairness of pay by making comparisons among employees' inputs and outcomes. By many comparisons, CEO pay is: A) low.

B) not relevant to the discussion of fairness because CEOs are not employees.

C) high.

D) no longer an issue because CEO pay has dropped substantially in recent years.

E) only an issue in public sector organizations.

611)

Describe the common core of legal requirements that organizations need to comply with when making compensation and reward decisions?

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612)

Discuss and describe the economic influences on pay.

613)

Identify and describe three of the incentives that organizations use to reward individual performance?

614)

Describe one advantage and one drawback of merit pay.

615)

What conditions help ensure the success of gainsharing plans?

616)

How do employee stock ownership plans (ESOPs) differ from stock option plans?

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617)

Identify and describe 4 types of benefits that are legally required for all federally regulated industries.

618)

Discuss flexible benefits plans, including their nature, purpose, advantages and disadvantages.

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) B 24) D 25) D 26) B 27) B 28) B 29) E 30) D 31) A 32) E 33) C 34) C 35) D 36) B 37) D

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38) A 39) D 40) B 41) C 42) C 43) E 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) B 48) D 49) C 50) C 51) D 52) E 53) E 54) B 55) E 56) C 57) B 58) D 59) C 60) C 61) D 62) D 63) C 64) Short Answer

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There are 3 particular core areas of legal requirements that organizations need to at least minimally comply with across most jurisdictions: • Human rights legislation - employers may not base rewards on an employee's age, sex, race, or other prohibited ground of discrimination. Any differences in pay must be tied to businessrelated considerations such as job responsibilities or performance.

• Employment/labour standards acts - the relevant laws include minimum requirements for wages, hours of work, overtime pay, vacation, and statutory holidays, as well as other specific provisions. Some types of employees are usually considered exempt e.g. executives and professionals.

• Pay equity legislation - where this legislation exists, the intent of the legislation is to address the wage gap between female and male-dominated jobs to ensure that jobs of equal value within the organization receive similar rates of pay.

65) Short Answer

Decisions about how to respond to the economic forces of product markets and labour markets limit an organization's choices about pay structure. Organizations must keep costs low to maintain profitability, yet they must pay employees enough to attract and retain them in a competitive labour market.

- The organization's product market includes organizations that offer competing goods and services. Organizations under pressure to cut labour costs to be more competitive may reduce staff levels, freeze pay, or postpone hiring.

- However, organizations also compete to obtain human resources in labour markets— competing with other firms to hire the same skilled employees.

Organizations have to decide to pay at, above, or below prevailing market rates. Different organizational requirements and environment conditions influence which approach a firm adopts.

If many workers are competing for a few jobs, employers will have more choice, however, in tight labour markets workers will have more choice. When an organization views employees as resources, it may decide to pay above the market rate to attract and retain talented and knowledgeable employees. Higher pay may be an investment in superior human resources. To compete for talent, organizations use benchmarking, a procedure in which the organization compares its own practices against those of successful competitors. In terms of compensation, benchmarking involves the use of pay surveys. These provide information about the going rates of pay at competitors in the organization's product and labour markets.

66) Short Answer

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Organizations may reward individual performance with a variety of incentives: 1. Piecework rate—As an incentive to work efficiently, some organizations pay production workers a piecework rate, a wage based on the number of units they produce. This rate is often paid in addition to employees' base pay. The amount paid per unit is set at a level that rewards employees for above-average production volume. Piecework rates provide a direct link between inputs and outputs and the fact that such plans are easy to understand and seem fair to most employees makes them attractive. Still, piecework plans are relatively rare because most jobs have no physical output, so it is hard to develop an appropriate performance measure. In addition, this type of incentive is most suited for very routine, standardized jobs with output that is easy to measure. Employees may also focus only on outputs, ignoring other important variables, such as quality and customer service.

2. Standard hour plans—Another quantity-oriented incentive is the standard hour plan, an incentive plan that pays workers extra for work done in less than a pre-set "standard time." A worker is paid the flat or standard rate no matter how long it takes him or her to complete the task. However, workers who complete the task in a shorter period of time are then able to undertake additional tasks, thus earning additional compensation. The pros and cons of standard hour plans are much like piecework plans—they encourage employees to work as fast as they can, but not necessarily to care about quality or customer service.

3. Merit pay—Merit pay links pay increases to ratings on performance appraisals. An advantage of merit pay is that it provides a method for rewarding performance in all of the dimensions measured in the organization's performance management system. If that system is appropriately designed to measure all the important job behaviours, then the merit pay is linked to the behaviours the organization desires. Disadvantages include the fact that they can, from the employer's standpoint, quickly become very expensive and they may be viewed by employees as unfair if performance is based on factors outside employees' control.

4. Performance bonuses—Like merit pay, performance bonuses reward individual performance, but bonuses are not rolled into base pay. The bonus is a one-time reward that must be re-earned.

Bonuses can be linked to objective performance measures, rather than subjective ratings; and they allow organizations great flexibility in deciding what kinds of behaviour to reward.

5. Commissions—Commissions are calculated as a percentage of sales. Salespeople earn a commission in addition to a base salary; others earn only a commission. In a growth-oriented organization, sales commissions need not be limited just to salespeople.

67) Short Answer

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An advantage of merit pay is that it provides a method for rewarding performance in all of the dimensions measured in the organization’s performance management system. If that system is appropriately designed to measure all the important job behaviours, then the merit pay is linked to the behaviours the organization desires.

A drawback of merit pay from the employer’s standpoint, is that it can quickly become expensive. In the not uncommon situation of managers rating most employees’ performance in the top two categories (out of four or five), many employees are eligible for the biggest merit increases, and their pay rises rapidly.

68) Short Answer

1. Management commitment.

2. Need for change or a strong commitment to continuous improvement.

3. Management accepts and encourages employee input.

4. High levels of cooperation and interaction.

5. Employment security.

6. Information sharing on productivity and costs.

7. Goal setting.

8. Commitment of all involved parties to the process of change and improvement.

9. Performance standards and calculations that employees understand and consider fair and that are closely related to managerial objectives.

10. Employees who value working in teams.

69) Short Answer

Both encourage employees to focus on the success of the organization as a whole. However, stock option plans give employees the right to buy a certain number of shares of stock at a specified price. The employee stands to obtain a financial gain if the stock price has gone up since the price was fixed. Although more companies are extending stock options to a larger percentage of their employees, the more common form of employee ownership is an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP). In an ESOP, the organization distributes shares of stock to its employees by placing the stock into a trust managed on the employees' behalf. ESOPs carry more risk for employees because problems with the organization's performance can take away significant value including retirement funds if the ESOP is set up to hold retirement funds.

70) Short Answer

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1.Canada Pension Plan (CPP)/Quebec Pension Plan (QPP). CPP/QPP is a mandatory, contributory plan that covers all workers in Canada aged 18 years and older and have annual income exceeding $3500. CPP/QPP provides retirement pensions, disability benefits, and survivor benefits.

2. Employment Insurance (EI). EI is a federally mandated program that provides temporary financial assistance to unemployed workers who have lost their job through no fault of their own, while they look for another job, or upgrade their skills. Coverage is also extended to eligible workers for a variety of other situations e.g. illness, are pregnancy, caring for a new born child, adopted child, or critically ill family member.

3. Workers' compensation. Provincial programs that provide benefits to workers who suffer work-related injuries or illnesses. Benefits provided include wage-loss benefits, medical services, and rehabilitative services.

4. Paid Sick Leave. Paid sick leave is usually a benefit that employers can choose to provide-—or not. However, all employees covered by British Columbia’s Employment Standards Act receive five paid sick days each year. This paid sick leave provision in British Columbia came into effect January 1, 2022, and applies to both full- and part-time employees (after 90 days of employment) to cover any personal injury or illness. The Government of Canada also recently announced amendments to the Canada Labour Code to provide ten days of paid sick leave for employees working for any of the 18,500 employers in federally regulated industries.

71) Short Answer

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1. Organizations can address differences in employees' needs and engage their employees by offering flexible benefits plans in place of a single package for all employees. These plans, often called flexible benefits or "flex benefits," offer employees a set of alternatives from which they can choose the types and amounts of benefits they want. The plans vary. Some impose minimum levels for certain benefits, such as health care coverage. Some allow employees to receive money in exchange for choosing a "light" package, and some let employees pay extra for the privilege of receiving more benefits. For example, some plans let employees give up vacation days for more pay or to purchase extra vacation days in exchange for a reduction in pay.

2. Flexible benefits plans have a number of advantages. The selection process can make employees more aware of the value of the benefits, particularly when the plan assigns each employee a sum of money to allocate to benefits. Also, the individual choice in a flexible benefits plan enables each employee to match his or her needs to the company's benefits, increasing the plan's actual value to the employee. And because employees would not select benefits they don't want, the company avoids the cost of providing employees with benefits they don't value.

3. Flexible benefits plans also have several disadvantages. One drawback is that they have a higher administrative cost, especially in the design and start-up stages. Another possible drawback is that employee selection of benefits will increase rather than decrease costs because employees will select the kinds of benefits they expect to need the most. For example, an employee expecting to need dental work is more likely to sign up for a dental plan. The heavy use of the dental coverage would then drive up the employer's premiums for that coverage.

Student name:__________ 619)

Unions have a role in organizations because some degree of conflict is inevitable between workers and management. ⊚ true ⊚ false

620)

Industrial unions traditionally consisted of members who all have a particular skill or occupation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

621)

The Alberta Union of Public Employees is Canada's largest labour organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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622)

The Canadian Union of Public Employees is Canada's largest labour union. ⊚ true ⊚ false

623)

A union steward is elected by union members to represent them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

624)

In Canada, unionization is much higher in the private sector than the public sector. ⊚ true ⊚ false

625)

The unionization rate of men is higher than the unionization rate of women. ⊚ true ⊚ false

626)

Union membership rates in Canada are significantly lower than the United States and Japan. ⊚ true ⊚ false

627)

The Rand Formula makes the payment of union dues mandatory for members. ⊚ true ⊚ false

628)

Societal goals for unions include ensuring that laws and regulations provide an advantage to employers in their negotiations with unions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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629)

In Canada, labour relations is primarily a provincial/territorial responsibility. ⊚ true ⊚ false

630)

The Human Rights Commission for a particular jurisdiction is also responsible for interpreting and enforcing the labour laws in that jurisdiction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

631)

Unions can be certified (voted in) AND decertified (voted out). ⊚ true ⊚ false

632)

A lockout is initiated by the employer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

633)

Strikes and lockouts are costly and disruptive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

634)

The usual first step in an employee-initiated grievance procedure is to submit a written grievance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

635)

Over the last two decades, the use of joint labour-management committees has been shrinking. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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636)

Unions have a role because some degree of ____________ is inevitable between workers and management.

A) association B) conflict C) violence D) discussion E) work

637)

Which of the following reflects the types of decision making involved in labour relations?

A) Administering and negotiating collective agreements B) Labour relations strategy and negotiating collective agreements C) Enforcing collective agreements and labour relations strategy.

D) Administering collective agreements, labour relations strategy, and negotiating collective agreements.

E) Administering and enforcing collective agreements.

638)

Which union federation has the largest coverage affiliation in Canada?

A) The federal government B) Industrial unions C) The Canadian Labour Congress (CLC) D) The American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations (AFLCIO) E) The Chamber of Commerce

639)

__________ is Canada's largest union.

A) Canadian Union of Public Employees B) Canadian Teachers' Federation C) UNIFOR D) Teamsters Canada E) Alberta Union of Public Employees

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640)

Jashandeep is a unionized employee and is a member of the local chapter of a national industrial union. He believes his immediate supervisor is not living up to the terms of the recently negotiated contract and although he has discussed his concerns with his supervisor, he is not satisfied with his supervisor's response. Jashandeep should contact: A) the regional office of his labour union.

B) the union's president.

C) the national office of the Canadian Labour Congress.

D) his union steward.

E) the president of CUPE.

641)

In Canada, union membership is relatively concentrated in all EXCEPT which of the following sectors?

A) Agriculture B) Public Administration C) Educational services D) Utilities E) Healthcare and social assistance

642)

_________ has one of the highest rates of unionization while _________ has the lowest.

A) Ontario; British Columbia B) Quebec; Newfoundland and Labrador C) Ontario; Alberta D) Newfoundland (and Labrador); Quebec E) Quebec; Alberta

643)

The overall union density in Canada has gradually declined to about ____ percent in 2021.

A) 10 B) 15 C) 25 D) 30 E) 45

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644)

All of the following factors have influenced the overall decline in union membership, EXCEPT? A) Change in the structure of the economy B) Management efforts to control costs C) Outdated and ineffective human resource practices D) Government regulations in areas including workplace safety E) Adopting effective human resource management practices

645)

How does union density among employees aged 17 to 24 years compare to the overall national average for union density?

A) Much higher than the national average.

B) Slightly higher than the national average.

C) Approximately the same as the national average.

D) Well below the national average.

E) Employees are unable to join unions until they are at least 25 years of age.

646)

Organizations are concerned about the impact of unions on: A) the labour market.

B) market share.

C) competitors.

D) productivity, profits, and stock performance.

E) product markets.

647)

On average, union members receive ___________ wages and benefits than non-union workers.

A) lower B) higher C) the same D) more complicated E) both "lower" and "more complicated"

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648)

Unions try to base pay differences on: A) gender.

B) education.

C) experience.

D) seniority.

E) nepotism.

649)

The strongest union security arrangement is a: A) social union.

B) checkoff union.

C) closed shop.

D) Rand Formula.

E) union shop.

650)

Activities that attempt to influence social and economic policies of government is called: A) social unionism.

B) checkoff.

C) closed shop.

D) Rand shop.

E) union shop.

651)

A union security provision making payment of union dues mandatory even if the worker is not a member of the union is: A) checkoff provision.

B) Labour Relations Board.

C) the Rand Formula.

D) Social Unionism Formula.

E) closed shop.

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652)

Under _____________, the employer, on behalf of the union, automatically deducts union dues from employees' paycheques.

A) the Rand Formula B) a closed shop provision C) a checkoff provision D) a social unionism formula E) an open shop provision

653)

Union security provisions are ways to address unions' concerns about _________ (i.e. employees who benefit from union activities without belonging to a union).

A) free spirits B) random riders C) private sector employees D) free riders E) free loaders

654)

Societal goals for government include ensuring that ________ rules exist to ensure _______ is maintained between the powers of unions and employers and that the public interest is served.

A) clear; imbalance B) neutral; balance C) many; tension D) complex; balance E) neutral; complexity

655)

Responsibility for labour relations is primarily the responsibility of: A) the federal government.

B) municipalities.

C) corporations and other employers.

D) provinces and territories.

E) employees and contractors.

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656)

A prohibited conduct of an employer, union, or individual under the relevant labour legislation is called a(n): A) inappropriate act.

B) unfair labour practice.

C) inappropriate labour practice.

D) essential bargaining right.

E) None of the choices are correct.

657)

All of the following are features of labour legislation in Canada, EXCEPT one. Identify the exception.

A) Methods to certify a union.

B) Maximum length of the collective agreement (maximum 3 years).

C) Regulation of strike and lockout activities.

D) Responsibility to bargain in good faith with the intention to reach an agreement.

E) Creation of a labour relations board.

658)

A Labour Relations Board (LRB) has the authority to: A) dismiss employees.

B) increase wages.

C) shut down plants.

D) interpret and enforce relevant labour laws.

E) determine seniority.

659)

The union organization process begins with: A) consultation with management.

B) a membership application.

C) checkoff provision.

D) establishing a closed shop.

E) formation of a joint committee.

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660)

Union members have the right to vote out an existing union. This action is called: A) firing the union.

B) suspending the union.

C) decertifying the union.

D) restructuring the union.

E) It is not possible to vote out an existing union.

661)

Typical collective agreements include all of the following provisions, EXCEPT: A) education, training, and employee development.

B) technological change.

C) job security.

D) management rights to test.

E) government regulations.

662)

The range of employees and employers covered by the contract (collective agreement) is called: A) bargaining structure.

B) industrial unionization.

C) negotiation.

D) interpretation and enforcement.

E) arbitration.

663)

The outcome of collective bargaining agreements can have important consequences for: A) labour costs.

B) productivity.

C) the organizations' ability to compete.

D) labour costs, productivity, and the organizations' ability to compete.

E) productivity and the organizations' ability to compete.

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664)

__________________ is a collective decision of the union members not to work or to slow down until certain demands or conditions are met.

A) A strike B) A lockout C) Picketing D) Collective bargaining E) Arbitration

665)

During a strike: A) it is illegal to picket.

B) picket lines cannot be formed near the workplace.

C) the union members do not receive pay from their employer.

D) the employer must legally continue to pay their striking workers.

E) negotiations between management and union leaders do not take place.

666)

When employees are picketing: A) they continue to receive pay from their employer.

B) they receive a reduced strike pay from their employer.

C) they may receive a strike pay from the union.

D) the government pays the workers through the national unemployment program.

E) the government pays the workers through the national pension plan program.

667)

A lockout is initiated by the: A) government.

B) employer.

C) union.

D) non-union employees.

E) Labour Relations Board.

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668)

The least formal and most widely used alternative to resolving conflicts between employees and management is: A) a strike.

B) conciliation.

C) mediation.

D) arbitration.

E) a grievance.

669)

Which conflict resolution procedure is often used for negotiations with government bodies?

A) A strike.

B) Conciliation.

C) Mediation.

D) Arbitration.

E) A grievance.

670)

In most jurisdictions in Canada: A) strikes are illegal.

B) conciliation is mandatory before a strike or lockout can be called.

C) conciliation is binding.

D) conciliation is the least preferred resolution procedure.

E) conciliation stalls the negotiations and wastes precious time.

671)

A conflict resolution procedure in which a binding settlement is determined is: A) a strike.

B) conciliation.

C) mediation.

D) arbitration.

E) a grievance.

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672)

Which of the following is not a step in a typical grievance handling procedure?

A) Employee (and union steward) discusses problem with supervisor.

B) Written grievance is submitted to manager.

C) Union appeals grievance to top management.

D) Management conveys verbal response to written grievance.

E) Union decides whether to refer unresolved grievance to arbitration.

673)

A very low grievance rate may suggest: A) a fear of filing a grievance.

B) a belief that employees are well represented by their union.

C) a belief that the system works as intended.

D) managers don’t understand how to upload the collective agreement.

E) union members have a desire to uphold the collective agreement.

674)

In the public sector, employers and unions are finding common ground: A) to make wage increases keep pace with inflation.

B) to reduce the use of back to work legislation.

C) to promote work from home policies.

D) to make mental health a priority.

E) to use binding arbitration as the preferred conflict resolution strategy.

675)

Joint labour-management committees do NOT usually deal with which of the following issues?

A) Pay, benefits, pensions B) Operations/technology C) Hours of work/scheduling D) Training/apprenticeships E) New product development

676)

Briefly describe the three levels of decisions involved in labour relations.

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677)

What explanations are given for the overall decline in union membership?

678)

What are the goals of labour unions? Describe some of the methods unions use to ensure their survival.

679)

Identify at least 5 of the main features of labour legislation in Canada.

680)

Describe three alternatives to strikes and lockouts that are used to resolve contracts.

681)

What are the four steps in a typical grievance procedure?

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682)

What criteria do employers use to assess the grievance procedure?

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) E 25) D 26) C 27) D 28) D 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) D 36) B 37) D

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38) B 39) B 40) D 41) B 42) C 43) E 44) A 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) C 49) B 50) C 51) B 52) B 53) D 54) D 55) A 56) D 57) E 58) Short Answer

Labour relations involve three levels of decisions: 1. Labour relations strategy—for management, the decision involves how the organization will work with unions or develop (or maintain) non-union operations. For unions, the decision involves whether to resist changes in how unions relate to the organization or accept new kinds of labour-management relationships.

2. Negotiating collective agreements—collective agreement negotiations in a union setting involve decisions about pay structure, job security, work rules, workplace safety, and many other issues. These decisions affect workers' and the employer's situation for the term of the contract.

3. Administering collective agreements—these decisions involve day-to-day activities in which union members and the organization's managers may have disagreements e.g. complaints of work rules being violated or workers being treated unfairly.

59) Short Answer

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Change in the structure of the economy—Much recent job growth has occurred in the service sector of the economy, while union strength has traditionally been among urban “blue-collar” workers. Service industries such as finance, insurance, and real estate have lower union representation than manufacturing.

Management efforts to control costs—On average, unionized workers receive higher pay than their non-unionized counterparts, and the pressure to control costs is increasing because of global competition. In the past, union membership across an industry such as automobiles or steel resulted in similar wages and work requirements for all competitors.

Human resource practices—Another way management may be contributing to the decline in union membership is by adopting human resource practices that increase employees’ commitment to their job and employer. Competition for scarce human resources can lead employers to offer much of what employees traditionally sought through union membership.

Government regulation—Stricter regulation in areas such as workplace safety and human rights leaves fewer areas in which unions can show an advantage over what employers must already offer.

60) Short Answer

Typical goals of unions include: • Obtaining better pay, job security, and working conditions and giving members a voice in decisions that affect them.

• Unions typically want to influence the way pay and promotions are determined.

• Unions try to build group solidarity and avoid possible arbitrary treatment of employees.

• Unions may also engage in social unionism, that is, activities intended to influence social and economic policies of government.

The survival and security of a union depends on its ability to ensure a regular flow of new members and member dues to support the services it provides.

• Rand Formula, named after Chief Justice Ivan Rand who handed down a critical decision in 1946, is a union security provision that makes the payment of union dues mandatory even if the employee is not a member of a union.

• Checkoff provision is a requirement that the employer, on behalf of the union, deducts union dues from employees' paycheques.

• A "closed shop" is a union security arrangement under which an employee must join a union before getting hired and a "union shop" requires a hired employee to join the union within a specified period after beginning employment.

61) Short Answer

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Although some differences exist among jurisdictions, the main features of labour legislation in Canada include: • Methods to certify a union that will represent a group of employees.

• Requirement of the employer to recognize the union chosen by the majority of its employees and to accept the union as the employees' exclusive representative for bargaining purposes.

• Responsibility to bargain in good faith with the intention to reach a settlement.

• Requirement of the employer to deduct union dues from employees.

• Minimum length of a collective agreement (at least one year).

• Regulation of strike and lockout activities.

• Creation of a labour relations board (or specialized tribunal) to interpret and enforce the labour laws in their jurisdiction.

• Prohibition of identified unfair labour practices by management and labour.

62) Short Answer

Strikes and lockouts are costly and disruptive. Unions and employers generally prefer other methods of resolving conflicts. All of these alternatives rely on neutral third parties, which are generally appointed by the federal or provincial Minister of Labour.

1. Mediation—most informal and most widely used of these three alternatives: Conflict resolution procedure in which a mediator hears the views of both sides and facilitates the negotiation process but has no formal authority to dictate a resolution.

2. Conciliation—most commonly used for negotiations with governmental bodies. Conflict resolution procedure in which a third party to collective bargaining reports the reasons for a dispute, the views and arguments of both sides, and possibly a recommended settlement, which the parties may decline.

3. Arbitration—the most formal type of outside intervention: Conflict resolution procedure in which an arbitrator (or arbitration board) determines a settlement that is binding, meaning the parties have to accept it.

63) Short Answer

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The four steps are: 1. The employee talks to his or her supervisor about the problem. If the conversation is unsuccessful the employee may involve the union steward in further discussion. The union steward and the employee decide whether the problem has been resolved and, if not, whether it is a violation of the collective agreement. If the problem is not resolved and there seems to be a violation of the collective agreement the union moves to the next step.

2. The grievance is put in writing and submitted to a manager. The union steward meets with a management representative to try to resolve the problem. Management consults with the labour relations staff and puts its response in writing at this second stage.

3. The union appeals the grievance to top management and representatives of the labour relations staff. The union may involve more local or national officers in discussion at this stage.

The decision resulting from the appeal is put in writing.

4. The union decides whether to appeal the grievance to arbitration for a binding decision.

64) Short Answer

Effectiveness—how well the procedure resolves day-to-day contract questions.

Efficiency—whether issues are resolved at a reasonable cost and without major delays.

Adaptability—how well the grievance procedure adapts to changing circumstances. For example, if sales drop off and the company needs to cut costs, how clear are the provisions related to layoffs and subcontracting of work?

Allows for resolving local issues—in the case of collective agreements covering multiple business units, the procedure should allow for resolving local contract issues, such as work rules at a particular facility.

Fairness—whether employees are treated equitably and are provided a voice in the process.

Student name:__________ 683)

Global expansion can provide a business with new markets in which there are millions or billions of new customers ⊚ true ⊚ false

684)

The country in which an organization's headquarters is located is the home country. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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685)

Third-country nationals are employees from a country other than the home or host country, but who work in the host country. ⊚ true ⊚ false

686)

A multinational company represents the highest level of global participation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

687)

A global organization is highly flexible and uses cultural differences as an advantage. ⊚ true ⊚ false

688)

By far the most important influence on international HRM is the culture of the country in which a facility is located. ⊚ true ⊚ false

689)

Culture has very little influence on the appropriateness of HRM practices. ⊚ true ⊚ false

690)

People in indulgence-oriented cultures are likely to place high value on having fun and enjoying life. ⊚ true ⊚ false

691)

Job design aimed at employee involvement can be problematic in cultures with high power distance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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692)

The education and skill levels of a country's labour force affect the extent to which companies want to operate there. ⊚ true ⊚ false

693)

An organization that expands internationally does not require expertise in the host country's legal system because the organization is only required to adhere to the home country's laws and regulations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

694)

Compared with many other countries, Canada allows employers wide latitude in reducing their workforce. ⊚ true ⊚ false

695)

Organizations fill many key foreign positions with host-country nationals because hostcountry nationals can more easily understand the values and customers of the local workforce. ⊚ true ⊚ false

696)

Qualities of flexibility, motivation, agreeableness, and conscientiousness are important to success in a global assignment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

697)

Virtual expatriates are employees who never return to the home country, but rather spend their entire careers moving from one foreign assignment to another. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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698)

Employees who come to Canada from another country need cross-cultural preparation as much as Canadian employees sent on global assignments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

699)

Canadian employees are much more used to receiving direct feedback than are employees in many other countries. ⊚ true ⊚ false

700)

The balance sheet approach to international compensation adjusts the employee's compensation so that it equals the host country's standard of living. ⊚ true ⊚ false

701)

A tax equalization allowance ensures that the worker neither gains nor loses with regards to tax liability as a result of an international assignment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

702)

Repatriation is the process of preparing expatriates for a foreign assignment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

703)

Validation involves giving expatriates recognition for their international service when they return home. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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704)

During the global COVID-19 pandemic many companies sought out opportunities to move production of hardware components to: A) China B) Vietnam and Thailand C) India D) The United States E) Japan

705)

Prior to the COVID-19 pandemic, many companies moved manufacturing operations to China because of: A) superior quality.

B) low transportation costs.

C) low wages.

D) lack of regulations.

E) open economy.

706)

Setting up factories in multiple countries: A) reduces labour costs.

B) reduces transportation costs.

C) increases transportation costs.

D) increases global supply chain risk.

E) reduces global supply chain risk.

707)

The country in which an organization's headquarters is located is the: A) host country.

B) home country.

C) first country.

D) third country.

E) expatriate country.

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708)

An individual who was born in Canada and is currently working in Spain for a company headquartered in Germany would be considered a: A) home-country national.

B) host-country national.

C) third-country national.

D) home-country expatriate.

E) host-country expatriate.

709)

An individual who was born in Mexico and is currently working for a Canadian company in Mexico is referred to as a: A) home-country national.

B) host-country national.

C) third-country national.

D) home-country expatriate.

E) host-country expatriate.

710)

Gurpreet, who was born in Canada and who works for a Canadian-based company, is on assignment in Japan. Gurpreet is: A) an expatriate.

B) an inpatriate.

C) a host-country national.

D) a third-country national.

E) a global national.

711)

A firm that is currently shipping domestically produced items to other countries to be sold there is at what level of international participation?

A) Exporting B) Subsidiary operations C) Multinational D) Global E) Host-country consolidation

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712)

A firm that is currently locating facilities in a large number of other countries in order to capitalize on lower production and distribution costs is at what level of global participation?

A) Domestic B) International C) Multinational D) Global E) Transnational

713)

What type of organization operates at the highest level of involvement in the global marketplace?

A) Exporting B) Domestic C) International D) Multinational E) Global

714)

Which one of the following statements about global organizations is FALSE? A) They are flexible organizations.

B) They offer top products tailored to segments of the market while keeping costs as low as possible.

C) They treat different cultures as a source of competitive advantage.

D) They tend to have centralized, home-country decision-making structures.

E) They need a transnational HRM system.

715)

A transnational HRM system: A) makes decisions from a global perspective, includes managers from many countries, and is based on ideas contributed by people from a variety of cultures.

B) is a home-country-based HRM program that has been extended to various overseas countries and cultures.

C) consists of HRM practices that have been approved and are supported by the World Trade Organization.

D) is dominated by the home country's culture.

E) is dominated by the host country's culture.

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716)

The most important influence on international HRM is the _________ of the country in which a facility is located.

A) political-legal system B) educational system C) culture D) economic system E) power distance

717)

According to Hofstede's cultural dimensions, a culture where people are expected to devote themselves to the interests of the community, and the community is expected to protect them when they are in trouble is high in: A) power distance.

B) masculinity.

C) long-term orientation.

D) collectivism.

E) uncertainty avoidance.

718)

Assume that you are visiting Mexico for a business meeting and you call your host by his first name rather than his title. He seems offended. Your offense most likely stemmed from a difference between Canadian culture and Mexico's culture on which dimension?

A) Individualism/collectivism B) Uncertainty avoidance C) Power distance D) Long-term/short-term orientation E) Masculinity/femininity

719)

Valuing achievement, money making, assertiveness, and competition are associated with what type of culture?

A) Short-term orientation B) Masculine culture C) High power distance culture D) Feminine culture E) High uncertainty avoidance

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720)

The Hofstede dimension that deals with the degree to which a culture encourages satisfying or suppressing gratification of human drives is: A) power distance.

B) individualism/collectivism.

C) masculinity/femininity.

D) indulgence/restraint.

E) long-term/short-term orientation.

721)

Which dimension of culture tends to be associated with having flatter pay structures?

A) Masculine B) Low uncertainty avoidance C) High power distance D) Collectivist E) Long-term orientation

722)

Cultures with a long-term orientation tend to value: A) relationships.

B) clear rules.

C) savings and persistence.

D) having fun and enjoying life.

E) structured situations.

723)

In general, ________ systems take a ______ percentage of each worker’s income as the worker’s income increases.

A) socialist; lower B) communist; higher C) socialist; higher D) capitalist; higher E) free enterprise; higher

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724)

Which of the following was one of the factors that influenced the UK in its decision to separate from the European Union?

A) Dissatisfaction with the European Union’s principle of “one wage/one pay” across member countries.

B) Dissatisfaction with the European Union’s principle of free movement of labour across member countries.

C) The oversupply of skilled labour that resulted in the U.K. D) Abnormally low immigration rates in the U.K. E) Dissatisfaction with the European Union’s points-based immigration system.

725)

Brexit exemplifies how a country’s _________ system can impact human resource management.

A) economic B) cultural C) social D) political/legal E) financial

726)

Global poverty tends to be ______ in countries with high _________.

A) lowest; unemployment rates B) lowest; birth rates C) highest; birth rates D) lowest; inflation E) highest; growth rates

727)

Which country has a large pool of well-trained technical workers and is becoming a popular location for outsourcing software development jobs?

A) China B) Philippines C) Vietnam D) India E) Brazil

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728)

Remote workers who use technology to work from coffee shops, hotels, or other public spaces with a WiFi-connected laptop or smartphone from anywhere in the world is called: A) absentee expatriates.

B) inpatriates.

C) telecommuters.

D) temporary expatriates.

E) digital nomads.

729)

The emotions that accompany an overseas assignment tend to follow a cycle of: A) honeymoon, culture shock, recovery, and adjustment.

B) culture shock, honeymoon, learning, and adjustment.

C) honeymoon, learning, culture shock, and adjustment.

D) learning, culture shock, adjustment, and honeymoon.

E) honeymoon, recovery, culture shock, and return.

730)

Employees from cultures high in power distance would expect and respond best to a training session where: A) they are able to discuss and ask questions about the training content.

B) a formal instructional environment exists, with a structured agenda and timetable.

C) an impromptu style is used.

D) the trainer is an expert.

E) trainees are asked to complete follow-up activities, such as development plans and other assignments.

731)

Employees from cultures high in uncertainty avoidance would expect and respond best to a training session where: A) participation in exercises and questioning is determined by status in the company or culture.

B) a formal instructional style and environment exists.

C) trainers are flexible and open to schedule and activity changes.

D) trainees are asked to complete follow-up activities, such as development plans and assignments.

E) the instructional environment is informal.

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732)

Which of the following programs saw a loosening of limits on hiring to help employers overcome labour shortages?

A) International Mobility Program (IMP) B) International Expatriates Plan (IEP) C) Temporary Foreign Worker Program (TFWP) D) Mobile Worker Program (MWP) E) Foreign Skilled Workers Pool (FSWP)

733)

According to studies, which factor most strongly influences whether an employee completed a global assignment?

A) The employee’s motivation to succeed and enjoyment of challenges.

B) The comfort of the employee’s partner and family.

C) The employee’s flexibility, tolerance of ambiguity, and sensitivity to cultural differences.

D) The employee’s willingness to learn about the foreign country’s culture.

E) The employee’s ability to communicate verbally and nonverbally in the foreign country.

734)

Training known as cross-cultural preparation is needed during which phase or phases of an international assignment?

A) Preparation for departure B) During the assignment C) Preparation for the return home D) Preparation for departure, during the assignment, and preparation for the return home.

E) Only preparation for departure and during the assignment.

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735)

Victor, a human resources professional, is preparing for Sundance, a Canadian production manager, to take an assignment at a new facility in Vietnam. Victor wants to measure Sundance's success in establishing high productivity, so he uses the excellent productivity numbers Sundance achieved in her current assignment as a basis for setting performance goals for the position in Vietnam. How could this method of measuring performance be improved?

A) By using communication technology to send frequent updates of the performance measures B) By raising the measure to motivate Sundance to improve on her past performance C) By lowering the measure to account for Sundance's limited knowledge of local culture D) By adjusting the measure to account for the facility being in a different time zone E) By adjusting the measure for local factors that could affect productivity

736)

Most organizations use a _________ to determine expatriate compensation.

A) equitable opportunity approach B) balanced scorecard approach C) balance sheet approach D) pay equity model E) equal pay model

737)

Most organizations adjust expatriates' compensation so that it gives the employee: A) the same standard of living as in the home country.

B) extra pay for any hardships of locating globally.

C) host country's prevailing wage.

D) both "the same standard of living as in the home country" and "extra pay for any hardships of locating globally."

E) both "extra pay for any hardships of locating globally" and "host country's prevailing wage."

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738)

The approach to compensating and rewarding expatriates that equalizes the purchasing power of the expatriate with that of employees in similar positions in the home country and provides incentives to offset any hardships incurred in the location is known as: A) the international approach.

B) the balance sheet approach.

C) the equalization approach.

D) the host-country approach.

E) the flexible benefits approach.

739)

Over 90 percent of workers in Switzerland have: A) accident insurance B) pension plans C) life insurance D) dental benefits E) income replacement insurance

740)

Employees in Canada, on average, work less hours than employees in all of the following countries, EXCEPT? A) Mexico B) Columbia C) United States D) Greece E) Norway

741)

The process of preparing a person to return from a foreign assignment and assisting him or her with that reentry is known as: A) reorientation.

B) expatriation.

C) repatriation.

D) validation.

E) remuneration.

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742)

The extent to which expatriates receive recognition following their overseas assignment refers to: A) validation.

B) repatriation.

C) adjustment.

D) acknowledgment.

E) None of the choices are correct.

743)

Companies are increasingly using which of the following activities to facilitate repatriation?

A) Increased pay and validation B) Communication and validation C) Shorter assignments and increased pay D) Validation and promotion E) Communication and longer assignments

744)

Describe the terms home-country nationals, host-country nationals, and third-country nationals and provide examples for each.

745)

Name and discuss the four factors that affect HRM in global markets. Which factor is thought to be the most important and why?

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746)

Discuss cross-cultural preparation and its training methods. In addition, describe the three phases of international assignments.

747)

Briefly elaborate on the challenges that companies face when compensating employees from other countries.

748)

Describe the selection criteria that have been associated with success in working globally.

749)

What is the purpose of the balance-sheet approach to expatriate compensation, and what are its four major components and their respective purposes?

750)

Once a global assignment is completed, how can companies help expatriates return to their home countries?

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) B 23) C 24) E 25) B 26) C 27) B 28) A 29) A 30) C 31) E 32) D 33) A 34) C 35) D 36) C 37) B

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38) D 39) D 40) C 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) C 45) D 46) E 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) C 51) B 52) D 53) E 54) C 55) D 56) B 57) B 58) E 59) C 60) A 61) B 62) Short Answer

Employees may participate in the global workforce in one of three ways: 1. Home-country nationals are employees who are citizens of the country in which their employer's headquarters are located.

2. Host-country nationals are employees who are citizens of the host country (a country other than the home country in which an organization operates a facility).

3. Third-country nationals are employees who are citizens of a country other than the home country or host country, but who work in the host country.

63) Short Answer

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1. Culture—a community's set of shared assumptions about how the world works and what ideals are worth striving for. Culture is important to HRM: - it often determines the other three international influences and it influences what people value.

- it often determines the effectiveness of various HRM practices.

2. Education and skill levels—Countries differ in the degree to which their labour markets include people with education and skills of value to employers, which in turn affects the extent to which companies want to locate operations there. In general, spending on education is greater per student in high-income countries than in poorer countries.

3. Economic system—A country's economic system influences HRM in that it affects: - incentives or disincentives for developing the value of the labour force.

- labour costs (in developed countries with great wealth, labour costs are relatively high).

- taxes on compensation packages affect employees' take-home pay.

4. Political-legal system—The political-legal system often dictates the requirements of certain HRM practices, such as training, compensation, selection, and labour relations.

The most important influence on international HRM is the culture of the country in which a facility is located. Culture can greatly affect a country's laws, because laws often are based on the culture's definitions of right and wrong. Culture also influences what people value, so it affects people's economic systems and efforts to invest in education. Even more important for understanding human resource management, culture often determines the effectiveness of various HRM practices. Practices that are effective in Canada, for example, may fail or even backfire in a country with different beliefs and values.

64) Short Answer

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Cross-cultural preparation involves training employees and their family members for an assignment in a foreign country. Methods for providing cross-cultural preparation training ranges from lectures for employees and their families to visits to culturally diverse communities.

Employees and their families may also spend time visiting a local family from the country where they will be working.

The training is necessary for all three phases of an international assignment: 1. Preparation for departure—language instruction and an orientation to the foreign country's culture.

2. The assignment itself—some combination of a formal program and mentoring relationship to provide ongoing further information about the foreign country's culture.

3. Preparation for the return home—providing information about the employee's community and home-country workplace (from company newsletters, local newspapers, and so on).

65) Short Answer

Market pay structures can differ substantially across countries in terms of both pay level and the relative worth of jobs. One reason for such differences is a shortage of talent in local labour markets. Differences such as these create a dilemma for global companies: Should pay levels and differences reflect what workers are used to in their own countries? Or should they reflect the earnings of colleagues in the country of the facility, or earnings at the company headquarters? If the standard is that of the higher rates in the home country, the employees in the host country will likely see the expatriate's pay as unfair. If the standard is that of the lower pay in the host country, the company will likely find it impossible to persuade an expatriate to take an assignment in the host country. Dilemmas such as these make a global compensation strategy important as a way to show employees that the pay structure is designed to be fair and related to the value that employees bring to the organization. These decisions affect a company's costs and ability to compete. However, that conclusion oversimplifies the situation for many companies.

Merely comparing wages ignores differences in education, skills, quality, and productivity.

66) Short Answer

1. Competency in the employee’s area of expertise.

2. Ability to communicate verbally and nonverbally in the foreign country.

3. Flexibility, tolerance of ambiguity, and sensitivity to cultural differences.

4. Motivation to succeed and enjoyment of challenges.

5. Willingness to learn about the foreign country’s culture, language, and customs.

6. Support from family members.

67) Short Answer

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The balance-sheet approach is used to determine the total amount of the expatriate's compensation and rewards package. This approach adjusts the employee's compensation so that it gives the employee the same standard of living as in the home country plus extra premiums and incentives for locating globally.

The four components are: 1. Base salary—because many organizations pay a salary premium as an incentive to accept an overseas assignment, expatriates' salaries are often higher than pay for staying in the home country.

2. Tax equalization allowance—so that the worker neither gains nor loses with regards to tax liability as a result of an international assignment. Usually the expatriate's employer withholds the amount of tax to be paid in the home country, then pays all of the taxes due in the country where the expatriate is working.

3. Benefits and service—most of these issues have to do with whether an employee can use the same benefits in the foreign country. For example, while the person is abroad, does the same health plan cover services received in the foreign country? An employer may offer expatriates additional benefits to address the problem of uprooting a partner when assigning an employee overseas.

4. Allowances—cost-of-living, housing, education, and relocation allowances are offered to make the expatriate assignment more attractive.

68) Short Answer

The process of preparing expatriates to return home from a global assignment is called repatriation. Re-entry is not as simple as it might sound. Culture shock takes place in reverse.

Companies are increasingly making efforts to help expatriates through the transition of returning to the home country after completing a foreign assignment. Two activities help the process along: communication and validation. Communication refers to the expatriate receiving information and recognizing changes while abroad. The more the organization keeps in contact with the expatriate, the more effective and satisfied the person will be upon return. The expatriate plays a role in this process as well. Expatriates should work at maintaining important contacts in the company and industry. Communication related to career development before and during the overseas assignment also should help the employee return to a position that is challenging and interesting. Validation means giving the expatriate recognition for the overseas service when this person returns home. Validation should also include planning for how the returning employee will contribute to the organization. Expatriates who receive praise and recognition from colleagues and top managers for their global service and future contribution have fewer troubles with re-entry than those whose contributions are disregarded. Validation should also include planning for how the returning employee will contribute to the organization.

What skills will this person bring back? What position will he or she fill?

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Student name:__________ 751)

According to research, organizations that introduce integrated high-performance work practices usually experience increases in productivity and long-term financial performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

752)

While high-performance work systems may result in high product quality and reduce turnover, they have little impact on outcomes such as efficiency and productivity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

753)

The set of perceptions that employees have about their experience at work in response to their interactions with the organization is called employee satisfaction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

754)

One of the most popular ways to empower employees is to design work so that it can be performed on an individual basis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

755)

A learning culture creates the conditions in which managers encourage flexibility and experimentation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

756)

Job satisfaction is subjective because it is based on values, perceptions, and ideas of what is important. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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757)

Employee engagement refers to giving employees responsibility and authority to make decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

758)

When employees have low engagement, and a negative employee experience, they are still likely to be passionate about their work. ⊚ true ⊚ false

759)

Although Net Promoter Score was developed to assess client experience, its methodology is equally applicable to measuring employee experience. ⊚ true ⊚ false

760)

The usual way to measure satisfaction or engagement is with a survey. ⊚ true ⊚ false

761)

An exit interview is a meeting with an employee to explore his or her thoughts and feelings about the job and to uncover issues in the effort to prevent that employee from becoming disgruntled. ⊚ true ⊚ false

762)

When improving HR practices, research suggests that it is more effective to focus on one or two isolated practices, such as the organization's pay structure or selection system, rather than attempting to improve HR practices as a whole. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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763)

High-performance organizations need selection methods that identify more than technical skills like ability to perform accounting and engineering tasks. ⊚ true ⊚ false

764)

Organizations can increase employee empowerment, satisfaction, and engagement by including employees in decisions about rewards and by communicating the basis for decisions about pay. ⊚ true ⊚ false

765)

Turnover initiated by an employer is called involuntary turnover. ⊚ true ⊚ false

766)

An official written warning is the usual first step in progressive discipline. ⊚ true ⊚ false

767)

An HRM audit is a formal review of the outcomes of HRM functions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

768)

E-HRM refers to providing HR-related information over the Internet (or intranet). ⊚ true ⊚ false

769)

An expert system is designed to recommend the same actions that a human expert would in a similar situation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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770)

An organization's Chief Human Resource Officer is likely to spend the largest percentage of his/her time serving as a representative of the firm engaging in activities with external stakeholders such as advocating and speaking to outside groups. ⊚ true ⊚ false

771)

A high-performance work system refers to: A) a group of exceptional employees whose productivity is enhanced by collaboration in the workplace.

B) the right combination of people, technology, and organizational structure that makes full use of resources and opportunities in achieving their organization's goals.

C) a computer software system designed to help managers solve problems by showing how results vary when the manager alters assumptions or data.

D) a system used to collect, record, store, analyze, and retrieve data concerning an organization's human resources.

E) a system enabled by technology and artificial intelligence.

772)

A manufacturer using the integrated processes of flexible manufacturing technology and just-in-time inventory control in combination with highly trained employees is an example of: A) traditional management practices.

B) effective job design.

C) a high-performance work system.

D) a learning organization.

E) employee empowerment.

773)

All of the following are important elements of a high-performance work system, EXCEPT? A) Organizational structure B) Reward systems C) Task design D) People E) Outsourcing

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774)

Which of the following is an outcome that is NOT promoted by a high-performance work system?

A) Competition B) Learning C) Collaboration D) Innovation E) Accountability

775)

High-performance work systems are likely to yield all but one of the following. Identify the exception.

A) High product quality B) Negative employee experience C) Higher productivity D) Higher profits E) Satisfied customers

776)

Giving employees responsibility and authority to make decisions regarding all aspects of product development or customer service is called employee: A) Experience B) Development C) Engagement D) Empowerment E) Focus

777)

An organization that supports lifelong learning by enabling all employees to acquire and share knowledge is known as a(n): A) e-learning organization.

B) adaptive organization.

C) learning organization.

D) next-generation organization.

E) knowledge organization.

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778)

Key features of a learning organization include all but one of the following. Name the exception.

A) Knowledge is shared B) Standardization is widespread C) Employees are valued D) Critical systemic thinking is widespread E) Engages in continuous learning

779)

Organizations can increase job satisfaction through all of the following, EXCEPT? A) Design complex, meaningful jobs B) Help employees pursue goals C) Set satisfactory pay levels D) Hire employees predisposed to being satisfied E) Reduce flexibility and autonomy in job descriptions.

780)

Engagement has both a(n) ___________ and a(n) ____________ component and is evidenced through employee behaviours.

A) positive; negative B) emotional; cognitive C) engaging; disengaged D) individual; team E) appropriate; inappropriate

781)

Employee empowerment shifts the recruiting focus away from _______ skills and toward ________ skills.

A) cognitive; interpersonal B) cognitive; technical C) technical; interpersonal D) interpersonal; technical E) interpersonal; cognitive

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782)

Job withdrawal is characterized by behaviours where an employee tries to avoid the work situation: A) physically.

B) mentally.

C) emotionally.

D) physically, mentally, or emotionally.

E) only mentally or emotionally.

783)

All of the following questions are included in the Gallup’s Survey, EXCEPT? A) Do you know what is expected of you at work?

B) At work, do your opinions seem to count?

C) Do you have a best friend at work?

D) Have you familiar with the organization’s whistle-blower policy?

E) In the last six months, has someone at work talked to you about your progress?

784)

Someone who scores a 9 on the Net Promotor Score (NPS) survey is a: A) Promotor B) Passive C) Detractor D) Descender E) Defender

785)

Which of the following tools is a widely used measure of job satisfactory that emphasizes specific aspects of satisfaction including pay, the work itself, supervision, co-workers, and promotions?

A) Hofstede’s Dimensions B) Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ) C) Net Promotor Score (NPS) D) The Exit Interview E) Job Descriptive Index (JDI)

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786)

Someone who scores a 5 on the Net Promotor Score (NPS) survey is a: A) Promotor B) Passive C) Detractor D) Descender E) Defender

787)

A meeting with an employee to explore his or her thoughts and feelings about the job and to uncover issues in the effort to prevent that employee from becoming disgruntled is called a(n): A) stay interview.

B) survey.

C) exit interview.

D) retention bonus.

E) status check.

788)

Ryan is an experienced employee in an organization. The latest policy implemented by the firm's management provides only new employees with bonuses and other rewards for exemplary performance. Ryan has raised concerns regarding the revised policy, but management stands firm on its revised policy. For Ryan's company to be a high-performance work system, which of the following elements is Ryan seeking to improve?

A) Organizational structure B) Staffing C) Reward systems D) Task design E) Information systems

789)

An employee was hired for a position, but never showed up on the first day and never contacted the employer. This is an example of: A) exiting.

B) wandering.

C) withdrawing.

D) ghosting.

E) baiting.

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790)

Which precedent setting court case in Canada made it clear that employers must act fairly and respectfully when handling an employee termination?

A) Ali v. Ford B) Wallace v. United Grain Growers C) Eli Lilly Canada Inc. v. Novopharm Limited D) Bilich v. Toronto Police Services Board E) Hennigar v. Target Corp.

791)

Job design aimed at empowerment includes access to resources such as: A) a whistle-blower policy.

B) information technology.

C) satisfaction surveys D) performance appraisals E) extended health benefits.

792)

Turnover initiated by employees (when the organization would prefer to keep them) is called: A) involuntary turnover.

B) dissatisfaction turnover.

C) constructive turnover.

D) voluntary turnover.

E) severance.

793)

All of the following costs are associated with involuntary turnover, EXCEPT: A) recruiting, selecting, and training replacements.

B) lost productivity.

C) lawsuits.

D) workplace violence.

E) higher profits.

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794)

What is the usual first step in a progressive discipline system?

A) Termination B) Temporary suspension C) Official written warning D) Verbal warning E) Threat of a temporary suspension

795)

Creating a formal discipline process is a primary responsibility of: A) the human resource department.

B) supervisors and line managers.

C) employees (unions).

D) the government.

E) the board of directors.

796)

Which of the following tries to help dismissed employees manage the transition from one job to another?

A) Interactional justice B) Procedural justice C) Outplacement counselling D) Total rewards E) Employment-at-will doctrine

797)

Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 levels of HR metrics identified in your textbook?

A) Activity B) Efficiency C) Accountability D) Effectiveness E) Impact

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798)

An _______ is a formal review of the outcomes of HRM functions based on identifying key HRM functions and measures of organizational performance.

A) HRM analysis B) HRM needs assessment C) HRM outcome review D) HRM audit E) HRM performance score

799)

_________ is a type of assessment of HRM effectiveness that involves determining the impact of, or the financial cost and benefits, of a program or practice.

A) HR analytics B) Customer orientation C) Business indicators D) Talent reviews E) Performance management

800)

Which of the following is the highest metric in an HR measurement framework?

A) Activity B) Performance C) Efficiency D) Effectiveness E) Impact

801)

Which of the following is the lowest metric in an HR measurement framework?

A) Activity B) Performance C) Efficiency D) Effectiveness E) Impact

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802)

What is measured at the efficiency level in an HR measurement framework?

A) Activities performed B) Productivity of HR C) HR activity results D) Results of the HR activity on the organization’s performance E) HR ethics review

803)

Which one of the following terms refers to computations and calculations involved in reviewing and documenting HRM decisions and practices?

A) E-HRM B) Transaction processing C) Expert systems D) Outsourcing E) Decision support systems

804)

Decision support systems are: A) computer software systems designed to help managers solve problems by showing how results vary when the manager alters assumptions or data.

B) computations and calculations used to review and document human resources decisions and practices.

C) systems that incorporate the decision rules used by people who are considered to have expertise in a certain area.

D) the set of topics on which a human resource information system collects and maintains information.

E) using equipment and information processing to perform activities that had been performed by people.

805)

Alex, an HR professional, wants to test a range of assumptions about the availability of a certain skill in the labour market by looking at the impact of the assumptions on the success of different recruiting plans. Which one of the following systems would they use?

A) Decision support system B) Expert system C) E-HRM system D) Human Resource Information System E) Transactional processing system

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806)

A computer system that incorporates the decision rules used by people who are considered to have expertise in a certain area is a(n): A) decision support system.

B) expert system.

C) E-HRM system.

D) transactional processing system.

E) Human Resource Information System.

807)

In conjunction with your flexible benefits plan, you wish to provide employees with professional advice on how to best allocate their benefit dollars. You should establish a(n): A) decision support system.

B) expert system.

C) E-HRM system.

D) transactional processing system.

E) transnational HR system.

808)

Commonly used fields for an HR database include all of the following, EXCEPT? A) Name B) Social insurance number C) Family status D) Hiring date E) Contact information

809)

A standard feature of a modern HRIS is the use of: A) big data B) micro data C) micro databases D) relational databases E) relational transcripts

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810)

The use of YouTube for instructional videos or sociala networking sites exemplifies: A) Predictive analytics B) Social media applications for human resource management C) Administrative HRM D) Relational databases E) An HR dashboard

811)

Compared to decades ago, when HRM was more administrative and enforcement in nature, today HR is increasingly becoming more: A) Relaxed B) Convoluted C) Strategic D) Repressive E) Progressive

812)

Which basic competency enables HR professionals to critically evaluate the new techniques offered as state-of-the-art HRM programs?

A) Management of change processes B) Integration competence C) Performance competence D) Professional–technical knowledge E) Business competence

813)

Which basic competency enables HR professionals to be fully capable of identifying the social and ethical issues attached to HRM practices?

A) Management of change processes B) Integration competence C) Performance competence D) Professional–technical knowledge E) Business competence

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814)

What is a high-performance work system? Explain the different elements of a highperformance work system.

815)

What is a learning organization? What are its key features?

816)

Identify and briefly describe the two types of employee turnover. What are the costs associated with each type of employee turnover?

817)

What are some examples of “just cause” dismissal?

818)

What is an HRM audit?

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819)

New HR applications of technology continue to be introduced. Some of these technologies that have been widely adopted are transaction processing, decision support systems, and expert systems. Demonstrate your understanding of each of these technologies.

820)

What is an expert system in HRM and what are the advantages of using this system?

821)

What are the 4 basic competencies that HR professionals will need?

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) B 22) C 23) E 24) A 25) B 26) D 27) C 28) B 29) E 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) E 36) C 37) A

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38) C 39) D 40) B 41) B 42) D 43) E 44) D 45) A 46) C 47) C 48) D 49) A 50) E 51) A 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) A 56) B 57) B 58) C 59) D 60) B 61) C 62) D 63) E 64) Short Answer

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A high-performance work system is the right combination of people, technology, and organizational structure that makes full use of an organization's resources and opportunities in achieving its goals.

Elements include: 1. Organizational structure—refers to the way the organization groups its people into useful divisions, departments, and reporting relationships. The organization's top management makes most decisions about structure and whether employees are grouped according to the functions they carry out or the customers they serve. In a high-performance work system, organizational structure promotes cooperation, learning, and continuous improvement.

2. Task design—determines how the details of the organization's necessary activities will be grouped into jobs or team responsibilities. In a high-performance work system, task design makes jobs efficient while encouraging high quality. HRM carries out this activity through job analysis and job design.

3. People—the right people are a key element of high-performance work systems. HRM has a significant role in providing people who are well suited and well prepared for their jobs. Human resource professionals help the organization recruit and select people with the needed qualifications. Training, development, and career management ensure that these people are able to perform their current and future jobs and "fit" with the culture of the organization.

4. Reward systems—contribute to high performance by encouraging people to strive for objectives that support the organization's overall goals. These systems include the performance measures by which employees are assessed, the methods of measuring performance, and the incentive pay and other rewards linked to success. HRM plays an important role in developing and administering reward systems.

5. Information systems—are the final element of high-performance work systems. Managers make decisions about the types of information to gather and the sources of information. They also must decide who in the organization should have access to the information and how they will make the information available. HR departments take advantage of this technology to give employees access to information about benefits, training opportunities, job openings, and more.

65) Short Answer

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A learning organization refers to an organization that supports lifelong learning by enabling all employees to acquire and share knowledge.

It has the following key features: 1. It engages in continuous learning, which is each employee's and each group's ongoing efforts to gather information and apply the information to their decisions.

2. Knowledge is shared.

3. Critical, systematic thinking is widespread.

4. The organization has a learning culture—a culture in which learning is rewarded, promoted, and supported by managers and organizational objectives.

5. Employees are valued.

66) Short Answer

The two types of employee turnover are: 1. Voluntary turnover—turnover initiated by employees (often when the organization would prefer to keep them).

Associated costs include: • Recruiting, selecting, and training replacements • Lost productivity • Loss of talented employees 2. Involuntary turnover—turnover initiated by an employer (often with employees who would prefer to stay).

Associated costs include: • Recruiting, selecting, and training replacements • Lost productivity • Lawsuits • Workplace violence 67) Short Answer

Examples of “just cause” for dismissal that are considered serious violations of the employment relationship are dishonesty, willful disobedience to a supervisor, failure to comply with known policies or procedures, and failing to meet performance requirements 68) Short Answer

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An HRM audit is a formal review of the outcomes of HRM functions. To conduct the audit, the HR department identifies key functions and the key measures of business performance and customer satisfaction that would indicate each function is succeeding. These functions could include staffing, compensation, benefits, training, appraisal and development, and overall effectiveness. After identifying performance measures for the audit, the staff carries out the audit by gathering information. The information for the key business indicators is usually available in the organization's documents. However, sometimes the HR department has to create new documents for gathering specific types of data. The usual way to measure customer satisfaction is to conduct surveys, such as the employee attitude survey. Many organizations conduct surveys of top executives to get a better view of how HRM practices affect the organization's business success. To benefit from the HR profession's best practices, companies also may invite external auditing teams to audit specific HR functions.

69) Short Answer

1. Transaction processing—refers to computations and calculations involved in reviewing and documenting HRM decisions and practices. It includes documenting decisions and actions associated with employee relocation, training expenses, and enrolments in courses and benefits.

Transaction processing may also include the activities required to meet government reporting requirements, such as filling out employment equity reports on which employers report information about employment equity group participation rates.

2. Decision support systems—computer software systems designed to help managers solve problems by showing how results vary when the manager alters assumptions or data. They usually include a "what if?" feature that managers can use to enter different assumptions or data and see how the likely outcomes will change. For example, this type of system can help managers make decisions for workforce planning and succession planning.

3. Expert systems—computer systems that support decision making by incorporating the decision rules used by people who are considered to have expertise in a certain area. An expert system is designed to recommend the same actions that a human expert would take in a similar situation. An expert system helps avoid the errors that can result from fatigue and decisionmaking biases and can increase efficiencies by enabling fewer or less-skilled employees to do work that otherwise would require many highly skilled employees.

70) Short Answer

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Expert systems are computer systems that incorporate the decision rules used by people who are considered to have expertise in a certain area. The systems help users make decisions by recommending actions based on the decision rules and the information provided by the users.

An expert system is designed to recommend the same actions that a human expert would in a similar situation. i. Expert systems can deliver both high quality and lower costs. By using the decision processes of experts, an expert system helps many people to arrive at decisions that reflect the expert’s knowledge. ii. An expert system helps avoid the errors than can result from fatigue and decision-making biases, such as biases in appraising employee performance. iii. An expert system can increase efficiency by enabling fewer or less-skilled employees to do work that otherwise would require many highly skilled employees.

71) Short Answer

HR professionals will need four basic competencies: 1. Business competence—knowing the company's business and understanding its financial capacity.

2. Professional-technical knowledge—of state-of-the-art HRM practices in areas such as staffing, development, performance feedback, rewards, organizational design, and communication.

3. Management of change processes—skilled in diagnosing opportunities and problems, implementing organizational changes, and evaluating results.

4. Integration competence—the ability to integrate the three other competencies to increase the company's value. Requires seeing how all the functions within HR fit together

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