Test Bank for Hole's Human Anatomy & Physiology 16th Edition By Charles Welsh Chapter 1-24

Test Bank for Hole' s Human Anatomy & Physiology 16th Edition By Charles Welsh chapter 1 -24 Chapter 1-24 Answer are the at end of Each chapter Chapter 1 Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Paired organs that are bilateral, on the left and right side of the body, would be separated by a midsagittal section. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2) The field of medicine arose as early healers abandoned superstitions and ideas about magic

and started using natural chemicals and wondering why they were effective at treating illness. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3) Cadaver dissection is against the law in the United States. ⊚ true ⊚ false 4) The anatomy of a body part is closely related to its physiology. ⊚ true ⊚ false 5) We know all there is to know about the structure and function of the human body. ⊚ true ⊚ false 6) Cells with similar functions aggregate into organelles. ⊚ true ⊚ false

7) Macromolecules are built of atoms. ⊚ true ⊚ false 8) Organ systems consist of organs, which consist of tissues. ⊚ true ⊚ false 9) A cell is the basic unit of structure and function of an organism. ⊚ true ⊚ false 10) Absorption is the ability to exhale carbon dioxide. ⊚ true ⊚ false 11) Reproduction is the change in body characteristics over time. ⊚ true ⊚ false 12) Temperature is a form of energy, whereas heat is a measurement of the intensity of the

temperature. ⊚ true ⊚ false 13) Homeostasis is the maintenance of an unstable internal environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false 14) The maintenance of a steady body temperature in the face of fluctuating environmental

conditions illustrates homeostasis. ⊚ true ⊚ false 15) The diaphragm separates the thoracic and the abdominopelvic cavities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

16) The parietal pericardium is attached to the surface of the heart. ⊚ true ⊚ false 17) The organ systems responsible for integration and coordination are the nervous and

endocrine systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 18) Kidneys are part of the lymphatic system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 19) The muscular system is responsible for body movements, maintenance of posture, and

production of body heat. ⊚ true ⊚ false 20) The digestive system filters wastes from the blood. ⊚ true ⊚ false 21) Aging begins in the fetus. ⊚ true ⊚ false 22) Chromosomes get longer as a cell ages. ⊚ true ⊚ false 23) Ceroid pigments and lipofuscin accumulate with aging, impairing the ability of a cell to

withstand the damaging effects of oxygen free radicals. ⊚ true ⊚ false 24) The ears are lateral to the eyes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

25) The elbow is distal to the wrist. ⊚ true ⊚ false 26) A body in the anatomical position is lying down, as a cadaver would be positioned. ⊚ true ⊚ false 27) The following list accurately represents levels of organization in the body from smallest to

largest: nucleus → chromosome → liver cell→ liver epithelial tissue → liver→ digestive system ⊚ true ⊚ false 28) The head is superior to the neck. ⊚ true ⊚ false 29) An older adult would be less vulnerable to emerging influenzas and other seasonal viruses

due to increased cell efficiency and heightened cell division. ⊚ true ⊚ false 30) A researcher has questions about the functions of the greater omentum, a structure found in

the abdominal cavity. They begin researching its various functions. This researcher is studying the physiology of the organ. ⊚ true ⊚ false 31) A researcher has questions about the structure of the mesentery, a tissue connecting the

intestines to the wall of the abdominal cavity. They begin researching its location, components, and its specific structures. This researcher is studying the physiology of the organ. ⊚ true ⊚ false 32) The integumentary system is superficial to the skeletal system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question.

33) Which of the following are signs of aging at the cellular level? (Check all that apply) A) B) C) D)

Graying hair, waning strength, and wrinkles.

Unrepaired DNA and abnormal proteins.

Impaired cell division and the ability to break down and recycle worn cell parts.

A fatty liver and clogged blood vessels.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

34) An investigator who conducts an experiment to determine how temperature changes affect the rate at which the heart beats is most likely a(n) __________.

A) anatomist B) physiologist C) chemist D) biochemist 35) Why are the topics of anatomy and physiology difficult to separate?

A) Physiological functions depend on anatomy of structures.

B) Physiological functions in an organism are ongoing.

C) The body parts take up space.

D) Our understanding of physiology is changing more than our understanding of

anatomy.

36) The activities of an anatomist consist of __________, whereas those of a physiologist consist

of __________.

A) observing body parts; studying functions of body parts B) conducting experiments; making microscopic examinations C) studying molecules; observing forms of the body parts D) sketching; dissecting 37) What is the origin of the term "anatomy"?

A) From the Greek word for "function".

B) Named after the first anatomist.

C) From the Greek word for "cutting up".

D) For the function of internal organs.

38) What is the term "physiology" is related to?

A) The Latin word for "physical shape".

B) The structure of internal organs.

C) The Greek word for "cutting up".

D) The Greek word for "relationship to nature".

39) What is illustrated by the recent discovery of taste receptors in the small intestine that detect

sweetness?

A) Chemical responses occur in only one part of the body.

B) New discoveries about anatomy and physiology are still being made.

C) Everything there is to know about anatomy and physiology has been discovered.

D) The molecular and cellular levels are of little interest in anatomy and physiology.

40) Which of the following is not true of organelles?

A) They carry on specific activities.

B) They are only in cells of humans.

C) They are composed of aggregates of large molecules.

D) They are found in many types of cells.

41) Which of the following lists best illustrates increasing levels of complexity?

A) Cells, tissues, organelles, organs, organ systems.

B) Tissues, cells, organs, organelles, organ systems.

C) Organs, organelles, organ systems, cells, tissues.

D) Organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems.

42) In all organisms, what is the basic unit of structure and function?

A) The atom B) The organelle C) The macromolecule D) The cell 43) Specialized cell types organized in a way that provides a specific function form __________.

A) tissues B) organs C) organ systems D) organelles

44) Simple squamous epithelium is an example of which organizational level?

A) Organ system B) Organ C) Tissue D) Molecule 45) What is assimilation?

A) The changing of absorbed substances into different chemical forms.

B) The breaking down of foods into nutrients that the body can absorb.

C) The elimination of waste from the body.

D) The increase in body size without a change in overall shape.

46) The ability of an organism to sense and react to changes in its body is an example of

__________.

A) circulation B) respiration C) responsiveness D) absorption 47) What process is defined as the removal of wastes?

A) Metabolism B) Absorption C) Assimilation D) Excretion 48) Which of the following characteristics of life and their descriptions is correct?

A) Responsiveness: obtaining and using oxygen to release energy from food.

B) Assimilation: sensing changes inside or outside the body and reacting to them.

C) Respiration: changing absorbed substances into forms that are chemically different

from those that entered the body fluids.

D) Circulation: the movement of substances in body fluids.

49) What is the definition of metabolism?

A) The removal of wastes produced by chemical reactions.

B) The breakdown of substances into simpler forms.

C) The taking in of nutrients.

D) The chemical reactions occurring in an organism that support life.

50) Which of the following processes does not help to maintain the life of an individual

organism?

A) Responsiveness B) Movement C) Reproduction D) Respiration 51) Which of the following processes is most important to the continuation of the human

species?

A) Responsiveness B) Movement C) Reproduction D) Respiration 52) What is the definition of homeostasis?

A) The changing external conditions.

B) The maintenance of stable external conditions.

C) The changing internal conditions.

D) The maintenance of stable internal conditions.

53) Which of the following is an example of a positive homeostatic mechanism in the human

body?

A) B) C) D)

Shivering when body temperature falls below normal.

Increasing heart rate and force of contraction when blood pressure falls.

Retention of fluid leading to retention of more fluid.

Secreting insulin after a meal to return blood sugar concentration toward normal.

54) Which of the following are typically required to maintain a stable internal environment?

A) Positive feedback mechanisms.

B) An unstable outside environment.

C) Decreased atmospheric pressure.

D) Negative feedback mechanisms.

You accidentally cut your hand. Blood platelets in the area begin to attach to the broken blood vessel walls in the wound. What needs to happen next to create a positive feedback mechanism?

E) The platelets change shape and encourage more platelets to rush in and stick to each

other to form plugs that seal the broken vessels.

F) The platelets sticking to the broken blood vessels signals the blood to stop flowing to that area, which stops the bleeding.

G) The sensation of pain in your hand causes your muscles to jerk your hand away from the danger.

H) The platelets send signals to the brain to slow heart rate and slow the bleeding.

55) Which of the following must the human body obtain from the environment in order to

survive?

A) Nitrogen B) Wastes C) Water D) Carbon dioxide 56) Homeostasis exists if concentrations of water, nutrients, and oxygen in the body are balanced

and heat and pressure __________.

A) decrease steadily B) remain within certain limited ranges C) increase when the body is stressed D) fluctuate greatly between very high and low values 57) In negative feedback mechanisms, what occurs due to changes that move a variable away

from the normal state?

A) Stimulation to change the variable in the same direction.

B) Inhibition of all body reactions.

C) Stimulation to change the variable in the opposite direction.

D) Stimulation to reduce all requirements of the body.

58) What is the effect of a positive feedback mechanism?

A) It causes long-term changes.

B) It moves conditions away from the normal state.

C) It brings conditions back to the normal state.

D) It produces stable conditions.

59) Which of the following illustrates a positive feedback mechanism?

A) Maintenance of blood pressure.

B) Uterine contractions during childbirth.

C) Body temperature control.

D) Control of blood sugar.

60) Which of the following is true regarding the effect of a positive feedback mechanisms?

A) They are the primary means of maintaining homeostasis.

B) They stabilize conditions.

C) They cause unstable conditions, at least temporarily.

D) They maintain the internal environment.

E) They move conditions toward a setpoint.

61) Which of the following diseases would originate in the abdominopelvic cavity?

A) Asthma B) Laryngitis C) Myopia (near-sightedness) D) Pancreatitis 62) Pneumothorax (collapsed lung) is a condition that occurs when an air-filled space forms

between the lung and the wall of the pleural cavity. This space would be between the __________.

A) B) C) D)

parietal pleura and visceral pleura parietal pleura and visceral pericardium visceral pericardium and parietal pericardium parietal pericardium and parietal pleura

63) What is a main function of the digestive system?

A) Formation of cells B) Movement of body parts C) Absorption of nutrients D) Providing oxygen for the extraction of energy from nutrients.

64) Which of the following is not part of the female reproductive system?

A) The uterus B) The uterine tube C) The vulva D) The scrotum 65) The thoracic cavity is __________ to the abdominopelvic cavity.

A) dorsal (posterior) B) ventral (anterior) C) superior D) inferior

66) Blood cells are produced in the organs of the __________ system.

A) endocrine B) skeletal C) respiratory D) muscular 67) A parietal layer of a serous membrane __________, whereas a visceral layer of a serous

membrane __________.

A) covers organs; lines cavities B) lines cavities; covers organs C) secretes serous fluid; secretes mucus D) secretes mucus; secretes a serous fluid 68) When does cell death first occur?

A) Around age 60 B) Around age 50 C) At puberty D) During fetal development 69) What causes wrinkling and sagging of the skin?

A) Drinking too much water B) Genetics C) Loss of subcutaneous fat, elastin, and collagen.

D) Excess subcutaneous fat 70) What is a characteristic that many centenarians share?

A) They had high level of exercise throughout life.

B) They have long-lived relatives.

C) They follow the Mediterranean diet.

D) They never smoked.

71) A body has been sectioned in such a way that both lungs and the urinary bladder are visible.

What type of section was used?

A) Frontal B) Transverse C) Oblique D) Sagittal

72) The upper midportion of the abdomen is called the __________region.

A) hypochondriac B) iliac C) hypogastric D) epigastric 73) When the body is placed in the anatomical position, which of the following is not true?

A) The head is facing to the front.

B) The palms are facing backwards.

C) The body is erect.

D) The upper limbs are at the sides.

74) What is the anatomical term that indicates a structure close to the surface?

A) Anterior B) Proximal C) Superficial D) Superior 75) What type of structures can be visualized using ultrasonography?

A) Dense organs, such as bones.

B) Air-filled organs, such as lungs.

C) Soft internal structures, such as fetuses.

D) Microscopic structures, such as mitochondria.

76) Magnetic resonance imaging uses __________.

A) X-rays B) radio waves C) radioisotopes D) high-frequency sound waves 77) What is/are the origin(s) of many of the terms in anatomy and physiology?

A) Greek and Latin B) Spanish and Portuguese C) French and German D) Chinese and Japanese

78) At what level of organization is skin?

A) Tissue level B) Cellular level C) Organ level D) System level E) Chemical level 79) What requirement of life is the most abundant chemical in the body and is the major

component of extracellular fluid?

A) Water B) Oxygen C) Cell D) Heat E) Food 80) Name two types of cavities found in the head.

A) Paranasal sinuses and nasal cavity B) Oral cavity and mediastinum C) Cranial cavity and vertebral canal D) Middle ear cavities and pleural cavities 81) What organ system includes the kidneys?

A) Respiratory system B) Digestive system C) Endocrine system D) Urinary system 82) The pancreas releases hormones. It also releases enzymes needed to break down food.

Because of this dual role, the pancreas could be considered part of what two organ systems?

A) Nervous and digestive systems B) Cardiovascular and lymphatic systems C) Endocrine and digestive systems D) Urinary and endocrine systems E) Lymphatic and integumentary systems

83) Bell's palsy results in the lack of stimulation to facial muscles, so they do not contact. Bell's

palsy is associated with what organ system?

A) Nervous system B) Endocrine system C) Skeletal system D) Integumentary system 84) Which is a physiological description rather than an anatomical one?

A) Heart muscle is under involuntary control and is fatigue-resistance.

B) The skin is composed of an epithelial layer over a connective tissue layer.

C) The quadriceps femoris and hamstring muscles are located in the thigh.

D) The aorta is a large vessel connected to the heart.

85) The femoral region is ________ to the popliteal region.

A) distal B) medial C) proximal D) lateral

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

86) Dissection of human bodies became part of formal medical school coursework in the __________ century.

87) The branch of science that deals with the structure of human body parts is called _________.

88) The branch of science that deals with the functions of human body parts is called

__________.

89) A group of cells with common properties that are organized into a layer or mass is called a(n)

__________.

90) A subcellular structure built of assemblies of macromolecules that carries out a particular

function is a(n) __________.

91) The process by which food substances are chemically changed into simpler forms that can be

absorbed is called __________.

92) The term __________ refers to an increase in body size without overall change in shape.

93) The most abundant molecule in the human body is __________.

94) Self-regulating control mechanisms usually operate by a process called __________

feedback.

95) The potential space between the __________ membranes is called the pleural cavity.

96) The chemicals secreted by endocrine glands are called __________.

97) Deep vein thrombosis, heart attack, and high blood pressure are all diseases of the

__________ system.

98) Individuals who live more than 100 years are called __________.

99) Standing erect with face and palms forward and upper limbs at the sides describes the

__________ position.

100)

A lengthwise cut that divides the body into right and left portions is termed a(n) __________ section.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) FALSE 26) FALSE 27) FALSE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) TRUE 31) FALSE 32) TRUE 33) [B, C] 34) B 35) A 36) A 37) C

38) D 39) B 40) B 41) D 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) D 49) D 50) C 51) C 52) D 53) C 54) D 55) A 56) C 57) B 58) C 59) B 60) B 61) C 62) D 63) A 64) C 65) D 66) C 67) B 68) B 69) D 70) C 71) D 72) A 73) D 74) B 75) C 76) C 77) B

78) A 79) C 80) A 81) A 82) D 83) C 84) A 85) A 86) C 87) twentieth 88) anatomy 89) physiology 90) tissue 91) organelle 92) digestion 93) growth 94) water 95) negative 96) pleural 97) hormones 98) cardiovascular 99) centenarians 100) anatomical 101) sagittal

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

101) The number of protons in an atom of an element always equals its mass number. ⊚ true ⊚ false 102)

Radioactive isotopes have stable nuclei. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103)

Sodium and chloride atoms interact with each other because they both lose electrons. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104)

The symbol Na+ represents a sodium atom that has lost an electron. ⊚ true ⊚ false

105)

Water is an example of a compound. ⊚ true ⊚ false

106)

If Ca+2 were to gain 2 electrons, it would become Ca0 and become neutral. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Two negatively charged bromide (Br-) ions exist in solution. They will be attracted to each other and form an ionic bond. ⊚ true ⊚ false

107)

108)

Chemistry is the study of the composition of matter and how matter changes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

109)

CaCl2 is dissolved in water. The chlorine that is released will be in the form of anions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

The compound H2SO4 will dissociate in water to create HSO4- and H+. The product HSO4- is a base. ⊚ true ⊚ false

110)

111)

In the reaction between HCl and Ca(OH)2, the product CaCl2 will be a salt. ⊚ true ⊚ false

112)

Chemically inert atoms always have their outermost electron shell full. ⊚ true ⊚ false

113)

An acid is an electrolyte that releases hydroxide ions (OH-) in water. ⊚ true ⊚ false

114)

A base is an electrolyte that releases ions that will then combine with hydrogen ions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

115)

An electrolyte ionizes in water. ⊚ true ⊚ false

116)

A person with alkalosis has a blood pH less than 7.3. ⊚ true ⊚ false

117)

A complex carbohydrate consists of a phosphate group attached to a sugar molecule. ⊚ true ⊚ false

118)

Cholesterol, a type of lipid, is composed of three fatty acid chains attached to glycerol. ⊚ true ⊚ false

119)

Glycogen is a complex carbohydrate that is obtained by eating plants. ⊚ true ⊚ false

120)

A phospholipid differs structurally from a triglyceride in that the phospholipid has three phosphate groups attached to the glycerol molecule rather than three fatty acid chains. ⊚ true ⊚ false

121)

Nucleic acids are composed of building blocks called amino acids. ⊚ true ⊚ false

122)

A protein is formed by a sequence of amino acids. ⊚ true ⊚ false

123)

Proteins contain the code for the production of nucleic acids. ⊚ true ⊚ false

124)

DNA and RNA are nucleic acids. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

125) Matter is composed of elements which, in turn, are composed of _________.

A) atoms B) inorganic molecules C) organic molecules D) chemicals 126)

The atomic number of an atom equals the number of __________, and the mass number equals the __________.

A) weight of all electrons; number of protons plus neutrons B) number of protons; weight of all the electrons C) number of neutrons plus protons; number of electrons D) number of protons; number of protons plus neutrons

127)

What occurs to form a covalent bond?

A) One atom loses electrons and another atom gains electrons.

B) Atoms share one or more pairs of electrons.

C) Oppositely charged atoms are attracted to one another.

D) Like-charged atoms repel each other.

128)

What occurs to form an ionic bond?

A) Each atom gains electrons.

B) Atoms share a pair or more of electrons.

C) Oppositely charged atoms are attracted to each other.

D) Like-charged atoms repel each other.

129)

Sodium ions and calcium ions are examples of what type of particle?

A) Cations B) Uncharged particles C) Anions D) Salts

130)

The bond that forms between K+ and Cl- is a(n) __________.

A) nonpolar covalent bond B) ionic bond C) hydrogen bond D) polar covalent bond

131)

What happens to the ionic compound NaCl when placed in water?

A) A new covalent bond will form between Na and Cl. + B) NaCl will dissociate into Na and Cl ions.

C) Na and Cl will each form a covalent bond with a water molecule.

D) The bond between Na and Cl will become a hydrogen bond.

132)

What is the maximum number of hydrogen atoms a free carbon atom may bond with?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8

133)

How does one isotope of a particular element differ from another of the same element?

A) The isotopes have different numbers of protons.

B) The isotopes have different atomic numbers.

C) The isotopes have different numbers of electrons.

D) The isotopes have different mass numbers.

134)

Which of the following pairs of atoms are isotopes of each other?

A) Atom A with 6 protons and 6 neutrons; atom B with 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

B) Atom A with 6 protons and 6 neutrons; atom B with 7 protons and 6 neutrons.

C) Atom A with 6 protons and 6 neutrons; atom B with 7 protons and 7 neutrons.

135)

Which statement correctly describes radioactive isotopes?

A) They are stable and can participate in chemical bonding.

B) They are unstable and will decompose, releasing energy.

C) They are stable and will decompose, releasing energy.

D) They are unstable, but can become stable by bonding with other isotopes.

136)

What type of atomic radiation will most deeply penetrate matter?

A) Alpha radiation B) Beta radiation C) Gamma radiation

137)

Because the ways that atoms interact is due to their number of __________, isotopes of an atom chemically react in the same manner.

A) electrons B) neutrons C) protons

138)

139)

The type of radiation that removes electrons from atoms is called __________ radiation.

A) ionizing B) radicalizing C) energizing D) fusion

How does a computerized tomography (CT) scan differ from a conventional X-ray image?

A) The CT scan is two-dimensional.

B) The CT scan is three-dimensional.

C) The CT scan is four-dimensional.

D) The CT scan is safer.

140)

Positron emission tomography (PET) imaging relies upon the emission of __________ from radioactive isotopes such as carbon-11.

A) positively charged electrons B) negatively charged electrons C) positively charged neutrons D) protons

141)

Chemistry is the branch of science that studies __________.

A) the composition, properties, and interactions of matter B) the function of organs within the body C) the structure of the organs of the body D) the location of organs in body cavities

142)

In order to understand how digestion of nutrients occurs, or how nutrients are used to provide cellular energy, it is necessary to understand __________.

A) chemistry B) anatomy C) radioactivity D) cytology

143)

Which of the following is an element?

A) Iron B) Water C) Sodium chloride D) Glucose

144)

What group of elements accounts for more than 95% of the human body by weight?

A) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen.

B) Calcium, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen.

C) Carbon, phosphorus, oxygen, hydrogen.

D) Calcium, phosphorus, hydrogen, nitrogen.

145)

How do the atoms of different elements differ from one another?

A) They have the same atomic numbers and the same mass numbers.

B) They have the same atomic numbers but different mass numbers.

C) They have different atomic numbers and different mass numbers.

D) They have different atomic numbers but the same number of electrons.

146)

How do isotopes of a particular element compare to each other?

A) They have the same atomic number and same mass number.

B) They have the same atomic number but different mass numbers.

C) They have different atomic numbers but the same mass number.

D) They have different atomic numbers and different mass numbers.

147)

What particles are located in the nucleus of an atom?

A) Protons and neutrons B) Protons and electrons C) Electrons and neutrons D) Neutrons, electrons, and protons

148)

What is the mass number of an element whose atoms contain eight protons, eight electrons, and eight neutrons?

A) 8 B) 16 C) 24 D) 32

149)

How do the atoms of isotopes of a particular element vary?

A) They have differing numbers of electrons.

B) They have differing numbers of protons.

C) They have differing numbers of neutrons.

D) They have differing number of nuclei.

150)

The first electron shell of an atom can hold a maximum of __________ electrons.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8

151)

An atom has a full innermost shell and three electrons in its second shell. What would happen when this atom forms a chemical bond?

A) It will lose three electrons from its second shell.

B) It will lose all of the electrons from its innermost shell.

C) It will lose all of the electrons from both its innermost and second shells.

D) It will gain five electrons in its second shell.

152)

What is the chemical formula H2O referring to?

A) An atom with two hydrogen molecules and one oxygen molecule.

B) An atom with one hydrogen molecule and two oxygen molecules.

C) A molecule that contains two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom.

D) A molecule that contains one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms.

153)

Which of the following best describes the reaction H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 ?

A) Decomposition reaction B) Exchange reaction C) Reversible reaction D) Synthesis reaction

154)

A solution that contains equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is described as being __________.

A) acidic B) basic C) alkaline D) neutral When placed in a solution, the compound HNO3 dissociates into H+ and NO3-. The compound HNO3 must be a(n) __________.

A) salt B) nucleotide C) acid D) monosaccharide

155)

156)

The difference in hydrogen ion concentration between solutions with pH 4 and pH 5 is __________.

A) two-fold B) five-fold C) ten-fold D) hundred-fold

157)

Which of the following best describes the reaction NaNO3 + HCl → HNO3 + NaCl? A) Decomposition reaction B) Exchange reaction C) Reversible reaction D) Synthesis reaction

158)

Consider the following list of commonly found items and their pH values: Baking Soda (8.3), Battery Acid (1.0), Beer (4.2), Bleach (12.8), Butter (6.1–6.4), Coffee (5.0), Egg Whites (7.6–8.0), Grapes (3.5–4.5), Milk of Magnesia (10.6), Tomato (4.0–4.5), Vinegar (2.2), White Bread (5.0–6.0) Which list includes only acids?

A) Egg whites, baking soda, milk of magnesia, and bleach.

B) Tomatoes, egg whites, and baking soda.

C) Vinegar, grapes, tomatoes, and coffee.

D) Beer, butter, and baking soda.

159)

What are electrolytes?

A) Compounds that form covalent bonds with water.

B) Compounds that ionize in water.

C) Compounds that alter pH of the solution they are in electrolytes.

D) Compounds that release radioactive radiation.

160)

What is measured by the pH scale?

A) Concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.

B) Concentration of salts dissolved in a solution.

C) Concentration of hydroxide ions in a solution.

D) Strength of an electrical current that a solution can carry.

161)

What is the most abundant inorganic substance in the body?

A) Glucose B) Water C) Lipid D) DNA

162)

A blood pH of __________ is called alkalemia.

A) 6.5 - 7.0 B) 7.0- 7.2 C) 7.2 - 7.5 D) 7.5 - 7.8

163)

Why is a complete atom considered to be electrically neutral?

A) Because the number of protons equals the number of neutrons.

B) Because the number of electrons equals the number of neutrons.

C) Because the number of electrons equals the number of protons.

D) Because the number of electrons is greater than the number of protons.

164)

When are synthesis reactions particularly important in the body?

A) During the release of energy from nutrients.

B) For the digestion of food products.

C) For the growth of body parts.

D) During the neutralization of acids by buffers.

165)

Which of the following is true regarding the pH scale?

A) Each whole number on the scale represents a two-fold difference in hydrogen ion concentration.

B) The lower the whole number on the scale, the greater the H+ concentration.

C) Values above 7 are acidic.

D) A substance of pH 2 is more basic than a substance of pH 4.

166)

When an acid and a base interact during a chemical reaction to produce water and a salt, a type of reaction called a(n) __________ reaction has occurred.

A) synthesis B) decomposition C) exchange Consider this reaction: HBr + NaOH → NaBr + H2O. The product NaBr is a(n) __________.

A) buffer B) salt C) solvent D) acid

167)

168)

A substance that has been added to a protein sample does not alter the composition or amino acid sequence of the protein itself, but changes its three-dimensional structure. What term describes this effect?

A) Decomposition B) Denaturation C) Exchange reaction D) Neutralization

169)

What is the role of oxygen in the body?

A) Reacts with water to form carbonic acid.

B) Used to release energy from nutrient molecules.

C) Functions as a major electrolyte.

D) Produced as a waste product of celluluar metabolism.

170)

What statement describes carbohydrates?

A) They contain C, H, O, with twice as many hydrogen as oxygen atoms.

B) They are not water soluble, but are lipid soluble.

C) They include enzymes, antibodies, and membrane receptor molecules.

D) Some will contain nitrogen and phosphate.

171)

What type of molecule has a molecular formula of C6H12O6?

A) Monosaccharide B) Amino acid C) Polysaccharide D) Phospholipid

172)

What statement describes lipids?

A) They are insoluble in water.

B) They contain abundant amounts of nitrogen and sulfur.

C) They have equal numbers of hydrogen and oxygen atoms.

D) They include starch, cellulose, and sucrose.

173)

Collagen is a protein with a coiled (helical) conformation. When it is exposed to high temperature, it becomes straight and flat. Its primary structure is not altered by the temperature change. What happened to cause the molecule to flatten?

A) Bonds between carbon and oxygen were broken.

B) Hydrogen bonds were broken.

C) Peptide bonds were broken.

D) Peptide bonds were formed.

174)

Which of the following is not an organic compound?

A) Sodium chloride B) Cholesterol C) DNA D) The enzyme phosphodiesterase

175)

Lard, a fat that is solid at room temperature, will have __________ than peanut oil.

A) more oxygen atoms B) more glycerol groups C) more single carbon-carbon bonds D) fewer hydrogen atoms bonded to carbon atoms

176)

What statement describes proteins?

A) Proteins provide most of the energy used by cells.

B) The shape of proteins molecules are critical to their function.

C) Proteins are built of long carbon chains with specialized chemical groups at either end of the chains.

D) Proteins are not water soluble.

177)

Amylase is an enzyme that promotes the breakdown of starches during digestion. Which of the following describes the method by which amylase functions?

A) It catalyzes starch breakdown without being changed or depleted.

B) It functions as a hormone that signals for starch breakdown to begin.

C) It inhibits chemical reactions by being changed or depleted by the starch.

D) It changes its composition in order to break starch down itself.

178)

How is a protein molecule changed when it is denatured?

A) Its primary and secondary structures are altered.

B) Its secondary and tertiary structures are altered.

C) Its amino acid sequence and the secondary structure is altered.

D) Its tertiary and quaternary structures are altered.

179)

What statement describes DNA? A) It is assembled out of subunits containing a sugar group and a phosphate group.

B) It is assembled out of subunits called amino acids.

C) It is a major source of cellular energy.

D) It is important in forming the structure of cells.

180)

What are nucleic acids?

A) Inorganic salts B) Molecules that act as enzymes.

C) Molecules comprised of nucleotides.

D) Primary sources of cellular energy.

181)

Nitrogenous bases are components of what type of molecule?

A) Nucleic acids B) Proteins C) Carbohydrates D) Lipids

182)

An individual with the condition called phenylketonuria cannot break down the amino acid phenylalanine. Molecules that include phenylalanine will build up in the blood, potentially causing intellectual disability and other symptoms. This inherited disease can be controlled by following a diet that is very low in __________.

A) carbohydrates B) cholesterol C) protein D) nucleic acids

183)

The breakdown of table sugar (sucrose) into glucose and fructose is an example of a(n) __________ reaction.

A) synthesis B) decomposition C) neutralization D) exchange

184)

Nucleic acids include __________.

A) proteins and DNA B) RNA and DNA C) enzymes and RNA D) steroids and triglycerides

185)

How do DNA and RNA differ?

A) DNA contains ribose and RNA contains deoxyribose.

B) DNA is single-stranded and RNA is double-stranded.

C) DNA codes for genetic information and RNA uses that information to synthesize protein.

D) DNA is comprised of nucleotides and RNA is comprised of amino acids.

186)

What type of organic molecule can undergo replication?

A) Protein B) Lipid C) Carbohydrate D) Nucleic acid

187)

What does the term conformation refer to?

A) The three-dimensional shape of a molecule.

B) The energy held in the bonds of an organic molecule.

C) The ability of DNA to copy itself.

D) The amino acid sequence of a protein.

188)

How are organic compounds different from inorganic compounds?

A) Organic compounds always contain both carbon and hydrogen.

B) Organic compounds always contain both oxygen and nitrogen.

C) Organic compounds always contain both carbon and oxygen.

D) Organic compounds always contain both nitrogen and hydrogen.

189)

Which of these is a monosaccharide?

A) Glucose B) Starch C) Cellulose D) Sucrose

190)

Name the polysachharide synthesized by human cells and stored in the liver and skeletal muscles.

A) Glucose B) Glycogen C) Sucrose D) Lactose

191)

What building blocks form triglycerides?

A) Three glycerol groups and one fatty acid.

B) Three glucose molecules.

C) Three fatty acids and three phosphate groups.

D) Three fatty acids and one glycerol.

192)

Which compound is not soluble in water?

A) Albumin B) Cholesterol C) Sucrose D) DNA

193)

Which molecule does not have a polar region?

A) Water B) Triglyceride C) Water-soluble amino acid D) Glucose

194)

How does an atom of helium differ from an atom of lithium?

A) One has two protons, and one has three.

B) One is organic and one is inorganic.

C) One is polar and one is not.

D) One is a molecule and one is a compound.

195)

Chemical bonding occurs because of interactions between the __________ of atoms.

A) electrons B) nuclei C) protons D) neutrons

196)

The chemical bond called a(n) __________ bond involves the unequal sharing of electrons between two atoms.

A) polar covalent B) nonpolar covalent C) ionic D) hydrogen

197)

If helium (He) were to gain a proton, what would it become?

A) He+ − B) He C) Helium-3 D) Lithium

198)

A patient’s blood test shows that their blood pH is 7.26. What is the term for this condition?

A) Alkalosis B) Acidosis

199)

Complete ribosomes, found within cells of the body, are formed by the association between different protein subunits. Each complete ribosome represents the __________ of this organelle.

A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure D) quaternary structure

200)

Consider the following list of commonly found items and their pH values:

Stomach acid (2.0), tomato juice (4.2), cabbage (5.3), cow's milk (6.6), egg white (8.0), baking soda (8.4), milk of magnesia (10.5), bleach (12.8) Which of the following is closest to the pH of distilled water?

A) Tomato juice B) Baking soda C) Egg white D) Cow's milk 201)

Consider the following list of commonly found items and their pH values:

Battery acid (1.0), vinegar (2.2), grapes (3.5–4.5), tomato (4.0–4.5), beer (4.2), coffee (5.0), white bread (5.0–6.0), butter (6.1–6.4), egg whites (7.6–8.0), baking soda (8.3), milk of magnesia (10.6), bleach (12.8) Based on your knowledge of acid and base reactions, which of the following would be most likely to react with a base to form a salt?

A) Bleach B) Battery acid C) Coffee D) Egg whites FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

202) When atoms form chemical bonds, the particles that interact to form the bonds are the __________.

203)

The opposite of a decomposition reaction is a(n) _________ reaction.

204)

The value along that pH scale that indicates an equal number of hydrogen ions and hydroxyl ions in solution is __________.

205)

Based on their pH of 3.8, apricots are classified as being __________.

206)

Amino acids are the building blocks for __________.

207)

The amino acid sequence of a protein makes up its __________ structure.

208)

Chemical groups called __________ are the building blocks of nucleic acids.

209)

The organic molecule called __________ has the unique ability to replicate itself.

For the element iron (Fe), a change from Fe2+ to Fe3+ would require a change in the number of __________.

210)

211)

The difference between carbon-13 and carbon-14 is their number of __________.

212)

The type of chemical bond formed when ions with opposite electrical charges attract is a(n) __________ bond.

213)

The particle formed when two or more atoms chemically bond together is a(n) __________.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) FALSE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) TRUE 25) A 26) D 27) B 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) B 32) C 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) A

38) A 39) B 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) C 50) B 51) A 52) C 53) A 54) D 55) C 56) C 57) B 58) C 59) B 60) A 61) B 62) D 63) C 64) C 65) B 66) C 67) B 68) B 69) B 70) A 71) A 72) A 73) B 74) A 75) C 76) B 77) A

78) B 79) A 80) C 81) A 82) C 83) B 84) B 85) C 86) D 87) A 88) A 89) A 90) B 91) D 92) B 93) B 94) A 95) A 96) A 97) D 98) B 99) D 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108) 109) 110) 111) 112) 113)

D B electrons synthesis 7 acidic protein primary nucleotides DNA electrons neutrons ionic molecule

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

214) Cytoplasm is located between the cell membrane and the nuclear envelope. ⊚ true ⊚ false 215)

The framework of a cell membrane is a lipid bilayer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

216)

Energy is stored in ATP molecules in ribosomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

217)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum does not. ⊚ true ⊚ false

218)

Peroxisomes and lysosomes are sacs that contain enzymes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

219)

The Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum take part in secretion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

220)

Cilia and flagella extend from certain human cells, enabling them to move. ⊚ true ⊚ false

221)

A cell that secretes abundant amount of proteins would have many nucleoli. ⊚ true ⊚ false

If a nerve cell has a greater concentration of Na+ on the outside of the cell membrane compared to inside, then the movement of Na+ towards the outside of the cell is by diffusion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

222)

223)

Facilitated diffusion moves a substance following its concentration gradient, with the aid of a carrier protein. ⊚ true ⊚ false

224)

Active transport uses energy provided by ATP molecules. ⊚ true ⊚ false

225)

Proteins are manufactured in mitochondria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

226)

Microfilaments and microtubules are part of the cytoskeleton. ⊚ true ⊚ false

227)

Chromatin consists of DNA and protein. ⊚ true ⊚ false

228)

The nucleus is in the nucleolus. ⊚ true ⊚ false

229)

Certain white blood cells take in bacteria by phagocytosis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

230)

Filtration requires hydrostatic pressure. ⊚ true ⊚ false

231)

Transcytosis combines diffusion and active transport. ⊚ true ⊚ false

232)

During interphase, a cell rests. ⊚ true ⊚ false

233)

The correct sequence of the stages of the cell cycle are interphase, mitosis, cytoplasmic division, and differentiation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

234)

Cell division consists of mitosis and cell differentiation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

235)

During metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes first condense and can be seen when stained and viewed under a microscope. ⊚ true ⊚ false

236)

During anaphase of mitosis, centromeres and replicated chromosomes separate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

237)

During telophase of mitosis, chromosomes elongate and form chromatin threads. ⊚ true ⊚ false

238)

Abnormal rates of mitosis can lead to poor wound healing and delayed growth. ⊚ true ⊚ false

239)

All cell types divide at the same rate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

240)

All cell types can divide a limitless number of times. ⊚ true ⊚ false

241)

A telomere is a type of hormone that controls the cell cycle. ⊚ true ⊚ false

242)

Loss of cell cycle control can cause cancer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

243)

The process by which cells specialize is called differentiation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

244)

A stem cell divides to give rise to two differentiated cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

245)

Stem cells may be activated after an injury, helping to heal. ⊚ true ⊚ false

246)

A nerve cell and a muscle cell have the same genes, but express different subsets of them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

247)

Apoptosis is a slow version of mitosis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

248)

Apoptosis begins with a cell receiving a signal to die. ⊚ true ⊚ false

249)

Cytosol is considered extracellular fluid. ⊚ true ⊚ false

250)

Apoptosis is a normal event, whereas necrosis is not. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

251) About how many cells constitute the adult human body?

A) 50 to 100 million B) 50 to 100 billion C) 50 to 100 trillion D) 50 to 100 quadrillion 252)

The body is made up of many different cell types, from small circular red blood cells to the elongated smooth muscle cells 20X their size. Why is there such variation in size and shape?

A) Different cell sizes are due to nutritional differences.

B) Variations in size and shape allow different cell types to perform unique functions.

C) Variations in cell shape and size are due to chromosomal differences between cells.

D) Cell size and shape does not vary among cell types.

253)

What are the three major parts of a cell?

A) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, and vesicles.

B) Nucleus, nucleolus, and nuclear envelope.

C) Microtubules, ribosomes, and centrosomes.

D) Nucleus, cytoplasm, and cell membrane.

254)

A cell is surrounded by an extremely thin, flexible membrane. Why is the membrane selectively permeable?

A) It allows all substances to pass through, making it easier to absorb nutrients.

B) It allows all organic substances to pass through, but excludes all inorganic substances that could be harmful.

C) It allows some substances to pass through and excludes others based on size, polarity, and other factors.

D) It does not allow any substances to pass through as they could damage the cell.

255)

Cell membranes are described as a fluid mosaic that maintains stability while still allowing movement. What component is responsible for most of the flexibility of the membrane?

A) Phospholipid bilayer B) Integral proteins C) Polysaccharides D) Carbohydrates

256)

What are the major components of the cell membrane?

A) Lipids and carbohydrates B) Proteins and carbohydrates C) Lipids and proteins D) Carbohydrates and polysaccharides

257)

Which of the following correctly describes the structural organization of the cell membrane?

A) A solid, rigid layer of phospholipid with loosely bound protein molecules.

B) A bilayer of phospholipid molecules in which protein molecules are embedded and can move.

C) Rigid layers of protein molecules in which carbohydrate molecules are suspended.

D) Three layers; lipid on the inside, protein in the middle, and carbohydrates (and polysaccharides) on the outside.

258)

A protein that spans the cell membrane is termed a(n) __________.

A) receptor protein B) integral protein C) peripheral protein D) anchoring protein

259)

Cellular adhesion molecules are __________.

A) peripheral proteins B) integral proteins C) lipids D) receptors

260)

When you scrape your skin, white blood cells arrive to fight infection. To slow down near the site of the cut, they use selectin to provide traction. Since selectin helps white blood cells bind to a surface, what type of protein is selectin?

A) Cellular adhesion molecule B) Integral protein C) Cellular binding molecule D) Receptor

261)

What best describes endoplasmic reticulum?

A) A component of the cytoskeleton.

B) A cellular inclusion.

C) A nuclear pore.

D) A network of interconnected membranes.

262)

Buildup of incorrectly folded proteins induces a stress response known as unknown protein response (UPR). When prolonged, UPR has a high correlation with neurodegenerative diseases such as Parkinson’s. Which organelle is likely malfunctioning and allowing for the buildup?

A) Mitochondrion B) Vesicle C) Nucleus D) Lysosome

263)

Vesicles can be formed from the __________ membrane.

A) lysosomal B) nuclear C) cell D) mitochondrial

264)

Anderson’s disease results in the failure to secrete large proteins called chylomicrons.

Which organelle is most likely affected?

A) Nucleus B) Lysosome C) Vesicle D) Mitochondrion

265)

266)

Which of the following describes a lysosome?

A) A double-membraned organelle that is the "powerhouse" of the cell.

B) A complex network of interconnected membranes that is a communication system within the cell.

C) A tiny, membranous sac that contains enzymes that degrade worn cell parts and debris.

D) A nonmembranous structure that is essential for mitosis.

A young man who ran 6 miles a day throughout high school is injured during his first season running cross country in college. He must rest for three months and then gradually begin exercising again. The skeletal muscles in his lower limbs decrease in size during this prolonged period of inactivity. The organelles that break down his muscle proteins are __________.

A) peroxisomes B) lysosomes C) centrosomes D) ribosomes

267)

For which of the following organelles are the structure and function correctly described?

A) Endoplasmic reticulum: a network of interconnected membranes forming sacs and canals that packages protein molecules for secretion.

B) Ribosome: membranous vesicle containing digestive enzymes.

C) Golgi apparatus: particles composed of protein and RNA which synthesize proteins.

D) Mitochondrion: nonmembranous structure that synthesizes proteins.

268)

What is the correct sequence of organelles and cell parts involved in milk secretion?

A) Cell membrane, vesicles, Golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleus.

B) Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, vesicles, cell membrane.

C) Nucleus, nucleolus, nuclear envelope, cell membrane.

D) Vesicles, Golgi apparatus, mitochondrion, cell membrane.

269)

ATP is used to power many cellular processes. Some genetic disorders are the result of defects in ATP creation. Which organelle is likely affected in these disorders?

A) Mitochondrion B) Ribosome C) Peroxisome D) Golgi apparatus

270)

What is the main function of cristae in mitochondria?

A) To produce enzymes for reactions.

B) To increase chemical transport in mitochondria.

C) To facilitate diffusion of substances into the mitochondria.

D) To increase the surface area for chemical reactions.

271)

One function of liver cells is lipogenesis, the process of converting excess dietary carbohydrates to lipids. What organelle in the liver cell performs this function?

A) Golgi apparatus B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum D) Mitochondria

272)

What cytoskeletal structures are not found in all cell types?

A) Microtubules B) Microfilaments C) Myofibrils D) Intermediate filaments

273)

During cell division, it is likely the chromosomes will not separate properly if the centrioles fail to attach to what structure?

A) Centromeres B) Cilia C) Nucleus D) Microtubules

274)

How is DNA molecules stored in the nucleus?

A) As free molecules.

B) Complexed with protein, forming chromatin.

C) Bound via RNA to the nuclear envelope.

D) Complexed with protein on the nuclear envelope.

275)

What is found within the nucleolus?

A) DNA only B) RNA and protein C) DNA and protein D) RNA only

276)

What is the function of the nucleus?

A) To direct the activities of the cell.

B) To form mitochondria.

C) To transfer energy.

D) To provide shape to the cell.

277)

Which organelle contains the nucleolus?

A) The mitochondrion B) The endoplasmic reticulum C) The Golgi apparatus D) The nucleus

278)

Which of following does not influence the rate of molecular movement?

A) Distance B) The concentration of the substance.

C) The amount of energy available for transport molecules.

D) The molecular weight of the diffusing molecules.

279)

Salt is placed in a glass of water. Slowly the salt begins to move from one area to another area. What factor caused the movement of the salt?

A) Distance gradient B) Distance vector C) Concentration vector D) Concentration gradient

280)

What characteristic does simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion have in common?

A) Both require cellular energy for the transport of substances.

B) Both move water across a semipermeable membrane.

C) Both require a special carrier molecule to move substances across the membrane.

D) Both move a substance from a region of higher concentration to one of lower concentration without using cellular energy.

281)

What would occur if the concentration of glucose in the extracellular fluid is higher than the concentration in the intracellular fluid?

A) Water will enter the cell by osmosis.

B) Water will leave the cell by osmosis.

C) Glucose will enter the cell by osmosis.

D) Glucose will leave the cell by osmosis.

282)

283)

What would happen if a red blood cell was placed in a hypotonic solution?

A) The cell will shrink.

B) Only permeable substances will leave, but concentrations in the cell do not change.

C) The cell will remain the same size and shape.

D) The cell will swell and may eventually burst.

Red blood cells are placed in a solution of 0.9% NaCl and no diffusion or osmosis is observed. This means that the solution is __________.

A) isotonic B) hypotonic C) hypertonic D) isertonic

284)

Cells are placed in a solution that causes them to absorb liquid until they burst. When water is removed from the solution, newly added cells do not burst. The original solution was __________ , while the second was __________ to the cells.

A) hypotonic; isotonic B) hypertonic; isotonic C) isotonic; hypotonic D) isotonic; hypertonic

285)

What is osmosis?

A) Movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.

B) Movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane to a solution containing a higher concentration of impermeant solute.

C) Movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane to a solution containing a lower concentration of impermeant solute.

D) Movement of ions from a low pressure region to a high pressure region through a selectively permeable membrane.

286)

What is the relationship of osmotic pressure to the number of solute particles in a solution?

A) The lower the number of impermeant solute particles, the greater the osmotic pressure.

B) The greater the number of impermeant solute particles, the lower the osmotic pressure.

C) The greater the osmotic pressure, the lower the number of impermeant solute particles.

D) The greater the number of impermeant solute particles, the greater the osmotic pressure.

287)

A red blood cell that is placed in a solution shrivels up. The solution is __________.

A) hypertonic B) hypotonic C) isotonic D) isertonic

288)

What is an isotonic solution?

A) A solution that has a greater concentration of impermeant solute than a cell.

B) A solution that results in more water entering than leaving a cell.

C) A solution that has the same osmotic pressure as a cell.

D) A solution that will cause a cell to shrink.

289)

What is a hypotonic solution?

A) A solution that has a lower concentration of impermeant solutes than do the cells in the solution.

B) A solution that would cause cells in the solution to lose water.

C) A solution that has a higher osmotic pressure than do the cells in the solution.

D) A solution that would cause cells in the solution to shrink.

290)

The movement of molecules through a membrane by filtration requires __________.

A) osmotic pressure B) hydrostatic pressure C) atmospheric pressure D) barometric pressure

291)

Coffee grounds are mixed with water before being placed in a funnel filter. The large grounds remain in the filter, but small particles pass through the filter. How did the small particles pass through?

A) They moved from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.

B) They moved from an area of low hydrostatic pressure to an area of high hydrostatic pressure.

C) They moved by hydrostatic pressure that was greater on one side of the membrane than on the other.

D) They moved from an area of low osmotic pressure to an area of high osmotic pressure.

292)

What is phagocytosis?

A) The process by which a cell membrane engulfs solid particles.

B) The process by which a particle enters a cell by moving down its concentration gradient.

C) The process by which a cell membrane engulfs droplets.

D) The process by which a carrier molecule moves a substance across a cell membrane using ATP.

293)

Following the nomenclature for cells, what cell types take in solid particles like bacteria?

A) Phagozyme B) Phagase C) Phagocyte D) Phagosome

294)

Molecules bind to receptor sites and are enclosed in vesicles in the process of __________.

A) pinocytosis B) phagocytosis C) receptor-mediated endocytosis D) exocytosis

295)

Chloride ions follow their concentration gradient, but require a membrane protein for passage. Which transport method is occurring?

A) Diffusion B) Active transport C) Pinocytosis D) Facilitated diffusion

296)

During what phase of the cell cycle do chromosomes replicate?

A) Prophase B) Interphase C) Metaphase D) Telophase

297)

What is the correct order of the stages of the cell cycle?

A) Differentiation, cytoplasmic division, mitosis, interphase.

B) Interphase, differentiation, cytoplasmic division, mitosis.

C) Interphase, mitosis, cytoplasmic division, differentiation.

D) Mitosis, interphase, cytoplasmic division, differentiation.

298)

Compared to stage G1, during what stage is there double the chromosomal DNA? A) G2 B) Prophase C) Metaphase D) Apoptosis

299)

During which phase of mitosis do centromeres of replicated chromosomes separate?

A) Prophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Telophase

300)

What is the relationship between surface area and volume as a cell grows?

A) The relationship between its surface area and volume remains unchanged.

B) Its surface area increases to a lesser degree than its volume.

C) Its volume increases to a lesser degree than its surface area.

301)

If a human cell has 23 chromosomes, it likely just finished __________.

A) mitosis B) meiosis C) cytokinesis D) osmosis

302)

The average number of divisions that a human cell cultured in a dish can undergo is __________.

A) 10–20 B) 30–40 C) 40–60 D) 60–100

303)

Which of the following, found in the nucleus, serve as the cell's "mitotic clock"?

A) Telomeres B) Kinases C) Ribosomes D) Hormones

304)

Tara discovers a rapidly growing lump that doubles in size over a month. A doctor does a biopsy and discovers it’s a form of cancer. What went wrong in the cell cycle to result in the cancer?

A) Mitosis was too infrequent.

B) Mitosis was too frequent.

C) The cell cycle stopped.

D) The cell cycle ran backwards.

305)

A researcher has been studying genes that result in abnormal cell growth and has linked them to cancer. What two types of genes is the researcher studying?

A) Kinases and cyclins.

B) Oncosuppressors and tumor activators.

C) Metastatic activators and apoptosis stimulators.

D) Tumor suppressors and oncogenes.

306)

What is a defining characteristic of a stem cell?

A) Self-repair B) Self-renewal C) Ability to turn into a cancer cell D) Origin from a progenitor cell

307)

Researchers in a lab are working with a form of stem cells that can divide and give rise to any cell type, allowing them to research development. This cell type is known as __________.

A) pluripotent B) multipotent C) totipotent D) a differentiated cell

308)

How is it that bone cells and muscle cells differ in structure and function but come from the same original cell?

A) Because each expresses a different subset of genes.

B) Because each has different genes.

C) Because each has different chromosomes.

D) Because each express the same subset of genes.

309)

Programmed cell death occurs during development, including the removal of webbing between fingers of the fetus. This process is known as __________.

A) cell specialization B) apoptosis C) mitosis D) cell differentiation

310)

A temporary cell that is no longer useful for development undergoes preprogrammed cell death. What occurs during this process?

A) Chromosomes join.

B) The cytoskeleton forms large, complex structures.

C) Mitochondria merge.

D) The cell can no longer adhere to other cells.

311)

What is the cellular abnormality that causes cystic fibrosis?

A) The absence of the mitochondria within muscle cells.

B) Abnormal chloride channels that trap salt inside cells lining the lung passageways.

C) Abnormal potassium channels in heart muscle.

D) Extra receptors for a growth factor in bone cells.

312)

Adrenoleukodystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. The gene abnormality causes a lack of an enzyme that breaks down very long chain fatty acids outside the cell. The resulting over-accumulation causes brain degeneration. What organelle is affected by the gene abnormality?

A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum C) Mitochondrion D) Peroxisomes

313)

Solution A is a 50% glucose solution. Solution B is a 25% glucose solution. The two solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. Based on this information, what substance, and in which direction, would move across the membrane?

A) There would be a net movement of water from solution A to solution B. B) There would be a net movement of water from solution B to solution A. C) There would be a net movement of glucose from solution A to solution B. D) There would be a net movement of glucose from solution B to solution A.

314)

Mitosis is division of the __________. Upon completion of the cell cycle that includes mitosis, there are __________cells.

A) cytoplasm; two B) nucleus; two C) cytoplasm; four D) nucleus; four

315)

Damage to cellular DNA that cannot be repaired would induce __________.

A) mitosis B) meiosis C) apoptosis D) necrosis

316)

Where is a mitochondrion found in the cell?

A) In the intracellular fluid B) In the extracellular fluid C) In the cell membrane D) In the fluid of the nucleus

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

317) The cytoplasm consists of organelles suspended in __________ .

318)

The process by which a cell receives and responds to incoming messages is called signal __________.

319)

Solutions that have a higher osmotic pressure than body fluids are __________.

320)

Somatic cell division is called __________.

321)

A partly specialized cell that is the daughter of a stem cell is a(n) __________ cell.

322)

A cell undergoing __________ loses its shape, forms a bubble, and falls apart.

323)

Krabbe disease results from an abnormality that affects the __________ of nerve cells in the brain.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) FALSE 27) FALSE 28) FALSE 29) TRUE 30) TRUE 31) FALSE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) TRUE 36) FALSE 37) TRUE

38) C 39) B 40) D 41) C 42) A 43) C 44) B 45) B 46) A 47) A 48) D 49) D 50) C 51) C 52) C 53) B 54) A 55) B 56) A 57) D 58) B 59) C 60) A 61) B 62) B 63) A 64) D 65) C 66) D 67) D 68) B 69) D 70) A 71) A 72) B 73) D 74) A 75) C 76) A 77) B

78) C 79) A 80) C 81) C 82) D 83) B 84) C 85) B 86) C 87) B 88) B 89) C 90) A 91) B 92) D 93) B 94) C 95) A 96) B 97) D 98) B 99) D 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108) 109) 110)

B B D A cytosol transduction hypertonic mitosis progenitor apoptosis lysosomes

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

324) Metabolism refers to all of the chemical reactions in a cell. ⊚ true ⊚ false

325)

Phospholipids are critical structures in cell membranes and are therefore enzymes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

326)

Catabolism is the building of large molecules from small ones. Anabolism is the breaking down of large molecules into smaller ones. ⊚ true ⊚ false

327)

Releasing the energy in glucose molecules is an example of catabolism. ⊚ true ⊚ false

328)

Dehydration synthesis is catabolic and hydrolysis is anabolic. ⊚ true ⊚ false

329)

The process by which triglycerides are formed from glycerol and fatty acids is called hydrolysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

330)

During glycolysis, a net total of 4 ATP are produced. ⊚ true ⊚ false

331)

Enzymes are proteins that promote specific chemical reactions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

332)

A metabolic pathway is a particular sequence of enzyme-controlled reactions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

333)

An active site is the part of a substrate molecule that binds to an enzyme. ⊚ true ⊚ false

334)

The compound called pyruvic acid combines with oxaloacetic acid to start the citric acid cycle. ⊚ true ⊚ false

335)

Glycogenesis is the catabolic reaction that produces individual glucose molecules. ⊚ true ⊚ false

336)

An ATP molecule consists of an adenine, a ribose, and three phosphate groups. ⊚ true ⊚ false

337)

The breakdown of glucose to release energy is an example of oxidation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

338)

The synthesis of an ATP molecule requires two ADP molecules. ⊚ true ⊚ false

339)

The oxidation of glucose leads to the release of energy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

340)

During the anaerobic reactions of cellular respiration, pyruvic acid reacts to form glucose. ⊚ true ⊚ false

341)

The aerobic reactions of cellular respiration occur in the mitochondria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

342)

For each acetyl CoA molecule that enters the citric acid cycle, 2 ATPs, 16 H atoms, and 4 CO2 molecules are produced. ⊚ true ⊚ false

343)

The electron transport chain is a series of enzyme complexes that pass electrons one-toanother, releasing energy that is used to phosphorylate ADP. ⊚ true ⊚ false

344)

Only the exome of the DNA will encode for proteins. ⊚ true ⊚ false

345)

In addition to carbohydrates, lipids and proteins also can be metabolized to generate ATP via the aerobic respiration pathway. ⊚ true ⊚ false

346)

The genetic code is the correspondence between DNA sequence and amino acid sequence of a protein. ⊚ true ⊚ false

347)

DNA and RNA differ in number of strands, type of sugar, and types of nitrogenous bases. ⊚ true ⊚ false

348)

A DNA sequence of CGCTTACGATTG would be transcribed into an RNA sequence of GCGAAUGCUAAC. ⊚ true ⊚ false

349)

Transcription yields protein and translation produces RNA. ⊚ true ⊚ false

350)

Three types of RNA participate in protein synthesis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

351)

Codons are three contiguous mRNA bases. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

352) What does the term metabolism refer to?

A) The reactions in the body that synthesize proteins and nucleic acids.

B) The reactions in the body that break down proteins and nucleic acids.

C) All of the chemical reactions in the body.

D) The breakdown of glucose molecules to release energy.

353)

Why is protein synthesis so important to the body?

A) Enzymes are proteins and enzymes are essential to metabolism.

B) Proteins store energy for metabolic reactions.

C) Proteins encode genetic sequences.

D) The diet does not provide the building blocks of protein.

354)

What is anabolism?

A) Biochemical reactions that synthesize compounds.

B) All chemcial reactions occurring in the body.

C) Biochemical reactions that break down compounds.

D) Biochemical reactions that release energy from nutrients.

355)

Which of the following is an example of catabolism?

A) Decrease in the rate of glycogenesis.

B) Increase in muscle tissue with exercise.

C) Formation of secretory proteins in the pancreas.

D) Breakdown of glucose in the cytoplasm and mitochondria.

356)

What is catabolism?

A) Chemical reactions that require energy.

B) Chemical reactions that release energy.

C) Synthesis of large molecules from smaller ones.

D) The formation of genetic material.

357)

What is an example of an anabolic reaction?

A) Many monosaccharides combining to form glycogen.

B) A dipeptide breaking down into two amino acids.

C) Glycerol reacting with three fatty acid molecules to yield water and proteins.

D) Glycogen breaking down into individual monosaccharides.

358)

In assembling amino acids to form a protein, water molecules are released. This is an example of what type of reaction?

A) Dehydration synthesis B) Hydrolysis

359)

The disaccharide sucrose is broken down to yield a glucose molecule and a fructose molecule. What is true about this reaction?

A) Dehydration synthesis occurs.

B) A water molecule is released.

C) A water molecule is used.

D) Starch is broken down.

360)

The addition of water molecules to break bonds occurs in __________, whereas water molecules are released as bonds are formed in __________.

A) hydrolysis; dehydration synthesis B) dehydration synthesis; hydrolysis

361)

Molecules that function to increase the rate of chemical reactions are called __________.

A) hormones B) substrates C) enzymes D) mutagens

362)

Catalase is the enzyme that breaks down what substrate?

A) Oxygen B) Glycogen C) Hydrogen peroxide D) Carbon dioxide

363)

Which of the following describes an enzyme?

A) A compound that is changed into a product during a chemical reaction.

B) A catalyst for a chemical reaction.

C) The end product(s) of a chemical reaction.

D) A compound that stores energy within its chemical bonds.

364)

Lactose is a disaccharide found in milk. Individuals who are lactose intolerant lack the enzyme to break this sugar down into monosaccharides. Considering enzyme nomenclature, what enzyme is deficient in these individuals?

A) Lactese B) Lactose C) Lactogen D) Lactase

365)

What are the basic steps of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

A) Substrate and product combine, forming an S-P complex. The reaction occurs, enzymes are released, and the unchanged substrate is released and recycled.

B) Substrate and enzyme combine, forming an E-S complex. The reaction occurs, products are released, and the unchanged enzyme is released and recycled.

C) Substrate, enzyme, and product combine, forming an S-E-P complex. The reaction occurs, products are released, and the unchanged enzyme is released and recycled.

D) Enzyme and product combine, forming an E-P complex. The reaction occurs, enzymes are released, and the unchanged substrate is released and recycled.

366)

Which of the following best describes the interaction between an enzyme and its substrate?

A) The enzyme surrounds and completely contains the substrate.

B) The substrate surrounds and completely contains the enzyme.

C) The enzyme temporarily deactivates the substrate.

D) Part of the enzyme temporarily binds to part of the substrate molecule.

367)

Some insecticides, such as chlorpyrifos, work by inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE), which functions to break down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Where does this insecticide most likely bind to inhibit the activity of AChE? A) At any location on the amino acid chain that forms the AChE enyzme.

B) At the sequence of DNA nucleotides that encodes the AChE enzyme protein molecule.

C) At the end of the acetylcholine molecule.

D) At the active site on AChE.

368)

What is an important mechanism that controls metabolic pathways?

A) Positive feedback B) Amplification C) Negative feedback D) Genetic control

369)

What factors increase the rate of enzyme-controlled reactions?

A) The number of enzyme molecules, the number of substrate molecules, and efficiency of the enzyme.

B) The temperature of the reaction, the number of H2O molecules, and bond strength.

C) The number of enzyme and substrate molecules formed, and strength of the enzyme.

D) The size of the enzyme compared to the substrate, the number of active sites, and the ratio of enzyme to substrate molecules.

370)

A cofactor is __________. Examples are __________.

A) an organic molecule that all enzymes require; cholesterol and calcium B) an inorganic molecule that some enzymes require; vitamin B12 and B6 C) a necessary part of some enzymes; copper, iron, and zinc D) a molecule that destabilizes enzymes; carbonic acid

371)

Humans require vitamins in their diets. What is a major function of these vitamins in the body?

A) To provide energy.

B) To be used as building blocks for lipids.

C) To bond to minerals and help in their transport.

D) To act as coenzymes.

372)

What molecule carries energy in a form that a cell can use?

A) Glucose B) Glycogen C) Vitamin C D) ATP

373)

Why is ATP important for cellular processes?

A) It is a source of building blocks for structural proteins.

B) It provides energy for cellular work.

C) It binds and carries oxygen to parts of the cell where O2 is needed.

D) As a major coenzyme, many enzymes require its presence in order to be functional.

374)

What term is defined as the ability to do work?

A) Metabolism B) Energy C) Oxidation D) Replication

375)

What is the function of ATP molecules in living cells?

A) They contain genetic material.

B) Their energy is used in various cell processes.

C) They act as coenzymes so that fats can be synthesized.

D) They are an integral part of the cell membrane, important in transporting organic molecules.

376)

How is a peptide bond formed?

A) Hydrolysis of a triglyceride molecule.

B) Dehydration synthesis with amino acids as substrates.

C) Hydrolysis of a dipeptide.

D) Dehydration synthesis with glucose molecules as substrates.

377)

Where do the anaerobic reactions of cellular respiration take place?

A) Cytoplasm B) Mitochondria C) Nucleus D) Ribosomes

378)

What substance becomes more abundant during cellular respiration?

A) Oxygen B) Glucose C) ATP D) Glycogen

379)

Name the molecule that is common to both the carbohydrate and lipid metabolic pathways and connects these two pathways metabolically.

A) Glucose B) Pyruvic acid C) Acetyl coenzyme A D) Glycogen

380)

A cell is unable to breakdown glucose into pyruvate due to a mutation in a gene that produces an enzyme. What process would this mutated enzyme affect?

A) Glycolysis B) Citric acid cycle C) Gluconeogenesis D) Electron transport system

381)

Which of the following is a product of the citric acid cycle?

A) Carbon dioxide B) Water C) Glycogen D) Pyruvic acid

382)

What is the overall function of cellular respiration?

A) To produce glucose molecules that can be used for cellular fuel.

B) To release energy from nutrient molecules to be used as cellular energy.

C) To use carbon dioxide to produce oxygen molecules.

D) To produce enzymes and other proteins needed for metabolic processes.

383)

The anaerobic reactions of cellular respiration occur in the __________ , and the aerobic reactions of cellular respiration occur in the __________.

A) mitochondria; cytoplasm B) cytoplasm; nucleus C) mitochondria; nucleus D) cytoplasm; mitochondria

384)

What is true about the anaerobic reactions of cellular respiration?

A) Glucose is broken down into carbon dioxide and water.

B) Oxygen is required for the reactions to proceed.

C) Energy is transferred to ATP molecules.

D) The enzymes for the reactions are embedded in the inner mitochondrial membranes.

385)

What molecule is produced by cells in order to store glucose?

A) Glycogen B) Glycerol C) Pyruvic acid D) Triglyceride

386)

Which option lists the structures in order of increasing size?

A) Nitrogenous base; nucleotide; gene; chromosome; genome.

B) Chromosome; nucleotide; nitrogenous base; genome; gene.

C) Genome; nitrogenous base; chromosome; gene; nucleotide.

D) Nucleotide; nitrogenous base; chromosome; gene; genome.

387)

What is a genome?

A) All protein-encoding genes in a nucleus.

B) All proteins that are encoded by genes in a nucleus.

C) All single-stranded nucleic acid chains in a nucleus.

D) All DNA sequences within a nucleus.

388)

A strand of DNA has the sequence TCAGGCTAT. What is the sequence of its complementary DNA strand?

A) AGUCCGAUA B) AGTCCGATA C) TCAGGCTAT D) UCAGGCUAU

389)

When does DNA replication occur?

A) When a cell needs energy.

B) During transcription.

C) During interphase of the cell cycle.

D) During translation.

390)

What occurs during DNA replication?

A) Molecules of tRNA bring specific amino acids to a ribosome to build an mRNA strand.

B) Two single strands of DNA come together, restoring complementary base pairing.

C) Amino acids are joined to form a peptide chain.

D) New nucleotides are assembled into a DNA strand that is complementary to the existing DNA strand.

391)

Of the 64 possible codons, how many correspond to the twenty types of amino acids?

A) All 64 B) 61 C) 60 D) 58

392)

What is the genetic code?

A) Correlation between a sequence of three DNA nucleotides and a specific amino acid.

B) Correlation between a DNA nucleotide and an RNA nucleotide.

C) Correlation between a gene and a genome.

D) Correlation between a specific amino acid and a specific gene on a specific chromosome.

393)

Which of the following describes RNA? A) It is single stranded and includes the bases A, U, C, and G. B) It is double stranded and includes the bases A, U, C, and G. C) It is single stranded and includes the bases A, T, C, and G. D) It is double stranded and includes the bases A, T, C, and G.

394)

What nitrogenous base is part of DNA, but not RNA? A) Uracil B) Thymine C) Guanine D) Cytosine

395)

Any molecule within a cell that has a uracil group will also contain __________.

A) ribose B) deoxyribose C) glucose D) glycerol

396)

A DNA sequence of 333 nucleotides will encode for __________ amino acids.

A) 111 B) 333 C) 444 D) 999

397)

What is the mRNA codon that functions as an "initiation codon", indicating the start of the encoded protein?

A) UAC B) AGG C) AUG D) UUA

398)

Name the process by which an mRNA strand is built using a DNA sequence as a template.

A) Translation B) Dehydration synthesis C) Replication D) Transcription

399)

How do the processes of transcription and translation differ?

A) Transcription produces tRNA and translation produces mRNA. B) Transcription produces mRNA and translation produces DNA. C) Transcription produces protein and translation produces mRNA. D) Transcription produces mRNA and translation produces protein.

400)

During the process of translation, what type of bond forms between the amino acids of the growing polypeptide strand?

A) Peptide bonds B) Hydrogen bonds C) Ionic bonds D) High-energy bonds

401)

Which DNA sequence can encode the amino acid sequence ile-asp-ser-cys-his-tyr?

A) TAGCTGTCAACAGTGATA B) TAACTGTCGACGGTGATG C) TAACTAAGTACGGTGATG D) UAACUAAGUACGGUGAUG

402)

A protein is produced with the correct amino acid sequence, but does not have the correct three-dimensional shape. What is a logical explanation for this occurrence?

A) Peptide bonds were not able to form between the amino acids.

B) The shape-coding region of the DNA sequence related to this protein is mutated.

C) The chaperone protein associated with protein folding is not functional.

D) An error in transcription occurred.

403)

Codons are found in what type of molecule?

A) mRNA B) tRNA C) rRNA D) Proteins

404)

When does synthesis of a polypeptide chain stop?

A) When the last anticodon on tRNA is encountered.

B) When the end of the DNA strand is reached.

C) When any of three specific codons are encountered in the mRNA. D) When the ribosome becomes fatigued.

405)

During transcription, the DNA strand AACGGTGCA will encode which mRNA sequence?

A) AACGGUGCA B) UUGCCACGU C) AACGGTGCA D) TTGCCACGT

406)

Name the DNA base sequence that begins a gene.

A) Initiator B) Promoter C) Active binding site D) Terminator

407)

If you were to sequence the genome of two individuals and found that their DNA is 99.9% similar, what inference could you make?

A) These two individuals must be siblings.

B) These individuals are likely identical twins.

C) These individuals must be from different species.

D) No inferences could be made because 99.9% of DNA is shared amoung all humans.

408)

What is a mutation?

A) A error in a DNA sequence.

B) A common genetic variation.

C) A genetically beneficial DNA sequence.

D) A region of DNA that does not code for a protein.

409)

How might a mutation result in disease?

A) The mutation causes damage to the DNA strand.

B) The encoded protein has a different function than the original.

C) The mutation triggers the DNA repair mechanism.

D) The mutation replaces the deoxyribose of DNA with ribose.

410)

Ultraviolet radiation is an example of a(n) __________, potentially leading to disease.

A) polyribosome B) chaperone C) mutagen D) initiator

411)

What occurs during a DNA damage response?

A) Repair enzymes replace mismatched nucleotides in DNA. B) Repair enzymes replace mismatched nucleotides in mRNA. C) Repair enzymes replace mismatched amino acids in protein.

D) Repair enzymes replace codons that encode for one type of amino acid.

412)

The conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA occurs in the __________.

A) cytoplasm B) mitochondria C) nucleus D) extracellular fluid

413)

What is the role of NAD+ in the cell?

A) It is a breakdown product of glucose.

B) It carries energy to the areas of the cell that need energy.

C) It is a hydrogen carrier.

D) It functions in the repair of DNA.

414)

After glycolysis and the citric acid cycle has occurred, where is most of the energy that was contained in the original glucose molecule now contained?

A) In carbon dioxide molecules.

B) In oxaloacetic acid molecules.

C) In NADH and FADH. D) In oxygen molecules.

415)

What is the role of the electron transport chain?

A) To convert energy carried by NADH+ and FADH to ATP. B) To convert glucose to pyruvic acid.

C) To complete the breakdown of glucose, releasing CO2 and H atoms.

D) To use oxygen to break down acetyl CoA.

416)

What process results in the release of stored glucose?

A) Glycogenolysis B) Glycolysis C) Glycogenesis

417)

Which of the following shows the correct complementary base pairing that occurs in DNA? A) Cytosine to guanine; adenine to thymine B) Cytosine to adenine; guanine to thymine C) Cytosine to thymine; adenine to uracil D) Cytosine to adenine; thymine to uracil

418)

Why is the process of DNA replication necessary?

A) Each cell that results from cell division will then have a complete set of genetic information.

B) For any protein being produced, multiple copies of the encoding gene must be present in the cell, therefore multiple copies of the DNA helix are required.

C) It is during the process of replication that the repair of any damaged regions of the DNA sequence occurs.

D) DNA replication results in the production of mRNA that can then be used to produce protein molecules.

419)

At what point is water produced during cellular respiration?

A) At end of the electron transport chain.

B) During glycolysis.

C) At the start of the citric acid cycle.

D) During the conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA.

420)

Before the carbohydrates from the diet can be used for the production of ATP, what process must occur?

A) Hydrolysis of carbohydrate molecules to monosaccharides.

B) Hydrolysis of triglycerides into fatty acids and glucose.

C) Oxidation of polypeptide chains into amino acids.

D) Oxidation of glucose into glycogen.

421)

How much of the human genome encodes for proteins?

A) 2% B) 12% C) 42% D) 62%

422)

What region of a tRNA molecule binds to mRNA? A) Anticodon B) Promotor C) Codon D) Intron

423)

The process by which the genetic information within an mRNA strand is used to build a polypeptide chain is called __________.

A) translation B) transcription C) replication D) oxidation

424)

What is the function of tRNA molecules?

A) Carry amino acids to the ribosomes.

B) Contain code for the building of proteins that will function as enzymes.

C) Provide energy necessary for the assembly of a new polypeptide chain.

D) Repair changes that have occurred in the DNA base sequence.

425)

Where does the binding of tRNA to mRNA occur?

A) In the nucleus B) At the site of the promotor sequence on the gene C) At a ribosome D) Near the beginning of the newly formed polypeptide chain

426)

Which of the following is not an example of a mutation?

A) A tRNA brings the wrong amino acid into the growing polypeptide chain during translation.

B) A 10-base length of DNA is deleted during replication.

C) An extra nucleotide is inserted into the DNA sequence.

D) A cytosine within a gene for eye color is replaced with an adenine.

427)

What is the function of RNA polymerase?

A) Using DNA as a template, it builds mRNA molecules.

B) It is critical to the binding of an mRNA strand to the ribosome at the correct point.

C) It forms the channels through which mRNA strands move from the nucleus into the cytoplasm.

D) It repairs incorrect sequences in an mRNA strand.

428)

How might a cell that has an altered DNA sequence correct this problem?

A) Initiate the DNA damage response.

B) Undergo another replication of DNA in attempt to produce the correct sequence.

C) Use RNA polymerase to rebuild the altered sequence.

D) Stimulate ribosomes to read and correct the DNA sequence.

429)

A cell is known to have a mutation in the DNA sequence of a gene that codes for an enzyme, but it still produces a functional enzyme. Why might this happen?

A) The mutation did not lead to a change in the amino acid sequence of the enzyme.

B) Chaperone proteins are able to repair the error in the DNA sequence.

C) The mutation must have occurred in the part of the sequence coding for the active site.

D) Transcription of the gene into RNA was able to repair the mutation.

430)

Which of the following is an example of an anabolic reaction?

A) Trypsin in the stomach digesting large proteins into smaller ones.

B) Amylase in saliva breaking down starch into simple sugars.

C) The release of energy by converting ATP into ADP during a metabolic reaction.

D) Producing glycogen to store excess glucose.

431)

Which of the following would not be considered a mutagen?

A) Ethidium bromide, a chemical that binds directly to DNA and deforms the double helix.

B) X-rays, which can break the bonds in DNA molecules.

C) Nitrous acid, which can convert cytosine to uracil.

D) Flavonoids, a family of compounds which can neutralize free radicals in cells.

432)

If the DNA sequence ATGCTCAT was found to have the complimentary strand TACGGGTA, which of the following is possible?

A) There was an error during DNA replication.

B) The cell correctly copied the DNA strand during replication.

C) An error occurred during translation in which mRNA had an incorrect nucleotide.

D) An error occurred during transcription in which a tRNA molecule had the incorrect codon.

433)

What will occur if a DNA sequence for an enzyme lacked a termination signal?

A) Transcription would not have an end point.

B) Translation would not have an end point.

C) DNA replication would not be possible.

D) The incorrect amino acid would be incorporated into the final enzyme at that point.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

434) Building large molecules from smaller molecules is called __________ .

435)

The molecule(s) that an enzyme affects is called its __________ .

436)

The process that extracts energy from glucose and makes it available for use by the cell is called cellular __________.

437)

Cellular respiration begins with the process of __________ , in which glucose is broken down into pyruvic acid.

438)

The term "genetic __________" describes how information stored in DNA directs the production of proteins.

439)

The complete set of genetic instructions within a cell is called its __________ .

440)

As organic compounds with two rings, adenine and guanine are classified as __________.

441)

A DNA sequence is CTGATGTCTA. Its complementary strand has the sequence __________ .

442)

The type of RNA that binds an amino acid is __________ -RNA

443)

A substance that causes a mutation is called a(n) __________ .

444)

The nitrogenous base __________ is complementary to thymine and uracil.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) FALSE 27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) C 30) A 31) A 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) C 37) A

38) C 39) C 40) B 41) D 42) B 43) D 44) D 45) C 46) A 47) C 48) D 49) D 50) B 51) B 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) C 56) C 57) A 58) A 59) B 60) D 61) C 62) A 63) A 64) D 65) B 66) C 67) D 68) B 69) A 70) A 71) B 72) A 73) A 74) C 75) D 76) D 77) A

78) C 79) C 80) A 81) C 82) B 83) B 84) D 85) A 86) B 87) C 88) A 89) B 90) C 91) C 92) A 93) A 94) A 95) A 96) A 97) A 98) A 99) A 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108) 109) 110) 111) 112) 113) 114) 115) 116) 117)

A A C A A A A D D A A anabolism substrate respiration glycolysis code genome purines

118) 119) 120) 121)

GACTACAGAT t mutagen adenine

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

445) The vocal cords move constantly during sound production, requiring them to be resilient and to be able to stretch and move without losing their shape. Knowing this, the vocal cords must be rich in elastin. ⊚ true ⊚ false 446)

Sickle cell disease involves a mutation that causes red blood cells to become crescentshaped in low-oxygen conditions. They then become lodged in capillaries. This disease directly affects a connective tissue. ⊚ true ⊚ false

447)

Researchers bred a generation of rats that were sterile. When investigating the cause for this change, they noticed that the tissue lining the uterine tubes were missing their cilia which would function to guide the egg into the uterus. The abnormal tissue was simple squamous epithelium. ⊚ true ⊚ false

448)

The parotid gland produces a serous fluid (saliva) and dumps it into the nearby oral cavity. This makes the parotid gland an exocrine gland. ⊚ true ⊚ false

449)

Blood isn’t classified as a connective tissue because it circulates around the body and is never in a fixed location. ⊚ true ⊚ false

450)

You are examining a sample of epithelial tissue. The tissue has multiple layers of cells.

The cells rapidly divide and push older ones away from the basement membrane and up toward the free surface, similar to what happens in skin. This type of epithelial tissue is called stratified squamous epithelium. ⊚ true ⊚ false

451)

Tissues are groups of cells that have a common overall function, yet are distinctive in their characteristic cell types and the molecules that the cells produce. ⊚ true ⊚ false

452)

The wall of the heart is made up of three layers with a middle layer that is responsible for the heart's pumping action. The three layers of the wall of the heart are all epithelial tissues. ⊚ true ⊚ false

453)

All tissue types are tightly packed, built of cells attached by intercellular junctions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

454)

A particular tissue functions to direct the flow of a substance to an organ without losing any of the substance or letting any other substances come in contact wiht it. Tight junctions are most likely to be found between the cells of this tissue type. ⊚ true ⊚ false

455)

Histology is the study of the history of anatomy and physiology. ⊚ true ⊚ false

456)

Epithelial tissues do not have blood vessels. ⊚ true ⊚ false

457)

A mucus-secreting goblet cell is a unicellular gland. ⊚ true ⊚ false

458)

The tissue that forms the outermost layer of the skin is a type of connective tissue. ⊚ true ⊚ false

459)

The soft part of the nose and the supporting rings of the respiratory passages are composed of fibrocartilage. ⊚ true ⊚ false

460)

White blood cells may become macrophages. ⊚ true ⊚ false

461)

Osteocytes release histamine and heparin. ⊚ true ⊚ false

462)

Osteoblasts become osteocytes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

463)

Bone cells (osteocytes) are in concentric circles around central canals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

464)

Blood is composed of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets suspended in a fluid extracellular matrix called plasma. ⊚ true ⊚ false

465)

466)

Serous and mucous membranes consist of epithelial and connective tissues. ⊚ true ⊚ false

The lubricating fluid found between the walls of the thoracic cavity and the outside of the lungs are secreted by goblet cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

467)

A synovial membrane is composed entirely of connective tissue. ⊚ true ⊚ false

468)

Smooth muscle is voluntarily controlled. ⊚ true ⊚ false

469)

Peristalsis is the involuntary contraction and relaxation of the muscles of the digestive tract that assist in moving food and waste through. The muscles controlling peristalsis must be skeletal muscle. ⊚ true ⊚ false

470)

Cardiac muscle can function without nervous stimulation but skeletal muscle cannot. ⊚ true ⊚ false

471)

A skeletal muscle fiber contains many nuclei. ⊚ true ⊚ false

472)

Muscle tissue conducts electrical impulses from one neuron to another to coordinate body activities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

473)

Schwann cells are associated with neurons and are crucial to their function. They assist the neuron by speeding up the rate of signal transduction. Schwann cells are neuroglia. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

474) Which of the following is not one of the four basic types of body tissues?

A) Epithelial tissue B) Connective tissue C) Eye tissue D) Muscle tissue

475)

Which of the following characteristics is used to name epithelial tissue types?

A) Location of cells in the body B) Number of inclusions C) Organization of cells D) Number of mitochondria

476)

Histology is the study of __________.

A) organ function B) molecules C) cells D) tissues

477)

The epidermis (outer layer of the skin) needs to be tough and resistant to shearing and stretching. The type of intercellular junction best suited for this need is a(n) __________.

A) desmosome B) gap junction C) tight junction D) ion channel

478)

The smooth muscle cells of the digestive tract need to send electrical signals between each other to contract in unison. The type of intercellular junction best suited for this need is __________.

A) a desmosome B) a gap junction C) a tight junction D) found in the blood-brain barrier

479)

The membranes of the blood-brain barrier need to be fused, preventing any substances from entering and/or escaping between cells. The type of intercellular junction best suited for this need is a(n) __________.

A) desmosome B) gap junction C) tight junction D) ion channel

480)

What do intercellular junctions connect?

A) Cell membranes B) Cell nuclei C) Blood cells D) Organelles

481)

The skin is composed of an outer layer of epithelial tissue, the epidermis, and an inner layer of connective tissue, the dermis. Between the lowest layer of the epidermis and the top layer of the dermis lies an anchor layer called the __________.

A) serous membrane B) basement membrane C) simple cuboidal epithelium D) synovial membrane

482)

Which of the following are functions of epithelial tissue?

A) Secretion, absorption, and protection.

B) Contraction, movement, and reflexes.

C) Reacting to stimuli, thinking, and remembering.

D) Nourishing and hydrating tissues.

483)

What type of tissue would be located between the blood and the air in the lungs to allow for gas exchange?

A) Stratified squamous epithelium B) Simple squamous epithelium C) Simple cuboidal epithelium D) Simple columnar epithelium

484)

What characteristics would be found in the tissue that forms the inner lining of the respiratory passages?

A) Mucus-secreting and transitional.

B) Stratified, sputum-secreting, and non-ciliated.

C) Mucus-secreting, ciliated, and pseudostratified.

D) Serous fluid-secreting, simple, and columnar.

485)

The type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder and many of the urinary passageways is __________.

A) cuboidal epithelium B) transitional epithelium C) pseudostratified epithelium D) columnar epithelium

486)

How do merocrine, apocrine, and holocrine secretions differ?

A) In the locations of the glands that produce them.

B) In the number of cells that secrete.

C) In the amount of cytoplasm secreted along with the glandular product.

D) In the amount of glycoprotein secreted with the glandular product.

487)

Which type of tissue lines the follicles of the thyroid glands?

A) Simple squamous epithelium B) Simple cuboidal epithelium C) Stratified cuboidal epithelium D) Glandular epithelium

488)

The pituitary gland is a structure in the brain that secretes hormones into the bloodstream.

What epithelium is part of this structure and produces the secretion?

A) Simple squamous epithelium B) Transitional epithelium C) Stratified cuboidal epithelium D) Glandular epithelium

489)

The pyloric glands of the stomach release hydrochloric acid and other digestive juices during digestion. These glands have very short ducts and the tubes are branched. These glands are __________.

A) simple branched tubular glands B) simple coiled tubular glands C) simple branched alveolar glands D) unicellular glands

490)

A(n) _________ gland branches repeatedly before reaching the glandular cells or secretory part.

A) simple B) compound C) tubular D) alveolar

491)

Which of the following are found within areolar tissue?

A) Many adipocytes filled with fat.

B) Collagenous fibers, elastic fibers, and gel-like ground substance.

C) Chondrocytes and lacunae.

D) Osteocytes, osteoblasts, and canaliculi.

492)

Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of what type of tissue?

A) Dense irregular tissue B) Reticular connective tissue C) Muscle tissue D) Dense regular connective tissue

493)

Why are cartilage tissues likely to be slow in healing following an injury?

A) Chondrocytes cannot divide.

B) Chondrocytes do not have direct blood supplies.

C) The intercellular material is semisolid.

D) Cartilage cells are immersed in fluids.

494)

Bone cells form concentric circles around longitudinal tubes called __________.

A) osteons B) central canals C) lacunae D) canaliculi

495)

Which of the following are cellular fragments?

A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Lymphocytes D) Blood platelets

496)

What type of cell produces connective tissue fibers?

A) Macrophage B) Mast cell C) Fibroblast D) Osteoclast

497)

Elastic connective tissue is found in __________.

A) bones B) walls of blood vessels C) cartilage D) ligaments and tendons

498)

Which of the following is a general characteristic of connective tissue?

A) It consists of cells within extracellular material.

B) It has no blood supply.

C) It covers the outside of organs.

D) It lines organs.

499)

What type of tissue is adipose tissue?

A) Epithelial tissue B) Muscle tissue C) Nervous tissue D) Connective tissue

500)

Cells that reside in a specific connective tissue type for an extended period of time are called __________ cells.

A) wandering B) transitional C) fixed D) stem

501)

Which of the following structures would be affected the most by a deficiency in collagen?

A) The liver and spleen B) The epidermis of the skin C) The lining of the small intestine D) The bones

502)

Which of the following composes the extracellular matrix?

A) Ground substance and protein fibers B) Fixed cells and wandering cells C) Heparin and keratin D) Lacunae and lamellae

503)

Epithelial membranes are composed of what two tissue types?

A) Connective tissue and underlying muscle tissue B) Epithelium and underlying connective tissue C) Connective tissue and underlying epithelium D) Epithelium and underlying muscle tissue

504)

A __________ membrane lines tubes and cavities that open to the outside of the body.

A) serous B) cutaneous C) synovial D) mucous

505)

A serous membrane consists of which two tissue types?

A) Layer of simple squamous epithelium and a thin layer of areolar tissue.

B) Layer of pseudostratified epithelium and a thick layer of areolar tissue.

C) Layer of simple squamous epithelium and a thick layer of dense connective tissue.

D) Layer of simple squamous epithelium and a thick layer of cartilage.

506)

"Cutaneous membrane" refers to __________.

A) skin B) bone C) cartilage D) mucus

507)

Embryonic stem cells growing in a lab dish are bathed in a "cocktail" of chemicals that cause them to specialize into branching networks of single-nucleated cells that pulsate in unison. These cells are most likely part of what types of tissue?

A) Smooth muscle B) Skeletal muscle C) Cardiac muscle D) Epithelial tissue

508)

A mutation occurs that prevents the formation of intercalated disks. Which of the following muscular structures will be directly affected?

A) The legs B) The heart C) The stomach and intestines D) The tongue

509)

Which muscle tissues are under involuntary control?

A) Smooth muscle tissue and skeletal muscle tissue B) Cardiac muscle tissue and skeletal muscle tissue C) Smooth muscle tissue and cardiac muscle tissue D) Smooth muscle tissue, skeletal muscle tissue, and cardiac muscle tissue

510)

What type of muscle cell(s) have more than one nucleus?

A) Smooth muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells B) Cardiac muscle cells and smooth muscle cells C) Skeletal muscle cells only D) Smooth muscle cells only

511)

Which type of muscle tissue can be consciously controlled?

A) Smooth muscle tissue B) Skeletal muscle tissue C) Intestinal muscle tissue D) Cardiac muscle tissue

512)

Cardiac muscle is found in the wall of __________.

A) the stomach B) the intestine C) the heart D) blood vessels

513)

Smooth muscle is found in the wall of the __________.

A) heart B) bone C) stomach D) liver

514)

What type of muscle tissue is in the walls of blood vessels?

A) Cardiac muscle tissue B) Smooth muscle tissue C) Skeletal muscle tissue D) Voluntary muscle tissue

515)

When a signal travels from a motor neuron to a skeletal muscle, what path does the nerve signal travel?

A) From the dendrites of the motor neuron down the axon, and then from the axon to the muscle.

B) From the neuroglia of the motor neuron down the axon, and then from the axon to the muscle.

C) From the axon of the motor neuron down to the dendrites, and then from the dendrites to the muscle.

D) From the axon of the motor neuron down to the neuroglia, and then from the neuroglia to the dendrites of the muscle.

516)

What are the functions of neuroglia?

A) They guide neurons to muscles, then pass neurotransmitters to the muscle cells.

B) They serve as glue and scaffolding for neurons but have no physiological role.

C) They sense changes in the environment and respond by sending electrical impulses.

D) They support and bind nervous tissue and provide nutrients and growth factors to neurons by connecting them to blood vessels.

517)

Which of the following best describes a characteristic of nervous tissue?

A) It provides cushioning and protection from shearing forces.

B) Some of its cells send electrochemical messages.

C) Its intercellular space is filled with collagen.

D) It contracts to perform movements.

518)

Which of the following is not true about the extracellular matrix?

A) It is the same in all of the tissues where it is found.

B) In epithelium, it consists of a basement membrane and interstitial matrix.

C) In many body parts, it includes various glycoproteins.

D) It may include integrins.

519)

Why do mutations usually disrupt the function of collagen?

A) The many types of collagen are widespread in the body.

B) Collagen has a variable structure.

C) Collagen has a very precise structure.

D) Collagen is used as a cosmetic.

520)

A human embryo has a mutation that prevents smooth muscle from developing in the body. Which bodily functions will be most heavily affected by this mutation if the fetus survives to birth?

A) Heart functions B) Digestive system functions C) Movement of the body D) Strength of bones

521)

A researcher develops a genetically modified organism that is paralyzed because none of the motor neurons that stimulate muscles can receive signals from other neurons in the spinal cord. What is wrong with these motor neurons?

A) The motor neurons lack dendrites.

B) The motor neurons lack axons.

C) The motor neurons cannot reach the muscles.

D) The other neurons lack nuclei.

522)

The greater omentum is a structure that exists in the abdomen and hangs over the digestive tract, behind the abdominal muscles. A cross section viewed under a microscope reveals that it contains a connective tissue composed of large cells, or droplets. The cell walls are very thin and there is no collagen. The tissue looks like it might be good for cushioning.

What type of connective tissue is this?

A) Areolar tissue B) Dense regular connective tissue C) Elastic connective tissue D) Adipose tissue

523)

Spicy foods irritate the membrane of your mouth, which triggers goblet cells to produce a protective layer of a thick substance called mucus. What membrane must be lining the mouth?

A) Serous membrane B) Synovial membrane C) Mucous membrane D) Cutaneous membrane

524)

Lacrimal glands release a watery solution, called tears, over the eye. What type of gland are lacrimal glands?

A) Merocrine gland B) Apocrine gland C) Holocrine gland D) Endocrine gland

525)

The esophagus carries food from the mouth to the stomach. The inner lining is under constant friction as food passes through. What type of epithelial tissue would be best to protect the esophagus?

A) Stratified squamous epithelium B) Simple squamous epithelium C) Simple cuboidal epithelium D) Simple columnar epithelium E) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

526)

The iris of the eye constricts to change the diameter of the pupil, controlling the amount of light allowed to enter the eye. What type of muscle tissue forms the iris?

A) Smooth muscle tissue B) Skeletal muscle tissue C) Intercalated muscle tissue D) Cardiac muscle tissue

527)

A nerve and blood vessels are sometimes bundled together by a connective tissue that is cobweb-like in appearance. What type of connective tissue serves this function?

A) Dense connective tissue B) Hyaline cartilage C) Adipose tissue D) Areolar tissue

528)

What is the function of adipose tissue?

A) Causes movement of the limbs B) Provides framework for organs C) Stores energy D) Forms inner lining of body cavities E) Gives shape to the ear

529)

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a hereditary disorder that affects collagen production. What type of tissue would be most affected?

A) Epithelial tissue B) Muscle tissue C) Nervous tissue D) Connective tissue

530)

What type of epithelium would be best suited for high rates of diffusion and filtration?

A) Simple squamous epithelium B) Stratified squamous epithelium C) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium D) Transitional epithelium E) Stratified columnar epithelium

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

531) Cells within a tissue are joined together by __________.

532)

A structure that "spot welds" skin cells together is a(n) __________.

533)

The study of tissues is called __________ .

534)

The four tissue types are muscle tissue, nervous tissue, connective tissue, and __________ tissue.

535)

The tissue that covers all body surfaces is called __________ tissue.

536)

A single layer of flattened cells forms a tissue called __________ epithelium .

537)

The inner lining of most organs in the digestive system is composed of __________ epithelium.

538)

Sebaceous glands secrete a substance called sebum which coats the skin and protects it from water. This secretion forms as the cells lining the ducts of the glands rupture and release their contents, along with the disintegrated cells. Based on this description, sebaceous glands are _________ glands.

539)

The most abundant cells in dense connective tissue are __________ .

540)

Cartilage cells occupy small chambers called __________ .

541)

The intervertebral discs that separate the vertebral bones of the backbone are composed of __________ .

542)

The __________ cells function to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide in the body.

543)

The inner lining of the abdominal cavity is a(n) __________ membrane.

544)

The lining of the nasal cavity is a(n) __________ membrane.

545)

The term cutaneous membrane is synonymous with __________.

546)

Cells of skeletal muscle tissue are called __________.

547)

Striations, but not intercalated discs, are seen in __________ muscle tissue.

548)

Muscle cells that are under involuntary control and have striations are found in __________ muscle tissue.

549)

The primary characteristic of muscle tissues is their ability to __________ .

550)

The band located between adjacent cardiac muscle cells is called a(n) __________.

551)

Cells that support neurons are called __________.

552)

The cells that respond to environmental stimuli are __________ .

553)

The part of the neuron that transmits electrical impulses to other neurons, glands, and muscle cells is the __________.

554)

A biomedical engineer is tasked with creating epithelial tissue to be placed in a test animal. This tissue needs to secrete mucus to form a protective layer on the surface of the tissue. The engineer needs to place __________ cells in the epithelial tissue to accomplish this function.

555)

Cystic fibrosis is a deadly disease that causes mucus secretions in the body to become abnormally thick. The respiratory system has difficulty clearing out this mucus and the bacteria caught in it because the epithelial tissue lining the airways cannot “sweep” it away.

The result is frequent infections. The type of epithelium lining the airways is called __________ epithelium .

556)

Arrector pili are muscles within the skin that cause fine hair to stand on end, as would occur with goose bumps. Arrector pili muscles are composed of __________ muscle tissue.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) FALSE 25) FALSE 26) TRUE 27) TRUE 28) FALSE 29) TRUE 30) C 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) B

38) A 39) B 40) C 41) B 42) C 43) B 44) D 45) A 46) B 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) D 52) C 53) B 54) A 55) D 56) C 57) D 58) A 59) B 60) D 61) A 62) A 63) C 64) B 65) C 66) C 67) B 68) C 69) C 70) B 71) A 72) D 73) B 74) A 75) C 76) B 77) A

78) D 79) C 80) A 81) A 82) A 83) D 84) C 85) D 86) A 87) intercellular junctions 88) desmosome 89) histology 90) epithelial 91) epithelial 92) simple squamous 93) simple columnar 94) holocrine 95) fibroblasts 96) lacunae 97) fibrocartilage 98) red blood 99) serous 100) mucous 101) skin 102) muscle fibers 103) skeletal 104) cardiac 105) contract 106) intercalated disc 107) neuroglia 108) neurons 109) axon 110) goblet 111) pseudostratfied columnar 112) smooth

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

557) The skin is one of the largest organs by weight in the body. ⊚ true ⊚ false 558)

The tough waterproof layer that makes up the outermost part of the epidermis is the stratum lucidum. ⊚ true ⊚ false

559)

In healthy skin, the production of epidermal cells is closely balanced with the loss of skin cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

560)

Melanocytes can transfer granules of melanin into nearby epithelial cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

561)

Blood carrying excessive amounts of oxygen causes the skin tone called cyanosis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

562)

The major blood vessels that supply the skin lie between the dermis and the epidermis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

563)

The outermost layer of the epidermis is the stratum basale and the innermost layer is the stratum corneum. ⊚ true ⊚ false

564)

Melanocytes synthesize melanin, which protects underlying cells from the effects of ultraviolet light. ⊚ true ⊚ false

565)

If the dermal papillae were completely flat, this would result in the fingerprints becoming even more prominent. ⊚ true ⊚ false

566)

Sunlight, ultraviolet light, and X-rays all darken skin because they increase blood flow to the dermis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

567)

Besides the production of melanin, three factors that affect the color of skin are volume of blood in dermal vessels, presence of carotene in the subcutaneous layer, and various diseases. ⊚ true ⊚ false

568)

If the entire epidermis were to become keratinized, skin would become incredibly hard and inflexible. ⊚ true ⊚ false

569)

Melanin production is greater in the skin of people who spend most of their time outdoors than in people who do not. ⊚ true ⊚ false

570)

The amount of keratin produced during the formation of a hair determines its hair color. ⊚ true ⊚ false

571)

When showering, a young woman loses what looks like hundreds of hairs. Even so, she should not be concerned about impending baldness. ⊚ true ⊚ false

572)

The arrector pili muscle is composed of striated muscle tissue. ⊚ true ⊚ false

573)

Sweating cools the body by evaporation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

574)

Hypothermia is elevated body temperature due to exposure to heat and the inability of the body to cool down. ⊚ true ⊚ false

575)

A second-degree burn is the same as a full-thickness burn. ⊚ true ⊚ false

576)

A burn that involves the only the epidermis is called a deep partial-thickness burn. ⊚ true ⊚ false

577)

Aging affects the appearance of the skin, producing wrinkles and sagging due to decreased collagen and elastin formation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

578)

The stratum granulosum is superficial to the stratum spinosum. ⊚ true ⊚ false

579)

Alan, a 72-year old, decides to get a tattoo. The tattoo artist will have to set the needle depth to a deeper setting because the epidermis of the elderly is thicker and tougher than in younger skin. ⊚ true ⊚ false

580)

Courtney has high blood pressure and is put on a vasodilator, which causes blood vessels to dilate, lowing blood pressure. One of the side effects will be pale, cool skin. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

581) The skin, as an organ, is also referred to as the __________.

A) epidermis B) cutaneous membrane C) stratum corneum D) epithelium 582)

The skin along with structures such as nails, hair, and sweat glands are part of the __________.

A) integumentary system B) dermis C) subcutaneous tissue D) exoskeleton

583)

Injections that are administered into the tissues of the skin are called __________ injections.

A) subcutaneous B) intradermal C) intramuscular D) hypodermic

584)

In the genetic disease called ichthyosis, the skin is rough, brown, and scaly because the uppermost layer cannot peel off as easily as it should. What layer of the skin is affected in this disorder?

A) Epidermis B) Basement membrane C) Dermis D) Subcutaneous layer

585)

What happens to keratinocytes as they are pushed from the deeper layers of the epidermis toward the surface?

A) They continue to divide.

B) They take on more pigment.

C) They die.

D) They become dermal cells.

586)

What tissue type forms most of the dermis?

A) Stratified columnar epithelium B) Adipose tissue C) Stratified squamous epithelium D) Dense irregular connective tissue

587)

Nerve fibers scattered throughout the dermis are associated with what structures?

A) Hair, melanocytes, and keratinocytes B) Bone, tendons, and muscles C) Adipose and reticular tissue D) Muscles, glands, and sensory receptors

588)

What are dermal papillae?

A) Bundles of dense connective tissue fibers.

B) Cluster of cells that produce hair.

C) Site where nails are anchored to fingers or toes.

D) Projections of dermal tissue between epidermal ridges.

589)

The __________ is typically thicker than the __________.

A) stratum basale; stratum corneum B) papillary layer; reticular layer C) dermis; epidermis D) skin of the forearm; skin of the palm of the hand

590)

Normally, melanin is confined to what area of the skin?

A) Epidermis B) Basement membrane C) Dermal papillae D) Stratum corneum

591)

Consuming too many vegetables containing the pigment carotene can result in a __________ tinge to the skin due to the deposit of the pigment in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue.

A) greenish B) yellowish C) bluish D) reddish

592)

Why does exposure to ultraviolet light darken the skin?

A) It stimulates the synthesis of melanin.

B) It stimulates the production of keratinocytes.

C) It stimulates the synthesis of keratin.

D) It stimulates proliferation of papillae.

593)

What epidermal layer consists of a single layer of columnar cells that undergo mitosis?

A) Stratum corneum B) Stratum granulosum C) Stratum spinosum D) Stratum basale

594)

What determines the color of skin?

A) The number of melanocytes in the epidermis.

B) The thickness of the epidermis.

C) The amount of melanin that melanocytes produce.

D) The density of hair.

595)

The subcutaneous layer is comprised of what tissue type(s)?

A) Epithelial tissue B) Areolar and adipose tissue C) Epithelial tissue and areolar tissue D) Adipose tissue and skeletal muscle tissue

596)

Blood vessels in the __________ supply epidermal cells with nutrients.

A) epidermis B) dermis C) stratum basale D) hair follicle

597)

Skin cells play an important role in producing what vitamin?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin K

598)

Which statement describes melanocytes in very dark skin?

A) They are more abundant than they are in light skin.

B) They each contain one large pigment granule.

C) They lack pigment but shrivel up and turn black.

D) They contain numerous small pigment granules.

599)

As keratinocytes age and are pushed further away from the dermis, they develop __________ which help fasten the cells tightly together. This in turn helps the skin serve its protective function.

A) melanin B) collagen C) keratin D) desmosomes

600)

Epidermis is composed of __________, whereas dermis is composed of __________.

A) areolar tissue; columnar epithelial tissue B) dense irregular connective tissue; simple squamous epithelial tissue C) pseudostratified epithelial tissue; areolar tissue D) stratified squamous epithelial tissue; dense irregular connective tissue

601)

What is the function of the dendritic cells of the epidermis?

A) They are tough, waterproof cells that allow the skin to be a tough dry barrier.

B) They serve as sensory receptors, detecting light touch.

C) They produce a pigment that gives the skin its color and helps to protect DNA from UV radiation.

D) They are phagocytic and help in triggering an immune response to any invading microbes.

602)

Granules called __________ serve to transfer pigment from melanocytes to nearby keratinocytes.

A) proteosomes B) melanosomes C) melatonin vesicles D) transfer vesicles

603)

What is the cause of cyanosis?

A) A buildup of cyanide in the skin B) Low blood oxygen levels C) Excess of carotene in the diet D) Excessive exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation

604)

Two thieves steal jewelry, and then drop it as they are escaping. The police recover the jewelry, and an officer explains on the evening news that fingerprints were obtained from the back of a watch. The thieves, whose prints are not on file, believe that they can escape prosecution by using acid to remove the epidermis on their fingerpads, so as not to be a match for the fingerprints on the watch. Why are they wrong?

A) The prints are due to features of the subcutaneous layer, which are not destroyed.

B) The prints are due to features of the dermis, which are not destroyed.

C) The epidermis will rapidly regrow and re-form the ridges since they are genetically determined.

D) The epidermis is too thick for the acid to completely remove the ridges.

605)

The major blood vessels that supply the epidermis are in the __________.

A) stratum basale B) basement membrane C) dermis D) stratum corneum

606)

You step out of the shower and vigorously rub your skin with a towel. If you were able to analyze the towel, you would find skin cells. They are most likely what type of cell?

A) Melanocytes B) Dermal cells C) Keratinocytes D) Fibroblasts

607)

608)

What layer of the epidermis is absent from thin skin?

A) Stratum lucidum B) Stratum granulosum C) Stratum corneum D) Stratum basale

Which is the most likely explanation for the defect in dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa, in which the skin develops blisters in response to any touch?

A) The skin has too many melanocytes that produce too much melanin.

B) Melanocytes cannot produce melanin.

C) Collagen fibers that attach the epidermis to the dermis break down.

D) The skin layers are reversed.

609)

Water loss from the skin is minimal because of the structure of the __________.

A) reticular layer of the dermis B) papillary layer of the dermis C) subcutaneous layer D) epidermis

610)

What is the order of epidermal strata, from superficial to deep?

A) Corneum; lucidum; granulosum; spinosum; basale B) Basale; spinosum; granulosum; lucidum; corneum C) Corneum; granulosum; spinosum; lucidum; basale D) Basale; lucidum; spinosum; granulosum; corneum

611)

What are corns?

A) Areas of white skin pigmentation B) Scaly areas on the scalp C) Keratinized conical masses D) Growths emanating from the nails

612)

Name the tough fibrous protein that is responsible for the waterproof nature of skin.

A) Keratin B) Melanin C) Vitamin D D) Collagen

613)

Structures within the skin, called accessory structures, originate from the __________.

A) epidermis B) basement membrane C) dermis D) subcutaneous layer

614)

What cell type produces the nail plates?

A) Cartilage cells (chondrocytes) B) Fibroblasts C) Melanocytes D) Specialized epithelial cells

615)

The nail __________ overlies the nail __________.

A) plate; bed B) plate; body C) matrix; bed D) bed; plate

616)

What gives a nail its hardness?

A) Melanin B) Collagen C) Calcium D) Keratin

617)

What forms the shafts of hair?

A) Live dermal cells B) Dead epidermal cells C) Live epidermal cells D) Dead dermal cells

618)

Why might a pressure ulcer form?

A) An injury involving only the epidermis does not heal correctly.

B) Continual friction causes an overgrowth of epidermis.

C) Abrasions wear away the superficial layers of skin.

D) Loss of blood supply to the skin leads to necrosis of skin cells.

619)

What is the source of stem cells within a hair follicle?

A) Hair papilla B) Hair bulge C) Hair root D) Hair matrix

620)

After a severe burn, new skin may grow outward from the hair follicles. Why would new growth originate at the hair follicles?

A) Hair follicles are very resistant to fire and heat.

B) Abundant hair follicles are present on most body surfaces.

C) Hair follicles contain a region that gives rise to stem cells.

D) Hair follicles are located in the subcutaneous layer.

621)

Blonde and red hair is due to the abundance of __________, whereas dark hair is due to having more __________.

A) keratin; melanin B) keratin; collagen C) pheomelanin; eumelanin D) promelanin; pseudomelanin

622)

Arrector pili muscles are attached to what feature of the skin?

A) Nail beds B) Sebaceous glands C) Stratum corneum D) Hair follicles

623)

What is secreted by sebaceous glands?

A) Fat globules mixed with cellular debris B) Hormones C) Watery solution containing organic material D) Mucus

624)

How might merocrine (eccrine) sweat glands be described?

A) Most common in the armpits and groin B) Secrete in response to elevated body temperature C) Secrete in response to emotional stress D) Usually associated with hair follicles

625)

Where are apocrine sweat glands most abundant?

A) On the forehead B) In the axillae C) At the back of the neck D) On the palms of the hands

626)

How do merocrine (eccrine) sweat glands differ from sebaceous glands?

A) Merocrine glands are in the dermis while sebaceous glands are in the subcutaneous layer.

B) Merocrine glands release their product onto the skin surface while sebaceous glands release their product into the blood.

C) Merocrine glands release a watery secretion while sebaceous glands release an oily secretion.

D) Merocrine glands are modified apocrine glands while sebaceous glands are modified ceruminous glands.

627)

What type of glands secrete breast milk and ear wax?

A) Modified sebaceous glands B) Modified apocrine sweat glands C) Modified merocrine (eccrine) sweat glands D) Modified endocrine glands

628)

What is the primary means of body heat loss?

A) Conduction B) Convection C) Evaporation D) Radiation

629)

What is a normal response to excessive loss of body heat in a cold environment?

A) Dermal blood vessels constrict.

B) Sweat glands become active.

C) Smooth muscles relax.

D) Dermal blood vessels dilate.

630)

Sweating results in loss of body heat by what means?

A) Convection B) Conduction C) Evaporation D) Radiation

631)

The body loses heat to the air molecules continuously circulating over it by the process of __________.

A) Radiation B) Evaporation C) Conduction D) Convection

632)

As body temperature increases, the dermal blood vessels are triggered to __________.

A) dilate B) constrict

633)

A core body temperature that drops below 35ºC (95ºF) is called __________.

A) hyperthermia B) fever C) hypothermia D) alopecia

634)

The homeostatic mechanism that maintains body temperature has the __________ as its control center.

A) dermal blood vessels B) skeletal muscles C) spinal cord D) hypothalamus

635)

How can the body generate heat when one gets chilled?

A) By stimulating activity of merocrine glands B) By dilating dermal blood vessels C) By constricting dermal blood vessels D) By increasing skeletal muscle activity

636)

Inflammation results in __________ in the area of injury or infection, resulting in redness and swelling of the tissue.

A) vasodilation B) muscle contraction C) blood clotting D) loss of skin

637)

When does inflammation occur?

A) In response to extreme cold B) In response to injury or infection C) In response to fever D) In response to aging

638)

During wound healing, what forms the scab?

A) Phagocytic cells and fibroblasts B) Blood plasma and tissue fluid C) Fibrin and blood cells D) Dead tissue fragments and phagocytes

639)

What forms the granulations that may appear during the healing of a large, open wound?

A) Blood clots B) Phagocytic cells and collagen fibers C) New blood vessels surrounded by fibroblasts D) Scar tissue

640)

What term describes a burn affecting only the epidermis?

A) Superficial partial-thickness burn B) Deep partial-thickness burn C) Full thickness burn

641)

Treating an extensive burn with an __________ involves covering the injured area with undamaged skin from another area of the body.

A) allograft B) autograft C) exograft D) isograft

642)

During Alison's coronary bypass surgery, a blood vessel from her leg was removed and used to bypass a blockage in a major artery in her heart, where it will supplement the blood supply following a heart attack. The use of her own blood vessel is called an __________.

A) exograft B) autograft C) allograft D) isograft

643)

Jeffery donates part of his liver to his daughter who suffers from cystic fibrosis. This is an example of an __________.

A) exograft B) autograft C) allograft D) isograft

644)

In treating a burn patient, how is the "rule of nines" used?

A) To estimate the depth of the burn.

B) To estimate the surface area of the burn.

C) To estimate time needed for healing.

D) To estimate the level of pain experienced by the patient.

645)

As a person ages, what happens to their skin?

A) The skin becomes thicker.

B) The skin becomes more opaque.

C) The skin becomes more elastic.

D) The skin becomes thinner.

646)

Why are the elderly less able to maintain a stable body temperature?

A) They can no longer sense temperature.

B) Their sebaceous glands become less active.

C) They have fewer sweat glands.

D) Their skin has hardened.

647)

Wrinkles develop with aging. What change to the skin would cause these wrinkles to occur?

A) Collagen degrades in the subcutaneous layer as the epidermis thins.

B) Fat is lost from the subcutaneous layer and the dermis shrinks.

C) The number of sweat glands diminishes.

D) Epidermal cells undergo a burst of cell division.

648)

What separates the epidermis from the dermis?

A) Subcutaneous layer B) Adipose tissue C) Stratum granulosum D) Basement membrane

649)

The __________ of the __________ layer is important in conserving body heat.

A) adipose tissue; subcutaneous B) areolar tissue; papillary C) stratified epithelium; epidermal D) dense connective tissue; dermal

650)

What cell type gives rise to cutaneous melanomas?

A) Melanocytes B) Fibroblasts C) Keratinocytes D) Dendritic cells

651)

What is a function of the protein p53?

A) Forms links between neighboring epidermal cells B) Stimulates hair growth C) Protects cells from overexposure to the sun D) Stimulates mitosis in the stratum basale

652)

Which of the following describes a feature of the epidermis?

A) It is comprised of epithelium and connective tissue.

B) Sweat glands originate in its deepest layer.

C) It lacks blood vessels.

D) The superficial cells undergo continual mitosis.

653)

The superficial layer of epidermal cells are __________.

A) squamous B) highly mitotic C) cuboidal D) well nourished

654)

What epidermal cell type responds to light touch by stimulating sensory nerve endings?

A) Tactile cells B) Dendritic cells C) Melanocytes D) Keratinocytes

655)

Exposure to ultraviolet radiation greatly increases the risk of developing __________.

A) heart disease B) diabetes C) skin cancer D) glaucoma

656)

What feature of the skin gives it elasticity and toughness?

A) The presence of hair follicles in the dermis.

B) The shape of the epithelial cells of the epidermis.

C) The adipose tissue of the subcutaneous layer.

D) The connective tissue in the dermis.

657)

What feature of the skin is involved in acne?

A) Sweat glands B) Hair follicles C) Sebaceous glands D) Apocrine glands

658)

Why does the elevated body temperature seen with a fever develop?

A) Because the set point for body temperature becomes elevated.

B) Because the set point for body temperature is decreased.

C) Because the hypothalamus stops monitoring body temperature.

D) Because infection destroys the hypothalamus and, thus, the control center for body temperature.

659)

Katy is an aspiring tattoo artist and is doing her first tattoo. Being nervous, she doesn't adjust the needle depth setting on the tattoo machine properly. As a result, the ink is only deposited into the dermis in some spots, while much of it is deposited into the lower layers of the epidermis. What will happen to the tattoo?

A) The tattoo won’t show through the layers of the skin.

B) In about a month or so, the ink deposited into the epidermis will be gone.

C) The tattoo will be perfectly fine.

D) The ink will bleed and the tattoo will be blurry, but the ink will be retained.

660)

The cosmetic procedure called miraDry involves microwaving the axillary region. After this procedure, patients notice a drastic reduction in both body odor and wetness in their underarms. Hair remains unchanged. What structures are affected by this treatment?

A) Merocrine (eccrine) sweat glands and ceruminous glands B) Merocrine (eccrine) sweat glands and sebaceous glands C) Merocrine (eccrine) and apocrine sweat glands D) Sebaceous glands and ceruminous glands

661)

Carlee slammed her fingers in a door. One of her fingernails is damaged near the lunula, forming a white oval at the site of the injury. As time progresses, what happens to the damaged (white) area?

A) The white oval will slowly dissipate and disappear as the damage is replaced from underneath via the nail bed.

B) The white oval will split vertically and each half will gradually move toward the lateral (horizontal) edges of the nail.

C) The white oval will be pushed up to the surface and out of the nail as a raised bump, with that section of nail eventually peeling off.

D) The white oval will gradually move out toward the free edge of the nail and then be worn away along with neighboring normal areas of the nail.

662)

The treatment called Botox works by blocking nerve signals and is typically used to target the muscles of the face to reduce wrinkling. However, some patients with excessive sweating (hyperhidrosis) have Botox injected into problem areas to reduce the amount of sweating. Why would this work?

A) Nerve signals that stimulate apocrine and merocrine glands are blocked.

B) Nerve signals to arrector pili muscles are blocked so they aren't stimulated to squeeze sweat from the glands.

C) Nerve signals that stimulate sebaceous glands are blocked.

D) Nerve signals from temperature sensors are blocked, so the sweat glands aren't triggered to secrete when the temperature increases.

663)

Jackson has a condition in which his fibroblasts are functional, but very inefficient and produce collagen at a slow rate. He has cut himself on a broken piece of glass. What will his healing process be like?

A) No blood clot or scab will form.

B) Only the epidermis will heal. The dermis will not heal until he seeks medical intervention.

C) The wound will heal very slowly.

D) Heavy scar tissue will be produced in and around the wound.

664)

Excessive collagen production during wound healing results in __________.

A) more rapid healing B) blood clot formation C) redness and swelling in wound area D) scar formation

665)

A mild sunburn is classified as a __________ burn.

A) superficial partial-thickness B) deep partial-thickness C) full-thickness

666)

The condition called __________ results from a complete lack of melanin.

A) albinism B) jaundice C) cyanosis D) melanoma

667)

Structures including a bulb, a bulge, and a papilla are all associated with what skin structure?

A) Hair follicle B) Dermal layer C) Fingernail D) Melanocyte E) Stratum basale

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

668) The epidermal cells that have an immune function are the __________ cells.

669)

The deepest cells of the epidermis are those of the stratum __________.

670)

The pigment produced by melanocytes is __________.

671)

The __________ of the subcutaneous layer acts as a heat insulator.

672)

The __________ sweat glands become active at puberty and possess ducts that open into hair follicles.

673)

Localized redness, swelling, warmth, and pain are indicators of __________, the normal response to injury.

674)

Decreased hair growth, decreased number of sensory receptors in the skin, and inability to regulate body temperature are all signs of __________.

675)

A new acne medication works by significantly slowing down production of sebum. The structures targeted by this medication are the __________ glands.

676)

While baking a pizza, Jack accidentally touches his arm against the top of the oven while trying to remove it. The area becomes very red, and shortly after the injury, a large blister forms. While it is painful and warm, the burn isn’t dry or leathery and the skin isn’t blanched white or charred black. This is a type of burn called a __________ burn.

677)

The process of __________ results in a dry, waterproof epidermis.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) FALSE 25) B 26) A 27) B 28) A 29) C 30) D 31) D 32) D 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) D

38) C 39) B 40) B 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) D 45) D 46) B 47) B 48) B 49) C 50) C 51) A 52) C 53) D 54) A 55) C 56) A 57) A 58) D 59) A 60) D 61) B 62) D 63) B 64) C 65) C 66) D 67) A 68) B 69) B 70) C 71) B 72) D 73) A 74) C 75) D 76) A 77) C

78) D 79) D 80) A 81) B 82) C 83) C 84) A 85) B 86) B 87) C 88) B 89) D 90) C 91) B 92) D 93) A 94) A 95) C 96) C 97) A 98) A 99) C 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108) 109) 110) 111) 112) 113) 114) 115) 116) 117)

D C A B C D A C D A A A dendritic basale melanin adipose tissue apocrine inflammation

118) 119) 120) 121)

aging sebaceous deep partial thickness keratinization

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

678) If the sacrum were to develop without its primary curve, it would be concave. ⊚ true ⊚ false 679)

Bones in the human body are nonliving. ⊚ true ⊚ false

680)

Bones are classified as irregular, flat, short, or long. ⊚ true ⊚ false

681)

A bone shaft is the diaphysis; the expanded parts at the ends are the epiphyses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

682)

In the humerus, the deltoid tuberosity is located on the diaphysis; the trochlea, capitulum, and the greater/lesser tubercles are parts of the epiphyses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

683)

Perforating canals form transverse channels in bone tissue. ⊚ true ⊚ false

684)

If the supply of blood cells is deficient, yellow marrow may change into red marrow. ⊚ true ⊚ false

685)

Anemia could prompt the conversion of yellow marrow into red marrow. ⊚ true ⊚ false

686)

Bone remodeling occurs as osteoblasts resorb bone tissue and osteoclasts replace the bone. ⊚ true ⊚ false

687)

Testosterone has a stronger effect on epiphyseal plates than do the estrogens. ⊚ true ⊚ false

688)

The small intestine requires vitamin D to adequately absorb calcium. ⊚ true ⊚ false

689)

Osteoclasts are bone-resorbing cells, whereas osteoblasts are bone-forming cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

690)

Blood cell formation is called osteogenesis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

691)

The number of bones in most people is 206. ⊚ true ⊚ false

692)

The appendicular skeleton consists of the parts that support and protect the head, neck, and trunk. ⊚ true ⊚ false

693)

Gerri needs to have surgery to correct a fracture she sustained on one of her carpal bones.

The surgery is occurring in her foot. ⊚ true ⊚ false

694)

The parietal bones meet each other along the sagittal suture. ⊚ true ⊚ false

695)

Fontanels in the fetal skull permit some bone movement, enabling the fetus to pass more easily through the birth canal during childbirth. ⊚ true ⊚ false

696)

Intervertebral discs are composed of skeletal muscle. ⊚ true ⊚ false

697)

The first cervical vertebra is the axis and the second is the atlas. ⊚ true ⊚ false

698)

Most people have 24 ribs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

699)

The sternum is composed of three parts: the lower manubrium, the middle body, and the upper xiphoid. ⊚ true ⊚ false

700)

During a martial arts exhibition, Gregory receives a punch that causes his xiphoid process to break. This suggests that the punch hit the pectoral girdle. ⊚ true ⊚ false

701)

The pectoral girdle consists of two scapulae and two clavicles. ⊚ true ⊚ false

702)

The deltoid tuberosity is part of the humerus. ⊚ true ⊚ false

703)

A styloid process is part of the ulna. ⊚ true ⊚ false

704)

The ilium is part of the pelvic girdle. ⊚ true ⊚ false

An “open book” fracture occurs when blunt force trauma causes the two pubis bones of the pelvic girdle to separate, opening the entire girdle from the front like a book. The section of the pelvic girdle that would be broken in this injury is the pubic symphysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

705)

706)

The ischium is the anterior part of the hip bone. ⊚ true ⊚ false

707)

The femur extends from the knee to the foot. ⊚ true ⊚ false

708)

Loriann has an abnormally narrow pelvic brim. This will most likely be a problem during childbirth. ⊚ true ⊚ false

709)

As a person ages, osteoblasts out number osteoclasts. ⊚ true ⊚ false

710)

Men and women begin to lose bone at the same rate by about age 70. ⊚ true ⊚ false

711)

Osteoporosis is more severe than osteopenia. ⊚ true ⊚ false

712)

If the sinus cavities located within the skull were instead completely filled with bone, the skull would be much heavier. ⊚ true ⊚ false

713)

A laminectomy is a procedure used to treat osteoporosis that removes part of the body of a vertebra. ⊚ true ⊚ false

714)

Kyphosis is an excess curvature in the thoracic part of the vertebral column. ⊚ true ⊚ false

715)

Lordosis is an excess curvature of the thoracic part of the vertebral column. ⊚ true ⊚ false

716)

A parathyroid gland that is unresponsive to blood calcium levels and that produces abnormally high amounts of parathyroid hormone would result in bones rapidly breaking down. ⊚ true ⊚ false

717)

A parathyroid gland that is overresponsive to blood calcium levels will produce abnormally high amounts of calcitonin and cause bones to rapidly gain calcium. ⊚ true ⊚ false

718)

Kristen is in a car accident. When she regains consciousness, she notices a sharp pain in her left arm. Looking down, she sees a bone sticking out. This is a compound fracture. ⊚ true ⊚ false

719)

Kevin is born with a mutation that causes dehydrocholesterol to be unreactive when exposed to sunlight. This will lead to Kevin developing rickets. ⊚ true ⊚ false

720)

Ligaments are components of the skeletal system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

721) The zygomatic bone is an example of what shape of bone?

A) Long bone B) Flat bone C) Short bone D) Irregular bone 722)

The calcaneus bone of the foot is an example of a(n) __________.

A) long bone B) flat bone C) short bone D) irregular bone

723)

Which of the following is not associated with spongy bone?

A) Trabeculae B) Osteons C) Canaliculi D) Osteocytes

724)

Which shape of bone is listed with an incorrect example?

A) B) C) D)

Long bone - forearm bones Short bone - wrist and ankle bones Flat bone - thigh bone Irregular bone - vertebrae

725)

Compact bone has __________, whereas spongy bone has __________.

A) spaces that reduce the weight of bone; tightly packed matrix that is solid B) osteons; trabeculae C) trabeculae; osteons D) osteocytes; no osteocytes

726)

Where on a long bone is articular cartilage found?

A) On the outer surface of the epiphyses B) Inside the medullary cavity C) On the outer surface of the diaphysis D) In the spaces of the spongy bone

727)

What type of tissue comprises articular cartilage?

A) Fibrocartilage B) Spongy bone C) Elastic cartilage D) Hyaline cartilage

728)

A six-month-old baby is admitted to the hospital with a broken bone. This is the third fracture in the otherwise healthy child. The parents are arrested on charges of child abuse.

The defense lawyer gets the charges dropped after the results of genetic tests indicate which of the following conditions?

A) Polydactyly B) Osteoporosis C) Osteogenesis imperfecta D) Anemia

729)

What is the process by which a bone grows in thickness?

A) Cell division in the medullary cavity B) Increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts C) Increased activity within the epiphyseal plate D) Deposit of compact bone beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis

730)

What is the process by which a bone grows in length?

A) Cell division in the medullary cavity B) Increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts C) Increased activity within the epiphyseal plate D) Deposit of compact bone beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis

731)

Osteoblasts are __________, whereas osteocytes are __________.

A) bone-forming cells; bone-dissolving cells B) mature bone cells; bone-forming cells C) bone-forming cells; mature bone cells D) bone-dissolving cells; mature bone cells

732)

What are osteoclasts?

A) Bone cells that secrete bone matrix B) Mature bone cells that maintain the matrix C) Immature bone cells that give rise to osteocytes D) Bone cells that break down bone matrix

733)

In a child, a vitamin D deficiency results in __________, whereas a vitamin A deficiency results in __________.

A) pituitary dwarfism; rickets B) rickets; retardation of bone development C) excess calcium absorption; osteomalacia D) soft bones; rickets

734)

Pituitary dwarfism results from a decreased secretion of __________ , which in turn decreases the rate of cell division of __________.

A) thyroid hormones; osteocytes in the periosteum B) growth hormone; fat cells in the medullary cavity C) thyroid hormones; osteoclasts in the compact bone D) growth hormone; cartilage cells in the epiphyseal plate

735)

Which of the following is not a step in endochondral bone formation?

A) Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone.

B) Periosteum forms from connective tissue outside the developing bone.

C) Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.

D) Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage.

736)

Consider the following situation. During endochondral bone formation, the secondary ossification center never begins to form. What will the developing bone look like?

A) The bone will remain in its cartilaginous model form.

B) The bone will remain cartilaginous in the middle (the diaphysis) until adulthood, when the cartilage will ossify.

C) No epiphyseal plate will exist between the two formed ossification centers.

D) The ends (epiphyses) of the bone will remain cartilaginous during development until adulthood, when the cartilage will ossify.

737)

Which of the following is an example of an intramembranous bone(s)?

A) Bones of the cranium B) Phalanges of the fingers C) Humerus D) Femur

738)

What does the presence of an epiphyseal plate in a bone indicate?

A) The bone is lengthening.

B) The bone is no longer lengthening.

C) The bone is increasing in diameter.

D) The bone has completed ossification.

739)

At what age are nearly all bones completely ossified?

A) Birth B) 5 years C) 15 years D) 25 years

740)

What is the function of osteoblasts?

A) Osteoblasts are large, multinucleated cells that break down the calcified bone matrix.

B) Osteoblasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae.

C) Osteoblasts secrete collagen fibers and then mature into osteoclasts.

D) Osteoblasts secrete an acid that breaks down the epiphyseal plate.

741)

It is possible to determine if a child's long bone is growing by examining a radiograph of the bone and looking for a(n) _________.

A) diaphysis B) medullary cavity C) epiphyseal plate D) articular cartilage

742)

Endochondral ossification __________, whereas intramembranous ossification __________.

A) replaces hyaline cartilage with bone; replaces undifferentiated connective tissue with bone B) forms bone of the cranium; forms bone of the limbs C) inhibits osteoblast activity; increases osteoclast activity D) increases osteoclast activity; inhibits osteoblasts

743)

What would happen if the ossification center was removed during the process of intramembranous ossification?

A) Bone would stop growing.

B) A hollow space would develop in between the two layers of compact bone.

C) Surrounding mesenchymal cells would breakdown the periosteum.

D) Blood vessels would be encouraged to invade the area.

744)

What is the action of the thyroid hormone thyroxine on the skeletal system?

A) To increase cartilage production in the epiphyseal plate.

B) To stimulate osteoclasts.

C) To stimulate replacement of cartilage with bone in the epiphyseal plate.

D) To remove calcium from bone.

745)

What is the effect of sex hormones on the skeletal system?

A) They inhibit osteoblast activity.

B) They stimulate ossification of the epiphyseal plates.

C) They stimulate osteoclasts.

D) They cause a thickening of the diaphyses of long bones.

746)

What is the effect of exercise on bones?

A) Results in thickening and elongating of bones B) Results in weakening and elongating bones C) Results in thickening and strengthening bones D) Results in thinning and weakening bones

747)

Red bone marrow functions in the formation of __________.

A) red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets B) red blood cells only C) white blood cells only D) red and white blood cells only

748)

Which of the following does not describe the function(s) of the skeletal system?

A) It interacts with muscles, providing movement.

B) It stores inorganic salts.

C) It protects organs, especially in the head and thorax.

D) It generates the movements of the limbs.

749)

Which of the following is the most abundant form in which calcium is found in the inorganic matrix of the bone?

A) Calcium oxalate B) Hydroxyapatite C) Calcium pyrophosphate D) Calcium carbonate

750)

Which of the following is not a function of bones?

A) Contraction B) Attachment for muscles C) Blood cell production D) Storage of inorganic salts

751)

Which of the following bones are found within the axial skeleton?

A) The upper and lower limbs and pelvic and pectoral girdles B) The skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column C) The radius, ulna, carpals, and phalanges D) The femur, tibia, and fibula

752)

What bony feature cradles the pituitary gland?

A) Sella turcica B) Cribriform plate C) Sphenoidal sinus D) Mandibular fossa

753)

What two bones form the hard palate?

A) Sphenoid and ethmoid bones B) Nasal conchae and vomer bones C) Zygomatic and lacrimal bones D) Maxillary and palatine bones

754)

The processes of which two bones form the zygomatic arch?

A) Zygomatic and temporal bones B) Zygomatic and maxillary bones C) Maxillary and temporal bones D) Temporal and parietal bones

755)

Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit of the skull?

A) Ethmoid B) Sphenoid C) Vomer D) Frontal

756)

Bacteria infecting the mucous membranes in the air cells of the mastoid process most likely spread from the __________.

A) middle ear B) meninges C) frontal sinus D) maxillary sinus

757)

A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the __________.

A) ethmoid bone B) maxillae C) mandible D) vomer bone

758)

What are the primary curves of the vertebral column?

A) Cervical and lumbar curvatures B) Cervical and thoracic curvatures C) Thoracic and sacral curvatures D) Lumbar and sacral curvatures

759)

What are the secondary curves of the vertebral column?

A) Cervical and lumbar curvatures B) Cervical and thoracic curvatures C) Thoracic and sacral curvatures D) Lumbar and sacral curvatures

760)

What three bones fuse to form the hip bone?

A) The ilium, the femur, and the pubis.

B) The ilium, the sacrum, and the pubis.

C) The ischium, the coccyx, and the pubis.

D) The ilium, the ischium, and the pubis.

761)

The atlas is one of the __________ vertebrae.

A) lumbar B) thoracic C) cervical D) sacral

762)

If the atlas and axis were replaced with typical cervical vertebrae, __________ would be affected.

A) the ability to move the arms B) protection of the spinal cord C) the ability to pivot the head from side to side D) stability of the cervical intervertebral disks

763)

Ribs that join the sternum directly by costal cartilages are called __________ ribs.

A) true B) false C) floating D) vertebrochondral

764)

Which of the following describes the clavicles?

A) Provide attachments for muscles of the back, chest, and upper limbs B) Part of the vertebral column C) Provide attachments for muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limbs D) Part of the axial skeleton

765)

What are the names of the three borders of the scapula?

A) The frontal, pivotal, and dorsal borders B) The superior, lateral, and medial borders C) The acromion, coracoid, and glenoid borders D) The supraspinous, infraspinous, and subscapular borders

766)

What are phalanges?

A) Skull bones B) Forearm bones C) Finger and toe bones D) Wrist and ankle bones

767)

Where are the capitulum and trochlea located?

A) At the proximal end of the humerus B) At the distal end of the humerus C) At the distal end of the ulna D) In the hand

768)

If the trochlea was fractured, what joint would be affected?

A) The elbow joint B) The shoulder joint C) The thumb joint D) The wrist joint

769)

Having extra digits is termed __________.

A) polydactyly B) polyuria C) polyploidy D) polydipsia

770)

Which of the following is/are not a component(s) of the pelvic girdle?

A) Hip bones B) Coxal bones C) Femurs D) Sacrum

771)

If the acetabulum was malformed, which joint would be affected?

A) The elbow joint B) The knee joint C) The hip joint D) The ankle joint

772)

What is the acetabulum?

A) A depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur B) A protuberance in the hip bone that attaches to the head of the femur C) The prominence of the hip D) The anterior portion of the hip bone

773)

Which of the following describes a female's pelvis compared to a male's pelvis?

A) A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with lighter bones.

B) A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with lighter bones.

C) A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with heavier bones.

D) A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with heavier bones.

774)

Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male?

A) The angle of the female pubic arch is smaller.

B) The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.

C) The obturator foramen is more oval in a female.

D) The female iliac bones are less flared.

775)

Where is the femur located?

A) In the thigh B) In the pelvic girdle C) In the arm D) In the shin

776)

The talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, and lateral, intermediate, and cuneiform bones are all part of the _________.

A) foot B) hand C) pelvis D) skull

777)

Height begins to decrease on average after age _________.

A) 25 B) 30 C) 50 D) 65

778)

What is a compound fracture?

A) An incomplete break of the bone in more than one place B) A longitudinal break in the bone C) A broken bone exposed to the outside D) A complete break in the bone in more than one place

779)

A landscaper accidentally had their leg crushed by a tree. Their femur was impacted with such force that a section of the bone completely shattered into fragments. What type of break is this?

A) A comminuted fracture B) A fissured fracture C) An oblique fracture D) A greenstick fracture

780)

Which of the following correctly lists the steps of fracture repair in sequence?

A) A hematoma forms, granulation tissue and fibrocartilage develop, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, bony callus forms.

B) A hematoma forms, osteoblasts arrive and produce new bone tissue, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, granulation tissue forms.

C) Phagocytes clear away debris, osteoblasts remove damaged bone tissue, and a hematoma forms.

D) A hematoma forms followed by formation of a bony callus that fibrocartilage replaces.

781)

Cells that remove excess bone tissue after fracture repair are __________.

A) fibroblasts and osteoblasts B) chondrocytes and osteocytes C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts D) osteoclasts and phagocytes

782)

If a certain individual’s phagocytes were non-functioning, what would occur during fracture repair?

A) A hematoma would not be able to form inside the break.

B) The hematoma clot and other damaged tissue would not be cleared from the area during healing.

C) Fibrocartilage could not be produced within the gap between the sections of broken bone.

D) Excess bone tissue would not be removed toward the end of the healing process.

783)

Eighty-year-old Evelyn takes a bisphosphonate drug once a month to keep her bones strong. What condition does she most likely have?

A) Polydactyly B) Osteogenesis imperfecta C) Osteoporosis D) A hematoma

784)

Bisphosphonates are drugs that help build new bone. These are drugs that slow the progression of what condition?

A) Rickets B) Heart disease C) Osteoporosis D) Fractures

785)

Which of the following is not an abnormal curvature of the spine?

A) Lordosis B) Scoliosis C) Multiple sclerosis D) Kyphosis

786)

One of your friend’s femurs is abnormally short and curved. When asked about it, they tell you that when they were very young, they fell from a tree and fractured the femur at the distal end. Their pediatrician urged the parents to allow your friend to receive surgery for the fracture, but they refused. What most likely happened to result in the abnormal femur?

A) Lack of physical therapy caused the muscles of the leg to not heal correctly, inhibiting bone growth.

B) Because the epiphyseal plate was not repaired, any subsequent growth in the bone was stunted and abnormal.

C) The hematoma stage of the fracture never filled in with fibrocartilage, which caused the bone to never heal properly.

D) Because he was young, the femur healed so rapidly that it grew incorrectly and no medical intervention prevented this from occurring.

787)

Which bone marking does not serve as an articulating surface?

A) Head B) Epicondyle C) Condyle D) Facet

788)

What would be the effect on bone growth of insufficient dietary calcium?

A) The bone matrix would be softer.

B) The bone would be less flexible.

C) The epiphyseal plates would ossify earlier in development.

D) The formation of spongy bone would be increased.

789)

Which bone forms by intramembranous ossification?

A) Zygomatic B) Radius C) Axis D) Hamate

790)

Consider the classifications of bone, and examples of each. Which classification applies to bones used primarily for movement rather than protection?

A) Short bones B) Long bones C) Flat bones D) Irregular bones

791)

Not paying attention while walking and texting, Jenny trips over a curb and falls. She reaches out to break her fall, but unfortunately breaks the bone in her wrist that is distal to the radius. What bone did she break?

A) Scaphoid B) Ulna C) Humerus D) Hamate

792)

Which of the following isnot a component of the skeletal system?

A) Skeletal muscle B) Ligaments C) Cartilage D) Bone

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

793) The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with a thin cellular layer called the __________.

794)

The tough, fibrous vascular tissue that encloses a long bone is the __________.

795)

Secretion of excess __________ hormone causes acromegaly.

796)

Bone-forming cells are called __________.

797)

Blood cell formation is called __________.

798)

The two divisions of the skeleton are called the axial skeleton and the __________ skeleton.

799)

The membranous soft spots of a newborn's skull are called __________.

800)

The intervertebral discs are composed of the tissue __________.

801)

A baseball player is hit in the face with a baseball. The impact breaks the two front teeth and fractures the bone immediately above them. The fractured bone is the __________.

802)

The xiphoid process is part of the bone called the __________.

803)

The scapula is part of the __________ girdle.

804)

The bones of the wrist collectively are called the __________.

805)

The two pubic bones are connected at a joint called the pubic __________.

806)

During a soccer game, Peter receives a blow to the front of the knee and collapses. The bruised bone is the __________, commonly called the knee cap.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) FALSE 23) FALSE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) TRUE 27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) FALSE 31) TRUE 32) FALSE 33) TRUE 34) TRUE 35) TRUE 36) FALSE 37) TRUE

38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) D 45) C 46) B 47) C 48) B 49) A 50) D 51) C 52) D 53) C 54) C 55) D 56) B 57) D 58) C 59) D 60) A 61) A 62) D 63) B 64) C 65) A 66) A 67) C 68) B 69) C 70) A 71) D 72) B 73) A 74) B 75) A 76) D 77) A

78) C 79) A 80) B 81) C 82) A 83) D 84) C 85) C 86) A 87) A 88) B 89) C 90) B 91) A 92) A 93) C 94) C 95) A 96) A 97) B 98) A 99) A 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108) 109) 110) 111) 112) 113) 114) 115) 116) 117)

B C A A D B C C C B B A A B A A endosteum periosteum

118) 119) 120) 121) 122) 123) 124) 125) 126) 127) 128) 129)

growth osteoblasts hematopoiesis appendicular fontanels fibrocartilage maxilla sternum pectoral carpals symphysis patella

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

807) The fibrous joints between the flat bones of the skull are called sutures. ⊚ true ⊚ false 808)

A synchondrosis is a cartilaginous joint. ⊚ true ⊚ false

809)

The pubic symphysis is a fibrous joint. ⊚ true ⊚ false

810)

The temporomandibular joint (TMJ) is composed of the upper condyle of the mandible and a fossa in the temporal bone. These two surfaces exist in a capsule and are surrounded by a thin membrane that secretes a lubricating fluid. This means that the TMJ is a fibrous joint. ⊚ true ⊚ false

811)

The synovial membrane reabsorbs fluid and may help remove substances from an infected joint cavity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

812)

Synovial fluid moistens and lubricates the cartilaginous surfaces in a joint. ⊚ true ⊚ false

813)

A meniscus cushions articulating surfaces of bones. ⊚ true ⊚ false

814)

Closed, fluid-filled sacs that function as cushions are called bursae. ⊚ true ⊚ false

815)

A ball-and-socket joint is also called an ellipsoidal joint. ⊚ true ⊚ false

816)

The type of synovial joint in which only rotation may occur is a pivot joint. ⊚ true ⊚ false

817)

A condylar joint allows only up-and-down motion in one plane. ⊚ true ⊚ false

818)

A joint that has bones with articulating surfaces that are both convex and concave is a saddle joint. ⊚ true ⊚ false

819)

820)

When doing a push-up, the elbow joint flexes as the person lowers their body. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Kicking a soccer ball involves flexion of the leg at the knee joint as the foot draws back, and then extension as it contacts the ball. ⊚ true ⊚ false

821)

Your friend trips and you put your hand out to help them up. In the process, you rotate your forearm so that your palm faces upward. This forearm movement is supination. ⊚ true ⊚ false

822)

As you climb a tree, you put your thigh out to the side to rest your foot on a nearby branch. This thigh movement is adduction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

823)

As you are cooking, you accidentally touch the burner of the stove. You pull your hand away by contracting muscles in your arm to pull your forearm toward the arm. This movement is flexion of the forearm. ⊚ true ⊚ false

824)

You drop your cell phone. You lean forward to pick it up. This movement is extension of the back. ⊚ true ⊚ false

825)

Rotation of the forearms so the palms face upward is called pronation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

826)

Moving a part away from the midline is abduction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

827)

The hip joint allows a greater freedom of movement than the shoulder joint. ⊚ true ⊚ false

828)

The patellar ligament connects the medial condyle of the femur to the medial condyle of the tibia. ⊚ true ⊚ false

829)

The elbow joint includes a hinge joint. ⊚ true ⊚ false

830)

The hip joint is a ball-and-socket joint. ⊚ true ⊚ false

831)

The basic structure of the knee joint permits flexion and extension. ⊚ true ⊚ false

832)

Fibrous joints are the first to change with age. ⊚ true ⊚ false

833)

Osteoarthritis is caused by a bacterial infection. ⊚ true ⊚ false

834)

Arthritis is a circulatory problem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

835)

Movement at a synovial joint occurs due to skeletal muscle contraction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

836) Joints are also called __________.

A) annotations B) articulations C) affectations D) affiliations

837)

Joints can be classified as synarthrotic, amphiarthrotic, or diarthrotic. What characteristic was used to classify the joints?

A) Location of the joint in the body B) Composition of the joint C) Number of bones within the joint D) Degree of movement possible at the joint

838)

In craniosynostosis, the bones of the skull fuse together at the sutures prematurely, causing the brain to grow abnormally. Why would this cause abnormal brain growth?

A) The sutures are amphiarthrotic and slightly move during brain growth, so the plates of the skull can easily move to suit any direction of brain growth. Fusion at the sutures will prevent this free movement.

B) Because the sutures contain ligaments, blows to the skull can be absorbed by plate movement. Removal of the sutures will cause any slight blow to damage the brain.

C) The sutures are synarthrotic and do not move, only allowing expansion from within as the brain grows to fill the brain case. Fusion at the sutures will prevent this expansion.

D) Sutures are large gaps between bones that are filled with synovial fluid. This synovial fluid allows for the brain to expand into the spaces. Ossification of the sutures would prevent the expansion of the brain.

839)

Suppose all synarthrotic joints were fused in an individual. Which of the following would be true of this individual?

A) The person would not be able to flex their fingers and grasp objects.

B) Braces would not work to straighten the person’s teeth because their teeth would not move.

C) The person would not be able to bend forward because their vertebral column would be fused.

D) Head-turning would be impossible because the atlas and axis would be fused.

840)

Which of the following are examples of types of fibrous joints?

A) Synarthrotic, amphiarthrotic, and diarthrotic joints B) Syndesmosis, suture, and gomphosis joints C) Synchondrosis, symphysis, and synovial joints D) Pivot, condylar, and ellipsoidal joints

841)

The intermediate radioulnar joint exists between the radius and the ulna. The two bones are joined together by a high-collagen sheet of dense connective tissue. This joint allows slight movements and flexibility between the two bones. What specific type of joint is this?

A) A synovial plane joint.

B) A fibrous syndesmotic joint.

C) A cartilaginous synchondrosis joint.

D) A cartilaginous symphysis joint.

842)

A patient has a condition in which collagen fibers are incorrectly manufactured and are non-functional. Which types of joints will be most heavily affected?

A) Synarthrotic, amphiarthrotic, and diarthrotic joints B) Syndesmosis, suture, and gomphosis joints C) Synchondrosis, symphysis, and synovial joints D) Pivot, condylar, and ellipsoidal joints

843)

Suppose the pubic symphysis did not exist in the pelvic girdle and the two pubic bones were fused in the middle. Which of the following best describes the way the region would be affected if this joint was removed?

A) The vertebral column would not be able to extend because of the rigidity of the pelvis.

B) The femurs would grind inside the acetabulum and cause pain because of a lack of cartilage.

C) The pelvic girdle would be highly unstable because the pubic symphysis adds stability and rigidity.

D) Childbirth would have a high mortality risk because the pelvic girdle would be rigid and unmoving.

844)

A suture is an example of a __________ joint.

A) fibrous B) cartilaginous C) synovial D) plane

845)

A tooth root attached to a jawbone by a periodontal ligament is a __________ .

A) synchondrosis B) syndesmosis C) gomphosis D) synovial joint

846)

What type of joint is between adjacent vertebral bodies?

A) Symphysis that is amphiarthrotic.

B) Symphysis that is synarthrotic.

C) Symphysis that is diarthrotic.

D) Synovial joint that is synarthrotic.

847)

What connects bones together in a cartilaginous joint?

A) Synovial fluid B) Fibrous connective tissue C) Hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage D) A joint capsule

848)

A fibrous joint in which an interosseous ligament binds bones is a __________.

A) synchondrosis B) syndesmosis C) gomphosis D) symphysis

849)

A gomphosis is a __________ joint.

A) fibrous B) cartilaginous C) synovial D) synchondrosis

850)

What is the function of a synchondrosis?

A) To allow for bone growth B) To equalize pressure between vertebrae C) To protect soft tissue D) To allow for large range of motion

851)

Which of the following is not a type of fibrous joint?

A) Syndesmosis B) Coronal suture C) Gomphosis D) Symphysis

852)

What does the synovial membrane secrete?

A) Sweat B) Serous fluid C) Mucus D) Synovial fluid

853)

What would happen if the synovial membrane could not secrete synovial fluid?

A) The onset of arthritis would be slowed because synovial fluid generates friction within the joint capsule.

B) Blood would not directly flow into the joint capsule to nourish cartilage.

C) The cartilage contained within the capsule would not receive nutrients from synovial membrane blood vessels.

D) New cartilage would not be generated because synovial fluid is a stimulant for cartilage production.

854)

Bones of a synovial joint are held together by __________.

A) a synovial membrane B) a joint capsule C) a meniscus D) articular cartilage

855)

Greg trips over a toy and experiences a sharp pain. His physician diagnoses a torn meniscus. What joint has Greg injured?

A) Knee joint B) Elbow joint C) Shoulder joint D) Hip joint

856)

What is the source of oxygen and nutrients for articular cartilage?

A) A direct blood supply B) Blood vessels in underlying spongy bone C) Surrounding synovial fluid D) Chondrocytes

857)

What reinforces a joint capsule?

A) Adipose tissue within the surrounding spaces B) Articular cartilage cushioning ends of bones C) Ligaments binding articular ends of bones together D) Hyaline cartilage providing strength to the capsule walls

858)

Fluid-filled sacs containing synovial fluid are called __________.

A) bursae B) menisci C) ligaments D) tendons

859)

A professional wrestler ends a match early due to severe pain and loss of function in their lower arm and hand. Upon examination by a doctor, a major tear is discovered in one of the ligaments of the elbow. Which of the following could be the torn ligament?

A) The coracohumeral ligament.

B) The transverse humeral ligament.

C) The ulnar collateral ligament.

D) The oblique popliteal ligament.

860)

A football player suffers from a partially torn anterior cruciate ligament. Which joint has been injured?

A) Shoulder B) Elbow C) Hip D) Knee

861)

An athlete, after years of pitching, requires surgery to repair his glenohumeral ligaments.

Which joint has been injured?

A) Shoulder B) Elbow C) Hip D) Knee

862)

Fibrocartilage discs that divide the joint into two compartments are called __________.

A) menisci B) bursae C) tendons D) ligaments

863)

Which of the following is not a synovial joint?

A) Condylar B) Ball-and-socket C) Hinge D) Symphysis

864)

In which of the following is rotational movement possible?

A) Ball-and-socket joint B) Condylar joint C) Hinge joint D) Suture joint

865)

Most of the joints between the short bones in the ankle and wrist are __________ joints.

A) hinge B) pivot C) plane D) condylar

866)

A muscle end attached to a less movable or relatively fixed part is called the __________.

A) symphysis B) articulation C) origin D) insertion

867)

Which of the following correctly pairs a term with its definition?

A) Extension—bending the leg at the knee to bring the heel closer to the buttocks B) Abduction—lifting the arm out to the side of the body so that it is parallel to the ground C) Flexion—bringing the arm from overhead back down to the side of the body D) Adduction—moving the arm forward so its is in front of the body

868)

The act of closing the fingers to make a fist is an example of what type of joint movement at the interphalangeal joints?

A) Extension B) Abduction C) Flexion D) Rotation

869)

You turn your head to look at something over your shoulder. This is an example of __________ of the head.

A) retraction B) abduction C) circumduction D) rotation

870)

The coracohumeral ligament is associated with the __________ joint.

A) knee B) hip C) elbow D) shoulder

871)

Supposed the ball-and-socket joint of the hip was replaced with a pivot joint in which the femur is directly planted into the acetabulum. What movement(s) is/are now the only one(s) possible?

A) Abduction and adduction B) Rotation C) Flexion and extension D) Circumduction

872)

The largest and most complex synovial joint is the ___________.

A) hip B) knee C) elbow D) shoulder

873)

Which of the following joints has a radial collateral ligament?

A) Hip joint B) Shoulder joint C) Knee joint D) Elbow joint

874)

Displacement of a joint is called __________.

A) bursitis B) sprain C) dislocation D) arthritis

875)

Why does the hip joint have less freedom of movement than the shoulder joint?

A) The joint capsule of the hip is surrounded by muscles and the shoulder is not.

B) The articulating parts of the hip are closer together than those of the shoulder.

C) The hip joint capsule is less elastic than the shoulder.

D) The hip has less synovial fluid than the shoulder joint.

876)

What movements are permitted by the elbow joint located between the humerus and the ulna?

A) Adduction, flexion, and extension B) Movement in any plane C) Flexion and extension D) Rotation and circumduction

877)

Movement that brings the foot and toes farther from the shin is __________ of the ankle joint.

A) plantar flexion B) hyperextension C) rotation D) dorsiflexion

878)

A movement that brings the foot closer to the shin is __________ of the ankle joint.

A) extension B) abduction C) plantar flexion D) dorsiflexion

879)

What is the effect of activity and exercise on joints?

A) It makes joints more vulnerable to injury.

B) It hastens osteoarthritis.

C) It keeps joints functioning longer.

D) It increases joint stiffness.

880)

Disuse of the joints __________, which hastens stiffening.

A) causes arthritis B) causes injuries C) hampers blood flow D) degenerates cartilage

881)

A person works an office job that requires them to be in a sitting position for 10 hours a day. They go home and sit until they go to bed. This person never exercises and rarely gets up to move around after being seated. Their joints begin to constantly feel stiff and painful.

On a physiological level, what has happened to cause these symptoms?

A) Being stuck in the same position for long periods of time causes the ligaments to physically decay, stiffening the joints.

B) Lack of movement results in reduced blood flow in the vessels of the synovial membrane, reducing nutrient supply to ligaments which lose elasticity.

C) Disuse of the joint causes ossification of the fibrocartilage, creating arthritic joints.

D) Lack of movement causes the synovial membranes to stop producing synovial fluid, which then increases friction upon movement of the joints.

Connie recently celebrated her 45th birthday. She feels okay most of the day, but in the morning, for about a half hour after she gets out of bed, all of her joints feel stiff. What is the likely cause of her stiffness?

A) A sprained muscle near the joint B) A torn ligament near the joint C) Changes in collagen structure of the joint D) Damage to the nerve supplying the joint

882)

883)

What materials are used to build artificial joints?

A) Glucosamine and chondroitin B) Silicone polymers for small joints and metals for large joints C) Silicone polymers for large joints and metals for small joints D) Proteins for small joints and carbohydrates for large joints

884)

Which of the following is an infection?

A) Osteoarthritis B) A sprain C) Bursitis D) Lyme disease

885)

A patient is experiencing joint inflammation and pain. They undergo an arthrocentesis and their physician discovers cloudy, pus-filled synovial fluid. Which of these conditions is most likely occurring?

A) Osteoarthritis B) A sprain C) Bacterial joint infection D) Gout

886)

Which of the following best describes the causes of common forms of arthritis?

A) Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are autoimmune diseases.

B) Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are caused by effects of aging.

C) Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease and osteoarthritis is caused by effects of aging.

D) Rheumatoid arthritis is caused by effects of aging and osteoarthritis is an autoimmune disease.

887)

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A) A condition in which the synovial membrane becomes inflamed and thickened.

B) An inflammation of synchondrosis joints.

C) A condition in which ligaments break down, resulting in joints that become extremely loose.

D) A natural degeneration of joints due to old age.

888)

What is a sprain?

A) Inflammation of a bursa B) Overstretched or torn ligaments in a joint C) Dislocation of bones in a joint D) Overuse of a joint

889)

What type of joint is immovable?

A) Suture B) Hinge joint C) Ball-and-socket joint D) Saddle joint E) Synovial joint

890)

The degenerative joint disease osteoarthritis may develop as a result of damage to the __________.

A) articular cartilage B) diaphysis C) epiphyseal plate D) periosteum E) medullary cavity

891)

Which ligament is not associated with the glenohumeral joint?

A) Coracoacromial ligament B) Coracohumeral ligament C) Glenohumeral ligament D) Humeral collateral ligament

892)

Which of the following are not considered to be a feature of a synovial joint?

A) Muscles B) Sensory receptors C) Blood vessels D) Articular cartilage E) Synovial fluid

893)

What do sutures, gomphosis, and syndesmoses have in common?

A) These are joints found only in the appendicular skeleton.

B) These are joints found only in the axial skeleton.

C) These are all bony joints.

D) These are all fibrous joints.

E) These are cartilaginous joints.

894)

One example of a multiaxial joint is the __________ joint.

A) proximal radioulnar B) metatarsophalangeal C) humeroulnar D) glenohumeral E) atlantoaxial

895)

When you walk up the stairs, your hip and knee joints __________ to lift your body weight.

A) rotate B) abduct C) adduct D) flex E) extend

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

896) Joints that are held together by collagen-rich dense connective tissue are __________ joints.

897)

The type of joint that joins the fibula and tibia is called a(n) __________.

898)

A joint formed where a bony socket meets a cone-shaped bony process is called a(n) __________.

899)

During bone development, an endochondral bone starts off with a band of hyaline cartilage between the shaft and the end of the bone. Before ossification, this banded mass of hyaline cartilage is a type of joint called a(n) __________.

900)

Limited movement occurs at a __________ joint when forces compress the cartilaginous pad between the bones.

901)

Most joints of the skeletal system are __________.

902)

The temporomandibular joint (TMJ) is composed of the convex upper condyle of the mandible, which fits into a concave surface of the temporal bone. The joint allows the mandible to swing uniaxially, producing the up-and-down motion of chewing. The TMJ is classified as a(n) __________ joint.

903)

Joint capsules may be reinforced by bundles of strong, tough collagenous fibers called __________.

904)

A shiny, vascular lining of loose connective tissue that forms the inner layer of the joint capsule is the __________ membrane.

905)

Fluid-filled sacs associated with synovial joints are __________.

906)

A joint with articulating surfaces that are nearly flat is a(n) __________ joint.

907)

The hamate and capitate are two adjacent carpal bones. They articulate with each other at completely flat edges that allow sliding motions when needed. The joint between the hamate and capitate is a(n) __________ joint.

908)

A(n) __________ joint is found between a metacarpal and its adjacent phalanx.

909)

A yoga move in which a foot is grasped and the leg is brought upward so the foot touches the buttock is an example of __________ at the knee joint.

910)

To relieve a neckache, you swing your head in a circular motion. This movement where you swing your head circularly around a fixed point is an example of __________.

911)

Movement at the ankle that brings the foot closer to the shin is __________ of the ankle joint.

912)

Thrusting the head forward to contact an incoming soccer ball is an example of __________.

913)

The movement of a limb away from the midline is __________.

914)

The movement of a limb around an axis is __________.

915)

The bodies of adjacent vertebrae are separated by __________ discs that act as shock absorbers.

916)

Moving a part backward is called __________.

917)

Straightening the leg at the knee is an example of a type of movement called __________.

918)

The __________ ligaments in the knee joint help prevent displacement of the articulating surfaces.

919)

With advancing age, __________ become less elastic as the cross-links that hold collagen molecules together break down.

920)

An injured athlete undergoes a surgical procedure where their doctor makes an incision in their knee and inserts a small camera to view the meniscus. This procedure is called __________.

921)

In the condition known as __________, joints are inflamed, swollen, and painful.

922)

During muscle contraction, the more movable end of a muscle is called the __________.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) TRUE 27) FALSE 28) FALSE 29) TRUE 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) B 36) B 37) D

38) A 39) C 40) A 41) C 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) D 46) D 47) C 48) B 49) A 50) C 51) C 52) A 53) C 54) D 55) A 56) A 57) D 58) A 59) C 60) C 61) B 62) C 63) D 64) D 65) B 66) B 67) D 68) C 69) B 70) C 71) A 72) D 73) C 74) C 75) B 76) C 77) B

78) D 79) C 80) C 81) A 82) B 83) A 84) A 85) D 86) A 87) D 88) D 89) E 90) fibrous 91) syndesmosis 92) gomphosis 93) synchondrosis 94) symphysis 95) synovial 96) hinge 97) ligaments 98) synovial 99) bursae 100) plane 101) plane 102) condylar 103) flexion 104) circumduction 105) dorsiflexion 106) protraction 107) abduction 108) rotation 109) intervertebral 110) retraction 111) extension 112) cruciate 113) ligaments 114) arthroscopy 115) arthritis 116) insertion

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

923) Endomysium separates individual muscle fibers from each other. ⊚ true ⊚ false 924)

A motor neuron and the muscle fibers that it innervates form a motor unit. ⊚ true ⊚ false

925)

During cross-bridge cycling, calcium ions bind to tropomyosin, exposing active sites on actin for cross-bridge formation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

926)

The myosin heads function as ATPase enzymes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

927)

Acetylcholine released by a myofibril crosses the synaptic cleft to bind to the motor end plate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

928)

ATP is necessary for muscle relaxation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

929)

Recruitment refers to increasing the number of motor units involved in a muscle contraction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

930)

Troponin, tropomyosin and actin are all parts of the thin filaments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

931) What is a function of muscles?

A) Pumping blood B) Generating electrical impulses C) Storage of minerals D) Cushioning tissues from blunt force 932)

What is the name of the outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle?

A) Epimysium B) Perimysium C) Endomysium D) Sarcolemma

933)

Myofibrils are composed primarily of __________.

A) actin and myosin B) perimysium and endomysium C) troponin and tropomyosin D) fascia and tendons

934)

What causes the striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibers?

A) Arrangement of transverse tubules B) Position of the sarcoplasmic reticulum network C) Organization of components of the sarcomeres D) Location of the cisternae

935)

Which statement describes a sarcomere?

A) A segment of the sarcoplasmic reticulum B) A group of fascicles C) A group of muscle fibers D) A segment of a muscle fiber

936)

What is a function of transverse tubules?

A) To store sodium ions needed to initiate an action potential at the cell surface B) To transmit action potentials (impulses) into the cell interior C) To store calcium ions needed for activating tropomyosin D) To connect actin to the myosin filaments

937)

Which connective tissue layer is comprised of loose connective tissue?

A) Perimysium B) Fascia C) Epimysium D) Endomysium

938)

A tendon is __________, whereas an aponeurosis is __________.

A) cordlike and connects bones to bones; a broad sheet of dense connective tissue that connects muscles to muscles B) a broad sheet of dense connective tissue that connects muscles to muscles; cordlike and connects bones to bones C) cordlike and connects muscles to bones; a broad sheet of dense connective tissue that connects muscles to muscles D) a broad sheet of dense connective tissue that connects bones to bones; cordlike and connects muscles to muscles

939)

What makes up muscle fibers?

A) Muscles B) Sarcomeres C) Connective tissue fibers D) Synapses

940)

Unlike smooth muscle cells, the __________ of skeletal and cardiac muscle cells are well developed.

A) ribosomes and mitochondria B) nuclei and Golgi apparatus C) sacrolemma and cisternae D) transverse tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum

941)

Which of these options lists the structures in order, from smallest to largest?

A) Myofibril, filament, muscle, fascicle, muscle fiber B) Fascicle, filament, muscle fiber, myofibril, muscle C) Filament, myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle, muscle D) Filament, muscle fiber, myofibril, fascicle, muscle

942)

Which of these options lists the structures in order, from deepest to most superficial?

A) Perimysium, epimysium, endomysium, fascia B) Fascia, endomysium, perimysium, epimysium C) Fascia, epimysium, perimysium, endomysium D) Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium, fascia

943)

What is the functional unit of muscle contraction?

A) Muscle B) Muscle fiber C) Myosin cross-bridge D) Sarcomere

944)

What is the location of the vesicles containing neurotransmitter molecules?

A) Along the side of the myofibrils B) Deep to the motor end plate C) Within the cisternae D) At distal end of motor axon

945)

What is the function of acetylecholinesterase?

A) To bind to actin when active sites are revealed B) To be secreted from the axon terminal C) To breakdown acetylcholine D) To serve as precursor for production of acetylcholine

946)

Certain natural plant poisons and animal venoms that contain substances that inhibit the function of acetylcholinesterase. If a person is poisoned by one of these substances, which of the following will be the cause of their symptoms?

A) Muscles won’t contract because no acetylcholine will be released from the neuronal membrane.

B) Muscles will be in a constant state of contraction because acetylcholine won’t be broken down and cleared from the neuromuscular junction.

C) Muscles won’t be able to contract because acetylcholine will be attacked and degraded immediately after release from the neuron.

D) Muscles won’t be able to contract because acetylcholine won’t be properly synthesized from acetylcholinesterase.

947)

What is the function of creatine phosphate?

A) It catalyzes the decomposition of ATP. B) It catalyzes the decomposition of ADP. C) It supplies energy for the synthesis of ATP. D) It supplies energy for the breakdown of ATP to ADP.

948)

The amount of oxygen that liver cells require to support the conversion of lactic acid to glucose or glycogen is called the __________.

A) refractory quantity B) oxygen debt C) anaerobic concentration D) aerobic conversion

949)

After finishing a sprint, Tawanda experiences painful cramps in her calf muscles. A deficit in __________ would explain her cramping.

A) actin B) acetylcholine C) ATP D) ADP

950)

951)

What binds to the exposed cross-bridges on actin?

A) ATP B) Myosin C) Calcium D) Acetylcholine

In a laboratory that studies muscle function, a group of rats are bred that, due to a genetic defect, produce a non-functional version of troponin. As a result, the rats are paralyzed. What explains the impact of this defect on muscle?

A) Troponin can’t bind calcium ions and, thus, will not change shape nor cause tropomyosin to move away from the binding sites on the thin filament.

B) Troponin, exposed when calcium ions bind to tropomyosin, will be uunable to bind to the myosin heads of the thick filament.

C) Troponin, which should alter shape when calcium ions bind to tropomyosin, will be unable to move away to reveal the binding sites on the thin filament.

D) Troponin, which is exposed when calcium ions bind to actin, will be unable to bind to the myosin heads of the thick filament.

952)

In a laboratory that studies muscle function, a group of rats are bred that, due to a genetic defect, have myosin heads which bind ADP irreversibly. As a result, the rats are paralyzed.

What explains the impact of this defect on muscle?

A) ATP is unable to bind to the myosin heads, preventing the actin binding sites of the thick filament from being revealed.

B) Because ADP is permanently bound, the myosin heads are unable to attach to the actin binding sites on the thin filaments.

C) Because ADP is permanently bound, the myosin heads will be irreversibly crossbridged with the actin binding sites on the thin filament.

D) ATP is unable to bind to the myosin heads, causing the thin filament to be constantly pulled in the power stroke of contraction.

953)

Why are athletes typically able to exercise longer before developing muscle fatigue than non-athletes?

A) Due to training, athletes are able to convert glucose to lactic acid more quickly than non-athletes.

B) Due to training, athletes are able to tolerate higher concentrations of carbon dioxide than non-athletes.

C) Due to training, athletes can use ATP more efficiently than non-athletes.

D) Due to training, athletes have a better blood supply and more mitochondria in their muscles than do non-athletes.

954)

955)

Name the area of the sarcolemma that is part of a neuromuscular junction.

A) Motor neuron B) M line C) Cisterna D) Motor end plate

Botulism results from ingestion of a toxin produced by a type of bacterium. Along with other symptoms, it causes a type of paralysis in which the muscles cannot contract. Why does this paralysis occur?

A) The toxin prevents release of acetylcholine.

B) The toxin promotes release of acetylcholine.

C) The toxin binds to acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction.

D) The toxin prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine.

956)

What is the cause of rigor mortis that occurs in skeletal muscles a few hours after death?

A) An increase in ATP and decreased membrane permeability to calcium B) A decrease in ATP and increased membrane permeability to calcium C) An increase in ATP in the cells D) Continued neural activity that produces sustained contractions

957)

What occurs at a neuromuscular junction?

A) Actin and myosin filaments slide past one another.

B) Troponin and tropomyosin cover and uncover actin binding sites.

C) Neurotransmitters are released.

D) Calcium channels open when calcium ions bind to them.

958)

Many muscles are named for their location in the body, particularly in relation to bones.

In what body region would you expect to find the frontalis muscle?

A) The thoracic region B) The abdominal region C) The pelvic region D) The cranial region

959)

Jared collapses during his 800-meter race. A medical exam finds that he has lost the ability to plantar flex at the ankle. What muscle has most likely been injured?

A) Gastrocnemius B) Biceps femoris C) Semimembranosus D) Tibialis anterior

960)

As Brittany was kayaking, she suddenly experienced extreme pain in her upper arm and can no longer extend at the elbow joint. What muscle has likely been injured?

A) Biceps brachii B) Brachioradialis C) Triceps brachii D) Supinator

961)

Which of these events occurs first in muscle fiber contraction?

A) The muscle fiber membrane is stimulated and a muscle impulse travels deep into the fiber through transverse tubules.

B) Acetylcholine diffuses across a gap at a neuromuscular junction.

C) Acetylcholine is released from the axon of the motor neuron.

D) Calcium ions diffuse from sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm and bind to troponin molecules.

962)

Which statement describes the mechanism of muscle contraction?

A) Tropomyosin molecules move and expose specific binding sites on thick filaments.

B) Actin filaments slide along myosin filaments.

C) Cross-bridges form between actin and the sarcolemma.

D) Filaments of troponin and tropomyosin slide past one another.

963)

Muscle fibers generally have only one motor end plate, but a single motor neuron can innervate many different muscle fibers in a group. How does this arrangement affect muscle contraction?

A) Any one muscle fiber can be stimulated by multiple motor neurons, allowing for wide variation in muscle fiber function.

B) When a motor neuron transmits a signal, only one fiber will contract with strong force.

C) A signal from one motor neuron can potentially stimulate multiple fibers in a group to contract, generating more force.

D) When one muscle fiber contracts, it causes the motor neuron to stimulate the other muscle fibers that it innervates.

964)

A __________ is the functional connection between a neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber.

A) synapse B) sarcolemma C) neuroma D) dendrite

965)

What enzyme degrades acetylcholine, keeping it from accumulating in the synapse?

A) ATPase B) Myosinase C) Actinase D) Acetylcholinesterase

966)

Arrange the steps of muscle fiber contraction in the correct order: 1. The muscle impulse reaches the sarcoplasmic reticulum and calcium is released.

2. Thin filaments are pulled over the thick filaments.

3. Calcium floods the sarcoplasm and binds to troponin molecules leaving active sites.

4. The impulse arrives at the synapse and travels through the transverse tubules.

5. The muscle fiber shortens and contracts.

6. Myosin heads bind to exposed active sites on actin, forming cross-bridges.

A) 4, 1, 3, 5, 6, 2 B) 4, 1, 3, 2, 6, 5 C) 4, 1, 3, 6, 2, 5 D) 4, 3, 6, 2, 5, 1

967)

During strenuous exercise, when muscles are not being supplied with enough oxygen, a shift in metabolism results in the breakdown of pyruvic acid to lactic acid. What is this change in metabolism called?

A) Aerobic threshold B) Lactic acid threshold C) Pyruvic acid threshold D) Glycogenic threshold

968)

Why does oxygen debt develop?

A) The respiratory and circulatory systems are unable to supply enough oxygen for skeletal muscles to work strenuously for a minute or two.

B) Myoglobin molecules are unable to store the amount of oxygen needed for skeletal muscles to work strenuously for a minute or two.

C) Too much oxygen is used to form pyruvic acid when skeletal muscles work strenuously for a minute or two.

D) The concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere is too low to meet the needs of skeletal muscles working strenuously for a minute or two.

969)

What is the relationship between ATP and creatine phosphate?

A) ATP supplies energy to synthesize creatine phosphate from creatine and phosphate.

B) Creatine phosphate supplies energy to produce ATP from ADP and phosphate.

C) Creatine phosphate binds to troponin while ATP binds to myosin heads during contraction.

D) Creatine phosphate is a necessary cofactor for ATP to form bonds with myosin heads during contraction.

970)

The characteristic reddish brown color of skeletal muscle is due to the presence of which substance?

A) Creatine phosphate B) Myosin C) Myoglobin D) Calcium

971)

What is a motor unit?

A) Many myofibrils contained within a sarcolemma B) The multiple folds of the motor end plate at a neuromuscular junction C) A motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates D) All muscles and other structures encased within a fascia

972)

During a muscle contraction, why is ATP required?

A) To synthesize creatine phosphate B) To breakdown glycogen into glucose for fuel C) To allow myofilament movement D) To stimulate enzyme activity

973)

How do skeletal muscles help maintain body temperature?

A) Excess body heat is used to increase muscle function.

B) Muscle contraction releases heat.

C) Excess acetylcholine is metabolized, releasing heat.

D) The movement of thin filaments over thick filaments uses up some body heat.

974)

What is a threshold stimulus?

A) Minimum stimulus strength required to release acetylcholine B) Minimum stimulus strength required to produce ATP C) Minimum stimulus strength required to contract a skeletal muscle D) Minimum stimulus strength required to contract a muscle fiber

975)

What is a myogram?

A) A chart that shows the number of muscle fibers in a motor unit B) A recording of the events of a muscle twitch C) A measurement of muscle tone D) A recording of the amount of movement resulting from a skeletal muscle contraction

976)

Doing a "plank" is often part of a yoga or Pilates workout. It is done by holding the body straight in a prone position, engaging the abdominal muscles and supporting oneself on arms and toes. It is much like the "up" position of a push-up, but is held for 30 to 60 seconds.

What type of contraction would be occurring in the abdominal muscles?

A) Isotonic contraction B) Eccentric contraction C) Isometric contraction D) Concentric contraction

977)

What is an example of a partial but sustained contraction?

A) A knee jerk B) Muscle tone C) Muscle twitch D) Blinking the eye

978)

How do red fibers compare to white fibers?

A) Red fibers contract more slowly than white.

B) Red fibers contain less myoglobin than white.

C) Red fibers have more mitochondria than white.

D) Red fibers fatigue more quickly than white.

979)

The term __________ refers to an increase in the number of motor units activated as a result of more intense stimulation.

A) latency B) recruitment C) threshold stimulation D) sustained contraction

980)

In a recording of a muscle twitch, a delay occurs between the time a stimulus is applied and the time the muscle responds. What is this delay called?

A) Refractory period B) Relaxation period C) Latent period D) Contraction period

981)

As a muscle fiber is stimulated with increasing frequency, individual twitches begin to summate. If no relaxation occurs between twitches, the contraction is called __________.

A) fused tetany B) eccentric C) isometric D) partial tetany

982)

What type of muscle fibers will be stimulated during activities such as distance swimming and distance running?

A) Slow fatigable muscle fibers B) Fast fatigable muscle fibers C) Slow fatigue-resistant fibers D) Fast fatigue-resistant fibers

983)

What features are not present in smooth muscle?

A) Actin and myosin B) Transverse tubules and striations C) Myofibrils D) Nuclei and mitochondria

984)

Instead of using troponin to bind calcium ions, smooth muscle cells use __________.

A) calmodulin B) tropomyosin C) norepinephrine D) titin

985)

What happens in a muscle as it undergoes atrophy in response to disuse?

A) Motor neurons grow and invade the muscle abnormally.

B) The size of actin and myosin filaments decreases.

C) Capillaries within the muscle rupture.

D) The muscle swells.

986)

How does smooth muscle compare to skeletal muscle?

A) Smooth muscle contracts more slowly and relaxes more slowly.

B) Smooth muscle contracts more slowly and relaxes more rapidly.

C) Smooth muscle contracts more rapidly and relaxes more slowly.

D) Smooth muscle contracts more rapidly and relaxes more rapidly.

987)

What type of muscle cells lack transverse tubules, have a single nucleus, and are under involuntary control?

A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle

988)

While examining a sample of muscle tissue under a microscope, you notice that the cells have a single nucleus. The fibers are striated and heavily branched. Which muscle type does this sample contain?

A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle

989)

While examining a sample of muscle tissue under a microscope, you notice that the cells are striated, long, unbranched, and multinucleated. Which muscle type does this sample contain?

A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle

990)

Muscle cells that are short in length and have centrally located nuclei are __________ muscle cells.

A) smooth B) skeletal C) cardiac

991)

What neurotransmitter(s) can stimulate smooth muscle cells?

A) Both norepinephrine and acetylcholine B) Only norepinephrine C) Only acetylcholine D) Only calcium

992)

What structures connect cardiac muscle cells together?

A) Intervertebral discs B) Neuromuscular junctions C) Intercalated discs D) Motor end plates

993)

Which statement describes cardiac muscle?

A) The cells are multinucleated.

B) It does not require stimulation by motor neurons.

C) The cells contains very few mitochondria.

D) It lacks the straitions formed by regularly arranged sarcomeres.

994)

Bones and muscles function together as mechanical devices called __________.

A) lifts B) levers C) leads D) loads

995)

What term describes the more movable end of a muscle?

A) Origin B) Fulcrum C) Insertion D) Source

996)

In producing a movement, the muscle that causes an action is acting as the __________.

A) synergis B) antagonist C) agonist D) mediator

997)

In many movements, the agonist is assisted by other muscles. A muscle that assists the agonist is called a(n) __________.

A) antagonist B) prime mover C) mediator D) synergist

998)

What is the location of the buccinator muscle?

A) Buttocks B) Chest C) Posterior trunk D) Cheek

999)

What muscle adducts the arm and flexes the shoulder?

A) Coracobrachialis B) Pectoralis minor C) Levator scapulae D) Teres major

1000) What term describes a muscle that opposes a particular action?

A) Synergist B) Antagonist C) Agonist D) Prime mover 1001) What is the linea alba?

A) A muscle extending from the ischial spine to the coccyx and sacrum B) A curved, broad muscle on the side of the chest C) A strip of tough connective tissue covering the top of the cranium D) A band of tough connective tissue on the midline of the abdomen 1002) The soleus muscle forms part of the __________.

A) calf B) buttocks C) thigh D) shoulder 1003) What muscle causes movement at the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?

A) Frontalis B) Masseter C) Buccinator D) Zygomaticus 1004) Which of the following is unique in that its insertion is onto fascia and not bone?

A) Palmaris longus B) Extensor carpi ulnaris C) Flexor digitorum profundus D) Extensor digitorum

1005) The triangle of auscultation, commonly used to hear sounds of respiratory organs, is

bounded by what muscles?

A) Pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, and teres major B) Trapezius, rhomboid major, and latissimus dorsi C) latissimus dorsi, serratus anterior, and infraspinatus D) Trapezius, pectoralis major, and splenius capitis 1006) What muscle originates at the transverse processes of the cervical vertebrae and inserts at

the medial border of the scapula?

A) Splenius capitis B) Trapezius C) Levator scapulae D) Supraspinatus 1007) What change occurs with aging?

A) Increased muscle fiber diameter B) Decreased supply of myoglobin C) Increased suppy of ATP D) Increased production of creatine phosphate 1008) The __________ originates on the proximal tibia, inserts on the foot, and causes

dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot.

A) Extensor digitorum longus B) Plantaris C) Tibialis anterior D) Tibialis posterior 1009) Regina began an exercise program six months ago, and the muscles of her upper limbs

and lower limbs have become more prominent. How does exercise lead to formation of new muscle?

A) By stimulating synthesis of myoglobin and sarcoplasmic reticulum B) By stimulating muscle cells to release IL-6, which stimulates satellite cells to divide C) By stimulating connective tissue to differentiate into muscle tissue D) By stimulating motor neurons to divide and innervate more muscle cells 1010) The rectus femoris originates on the ___________ and inserts on the ___________.

A) ischial tuberosity; anterior femur B) pubic bone; posterior femur C) anterior inferior iliac spine; medial tibia D) anterior superior iliac spine; tibial tuberosity

1011) What has happened in someone with myasthenia gravis that causes them to have muscle

weakness?

A) Abnormal formation of the protein transverse tubules B) Decreased supply of troponin C) Decreased number of acetylcholine receptors D) Lack of sodium channels in the motor end plate 1012) What occurs during excitation-contraction coupling?

A) Release of calcium ions into the cytosol B) Binding of myosin heads to actin C) Shortening of sarcomeres D) Recruitment 1013) What makes up the cross-bridges that form during a contraction?

A) Troponin binding to tropomyosin B) Myosin heads binding to actin C) ATP binding to myosin heads D) Calcium binding to troponin 1014) What happens to the fibers of muscles whose motor neurons have been severed?

A) The muscle fibers undergo hypertrophy.

B) The muscle fibers become smaller, losing mitochondria, actin and myosin.

C) The muscle fibers will spontaneously contract until a new motor neuron forms and

innervates the fibers.

D) The muscle fibers die.

1015) A muscular contraction in which the muscle shortens, moving an object, is called a(n)

__________ contraction.

A) concentric B) eccentric C) isometric D) tetanic 1016) During the motion that extends the upper limb at the elbow, the elbow joint represents

which part of the lever?

A) Rigid bar B) Fulcrum C) Force D) Resistance

1017) Consider a muscle that originates on the anterior forearm and inserts on the palm of the

hand. What is the action of this muscle?

A) To flex the wrist B) To flex the elbow C) To extend the wrist D) To extend the elbow 1018) Consider a muscle that originates on the posterior femur and inserts on the posterior tibia.

What is the action of this muscle?

A) To flex the knee B) To flex the hip C) To extend the knee D) To extend the hip 1019) A muscle that will adduct the thigh (moving it toward the midline of the body) will be

located in what area?

A) Inner thigh B) Buttocks C) Front of thigh D) Back of calf 1020) What type of muscle fiber will be more resistant to fatigue?

A) Fast-twitch fiber B) Slow-twitch fiber 1021) What type of muscle fiber is large in diameter and contains abundant glycogen and

relatively few mitochondria?

A) Fast-twitch fibers B) Slow-twitch fibers 1022) In skeletal muscle fibers, what is the source of the calcium ions that are released into the

sarcoplasm to bind with troponin, resulting in contraction?

A) Extracellular fluid B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum C) Mitochondria D) Golgi apparatus

1023) Curare is a poison that binds to acetycholine receptors at the motor end plate. What is the

result of curare poisoning?

A) Increased acetylcholine production B) Lack of neurotransmitter release by the motor neuron C) Inability of the muscle fiber to respond to nervous stimulation D) Rapid breakdown of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase 1024) What type of muscle consists of muscle cells that are separate rather than organized into

sheets?

A) B) C) D)

Multiunit smooth muscle Visceral smooth muscle Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle

1025) When acetylcholine binds to its receptors at the motor end plate, the muscle fiber

membrane becomes more permeable to __________.

A) potassium B) sodium C) calcium D) acetylcholine 1026) Following stenuous exercise, levels of ATP, creatine phosphate, oxygen, and glucose

must be returned to normal levels. This situation, called __________, may take several hours to complete.

A) oxygen debt B) muscle atrophy C) aerobic respiration D) tetany 1027) What structure within a skeletal muscle cell extends from Z line to Z line?

A) Sarcolemma B) Sarcomere C) Sarcoplasmic reticulum D) A band 1028) What is the main component of thin filaments?

A) Myofibrils B) Acetylcholine C) Actin D) Myosin

1029) What are fascicles?

A) Bundles of muscle fibers B) Bundles of myofibrils C) Bundles of thick and thin filaments D) Bundles of smooth muscle cells

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1030) A broad sheet of dense connective tissue that attaches a muscle to bone, skin, or other muscles is called a(n) __________.

1031) The pigment responsible for the reddish brown color of skeletal muscle is __________.

1032) In order to stimulate skeletal muscle fibers, motor neurons release the neurotransmitter

__________.

1033) A forceful, sustained muscle contraction is called a(n) __________ contraction.

1034) As you carry a heavy box, you keep your arm muscles contracted, but the box doesn't

shift its position. Your arm muscles are undergoing __________ contractions.

1035) As you walk, your gastrocnemius muscle (calf muscle) contracts, shortening and causing

plantar flexion. This type of muscle contraction is called a(n) __________ contraction.

1036) The __________ period of a muscle twitch is the period of time during which the force of

contraction is increasing.

1037) Muscle __________ is most likely due to an accumulation of lactic acid or depletion of

ATP. 1038) Increased frequency of stimulation results in the combining of a series of twitches to

produce a more forceful contraction in a process called __________.

1039) The rhythmic, wavelike motion produced by smooth muscles in tubular organs is called

__________.

1040) The structures that anchor cardiac muscle cells to each other are called __________.

1041) Muscles that assist an agonist are acting as __________.

1042) Functionally, the rectus femoris muscle and the vastus lateralis muscle act as __________

since they both produce extension of the leg at the knee.

1043) Functionally, the rectus femoris muscle and the biceps femoris muscle can be described

as __________ since their actions oppose each other.

1044) The muscle that covers the upper part of the cranium is the __________.

1045) Since many muscles are named for their location, it can be assumed that the zygomaticus

muscles originate on the __________ bones of the skull.

1046) The origin of the occipitalis muscle is the __________ bone of the skull.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) D 14) B 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) D 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) B 27) C 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) D 37) A

38) C 39) C 40) B 41) C 42) A 43) D 44) C 45) B 46) A 47) B 48) C 49) C 50) C 51) B 52) D 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) C 57) B 58) C 59) A 60) C 61) B 62) A 63) B 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) A 68) A 69) A 70) C 71) B 72) B 73) C 74) C 75) D 76) D 77) A

78) B 79) D 80) A 81) B 82) A 83) B 84) C 85) B 86) C 87) B 88) D 89) C 90) A 91) B 92) B 93) A 94) B 95) A 96) A 97) A 98) B 99) A 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108) 109) 110) 111) 112) 113) 114) 115) 116) 117)

B C A B A B C A aponeurosis myoglobin acetylcholine tetanic isometric isotonic contraction fatigue summation peristalsis

118) 119) 120) 121) 122) 123) 124)

intercalated discs synergists synergists antagonists epicranius zygomatic occipital

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1047) A nerve is a single neuron that transmits impulses. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1048) Neuroglia are specialized to react to environmental change, and neurons support

neuroglia. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1049) The brain and spinal cord comprise the central nervous system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1050) Sensory receptors are part of the CNS. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1051) The somatic nervous system controls voluntary actions and the autonomic nervous

system oversees involuntary actions. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1052) Axon branches are called collaterals. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1053) Myelin is composed largely of carbohydrates. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1054) Nodes of Ranvier lie between neurons. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1055) Astrocytes structurally support neurons and also provide important signals and nutrients

to neurons. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1056) Interneurons are specialized to carry impulses from receptor cells into the brain or spinal

cord. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1057) A mixed nerve includes different neuroglial cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1058) The space between neurons in a pathway is called the neuronal space. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1059) During the absolute refractory period, a stimulus of high intensity may trigger a nerve

impulse. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1060) Because the response of a nerve fiber is all-or-none, a greater intensity of stimulus does

not produce a stronger impulse. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1061) Enkephalins are neuropeptides. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1062) In convergence, two or more incoming fibers stimulate a single neuron, whereas in

divergence, impulses leaving a single neuron stimulate several other neurons. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1063) Several nerve fibers converging onto one neuron amplifies impulses. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1064) Destruction of astrocytes would decrease the rate at which action potentials are

transmitted. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1065) What cytoplasmic extensions, together with the cell body, provide the main receptive surfaces for neurons?

A) Neurofibrils B) Chromatophilic substance (Nissl bodies) C) Axons D) Dendrites 1066) What is a function of the nervous system?

A) Provides a support system for the body B) Controls the movement of muscles C) Contracts and generates a force to cause bodily motion D) Provides nutrients and nourishment for surrounding cells 1067) The oculomotor nerve is a cranial nerve containing nerve fibers that innervate eye

muscles and control eye movement. These fibers are examples of __________.

A) sensory neurons B) interneurons C) motor neurons D) unipolar neurons 1068) What is the function of sensory receptors?

A) To send signals from the brain to muscles B) To work with muscles to generate motion C) To detect changes in and outside the body D) To act as a pathway between the ascending and descending tracts within the spinal

cord

1069) What are the three general functions of the nervous system?

A) Sensory, motor, and predictive B) Integrative, motor, and sensory C) Predictive, manipulative, and integrative D) Reflexive, sensory, and predictive 1070) Masses of myelinated nerve fibers appear __________.

A) white B) gray C) brown D) transparent 1071) How many axons and/or dendrites can a neuron have?

A) One axon and many dendrites B) One dendrite and many axons C) No dendrites and many axons D) No axons and many dendrites 1072) What cytoplasmic structure supports the axon?

A) Dendrites B) Nodes of Ranvier C) Neurofibrils D) Collaterals 1073) Every neuron has which of the following components?

A) Many axons B) A cell body C) Myelin D) A neurilemma 1074) What feature is unique to neurons?

A) Golgi apparatus B) Chromatophilic substance C) Mitochondrion D) Lysosome

1075) What is myelin?

A) A substance released from a neuron that travels to another neuron.

B) Layers of lipids and proteins that wrap around an axon.

C) A substance produced in response to bacterial infection.

D) A form of chromatophilic substance that fills Schwann cells.

1076) A myelinated nerve fiber is _________, whereas an unmyelinated nerve fiber is

_________.

A) gray; white B) white; black C) white; gray D) gray; black 1077) Myelin is rich in _________.

A) nucleic acids B) carbohydrates C) lipids D) salts 1078) In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the immune system attacks and degrades the myelin sheath

of PNS axons. Predict the effect this will have on nerve impulse and motor function.

A) Lost insulation from myelin will cause neurons of the PNS to be hyper-excitable and muscular spasms will result.

B) Motor signals will not be sent from the brain down the efferent pathway because the brain cannot generate them.

C) The brain will slowly degrade and various brain functions will be lost, including motor functions.

D) Lost insulation from myelin will cause neurons of the PNS to lose saltatory conduction, resulting in poor muscle function.

1079) Which cells produce myelin in the brain and spinal cord?

A) Schwann cells B) Astrocytes C) Microglia D) Oligodendrocytes

1080) What is a reason that the axons in the CNS and PNS differ in their ability to regenerate

after injury?

A) Axons of the CNS lack myelin.

B) Axons of the CNS lack a neurilemma.

C) Axons of the PNS lack Schwann cells.

D) Axons of the PNS lack an endoneurium.

1081) Most of the neurons in the brain and spinal cord are __________.

A) bipolar B) unipolar C) multipolar D) nonpolar 1082) In order for a severed peripheral nerve to regenerate and recover its original function,

nerve fibers must sprout and enter tubes formed by __________.

A) connective tissue B) former axons C) myelin D) Schwann cells 1083) Which of the following cells is found only in the PNS? A) Oligodendrocyte B) Astrocyte C) Microglial cell D) Schwann cell 1084) Dendrites of unipolar neurons are parts of what type of neuron?

A) Sensory neurons B) Motor neurons C) Interneurons D) Efferent neurons 1085) Clusters of neuron cell bodies in the PNS are called __________.

A) neuromas B) axons C) ganglia D) nuclei

1086) Which of the following neuroglia are not part of the CNS? A) Ependymal cells B) Astrocytes C) Satellite cells D) Microglia 1087) Organize the following list of nervous system elements by their classifications as CNS or

PNS elements. oligodendrocytes thermoreceptors (nerves that sense temperature) interneurons satellite cells brain motor neurons A) CNS: thermoreceptors, satellite cells, brain PNS: oligodendrocytes, interneurons, motor neurons B) CNS: satellite cells, brain, oligodendrocytes PNS: thermoreceptors, motor neurons, interneurons C) CNS: interneurons, satellite cells, motor neurons PNS: brain, oligodendrocytes, theromoreceptors D) CNS: brain, oligodendrocytes, interneurons PNS: thermoreceptors, satellite cells, motor neurons 1088) Organize the following list of functions and actions according to the branch of the

nervous system that controls each one. heart rate walking looking to the left digestion vasoconstriction picking up a glass A) Somatic: heart rate, looking to the left, digestion Autonomic: picking up a glass, walking, vasoconstriction B) Somatic: walking, looking to the left, picking up a glass Autonomic: heart rate, digestion, vasoconstriction C) Somatic: heart rate, digestion, vasoconstriction Autonomic: walking, looking to the left, picking up a glass D) Somatic: walking, heart rate, vasoconstriction Autonomic: looking to the left, picking up a glass, digestion

1089) Synaptic knobs are at the ends of __________.

A) axons B) dendrites C) cell bodies D) neuroglia 1090) A test organism develops a genetic mutation that causes neurons to develop without

synaptic knobs. How will this impact neuronal function?

A) Signal transduction down the axon will be interrupted, so the signal will not “jump” the synapse and reach the postsynaptic neuron.

B) The dendrites of the postsynaptic neurons will have no means to attach to presynaptic axons.

C) No neurotransmitters will be stored or released into the synapse to signal the postsynaptic neuron.

D) Action potentials will not travel down the axon nearly as rapidly.

1091) Presynaptic neurons release neurotransmitters by the process of __________.

A) endocytosis B) exocytosis C) diffusion D) active transport 1092) When an action potential passes over the surface of a synaptic knob, the contents of the

vesicles within the synaptic knob are released in response to the presence of __________.

A) calcium ions B) sodium ions C) neurotransmitters D) neuropeptides 1093) A neuron receives a series of stimuli that increases the membrane permeability of Na+,

but not enough to cause membrane potential to surpass -55mV. This neuron is said to be __________ because it received a subthreshold stimuli.

A) graded B) amplified C) facilitated D) refractory

1094) A neuron receives a stimulation that causes Cl- channels to open, resulting in a

hyperpolarization of the neuronal membrane. This is an example of what type of potential?

A) Facilitated potential B) Resting potential C) Excitatory postsynaptic potential D) Inhibitory postsynaptic potential 1095) Axon terminals from several different neurons synapse onto a single neuron. Some of

these presynaptic neurons are sending excitatory signals, while others are sending inhibitory signals. Over the course of the effects of these signals, the postsynaptic membrane potential reaches around -90mV. What is the overall effect on the postsynaptic neuron?

A) The postsynaptic neuron is excited enough to easily cross threshold and generate an action potential.

B) The postsynaptic neuron is excited, but not enough to cross threshold.

C) The postsynaptic neuron is stabilized and remains at its resting potential.

D) The postsynaptic neuron is inhibited from generating action potentials.

1096) How is an impulse transmitted from one neuron to another?

A) An impulse stimulating presynaptic dendrites causes the release of neurotransmitters

into a synaptic cleft.

B) An impulse stimulating a presynaptic axon causes the release of neurotransmitters into a synaptic cleft.

C) A neurotransmitter traveling from presynaptic dendrites crosses the synapse to postsynaptic axons or a cell body.

D) A neurotransmitter traveling from postsynaptic axons crosses the synapse to presynaptic dendrites or a cell body.

1097) How are action potentials related to impulses conducted along the length of an axon?

A) Many impulses are required to cause one action potential.

B) Active transport of Na+ and K+ is required for impulse conduction but not for an

action potential.

C) Impulses are stronger responses than action potentials.

D) Propagation of a series of action potentials along a nerve fiber constitutes an impulse.

1098) A physiologist testing signal transduction rates in two different nerve fibers notices that

one fiber conducts signals much faster than the other. Which is the most likely difference between the two?

A) The faster nerve fiber has more axons.

B) The faster nerve fiber has more dendrites.

C) The faster nerve fiber is myelinated and the slower one is not.

D) The slower nerve fiber is myelinated and the faster one is not.

1099) If a neuron is stimulated causing changes in the membrane potential to the point where

voltage-gated Na+ channels open and begin depolarizing the cell, the neuron is said to have reached __________.

A) recruitment B) threshold C) summation D) tetanus 1100) A positive feedback loop occurs when the outcome of an event causes the event to

continue occurring and amplifies its effects. Which of the following aspects of an action potential constitutes a positive feedback loop?

A) An initial flow of sodium ions into the neuron causes the opening of more voltagegated sodium channels, rapidly causing more sodium to enter.

B) Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels causes voltage-gated potassium channels to open and release potassium to the extracellular environment, slowly counteracting sodium influx.

C) The sodium-potassium pump exactly balances ion leaks by pumping three sodium and two potassium ions across the membrane.

D) The threshold potential is around -55mV. 1101) A neuron is exposed to a drug that completely blocks voltage-gated potassium channels,

but has no effect on non-gated channels or the sodium-potassium pump. Which of the following describes the effect on action potential generation?

A) Threshold will never be crossed, and therefore an action potential will never be generated.

B) Repolarization will never occur after threshold is crossed, and sodium will continue to flow into the neuron.

C) Repolarization will still occur, but at an inefficiently slow rate.

D) Resting potential would not be maintained, as potassium could not leak out of the neuron.

1102) Saltatory conduction __________.

A) occurs only if the myelin sheath is continuous B) occurs only if nodes of Ranvier are lacking C) is faster than conduction on an unmyelinated fiber D) is slower than conduction on an unmyelinated fiber 1103) The most rapid conduction of an impulse along an axon occurs on a fiber that is

__________.

A) thick and myelinated B) thick and unmyelinated C) thin and myelinated D) thin and unmyelinated 1104) The resting cell membrane is more permeable to which ion?

A) Potassium B) Sodium C) Calcium D) Magnesium 1105) If a resting potential becomes more negative, the membrane is said to be __________.

A) depolarized B) hyperpolarized C) repolarized D) summated 1106) What is the correct sequence of events that occurs along an axon after the membrane

reaches threshold?

1. The membrane depolarizes.

2. Sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse inward.

3. The membrane repolarizes.

4. Potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse outward.

A) 3, 2, 4, 1 B) 2, 1, 4, 3 C) 1, 2, 4, 3 D) 4, 1, 3, 2

1107) How does a neuron cell membrane become depolarized?

A) Ca+2 channels open and Ca+2 ions diffuse out of the cell.

B) Na+ channels open and Na+ ions diffuse into the cell.

C) K+ channels open and K+ ions diffuse into the cell.

D) Na+ channels close and Na+ ions can't diffuse into the cell.

1108) Roughly how long does an excitatory postsynaptic potential last?

A) 15 minutes B) 15 seconds C) 15 milliseconds D) 15 microseconds 1109) Each neuron in the CNS may receive input from which structure(s)?

A) From a single axon B) From a single dendrite C) From ten dendrites D) From thousands of axons 1110) A neuron in the aorta detects oxygen content in the blood and relays this information to

the brain. This neuron is an __________ fiber in the __________ nervous system.

A) efferent; somatic B) efferent; autonomic C) afferent; autonomic D) afferent; somatic 1111) When is an action potential triggered?

A) When EPSPs exceeds IPSPs B) When IPSPs exceeds EPSPs C) When chloride channels open D) When potassium channels open 1112) The neurotransmitter that controls skeletal muscle contraction is __________.

A) norepinephrine B) nitric oxide C) acetylcholine D) GABA

1113) Viagra is a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction by dilating arteries in the penis. To do

so, Viagra affects the neurotransmitter __________.

A) acetylcholine B) nitric oxide C) serotonin D) histamine 1114) Which neurotransmitters are modified amino acids?

A) Dopamine, serotonin, and epinephrine B) Enkephalins, endorphins, and substance P C) Aspartic acid, glutamic acid, and glycine D) Acetylcholine, nitric oxide, and GABA 1115) A drug that increases the action of serotonin by keeping serotonin in the synapse longer is

most likely used to treat what disorder?

A) Multiple sclerosis B) Tay-Sachs disease C) Clinical depression D) Erectile dysfunction 1116) What occurs during reuptake?

A) An action potential reverses direction.

B) A neuropeptide breaks down into amino acids, which act as neurotransmitters.

C) A neurotransmitter that has already been released into the synaptic cleft is taken back

into the presynaptic neuron.

D) An enzyme breaks down a neurotransmitter and then another enzyme builds it back up.

1117) What is the effect of drugs that inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase?

A) Increased activity of norepinephrine B) Decomposition of norepinephrine C) Decreased activity of serotonin D) Decomposition of serotonin 1118) What types of neurons are organized into neuronal pools?

A) Interneurons B) Intraneurons C) Schwann cells D) Astrocytes

1119) What is convergence?

A) Dendrites from neurons in different parts of the nervous system contact the same

neuron.

B) Axons from neurons in different parts of the nervous system contact the same neuron.

C) Dendrites from the same neuron touch each other.

D) A neuroglial cell contacts many neurons.

1120) How do diverging axons amplify an impulse?

A) By stimulating many neurons B) By returning the impulse to the neuron of origin C) By splitting into multiple axons D) By stimulating themselves 1121) What disorder involves an immune response that affects the myelin coating on axons

throughout the spinal cord and brain, triggering inflammation and leaving scars?

A) Muscular dystrophy B) Multiple sclerosis C) Alzheimer disease D) Cerebrovascular accident 1122) A certain drug decreases the membrane permeability of nerve fibers to sodium. What

would be a possible effect?

A) An increase in the amount of nerve impulses through an affected area.

B) An increase in pain C) A decrease in pain D) Increas sensitivity to pain 1123) Why do opiate drugs derived from poppies relieve pain in humans?

A) The human nervous system has neurotransmitters.

B) The human nervous system has receptors for endorphins.

C) The human nervous system has myelin.

D) The human nervous system has sodium and potassium membrane channels.

1124) What neurotransmitter is most likely released when a person uses a drug that creates a

sense of well-being?

A) Glutamic acid B) Dopamine C) Enkephalin D) Substance Q

1125) A person is exposed to a drug that prevents vesicles from forming in neurons. Predict the

effect this will have on nerve function.

A) Voltage-gated potassium channels will be blocked, slowing depolarization and slowing nerve impulses.

B) Neurons will be hyper-excitable.

C) Neurotransmitters won’t be released into the synapse.

D) Action potentials will not be carried along the axon.

1126) What are the two major cell types found in nervous tissue?

A) Neurons and neuroglia B) Dendrites and axons C) Neurons and effectors D) Astrocytes and Schwann cells E) Neurons and nerves 1127) What structural type of neuron has a single process that extends from the cell body?

A) Unipolar neuron B) Bipolar neuron C) Multipolar neuron 1128) When ten or more pre-synaptic neurons conduct impulses to five or fewer post-synaptic

neurons, the conduction pattern is said to be __________.

A) divergent B) emergent C) hyperpolarizing D) convergent 1129) If a neuron's membrane potential measures +25mV, the neuron is __________.

A) polarized B) hyperpolarized C) depolarized D) repolarized

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1130) The cells in the nervous system that fill spaces and support neurons both physically and nutritionally are called __________.

1131) Muscles and glands that respond to nervous stimulation are called __________.

1132) Sheaths of __________ cells often enclose the larger axons outside of the brain and

spinal cord.

1133) A(n) __________ is the junction between neurons.

1134) The difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a polarized neuron

cell membrane is called the __________ (2 words).

1135) An impulse conducted along an axon consists of a wave of __________ ( 2 words)

moving away from a point of stimulation.

1136) When a series of similar stimuli induce a change in a local membrane potential, it is

called __________.

1137) Neuropeptides that affect a neuron's response to other neurotransmitters are called

__________.

1138) Several neurons originating in different areas of the CNS stimulate dendrites of a single

motor neuron in the leg. This phenomenon is called __________.

1139) A neuron in the skin detects tissue damage in the skin due to a burn and conveys signals

to the brain and spinal cord. This neuron is part of the __________ pathway.

1140) A neuron branching from the spinal cord innervates a group of muscle fibers in the biceps

brachii and stimulates them to contract. This neuron is part of the __________ pathway.

1141) A motor neuron in the arm has an axon that branches to innervate several muscle groups

and cause them to contract all at once. This branching is an example of __________.

1142) If a neurotransmitter hyperpolarizes a cell membrane and an action potential is less likely

to occur, the change is called __________ potential.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) C 27) B 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) C 32) D 33) D 34) B 35) C 36) D 37) D

38) A 39) C 40) C 41) D 42) B 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) A 47) C 48) D 49) D 50) B 51) D 52) C 53) B 54) A 55) C 56) C 57) A 58) A 59) B 60) B 61) B 62) C 63) D 64) C 65) A 66) C 67) B 68) A 69) C 70) C 71) A 72) A 73) B 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) B

78) B 79) C 80) A 81) A 82) D 83) C 84) neuroglia 85) effectors 86) Schwann 87) synapse 88) resting potential 89) action potentials 90) summation 91) neuromodulators 92) convergence 93) afferent 94) efferent 95) divergence 96) inhibitory postsynaptic

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1143) The hypoglossal (CN XII) and glossopharyngeal nerves (CN IX) serve the tongue in addition to other structures. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1144) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the subarachnoid space. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1145) The dura mater is the outermost layer of the meninges. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1146) The route for cerebrospinal fluid to reenter the blood stream is via the choroid plexuses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1147) The gray commissure surrounds the central canal of the spinal cord. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1148) With the exception of the corticospinal tracts, descending nerve tracts of the spinal cord

are called extrapyramidal tracts. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1149) Five spinal nerves arise from the cervical region of the spinal cord. Twelve arise from the

thoracic region, five arise from the lumbar region, and seven arise from the sacral region. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1150) If fibers of an ascending tract of the spinal cord are cut, the individual will have a loss of

motor function below the level of the injury. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1151) The arbor vitae are in the cerebrum. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1152) Short-term memory requires establishment of new synaptic connections. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1153) The epineurium is composed of nervous tissue. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1154) Injury to the anterior roots of spinal nerves would result in lack of sensation from areas

served by the affected nerves. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1155) Preganglionic sympathetic fibers enter the sympathetic chain via the white rami. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1156) Sympathetic tone is the continuous stimulation of smooth muscles in the walls of blood

vessels, resulting in continual partial constriction. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1157) What comprises the central nervous system (CNS)?

A) Spinal and cranial nerves B) Brain and spinal cord C) Brain and cranial nerves D) Nerves in the upper and lower limbs 1158) What is contained within the epidural space in the vertebral column?

A) Loose connective tissue, blood vessels, and adipose tissue B) Dense connective tissue and cartilage C) Serous fluid D) Collagen, elastin, and bone tissue 1159) In meningitis (inflammation of the meninges due to infection), what structures would be

inflamed and swollen?

A) The brain and spinal cord B) The membranes that separate major brain parts C) The pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater D) The nerve tracts of the spinal cord 1160) Describe the appearance of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

A) Clear and watery B) White and thick C) Reddish D) Yellow in the CNS and clear in the PNS 1161) With a subdural hematoma resulting from a blow to the head, where has the blood

accumulated?

A) Between the dura mater and the skull B) Between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater C) Between the pia mater and the brain D) Between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater

1162) What is found within the dural sinuses?

A) Venous blood B) Cerebrospinal fluid C) Arterial blood D) Serous fluid 1163) The __________ is the thin meninx attached to the surface of the brain, containing many

nerves and blood vessels.

A) dura mater B) arachnoid mater C) pia mater D) subdural mater 1164) The choroid plexuses located in the __________ secrete most of the cerebrospinal fluid

present at any one time.

A) lateral ventricles B) third ventricle C) fourth ventricle D) cerebral aqueduct 1165) Where is the fourth ventricle located?

A) Within the left cerebral hemisphere B) Within the brainstem C) On the midline of the brain, inferior to the corpus callosum D) Within the right cerebral hemisphere 1166) Which statement describes cerebrospinal fluid?

A) It maintains a stable ionic concentration in the brain and spinal cord.

B) It is formed by oligodendrocytes.

C) It reenters the blood stream via the central canal.

D) Its rate of production is high in children, dropping to lower rates in adults.

1167) The cerebral aqueduct contains CSF flowing from the __________ to the __________.

A) lateral ventricles; third ventricle B) third ventricle; subarachnoid space C) fourth ventricle; central canal D) third ventricle; fourth ventricle

1168) Cerebrospinal fluid reenters the blood via __________.

A) the central canal B) arachnoid granulations C) choroid plexuses D) the interventricular foramen 1169) What is the correct order for the components of a reflex arc?

A) Receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron, effector B) Effector, receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron C) Effector, sensory neuron, receptor, interneuron, motor neuron D) Receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector 1170) When the flexor muscles of one arm contract in a withdrawal reflex, the extensor muscles

of the other arm contract. What is this response called?

A) Flexor extensor reflex B) Ipsilateral reflex C) Crossed extensor reflex D) Crossed flexor reflex 1171) What is the role of reciprocal innervation during a withdrawal reflex response?

A) To stimulate contralateral flexors B) To inhibit ipsilateral extensors C) To stimulate ipsilateral extensors D) To inhibit contralateral flexors 1172) Katryn was in a car accident. Along with other injuries, she injured her neck, damaging

her C3 spinal nerves. Considering the dermatome associated with these nerves, she will experience interruption in the sensation from the skin of __________.

A) the back of her head B) her anterior trunk C) her chest, the clavicle areas, and the lateral portion of her shoulder and arm D) her neck 1173) What is the expected response to the triceps-jerk reflex?

A) Flexion of the forearm B) Extension of the forearm C) Plantar flexion D) Flexion of the shoulder

1174) The spinothalamic tract conducts impulses __________.

A) from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex B) up the spinal cord to the thalamus C) down the spinal cord from the thalamus D) from spinal cord to skeletal muscles 1175) What is found within the gray matter of the spinal cord?

A) Interneurons B) Cerebrospinal fluid C) Ganglia D) Myelinated axons 1176) The gray matter of the spinal cord is divided into areas called __________.

A) horns B) funiculi C) roots D) ganglia 1177) Which is a descending tract in the spinal cord?

A) Spinothalamic tract B) Spinocerebellar tract C) Fasciculus gracilis D) Rubrospinal tract 1178) Impulses conducted along the corticospinal tracts are _________ in nature and control

__________.

A) motor; involuntary movements B) sensory; perception of pain C) motor; voluntary muscle movements D) sensory; perception of touch 1179) What would result if the right lateral spinothalamic tract is severed?

A) Muscles on the left side of the body would be paralyzed.

B) Muscles on the right side of the body would be paralyzed.

C) Pain impulses from the left side of the body would be blocked.

D) Pain impulses from the right side of the body would be blocked.

1180) After breaking her forearm, Riley lost motor function and feeling in her fourth and fifth

phalanges as well as that side of her hand. What nerve has/have been damaged?

A) Musculocutaneous nerve B) Ulnar nerve C) Axillary nerve D) Obturator nerve 1181) What is the cauda equina?

A) Outermost protective layer covering the brain and spinal cord B) The inferior tip of the spinal cord C) Bundle of nervous tissue that extends beyond tip of spinal cord D) Cord of connective tissue that anchors spinal cord to the coccyx 1182) In the spinal cord, __________ matter is surrounded by __________ matter.

A) white; gray B) gray; white 1183) What is the significance of the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord?

A) It supplies the nerves to the abdominal organs.

B) It supplies nerves to the upper limbs.

C) It supplies nerves to the face and mouth.

D) It supplies nerves to the eyes and inner ear.

1184) A(n) __________ is the simplest nerve pathway from a sensory receptor to an effector.

A) spinal cord tract B) corpus callosum C) reflex D) spinal nerve 1185) Over the course of several months, Morris has experienced twitchy muscles, difficulty

speaking, clumsiness, and increasing weakness in his limbs. These symptoms are consistent with what neurological disorder?

A) Parkinson disease B) Multiple sclerosis C) Muscular dystrophy D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

1186) Where is the third ventricle located?

A) Within the cerebral hemispheres B) Within the diencephalon C) Within the spinal cord D) Within the brainstem 1187) The "buzz" experienced by smokers is due to the binding of nicotine to the category of

__________ receptor called nicotinic receptors.

A) muscarinic B) adrenergic C) cholinergic D) multipolar 1188) What part of the brain coordinates voluntary muscular movements?

A) Cerebrum B) Brainstem C) Cerebellum D) Corpus callosum 1189) The __________ is suspended from the hypothalamus via an infundibulum.

A) thalamus B) pituitary C) pons D) pineal gland 1190) The embryonic forebrain will give rise to what part(s) of the mature brain?

A) Pons and cerebellum B) Cerebrum and diencephalon C) Medulla oblongata and spinal cord D) Midbrain 1191) The activity of the __________ determines the degree of arousal or wakefulness of the

cerebral cortex.

A) dentate nucleus B) reticular formation C) limbic system D) corpora quadrigemina

1192) The surface of the cerebrum is marked by grooves called __________ that separate ridges

called __________.

A) sulci; gyri B) fissures; sulci C) gyri; sulci D) gyri; fissures 1193) What would be the effect of damage to Broca's area?

A) Memory loss B) Impaired motor control of the left side of the body C) Vision loss D) Loss of motor control needed for speech 1194) Where is the primary motor area of the brain located?

A) Postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe B) Precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe C) Posterior sulcus of the temporal lobe D) Lateral region of the occipital lobe 1195) Following a brain injury, a soldier is now unable to speak. What area of the brain was

most likely damaged?

A) Broca's area B) Hippocampus C) Posterior portion of occipital lobe D) Basal nuclei 1196) What is a function of the association areas of the frontal lobes?

A) Stimulate of movement of arms and legs B) Higher intellectual processes, including planning and problem solving C) Analysis and interpretation of auditory input D) Analysis and interpretation of visual input 1197) Which of the following is part of the basal nuclei?

A) Putamen B) Vermis C) Mammilary bodies D) Corpus callosum

1198) Which lobe of your brain are you using when you answer this question?

A) Frontal lobe B) Parietal lobe C) Temporal lobe D) Occipital lobe 1199) The __________ includes the thalamus and hypothalamus.

A) basal nuclei B) limbic system C) diencephalon D) midbrain 1200) The visual and auditory reflex centers of the midbrain are found within what structures?

A) Cerebral peduncles B) Mammillary bodies C) Pyramids D) Corpora quadrigemia 1201) The __________ is located between the cerebrum and the cerebellum.

A) lateral sulcus B) central sulcus C) longitudinal fissure D) transverse fissure 1202) What is one of the many functions of the hypothalamus?

A) Regulating body temperature B) Maintaining rhythm of repetitive motions C) Interpreting visual input D) Coordinating voluntary movement 1203) What structure separates the two cerebral hemispheres?

A) Falx cerebri B) Falx cerebelli C) Tentorium cerebelli D) Filum terminale

1204) What is a cerebrovascular accident?

A) Accumulation of blood between menigeal layers B) Abnormal brain wave activity C) Death of nervous system tissue due to blocked blood flow D) Death of brain tissue due to increased intracranial pressure 1205) An accident involving blunt-force trauma to the head has resulted in loss of vision for

Hilary. What area of her brain was damaged?

A) Temporal lobe B) Occipital lobe C) Parietal lobe D) Frontal lobe 1206) What functional area is located in the postcentral gyrus?

A) Primary motor cortex B) Auditory cortex C) Somatosensory cortex D) Broca's area 1207) What are pyramidal cells?

A) Neurons originating in primary motor cortex that control skeletal muscles.

B) Neurons originating in the retinas of eyes that carry visual information to visual

cortex.

C) Neurons from spinal cord that enter thalamus and synapse with other neurons that then synapse in the cerebral cortex.

D) Neurons that carry pain signals from spinal cord to cerebral cortex.

1208) For most people, the dominant cerebral hemisphere is their __________ hemisphere.

A) left B) right 1209) What type of sleep is dreamless and associated with decreased blood pressure and

respiratory rate?

A) REM sleep B) Non-REM sleep

1210) Which term is correctly defined?

A) Cerebral cortex: a thin layer of gray matter forming the outermost part of the

cerebrum B) Hemisphere dominance: refers to the cerebral hemisphere that is largest, with the thickest cerebral cortex C) Limbic system: interconnected brain structures that activate skeletal muscles D) Basal nuclei: a thick layer of white matter forming the innermost part of the cerebrum 1211) What is the effect of sensory nerve fibers crossing over?

A) Brain cannot tell from which side of the body a sensory impulse originated.

B) The right cerebral hemisphere receives sensory impulses originating on the left side

of the body and vice versa.

C) Each cerebral hemisphere receives sensory impulses from the its side of the body.

D) Once the sensory neurons enter the cerebrum, they have to cross back to their original side.

1212) What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A) Redirect incoming sensory impulses to the correct area of the cerebral cortex B) Control involuntary functions such as heart rate and respiratory rhythm C) Facilitate and help coordinate voluntary movement D) Interpret sensory impulses 1213) What might result from injury to the reticular formation?

A) Hyperactivity B) Increased sensory sensitivity C) Lack of muscle coordination D) Unconsciousness or coma 1214) What part of the brain assigns value to a memory?

A) Cerebral cortex B) Amygdala C) Medulla oblongata D) Pons 1215) The neurotransmitter __________ is secreted by the neurons of the basal nuclei. The

degeneration of these neurons results in __________ disease.

A) dopamine; Parkinson B) norepinephrine; Lou Gehrig's (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) C) dopamine; Alzheimer D) acetylcholine; Parkinson

1216) What type of fibers are found in spinal nerves?

A) Both motor and sensory neurons B) Motor neurons only C) Sensory neurons only 1217) The phrenic nerve arise from what nerve plexus?

A) Cervical plexus B) Brachial plexus C) Lumbar plexus D) Sacral plexus 1218) What is a dermatome?

A) Region of skin innervated by a single spinal nerve.

B) Group of muscles innervated by a single spinal nerve.

C) Branch of a spinal nerve that travels toward the posterior part of the body.

D) Cluster of nerve cell bodies within the peripheral nervous system.

1219) Nerve fibers of the somatic nervous system serve the __________, and nerve fibers of the

autonomic nervous system serve the __________.

A) skin and skeletal muscles; viscera B) viscera; smooth muscle C) heart and intestines; skeletal and smooth muscles D) smooth and skeletal muscles; cardiac muscle 1220) Which of these fibers types are typically adrenergic?

A) Parasympathetic postganglionic fibers B) Sympathetic postganglionic fibers C) Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers D) Sympathetic preganglionic fibers 1221) During a meal, the __________ nervous system stimulates digestive activity and slows

heart rate. During exercise, the __________ nervous system inhibits digestion and increases heart rate.

A) parasympathetic; sympathetic B) motor; sensory C) somatic; autonomic D) central; peripheral

1222) On her way home from class, the driver in front of Caroline suddenly hits his brakes,

startling her. She is able to brake in time to avoid an accident, but she finds that her heart is racing and her palms are sweaty. What type of response did she experience?

A) Activation of her limbic system B) Activation of her parasympathetic nervous system C) Activation of her sympathetic nervous system D) Activation of her somatic nervous system 1223) How does the drug atropine influence the activity of the autonomic nervous system?

A) By stimulating the release of norepinephrine B) By blocking the action of norepinephrine C) By stimulating the release of acetylcholine D) By blocking the action of acetylcholine 1224) The paravertebral ganglia are a part of the __________ nervous system.

A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) somatic D) central 1225) Long preganglionic neurons, short postganglionic neurons, and terminal ganglia are

characteristic of what division of the nervous system?

A) Sympathetic nervous system B) Central nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous system D) Somatic nervous system 1226) What is contained in the dorsal root ganglia?

A) Cerebrospinal fluid B) Axons of motor neurons C) Cells bodies of sensory neurons D) Axons of postganglionic neurons 1227) The fascicles of peripheral nerves are surrounded by what tissue layer?

A) Epineurium B) Perineurium C) Myelin D) Endoneurium

1228) Which cranial nerves are primarily motor nerves innervating the muscles that move the

eyes?

A) B) C) D)

Optic nerves (CN II), oculomotor nerves (CN III), and facial (CN VII) Oculomotor nerves (CN III), trochlear nerves (CN IV), and abducens nerves (VI) Facial nerves (CN VII), vagus nerves (X), and accessory nerves (CN XI) Optic nerves (CN II), trochlear nerves (CN IV), and trigeminal nerves (CN V)

1229) Which cranial nerves are comprised of only sensory fibers?

A) Olfactory nerves (CN I), optic nerves (CN II), and vestibulocochlear nerves (CN

VIII) B) Olfactory nerves (CN I), trigeminal nerves (CN V), and vagus nerves (CN X) C) Trochlear nerves (CN IV), facial nerves (CN VII), and hypoglossal nerves (CN XII) D) Facial nerves (CN VII), vestibulocochlear nerves (CN VIII), and accessory nerves (CN XI) 1230) Melinda has Parkinson disease. She has difficulty initiating voluntary muscle activity and

exhibits the typical slow movements associated with the disease. What region of her brain is functioning abnormally, leading the these symptoms?

A) Frontal lobe B) Cerebellum C) Basal ganglia D) Amygdala 1231) What type of brain waves are prevalent during sleep?

A) Alpha B) Beta C) Theta D) Delta 1232) The __________ of the brain controls emotional reponses and emotional expression in

response to stimuli.

A) cerebellum B) limbic system C) thalamus D) basal nuclei

1233) The plexuses of the peripheral nervous system are formed by the __________ of spinal

nerves.

A) B) C) D)

anterior rami visceral rami posterior rami meningeal rami

1234) Functionally, the adrenal medulla has the same effects on the body as the __________

nervous system.

A) sympathetic B) somatic C) parasympathetic D) sensory 1235) From what nerve plexus does the phrenic nerve arise?

A) Cervical plexus B) Brachial plexus C) Lumbosacral plexus 1236) Via what structures do signals travel between the cerebellum and the rest of the CNS? A) Cerebellar peduncles B) Vermis C) Corpus callosum D) Cerebellar cortex 1237) The cerebral cortex is made up of __________ matter, consisting of __________.

A) gray; axons B) gray; neuron cell bodies and synapses C) white; axons D) white; neurons cell bodies and synapses

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1238) In a reflex arc, _________ neurons run from the central nervous system to stimulate effectors.

1239) The __________ mater is the middle layer of the meninges.

1240) Neurons that release norepinephrine as their neurotransmitter are classified as

__________ neurons.

1241) Cell bodies of motor neurons are located in the __________ horns of the spinal cord.

1242) The interconnected, fluid-filled cavities of the brain are called __________.

1243) The cardiac center, vasomotor center, and respiratory center are located in the

__________ of the brainstem.

1244) The cranial nerve called the __________ nerve is a mixed nerve that conducts sensory

impulses from and motor impulses to the thoracic and abdominal viscera.

1245) The __________ division of the autonomic nervous system stimulates vascular smooth

muscle to contract.

1246) The __________ neuron of the sympathetic nerve pathway runs from the spinal cord to

either the paravertebral ganglia, the collateral ganglia, or the adrenal medulla.

1247) The __________ division of the autonomic nervous system decreases heart rate to return

the body to restful conditions.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) A 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) D 26) B 27) D 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) B 33) A 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) C

38) B 39) C 40) B 41) B 42) C 43) D 44) B 45) C 46) C 47) B 48) B 49) B 50) A 51) D 52) B 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) A 57) C 58) D 59) D 60) A 61) A 62) C 63) B 64) C 65) A 66) A 67) B 68) A 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) B 73) A 74) A 75) A 76) A 77) A

78) B 79) A 80) C 81) D 82) A 83) C 84) C 85) B 86) B 87) A 88) C 89) D 90) B 91) A 92) A 93) A 94) A 95) B 96) motor 97) arachnoid 98) adrenergic 99) ventral 100) ventricles 101) medulla oblongata 102) vagus 103) sympathetic 104) preganglionic 105) parasympathetic

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1248) Receptors for the general senses are only located in the head. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1249) Sensory receptors are specialized cells or multicellular structures that detect changes in

the environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1250) Thermoreceptors are stimulated by changes in chemical concentrations. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1251) Stretching of tissues can cause pain sensations to arise from visceral organs. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1252) Referred pain occurs when the brain projects the sensation back to the location in the

body where the pain originated. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1253) The stapes transmits vibrations to the round window of the inner ear. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1254) The utricle and saccule contain the sensory receptors associated with the sense of

dynamic equilibrium. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1255) The conjunctiva is a layer of tissue that lines the inner surface of the eyelids and covers

most of the anterior surface of the eye. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1256) The auditory ossicles are located in the inner ear. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1257) Tears contain an enzyme that reduces the risk of eye infection. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1258) When the radial muscles of the iris contract, the diameter of the pupil decreases. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1259) When all three sets of cones are stimulated, a person senses white light. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1260) Tears flow across the surface of the eye and are drained by the canaliculi. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1261) The optic disc is medial to the fovea centralis and is the site from which nerve fibers from

the retina leave the eye and become part of the optic nerve. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1262) Cones are more sensitive to light than rods, but rods are important for color vision. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1263) Impulses from taste receptors travel to the central nervous system via the facial,

glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1264) Sound vibrations are conducted from the malleus to the stapes to the incus. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1265) Impulses from the spiral organ travel to the central nervous system via the

vestibulocochlear nerve. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1266) Some sensory nerve fibers from the retina of the right eye cross over to the left side of the

CNS in the thalamus. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1267) Light striking the retina breaks down rhodopsin into opsin and retinal. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1268) A cupula is part of each macula, moving in response to changes in the position of the

head. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1269) Each macula consists of a gelantinous mass containing small crystals that rests on an

epithelium with hair cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1270) As a ballerina executes a pirouette, spinning rapidly around on one foot, the endolymph

of the semicircular canals moves, causing stimulation of the hair cells of the spiral organ. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1271) In hyperopia, the eyeball is too short and the focal point is in front of the retina. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1272) The area of the retina with the sharpest vision is the optic disc. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1273) Where are receptors for the general senses located?

A) In a few clusters within the head B) Only in the integumentary system C) Widely distributed throughout the body D) Throughout the visceral organs 1274) Where are receptors for the special senses located?

A) Primarily in the head B) Throughout the integumentary system C) In the fingertips D) In internal organs

1275) The interpretation of sensory input by the brain is referred to as ___________.

A) reception B) sensation C) perception D) recognition 1276) What type of receptor detects and responds to pressure?

A) Baroreceptors B) Thermoreceptors C) Photoreceptors D) Chemoreceptors 1277) The decreased responsiveness to an ongoing stimulus is called ___________.

A) sensory deficit B) receptor integration C) interpretive assimilation D) sensory adaptation 1278) After taking a bite of pizza, sensory receptors are stimulated in your mouth. What is the

order of information flow that results?

A) Stimulation of sensory receptors → perception → sensation → impulse sent to CNS B) Stimulation of sensory receptors → impulse sent to CNS → sensation → perception C) Stimulation of sensory receptors → sensation → impulse sent to CNS → perception D) Stimulation of sensory receptors → perception→ impulse sent to CNS → sensation 1279) As you are walking to class, another student is walking towards you. You experience

__________ as your retinal cones detect color and send impulses to your visual cortex. Then you experience __________ when you become aware that the student is wearing a red coat.

A) sensation; perception B) sensation; projection C) perception; sensation D) perception; projection 1280) What statement describes a receptor potential?

A) Local graded potential that reflects strength of the stimulus.

B) Series of action potentials with a frequency that reflects strength of the stimulus.

C) The strength of stimulus that is necessary to trigger a sensory impulse at the receptor.

D) The diminishing number of action potentials that are generated as the strength of

stimulus increases.

1281) Max returns to his dorm room late at night to find his roommate throwing up. The smell

is at first so bad that Max wants to vomit too, but after helping his roommate clean up, the odor seems to fade. Max has experienced __________.

A) damage to his sensory receptors B) sensory adaptation C) sensory stimulation D) a hallucination 1282) Sensory impulses originate at receptors in response to __________.

A) neurotransmitters B) decreasing permeability of nerve cell membranes C) subthreshold potential D) local changes in their cell membrane potentials 1283) Olfactory receptors are examples of what class of sensory receptor?

A) Thermoreceptors B) Mechanoreceptors C) Chemoreceptors D) Proprioceptors 1284) What is projection?

A) Awareness of a stimulus B) Awareness of location where stimulus occurred C) Intrepretation of stimulus, giving it meaning D) Diminshed receptor response to ongoing stimulus 1285) Which receptor/stimulus pair is correct?

A) Baroreceptors: stimulated when injury occurs to nearby tissue.

B) Nociceptors: stimulated by increase in blood pressure.

C) Thermoreceptors: stimulated by light energy.

D) Proprioceptors: stimulated by changes in tension in muscles and tendons.

1286) Tactile and lamellated corpuscles are examples of __________.

A) interoceptors B) baroreceptors C) exteroceptors D) proprioceptors

1287) Transmission of pain impulses within the posterior horn of the spinal cord can be

inhibited by compounds called __________, released in response to signals from several areas of the brain.

A) enkephalins B) endorphins C) epinephrine and norepinephrine D) cannabinoids 1288) What is the destination of fibers of the spinothalamic tract transmitting pain and

temperature information?

A) Hypothalamus B) Cerebellum C) Brainstem D) Thalamus 1289) What type of receptor allows a pole vaulter to keep track of his position in mid-air?

A) Lamellated corpuscles B) Pain receptors C) Proprioceptors D) Baroreceptors 1290) How do pain receptors differ from other somatic receptors?

A) They are stimulated only by damage to skeletal muscle.

B) They adapt very little, if at all.

C) They are not able to project impulses back to their origin.

D) They adapt more rapidly than other receptors.

1291) You drop a book on your foot. Immediately, you feel a sharp, stinging pain. Pain fibers

called __________ are responsible for this sensation. Then, about a minute later, you feel a dull, lingering pain. Pain fibers called __________ are responsible for this sensation.

A) slow pain fibers; fast pain fibers B) fast pain fibers; slow pain fibers 1292) What type of structures are temperature receptors?

A) Hair cells B) Encapsulated nerve endings C) Specialized epithelial cells D) Free nerve endings

1293) Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs are receptors for __________.

A) proprioception B) pain C) equilibrium D) touch and pressure 1294) What stimulates Golgi tendon organs?

A) A muscle has become metabolically active.

B) A muscle is stretched nearly to its limit.

C) A muscle starts to relax after strenuous exercise.

D) A muscle is contracting with minimal tension.

1295) You are carrying a box when your friend suddenly places another heavy box on top of it.

Your muscles respond by immediately __________ because receptors called __________ sense the rapid muscle lengthening and cause a reflex response.

A) contracting; muscle spindles B) relaxing; muscle spindles C) relaxing; Golgi tendon organs D) contracting; Golgi tendon organs 1296) What occurs as a result of the tympanic reflex?

A) The auditory ossicles become less closely attached to each other.

B) Vibrations are amplified within the inner ear.

C) The auditory tube is reduced in diameter.

D) Vibrations are transmitted less effectively to the inner ear.

1297) When cleaning his ear canal with a cotton swab, Garrett pushes the swab into the external

acoustic meatus as far as he can. When he is met with some resistance, he pushes harder and suddenly feels a sharp, intense pain. He then notices that all he can hear from that ear is a constant ringing. What damage has he most likely done to the ear?

A) He has damaged the stapes so sound vibrations are not being transmitted to the inner ear.

B) He has torn the skin of the ear canal, and now blood is preventing sound waves from reaching the tympanic membrane.

C) He has torn the tympanic membrane so sound is not being transmitted to the middle ear.

D) He has torn the oval window so sound vibrations are not being transmitted into the inner ear.

1298) Structurally, taste receptors are __________.

A) free nerve endings B) hair cells C) modified connective tissue cells D) modified epithelial cells 1299) Which of the following is not a primary taste sensation?

A) Sweet B) Salty C) Pungent D) Sour 1300) Where are the receptors for hearing located?

A) In the ampullae B) In the spiral organ C) In the utricles D) In the saccules 1301) What is the function of a stretch reflex?

A) To initiate the stretch of a muscle B) To contract a muscle that is stretched C) To limit the amount of tension a muscle can generate D) To relax a muscle that is over-stretched 1302) What structure is part of the inner tunic of the eye?

A) Retina B) Cornea C) Choroid coat D) Sclera 1303) What causes the lens of the eye to thicken?

A) Suspensory ligaments pull on the lens capsule.

B) Ciliary processes relax.

C) Pupillary constrictors relax.

D) Ciliary muscles contract.

1304) Why are images detected by the lateral retina blurry?

A) Because there are no rods in this region.

B) Because there are more cones than rods in this region.

C) Because there are more rods than cones in this region.

D) Because the retina is thinner in this region.

1305) In the rods of the retina, the visual pigment called __________ breaks down to

_________ when stimulated by light.

A) rhodopsin; retinal and opsin B) retinal; rhodopsin and opsin C) opsin; retinal and rhodopsin 1306) How is stereoscopic vision produced?

A) Both eyes see identical views of an object.

B) Each eye sees a slightly different view of an object.

C) Rods of one eye are stimulated and the cones of the other eye are stimulated.

D) One eye refracts the incoming light differently than the other eye.

1307) Arnold enters a darkened movie theater on a sunny summer afternoon. At first, he can not

see objects. After several minutes he begins to see more clearly. What happens as his eyes adapt to the darkness?

A) Rhodopsin, which was depleted in the bright sunlight, has to rebuild.

B) Iodopsins, which were depleted in bright sunlight, have to rebuild.

C) The iris needs time to correctly adjust to altered lighting.

D) The optic nerve had fatigued in the bright sunlight, and it has to recover.

1308) Carlee was born with a genetic mutation that results in nonfunctional rhodopsin. The

function of which structure(s) will be affected?

A) Cones B) Lens C) Rods D) Ciliary body 1309) When does refraction of light occur?

A) When light passes at an angle from one medium to another with a different density.

B) When light passes at a right angle from one medium to another with a different

density.

C) When light passes at an angle between two media with identical densities.

D) When light passes at a right angle between two media with identical densities.

1310) Sensory fibers from the __________ cross over at the optic chiasma.

A) left side of each retina B) medial (nasal) side of each retina C) lateral (temporal) side of each retina D) right side of each retina 1311) What is the correct order of segments of the visual pathway?

A) Optic nerve → optic chiasma → optic tract → thalamus → optic radiations → visual

cortex B) Optic nerve → optic chiasma → optic radiations → thalamus → optic tract → visual cortex C) Optic nerve → optic tract → thalamus → optic chiasma → optic radiations → visual cortex D) Optic nerve → optic radiations → optic chiasma → thalamus → optic tract → visual cortex 1312) Violet has a condition in which her auditory ossicles have fused together. As a result, she

exhibits __________.

A) conductive deafness B) sensorineural deafness C) vertigo (dizziness) D) otitis media 1313) Jared has been an avid fan of rock music for many years and has attended numerous

concerts, getting as close to the stage as possible. He has never worn earplugs or protective earwear. Now in his 50s, he has become hard-of-hearing and can no longer detect quiet sounds or low talking. How might his symptoms be explained?

A) His tympanic membrane has hardened.

B) His hair cells are permanently damaged and desensitized to loud sounds.

C) He has developed a brain tumor that puts pressure on the vestibulocochlear nerve.

D) He must have used the antibiotic streptomycin while at a concert which weakened the structures in his inner ear, making them less able to respond to sound waves.

1314) Following the path of sound transmission, what is the correct order of auditory ossicles?

A) Malleus → incus → stapes B) Incus → malleus → stapes C) Stapes → malleus → incus D) Incus → stapes → malleus

1315) Receptors for the sense of static equilibrium are located in the __________ which

contains chambers called the __________.

A) vestibule; saccule and utricle B) semicircular canals; ampullae C) cochlea; scali vestibuli, scali tympani, and cochlear duct D) inner ear; anterior and posterior chambers 1316) The sense of taste requires that molecules bind to receptor proteins located __________.

A) on taste hairs B) in taste pores C) on cell bodies of taste cells D) on sensory axons of the taste buds 1317) Acids in foods stimulate __________ receptors while alkaloids (including strychnine and

nicotine) stimulate __________ receptors.

A) sour; bitter B) bitter; sweet C) umami; salt D) salt; sour 1318) The protein miraculin, which is found in taste-altering "miracle berries", causes acidic

foods like citrus fruits, soda, and vinegar to taste like candy. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for the effects of miraculin?

A) Miraculin inactivates sweet receptors, so only sour receptors will detect sweet compounds.

B) Miraculin amplifies umami receptors, enhancing umami flavors.

C) Miraculin alters sweet receptors on the tongue and causes them to perceive carbohydrates as sour.

D) Miraculin alters sour receptors on the tongue and causes them to perceive acids as sweet.

1319) What is detected by the hair cells in the semicircular canals?

A) Sound waves B) Direction of motion C) Frequency of the sound D) Position of head

1320) What is the treatment for a cataract?

A) Removal of the cornea B) Anchoring the retina in place C) Removal of the lens D) Using medication to reduce production of aqueous humor 1321) "Lazy eye" is a condition in which the muscles of one eye fail to position it correctly,

resulting in a lack of coordination between the two eyes. In an example where one eye constantly looks directly upward, what extrinsic eye muscle is too weak to function correctly?

A) Superior rectus B) Inferior rectus C) Lateral rectus D) Inferior oblique 1322) What is glaucoma?

A) Clouding of the lens B) Unchanging pupil size due to decreased responsiveness of iris muscles C) Inflammation of the conjunctiva D) Increased pressure in the eye due to excess aqueous humor 1323) What change results in farsightedness after the age of forty-five?

A) Loss of lens elasticity B) Shortening of the eyeball C) Lengthening of the eyeball D) Changes in curvature of the cornea 1324) The lack of __________ results in colorblindness.

A) rods B) a type of cone C) a cornea D) a lens 1325) Lorelei thinks of the days of the week and months of the year as particular colors. What is

the name of her condition?

A) Synesthesia B) Neuropathy C) Nystagmus D) Macular degeneration

1326) What condition can be treated with a cochlear implant?

A) Torn tympanic membrane B) Otosclerosis C) Conductive deafness D) Sensorineural deafness 1327) What type of receptor is responsive to vibration, heavier pressure, and stretch?

A) Cristae ampullaris B) Lamellated corpuscles C) Tactile corpuscles D) Golgi tendon organs 1328) While working in a lab without protective glasses, Thad, a research assistant, accidentally

sprays himself in the eyes with a nerve agent that blocks contraction in smooth muscles. How will his eyes be affected?

A) Only able to detect black, white, and gray tones B) Inability to move eyes up and down C) Inability to focus or to adjust pupils D) Loss of pigment in iris and choroid coat 1329) What condition is due to an abnormality in the curvature of the lens or cornea, resulting

in some areas of blurry vision?

A) Presbyopia B) Astigmatism C) Hyperopia D) Myopia 1330) The olfactory receptors are examples of what class of receptor?

A) Thermoreceptors B) Mechanoreceptors C) Chemoreceptors D) Proprioceptors 1331) What structure contains the receptors for the sense of hearing?

A) Ampulla B) Spiral organ C) Utricle D) Semicircular canals

1332) The auditory tube runs between the throat and the __________.

A) auditory cortex B) middle ear C) inner ear D) auricle 1333) What is the order of structures through which light passes as it travels to the retina?

A) Cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor B) Aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor C) Vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea D) Cornea, lens, aqueous humor, vitreous humor E) Aqueous humor, vitreous humor, cornea, lens 1334) What structure is part of the innermost layer of the wall of the eye?

A) Ciliary body B) Retina C) Choroid coat D) Sclera 1335) What region of the retina provides the sharpest vision?

A) Fovea centralis B) Optic disc C) Conjunctiva D) Ciliary body 1336) The inner ear is located within which cranial bone?

A) Parietal bone B) Sphenoid bone C) Temporal bone D) Occipital bone 1337) Where is the spiral organ located?

A) In the scala vestibuli B) In the scala tympani C) In the cochlear duct

1338) What is the immediate result of stimulation of the hair cells of the spiral organ?

A) Stimulation of motor neurons in the auditory nerve B) Formation of otoliths C) Release of neurotransmitter D) Deformation of the tectorial membrane 1339) Hair cells of the spiral organ are located on the __________ and depolarize in response to

sound.

A) B) C) D)

vestibular membrane tympanic membrane tectorial membrane basilar membrane

1340) What structure produces tears?

A) Conjunctiva B) Nasolacrimal duct C) Lacrimal gland D) Lacrimal sac 1341) List the components of the middle (vascular) layer of the wall of the eye.

A) Cornea and sclera B) Ciliary body, iris, and choroid coat C) Retina, macula lutea, and fovea centralis D) Optic disc and optic nerve 1342) In dim light, the ________ muscles of the iris are stimulated to contract, resulting in

__________ of the pupil.

A) radial; dilation B) circular; dilation C) radial; constriction D) circular; constriction 1343) Which of the following structures are NOT responsible for the refraction of light?

A) Cornea B) Lens C) Aqueous humor D) Retina

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1344) Receptors stimulated by changes in temperature are called __________.

1345) The process by which the brain causes a sensation to seem to come from the area of

stimulated receptors is called __________ .

1346) Pain that feels like it is coming from a part other than the part being stimulated is called

__________ pain.

1347) In the condition called benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, debris within a semicircular

canal of the ear moves the crista ampullaris, stimulating hair cells. A lingering sensation of spinning occurs after slight movements of the head, and persists after actual movement has stopped. This disorder is affecting the sense of __________ equilibrium.

1348) The __________ is the ossicle that transmits sound vibrations to the inner ear by

vibrating the oval window.

1349) Retinitis pigmentosa is a disorder in which the photoreceptors of the retina slowly

degenerate. At first, the ability to see in dim light and grayscale is lost. Of the two types of photoreceptors, the __________ must be degrading first.

1350) The __________ is the transparent anterior portion of the outer tunic of the eye.

1351) When you cry, your nose becomes runny because your eyes fill with tears that then drain

through the superior and inferior __________, into the lacrimal sac and the nasolacrimal duct, and finally into the nasal cavity.

1352) The adjustment of the thickness of the lens, as when going from far vision to near vision,

is called __________ .

1353) The __________ rectus muscle rotates the eye away from the midline.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) FALSE 25) FALSE 26) C 27) A 28) C 29) A 30) D 31) B 32) A 33) A 34) B 35) D 36) C 37) B

38) D 39) C 40) A 41) D 42) C 43) B 44) B 45) D 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) D 50) C 51) D 52) C 53) B 54) B 55) A 56) D 57) C 58) A 59) B 60) A 61) C 62) A 63) A 64) B 65) A 66) B 67) A 68) A 69) A 70) A 71) D 72) B 73) C 74) B 75) D 76) A 77) B

78) A 79) D 80) B 81) C 82) B 83) C 84) B 85) B 86) A 87) B 88) A 89) C 90) C 91) C 92) D 93) C 94) B 95) A 96) D 97) thermoreceptors 98) projection 99) referred 100) dynamic 101) stapes 102) rods 103) cornea 104) canaliculi 105) accommodation 106) lateral

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1354) A hormone is a molecule secreted into the bloodstream that acts on target cells that have the specific receptors for that hormone. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1355) Human growth hormone is secreted by the pituitary gland and travels via the bloodstream

to affect target cells all throughout the body. Thus, it is an autocrine secretion. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1356) The nervous system releases hormones at synapses and the endocrine system releases

neurotransmitters into the bloodstream. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1357) If the adrenal medulla were to lose the ability to secrete hormones, blood pressure, heart

rate, and breathing rate would be affected. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1358) Nonsteroid hormones include peptides, proteins, glycoproteins, and amines. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1359) Steroid hormones diffuse through cell membranes and bind to intracellular receptors,

whereas nonsteroid hormones bind to receptors on the target cell membrane. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1360) A tropic hormone prevents endocrine glands from releasing their hormones, thereby

maintaining homeostasis. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1361) The target cells of hypothalamic releasing hormones are in the anterior pituitary gland. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1362) The thalamus controls the secretion of pituitary hormones. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1363) Cushing syndrome is caused by hypersecretion of cortical hormones. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1364) Oxytocin stimulates the kidneys to conserve water. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1365) If an abnormal thyroid gland were to develop without extrafollicular cells, secretion of

calcitonin would be severely diminshed. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1366) Parathyroid hormone stimulates the activity of bone-resorbing osteoblasts. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1367) Cells of the adrenal medulla are closely associated with preganglionic fibers of the

parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1368) The hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla are amines. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1369) The sex hormones from the adrenal cortex are primarily androgens. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1370) Norepinephrine and epinephrine are amines. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1371) A person under stress may have a lowered resistance to infection. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1372) A hormone is a __________ and the target cell is __________.

A) protein that stimulates other cells; the source of hormone secretions B) regulatory molecule that controls secretions of other cells; a cell that synthesizes hormones C) molecule that has a metabolic effect on another cell; a cell that has receptors for specific hormones D) molecule; a cell that does not have receptors 1373) Secretions that affect only nearby cells are termed _________.

A) endocrine B) paracrine C) exocrine D) autocrine 1374) During early embryonic development, a protein called sonic hedgehog is released from a

cell and travels through the interstitial fluid to nearby cells. This helps to establish the path and direction of development for the nervous system and limbs. Knowing this, sonic hedgehog must be a(n) __________ signal.

A) endocrine B) paracrine C) autocrine D) nervous 1375) How do exocrine glands differ from endocrine glands?

A) Exocrine glands secrete substances into the bloodstream.

B) Exocrine glands secrete local hormones.

C) Exocrine glands secrete through ducts or tubes to a free surface.

D) Exocrine glands only secrete salts.

1376) A sweat gland is an example of a(n) __________ gland.

A) exocrine B) paracrine C) endocrine D) autocrine

1377) What does "endocrine" mean?

A) Hormone synthesis B) Internal secretion C) Acts upon target cells D) Fast-acting compound 1378) How can a hormone have effects on some cells but not on other cells?

A) Because target cell receptors are unique for each hormone.

B) Because target cell receptors are found near the endocrine gland.

C) Because target cell receptors are only present during certain times.

D) Because target cell receptors bind certain neurotransmitters and hormones.

1379) What is a function of hormones?

A) To catalyze reactions by physically bringing two reactants closer together B) To stimulate growth, reproduction, and development C) To protect the body by fighting of diseases D) To generate action potentials to send signals through the body 1380) Compared to the nervous system, the endocrine system __________.

A) does not use receptors B) may have a longer lasting effect C) effects are immediate D) is not essential to life 1381) What do all hormones have in common?

A) They are steroids.

B) They are proteins.

C) They are inorganic compounds.

D) They are organic compounds.

1382) Which of the following is true for steroid hormones?

A) They are soluble in lipids.

B) They circulate free in the blood, not bound to any carriers.

C) Their receptors are found on the cell membranes of target cells.

D) They include epinephrine and norepinephrine.

1383) Nonsteroid hormones cause __________ in their target cells.

A) conversion of cyclic AMP to ATP B) decomposition of cyclic AMP C) activation of adenylate cyclase D) inactivation of adenylate cyclase 1384) How does a nonsteroid hormone effect change in a target cell?

A) By causing synthesis of a second messenger B) By stimulating cell division C) By promoting phagocytosis D) By directly stimulating protein synthesis 1385) What is the effect of a steroid hormone binding to a receptor in a target cell?

A) It causes a second messenger to be formed.

B) It causes the cell to divide.

C) It promotes phagocytosis of the cell.

D) It directly causes protein synthesis.

1386) Along with insulin, amylin is a hormone that a diabetic pancreas fails to produce. It is

comprised of a long chain of amino acids. It cannot cross the cell membrane, so it binds to a receptor on the cell surface to elicit an action. Which hormone class is amylin?

A) A steroid hormone B) A protein hormone C) A peptide hormone D) A prostaglandin 1387) Estradiol is a type of estrogen whose hormone effects promote female sex characteristics.

Its structure consists of various carbon-hydrogen rings and it is a lipid, but not a prostaglandin. Knowing the structure, how would you expect this hormone to cause a response in a target cell?

A) Estradiol will bind to a receptor on the surface of its target cell, causing a secondary messenger to be activated.

B) Estradiol will act as a second messenger in a receptor-mediated pathway after a primary messenger binds to a membrane receptor.

C) Estradiol will enter the target cell and bind to an intercellular receptor, causing a change in gene expression.

D) Estradiol will act as a paracrine signal and inactivate adenylate cyclase inside the cell, stopping production of cAMP.

1388) Where are hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary synthesized?

A) Posterior pituitary B) Hypothalamus C) Thalamus D) Anterior pituitary 1389) An upregulated cell has an increase in __________.

A) the amount of DNA in the nucleus B) the number of molecules the cell secretes C) the concentration of ligands that bind to the receptors D) the number of receptors available for binding 1390) What can cause upregulation of a target cell's receptors?

A) Prolonged decreased concentration of a hormone B) Prolonged elevated concentration of a hormone C) Signals from inhibitory hormones D) Signals from the posterior pituitary 1391) What can cause downregulation of a target cell?

A) Prolonged decreased concentration of a hormone B) Prolonged elevated concentration of a hormone C) Signals from inhibitory hormones D) Signals from the posterior pituitary 1392) What controls most hormone concentrations?

A) Positive feedback B) Negative feedback C) Muscle contraction D) Exposure to sun

1393) Choose the example that demonstrates a positive feedback loop of hormonal control.

A) A gland releases a hormone that causes free blood glucose to be collected and stored

after a meal. After a time, the gland detects low free blood glucose and ceases production of the hormone.

B) Pressure receptors sense the movement of a baby against and through the cervix during labor. They stimulate the hypothalamus to release a hormone that causes uterine contractions. This causes more pressure receptor stimulation, leading to larger releases of the hormone and stronger, more frequent contractions. Hormone release ceases after pressure sensations cease.

C) A hormone that increases blood pressure is released. Baroreceptors in the arteries sense the pressure change and stimulate the brainstem to send signals to dilate blood vessels and counter the effect, decreasing blood pressure.

D) A hormone is released from the hypothalamus, stimulating the anterior pituitary gland to release another hormone that is involved in metabolism. The flow of that hormone back to the hypothalamus inhibits the production of the first hormone in the pathway, also ceasing the production of the metabolism-influencing hormone.

1394) A hormone with an effect that lasts for days would have a __________.

A) short half-life B) no half-life C) long half-life D) whole life 1395) A hormone has a half-life of 20 minutes. After an hour, __________ percent of the

original number of molecules remains.

A) 0 B) 12.5 C) 25 D) 50 1396) What are tropic hormones?

A) Hormones that function in the tropics B) Hormones that function in only one sex C) Hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands to secrete hormones D) Hormones that block the actions of other hormones

1397) What do nerve fibers in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland secrete?

A) Thyroid-stimulating hormone B) Adrenocorticotropic hormone C) Growth hormone D) Antidiuretic hormone 1398) A patient develops a cyst in the pars intermedia as a child which grows over time. The

resulting shape of the cyst puts significant pressure only on the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland and causes defective hormonal production and secretion. Which of the following symptoms would you predict?

A) The patient will produce and secrete less estrogen than normal and won’t ovulate regularly.

B) The patient will have hypothyroidism since the thyroid gland will not be stimulated to release its hormones.

C) The patient will have abnormal/high risk labors and may be forced to undergo Csections instead of vaginal labor due to weak uterine contractions.

D) The patient will have muscle weakness and other effects of low protein production.

1399) What is an action of growth hormone?

A) Enhances the movement of amino acids into cells B) Increases the rate of carbohydrate use C) Stimulates the reabsorption of sodium D) Decreases the rate at which the body uses fat for energy 1400) A female patient is experiencing a hormonal imbalance that results in low estrogen

production, causing her to skip menstrual periods and not to ovulate. Which of the following is most likely the imbalanced hormone?

A) Follicle-stimulating hormone B) Adrenocorticotropic hormone C) Prolactin-releasing factor D) Growth hormone 1401) Where are the target cells for hypothalamic releasing hormones located?

A) Adrenal cortex B) Anterior pituitary gland C) Posterior pituitary gland D) Thyroid gland

1402) Which of the following hormones requires a releasing hormone from the hypothalamus

for its secretion?

A) Oxytocin B) Prolactin C) Antidiuretic hormone D) Melatonin 1403) What is another name for antidiuretic hormone?

A) Intermedin B) Oxytocin C) Vasopressin D) Aldosterone 1404) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone, which regulates the formation of melanin, is produced

by the _________.

A) intermediate lobe of the pituitary gland B) anterior lobe of the pituitary gland C) pineal gland D) the hypothalamus 1405) Concentration of growth hormone is not constant throughout life. When do fluctuations

in blood levels occur?

A) Increases in females after menopause B) Varies greatly in males during adulthood C) Decreases at puberty and increases after adolescence D) Increases at puberty and levels off after adolescence 1406) Jerry drinks a few beers and soon has to urinate. What effect did alcohol have on the

hormonal control of urination?

A) It inhibited secretion of ADH. B) It stimulated secretion of ADH. C) It inhibited secretion of ACTH. D) It stimulated secretion of ACTH. 1407) Diabetes insipidus is caused by __________.

A) insulin deficiency B) excess insulin C) ADH deficiency D) excess ADH

1408) Why is oxytocin administered to women during childbirth?

A) To inhibit milk production B) To stimulate uterine contractions C) To inhibit uterine contractions D) To stimulate ACTH production 1409) ADH and oxytocin are secreted by __________.

A) neuromuscular cells B) neurons C) neuroglia D) neurosecretory cells 1410) Growth hormone signals the release of IGF-1 from the __________.

A) pancreas B) liver C) spleen D) pituitary gland 1411) Growth hormone stimulates the release of __________.

A) TGF B) PTH C) IGF-1 D) FSH 1412) Dopamine, released from the __________, inhibits secretion of prolactin.

A) hypothalamus B) anterior pituitary C) posterior pituitary D) adrenal cortex 1413) How do the hormones T3 and T4 differ?

A) T4 has a higher free concentration in the plasma than T3.

B) T4 is more important physiologically than T3.

C) T4 is converted to T3 in peripheral tissues.

D) T4 is more potent than T3.

1414) Kristin discovers a lump in her neck. Upon examination, her physician determines it’s a

tumor of the thyroid and performs a complete removal. Which of the following is a hormone Kristin will need to be supplemented with?

A) Cholecalciferol B) Triiodothyronine C) Calcitonin D) Thyroxine 1415) What is a common symptom of Graves' Disease?

A) Weight gain B) Increased thirst C) Decreased appetite D) Goiter 1416) What endocrine gland secretes triiodothyronine?

A) Adrenal gland B) Pancreas C) Parathyroid gland D) Thyroid gland 1417) Maxwell has a very high metabolic rate, is skinny, and has protruding eyes. These are

symptoms of what condition?

A) Hypothyroidism B) Hyperthyroidism C) Hypoparathyroidism D) Hyperparathyroidism 1418) Graves' disease, the most common form of hyperthyroidism, is caused by __________.

A) a lack of iodine B) an excess of iodine C) an improper diet D) an autoimmune disorder 1419) What is an action of the thyroid hormone?

A) To reduce the rate at which carbohydrates are utilized B) To enhance the rate at which proteins are synthesized C) To inhibit responses of the nervous system D) To inhibit the rate at which calcium enters body fluids

1420) What is the cause infantile hypothyroidism?

A) A deficiency of thyroid hormones at birth B) Hyperthyroidism in an adult C) Hypothyroidism in an adult D) Lack of prolactin 1421) What is the most common cause of hyperparathyroidism?

A) Low blood level of calcium B) A tumor C) A traumatic injury D) Surgical removal of the thyroid gland 1422) The opposing roles of the thyroid and parathyroid hormones maintain the balance of

calcium and phosphate ions in the blood. What will happen if the parathyroid gland develops a defect that prevents PTH secretion?

A) The amount of calcium ions and phosphate ions in the blood will increase.

B) The amount of calcium ions in the blood will increase and the amount of phosphate ions will decrease.

C) The amount of calcium ions in the blood will decrease and the amount of phosphate ions will increase.

D) The amount of calcium ions and phosphate ions in the blood will decrease.

1423) In addition to a drop in blood calcium concentration, identify another symptom of

hypoparathyroidism.

A) Decreased vitamin D concentration B) Increased PTH secretion C) Muscle cramps D) Kidney stones 1424) What is the primary control for the secretion of parathyroid hormone?

A) Hormone from the hypothalamus B) Concentration of blood calcium C) Hormone from the thyroid gland D) Hormone from the anterior pituitary gland 1425) What hormone stimulates calcium deposition into bone?

A) Calcitonin B) Parathyroid hormone C) Thyroxine D) Insulin

1426) Which of the following is a hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla?

A) Mineralocorticoid B) Glucocorticoid C) Aldosterone D) Epinephrine 1427) Aldosterone promotes the homeostasis of ions by causing the kidneys to __________.

A) conserve sodium and excrete potassium B) excrete sodium and conserve potassium C) excrete sodium and potassium D) conserve sodium and potassium 1428) What is the action of cortisol?

A) To increase the permeability of capillary walls B) To increase the permeability of lysosomal membranes C) To stimulate the production of glucose from noncarbohydrates D) To promote the storage of amino acids in the form of proteins 1429) Why is cortisol useful in controlling inflammatory reactions?

A) Cortisol decreases the permeability of capillaries.

B) Cortisol increases synthesis of prostaglandins.

C) Cortisol destabilizes lysosomal membranes.

D) Cortisol decreases blood flow to area of inflammation.

1430) Hyposecretion of hormones from the adrenal cortex leads to __________.

A) Cushing syndrome B) Addison disease C) a buffalo hump D) a moon face 1431) What is a result of Addison disease?

A) Hyperactivity and high metabolism B) Decreased blood sodium levels C) Decreased blood potassium levels D) Increased blood glucose levels

1432) What is the action of insulin?

A) Decreases concentration of blood glucose B) Decreases permeability of cell membranes to glucose C) Increases breakdown of glycogen to release glucose D) Increases concentration of blood glucose 1433) What is the action of glucagon?

A) Increased production of fat B) Increased permeability of the cell membrane to glucose C) Increased blood glucose concentration D) Increased in glycogen production 1434) Which of the following has both endocrine and exocrine functions?

A) Pancreas B) Anterior pituitary C) Liver D) Thyroid gland 1435) Where is the pineal gland located?

A) Behind the thyroid gland B) Attached to an adrenal gland C) Attached to the thalamus D) In the pancreas 1436) What hormone is secreted by the pineal gland?

A) Dopamine B) Melatonin C) Epinephrine D) Beta endorphin 1437) A night-shift worker experiences extreme difficulty falling asleep due to being exposed to

bright lights during both night and day. The unusual pattern of light exposure is disturbing their __________, which is controlled by the hormone __________.

A) metabolic rate; thyroxine B) circulatory system; dopamine C) circadian rhythm; melatonin D) limbic system; thymosin

1438) The thymus gland secretes hormones called __________ that __________.

A) thyroxines; control metabolism B) melatonins; control circadian rhythms C) prostaglandins; control skeletal muscle strength D) thymosins; control production and differentiation of white blood cells 1439) As a result of the general stress response, blood concentrations of epinephrine

__________ and blood concentrations of cortisol _________.

A) increase; decrease B) decrease; increase C) increase; increase D) decrease; decrease 1440) Which of the following will increase as a result to stress?

A) Activity of the spleen and other lymphatic organs B) Number of lymphocytes in the blood C) Resistance to infections D) Blood pressure 1441) With age, levels of GH _________ and levels of ADH __________.

A) increase; decrease B) decrease; increase C) decrease; decrease D) increase; increase 1442) The use of erythropoietin (EPO) is banned for use by Olympic and professional ahtletes.

Why would an athlete what to take EPO? A) EPO decreases the number of red blood cells.

B) EPO increases the number of white blood cells.

C) EPO increases the number of red blood cells.

D) EPO adds protein to plasma.

1443) A 78-year-old male takes human growth hormone supplements to regain the strength of

his youth. Why might he be disappointed with the results?

A) Because GH increases the red blood cell supply, raising blood pressure.

B) Because GH decreases fat and increases muscle mass, but does not improve strength.

C) Because GH will make him urinate more often.

D) Because GH increases the risk of developing cancer.

1444) Diane has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following describes physiological

effects she that might develop?

A) Fatty acids and ketone bodies will accumulate in her blood if she forgets/refuses her treatment.

B) She will urinate less frequently.

C) An excessive amount of glucose enters skeletal muscle cells and adipocytes.

D) She may develop hypoglycemia.

1445) What is the cause of Type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A) Excess sugar in the diet B) Obesity C) A disorder of the immune system D) An effect of aging 1446) Dave has diabetes mellitus. If untreated, which of the following describes how the

disease affects his bodily fluids?

A) He urine has protein in it.

B) His urine has high osmotic pressure.

C) He urinates less than the average person.

D) His blood sugar is low if untreated.

1447) What is a cause of Type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A) A deficiency of insulin B) An insensitivity of cells to insulin C) An excess production of glucagon D) An infection 1448) Molecules that are produced within one tissue that then regulate another tissue within the

same organ are called _________ secretions.

A) autocrine B) paracrine C) endocrine D) exocrine 1449) Which control pathway was responsible for the adrenaline release Goldilocks

experienced when she woke up surrounded by three bears?

A) A hormone stimulated the release of another hormone.

B) The nervous system directly stimulated an endocrine gland.

C) Changing plasma levels of a substance directly stimulated an endocrine gland.

1450) In response to high blood calcium levels, the thyroid gland releases a hormone that works

to lower blood calcium. This is an example of which endocrine control method?

A) The hypothalamus and pituitary stimulate a peripheral endocrine gland.

B) The nervous system stimulates a gland directly.

C) Changing plasma levels of a substance stimulate a gland directly.

1451) Removal of the anterior pituitary gland would affect the functioning of which gland(s) or

structure(s)?

A) Thyroid gland B) Pancreatic islet cells C) Adrenal medulla D) Parathryoid glands 1452) What stimulates the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex?

A) Thyroid hormone B) Adrenocorticotropic hormone C) Antidiuretic hormone D) Epinephrine 1453) When comparing levels of ACTH in the blood, ACTH levels during times of stress would

be _________ during times of relaxation.

A) higher than B) lower than C) the same as 1454) What hormone is produced in response to the absence of light in the environment and is

associated with circadian rhythms?

A) Serotonin B) Acetylcholine C) Melatonin D) Dopamine 1455) What primarily controls the secretion of parathyroid hormone?

A) Hypothalamic hormones B) Blood calcium concentration C) Hormones from the anterior pituitary gland D) Hormones from the posterior pituitary gland

1456) When comparing the nervous system to the endocrine system, which of the following

applies to the endocrine system?

A) Endocrine system has more localized and long-lasting effects.

B) Endocrine system has more widespread and long-lasting effects.

C) Endocrine system has more localized and short-term effects.

D) Endocrine system has more widespread and short-term effects.

1457) Where is the thyroid gland located?

A) Anterior to the heart B) Anterior to the trachea C) In the brain D) Superior to the kidneys

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1458) Secretions that affect the cell that secretes them are called __________ secretions.

1459) The nervous system releases neurotransmitters into synapses. In contrast, the endocrine

system releases __________ into the bloodstream.

1460) Adenylate cyclase causes ATP molecules to become __________ molecules.

1461) Paracrine substances called __________ have powerful, regulating effects on cellular

responses to hormones.

1462) A hormone whose effects last a long time has a __________ half-life.

1463) A fetus develops a malformation in the pituitary gland which causes it to lack

melanocyte-stimulating hormone. This results in lack of skin and eye coloration, similar to albinism. The malformed portion of the pituitary gland is a structure called the __________.

1464) The hormone that stimulates the release of growth hormone is secreted from the

__________.

1465) The thyroid gland removes the element __________ from the blood in order to make

hormones.

1466) Calcitonin is produced in the __________ gland.

1467) The central region of the adrenal gland is the adrenal __________.

1468) The pancreas functions as part of the endocrine system and as a part of the __________

system.

1469) Located deep between the cerebral hemispheres and attached to the roof of the third

ventricle is the __________ gland.

1470) Your friend puts on a Halloween mask and chases you as a prank. Your body responds by

releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine, along with other physiological responses. In triggering this response, your friend's behavior would be described as the __________.

1471) The condition produced by factors that tend to cause changes in the body's internal

environment and threaten its survival is called __________.

1472) Declining strength in muscles and bones with advancing age is due to a decrease in levels

of the hormone ____________.

1473) As we age, declining levels of the hormone __________ can lead increased risk of

developing osteoporosis.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 13 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) C 20) B 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) B 27) B 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) D 33) B 34) C 35) B 36) D 37) A

38) B 39) B 40) B 41) C 42) B 43) C 44) D 45) C 46) A 47) A 48) B 49) B 50) C 51) A 52) D 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) D 57) B 58) C 59) A 60) C 61) A 62) D 63) D 64) B 65) D 66) B 67) A 68) B 69) D 70) C 71) B 72) A 73) D 74) A 75) C 76) A 77) B

78) B 79) A 80) C 81) A 82) C 83) B 84) C 85) D 86) C 87) D 88) B 89) C 90) B 91) A 92) C 93) B 94) B 95) A 96) B 97) C 98) A 99) B 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108) 109) 110) 111) 112) 113) 114) 115) 116) 117)

A C B B B autocrine hormones cyclic AMP prostaglandins long pars intermedia hypothalamus iodine thyroid medulla digestive pineal stressor

118) 119) 120)

stress growth hormone calcitonin

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1474) Blood is a type of epithelial tissue. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1475) A red blood cell contains a large nucleus and is thicker near the center and thin around

the rim of the cell. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1476) Vitamin B12 is important for the production of red blood cells because it is necessary for

the synthesis of hemoglobin. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1477) A platelet plug is formed when fibrinogen is converted to fibrin. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1478) Plasma contains fibrinogen, and serum does not. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1479) Inidividuals with type AB blood are sometimes referred to as universal donors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1480) Typically, what percentage of a sample of human blood is made up of red blood cells?

A) 15% B) 30% C) 45% D) 60%

1481) What condition involves a decrease in the white blood cell count?

A) Leukopenia B) Leukocytosis C) Thrombopenia D) Anemia E) Thrombocytosis 1482) A patient comes to the hospital with a suspected case of MRSA, a dangerous bacterial

infection. When doing a complete blood count (CBC), what blood component would you expect to be elevated?

A) Red blood cells B) Eosinophils C) Neutrophils D) Monocytes 1483) A patient was found to have a decreased number of basophils. What is a possible

outcome of their low basophil count?

A) Bacteria and fungi would not be phagocytized and removed from an infected tissue.

B) T cells will be unable to directly attack tumors and foreign microorganisms.

C) An increased susceptibility to parasitic infections will occur, as will a decrease in allergic responses.

D) Inflammatory responses in injured and infected tissues will be diminished.

1484) While looking at a blood smear through a microscope, you see a purple-stained cell that

is markedly larger than a red blood cell, with a large kidney-shaped nucleus. What type of blood cell is this?

A) Monocyte B) Eosinophil C) Basophil D) Neutrophil 1485) What is a hematocrit?

A) Percent of red blood cells in a blood sample B) An abnormal red blood cell resulting from a genetic disorder C) Clotting factor D) Stem cell that gives rise to the agranulocytes

1486) What are the formed elements?

A) Sodium and potassium B) Blood cells and platelets C) Bone marrow and the thymus D) Blood and lymph 1487) In addition to other factors, __________ has an influence on determining blood volume.

A) percent body fat B) bone density C) age D) strength of nervous signals 1488) What type of formed element is most abundant?

A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Platelets 1489) What type of blood cell is biconcave and lacks a nucleus when they are mature?

A) White blood cells B) Red blood cells C) Platelets D) Macrophages 1490) Which cell type is an agranulocyte?

A) Basophils B) Eosinophils C) Neutrophils D) Monocytes 1491) Of the values listed, which is a normal white blood cell count?

A) 500 cells per microliter of blood B) 4,500 cells per microliter of blood C) 45,000 cells per microliter of blood D) 5,000,000 cells per microliter of blood 1492) Which statement describes platelets?

A) Giant multinucleated cells B) Immature leukocytes C) Cytoplasmic fragments of cells D) Lymphoid cells

1493) What is the correct sequence for differentiation of a red blood cell?

A) Myeloid stem cell, reticulocyte, hemocytoblast, erythroblast, erythrocyte B) Myeloid stem cell, erythroblast, hemocytoblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte C) Hemocytoblast, reticulocyte, myeloid stem cell, erythroblast, erythrocyte D) Hemocytoblast, myeloid stem cell, erythroblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte 1494) What is the primary function of lymphocytes?

A) To phagocytize damaged cells.

B) To produce enzymes that dissolve blood clots.

C) To release substances that initiate blood clots.

D) To act against foreign substances.

1495) In the absence of __________, vitamin B12 is poorly absorbed. This deficiency can affect

red blood cell production.

A) folic acid B) erythropoietin C) intrinsic factor D) vitamin C 1496) Biliverdin and bilirubin are pigments that result from the breakdown of __________.

A) leukocytes B) hemoglobin C) foreign pathogens D) erythropoietin 1497) What is the order of the breakdown products of hemoglobin?

A) Hemoglobin → heme → biliverdin → bilirubin B) Hemoglobin → bilirubin → heme → biliverdin C) Hemoglobin → heme → bilirubin → biliverdin D) Hemoglobin → biliverdin → bilirubin → heme 1498) Which two mature blood cell types descend from myeloblasts?

A) T cells and B cells B) Erythrocytes and platelets C) Neutrophils and basophils D) Monocytes and lymphocytes

1499) Iron is a component of what substance?

A) Heme B) Biliverdin C) Bilirubin D) Globin 1500) Which of the formed elements releases serotonin?

A) Erythrocytes B) Platelets C) Neutrophils D) Basophils 1501) Which of the following functions as a phagocyte?

A) Erythrocytes B) Neutrophils C) Basophils D) Eosinophils 1502) How does heparin prevent the clotting of blood?

A) By binding to calcium ions B) By interfering with the formation of thrombin and fibrinogen C) By inhibiting the formation of prothrombin activator and the action of thrombin on

fibrinogen D) By depleting the blood of platelets 1503) Cyanosis occurs when the blood concentration of __________ is abnormally high.

A) deoxyhemoglobin B) oxyhemoglobin C) carbon dioxide D) oxygen 1504) What is the underlying cause of sickle cell disease?

A) A deficiency in dietary iron B) A deficiency in intrinsic factor C) Overproduction of hemoglobin D) A genetic mutation

1505) The process of nuclear extrusion occurs in what type of formed element?

A) Erythrocytes B) Platelets C) Lymphocytes D) Basophils 1506) What form of anemia is caused by destruction of bone marrow?

A) Pernicious anemia B) Aplastic anemia C) Hemolytic anemia D) Iron deficiency anemia 1507) What type of white blood cell is important in immunity?

A) Lymphocytes B) Basophils C) Eosinophils D) Monocytes 1508) What is the function of colony-stimulating factors?

A) Stimulate the production of white blood cells B) Stimulate the production of platelets C) Stimulate the production of erythrocytes D) Stimulate the production of hemoglobin 1509) What is diapedesis?

A) The formation of platelets from megakaryocytes.

B) The filling of red blood cells with hemoglobin.

C) The movement of white blood cells through blood vessel walls.

D) The squeezing of red blood cells through narrow capillaries.

1510) Following an injury, what stimulates the blood vessels in the area to spasm?

A) Antibodies released by lymphocytes B) Clotting factors released from cells lining the blood vessel wall C) Serotonin released by platelets D) Heparin released by eosinophils

1511) Why might elite athletes abuse erythropoeitin (EPO)?

A) EPO increases the red blood cell supply, which brings more oxygen to muscle cells.

B) EPO stimulates the production of a type of hemoglobin that is more efficient at

carrying oxygen.

C) EPO stimulates muscles cells to pick up more oxygen from the blood.

D) EPO increases the white blood cell supply, which prevents infection.

1512) Alice has iron deficiency anemia. She takes iron supplements as instructed by a doctor. In

order to improve the absorption of iron, Alice is careful about what she drinks when she takes her supplement. It is helpful to take the supplement with __________ which improves absorption. But taking the supplement with __________ will decrease the absorption of the iron.

A) orange juice; tea B) tea; milk C) tea; orange juice D) milk; orange juice 1513) The hormone __________ controls red blood cell production via a __________ feedback

mechanism.

A) erythropoietin; negative B) colony-stimulating factor; positive C) erythropoietin; positive D) colony-stimulating factor; negative 1514) Which statement refers to blood platelets?

A) Formed from lymphoid stem cells B) Release serotonin C) From 3,500 to 10,500 platelets per microliter blood D) Function in immunity 1515) Creatinine is an example of what type of plasma component?

A) Plasma proteins B) Formed elements C) Blood gases D) Nonprotein nitrogenous substances

1516) What would be a result of starvation or a protein-deficient diet?

A) Increased blood protein concentration; water accumulation in tissue spaces B) Decreased blood protein concentration; water accumulation in tissue spaces C) Increased blood protein concentration; water loss from tissue spaces D) Decreased blood protein concentration; water loss from tissue spaces 1517) Which plasma protein is described correctly?

A) Albumin: functions in immune responses.

B) Gamma globulin: transports lipids and fat-soluble vitamins.

C) Fibrinogen: functions in blood coagulation.

D) Beta globulins: functions to maintain blood osmotic pressure.

1518) What component of blood plasma has the greatest influence on colloid osmotic pressure?

A) Plasma proteins B) Blood gases C) Plasma electrolytes D) Nonprotein nitrogenous substances 1519) Plasma electrolytes include __________.

A) bicarbonate, magnesium, chloride, and potassium ions B) monocytes, basophils, and eosinophils C) fibrinogen, globulins, and albumin D) creatinine, urea, and uric acid 1520) John is experiencing pain, nausea, and lack of urination. At the hospital, a blood test

reveals high levels of urea. Which organ is most likely malfunctioning?

A) Liver B) Heart C) Kidneys D) Small intestine 1521) Which of the following is not required for the formation of a blood clot?

A) Calcium B) Fibrinogen C) Vitamin K D) Albumin

1522) A child is born with a genetic mutation that results in the lack of production of

plasminogen. How will this affect hemostasis?

A) Because plasminogen activates Factor III to initiate the extrinsic clotting mechanism, clotting will be prevented.

B) Because plasminogen is converted to a clot-dissolving substance, blood clots will not be broken down.

C) Because plasminogen activates Hageman Factor to initiate the intrinsic clotting mechanism, clotting will be prevented.

D) Because plasminogen causes platelets to adhere to collagen at the broken surfaces of blood vessels, the platelet plug will not form.

1523) Tom has a condition in which the endothelial lining of his blood vessels cannot secrete

prostacyclin (PGI2). How will this affect his blood?

A) Because prostacyclin is a clotting factor that encourages formation of platelet plugs, bleeding will not be slowed.

B) Because prostacyclin is involved in the activation of prothrombin, formation of blood clots will not occur.

C) Because prostacyclin is a clot-dissolving enzyme, clots will not be broken down and Tom will be at risk for an embolism or thrombosis.

D) Because prostacyclin prevents platelets from sticking to the inside of healthy blood vessels, Tom will experience abnormal blood clotting and general narrowing of the blood vessels.

1524) What is the difference between serum and plasma?

A) Plasma contains calcium; serum does not.

B) Plasma does not have blood cells; serum does.

C) Plasma contains fibrinogen; serum does not.

D) Plasma contains albumin; serum does not.

1525) A blood clot that forms abnormally in a blood vessel is called a(n) __________.

A) aneurysm B) embolus C) thrombus D) platelet plug

1526) Hemophilia is a disorder in which bleeding is severe and prolonged due to a lack of

clotting factor VIII. Which pathway is interrupted in those with hemophilia?

A) Extrinsic clotting mechanism B) Hageman mechanism C) Prothrombin activation mechanism D) Intrinsic clotting mechanism 1527) Prothrombin time is a blood test used to evaluate the __________.

A) intravascular clotting mechanism B) fibrinolysis mechanism C) extrinsic clotting mechanism D) intrinsic clotting mechanism 1528) A pulmonary __________ is typically caused by a blood clot reaching a lung via a

pulmonary artery.

A) embolism B) thrombus C) aneurysm D) infection 1529) Thrombocytopenia is due to a deficiency of __________.

A) vitamin K B) platelets C) leukocytes D) factor VII 1530) What is released by platelets as a platelet plug forms?

A) Epinephrine B) Vitamin K C) Serotonin D) Fibrin 1531) What is initiated by the release of tissue thromboplastin?

A) Intrinsic clotting mechanism B) Extrinsic clotting mechanism C) Platelet plug formation D) Agglutination

1532) What step is critical to the formation of a blood clot?

A) Conversion of fibrin to fibrinogen B) Binding of antibody to surface of platelets C) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin D) Activation of vitamin K 1533) What is the enzyme that catalyzes the activation of fibrin?

A) Thrombin B) Prothrombin C) Fibrinogen D) Tissue thromboplastin 1534) William is taking a prescription blood thinner. His doctor informs him that if he sustains

a minor injury, he needs to take vitamin K supplements to help prevent excessive bleeding and related complications. Why would vitamin K be required in this situation?

A) Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin.

B) Vitamin K is used to make hemoglobin.

C) Vitamin K is required for leukocyte function.

D) Vitamin K is a clotting factor.

1535) After chemotherapy, Jenny notices that she bleeds readily and excessively when she

injures herself. She also notices small red spots resembling tiny bruises developing. What condition would result in these symptoms?

A) Anemia B) Thrombocytopenia C) Leukemia D) Hemophilia 1536) As a result of her low platelet count, Marianne has small, bruise-like spots on her skin.

What are these spots called?

A) Pinpricks B) Blood blisters C) Petechiae D) Hematomas

1537) What type of antigens are found on the surface of red blood cells of a person with type

AB blood?

A) Both antigens A and B B) Antigens A only C) Antigens B only D) Neither antigens A nor antigens B 1538) What is the rarest ABO blood type in the United States?

A) Type A B) Type B C) Type AB D) Type O 1539) What determines an individual's blood type?

A) Proteins (antibodies) on the surface of red blood cells B) Proteins (antibodies) circulating in blood plasma C) Proteins (antigens) on the surface of white blood cells D) Proteins (antigens) on the surfaces of red blood cells 1540) In what situation might erythroblastosis fetalis occur?

A) A second Rh-positive fetus developing in an Rh-negative woman B) A first Rh-positive fetus developing in an Rh-negative woman C) A second Rh-negative fetus developing in an Rh-negative woman D) A first Rh-negative fetus developing in an Rh-negative woman 1541) Hailey is suffering from a condition requiring multiple blood transfusions. She is blood

type A and her first transfusion was successful. However, her second transfusion of type A blood caused her to become very ill. A blood test revealed that agglutination had occurred.

What happened to cause her second transfusion to fail?

A) The blood used in the first transfusion contained Rh antigens, which caused the patient to produce anti-Rh antibodies. These antibodies then attacked the Rh+ red blood cells in the second transfusion.

B) She developed a sensitivity to A antigens after being exposed to the first transfusion.

She then had a massive allergic reaction to the second transfusion.

C) The second transfusion contained anti-A antibodies, which then attacked Hailey's red blood cells.

D) The second transfusion contained anti-B antibodies, which then attacked Hailey's red blood cells.

1542) Which is true about an individual who is Rh-negative?

A) Their plasma contains Rh antigens.

B) Their red blood cells lack the Rh antigens.

C) Their red blood cells lack the Rh antibodies.

D) The Rh antigens are present in the plasma, but not on the red blood cells.

1543) A person with type A blood can successfully donate blood to a person with type

__________ blood.

A) A B) B C) O 1544) What blood type can successfully be given to a person with type AB blood?

A) Only one of the blood types B) Only two of the blood types C) Only type O blood D) All blood types 1545) What are "universal precautions"?

A) Specific measures that astronauts take in space to avoid leaving behind

microorganisms from Earth.

B) Specific measures that health-care workers take to prevent transmission of bloodborne pathogens in the workplace.

C) Specific measures used to avoid mismatched blood types in transfusions.

D) Specific measures used to prevent bleeding during surgery.

1546) Stacy has had three respiratory infections in the past few months. She tires easily and has

had headaches and a few nosebleeds. She also is bruising easily. What should her physician suspect as a diagnosis?

A) Erythroblastosis fetalis B) Leukemia C) Sickle cell disease D) Edema 1547) Which of the following describes leukemia?

A) The blood has too many immature white blood cells.

B) The red blood cell count is too low.

C) The platelets are malformed and are low in number.

D) The red blood cells are misshapen and become lodged in capillaries.

1548) On a long transcontinental flight, Michael, aged 58, gets up and exercises in the aisle,

moving his hands, feet, arms, and legs as much as he can. He does this every two hours. The flight attendant asks him to sit down, but he explains that he is trying to prevent a very dangerous medical condition. What condition is he referring to?

A) Leukemia B) Deep vein thrombosis C) Aplastic anemia D) Thrombocytopenia 1549) After seeing a commercial on television about deep vein thrombosis (DVT), Charlie is

worried that he might develop it since he takes a medication that increases the risk developing of blood clots. What can he do to reduce the risk of developing DVT? A) Avoid prolonged periods of staying still in one position.

B) Stop use of oral antibiotics like tetracycline.

C) Stop excessive consumption of vitamin K. D) Avoid over-exertion and too-frequent bouts of exercise.

1550) What is the main function of plasma albumin?

A) Acting as antibodies of immunity B) Transporting lipids and fat-soluble vitamins C) Serving as an energy source D) Helping to maintain colloid osmotic pressure 1551) What is the least abundant leukocyte in a blood sample?

A) Monocytes B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Neutrophils 1552) What element is part of a hemoglobin molecule?

A) Cobalt B) Iron C) Copper D) Iodine 1553) Name two substances that function to dissolve blood clots.

A) Thrombus and embolus B) Tissue plasminogen activator and streptokinase C) Prothrombin activator and vitamin K D) Calcium ions and fibrinogen

1554) Cyanosis is caused by an increased blood concentration of __________.

A) deoxyhemoglobin B) oxyhemoglobin C) carbon dioxide D) carbon monoxide 1555) Hypoxemia will stimulate the release of __________.

A) erythropoietin B) lymphocytes C) platelets D) fibrinogen 1556) At what stage do the immature red blood cells enter the circulation?

A) As reticulocytes B) As erythroblasts C) As hemocytoblasts D) As megakaryocytes 1557) Platelets are cell fragments that are released by what type of cell?

A) Megakaryocytes B) Reticulocytes C) Monoblasts D) Macrophages 1558) If blood is too viscous, what happens to blood flow?

A) Blood flow becomes sluggish.

B) Blood flows too quickly.

1559) What is the normal pH of blood?

A) 6.8 to 7.0 B) 7.0 to 7.2 C) 7.3 to 7.5 D) 7.6 to 7.8 1560) What is a normal hematocrit?

A) 25% B) 30% C) 45% D) 60%

1561) Typically, values such as hematocrit, RBC count, and hemoglobin concentration are

higher in __________.

A) males than in females B) females than in males 1562) Compare polycythemia with leukocytosis.

A) Polycythemia is an elevated red blood cell count and leukocytosis is an elevated

white blood cell count.

B) Polycythemia is a decreased red blood cell count and leukocytosis is a decreased white blood cell count.

C) Polycythemia is an elevated red blood cell count and leukocytosis is a decreased red blood cell count.

D) Polycythemia is an elevated white blood cell count and leukocytosis is a decreased white blood cell count.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1563) In an adult, red blood cells are produced primarily in the __________.

1564) The hormone released from the kidneys that promotes the production of red blood cells is

__________.

1565) Vitamin B12 is important for the production of red blood cells because it is necessary for

the synthesis of __________.

1566) When hemoglobin is broken down, one product is a greenish pigment called __________.

1567) The most common type of leukocyte in the blood is the __________.

1568) An abnormally low white blood cell count is called __________ .

1569) The test to determine the percentages of the different types of leukocytes in a blood

sample is the __________ white blood cell count.

1570) The most abundant type of plasma protein is __________ .

1571) The term __________ is defined as the stoppage of bleeding.

1572) A blood clot that breaks loose and travels through the bloodstream is called a(n)

____________ .

1573) Janese becomes extremely ill after a blood transfusion. Her face begins to flush. She

experiences pain in the chest and breathing difficulties. She eventually develops jaundice. It is very likely that her RBCs have undergone the process of __________.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 14 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) C 8) A 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) A 27) B 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) C 37) C

38) A 39) B 40) A 41) B 42) D 43) B 44) C 45) A 46) A 47) C 48) D 49) B 50) D 51) C 52) C 53) D 54) C 55) A 56) B 57) C 58) B 59) C 60) A 61) A 62) B 63) C 64) A 65) C 66) D 67) A 68) A 69) B 70) A 71) D 72) B 73) B 74) A 75) B 76) A 77) D

78) C 79) B 80) B 81) A 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) C 87) C 88) A 89) A 90) red bone marrow 91) erythropoietin 92) DNA 93) biliverdin 94) neutrophil 95) leukopenia 96) differential 97) albumin 98) hemostasis 99) embolus 100) agglutination

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1574) The apical heartbeat is heard by listening between the fifth and sixth ribs about 7.5 cm left of the midline. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1575) The coronary sinus drains blood from the wall of the heart into the left atrium. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1576) Anastomoses between smaller arteries are found in the coronary circulation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1577) The visceral pericardium lines the pericardial cavity, whereas the parietal pericardium

covers the surface of the heart. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1578) The SA node relays nerve impulses into the AV bundle of the interventricular septum

which then leads to the AV node. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1579) The single layer of epithelial cells that form the capillary walls minimizes the barrier for

exchange of substances between blood and tissue fluids. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1580) Arteries are strong, elastic vessels that carry blood to the heart. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1581) Vessels that connect arterioles directly to venules, bypassing capillaries, are called

metarterioles. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1582) The distribution of blood in capillary pathways is largely controlled by the action of

precapillary sphincters. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1583) Osmotic pressure forces molecules out of the blood out through capillary walls into tissue

fluids. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1584) The interventricular sulcus is the groove between the atria above and the ventricles

below. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1585) During a ventricular contraction, 95% of the blood in the ventricle is ejected into the

arteries. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1586) Histamine increases capillary membrane permeability, possibly leading to edema. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1587) In response to increased stretch of aortic baroreceptors, centers in the medulla oblongata

will increase parasympathetic impulses to the heart. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1588) Blood pressure can be increased by either increasing cardiac output or decreasing

peripheral resistance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1589) Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the systolic blood

pressure. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1590) The aorta is the largest artery in the pulmonary circuit. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1591) Ellen has a systolic pressure of 140 mmHg and a diastolic pressure of 80 mmHg. Her

mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 100 mmHg. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1592) Blood vessels called __________ carry blood toward the heart, and __________ carry blood away from the heart.

A) veins; arteries B) arteries; veins C) capillaries; arteries D) veins; capillaries 1593) Why is the cardiovascular system vital to survival?

A) It supplies oxygen and nutrients to cells.

B) It ensures that the lungs fully inflate.

C) It delivers carbon dioxide to tissues and removes excess oxygen.

D) It delivers waste molecules to vital organs.

1594) What is a function of the pulmonary circuit?

A) It carries oxygen-poor blood to the heart.

B) It carries oxygen-poor blood to the tissues.

C) It carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.

D) It carries oxygen-poor blood from the tissues.

1595) What is a function of the systemic circuit?

A) It carries oxygen-rich blood to the heart.

B) It carries oxygen-poor blood to the tissues.

C) It carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs.

D) It carries oxygen-poor blood to the heart.

1596) During ventricular contraction, what is the status of the atrioventricular valves?

A) The mitral valve is opened and the tricuspid valve is closed.

B) The tricuspid valve is open and the mitral valve is closed.

C) The mitral and tricuspid valves both are closed.

D) The mitral and tricuspid valves both are open.

1597) Name the tough outermost layer of the sac that surrounds the heart.

A) Fibrous pericardium B) Visceral pericardium C) Epicardium D) Endocardium

1598) What forms the skeleton of the heart?

A) Bone within the myocardium B) Bone within the interatrial septum C) Fibrous connective tissue in the endocardium D) Fibrous connective tissue around the valves 1599) Blood flowing from the vena cavae to the pulmonary trunk passes through what series of

structures?

A) Right atrium, pulmonary valve, right ventricle, tricuspid valve B) Right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve C) Right ventricle, tricuspid valve, right atrium, pulmonary valve D) Right ventricle, pulmonary valve, right atrium, tricuspid valve 1600) What layer lines the chambers of the heart?

A) Epicardium B) Myocardium C) Endocardium D) Pericardium 1601) Name the layers of the the wall of the heart and surrounding structures from deep to

superficial.

A) Myocardium, endocardium, epicardium, fibrous pericardium, pericardial cavity, parietal pericardium B) Fibrous pericardium, parietal pericardium, pericardial cavity, epicardium, myocardium, endocardium C) Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium, pericardial cavity, parietal pericardium, fibrous pericardium D) Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium, pericardial cavity, parietal pericardium, fibrous pericardium 1602) Blood entering the right atrium comes from what structure(s)?

A) Pulmonary trunk B) Venae cavae and coronary sinus C) Pulmonary veins D) Right ventricle

1603) What is the function of atrial natriuretic peptide?

A) Stimulates release of adrenal cortical hormones, causing widespread vasoconstriction B) Increases excretion of sodium ions and water by kidneys, decreasing blood volume C) Inhibits excretion of sodium ions and water by kidneys, increasing blood pressure D) Stimulates myocardial contraction, increasing cardiac output 1604) What happens in the condition called mitral valve prolapse?

A) The cusps of the mitral valve become immovable.

B) The mitral valve has hardened, narrowing the opening into the ventricle.

C) One or more cusps bulge into the left ventricle during ventricular relaxation.

D) One or more cusps bulge into the left atrium during ventricular contraction.

1605) The pain of angina pectoris results from a blockage in an artery that supplies what

structure/area?

A) Left arm and shoulder B) Neck and jaw C) Heart D) Brain 1606) What chambers of the heart will contain oxygen-poor blood?

A) Right atrium and right ventricle B) Right atrium and left atrium C) Left atrium and left ventricle D) Left atrium and right ventricle 1607) Which valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle?

A) Tricuspid valve B) Pulmonary valve C) Mitral valve D) Aortic valve 1608) Constriction of the __________ reduces blood flow to the myocardium of the right side

of the heart. This decrease in blood flow can result in __________.

A) left coronary artery; mitral valve prolapse B) right pulmonary artery; endocarditis C) right coronary artery; ischemia D) left coronary vein; myocardial infarction

1609) Which ECG wave is correctly described?

A) P wave: depolarization of atria B) QRS complex: repolarization of ventricles C) T wave: depolarization of ventricles D) QRS complex: depolarization of atria 1610) What is the correct sequence of components of the cardiac conduction system?

A) AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibers→ AV bundle B) AV node → AV bundle → Purkinje fibers → SA node C) SA node → Purkinje fibers → AV node → AV bundle D) SA node → AV node → AV bundle → Purkinje fibers 1611) Stimulation via the vagus nerve has what effect on heart function?

A) They are parasympathetic impulses that increase heart rate.

B) They are parasympathetic impulses that decrease heart rate.

C) They are sympathetic impulses that increase heart rate.

D) They are sympathetic impulses that decrease heart rate.

1612) The aortic baroreceptor senses stretching of the aorta. How will the nervous system

respond?

A) Increased sympathetic activity will increase heart rate.

B) Increased parasympathetic activity will decrease heart rate.

C) Increased parasympathetic activity will increase heart rate.

D) Increased sympathetic activity will decrease heart rate.

1613) Some studies theorize that yawning is a reflex triggered by decreased blood pH. Which

structures would be stimulated by the change in blood pH and, theorectically, help to trigger yawning?

A) Arterial baroreceptors B) Baroreceptors in the aortic arch C) Free nerve endings in blood vessel walls D) Aortic bodies and carotid bodies 1614) What is the normal pacemaker of the heart?

A) Purkinje fibers B) AV bundle C) Sinoatrial node D) Atrioventricular node

1615) Sounds from the closing of the __________ valve are best heard at the fifth intercostal

space just to the left of the sternum.

A) aortic B) tricuspid C) pulmonary D) mitral 1616) What causes the P wave on an ECG? A) Repolarization of atrial myocardium B) Repolarization of ventricular myocardium C) Depolarization of atrial myocardium D) Depolarization of ventricular myocardium 1617) What causes the T wave on an ECG? A) Repolarization of atrial myocardium B) Repolarization of ventricular myocardium C) Depolarization of atrial myocardium D) Depolarization of ventricular myocardium 1618) On an ECG, the PQ interval indicates the time for a cardiac impulse to travel from the

__________.

A) SA node to the atrial myocardium B) SA node to the Purkinje fibers C) AV node to the atrial myocardium D) SA node through the AV node 1619) Marie is in the emergency room with a severe anxiety attack. The ER doctor administers

a dose of potassium to control her elevated heart rate. Why would potassium be a potential treatment for the cardiovascular effects of an anxiety attack?

A) Elevated potassium ion concentration reduces sympathetic nervous system ouput which, in turn, increases heart rate.

B) Elevated potassium ion concentration causes decreased heart rate and increased force of contraction.

C) Elevated potassium ion concentration causes decreased heart rate and decreased force of contraction.

D) Elevated potassium ion concentration reduces parasympathetic nervous system ouput which, in turn, decreases heart rate.

1620) What term refers to an abnormally slow heart rate?

A) Tachycardia B) Bradycardia C) Fibrillation D) Infarction 1621) What type of arrhythmia is most life threatening?

A) Atrial flutter B) Ventricular flutter C) Atrial fibrillation D) Ventricular fibrillation 1622) The ventricular walls and the atrial walls each form a functional syncytium. What does

this term mean?

A) A mass of cells functioning as a unit B) A structure that contains blood C) A hollow structure lined by endothelium D) Tissue with a high rate of blood flow 1623) How does potassium affect heart rate?

A) It binds calcium, not allowing calcium to enter the sarcoplasm.

B) It acts as a gate for sodium channels in cell membranes.

C) It affects the electrical potential of the cell membranes.

D) It binds to troponin, blocking calcium from binding to the site.

1624) What is the role of the internodal atrial muscle cells?

A) To carry cardiac impulses to areas of the atrial walls far from the SA node B) To carry the cardiac impulse from the atrial muscle to the ventricular muscle C) To act as pacemaker, generating new cardiac impulses D) To stimulate movement of the atrioventricular valves 1625) What is released by the endothelium?

A) Nitric oxide B) Oxygen C) Nitrogen D) Methane

1626) What is the effect of nitric oxide in blood vessels?

A) Causes increased permeability and leakiness of capillary walls B) Causes vasoconstriction C) Causes vasodilation D) Causes decreased permeability and leakiness of capillary walls 1627) In capillary beds, the net inward pressure at the venular ends of the capillaries is less than

the net outward pressure at the arteriolar ends of the capillaries. What is the result of this difference in pressures?

A) More fluid flows into the capillaries than moves out.

B) Lymphatic vessels push fluid into the capillaries.

C) Pressure in the venules increases.

D) More fluid leaves the capillaries than returns.

1628) What blood vessels hold the greatest volume of blood?

A) Arteries B) Arterioles C) Capillaries D) Veins 1629) During an imaging procedure, dye is injected into the superior mesenteric artery. In what

structures will the dye be seen on the image?

A) The neck and the facial muscles B) The intercostal muscles and chest area C) The arms and the hands D) The small intestine and portions of the large intestine 1630) Why does fluid leave capillaries at their arteriolar end and enter at the venular end?

A) Hydrostatic pressure is lower than osmotic pressure at the arteriolar end and higher at

the venular end.

B) Hydrostatic pressure is higher than osmotic pressure at the arteriolar end and lower at the venular end.

1631) In "wet" macular degeneration, abnormal capillaries form behind the retina and leak

fluid, leading to vision loss. One treatment for this condition is injection of a VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor) inhibitor directly into the affected eye areas. How would this treatment work?

A) VEGF triggers blood vessel breakdown. Blocking VEGF will prevent the capillaries from becoming weak and leaking.

B) VEGF stimulates the endothelium of arteries to secrete nitric oxide, which relaxes smooth muscle around the capillaries. Blocking VEGF prevents the capillaries from relaxing and allowing blood to leak out.

C) VEGF inhibits capillary growth. Blocking release of VEGF will allow new, stronger capillaries to form in the eye.

D) VEGF stimulates growth of capillaries. Blocking VEGF will stop weak leaky capillaries from growing in the eye.

1632) What is described by the Frank-Starling law of the heart?

A) That the SA node will act as the pacemaker B) That the quantity of blood that enters the heart equals the quantity that is pumped out C) That blood will only flow through the coronary circulation during diastole D) That cardiac output is equal to heart rate times stroke volume 1633) Which of the following is increased when sympathetic stimulation to the heart increases?

A) End-diastolic volume B) Stroke volume C) Venous return D) Total peripheral resistance 1634) What is preload?

A) Amount of blood pumped by each ventricle during each cardiac cycle B) Amount of stretch of myocardial cells prior to contraction C) Pressure in arteries, against which the heart is pumping blood D) The amount of fluid leaking from capillaries, diminishing blood volume 1635) What is the effect of vasoconstriction?

A) Peripheral resistance decreases B) Viscosity increases C) Heart rate decreases D) Blood pressure increases

1636) Plasma proteins contribute to the __________ pressure of the blood.

A) osmotic B) filtration C) hydrostatic D) central venous 1637) When is blood pressure in the large systemic arteries the greatest?

A) During atrial systole B) During ventricular systole C) During ventricular diastole D) During atrial diastole 1638) Which of the following helps return blood to the heart?

A) Positive pressure in thoracic cavity B) Valves in the arteries C) Contracting skeletal muscles D) End systolic volume 1639) How is stroke volume calculated?

A) SV = HR x BP B) SV = EDV - ESV C) SV = BP x PR D) SV = CO x PR 1640) How is pulse pressure calculated?

A) PP = systolic pressure - diastolic pressure B) PP = systolic pressure x diastolic pressure C) PP = systolic pressure + diastolic pressure D) PP = systolic pressure / diastolic pressure 1641) How does angiotensin II cause an increase in blood pressure?

A) By increasing peripheral resistance B) By stimulating the release of renin C) By inhibiting the release of aldosterone D) By promoting the excretion of sodium

1642) Why do many patients with kidney disease also have hypertension?

A) Changes in blood flow in kidneys leads to release of renin.

B) Altered kidney function results in secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide by the heart.

C) Diseased kidneys excrete more sodium and water than is needed.

D) Cells of diseased kidneys directly signal the brain stem to increase blood pressure.

1643) The pulmonary trunk divides into what two vessels?

A) Left and right pulmonary arteries B) Left and right pulmonary veins C) Superior and inferior venae cavae D) Ascending and descending aorta 1644) Name two branches of the right coronary artery.

A) Posterior interventricular artery and right marginal branch B) Anterior interventricular artery and circumflex branch C) Anterior interventricular artery and posterior interventricular artery D) Right marginal branch and circumflex branch 1645) Which vessel does not branch off of the aorta?

A) Right coronary artery B) Pulmonary artery C) Brachiocephalic artery D) Left subclavian artery 1646) The branches of the external carotid arteries supply blood to what structures(s)?

A) Shoulders B) Upper chest C) Eyes D) Neck and face 1647) What structures contain chemoreceptors that monitor blood levels of oxygen and carbon

dioxide?

A) Aortic bodies B) Aortic sinuses C) Aortic branches D) Aortic valves

1648) Where is the popliteal artery located?

A) In the abdominal cavity B) Behind the knee C) Deep to the scapula D) In the groin 1649) What blood vessel supplies the intestinal tract?

A) Renal arteries B) Superior mesenteric artery C) Lumbar artery D) Middle sacral artery 1650) The basilar artery supplies blood to what set of vessels?

A) Cerebral arterial circle B) Hepatic portal circulation C) Coronary circulation D) Pulmonary circulation 1651) The radial and ulnar veins merge to form the __________ vein.

A) jugular B) axillary C) brachial D) cephalic 1652) The longest vein in the body is the __________.

A) inferior vena cava B) great saphenous vein C) femoral vein D) hepatic portal vein 1653) What vessel drains the blood from the face and scalp?

A) External jugular vein B) Subclavian vein C) Superior vena cava D) Cephalic vein

1654) When taking a pulse at the wrist, which artery is being palpated?

A) Brachial artery B) Ulnar artery C) Radial artery D) Palmar arch 1655) At its inferior end, the aorta divides into what two vessels?

A) Left and right common iliac arteries B) Left and right external iliac arteries C) Left and right internal iliac arteries D) Left and right femoral arteries 1656) What is an example of a change due to aging of the cardiovascular system?

A) The tunica interna of arteries thickens, decreasing arterial diameter.

B) The direction of blood flow in some capillaries reverses, leading to more capillary

filtration.

C) Arteries become less rigid.

D) Walls of veins lose collagen.

1657) Valves help to ensure one-way blood flow in the __________.

A) arteries and veins B) heart and veins C) heart and arteries D) capillaries 1658) What is the function of the papillary muscles of the heart?

A) To assist in the ejection of blood B) To help conduct cardiac impulses throughout the ventricular myocardium C) To prevent atrioventricular valves from prolapsing D) To hold the semilunar valves closed during ventricular diastole 1659) During the cardiac cycle, at the time of highest ventricular pressure, what is the status of

the heart valves?

A) Atrioventricular valves are closed; semilunar valves are open.

B) Atrioventricular valves are open; semilunar valves are closed.

C) Atrioventricular valves are open; semilunar valves are open.

D) Atrioventricular valves are closed; semilunar valves are closed.

1660) What causes the first heart sound? When does this occur?

A) Closure of the semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole B) Closure of the atrioventricular valves soon after the beginning of ventricular systole C) Closure of the semilunar valves soon after the beginning of ventricular systole D) Closure of the atrioventricular valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole 1661) What occurs in arteries that results in the disease called atherosclerosis?

A) Holes slowly develop in the vessel walls.

B) Sustained smooth muscle contraction causes reduced lumen size.

C) Plaques containing cholesterol and other fats accumulate in the vessel walls.

D) Valves become inflammed and eventually stiffen and become nonfunctional.

1662) What type of capillary is "leakiest"?

A) Continuous capillaries B) Fenestrated capillaries C) Sinusoidal capillaries 1663) Doctors suggest that during long periods of sitting, you should flex and extend your feet

at the ankles periodically and squeeze your calf muscles to assist with blood circulation. Why would non-exercise muscle contraction affect blood flow and cardiovascular health?

A) Non-exercise contraction of the leg muscles increases heart rate and burns calories, keeping the heart strong and assisting in maintaining healthy weight.

B) Non-exercise contraction of the leg muscles stimulates the arteries to vasodilate, reducing blood pressure.

C) Non-exercise contraction of the leg muscles stimulates baroreceptors which signal the autonomic nervous system to decrease blood pressure and heart rate.

D) Non-exercise contraction of the leg muscles squeezes leg veins, which forces deoxygenated blood back to the heart.

1664) The __________ of the medulla oblongata send(s) sympathetic signals to arteriolar

smooth muscle, helping to maintain peripheral resistance.

A) baroreceptors B) vasomotor center C) cardiac center D) chemoreceptors

1665) What would be the effect of a reduced venous return?

A) Reduced heart rate and, without compensation, reduced blood pressure B) Reduced peripheral resistance and, without compensation, reduced end-diastolic

volume C) Reduced blood flow to critical organs, leading to cell death D) Reduced end-diastolic volume and, without compensation, reduced cardiac output 1666) Where would oxygen-poor blood be found?

A) Pulmonary arteries and systemic veins B) Pulmonary veins and systemic arteries C) Pulmonary arteries and systemic arteries D) Pulmonary veins and systemic veins 1667) What happens that allows the SA nodal cells to spontaneously depolarize?

A) Progressive increase in membrane permeability to calcium and sodium ions;

decreasing permeability to potassium ions B) Progressive increase in membrane permeability to potassium and sodium ions; decreasing permeability to calcium ions C) Progressive increase in membrane permeability to calcium and potassium ions; decreasing permeability to sodium ions 1668) How does the hepatic portal system differ from other parts of the circulation?

A) Blood flows from capillaries to veins to a second set of capillaries and veins before

returning to the heart.

B) Blood flows directly from arterioles into venules, bypassing capillary beds.

C) Blood flows through an extensive network of interconnecting arteries and arterioles before entering the capillary beds.

D) Blood flows from veins into arteries then back to veins before returning to the heart.

1669) The renal veins drain their blood into what blood vessel?

A) Inferior vena cava B) Hepatic portal vein C) Hepatic vein D) Celiac trunk

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1670) The thickest layer of the heart wall is the __________.

1671) A heart rate of 53 beats per minute is an example of an arrhythmia called __________.

1672) Blood heading for the right arm flows from the brachiocephalic trunk into the

__________ artery.

1673) Blood from the right internal jugular vein flows into the right __________ vein.

1674) Blood from the left femoral vein flows into the left __________ vein.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 15 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) A 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) B 27) C 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) C 33) A 34) C 35) C 36) A 37) D

38) B 39) B 40) D 41) C 42) B 43) C 44) B 45) D 46) C 47) B 48) D 49) A 50) C 51) A 52) A 53) C 54) D 55) D 56) D 57) B 58) D 59) B 60) B 61) B 62) D 63) A 64) B 65) C 66) B 67) A 68) A 69) A 70) A 71) A 72) B 73) D 74) A 75) B 76) B 77) A

78) C 79) B 80) A 81) C 82) A 83) A 84) B 85) C 86) A 87) B 88) C 89) C 90) D 91) B 92) D 93) A 94) A 95) A 96) A 97) myocardium 98) bradycardia 99) subclavian 100) brachiocephalic 101) external iliac

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1675) Muscle contraction moves lymph through lymphatic vessels. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1676) The thymus is in the mediastinum behind the sternum. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1677) The thymus enlarges after puberty. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1678) Older red blood cells may be destroyed in the spleen. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1679) Innate defenses include mechanical and chemical barriers to prevent entry of any foreign

cells, whereas adaptive defenses include responses that target specific disease-causing agents. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1680) Two mechanical barriers to infection are interferon and inflammation. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1681) B lymphocytes do not interact with antigen-presenting cells. Rather, they target "free"

antigens. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1682) Immunoglobulin A is abundant in endocrine gland secretions. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1683) During the primary immune response, B lymphocytes give rise to plasma cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1684) As a result of an allergen binding to an IgE antibody, mast cells release histamine. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1685) An immunoglobulin molecule is an antigen secreted by T lymphocytes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1686) Active immunity results when a person is exposed to a pathogen and mounts an immune

response against it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1687) Autoimmune diseases are more common in older people. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1688) A bacterial cell or a virus particle has multiple antigenic sites and will trigger a

polyclonal response. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1689) An injection of synthetic antibodies imparts active immunity. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1690) AIDS is caused by a virus that targets B lymphocytes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1691) What are pathogens?

A) A type of antibody B) Agents that alter DNA base sequences C) Disease-causing agents D) Phagocytic leukocytes 1692) What role does the lymphatic system have in influencing body fluids?

A) It adds hypotonic fluid to any tissue fluid that has an elevated solute concentration.

B) It moves tissue fluid from one area to another, ensuring that all tissue fluid levels are

consistent.

C) It provides the fluid needed to bathe tissue cells in nutrient-rich fluid.

D) It moves excess tissue fluid from the interstitium to the bloodstream.

1693) The structure of a lymphatic vessel is most similar to that of a(n) __________.

A) artery B) arteriole C) vein D) capillary

1694) Name the two collecting ducts that drain the lymphatic trunks.

A) Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct B) Lumbar duct and left lymphatic duct C) Right and left thoracic ducts D) Bronchomediastinal duct and subclavian duct 1695) From the collecting ducts, lymph enters __________ and becomes part of the

__________.

A) lymphatic trunks; interstital fluid B) capillaries; blood supply C) veins; plasma D) lymph nodes; tissue fluid 1696) In what situation will there be an increase in lymph formation?

A) Increased osmotic pressure in blood capillaries.

B) Increased hydrostatic pressure in tissue fluid.

C) Decreased volume of tissue fluid.

D) Decreased protein concentration in tissue fluid.

1697) How does lymph differ from plasma?

A) Lymph has more protein than plasma.

B) Lymph circulates more rapidly than plasma.

C) Lymph contains only white blood cells and plasma contains both red and white blood

cells.

D) Lymph provides nutrients to tissues and plasma provides oxygen.

1698) What is one function of lymph?

A) Return of proteins to the tissue fluid.

B) Transport of foreign particles to the kidneys.

C) Transport of foreign particles to the lymph nodes.

D) Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide.

1699) Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?

A) Returning interstitial fluid to the bloodstream.

B) Protecting the body against infection.

C) Transporting oxygen-poor blood back to the venous system.

D) Transporting the products of lipid digestion from the intestine to the liver.

1700) Tissue fluid is formed when fluid __________ and lymph is formed when fluid

__________.

A) is forced out of lymph vessels; enters lymph capillaries B) is forced out of blood plasma; enters blood capillaries C) is forced out of lymph capillaries; enters blood capillaries D) is forced out of blood plasma; enters lymph capillaries 1701) As part of her treatment for breast cancer, Stephanie has her right breast removed. In

addition, the surgeon removes lymph nodes from her right axillary region to prevent the spread of the cancer. What is a likely result of this procedure?

A) Her right arm loses its blood supply.

B) Her right arm receives too much blood and swells.

C) Her right arm becomes edematous.

D) Her right arm becomes thinner as muscle mass is lost.

1702) The region of a lymph node through which blood vessels and nerves pass is called the

__________.

A) sinus B) capsule C) nodule D) hilum 1703) Cervical lymph nodes filter lymph draining from what region?

A) Scalp and face B) Upper limb and mammary gland C) Thoracic viscera D) Abdominal viscera 1704) Lymph nodes are located throughout the body except in the __________.

A) lungs B) central nervous system C) mesentery D) anal region 1705) Where are the supratrochlear lymph nodes located?

A) In the hand B) Proximal to the ankle C) Medial side of elbow D) Behind the knee

1706) What is the cisterna chyli?

A) An enlarged sac at the distal end of the thoracic duct.

B) A type of lymphatic nodule found within the intestinal walls.

C) An organ located in the mediastinum that has a role in development of immune cells.

D) An indentation of one side of a lymph node through which blood vessels and

lymphatic vessels pass.

1707) Where are clusters of B cells located within a lymph node?

A) Within the medulla B) Within the lymphatic nodules C) Within the lymphatic sinuses D) Within the efferent lymphatic vessels 1708) Which of the following cells function as phagocytes?

A) Macrophages B) Lymphocytes C) Mast cells D) Erythrocytes 1709) What is the function of MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)?

A) Filter lymph returning from body tissues.

B) Protect against pathogens within digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive

tracts.

C) Assist in the production and maturation of immue cells, including T and B lymphocytes.

D) Filter blood, removing damaged red and white blood cells.

1710) Henry has a scrape on his knee that has become infected. What set of lymph nodes would

be expected to become enlarged as a result?

A) Abdominal lymph nodes B) Pelvic lymph nodes C) Inguinal lymph nodes D) Supratrochlear lymph nodes

1711) What feature of the spleen allows it to perform its function?

A) A large number of lymphatic vessels enter the spleen at the hilum, so that lymph can

be filtered.

B) The highly permeable venous sinuses within the spleen allow blood to pass into the red pulp where it is filtered.

C) The splenic nodules of the white pulp are a site for production and maturation of lymphocytes.

D) The close proximity of lymphatic vessels to the venous sinuses allows lymph to return to the blood stream.

1712) Which statement describes the spleen?

A) It consists of two lobes and is located in the mediastinum.

B) It resembles a large lymph node divided into lobules.

C) It functions to produce T lymphocytes.

D) It filters lymph.

1713) DiGeorge syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that may result in an under-developed

thymus. In a child with this outcome,which of the following complications might occur?

A) Severe vitamin deficiencies B) A tendency for developing edema in the limbs C) A tendency for frequent infections D) Stunted growth 1714) Name the class of hormones that stimulate maturation of T lymphocytes.

A) Insulins B) Gonadotropins C) Thyroid hormones D) Thymosins 1715) Red and white pulp are found in what structure?

A) Spleen B) Thymus C) MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue) D) Lymph nodes 1716) How can the innate defenses be characterized?

A) Fast and nonspecific B) Slow and nonspecific C) Fast and specific D) Slow and specific

1717) Which of the following best demonstrates species resistance?

A) Certain strains of H1N1 virus infect both humans and pigs.

B) Certain strains of avian flu are transmissible between chickens, ducks, and other

birds.

C) A worker at an animal shelter encounters a cat with Calicivirus, but cannot become sick with Calicivirus themselves.

D) A worker at an animal shelter encounters a cat with Calicivirus and infects their own cat at home when it comes in contact with their work clothes.

1718) How do viruses differ from other pathogens?

A) They are larger than most other pathogens.

B) They are more likely to cause life-threatening infections.

C) They are not capable of reproducing outside a living cell.

D) They are multicellular.

1719) The redness and swelling that occurs with inflammation is due to what changes in the

infected/injured tissue?

A) Decreased blood flow and capillary permeability.

B) Increased blood flow and decreased capillary permeability.

C) Decreased blood flow and increased capillary permeability.

D) Increased blood flow and capillary permeability.

1720) What cells make up the mononuclear phagocytic system?

A) T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes B) Monocytes and macrophages C) Basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils D) Mast cells and megakaryocytes 1721) Virus-infected cells release __________ that function to protect nearby cells from

becoming infected.

A) complement B) interferons C) perforin D) exudate 1722) What type of phagocytic cells are circulating in the blood?

A) Neutrophils and monocytes B) Neutrophils and macrophages C) Monocytes and macrophages D) Lymphocytes and monocytes

1723) What is the effect of interleukin-1 secretion?

A) An allergic response B) An antibody response C) Fever D) Cytokine secretion 1724) Marsha gets a splinter in her finger. As the splinter penetrates her skin, potentially

introducing microbes into her tissues, what is her body's first response?

A) Innate defense mechanisms are activated.

B) Adaptive defense mechanisms are activated.

C) Hypersensitivity response is activated.

D) Cytotoxic T cell response is activated.

1725) Mucus, tears, saliva, and hair are all examples of what type of defense against potential

pathogens?

A) Adaptive defenses B) Chemical barriers C) Mononuclear phagocytic system D) Mechanical barriers 1726) The bacterial species Heliobacter pylori has been associated with the formation of

stomach ulcers. The bacteria burrows into the mucosal lining of the stomach, degrading it and forming a hole. What type of innate defense is this bacteria overcoming?

A) Chemical barriers B) Mechanical barriers C) Inflammation D) Species resistance 1727) What defense mechanism responds to the presence of foreign antigens by initiating a

cascade of reactions, resulting in inflammation and enhanced phagocytosis in the area?

A) Adaptive defenses B) Interferon C) Complement system D) Natural killer cells

1728) Why is a short-term low-grade fever an effective innate defense?

A) It increases iron content of the blood, inhibiting growth of pathogens.

B) It involves increased levels of pyrogens that destroy the pathogens.

C) It increases body temperature, which enhances the effectiveness of phagocytes.

D) It increases body temperature, causing dehydration which can inhibit growth of

pathogens.

1729) What responses to a pathogen are slower but more specific?

A) Innate defenses B) Adaptive defenses C) Nonspecific defenses D) Inborn defenses 1730) A transplant recipient is more likely to reject a transplanted organ if there is not a close

match between the __________ of the recipient and that of the donor.

A) major histocompatibility complex B) blood type C) sex and age D) antibody response 1731) Which of the following occurs during an adaptive immune response?

A) Phagocytosis B) Production of interferon C) Production of antibodies D) Production of defensins 1732) Following a tissue transplant, the transplant recipients typically need to take medications

to __________.

A) stimulate their immune system B) suppress their immune system C) prevent blood clots from forming D) lower their blood pressure 1733) What cell types are primarily responsible for immunity?

A) Lymphocytes and macrophages B) Neutrophils and lymphocytes C) Monocytes and macrophages D) Lymphocytes and monocytes

1734) What is a hapten?

A) A substance that causes the hypothalamus to raise the thermoregulatory set point.

B) An unspecialized precursor cell that can be converted to a T lymphocyte.

C) A component of the complement system that increases the activity of phagocytes.

D) A small molecule that, by itself, does not initiate an immune response.

1735) T lymphocytes are responsible for what aspect of defense against infection?

A) Inflammation B) Humoral immune response C) Cellular immune response D) Fever 1736) The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is responsible for the infection known as mononucleosis.

The virus attacks B lymphocytes and uses them to replicate itself. When the immune system manages to halt EBV production, the virus still remains dormant in infected B cells for the rest of the life of the host. In which of the following locations would you most likely find dormant EBV in a previously infected person?

A) The eyes B) The spleen C) The stomach D) The hair 1737) What type of immunoglobulin is the most abundant of the circulating antibodies?

A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG 1738) What type of immune resistance will a person develop after contracting and fighting off

an infection?

A) Naturally acquired active immunity B) Artificially acquired active immunity C) Artificially acquired passive immunity D) Naturally acquired passive immunity 1739) List some of the cytokines that are important to an immune response.

A) Major histocompatibility complex, perforin B) Interleukin-1, interleukin-2, tumor necrosis factor C) IgG, IgA, and IgM D) Histamine, prostaglandin D2, leukotrienes

1740) What type of immunoglobulins are involved in type I hypersensitivity?

A) IgM B) IgA C) IgE D) IgD 1741) Jenna contracted chicken pox, caused by the Varicella-Zoster virus, and made a full

recovery. She is unlikely to suffer from chicken pox again because of what part of the immune response?

A) The activation of macrophages.

B) The production of memory B cells and memory T cells.

C) The production of high levels of IgD and IgA. D) The production and activation of mast cells.

1742) What is the target of cytotoxic T cells?

A) Anitgen-presenting cells B) Antigens in solution C) Cancer cells and virally infected cells D) Helper T cells 1743) How do cytotoxic T cells destroy their targeted cells?

A) They release perforin which puts holes in the cell membranes of the targeted cells.

B) They produce antibodies that bind to and stimulate phagocytosis of the targeted cells.

C) They cause helper T cells to directly attack the targeted cells, using cytokines as

signals.

D) They directly phagocytize the targeted cells, engulfing and destroying them.

1744) Newborns can be protected against certain digestive and respiratory infections when they

receive __________ via their mother's milk.

A) IgA B) IgD C) IgM D) IgD 1745) Antigen-presenting cells engulf and digest an antigen, then insert antigen fragments on

their cell surfaces in association with __________.

A) class I MHC proteins B) class II MHC proteins

1746) Injections of gamma globulin will provide __________ immunity A) naturally acquired active B) artificially acquired active C) artificially acquired passive D) naturally acquired passive 1747) Grant has a condition in which his immune system has attacked and destroyed his thyroid

gland. This is an example of a(n) __________.

A) type IV hypersensitivity B) autoimmune disease C) secondary immune response D) tissue rejection reaction 1748) Rheumatic fever, Graves' disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus are examples of

___________.

A) graft-versus-host disorders B) immediate-reaction hypersensitivity disorders C) antibody-dependent cytotoxic reaction disorders D) autoimmune disorders 1749) What is the relationship between antigens and antibodies?

A) The presence of an antigen triggers the production of antibodies.

B) The presence of antibodies triggers the production of antigens.

C) Antigens function to destroy or neutralize antibodies.

D) Antibodies can be foreign cells, proteins, or other large molecules. Antigens are large

proteins made by B cells.

1750) What is an effect of the activation of the complement system?

A) Rapid production of antibodies.

B) Increased effectiveness of phagocytosis of antigen.

C) Enlarging of the clone of B cells targeting an antigen.

D) Release of cytokines that activate T lymphocytes.

1751) What is the function of plasma cells?

A) To increase the volume of the blood plasma.

B) To produce antibody molecules.

C) To directly attack cells displaying antigens.

D) To produce interferon.

1752) What occurs during a primary immune response?

A) The plasma antibody concentration increases rapidly with maximal levels occurring at

about 1-2 days after exposure. Concentration remains high for prolonged period.

B) The plasma antibody concentration increases slowly, peaking at about 10-12 days after exposure to antigen.

C) The plasma antibody concentration increases rapidly with maximal levels occurring at about 1-2 days after exposure. Concentration drops off quickly at about day 5.

D) The plasma antibody concentration increases gradually, continually increasing until about 2 months after antigen exposure, when antibody levels begins to drop.

1753) What is the result of a cellular immune response?

A) B cells produce antibodies that attack antigens.

B) T cells produce antibodies that attack antigens.

C) T cells attach directly to cells displaying foreign antigens and destroy them.

D) B cells attach directly to cells displaying foreign antigens and destroy them.

1754) How does a vaccine produce its effects?

A) By directly binding to the antigens and neutralizing them.

B) By using chemotaxis to attract antigens to areas where the vaccine can destroy them.

C) By stimulating a primary immune response.

D) By activating autoantibodies.

1755) Following contact with its targeted antigen, a B cell will divide and differentiate into

__________ which produce and secrete antibodies.

A) T cells B) antibodies C) megakaryocytes D) plasma cells 1756) Antibody actions against antigens include __________ in which the antibodies bind to

antigen, forming an insoluble complex that can be phagocytized.

A) precipitation B) lysis C) agglutination D) opsonization

1757) What is opsonization?

A) Process of activating helper T cells.

B) Process of coating of an antigen with proteins to make it more readily phagocytized.

C) Process of binding of antibodies to the toxic region of an antigen, making it unable to

have its toxic effect.

D) Process of directly causing the rupture of a foreign cell.

1758) Immune cells called __________ are activated when their antigen receptors bind to

displayed foreign antigens. They will then release cytokines that function to continue the immune response.

A) natural killer cells B) B lymphocytes C) helper T cells D) plasma cells 1759) If a vaccine is given to most people in a population, it can halt the spread of an infection

because of __________.

A) herd immunity B) passive immunity C) autoimmunity D) innate immunity 1760) When does aging of the lymphatic system begin?

A) Before birth B) At birth C) Shortly after birth D) After age 50 1761) Morris has Crohn's disease and has been given the drug called Humira®. His doctor told

him that it is a monoclonal antibody. What does this mean?

A) The drug is a cocktail of many types of antibodies.

B) The drug is a cocktail of many types of antigens.

C) The drug consists of a single type of antibody.

D) The drug consists of a single type of antigen.

1762) What part of an antibody molecule binds to its targeted antigen?

A) The end of the molecule consisting of both heavy chain constant regions.

B) The ends of the molecule consisting of both light and heavy chain variable regions.

C) The end of the molecule consisting of a heavy chain constant region and a light chain

variable region.

D) The ends of the molecules consisting of a heavy chain variable region and a light chain constant region.

1763) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) targets __________, which explains why both

the humoral and cellular immune responses become inefficient as a result of HIV infection.

A) helper T cells B) natural killer cells C) plasma cells D) memory T cells 1764) Anaphylactic shock is a risk with what type of hypersensitivity?

A) Type I hypersensitivity B) Type II hypersensitivity C) Type III hypersensitivity D) Type IV hypersensitivity 1765) What type of hypersensitivity involves T lymphocytes?

A) Type I hypersensitivity B) Type II hypersensitivity C) Type III hypersensitivity D) Type IV hypersensitivity

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1766) Several days after contracting a viral infection, Gregory noticed pressure and discomfort deep to his lower ribs on his left side. He is noticing symptoms that suggest that his __________ has become enlarged.

1767) Disease-causing agents such as viruses and bacteria are called __________.

1768) Lymph is the name of the __________ that has entered a lymphatic capillary.

1769) Accumulation of tissue fluid in the interstitial spaces is called __________.

1770) The partially encapsulated lymphatic nodules located in the pharynx are called

__________.

1771) The __________ trunk drains lymph from the upper limb.

1772) The foreign or "non-self" substances that trigger immune responses are called

__________.

1773) Compounds called __________, secreted by various immune cells, act to influence the

functioning of other immune cells.

1774) Dendritic cells and macrophages function as __________ cells, helping to trigger an

immune response.

1775) A population of lymphocytes whose members are all genetically identical and capable of

responding to the same specific antigen is called a(n) __________.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 16 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) D 27) C 28) D 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) B

38) B 39) C 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) C 44) C 45) D 46) B 47) B 48) A 49) C 50) A 51) D 52) B 53) C 54) C 55) B 56) A 57) C 58) B 59) A 60) D 61) C 62) B 63) D 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) B 68) C 69) A 70) A 71) B 72) C 73) B 74) D 75) A 76) B 77) B

78) B 79) C 80) C 81) D 82) A 83) B 84) C 85) A 86) A 87) C 88) B 89) A 90) A 91) D 92) spleen 93) pathogens 94) tissue fluid 95) edema 96) tonsils 97) subclavian 98) antigens 99) cytokines 100) antigen-presenting 101) clone

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1776) The organs of the alimentary canal are innervated by sympathetic as well as by parasympathetic nerve fibers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1777) Peristalsis mixes food with digestive enzymes in small segments of the alimentary canal. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1778) The chamber of the mouth between the tongue and the palate is the vestibule. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1779) A set of primary teeth consists of 20 teeth, whereas a set of secondary teeth consists of 32

teeth. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1780) The parotid gland differs from the submandibular and sublingual glands in that it secretes

a clear fluid that is rich in amylase. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1781) The esophagus provides a passageway for substances from the larynx to the bronchi. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1782) The stomach is C-shaped and connects the duodenum to the spleen. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1783) The pyloric sphincter serves as a valve that controls the movement of food between the

esophagus and stomach. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1784) Fatty foods stay in the stomach longer than protein or carbohydrate foods. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1785) The enterogastric reflex begins in the stomach and ends in the small intestine. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1786) Pancreatic acinar cells secrete pancreatic juice. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1787) The hepatic duct connects the gallbladder to the bile duct. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1788) Bile is composed of HCl, pepsin, mucus, and intrinsic factor. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1789) Cholecystokinin stimulates the gallbladder to contract and release bile into the

duodenum. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1790) Bile salts function as digestive enzymes to break down fatty acids. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1791) Fat molecules with longer chains of carbon atoms are transported away from the intestine

in the lymph. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1792) From the stomach, food passes into the duodenum, then the jejunum, and then the ileum. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1793) The movement of chyme through the small intestine is increased by parasympathetic

impulses and is inhibited by sympathetic impulses. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1794) The cecum is located at the inferior end of the descending colon. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1795) Without a properly functioning large intestine, a person will have chronic diarrhea. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1796) Sight or smell of food can stimulate salivation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1797) The pancreas is part of the alimentary canal. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1798) Maltase is a brush border enzyme of the small intestine that digests the sugar maltose. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1799) Vitamin K and B12 are synthesized by bacteria of the large intestine and then absorbed

into the blood. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1800) Peristalsis slows in the elderly. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1801) The large intestine absorbs water, fats, and salts. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1802) The alimentary canal extends between what two points?

A) The mouth to the large intestine B) The stomach to the small intestine C) The liver to the gallbladder D) The mouth to the anus 1803) What is a function of the digestive system?

A) Ingests and breaks down food, absorbs nutrients, and defecates the unabsorbed

material.

B) Mechanically and chemically assembles food from absorbed nutrients.

C) Sends cellular debris to lysosomes.

D) Absorbs nutrients in the mouth, pharynx, esophagus and stomach, and releases nutrients in the intestines.

1804) What is the correct sequence for the layers in the walls of the alimentary canal from

innermost to outermost?

A) Mucosa, muscular layer, serosa, submucosa B) Mucosa, submucosa, muscular layer, serosa C) Serosa, muscular layer, mucosa, submucosa D) Submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscular layer 1805) The __________ is the layer of the alimentary canal wall that absorbs nutrients.

A) mucosa B) submucosa C) muscular layer D) serosa 1806) Where does peristalsis occur in the digestive tract?

A) From the pharynx to the anus B) In the stomach and small intestine only C) In the small and large intestines only D) In the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine 1807) Activities of the digestive system generally increase when it is stimulated by __________

impulses.

A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) sensory D) somatic 1808) What teeth are best adapted for biting off chunks of food?

A) Incisors B) Canines C) Bicuspids D) Molars 1809) What is found in the root canal of a tooth?

A) Dentin B) Cementum C) Gingiva D) Blood vessels and nerves

1810) The mechanical breakup of food particles in the mouth is called __________.

A) mastication B) salivation C) peristalsis D) absorption 1811) What is the uvula?

A) A type of tooth B) A projection from the soft palate C) A flap of tissue that keeps food from entering the trachea D) Part of the tongue 1812) Because of their location, swollen palatine tonsils may interfere with __________.

A) breathing only B) swallowing only C) both breathing and swallowing D) neither breathing nor swallowing 1813) Ankyloglossia is a condition in which the tongue is almost completely anchored to the

floor of the mouth along its midline. This causes the sufferer to have extreme difficulty talking and manipulating food during the process of mastication. The abnormal overgrowth of what structure would cause this condition?

A) The vestibule B) The epiglottis C) The palatine tonsil D) The lingual frenulum 1814) If you take a piece of white bread and chew it slowly for a long period of time, the flavor

will become very sweet. This is due to the starch molecules in the bread being digested into smaller sugars that trigger a sweet sensation. Which substance is responsible for this breakdown?

A) Salivary amylase B) Mucus C) Bicarbonate ions D) Pepsin

1815) What is a function of saliva?

A) Absorbing fat from ingested food B) Cleansing the esophagus C) Breaking food into smaller pieces D) Beginning the chemical digestion of carbohydrates 1816) What are the largest salivary glands?

A) Parotid glands B) Sublingual glands C) Submandibular glands 1817) Which is not an involuntary part of the swallowing reflex?

A) Muscles pull the pharynx upward toward the food.

B) The epiglottis closes off the top of the trachea.

C) The tongue presses against the uvula and soft palate.

D) The tongue rolls chewed food into a bolus and pushes it to the oropharynx.

1818) A child hanging upside down from a tree takes a bite from a candy bar. They manage to

chew the candy and swallow it successfully. What prevents the bolus from entering the upper part of the nasopharynx?

A) Muscles immediately pull the pharynx upward as part of the swallowing reflex and draw it off of the back of the tongue.

B) The posterior part of the tongue and the anterior section of the pharynx undergo peristalsis, so the food is immediately pushed downward.

C) During the swallowing reflex, the tongue presses against the soft palate and pushes the soft palate up to close off the nasopharynx.

D) The most anterior section of the nasopharynx is only connected to the oropharynx by small ducts, so the bolus cannot enter it.

1819) A child hanging upside down from a tree takes a bite from a candy bar. They manage to

chew the candy and swallow it successfully. How does the bolus move along the esophagus?

A) Pressure changes due to inhalation draw the bolus through the esophagus.

B) Peristalsis of the esophageal walls force the bolus to the stomach.

C) The epiglottis pushes the bolus into the esophagus and forces it to remain there until the child returns to an upright position, when gravity can move it to the stomach.

D) The pharyngeal constrictor muscles push the bolus into the esophagus and force it to remain there until the child returns to an upright position, when gravity can move it to the stomach.

1820) The epiglottis is attached to the __________.

A) esophagus B) trachea C) pharynx D) larynx 1821) Edith suffers from severe heartburn. She goes to her physician and is diagnosed with a

hiatal hernia. This condition affects her __________.

A) abdominal wall B) small intestine C) diaphragm D) heart 1822) Taking NSAID pain relievers like aspirin or ibuprofen for several weeks disrupts

prostaglandin hormone signalling to cells in the stomach. This causes an interruption in production of the protective inner coating of the stomach, which leads to ulcers and further acid erosion. Which gastric cells are being affected by prolonged use of NSAID pain relievers?

A) Parietal cells B) Chief cells C) Microvilli D) Mucous neck cells 1823) A genetic mutation prevents the parietal cells of the gastric glands from secreting their

typical products. What effect would this have on digestion within the stomach?

A) The stomach would not produce a protective mucus coating and would digest itself.

B) Somatostatin would be secreted, so all digestion would be halted.

C) Pepsinogen would not be secreted, so protein digestion would not occur within the stomach.

D) Hydrochloric acid would not be produced, so pepsinogen would not be activated to form pepsin.

1824) Heartburn is usually caused by the effects of gastric juice on the __________.

A) heart B) esophagus C) stomach D) small intestine

1825) Elliot thought that his peptic ulcers were caused by his nagging parents, and was

surprised when the doctor handed him a prescription for medication to treat __________.

A) a bacterial infection B) a viral infection C) a high pH D) excess bile 1826) What is the main part of the stomach is called?

A) Fundus B) Pylorus C) Cardia D) Body 1827) A newborn was miserable and vomiting frequently. An X-ray revealed hypertrophic

pyloric stenosis. What was the problem in the digestive system?

A) An overgrowth of the stomach wall has narrowed the opening between the esophagus and stomach.

B) An overgrowth of muscle has blocked the passageway from the stomach to the small intestine.

C) A genetic defect has resulted in the absence of the pylorus.

D) An abnormally large peptic ulcer near the opening of the esophagus into the stomach has developed.

1828) Matthew takes a drug that inhibits the production of HCl in the stomach to ease the

symptoms of a gastric ulcer. If he takes it for a long time, digestion of which nutrient would be affected the most?

A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Proteins D) Minerals 1829) What is secreted by the parietal cells of gastric glands?

A) Mucus B) Pepsinogen C) Hydrochloric acid D) Pepsin

1830) What is true for all of the enzymes that digest protein?

A) They are secreted by the pancreas.

B) They are activated by HCl. C) They are secreted in an inactive form.

D) Their release is stimulated by enterokinase.

1831) Stomach cells secrete gastrin. What is the function of gastrin?

A) To inhibit the production of hydrochloric acid B) To increase the secretion by the gastric glands C) To change pepsin into pepsinogen D) To stimulate contraction the stomach 1832) What stimulates the secretion of cholecystokinin from the intestinal wall?

A) Protein in the stomach B) Carbohydrates in the small intestine C) Fat in the stomach D) Protein and fat in the small intestine 1833) What is the action of the hormone secretin?

A) Converts trypsinogen to trypsin B) Activates chymotrypsin C) Stimulates release of pancreatic juice D) Inhibits the action of pancreatic lipase 1834) If prosecretin, the inactive form of the hormone secretin, is produced improperly and

cannot be converted to the active form as a result, how will this affect the intestine and the pancreas during digestion?

A) Alkaline pancreatic juice will not be released from the pancreas in response to chyme emptying into the duodenum. Peptic ulcers may result.

B) Enzyme-rich pancreatic juice will not be released from the pancreas in response to chyme emptying into the duodenum. Proteins, fats, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids will not be digested.

C) Cholecystokinin will not be released from the intestinal wall, so the acid of the chyme will not be neutralized. The duodenum will form peptic ulcers due to acid erosion.

D) Acute pancreatitis will occur, as secretin will accumulate within the pancreas and cause pancreatic enzymes to begin to digest pancreatic tissues.

1835) What protein-digesting enzyme is found in pancreatic juice?

A) Trypsin B) Pancrease C) Amylase D) Nuclease 1836) Acute pancreatitis is often caused by the conversion of __________ within the pancreas.

A) trypsin to trypsinogen B) trypsinogen to trypsin C) pepsin to pepsinogen D) pepsinogen to pepsin 1837) What regulates pancreatic secretion of digestive enzymes?

A) Bile salts B) Cholesterol C) Cholecystokinin D) The amount of food eaten 1838) Which of the following is not a function of the liver?

A) Maintaining blood glucose concentration B) Formation of urea C) Secretion of bile D) Secretion of insulin 1839) Which of the following is true about bile?

A) Cholecystokinin stimulates its production.

B) Secretin stimulates its release into the duodenum.

C) It contains concentrated enzymes that digest carbohydrates.

D) It is produced by the liver.

1840) Which constituent of bile has a digestive function?

A) Bile salts B) Bile pigments C) Cholesterol D) Electrolytes

1841) Which of the following is a function of the liver?

A) It forms glucose from noncarbohydrates.

B) It stores vitamin C. C) It produces red blood cells.

D) It secretes chymotrypsin.

1842) David has sustained severe damage to his liver in a car accident. Digestion of which

nutrient will be most affected?

A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Proteins D) Vitamins 1843) The common hepatic duct and the cystic duct unite to form the __________.

A) common bile duct B) hepatic duct C) hepatopancreatic duct D) pancreatic duct 1844) Why might gallstones form?

A) Because bile is too concentrated B) Because hepatic cells secrete too much HCl C) Because the pH of the gallbladder becomes too alkaline D) Because the liver is lacerated 1845) What is usually a major component of gallstones?

A) Calcium salts B) Uric acid C) Cholesterol D) Bile pigments 1846) Bile salts function like detergents in that they __________ fat globules.

A) emulsify B) coagulate C) digest D) liquefy

1847) What part of the digestive tract has the most lymph nodules and bacteria?

A) Duodenum B) Jejunum C) Ileum D) Colon 1848) The greater omentum is composed of the __________ membrane.

A) peritoneal B) pericardial C) pleural D) hiatal 1849) What is true about the life-span of epithelial cells that form the inner lining of the small

intestine?

A) They are replaced every few days.

B) They are not able to reproduce.

C) They are replaced every few years.

D) They are formed during development and last a lifetime.

1850) Tanisha has abdominal pains. Medical tests reveal that she can digest nutrients, but the

nutrients are not taken in by the intestinal blood supply. What term best describes Tanisha's condition?

A) Malnutrition B) Malabsorption C) Constipation D) Food allergy 1851) Which of the following is the correct sequence for the digestion and absorption of lipids?

1. Formation of chylomicrons 2. Emulsification by bile 3. Diffusion through the epithelial cell membrane 4. Hydrolysis by pancreatic lipase 5. Movement into lacteal ducts A) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 B) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 C) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 D) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

1852) The major mixing movement in the small intestine is accomplished by __________.

A) peristalsis B) churning C) segmentation D) mass movement 1853) Chylomicrons transport dietary fats to __________ through the blood.

A) bones and cartilage B) neurons and neuroglia C) the liver and gallbladder D) muscle and adipose cells 1854) What organ produces VLDL? A) Pancreas B) Liver C) Kidneys D) Stomach 1855) Peripheral tissue cells remove __________ lipoproteins from plasma by receptor-

mediated endocytosis.

A) VLDL B) LDL C) HDL D) triglycerides 1856) What lipoprotein picks up cholesterol from the peripheral tissues and returns it to the

liver?

A) B) C) D)

VLDLs LDLs HDLs Triglycerides

1857) What is one of the functions of the large intestine?

A) To secrete digestive enzymes B) To absorb ingested water C) To regulate the release of bile D) To break down hemoglobin

1858) Loperamide is a medication used to slow and stop diarrhea. It inhibits nervous signalling

to the large intestine, relaxing the smooth muscles within the intestinal wall and preventing mass movements. Which of the following intestinal conditions/diseases have diarrheal symptoms that can be controlled with loperamide?

A) Colorectal cancer B) Hemorrhoids C) Inflammatory bowel disease D) Diverticulosis 1859) Which of the following occurs during the defecation reflex?

A) Diaphragm is lowered.

B) Glottis is opened.

C) Abdominal wall muscles relax.

D) Internal abdominal pressure is decreased.

1860) Enlarged blood vessels of the anal columns are called __________.

A) peritonitis B) hemorrhoids C) diarrhea D) polyps 1861) Feces are about __________ percent water.

A) 25 B) 33 C) 50 D) 75 1862) What changes in the mouth occur due to aging?

A) Overgrowth of gums B) Thinning enamel C) Thinning cementum D) Shrinking dentin 1863) Lydia is taking an antihistamine for her allergies and develops xerostomia. What is

xerostomia?

A) A peptic ulcer B) Hairloss C) Bad breath D) Dry mouth

1864) Which is not a factor that may affect the rate of absorption of certain medications with

age?

A) B) C) D)

Slowing of the exit of chyme from the stomach Slowing of peristalsis Thinning of the stomach lining Loss of power in mastication

1865) Carrie is being examined by her dentist, who notices that she has many cavities (caries).

When she tells him about her dental regimen, he explains to her that she doesn’t brush her teeth often enough to remove the bacteria that __________, which is why she has so many cavities.

A) infect the gums, causing dental caries B) destroy the gums so that the teeth loosen C) metabolize carbohydrates in food, producing acidic by-products that damage enamel and dentin D) directly secrete acids that dissolve enamel 1866) What is found in most over-the-counter antacids?

A) Agents that lower the pH in the stomach B) Sodium, aluminum, calcium, or magnesium C) A mixture of digestive juices D) Anti-inflammatory medicines such as ibuprofen 1867) How is hepatitis B transmitted?

A) Contact with infected feces B) Sexual activity C) Infected food D) Travel to developing countries 1868) Jaundice is the abnormal yellowish-tint of tissues, such as the sclera of the eye. Jaudice is

due to the accumulation of what substance?

A) Cholesterol B) Bile pigments C) Carotene D) Hemoglobin A

1869) Hepatitis C accounts for nearly half the known causes of hepatitis. How is hepatitis C

transmitted?

A) Coming in contact with infected saliva B) Eating infected food C) Coming in contact with infected blood D) Having sexual intercouse with an infected person 1870) An X-ray series of the bile ducts is called a __________.

A) cholangiogram B) cholecystogram C) cholecystectomy D) cholelithiasis 1871) What disorder of the large intestine produces a "cobblestone" effect within the tissues of

the colon after many years?

A) Colorectal cancer B) Hemorrhoids C) Crohn's disease D) Ulcerative colitis 1872) Which of the following is stimulated by overdistention of the small-intestine wall?

A) Peristaltic rush B) Segmentation C) Release of secretin D) Release of mucus 1873) All parts of the digestive tract have a mucosa layer. However, the appearance of the layer

varies throughout the tract. Which of the following is a difference between the mucosae of the small and large intestines?

A) The mucosa of the small intestine has microvilli, and that of the large intestine does not.

B) The mucosa of the large intestine has goblet cells, and that of the small intestine does not.

C) The mucosa of the small intestine has simple columnar epithelium, and that of the large intestine does not.

D) The mucosa of the large intestine has larger circular folds, and that of the small intestine has a smooth wall.

1874) You are flipping through your Instagram feed, which is full of pictures of food. Which of

the following digestive processes did this most likely stimulate?

A) Salivation B) Deglutition C) Mastication D) Defecation 1875) The parotid gland is located __________ and functions to __________.

A) on the side of the mouth; produce and secrete saliva B) under the mandible; produce and secrete saliva C) behind the stomach; produce and secrete digestive enzymes D) in the wall of the small intestine; produce and secrete mucus 1876) An CT scan shows a blockage in the duodenum that needs to be removed surgically. The

gastroenterologist will make a small incision in the duodenal wall to remove the obstruction.

Which tunic will be cut first?

A) Mucosa B) Submucosa C) Muscularis D) Serosa 1877) Which organ is not part of the gastrointestinal tract?

A) Esophagus B) Large intestine C) Oral cavity D) Liver 1878) What accessory organ is attached to the duodenum and secretes fluid rich in digestive

enzymes?

A) Pancreas B) Stomach C) Gallbladder D) Parotid gland 1879) The salivary glands secrete the enzyme __________ that breaks down __________.

A) amylase; carbohydrates B) pepsin; proteins C) sucrase; sucrose D) lipase; lipids

1880) What is the effect of parasympathetic innervation on the salivary glands secretions?

A) Small volume of watery saliva B) Large volume of viscous saliva C) Large volume of watery saliva D) Small volume of viscous saliva 1881) Protein is broken down into smaller and smaller fragments, but ultimately the smaller

fragments require splitting of the last peptide bond between two amino acids. What enzygme catalyzes this reaction?

A) Pepsin B) Chymotrypsin C) Dipeptidase D) Carboxypeptidase 1882) Where are nucleic acids chemically digested?

A) In the mouth B) In the stomach C) In the small intestine D) In the large intestine

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1883) The __________ canal includes the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and anal canal.

1884) The passageway, or hollow space, through the digestive tube is called the __________.

1885) Chisel-shaped teeth are called __________.

1886) Saliva contains __________ ions that helps buffer the acid in the mouth.

1887) The esophagus passes through an opening in the diaphragm called the esophageal

__________.

1888) The rate at which chyme leaves the stomach is regulated by the __________ reflex.

1889) Pancreatic fluid contains a high concentration of __________ ions, which makes it

alkaline.

1890) The process by which bile breaks down fat globules into smaller droplets is called

__________.

1891) Bile salts aid the absorption of __________-soluble vitamins.

1892) Most recipients of cholecystectomies have difficulty digesting fatty foods after the

procedure. This is due to the lack of emulsification of lipids during the process of digestion, which makes it harder for lipase to access and break down fats. This is because the __________ that would have been part of the bile are not being efficiently released into the small intestine during digestion.

1893) Large, fixed phagocytes in the lining of the hepatic sinusoids are called __________

cells.

1894) A patient swears they make sure they eat plenty of foods rich in vitamin B12, but they

still suffer from the anemia, jaundice, and weakness associated with vitamin B12 deficiency.

Their doctor thinks their body might not be producing __________, which is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption.

1895) The double-layered folds of peritoneum that support portions of the small intestine are

called __________.

1896) The sphincter muscle located between the small intestine and the large intestine is the

__________.

1897) Loperamide is a medication used to slow and stop diarrhea. It inhibits nervous signalling

to the large intestine, relaxing the smooth muscles within the intestinal wall and preventing intestinal contents from moving forward. The large peristaltic waves inhibited by loperamide are called __________.

1898) Rough projections on the tongue that provide friction are called __________.

1899) The process of breaking down food into usable nutrients for absorption is called

__________.

1900) The segment of the alimentary canal that is located between the pharynx and stomach is

the __________.

1901) A lymphatic capillary within a villus of the small intestine is called a ____________.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 17 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) FALSE 27) D 28) A 29) B 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) C

38) D 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) D 43) C 44) B 45) D 46) C 47) D 48) D 49) B 50) A 51) D 52) B 53) C 54) C 55) C 56) B 57) D 58) C 59) A 60) A 61) B 62) C 63) D 64) D 65) A 66) A 67) B 68) A 69) A 70) C 71) A 72) C 73) A 74) A 75) B 76) B 77) C

78) D 79) B 80) B 81) C 82) B 83) C 84) A 85) B 86) D 87) B 88) D 89) D 90) C 91) B 92) B 93) B 94) C 95) A 96) C 97) A 98) A 99) A 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108) 109) 110) 111) 112) 113) 114) 115) 116) 117)

A D D A A A C C alimentary lumen incisors bicarbonate hiatus enterogastric bicarbonate emulsification fat bile salts

118) 119) 120) 121) 122) 123) 124) 125) 126)

kupffer intrinsic factor mesenteries ileocecal valve mass movements papillae digestion esophagus lacteal

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1902) The macronutrients are carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1903) Monica doesn't eat anything that was once in an animal. She is an ovo-vegetarian. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1904) Neuropeptide Y is secreted in the stomach and suppresses appetite. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1905) Ribose and deoxyribose are examples of carbohydrates. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1906) Intake of at least 10 grams of carbohydrate is needed daily to avoid protein breakdown. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1907) Glycogen stored in the liver and muscles of an adult provides enough reserve energy to

meet energy demands for about 12 hours. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1908) Carbohydrates include cholesterol and phospholipids. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1909) Linoleic acid is an essential amino acid. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1910) Cholesterol functions in the body as an energy source, and furnishes molecular

components for the synthesis of various sex hormones. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1911) The liver functions in fat metabolism to control the amounts of glucose, amino acids, and

iron released into the blood. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1912) Cholesterol is synthesized in the liver. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1913) A complete protein has adequate amounts of the essential amino acids. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1914) Complete proteins can promote normal growth, whereas incomplete proteins cannot. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1915) Essential amino acids are those required to build proteins, whereas nonessential amino

acids are not required to build proteins. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1916) Amino acids can be used to synthesize proteins for cellular structures, to synthesize

proteins that function in various body processes, and for energy. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1917) Gram for gram, carbohydrates provide about twice as much energy as proteins. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1918) The average BMR for an adult indicates a need for one calorie of energy per hour for

each gram of body weight. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1919) A caloric intake that exceeds caloric output results in a positive energy balance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1920) Obesity is defined as a BMI over 30. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1921) Fat-soluble vitamins dissolve in water, are very sensitive to the effects of heat, and are

easily destroyed by cooking or food processing. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1922) Provitamins are special vitamins used by elite athletes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1923) Vitamins contain calories and therefore provide energy for the body. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1924) One function of vitamin A is to act as an antioxidant. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1925) The result of vitamin D deficiency in children is a condition called scurvy. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1926) Vitamin E is stored primarily in adipose tissue and muscle. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1927) The B vitamins are fat-soluble vitamins. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1928) Cyanocobalamin is found exclusively in plants. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1929) About 75% of the minerals in the body are in bones and teeth, and include calcium and

phosphorus. Homeostatic mechanisms regulate their concentrations. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1930) Dietary minerals are organic molecules. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1931) The most abundant major minerals in the body are potassium and sodium. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1932) Magnesium affects ATP production and is therefore important in providing cellular

energy. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1933) Copper is essential for producing melanin and myelin. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1934) Malnutrition due to diet alone is called secondary malnutrition. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1935) Kwashiorkor tends to affect adolescent girls from well-to-do families who perceive

themselves as being too fat. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1936) A group of girls at a middle school are all diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. One girl's

counselor tells her that it is a serious illness, from which 15 to 21 percent of sufferers die.

The counselor is correct. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1937) Vitamin D deficiency, especially in older people,can result from lack of exposure to the

sun. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1938) Individuals who are growing or recovering from an injury exhibit positive nitrogen

balance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1939) Buring 600 calories every day through exercise, without a change in caloric intake, would

put someone in a negative energy balance. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1940) After eating, the hormone __________ signals the hypothalamus to suppress appetite.

A) ghrelin B) neuropeptide Y C) leptin D) pepsin 1941) A person has a hormonal disorder in which their stomach constantly secretes ghrelin.

Predict the effect of this disorder.

A) The person will never feel hungry.

B) The person will constantly feel hungry.

C) The person will have an increased metabolic rate.

D) The person will have an increased metabolic rate, but no abnormal effect on appetite.

1942) Sarah eats fruits, vegetables and dairy, but no meat or eggs. She is a(n) __________.

A) lacto-vegetarian B) ovo-vegetarian C) vegan D) pesco-vegetarian 1943) Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are classified as __________.

A) nanonutrients B) micronutrients C) macronutrients D) piconutrients 1944) You are examining different dietary supplements, trying to choose one for your child.

Each supplement contains only four amino acids. Which supplement would be most suitable for your child’s essential amino acid needs?

A) Supplement W containing phenylalanine, lysine, cysteine, and valine B) Supplement X containing alanine, arginine, tyrosine, and serine C) Supplement Y containing tyrosine, lysine, glycine, and asparagine D) Supplement Z containing arginine, histidine, lysine, and methionine 1945) What is adiponectin?

A) A nutrient that causes weight gain.

B) A hormone secreted by fat cells that affects the response of target cells to insulin.

C) A hormone secreted by the lining of the stomach that enhances appetite.

D) A hormone secreted by the hypothalamus that suppresses appetite after a fatty meal.

1946) Inhibition of which hormones action may help in weight loss?

A) Leptin B) Ghrelin C) Cholecystokinin D) Adiponectin 1947) Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

A) Fructose B) Glucose C) Sucrose D) Galactose

1948) Candy and sugary desserts are associated with weight gain. Why would candy and sugary

foods, containing carbohydrates, cause an increase in body fat?

A) Carbohydrates, once broken down into glucose, can be used in lipogenesis and be converted into fats for storage, adding to body fat content.

B) Glycogen, produced as glucose levels rise, will be stored in the liver. When it exceeds the storage capacity of the liver, it is transported to adipose tissue and added to the fat stores, increasing body fat content.

C) Disaccharides like sucrose and lactose are broken down into monosaccharides and stored in fat cells beneath the skin, increasing body fat content.

D) Any nutrient that is present in excess wil be stored in adipose tissue, increasing body fat content.

1949) Vanessa takes many vitamin supplements, claiming that they give her energy. She is

mistaken because cells preferentially use __________ for energy.

A) minerals B) amino acids C) proteins D) carbohydrates 1950) Cells of the __________ system require a continuous supply of glucose.

A) muscular B) respiratory C) digestive D) nervous 1951) What compound replenishes cellular glucose supplies once supplies are depleted?

A) Triglycerides B) Proteins C) Amino acids D) Glycogen 1952) What monosaccarides are part of RNA and DNA? A) Glucose and galactose B) Sucrose and fructose C) Ribose and deoxyribose D) Glucose and glycogen

1953) Which of the following is not lipid?

A) Triglycerides B) Vegetable oil C) Cholesterol D) Tyrosine 1954) What components form a triglyceride?

A) Three glycerols and a fatty acid B) Glycerol and three fatty acids C) A cholesterol and three fatty acids D) Two cholesterols and two fatty acids 1955) Which of the following is high in monounsaturated fats?

A) Olive oil B) Butter C) Palm oil D) Coconut oil 1956) Which of the following provide(s) a source of complete proteins?

A) Eggs B) Corn C) Rice D) Wheat 1957) A negative nitrogen balance results from a net loss of __________.

A) monosaccharides B) amino acids C) genes D) macronutrients 1958) What process occurs during the catabolism of proteins for energy?

A) Deamination B) Glycogenolysis C) Glycolysis D) Beta oxidation

1959) How many essential amino acids are needed by adults?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 1960) Which factor does not affect basal metabolic rate (BMR)?

A) Body size B) Body temperature C) The level of endocrine activity D) The composition of the diet 1961) Which of the following activities should lead to the loss of at least a pound of fat in one

week?

A) B) C) D)

Slow walking for an hour each day Sitting at rest for two hours each day Swimming or running for an hour each day Swimming for half an hour each day

1962) Sarah is trying to understand the principle of energy balance so she can develop a diet

plan. What is an important fact for her to understand?

A) If energy expenditure exceeds caloric intake, it creates a positive energy balance. This leads to weight loss.

B) If energy expenditure exceeds caloric intake, it creates a negative energy balance.

This leads to weight loss.

C) If caloric intake exceeds energy expenditure, it creates a negative energy balance.

This leads to weight loss.

D) If caloric intake exceeds energy expenditure, it creates a positive energy balance. This leads to weight loss.

1963) What does BMI measure?

A) Weight in proportion to height B) The amount of body fat C) Volume in proportion to area D) The basal metabolic rate

1964) A large calorie (kilocalorie) equals the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of

a kilogram of water by __________ degree(s) Celsius.

A) 0.1 B) 1 C) 10 D) 100 1965) A sample of food is put into a bomb calorimeter and its caloric content is measured. The

final measurement reads 100 (large) Calories. How many (small) calories does the food contain?

A) 0.1 cal B) 418.4 cal C) 10,000 cal D) 100,000 cal 1966) A sample of food is put into a bomb calorimeter and its caloric content is measured. The

final measurement reads 100 (large) Calories. How many joules of energy does this food contain?

A) 4.184 joules B) 418.4 joules C) 4,184 joules D) 100,000 joules 1967) Deficiency of vitamin __________ causes night blindness.

A) A B) C C) D D) K 1968) Deficiency of vitamin __________ causes osteomalacia.

A) A B) C C) D D) E

1969) Treatment with antibiotic drugs is sometimes followed by a deficiency of vitamin

__________.

A) A B) C C) D D) K 1970) What are examples of fat-soluble vitamins?

A) Vitamin C and E B) B-complex vitamins C) Vitamins A, D, and K D) Vitamins A and B-complex vitamins 1971) Excess intake of which vitamin could possibly lead to irreversible renal damage?

A) Vitamin C B) Vitamin B12 C) Vitamin B1 D) Vitamin D 1972) Stan takes vitamin supplements every day, buying whatever is on sale at the health food

store. He develops nausea, headache, fatigue, easy bruising, and bleeding. Which vitamin is he likely taking in excess?

A) Vitamin B12 B) Vitamin C C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin E 1973) Which of the following vitamins can promote intestinal absorption of calcium and

phosphorus?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin K C) Niacin D) Vitamin D 1974) What do all B vitamins have in common?

A) All are produced by the body and are non-essential.

B) All are involved in the oxidation of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.

C) All are lipid-soluble.

D) All are amino acids.

1975) What condition is associated with lack of intrinsic factor and decreased absorption of

cyanobalamin?

A) Pernicious anemia B) Pellagra C) Megaloblastic anemia D) Scurvy 1976) Intrinsic factor is important in the absorption of __________.

A) biotin B) folacin C) vitamin B6 D) vitamin B12 1977) The vitamin that functions as part of coenzyme A is ___________.

A) pyridoxine B) pantothenic acid C) niacin D) riboflavin 1978) A change in dietary intake of which vitamin or mineral can cause vomiting, diarrhea, and

flushing?

A) A lack of calcium B) Excess niacin C) A deficiency of iron D) Excess vitamin C 1979) Which of the following vitamins is necessary for production of collagen?

A) Vitamin D B) Vitamin C C) Thiamine D) Biotin 1980) Which of the following is a trace element?

A) Magnesium B) Sulfur C) Iron D) Chlorine

1981) What condition can result from excess calcium in the diet?

A) Deposition of calcium in soft tissue B) Brittle teeth C) Cracked fingernails D) Stunted growth 1982) What is the effect of potassium deficiency in the body?

A) Dry skin B) Brittle bones C) Muscle spasms D) Cardiac arrythmias 1983) Which of the following minerals is important in synthesizing and using ATP? A) Zinc B) Chlorine C) Magnesium D) Potassium 1984) What is a function of iron in the body?

A) Needed for synthesis of hemoglobin B) Needed for blood clotting process C) Needed for synthesis of thyroid hormone D) Needed for activation of digestive enzymes 1985) Kwashiorkor may develop in children who have a dietary deficiency of __________.

A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) fiber 1986) Individuals at highest risk for developing anorexia nervosa are __________.

A) infants B) adolescents C) adults D) children

1987) Why might a protein deficiency be accompanied by edema?

A) Protein deficiency results in a decrease in colloid osmotic pressure.

B) Protein deficiency causes an increase in blood pressure.

C) Protein deficiency causes vasodilation of capillaries throughout the body.

D) Protein deficiency causes a decrease in antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion.

1988) Which of the following describes the potential changes in basal metabolic rate (BMR)

throughout life?

A) Increases continually throughout life B) Increases from birth to age five, then declines, then peaks in adolescence, then drops during adulthood C) Increases or decreases depending upon how much a person exercises D) Remains the same throughout life.

1989) Which is not a medical condition that affects the ability to obtain adequate nutrition?

A) Tooth decay B) Depression C) Periodontal disease D) Osteomalacia 1990) Why might Vitamin A deficiency take years to become noticeable?

A) It is difficult to eat too many carrots.

B) Most vitamin A leaves the body in urine.

C) The liver stores it.

D) The symptoms are mostly unnoticeable.

1991) As a child, Sherry was poor and did not eat very well. A certain vitamin deficiency

hindered development of the light-sensitive pigments in her eyes, and now she has poor vision in low-light environments. Which of the following vitamins should she take to improve her vision?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B12 C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin K 1992) How are the ingredients listed on the label of a packaged food?

A) They are listed from most to least tasty.

B) They are listed in increasing order by weight.

C) They are listed in decreasing order by weight.

D) They are listed alphabetically.

1993) Evangeline is 5'4" and weighs 200 pounds giving her a BMI score of 34. According to the

BMI chart, she is __________.

A) B) C) D)

underweight a healthy weight overweight obese

1994) A group of people have their BMI scores calculated: Jordan has a BMI of 26. Matt has a

BMI of 21. Kelsey has a BMI score of 29. Heather has a BMI score of 31. Chad has a BMI of 23. Which of these people is considered obese by the BMI standards?

A) Jordan B) Heather C) Matt D) Chad 1995) A group of people have their BMI scores calculated: Jordan has a BMI of 26. Matt has a

BMI of 21. Kelsey has a BMI score of 29. Heather has a BMI score of 31. Chad has a BMI of 23. Which of these people is considered overweight by the BMI standards?

A) B) C) D)

Jordan Heather Matt Two or more of these people are considered overweight

1996) Which of the following regimens would not lead to the loss of one pound of fat in one

week?

A) Burning 1,000 calories a day swimming, or eating 1,000 fewer calories a day.

B) Burning 500 calories a day running or eating 500 fewer calories a day.

C) Burning 1,000 calories during exercise three times a week and eating an extra 200

calories a day.

D) Eating 250 calories less every day.

1997) What is good general dietary advice for athletes?

A) To eat about equal amounts of the three macronutrients.

B) To eat 60% or more carbohydrates, mostly from grains and vegetables.

C) To eat only two large meals a day, with no snacks.

D) To eat much more protein than non-athletes.

1998) What is the condition that results from poor nutrition, lack of nutrients, or the failure to

use them?

A) Malnutrition B) Malabsorption C) Food intolerance D) Food allergy 1999) Ashmi is 5'10" and weighs 160 pounds. According to the BMI chart, is she at a healthy

weight?

A) Yes, she is at a healthy weight.

B) No, she is underweight.

C) No, she is overweight.

D) No, she is obese.

2000) Which of the following is a good source of complex carbohydrates?

A) Leafy greens B) Orange C) Chicken breast D) Peanuts

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

2001) You would expect a person diagnosed with anorexia nervosa to have a __________ nitrogen balance due to the starvation conditions.

2002) Nutrients that are necessary for health, but that human cells cannot synthesize, are called

__________ nutrients.

2003) As a whole, the chemical reactions that are used by cells to build and break down

compounds are referred to as __________.

2004) Fructose, glucose, and galactose are examples of a type of carbohydrate called

__________.

2005) The most common dietary lipids are fats called __________.

2006) Consider the molecular differences between classes of fats. Of lard and peanut oil, which

will contain more double bonds in its structure?

2007) Cholesterol removed from the blood is excreted as a component of __________.

2008) Proteins are composed of smaller subunits called __________.

2009) The units of heat that measure the amount of energy in food are called __________.

2010) The instrument that measures the caloric content of a food sample is a(n) __________.

2011) The body can synthesize a provitamin from dietary cholesterol and store it in skin. With

exposure to ultraviolet light, this provitamin is changed to an inactive form of vitamin __________ .

2012) Riboflavin is carried in the blood combined with the blood protein called __________.

2013) Niacin can be synthesized in human cells from the essential amino acid __________.

2014) The typical source of dietary iodine is iodized __________.

2015) Hannah eats tremendous amounts of food, but then takes laxatives, vomits, and exercises

to keep from gaining weight. She has an eating disorder called __________.

2016) Diabetics who don’t have access to or refuse their insulin supplementation quickly

become starved for glucose. Their body rapidly oxidizes lipids into acetyl CoA, and then into__________, which can be used as fuel much like glucose by various tissues of the body.

However, these molecules can build up and raise blood pH, which is life-threatening.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 18 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) FALSE 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) FALSE 25) TRUE 26) FALSE 27) FALSE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) FALSE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) FALSE 34) FALSE 35) TRUE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE

38) TRUE 39) C 40) B 41) A 42) C 43) A 44) B 45) B 46) C 47) A 48) D 49) D 50) D 51) C 52) D 53) B 54) A 55) A 56) B 57) A 58) D 59) D 60) C 61) B 62) A 63) B 64) D 65) B 66) A 67) C 68) D 69) C 70) D 71) D 72) D 73) B 74) A 75) D 76) B 77) B

78) B 79) C 80) A 81) D 82) C 83) A 84) C 85) B 86) A 87) B 88) D 89) C 90) A 91) C 92) D 93) B 94) D 95) D 96) B 97) A 98) A 99) A 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108) 109) 110) 111) 112) 113) 114) 115)

negative essential metabolism monosaccharides triglycerides peanut oil bile amino acids calories bomb calorimeter D albumin tryptophan salt bulimia ketone bodies

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

2017) Another word for breathing is ventilation. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2018) Cellular respiration enables cells to harness the energy from oxygen. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2019) The organs of the upper respiratory tract are located outside the thorax. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2020) The pharynx is an enlargement at the top of the trachea that houses the vocal cords. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2021) The glottis is the opening between the vocal cords. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2022) The left lung is larger than the right lung and is divided into three lobes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2023) The pectoralis minor muscles and the sternocleidomastoid muscles are used in forced

expiration. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2024) The inflation reflex is activated when stretch receptors are stimulated during inspiration. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2025) A sudden contraction of the diaphragm while the glottis is closed produces a sneeze. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2026) Air being inhaled contains 21% oxygen, equal to a PO2 of 160 mmHg. As this air mixes

with air already in the alveoli, the PO2 decreases. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2027) An increase in respiratory membrane thickness or a decrease in alveolar surface area will

result in decreased oxygenation of the blood. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2028) Blood entering the lungs from the right ventricle has a PCO2 of 40 mmHg and a PO2 of 45

mmHg. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2029) The greatest amount of carbon dioxide transported in the blood is in the form of dissolved

carbon dioxide. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2030) Oxygen is carried in the blood in the form of bicarbonate ions and is bound to

hemoglobin. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2031) At the PO2 in the tissues, hemoglobin will be 75% saturated. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2032) Coughing reflexes become more efficient and effective with age. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

2033) The process called __________ involves gas exchange between the atmosphere and the cells of the body and the resulting chemical reactions that provide the cells with energy to function.

A) breathing B) oxidation C) respiration D) metabolism 2034) What is included in the process of external respiration?

A) Gas exchange at the tissues B) Gas exchange at the lungs C) Production of ATP by cells D) Transport of gases via the blood 2035) Describe the process of ventilation.

A) Delivery of oxygen to cells B) Forcible movement of oxygen molecules into the bloodstream C) Delivery of carbon dioxide to cells D) Movement of air into and out of lungs 2036) Which of the following does not contain a paranasal sinus?

A) maxilla B) frontal bone C) sphenoid bone D) zygomatic bone 2037) Which laryngeal cartilage is unpaired?

A) Cricoid B) Arytenoid C) Corniculate D) Cuneiform 2038) You are singing a song at karaoke and reach a part that requires a high pitch. What must

you do to reach these high notes?

A) Change the force of the air passing over your vocal cords.

B) Increase the tension of your vocal cords.

C) Change the shape of your laryngeal cartilages.

D) Constrict the airways of your upper respiratory tract.

2039) You are singing a song at karaoke and reach a part that requires a louder, more intense

sound. What must you do to produce a louder sound?

A) Change the force of the air passing over your vocal cords.

B) Increase the tension of your vocal cords.

C) Constrict the airways of your upper respiratory tract.

D) Change the shape of your laryngeal cartilages.

2040) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes which respiratory disorders?

A) Lung cancer and cystic fibrosis B) Chronic bronchitis and emphysema C) Smoker's lung and asthma D) Pneumothorax and alveolitis 2041) Where are the vocal cords located?

A) In the pharynx B) In the larynx C) In the trachea D) In the oral cavity 2042) Which of the following is not a function of the mucus-lined nasal passages?

A) Warming inspired air B) Moistening inspired air C) Trapping small particles D) Cooling exhaled air 2043) What determines the intensity (volume) of a vocal sound?

A) Force of air passing over the vocal cords B) Tension of the vocal cords C) Size of the laryngeal cartilages D) Shape of the laryngeal cartilages 2044) What is illuminated when a flashlight is placed just below the eyebrow in a darkened

room?

A) B) C) D)

Frontal sinus Maxillary sinus Sphenoid sinus Ethmoid sinus

2045) What is the correct order of structures, from superior to inferior?

A) Nasopharynx → oropharynx → laryngopharynx B) Oropharynx → laryngopharynx → nasopharynx C) Oropharynx → nasopharynx → laryngopharynx D) Laryngopharynx → oropharynx → nasopharynx 2046) Laryngitis occurs when the larynx becomes irritated and inflamed from an infection, acid

reflux, or strenuous use of the vocal cords. Which of the following symptoms would you directly associate with having laryngitis, considering the structures affected?

A) Swollen tongue and tonsils B) Runny nose and painful sinuses C) Loss of voice or a quiet, raspy voice D) Chest pain 2047) The nasal cavity is lined with __________ epithelium.

A) pseudostratified ciliated B) stratified squamous C) simple columnar D) stratified columnar 2048) The pharynx functions as a passageway for __________, whereas the larynx functions as

a passageway for __________.

A) passageway for air and food; passageway for food only B) passageway for air only; passageway for air and food C) passageway for air and food; passageway for air only D) passageway for food only; passageway for air only 2049) Which statement describes the trachea?

A) It is lined with simple squamous epithelium.

B) It is comprised of C-shaped cartilage rings.

C) It is a passageway for food and for air.

D) It contains no air-filtering mechanisms.

2050) What changes occur as the respiratory tract branches into smaller and smaller tubes?

A) They have relatively more cartilage.

B) They have relatively thicker epithelial lining.

C) Their epithelial lining changes to connective tissue.

D) Their epithelial lining becomes thinner.

2051) The right lung has __________ lobes; the left lung has __________ lobes.

A) three; two B) two; two C) three; three D) two; three 2052) What causes air to move into the lungs during inspiration?

A) Pressure gradient between atomosphere and alveoli B) Muscle contraction of upper airways C) Concentration gradients for oxygen and carbon dioxide D) Partial pressure gradients for oxygen and carbon dioxide 2053) What drives the air out of the lungs during quiet expiration?

A) Contraction of the diaphragm B) Contraction of the external intercostal muscles C) Surface tension and the elastic recoil of lung tissues D) Contraction of smooth muscles in airways 2054) Following a normal inspiration, the volume of additional air that enters the lungs during

forced maximal inspiration is called the __________.

A) inspiratory reserve volume B) expiratory reserve volume C) vital capacity D) tidal volume 2055) Which of the following respiratory volumes is the largest?

A) Expiratory reserve volume B) Inspiratory reserve volume C) Residual volume D) Tidal volume 2056) You have just jumped into the ocean after your boat began to sink. Luckily, you found an

air tank before you jumped. Unfortunately, the air tank has been used. The gauge says there is now exactly 30,000mL of air left in the tank. Fortunately, you know how to meditate and you’ve calmed yourself to the point where you are only taking normal, resting breaths. How many times can you inspire at this normal volume before the tank runs out?

A) 6 and a half times B) 10 times C) 27 times D) 60 times

2057) You have just jumped into the ocean after your boat began to sink. Luckily, you found an

air tank before you jumped. Unluckily, the air tank has been used. The gauge says there is now exactly 30,000mL of air left in the tank. In a panic, you take in the full inspiratory reserve volume each time you inhale. How many times can you inspire at this panicked volume before the tank runs out?

A) 6 and a half times B) 10 times C) 27 times D) 60 times 2058) Why do premature newborns often develop respiratory distress syndrome?

A) They do not have sufficient levels of surfactant.

B) They lack a respiratory membrane.

C) Their blood would have low oxygen concentrations.

D) They are unable to contract their diaphragm in order to inspire.

2059) What would happen to partial pressures of gases in the blood if the breathing rate did not

increase with physical exercise?

A) They would remain unchanged.

B) Partial pressure of CO2 in the blood would drop.

C) Partial pressure of O2 in the blood would increase.

D) Partial pressure of CO2 in the blood would increase.

2060) What normally holds the visceral and parietal pleural membranes together?

A) Loose connective tissue B) Dense connective tissue C) Thin film of serous fluid D) Surfactant 2061) What is a pneumothorax?

A) Infection within the lung B) Air within the pleural space C) Abnormal constriction of the upper airways D) Loss of alveolar walls

2062) During inspiration, intrapleural pressure __________ and intra-alveolar pressure

__________.

A) increases; decreases B) decreases; increases C) decreases; decreases D) increases; increases 2063) Name the volume of air that is moved in (or out) during a single quiet respiratory cycle.

A) Inspiratory reserve volume B) Vital capacity C) Tidal volume D) Expiratory reserve volume 2064) Which of the following occurs first, causing inspiration?

A) The diaphragm moves downward and the external intercostal muscles contract.

B) Atmospheric pressure forces air into the respiratory tract.

C) Intra-alveolar pressure decreases.

D) The lungs inflate.

2065) Which of the following occurs first, causing expiration?

A) Intra-alveolar pressure increases.

B) Elastic tissues of the lungs and thoracic cage recoil.

C) Air flows down its pressure gradient, out of the lungs.

D) The diaphragm and external intercostal respiratory muscles relax.

2066) According to Boyle's law, as the volume of a container decreases, __________.

A) the pressure increases B) the temperature decreases C) the pressure decreases D) the temperature increases 2067) A __________ is a sudden inspiration caused by a spasmodic contraction of the

diaphragm while the glottis is closed.

A) yawn B) laugh C) sneeze D) hiccup

2068) Where are the respiratory control areas located?

A) Cerebral cortex B) Pons and medulla oblongata C) Alveoli D) Hypothalamus 2069) Cathy develops a tumor in her brainstem that puts pressure on the respiratory centers. Her

doctor notices that control of her diaphragm is abnormal and irregular movements occur during inspiration. Responses to sensory input are delayed and abnormal. The tumor must be putting pressure on what specific respiratory center?

A) The dorsal respiratory group B) The ventral respiratory group C) The pontine respiratory group D) The cardiac center 2070) "I'm going to hold my breath until I die and it will be all your fault!" shrieked 6-year-old

Riley at her father. Why would she be unable to carry out her threat?

A) The diaphragm will begin to fatigue and will not be able to hold its contracted position for more than a short period of time.

B) Increased CO2 and hydrogen ion concentrations and decreased oxygen concentration stimulate her chemoreceptors, triggering inspiration.

C) Decreased CO2 and hydrogen ion concentrations and increased oxygen concentration stimulate her chemoreceptors, triggering inspiration.

D) The inflation reflex would not her allow to keep her lungs full of air for a prolonged period. The reflex would trigger inspiration.

2071) What is typically the underlying cause of adult sleep apnea?

A) Unresponsiveness of central chemoreceptors B) A deep sleep state in which respiration markedly slows C) Obstruction of upper airways D) Nasal congestion 2072) Receptors called __________ are located in the ventral part of the medulla oblongata

near the origin of the vagus nerve.

A) baroreceptors B) mechanoreceptors C) central chemoreceptors D) peripheral chemoreceptors

2073) Which of the following does not directly affect breathing rate?

A) Partial pressure of oxygen in body fluids B) Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in body fluids C) Degree of lung tissue stretch D) Size of residual volume 2074) A __________ is a condition in which air separates the visceral and parietal pleura in the

chest, resulting in a collapsed lung.

A) intrapleural pressure B) surfactant production C) serous fluid production D) pneumothorax 2075) What is the result of the peripheral chemoreceptors being stimulated and sending

impulses to the respiratory areas?

A) Increased respiratory rate B) Decreased respiratory rate C) Respiratory collapse D) Passive exhalation 2076) In order to stimulate the peripheral chemoreceptors, the partial pressure of oxygen needs

to drop to about __________ of normal.

A) 33% B) 50% C) 67% D) 80% +

2077) Why are the concentrations of CO2 and H more important to respiratory control than the

concentration of O2?

A) Both CO2 and H+ are much smaller than O2 molecules, allowing them easier access to the chemoreceptors. + B) Since carbon dioxide and hydrogen ion are transported in the blood as CO2 and H , and since O2 is bound to hemoglobin, the free CO2 and H+ are better able to stimulate chemoreceptors.

C) The oxygen levels remain high in the blood even after O2 delivery to tissues, so during normal functioning, O2 levels do not typically drop low enough to put the cells in danger.

D) Neither the peripheral or central chemoreceptors have receptor sites specific for O2.

2078) On a flight, your plane suddenly depressurizes at an altitude of 10,000 feet, causing the

PO2 inside the plane to drastically decrease. You pass out before you can put on your oxygen mask. After being exposed to these conditions for a time, your blood PO2 has dropped to 60 mmHg. How saturated will your hemoglobin be in these conditions (if the temperature remains around 38º C)?

A) About 60% saturated B) About 85% saturated C) About 90% saturated D) About 100% saturated 2079) The PO2 of systemic arterial blood is typically __________ and the PO2 of venous blood is

typically __________.

A) 40 mmHg; 95 mmHg B) 60 mmHg; 45 mmHg C) 95 mmHg; 40 mmHg D) 104 mmHg; 95 mmHg 2080) Which of the following has an effect on the pH of blood?

A) Oxygen B) Phosphate C) Carbon dioxide D) Nitrogen 2081) Where are the peripheral chemoreceptors located?

A) In the right and left atria B) In the medulla oblongata and pons C) In the aortic arch and carotid arteries D) In the right and left jugular veins 2082) Instead of using pure oxygen in a clinical situation, carbon dioxide is typically part of the

gas mixture used. What is the benefit of having carbon dioxide in this gas mixture?

A) It will increase the rate and decrease the depth of breathing.

B) It will increase the rate and depth of breathing.

C) It will decrease the rate and increase the depth of breathing.

D) It will decrease the rate and depth of breathing.

2083) What is the result of hyperventilation?

A) Decreased PCO2 and decreased pH B) Decreased PCO2 and increased pH C) Increased PCO2 and decreased pH D) Increased PCO2 and increased pH 2084) Max works out about an hour every day using machines at his gym. What changes occur

during his moderate physical exercise?

A) Breathing rate increases, PO2 and PCO2 both increase.

B) Breathing rate increases, and PO2 and PCO2 remain nearly unchanged.

C) Breathing rate increases, PO2 decreases, and PCO2 increases.

D) Breathing rate increases, PO2 increases, and PCO2 decreases.

2085) Increased blood concentration of carbon dioxide leads to a(n) __________ in levels of

hydrogen ions, with both causing similar effects at the respiratory areas.

A) increase B) decrease 2086) What type of tissue forms the walls of the alveoli?

A) Ciliated columnar epithelium B) Simple squamous epithelium C) Stratified squamous epithelium D) Areolar connective tissue 2087) What forms the respiratory membrane?

A) One layer of simple epithelium B) One layer of simple epithelium and a basement membrane C) Two layers of simple epithelium D) Two layers of simple epithelium and their basement membranes 2088) The presense of __________ in the alveoli ensure that particles brought in with inhaled

air are removed.

A) surfactant B) antibodies C) macrophages D) lymphocytes

2089) Differentiate between type I and type II cells of the lungs.

A) The type I cells secrete surfactant and the type II cells will give rise to bronchiolar

smooth muscle cells.

B) The type I cells form alveolar walls and the type II cells secrete surfactant.

C) Both type I and type II cells produce surfactant.

D) The type I cells produce cartilage for larger airways and the type II cells give rise to the ciliated cells lining the trachea.

2090) Police stop a very drunk Richard for driving erratically at 3 AM and give him a

breathalyzer test, which he fails miserably. Why does he fail so badly?

A) Alcohol molecules diffuse from his blood into the alveoli through the respiratory membrane, allowing them to become detectable by the machine.

B) The thickness of his respiratory membranes prevent alcohol from evaporating out of his blood.

C) Alcohol fumes originating from his stomach can be detected in his oral cavity as well.

D) Residual alcohol in his mouth is detected by the machine.

2091) Which of the following would cause the amount of oxygen released from oxyhemoglobin

to be increased?

A) Decreased blood PCO2 B) Increased blood PCO2 C) Decreased body temperature D) Increased blood pH 2092) The enzyme carbonic anhydrase catalyzes what reaction?

A) Carbon dioxide reaction with water B) Carbon dioxide reaction with bicarbonate ions C) Water reaction with bicarbonate ions D) Water reaction with hydrogen ions 2093) What protein can transport some of the carbon dioxide in the blood?

A) Hemoglobin B) Carbonic anhydrase C) Heme D) Albumin

2094) What is globin?

A) Another term for alveolus B) A carrier for carbon dioxide C) A molecule produced when CO2 combines with water D) The protein part of hemoglobin 2095) What is chloride shift?

A) An exchange that maintains the ionic balance between the red blood cells and the

plasma.

B) Movement of chloride across the respiratory membranes, decreasing oxygen delivery to tissues.

C) The type of reaction catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase.

D) Movement of chloride into cerebrospinal fluid, allowing its interaction with peripheral chemoreceptors.

2096) A mother and two young children are found passed out in their apartment, where a space

heater is on. Emergency medical technicians suspect carbon monoxide poisoning. Why is carbon monoxide dangerous?

A) It drastically decreases the pH of the blood.

B) It binds to the oxygen-binding site on hemoglobin, so the O2-carrying ability of the blood is reduced.

C) It causes extreme depression of the respiratory rate.

D) It triggers hyperventilation, causing a severe drop in PCO2 and increase in blood pH. 2097) Changes in the respiratory system that accompany aging include __________.

A) thinning mucus B) thickening of the alveolar walls C) overactive cilia D) slowed swallowing reflex 2098) Exposure to secondhand smoke can cause or increase the risk of developing __________.

A) high altitude sickness and sleep apnea B) heart disease and lung disease C) pneumonia and tuberculosis D) multiple sclerosis and vasculitis

2099) With smoking, what cell type typically undergoes changes, leading to the development of

lung cancer?

A) Epithelial cells B) Smooth muscle cells C) Dense connective tissue cells D) Hyaline cartilage cells 2100) Why are smokers more susceptible to respiratory infections?

A) They congregate in small areas to smoke, increasing their exposure to exhaled smoke.

B) Their respiratory passages overproduce cilia, to which bacteria cling.

C) Their respiratory passages lose cilia, which would otherwise remove bacteria.

D) Their respiratory passages have too little mucus and are unable to trap inhaled

particles.

2101) Which of the following occur with emphysema?

A) The walls of the alveoli degenerate, decreasing the surface area for gas exchange.

B) Cells in the bronchial lining divide too fast, causing increased thickness of the

bronchial lining.

C) Fluid accumulates in the interstitial spaces, resulting in a increased thickness of the respiratory membrane.

D) Additional respiratory membranes form within alveoli, increasing surface area for gas exchange.

2102) In October 2001 at the site of the World Trade Center in New York City, fires were still

burning from the terrorist attacks that had brought down the buildings on September 11.

What was the greatest danger for the respiratory systems of those people in the area?

A) The odor B) Very small particles of airborne debris C) Large particles of airborne debris D) Falling material from damaged buildings 2103) What is the usual cause of bronchial asthma?

A) An injury to the respiratory areas B) Coalescing of alveoli C) An allergy D) Paralysis of breathing muscles

2104) During an asthma attack, patients find it most difficult to __________.

A) exhale B) inhale C) contract the respiratory muscles D) expand the lungs 2105) Differentiate between minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation.

A) Minute ventilation is the volume of air moved into the respiratory passages each

minute. Alveolar ventilation is the volume of air that reaches the alveoli each minute.

B) Minute ventilation is the volume of air that reaches the alveoli each minute. Alveolar ventilation is the volume of air that moved into the respiratory passages each minute.

C) Minute ventilation is the number of breaths taken each minute. Alveolar ventilation is the amount of air in the alveoli each minute.

D) Minute ventilation is the volume of air moved into the upper respiratory tract each minute. Alveolar ventilation is the volume of air moved into the lower respiratory tract each minute.

2106) The volume of air called __________ is the portion of inhaled air that does not reach the

alveoli and, therefore, does not participate in gas exchange.

A) alveolar dead space B) anatomic dead space C) minute ventilation D) alveolar ventilation 2107) How is minute ventilation calculated?

A) Minute ventilation = total lung capacity - tidal volume B) Minute ventilation = tidal volume x breathing rate C) Minute ventilation = tidal volume - physiologic dead space D) Minute ventilation = tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume 2108) What respiratory volumes, when added together, equal the vital capacity?

A) VC = TV + IRV + ERV B) VC = TV + IRV C) VC = ERV + RV D) VC = IC + FRC

2109) What is atelectasis?

A) Collapsed bronchial tube B) Deviated septum C) Collapse of a lung or a region of a lung D) Blockage of respiratory passages due to accumulation of mucus 2110) How is oxygen transported in the blood?

A) 98% bound to hemoglobin; 2% dissolved in plasma B) 95% bound to hemoglobin; 3% bound to albumin; 2% dissolved in plasma C) 90% bound to hemoglobin; 10% dissolved in plasma D) 100% bound to hemoglobin 2111) How is carbon dioxide transported in the blood?

A) 70% transported as HCO3 ; 23% bound to hemoglobin; 7% dissolved in plasma B) 98% bound to hemoglobin; 2% transported as HCO3C) 50% transported as HCO3-; 25% bound to hemoglobin; 25% dissolved in plasma D) 95% transported as HCO3-; 3% bound to hemoglobin; 2% dissolved in plasma

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

2112) The bronchus and blood vessels enter a lung through an area called the __________.

2113) The large cartilage at the front of the larynx is called the __________ cartilage.

2114) The __________ is the cartilaginous structure at the base of the tongue that helps to

prevent food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing.

2115) One day, Julien is stung by a bee and has a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis). His

throat swells and he has difficulty breathing. At the emergency room, physicians perform an emergency surgery that allows him to breathe even though his throat is closed. The doctors perform a procedure called a(n) __________.

2116) The layer of serous membrane that is firmly attached to the surface of a lung is called the

__________.

2117) The ease with which the lungs can be expanded during breathing is called __________.

2118) The surface tension within the alveoli is reduced by the presence of __________.

2119) The breathing pattern called __________ results in a drop in blood PCO2 and an increase

in pH. 2120) In a mixture of gases, each gas creates a pressure called its __________ pressure.

2121) The cells of an alveolus that secrete surfactant are called type __________ cells.

2122) Carbon dioxide combines with __________ to form carbonic acid.

2123) The PCO2 of blood in pulmonary venules is __________ mmHg.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 19 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) C 18) B 19) D 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) A 24) B 25) B 26) D 27) A 28) A 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) D 35) A 36) A 37) C

38) A 39) B 40) D 41) B 42) A 43) D 44) C 45) B 46) C 47) C 48) A 49) D 50) A 51) D 52) B 53) A 54) B 55) C 56) C 57) D 58) D 59) A 60) B 61) C 62) C 63) C 64) C 65) C 66) B 67) B 68) B 69) A 70) B 71) D 72) C 73) B 74) A 75) B 76) A 77) A

78) D 79) A 80) B 81) D 82) B 83) A 84) C 85) A 86) B 87) C 88) A 89) A 90) B 91) B 92) A 93) C 94) A 95) A 96) hilum 97) thyroid 98) epiglottis 99) tracheostomy 100) visceral pleura 101) compliance 102) surfactant 103) hyperventilation 104) partial 105) II 106) water 107) 40

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

2124) The glomerular capsule is composed of two layers of squamous epithelial cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2125) The efferent arteriole supplies blood to the capillaries of the glomerulus. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2126) Sympathetic nerve impulses usually cause proportional degrees of vasodilation in the

afferent and efferent arterioles. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2127) At rest, the kidneys receive about a quarter of the blood coming from the heart. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2128) Glomerular filtrate is similar to tissue fluid in composition. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2129) If the osmotic pressure of the blood is decreased, the glomerular filtration rate is

increased. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2130) The glomerular filtrate in the proximal tubule is isotonic to the plasma of the peritubular

capillary. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2131) When the concentration of water in body fluids increases, the secretion of ADH

increases. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2132) Glomerular filtration produces about 18 liters of fluid in twenty-four hours. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2133) Active transport mechanisms have limited transport capacities because the renal tubule is

not very permeable to molecules. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2134) Many hydrogen ions are secreted into filtrate in the nephron loop. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2135) An increase in sodium reabsorption increases water reabsorption by actively transporting

water into the blood. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2136) ADH increases reabsorption of water by increasing the permeability of the distal tubules

and collecting ducts. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2137) Inulin clearance measures the rate of glomerular filtration. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2138) Inulin and para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) can be used to determine glomerular filtration

rate and the rate of blood flow through the kidneys, respectively. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2139) Peristaltic waves force urine along the length of the ureter. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2140) The urinary bladder is superior to the parietal peritoneum. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2141) The kidneys play an important role in the regulation of red blood cell production. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2142) During prolonged fasting, the kidneys produce glucose from noncarbohydrate sources. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

2143) Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys?

A) Maintaining volume, pH, and composition of body fluids within normal ranges B) Removal of excess chemicals C) Removal of metabolic wastes D) Synthesis of plasma proteins 2144) What are the organs of the urinary system?

A) The renal cortex, renal pelvis, and renal medulla.

B) The glomerular capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, the nephron loop, distal

convoluted tubule, and the collecting duct.

C) The major and minor calyces, renal pelvis, and renal sinus.

D) The paired kidneys, paired ureters, a bladder and a urethra.

2145) Which of the following chemicals might athletes abuse because of its potential ability to

improve performance by increasing red blood cell production?

A) ADH B) Erythropoietin (EPO) C) Aldosterone D) Urea 2146) Where are the paired kidneys located?

A) In front of the stomach B) Behind the parietal peritoneum C) On either side of the urinary bladder D) Against the anterior wall of the abdominal cavity 2147) The renal corpuscle includes what two structures?

A) Glomerulus and glomerular capsule B) Glomerulus and renal tubule C) Glomerular capsule and renal tubule D) Renal tubule and collecting tubule

2148) What is the correct sequence of renal tubule segments through which filtrate would flow?

A) Proximal tubule, ascending limb of nephron loop, descending limb of nephron loop,

distal tubule B) Distal tubule, ascending limb of nephron loop, descending limb of nephron loop, proximal tubule C) Proximal tubule, descending limb of nephron loop, ascending limb of nephron loop, distal tubule D) Collecting duct, proximal tubule, descending limb of nephron loop, ascending limb of nephron loop, distal tubule 2149) What is the sequence of blood flow through the kidneys?

A) Renal artery, afferent arterioles, arcuate arteries, cortical radiate arteries, glomerular

capillaries, peritubular capillaries, cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, efferent arterioles, renal vein B) Renal artery, arcuate arteries, cortical radiate arteries, afferent arterioles, glomerular capillaries, efferent arterioles, peritubular capillaries, cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, renal vein C) Interlobar artery, renal artery, arcuate arteries, cortical radiate arteries, afferent arterioles, glomerular capillaries, peritubular capillaries, efferent arterioles, cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, renal vein D) Renal artery, afferent arterioles, cortical radiate arteries, arcuate arteries, glomerular capillaries, efferent arterioles, peritubular capillaries, arcuate veins, cortical radiate veins, renal vein 2150) A nephron consists of what structures?

A) A renal corpuscle and a renal tubule B) An afferent and efferent arteriole C) A cortex and a medulla D) A bladder and a ureter 2151) The renal medulla contains __________, whereas the renal cortex contains __________.

A) renal pyramids; ureters from nephrons B) renal columns; renal pyramids and nephrons C) renal corpuscles; nephron loops D) renal pyramids; renal corpuscles

2152) A renal corpuscle is a __________, whereas a renal tubule is a __________.

A) cluster of blood capillaries and glomerular capsule; highly coiled tubule exiting the

glomerular capsule B) special blood cell in the kidneys; tubule that leads from the kidneys to the bladder C) storage area for urine; tubule that carries urine from the urinary bladder outside D) glandular structure that regulates blood pressure; blood vessel that regulates the flow of blood into the glomerulus 2153) Podocytes and pedicels are associated with what structure?

A) Collecting duct B) Distal tubule C) Glomerular capsule D) Peritubular capillaries 2154) The first capillary bed associated with the nephron allows for __________.

A) the filtration of blood B) the reabsorbtion of nutrients C) the adjustment of blood pH D) the reversal of blood flow 2155) Once in the glomerular capsule, the filtrate then moves into the __________.

A) renal pelvis B) minor calyx C) renal tubule D) ureter 2156) You are dissecting a kidney in class and, after cutting a sagittal section through the

kidney, decide to remove some of the lighter-colored inner structures near the superior end of the ureter. You remove a funnel-shaped sac that connects directly into the ureter, along with many tubes that converge to form the funnel-shaped sac. Which structures have you removed?

A) Renal medulla and renal pyramids B) Renal pelvis and the calyces C) Renal cortex and the renal medulla D) Adrenal glands

2157) You are doing a dissection in class. You need to cut open a kidney, but first you must

remove a tough, fibrous membrane covering it. What is this structure?

A) Renal medulla B) Major calyx C) Renal cortex D) Renal capsule 2158) The reabsorption of glucose occurs primarily through the walls of the __________.

A) glomerular capsule B) nephron loop C) proximal tubule D) distal tubule 2159) What occurs when plasma glucose concentration exceeds the renal plasma threshold?

A) The glomerular filtration rate increases B) The volume of urine decreases C) Glucose is secreted into the peritubular capillary.

D) Glucose appears in the urine.

2160) When sodium ions are reabsorbed through the wall of the renal tubule by active transport,

chloride ions are __________.

A) reabsorbed by active transport B) reabsorbed by passive transport C) secreted by active transport D) secreted by passive transport 2161) The countercurrent mechanism functions primarily in the __________.

A) renal corpuscle B) proximal tubule C) distal tubule D) nephron loop 2162) What would be the likely outcome if tubular reabsorption in the nephron did not occur?

A) Accumulation of toxic waste B) Excessive loss of fluids C) Cessation of urination D) Excessive retention of electrolytes and glucose

2163) The hormone ADH promotes water reabsorption through the wall(s) of the __________.

A) distal tubule and collecting duct B) proximal tubule and collecting duct C) ascending limb of the nephron loop D) descending limb of the nephron loop 2164) How and where are hydrogen ions secreted?

A) Passively into the proximal tubule B) Passively from the distal tubule C) Actively into the entire renal tubule D) Actively from the distal tubule 2165) Which of the following would increase the rate of glomerular filtration?

A) Decreased blood pressure B) Increased blood pressure C) Constriction of the afferent arteriole D) Dilation of the efferent arteriole 2166) The efferent arteriole is stimulated to vasoconstrict. What effect will this have on

glomerular filtration rate?

A) Glomerular filtration rate will increase.

B) Glomerular filtration rate will decrease.

C) Glomerular filtration will stop.

2167) A dye (with small, water-soluble particles) is injected into the renal artery and blood is

then pumped artificially. A glomerulus and surrounding structures are then inspected for dye.

Which structures and substances will contain dye?

A) Afferent arteriole only B) Afferent arteriole, glomerular capsule, and efferent arteriole only C) Afferent arteriole, glomerular capsule, efferent arteriole, and urine D) Afferent arteriole, glomerular capsule, and urine only 2168) In which region of the nephron is water actively transported across the membrane?

A) B) C) D)

Proximal tubule Descending limb of the nephron loop Glomerular capsule Collecting duct

2169) Liam is a body builder and frequently consumes protein powder as part of his fitness

regimen. He consumes more protein than his body actually uses. What happens to the excess protein?

A) It is filtered through the glomerular capillary into the glomerular capsule and into the nephron, where it is finally excreted in the urine.

B) It is broken down into urea by the liver, which is then filtered into the glomerular capsule as well as secreted elsewhere in the nephron.

C) The large proteins are secreted into the distal tubule by tubular secretion.

D) It is stored in adipocytes after being converted into fats.

2170) Which of the following is a normal constituent of urine?

A) Glucose B) Creatinine C) Large proteins D) Blood 2171) Which choice describes the countercurrent mechanism of the nephron loop?

A) Water moves out of the ascending limb; sodium moves into the ascending limb B) Water moves into the ascending limb; sodium moves out of the ascending limb C) Water moves out of the descending limb; sodium moves out of the ascending limb D) Water moves into the descending limb; sodium moves out of the descending limb 2172) Barbara has a condition called gout. The inflammation and pain in her joints is due to

excess __________ in her plasma, which leads to crystal deposits in her great toe joint.

A) uric acid B) urea C) calcium ions D) amino acids 2173) As a result of very low arterial blood pressure, glomerular hydrostatic pressure

__________ and filtration rate __________.

A) decreases; increases B) decreases; decreases C) increases; decreases D) increases; increases

2174) What is the function of the countercurrent mechanism in the nephron?

A) It creates a highly concentrated interstitial fluid so that urine can be concentrated by

the collecting ducts.

B) It is a method to transport sodium in order to control sodium concentration in the blood.

C) It keeps the volume of water lost in the urine relatively constant.

D) It keeps interstitial fluid hydrated to maintain blood pressure.

2175) A fetus develops without macula densa in its nephrons. Which of the following will occur

as a result?

A) Loss of the ability to detect sodium, potassium, and chloride ions in the nephron loop and to secrete renin in response.

B) Loss of renin secretion in response low blood pressure conditions.

C) Loss of the ability of fluid to pass from the glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule.

D) Loss of the ability to convert angiotensin I into angiotensin II. 2176) Aldosterone from the adrenal cortex causes sodium ions to be __________ and potassium

ions to be __________.

A) excreted; conserved B) excreted; excreted C) conserved; conserved D) conserved; excreted 2177) What is renal clearance?

A) The rate at which water is excreted B) The rate at which ions are reabsorbed C) The rate at which substance are removed from the blood D) The rate at which substances are added to the blood 2178) An increase in glomerular osmotic pressure __________ the rate of glomerular filtration.

A) increases B) decreases C) does not change D) has a variable effect on

2179) What change in vessel diameter can result in an increase in the glomerular filtration rate?

A) Vasodilation of the efferent arteriole.

B) Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole only.

C) Both vasodilation and vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole.

D) Both vasodilation of the afferent arteriole and vasoconstriction of the efferent

arteriole.

2180) The juxtaglomerular apparatus regulates the filtration rate by __________.

A) causing vasodilation of the peritubular capillaries B) causing vasoconstriction of the peritubular capillaries C) causing vasoconstriction of both the afferent and efferent arterioles D) causing increased osmotic pressure in the glomerular capsule 2181) What is an adaptation of the epithelial cells of the proximal tubule that enhances

reabsorption?

A) Thin walls B) Rugae folds C) Secrete enzymes that activate absorption of substances D) Microscopic projections called microvilli 2182) A decrease in the glomerular capsule hydrostatic pressure will __________ the rate of

glomerular filtration.

A) increase B) decrease C) not change D) have a variable effect on 2183) How does the composition of glomerular filtrate differ from that of plasma?

A) Filtrate contains many substances that are not present in plasma.

B) Filtrate contains most of the same substances as plasma except for larger protein

molecules.

C) Filtrate has less water and fewer electrolytes than plasma.

D) Filtrate has more uric acid and creatinine than plasma.

2184) Choose the glomerular filtrate list that would indicate an improperly functioning

glomerular filtration system.

A) Phosphate, potassium, sodium, water B) Uric acid, creatinine, phosphate, sodium C) Water, large proteins, glucose, potassium D) Glucose, amino acids, creatine, urea, bicarbonate

2185) Certain substances, like caffeine and citrus juices, are classified as diuretics. This means

that they cause diuresis in the kidneys. What effect will diuretics have on the urinary system?

A) They increase volume of urine excreted.

B) They decrease volume of urine excreted.

C) They increase amount of urea produced.

D) They decrease GFR. 2186) Glomerular filtration produces about __________ liters of fluid in twenty-four hours.

A) 40 B) 96 C) 144 D) 180 2187) About how many liters of fluid will an average adult filter through both kidneys in two

days?

A) B) C) D)

180 250 360 540

2188) If glucose is not reabsorbed from the tubular fluid, __________ increases.

A) hydrostatic pressure B) glomerular filtration rate C) sodium reabsorption D) the osmotic pressure 2189) Water channels in cell membranes formed by __________ are a result of ADH signaling

in the kidneys.

A) podocytes B) cytopores C) aquaporins D) pyrogens 2190) What is a by-product of amino acid catabolism in the liver?

A) Uric acid B) Urea C) Hydrochloric acid D) Water

2191) What is the product of the metabolism of certain nucleic acid bases?

A) Uric acid B) Urea C) Ammonia D) Water 2192) Up to __________ of urea in tubular fluid is reabsorbed in the collecting ducts, only to be

secreted into the ascending limb.

A) 33% B) 55% C) 80% D) 100% 2193) The relative concentration of potassium is __________ in urine than in plasma or

glomerular filtrate.

A) higher B) lower C) about equal 2194) An antibiotic is circulating through the blood when it passes through the kidneys. Only a

miniscule amount of it passes through the glomerular capillaries and enters the glomerular filtrate. However, large quantities of the antibiotics are detected in the urine. How is this possible?

A) Reabsorption of water into the peritubular capillaries passively encourages the molecules of antibiotic to cross the membrane in the opposite direction.

B) Nervous stimulation causes the efferent arteriole to constrict which forces the antibiotic through the glomerular capillary into the filtrate.

C) The antibiotic is actively secreted into the proximal tubule.

D) Reabsorption of sodium ions from the proximal tubule into the peritubular capillaries increases osmotic pressure of the filtrate, drawing antibiotic molecules into the filtrate.

2195) What is the effect of secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide?

A) Decreased sodium excretion B) Increased sodium excretion C) Decreased potassium excretion D) Increased potassium excretion

2196) What does autoregulation refer to?

A) Maintenance of a constant glomerular filtration rate.

B) Secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide at a constant rate.

C) Secretion of renin at the rate needed to maintain blood pressure.

D) Regulation of kidneys by the parasympathetic nervous system.

2197) What is the renal plasma threshold?

A) The plasma glucose concentration that results in a glucose level in the filtrate that

exceeds the ability of renal tubules to reabsorb it.

B) The plasma glucose concentration at which no glucose is filtered.

C) The plasma glucose concentration at which no glucose is excreted in the urine.

D) The plasma glucose concentration that results in an increase in the secretion of glucose into tubular filtrate.

2198) Marvin goes on vacation to Maine and for a week eats nothing but seafood. The next

week, he experiences intense pain in his big toe. What is likely Marvin's problem?

A) Balkan endemic nephropathy B) Diuresis C) Edema D) Gout 2199) Extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy is used to treat __________.

A) kidney failure B) a urinary tract infection C) kidney stones D) gout 2200) What are the layers of a ureter?

A) Inner mucous coat, middle muscular coat, outer fibrous coat B) Inner fibrous coat, middle muscular coat, outer mucous coat C) Inner muscular coat, middle fibrous coat, outer inner mucous coat D) Inner vascular coat, middle neural coat, outer mucous coat 2201) The __________ is the tube that conveys urine outside the body.

A) ureter B) urethra C) collecting duct D) nephron loop

2202) The ureter extends downward __________ the parietal peritoneum and joins the urinary

bladder from __________.

A) behind; above B) behind; below C) in front of; above D) in front; below 2203) Where is the micturition reflex center?

A) In the sacral segments of the spinal cord B) In the medulla oblongata C) In the cerebrum D) In the hypothalamus 2204) Which of the following is found within the shaft of the penis?

A) Prostatic urethra B) Membranous urethra C) Ductus deferens D) Spongy urethra 2205) What is the trigone?

A) A group of three neighboring nephrons in a kidney.

B) A triangular area on the floor of the urinary bladder.

C) A region where the glomerulus meets the glomerular capsule.

D) A muscle layer that surrounds each kidney.

2206) What organ contains the detrusor muscle?

A) Ureter B) Urethra C) Kidneys D) Urinary bladder 2207) Which of the following correctly lists the order of structures through which urine flows

after its formation in the nephron?

A) Calyx, renal pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra B) Renal pelvis, calyx, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra C) Calyx, renal pelvis, urethra, ureter, urinary bladder D) Renal pelvis, calyx, urinary bladder, ureter, urethra

2208) Conscious control of micturition inhibits the micturition reflex by using nerve centers in

the __________.

A) medulla oblongata B) spinal cord C) brainstem and cerebral cortex D) pons and hypothalamus 2209) What is nocturnal enuresis?

A) An infection B) Bedwetting C) Kidney stones D) A form of kidney cancer 2210) What is the voluntary component of micturition?

A) Contraction of the detrusor muscle B) Relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter C) Relaxation of the external urethral sphincter D) Contraction of the urethra 2211) Why are females are at higher risk of contracting a urinary tract infection?

A) The female urethra is shorter than the male's.

B) The female urethra is longer than the male's.

C) Women sit down to urinate.

D) Women use toilet paper after they urinate.

2212) Kidney Stones Are Least Likely to Be Composed of __________.

A) nucleic acid byproducts B) calcium oxalate C) cholesterol D) magnesium phosphate 2213) Kidney cells die as early as age __________.

A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50

2214) Kidney shrinkage with age is due to __________.

A) spooling of collecting ducts B) loss of glomeruli C) merging of proximal and distal tubules D) proliferating nephron loops 2215) As a 20-year-old, Karl had his GFR measured by a urologist and found that it was 125

mL/minute. Now as Karl approaches 75 years old, he can expect that number to be reduced __________.

A) by a quarter B) by a third C) by half or more D) by a fifth 2216) A 60-year-old male begins to notice that he can’t control his bladder as efficiently lately.

Leakage of urine is starting to become common. What might be the cause of the urinary incontinence?

A) Enlarged kidneys B) An enlarged prostate C) Vitamin D deficiency D) Damaged nephrons 2217) One concern with certain antibiotics is how quickly they are actively secreted into renal

tubules and then excreted. Would you expect an older individual to have this same problem with antibiotics?

A) No. After a certain age, active transport of drugs and other substances completely stops.

B) No. During the process of aging, tubular functions like secretion become less efficient, so antibiotics will stay in the system longer than usual.

C) Yes. Aging doesn’t really affect tubular secretion as much as it affects the other functions of the kidneys.

D) Yes. Aging causes renal processing to become unusually fast, with many substances being excessively excreted.

2218) Which of the following does not occur with aging of the urinary system?

A) Glomerular filtration rate decreases.

B) Renal tubules become encased in fat.

C) Fibrous connective tissue accumulates around the kidney capsule.

D) Nephrons merge together.

2219) Glomerulonephritis is inflammation of the __________.

A) glomerular capsule B) peritubular capillaries C) glomerular capillaries D) collecting ducts 2220) What does hemodialysis involve?

A) An artificial kidney B) An artificial liver C) A kidney transplant D) A bone marrow transplant 2221) During a kidney transplant procedure, the renal artery and vein of the donor kidney are

connected to the recipient's _________.

A) renal artery and vein B) iliac artery and vein C) aorta and inferior vena cava D) aorta and portal vein 2222) As a consequence of widespread edema associated with nephrotic syndrome, blood

volume __________ and blood pressure __________.

A) increases; decreases B) decreases; decreases C) increases; increases D) decreases; increases 2223) The new parents are stunned at the state of their newborn's soiled diaper—it is blue! What

might be the cause of the odd diaper stain?

A) ADH deficiency B) A defect in transport of the amino acid tryptophan in the small intestine C) A buildup of uric acid in the blood D) E. coli poisoning 2224) Brian became dehydrated after a long run in the hot summer sun because he did not drink

enough water. What will be the volume and concentration of his urine?

A) Small amount of concentrated urine B) Small amount of diluted urine C) Large amount of concentrated urine D) Large amount of diluted urine

2225) What is a function of the kindeys?

A) Synthesis of vitamin D B) Regulation of blood-glucose levels C) Excretion of carbon dioxide D) Regulation of lymphocyte production 2226) Afferent arterioles are branches of the __________.

A) renal arteries B) arcuate arteries C) cortical radiate arteries D) efferent arterioles 2227) Blood flows from the efferent arterioles into the __________.

A) renal arteries B) peritubular capillaries C) arcuate arteries D) glomerular capillaries

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

2228) Nephrons whose corpuscles are near the renal medulla are called __________ nephrons.

2229) The juxtaglomerular apparatus consists of the juxtaglomerular cells and the cells of the

__________.

2230) During urine formation, some substances move from the peritubular capillaries into the

renal tubules by the urinary process called __________.

2231) Water is reabsorbed throughout most of the renal tubule by the process of __________.

2232) Proteins of smaller molecular size may be reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by the

specific transport process of __________.

2233) Liam is a bodybuilder and frequently consumes protein powder as part of his fitness

regimen. Lenny is on the Zone diet and carefully watches how much protein he eats, making sure to limit his intake. Which person will have more urea in their urine?

2234) Cells in the __________ produce ADH. 2235) Uric acid results from the metabolism of __________.

2236) If a ureter is obstructed, a __________ reflex reduces urine production in the kidney on

the affected side.

2237) The triangular area on the internal floor of the urinary bladder is the __________.

2238) The tubular organ that transports urine from a kidney to the urinary bladder is called a(n)

_________.

2239) The tuft of capillaries located between the afferent and efferent arterioles is the

__________.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 20 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) D 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) B 27) A 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) D 37) B

38) D 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) B 43) A 44) C 45) D 46) B 47) B 48) C 49) A 50) B 51) A 52) A 53) D 54) C 55) B 56) D 57) C 58) D 59) A 60) B 61) C 62) A 63) D 64) C 65) D 66) C 67) B 68) A 69) C 70) A 71) C 72) B 73) A 74) A 75) D 76) C 77) A

78) B 79) B 80) A 81) D 82) B 83) D 84) A 85) C 86) B 87) C 88) A 89) C 90) A 91) B 92) C 93) B 94) B 95) D 96) C 97) A 98) B 99) B 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108) 109) 110) 111) 112) 113) 114) 115) 116)

B A A C B juxtamedullary macula densa secretion osmosis endocytosis Liam hypothalamus nucleic acids sympathetic trigone ureter glomerulus

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

2240) Factors that alter water balance will also alter electrolyte balance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2241) In a healthy body, the volume of water remains relatively stable at all times. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2242) Normally, fluid enters the lymphatic capillaries as a result of active transport. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2243) The thirst mechanism is usually not triggered until the volume of the body water has been

decreased by 5–10%. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2244) Antidiuretic hormone is released in response to a decrease in the osmotic pressure of

blood. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2245) The greatest output of electrolytes normally is in urine. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2246) Parathyroid hormone increases phosphate reabsorption from the renal tubules. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2247) Sometimes the carboxyl groups of proteins release hydrogen ions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2248) The kidneys help to regulate the hydrogen ion concentration of body fluids by altering the

rate at which hydrogen ions are secreted. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2249) When proteins can acts as buffers, their -COOH groups can accept H+ in the presence of

excess acid, and their -NH3 groups can release H+ in the presence of excess base. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2250) Chemical buffer systems act rapidly against shifts in pH, whereas physiological buffer

systems function more slowly. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2251) A blood pH of 7.2 inhibits the respiratory center in the brainstem and decreases CO2

level. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2252) Hyperventilating during an anxiety attack can lead to respiratory acidosis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

2253) Why are water balance and electrolyte balance considered to be interdependent?

A) Because water dissolves in electrolytes B) Because water and electrolytes are both in an ionic state in the blood C) Because both form ions in blood D) Because electrolytes are dissolved in water 2254) Which of the following is a type of transcellular fluid?

A) Cerebrospinal fluid B) Interstitial fluid C) Blood plasma D) Cytoplasm

2255) Compared to the body of an average adult male, the body of an average adult female will

have __________.

A) more water and more adipose tissue B) more water and less adipose tissue C) less water and more adipose tissue D) less water and less adipose tissue 2256) Which of the following would have a low water content?

A) The intracellular environment B) Adipose tissue C) The biceps brachii muscle D) The vitreous humor of the eye 2257) In terms of electrolyte concentrations, how does extracellular fluid compare to

intracellular fluid?

A) ECF has higher sodium and lower potassium ion concentrations.

B) ECF has higher sodium and higher potassium ion concentrations.

C) ECF has lower sodium and lower potassium ion concentrations.

D) ECF has lower sodium and higher potassium ion concentrations.

2258) One mole of the carbohydrate sucrose and two moles of the electrolyte potassium

chloride (KCl) are placed in one liter of water. After dissolution of the particles, what is the osmolarity of the solution?

A) Three osmoles per liter B) Four osmoles per liter C) Five osmoles per liter D) Six osmoles per liter 2259) High concentrations of __________ are found in intracellular fluid.

A) chloride and potassium ions B) sodium and phosphate ions C) potassium and phosphate ions D) sodium and chloride ions 2260) What factors are most important in influencing the movement of fluid between

compartments?

A) Diffusion and osmosis B) Hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure C) Pinocytosis and phagocytosis D) Active and passive transport

2261) The body of an average adult male is about __________ water by weight.

A) 35% B) 45% C) 55% D) 65% 2262) What is the largest compartment of extracellular fluid?

A) Plasma B) Lymph C) Interstitial fluid D) Transcellular fluid 2263) What is the ratio of intracellular to extracellular fluids in the body of an average male?

A) 1:1 B) 1:2 C) 2:1 D) 3:2 2264) Since hydrostatic pressure in cells and in the surrounding interstitial fluid is typically

equal, what is the cause of fluid movement between these two compartments?

A) Active transport B) Osmotic pressure C) Filtration pressure D) Pinocytosis 2265) Jon has a condition in which he never feels thirsty even though he is frequently

dehydrated. His doctor suspects that the problem is with the area of the brain that monitors blood osmolarity. What area of the brain will the doctor want to have imaged?

A) Thalamus B) Hypothalamus C) Midbrain D) Medulla oblongata 2266) Lara had a procedure in which a gastric band was placed around her stomach, reducing

the volume that the stomach could hold. How will this affect her thirst?

A) She would be more thirsty all of the time.

B) No aspect of her thirst mechanism is altered.

C) Less water intake is needed to satisfy her thirst.

D) She will continue to be thirsty after drinking.

2267) Marielle is very thirsty following her tennis game. She drinks for a few minutes, then

stops. What is the stimulus for her to stop drinking?

A) Distension of her stomach B) Hormones secreted by stomach cells C) Changes in intracellular fluid concentration D) Changes in extracellular fluid concentration 2268) On average, an individual will drink enough fluids to take in __________ milliliters of

water per day.

A) 500 B) 1,000 C) 1,500 D) 2,500 2269) What is metabolic water?

A) Water that a person drinks after exercising B) Water that is in food C) A by-product of the oxidative metabolism of nutrients D) Water consumed in beverages 2270) The thirst center in the hypothalamus is stimulated by __________ of the extracellular

fluid, and is inhibited by __________.

A) an increase in the osmotic pressure; distension of the stomach by water B) a decrease in the osmotic pressure; stimulation of osmoreceptors C) a decrease in sodium ions; an increase in sodium ions D) nerve impulses from the cerebrum; nerve impulses from the thalamus 2271) How does ADH in the blood influence water output?

A) The glomerular filtration rate is altered.

B) The amount of water reabsorbed at the nephron loops is altered.

C) The amount of water reabsorbed at the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts

is altered.

D) The amount of sodium ions reabsorbed by the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts is altered.

2272) A decrease in total body water of only __________ will trigger thirst.

A) 1% B) 10% C) 25% D) 58%

2273) Heather donated the maximum allowed amount of blood at a blood drive, which is

around 10% of her total blood volume. How will this affect her thirst mechanism?

A) Distension of her stomach due to blood loss will trigger thirst.

B) Her loss of blood volume will stimulate stretch receptors in the cardiovascular system which stimulate the thirst center and make her feel thirsty.

C) Her loss of blood volume will stimulate stretch receptors in the cardiovascular system which inhibit signalling to the thirst center, reducing her sense of thirst.

D) The renin-angiotensin system will release hormones that suppress the thirst center.

2274) By what route would a person in a moderate environment lose the greatest volume of

water?

A) B) C) D)

Sweat Breathing Feces Urine

2275) Today, Carson has consumed about 1,800 mL of water in total. He is concerned that he is

not meeting the recommended levels of daily water intake. What might he do to make sure he reaches his goal?

A) Try not to urinate that day B) Eat food containing at least 750mL of water C) Stay out of the sun and don’t sweat at all D) Drink another 200mL of water 2276) What is an effect of drinking too much water?

A) Osmoreceptors gain water and swell; ADH release is stimulated.

B) Osmoreceptors gain water and swell; ADH release is inhibited.

C) Osmoreceptors lose water and shrink; ADH release is stimulated.

D) Osmoreceptors lose water and shrink; ADH release is inhibited.

2277) Why does drinking alcohol increase the volume of urine produced?

A) Alcohol inhibits ADH release.

B) Alcohol stimulates aldosterone release.

C) Alcohol directly acts on proximal convoluted tubules to increase sodium

reabsorption.

D) Alcohol blocks the action of atrial natriuretic peptide.

2278) How does activation of the renin-angiotensin system affect electrolyte balance?

A) It stimulates release of aldosterone, which alters the handling of sodium and

potassium by the kidneys.

B) It stimulates the release of antidiuretic hormone, which alters the handling of sodium and potassium by the kidneys.

C) It directly stimulates the absorption of calcium from the small intestines and the reabsorption of calcium from kidney tubules.

D) It enhances thirst, altering total body water content which, in turn, alters electrolyte concentrations in the ECF. 2279) What is the action of the hormone aldosterone?

A) Increased reabsorption of sodium ions from kidney tubules B) Increased secretion of calcium ions into kidney tubules C) Increased kidney tubule permeability to water D) Increased reabsorption of potassium from kidney tubules 2280) What is a stimulus for release of aldosterone?

A) Increasing potassium ion concentration B) Increasing blood osmolarity C) Increasing sodium ion concentration D) Increasing calcium ion concentration 2281) In response to the action of __________, sodium ions are conserved and potassium ions

are excreted in the urine.

A) atrial natriuretic peptide B) angiotensin C) aldosterone D) antidiuretic hormone 2282) Which of the following would be most helpful in treating hypocalcemia?

A) Removing the parathyroid glands B) Ingesting calcium salts and high doses of vitamin D C) Stimulating calcium excretion by the kidneys D) Avoiding foods that are high in calcium

2283) A growing child develops overactive parathyroid glands, leading to chronic

hypercalcemia. Which of the following is most likely a symptom the child will experience?

A) Stunted growth due to constant osteoclast stimulation B) Cardiac arrhythmia caused by lack of calcium C) High concentration of calcium excreted in the urine D) High plasma phosphate concentration 2284) Which of the following processes releases hydrogen ions into body fluids?

A) Respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis B) Aerobic respiration of glucose C) Production of carbonic acid D) Conversion of monohydrogen phosphate ions to dihydrogen phosphate 2285) How do buffer systems minimize pH changes?

A) By converting weak acids to strong acids B) By converting strong acids to weak acids C) By increasing breathing rate D) By promoting the excretion of hydrogen ions 2286) Increased carbon dioxide production is associated with a(n) __________ in fluid pH. A) decrease B) increase 2287) Which of the following is a physiological buffer?

A) Bicarbonate buffer B) Phosphate buffer C) Protein buffer D) Renal mechanism 2288) What components of amino acids are important in the protein buffer system?

A) Amino groups and R groups B) Amino and carboxyl groups C) Monocarbonate and bicarbonate groups D) Monohydrogen phosphate and dihydrogen phosphate groups 2289) Which of the following will cause the respiratory center to increase the breathing rate?

A) Decrease in plasma concentration of carbonic acid B) Decrease in plasma pH C) Increase in plasma osmolarity D) Increase in plasma concentration of bicarbonate ion

2290) Why are the chemical buffers considered the first line of defense against shifts in pH? A) They have fewer components than other regulators of pH. B) They are slow to react and have prolonged effects.

C) They occur in everyone.

D) They can rapidly correct pH change.

2291) How does the respiratory system function as a physiological buffer?

A) By changing breathing rate, the PO2 of the blood is changed, which helps to

reestablish a normal pH. B) By changing breathing rate, the PCO2 of the blood is changed, leading to a change in blood pH. C) By changing breathing rate, the amount of hydrogen ion expelled via the exhaled air can be changed. This will alter blood pH. D) By changing breathing rate, the amount of bicarbonate ion expelled via the exhaled air can be changed. This will alter blood pH. 2292) What blood pH occurs with the condition called acidosis?

A) above 7.45 B) 7.35 to 7.45 C) below 7.35 2293) What blood pH occurs with the condition called alkalosis?

A) Above 7.45 B) 7.35 to 7.45 C) Below 7.35 2294) How is a strong acid different from a weak acid?

A) Strong acids ionize more completely than weak acids.

B) Stong acids release hydrogen ions into solution; weak acids release hydroxide ions

(OH-).

C) Stong acids release hydroxide ions (OH-) into solution; weak acids release hydrogen ions.

D) Strong acids partially ionize; weak acids ionize more completely.

2295) Prolonged vomiting of stomach contents can lead to __________.

A) metabolic alkalosis B) metabolic acidosis C) respiratory alkalosis D) respiratory acidosis

2296) What acid-base imbalance results from hyperventilation?

A) Respiratory acidosis B) Respiratory alkalosis C) Metabolic acidosis D) Metabolic alkalosis 2297) What is meant by the phrase acid-base balance?

A) Maintenance of the correct amount of bicarbonate ion in the blood B) Maintenance of the correct amount of carbonic acid in the blood C) Maintenance of the correct amount of hydrogen ion in the blood D) Maintenance of the correct amount of carbon dioxide in the blood 2298) In diabetes mellitus, fatty acids may be incompletely oxidized, leading to the formation

of ketone bodies. The accumulation of ketone bodies can lead to __________.

A) respiratory acidosis B) respiratory alkalosis C) metabolic acidosis D) metabolic alkalosis 2299) One of the main ingredients in a common antacid is sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3),

which dissociates into sodium ion and bicarbonate ion. Which of the following best explains the antacid properties of this ingredient?

A) The bicarbonate ions bind to hydrogen ions in the stomach fluid, neutralizing the acid and raising the pH. B) The sodium ions bind to hydroxyl ions (OH-) in the stomach fluid, neutralizing the acid and raising the pH. C) The bicarbonate ions break down into CO2, carbon, and H+, decreasing the pH. D) The bicarbonate ions bind to hydroxyl ions (OH-) in the stomach fluid, forming carbonic acid, decreasing the pH. 2300) While studying for her upcoming exam, Karen develops severe heartburn. She takes nine

sodium bicarbonate-based antacids, which is more than triple the recommended dosage. She could potentially develop what acid-base imbalance?

A) Respiratory acidosis B) Respiratory alkalosis C) Metabolic acidosis D) Metabolic alkalosis

2301) While studying for her upcoming exam, Karen develops severe heartburn. She takes nine

sodium bicarbonate-based antacids, which is more than triple the recommended dosage. How might her body compensate for the acid-base imbalance that results from this overdose?

A) The kidneys increase the secretion and excretion of hydrogen ions.

B) The respiratory centers will decrease breathing rate, allowing CO2 to accumulate.

C) The chemical buffer monohydrogen phosphate will bind up excess H+ ions.

D) The kidneys will decrease the secretion and excretion of bicarbonate ions.

2302) Baby Britney develops a respiratory infection in both lungs, resulting in an accumulation

of fluid in the alveoli. What condition can occur as a result?

A) Respiratory acidosis B) Respiratory alkalosis C) Metabolic acidosis D) Metabolic alkalosis 2303) Baby Britney develops a respiratory infection in both lungs, causing an accumulation of

fluid in the alveoli. How might her body try to compensate for the resulting acid-base imbalance?

A) By decreasing the breathing rate B) By reducing the surface area for gas exchange C) By increasing excretion of H+ by the kidneys D) By increasing rate and depth of breathing 2304) In the bicarbonate buffer system, __________ acts as a weak base.

A) HCO3B) CO2 C) H2CO3 D) H+ 2305) What process can compensate for respiratory alkalosis?

A) Increase in breathing rate B) Increase in secretion of bases by the kidneys C) Decrease in breathing rate D) Increase in secretion of hydrogen ion by the kidneys 2306) What is the function of a diuretic?

A) To promote urine production B) To increase sodium reabsorption from the kidneys C) To increase glucose secretion into kidney tubules D) To increase potassium reabsorption from the kidneys

2307) A water imbalance called hypotonic hydration can lead to __________.

A) hyponatremia B) diminished diuresis C) heatstroke D) excessive thirst 2308) Dehydration can be caused by __________.

A) excessive water intake B) prolonged sleep deprivation C) prolonged vomiting or prolonged diarrhea D) obstruction of airways 2309) In the phosphate buffer system, which compound is the weak base? + A) H B) HPO4-2 C) H2PO42310) What role can ammonia (NH3) play in acid-base balance? + A) In renal tubules, it can buffer excess H . + B) In intracellular fluid, it can release H when pH gets too high.

C) In the tissues, it can bind carbon dioxide so that CO2 is unable to undergo the

bicarbonate reaction, lowering tissue pH. D) In red blood cells, the presence of ammonia enhances the rate of ionization of carbonic acid to bicarbonate ion and H+.

2311) What is edema?

A) A response to dehydration B) Hyperproteinemia C) Abnormal accumulation of extracellular fluid D) Decreased venous pressure

2312) A county fair held a water-drinking contest in which people competed to see who could

drink the most water in a set amount of time. During the competition, a man drank three gallons of water in under an hour and a half. Unfortunately, he died several hours after he won the competition. What caused this man's death?

A) He consumed more water than his body could not use. Fluid accumulated in his lungs and he drowned.

B) The increase in total body water content caused his kidneys to be overworked and to eventually fail.

C) The concentration of sodium in his body tripled, causing the activity of his nervous system to be suppressed.

D) His electrolytes became too diluted to maintain fluid distribution across compartments. Due to osmosis, water shifted into his cells causing them to burst.

2313) Which of the following can result in hypernatremia?

A) Hypothermia B) Insufficient ADH secretion C) Excessive fluid intake D) Excessive use of antacids 2314) What is an effect of hypokalemia?

A) Severe arrhythymias B) Acne C) Excessive sweating D) Diabetes insipidus 2315) A nurse is administering a high-concentration potassium solution to a patient with a diet-

based potassium deficiency. Unaware of the initial treatment, another nurse administers a drug that inhibits secretion of aldosterone to treat the same deficiency. Which of the following conditions will most likely occur as a result?

A) Hypokalemia B) Hypocalcemia C) Hypercalcemia D) Hyperkalemia 2316) What occurs with Addison disease?

A) Aldosterone deficiency and loss of extracellular sodium B) Aldosterone deficiency and increased extracellular sodium C) Excessive aldosterone secretion and loss of extracellular sodium D) Excessive aldosterone secretion and increased extracellular sodium

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

2317) The __________ fluid compartment includes all water and electrolytes enclosed by a cell membrane.

2318) Water produced as a byproduct of the oxidation of nutrients is called __________ water.

2319) The volume of urine produced is determined by the water reabsorption occurring in the

distal convoluted tubules and __________ ducts.

2320) The acid-base imbalance that is seen with diseases such as emphysema, in which gas

exchange is decreased, is called respiratory __________.

2321) The concentration of calcium ions in extracellular fluid is regulated by a hormone

secreted by the __________ glands.

2322) Carbon dioxide reacts with water to form __________.

2323) The __________ center of the brain monitors blood gases and pH and initiates changes to

correct these levels.

2324) An arterial blood pH below 7.35 is called __________.

2325) An arterial blood pH above 7.45 is called __________.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 21 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) D 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) C 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) C 25) B 26) B 27) C 28) A 29) C 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) D 36) B 37) B

38) A 39) A 40) A 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) D 52) B 53) C 54) A 55) A 56) A 57) B 58) C 59) C 60) A 61) D 62) B 63) A 64) C 65) A 66) B 67) A 68) D 69) C 70) B 71) A 72) C 73) D 74) B 75) A 76) D 77) A

78) intracellular 79) metabolic 80) collecting 81) acidosis 82) parathyroid 83) carbonic acid 84) respiratory 85) acidemia 86) alkalemia

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

2326) The cells that result from meiosis are diploid. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2327) Chromosomes align down the center of a cell undergoing meiosis in metaphase. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2328) The testes originate from tissues posterior to the parietal pleura. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2329) The spermatogenic cells that line the seminiferous tubules produce sperm. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2330) The secretions of the prostate gland neutralize the acid in semen. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2331) Each epididymis emerges from the bottom of a testis. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2332) The ductus deferentia are muscular tubes, each about 25 centimeters long. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2333) Capacitation makes sperm tails whip more quickly. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2334) A positive feedback system regulates testosterone production. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2335) Measles can inflame the testes, impairing fertility by destroying cells in the seminiferous

tubules. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2336) Gonadotropins include FSH and LH. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2337) The primary organs of the female reproductive system are the uterus and vagina. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2338) Primary oocyte production begins before birth. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2339) Ciliary action aids movement of an egg through an uterine tube. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2340) The structures of the female reproductive system that surround the openings to the

urethra and vagina comprise the mons pubis. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2341) As many as twenty primary ovarian follicles may reach maturity simultaneously. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2342) The broad, suspensory, and ovarian ligaments hold an ovary in position. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2343) LH stimulates a primordial follicle to start maturing. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2344) An increase in the level of FSH at approximately day 14 causes ovulation. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2345) Endometriosis can result in the formation of fibrous tissue around the ovaries and can

prevent ovulation or obstruct the uterine tubes. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

2346) What occurs during the first meiotic division?

A) A sperm and egg form.

B) Homologous chromosome pairs separate.

C) Homologous chromosome pairs join.

D) The cell becomes diploid.

2347) During meiosis II, one spindle fiber fails to attach to a chromosome at the centromere.

How will this affect the genetic content of the daughter cells?

A) One daughter cell will have two chromosomes and the other daughter cell will have no chromosomes.

B) One daughter cell will have only maternal genes and the other daughter cell will have only paternal genes.

C) One daughter cell will contain one extra chromosome and the other daughter cell will have one less of that chromosome.

D) One daughter cell will have three copies of a chromosome and the other daughter cell will have two copies of that chromosome.

2348) Why is meiosis necessary?

A) Otherwise the fertilized ovum will have too much genetic material.

B) Otherwise the fertilized ovum will have too little genetic material.

C) Otherwise reproduction would have to be asexual.

D) Otherwise too many mutations will occur.

2349) What would be true of the newly formed sex cells in a person possessing a mutation that

completely prevents crossover?

A) The new cells would have multiple chromosomes that would be non-functional, reducing genetic variability.

B) The new cells would have less genetic variability because some chromosomes would only be entirely maternal and some would be entirely paternal.

C) The new cells would have more genetic variability since crossing over limits transmission of maternal and paternal genes.

D) The new cells would contain abnormal chromosome numbers since crossing over ensures proper division.

2350) Identify the correct sequence for the steps of meiosis I. A) Interphase → mitosis → meiosis B) Telophase I → anaphase I → metaphase I → prophase I C) 46 chromosomes → 23 chromosomes → 46 chromosomes D) Prophase I → metaphase I → anaphase I → telophase I 2351) In what phase does synapsis occur?

A) Prophase I B) Metaphase I C) Anaphase I D) Telophase I 2352) How many chromosomes are present in each cell at the end of meiosis I? A) 12 chromosomes B) 23 chromosomes C) 46 chromosomes D) 68 chromosomes

2353) The number of possible chromosome combinations in a gamete of a human is

_________.

A) 800 B) 8,000 C) 80,000 D) 8 million 2354) The gubernaculum guides the testis through the __________ canal.

A) penile B) pelvic C) inguinal D) seminiferous 2355) What cells are located in the epithelium of seminiferous tubules?

A) Adipose cells and chondrocytes B) Spermatogenic cells and sustentacular cells C) Spermatogonia and spermatids D) Interstitial cells and sustentacular cells 2356) How many sperm cells form from a primary spermatocyte?

A) 4 B) 16 C) 46 D) 100 2357) In a certain male individual, primary spermatocytes do not divide into secondary

spermatocytes, yet still undergo spermiogenesis and form mature sperm. How will the resulting sperm differ from normal sperm?

A) The abnormal sperm will have 23 chromosomes instead of 46.

B) The abnormal sperm will be diploid instead of haploid.

C) The abnormal sperm won’t develop a tail or acrosomal cap.

D) The abnormal sperm are all type A cells.

2358) In a certain male individual, primary spermatocytes do not divide into secondary

spermatocytes, yet still undergo spermiogenesis and form mature sperm. These sperm then fertilize a normal oocyte. What will be true of the zygote?

A) The zygote will have 46 chromosomes instead of 23.

B) The zygote will be diploid instead of haploid.

C) The zygote will have 69 chromosomes instead of 46.

D) The zygote will have only paternal chromosomes.

2359) A man is exposed to a virus which specifically targets and kills sustentacular cells

(Sertoli cells). What effect will this have on spermatogenesis?

A) Spermatogenic cells will starve and cease development because they won’t receive the nutrients or support they need.

B) Sperm cells will not mature because spermiogenesis will not occur after meiosis.

C) Spermatogonia will not be stimulated to divide because of lack of testosterone secretion.

D) Mature sperm won’t contain enough ATP to fuel flagellar movement.

2360) A man chooses to become sterilized via vasectomy. How will this affect interstitial cells?

A) Injury to the ductus deferens signals for interstitial cells to stop nourishing

spermatogenic cells.

B) The procedure of a vasectomy only blocks the movement of sperm through the ductus deferens and won’t affect interstitial cells.

C) Interstitial cells lining the ductus deferens stop producing alkaline secretions, killing sperm as they travel through.

D) The vasectomy causes secretions that interrupt testosterone secretion from interstitial cells.

2361) The head of the sperm is primarily composed of _________.

A) mitochondria B) a cell membrane C) cytoskeleton D) a nucleus 2362) In the male, which of the following structures is unpaired?

A) Seminal vesicle B) Ductus deferens C) Bulbourethral gland D) Prostate gland 2363) What do the bulbourethral glands secrete?

A) Sperm B) A mucus-like fluid C) Urine D) Sweat

2364) Describe the composition of semen.

A) It contains 100 mature sperm.

B) It is acidic.

C) It includes prostaglandins and nutrients.

D) It contains secretions from intersitial cells.

2365) The number of sperm cells in an ejaculate averages about __________ per milliliter.

A) 10,000 B) 1 million C) 120 million D) 10 billion 2366) What does the surgical procedure called a circumcision remove?

A) The glans penis B) The tunica albuginea C) The prepuce D) The crura 2367) Which of the following is a cause of erectile dysfunction?

A) Too much exercise B) Too much sex C) Not enough sex D) Underlying disease, such as diabetes mellitus 2368) What structure does the sperm enter upon exiting the epididymis?

A) Penile urethra B) Rete testis C) Seminiferous tubules D) Ductus deferens 2369) What is the average length of the epididymis if uncoiled?

A) 1 meter B) 3 meters C) 6 meters D) 9 meters

2370) What structure does the sperm enter upon exiting the ductus deferens?

A) Seminal vesicles B) Epididymis C) Ejaculatory duct D) Rete testis 2371) Where do sperm cells mature?

A) In the ductus deferens B) In the ejaculatory duct C) In the epididymis D) In the seminal vesicle 2372) Undifferentiated spermatogenic cells are called _________.

A) spermatogonia B) primary spermatocytes C) secondary spermatocytes D) spermatids 2373) The first fluid expelled from the urethra during ejaculation comes from the __________.

A) testes B) bulbourethral gland C) prostate gland D) seminal vesicles 2374) What is the structure of a testis?

A) Composed of about 250 lobules, each of which contains 1 to 4 seminiferous tubules.

B) Composed of 1 to 4 lobules, each of which contains about 250 seminiferous tubules.

C) Composed of very long, coiled seminiferous tubules and an epididymis.

D) Composed of a single very long seminiferous tubule that winds through the structure.

2375) Which of the following correctly describes an erection?

A) Smooth muscles of vascular spaces in the penis contract.

B) Parasympathetic impulses constrict arteries leading to the penis.

C) Parasympathetic neurons release nitric oxide causing dilation of small arteries in the

penis.

D) The spongy tissue in the penis fills with air.

2376) What is the function of the epididymis?

A) Secretion of testosterone B) Secretion of mucus-like fluid C) Site of sperm maturation D) Ejaculation of sperm due to rhythmic contractions 2377) Male reproductive functions are controlled mainly by hormones from the hypothalamus

and what two structures?

A) Posterior pituitary and adrenal glands B) Anterior pituitary and adrenal glands C) Posterior pituitary and testes D) Anterior pituitary and testes 2378) What hormone is responsible for the development and maintenance of male secondary

sex characteristics?

A) LH B) FSH C) Testosterone D) GnRH 2379) An endocrinologist wants to study testosterone levels in a certain group of males. Which

of the following best describes sources in which testosterone can be found and used in this study?

A) Blood only B) Blood and urine only C) Urine only D) Blood, urine, and skin 2380) Which of the following isnot a male secondary sex characteristic?

A) Thickening of the bones B) Increased muscular growth C) Increased growth of body hair D) Deposition of adipose tissue in the thighs and buttock 2381) The interstitial cells of the testes produce _________.

A) seminal fluid B) spermatogenic cells C) sperm cells D) androgens

2382) What stimulates the release of testosterone?

A) Increased plasma concentration of LH B) Decreased plasma concentration of LH C) Decreased plasma concentration of FSH D) Increased plasma concentration of FSH 2383) The tubular part of the uterus that extends downward into the upper vagina is the

_________.

A) fundus B) cervix C) perimetrium D) endometrium 2384) The egg, or ovum, is more correctly called a(n) __________.

A) primary oocyte B) secondary oocyte C) oogonium D) zygote 2385) A Pap smear is used to detect abnormal cells in the __________.

A) urethra B) ovary C) cervix D) vagina 2386) The zona pellucida is a layer of _________.

A) glycoproteins B) adipose tissue C) epithelial cells D) sperm cells 2387) The uterine tube is located between what two structures?

A) Uterus and the cervix B) Uterus and vagina C) Vagina and labia majora D) Ovary and uterus

2388) Fertilization normally occurs in the __________.

A) ovary B) uterine tube C) uterus D) vagina 2389) What female structure is a hairless fold that forms a hoodlike covering around the

clitoris?

A) Labia majora B) Mons pubis C) Crura D) Labia minora 2390) The inner mucosal layer of the uterine wall is the _________.

A) endometrium B) myometrium C) perimetrium D) epimetrium 2391) What occurs in the first step of oogenesis?

A) Secondary oocyte divides to form a polar body and an egg cell.

B) Primary oocyte divides to form a secondary oocyte and a first polar body.

C) Primary oocyte divides to form two secondary oocytes.

D) Secondary oocyte divides to form two polar bodies.

2392) A mutation affecting the cytoplasmic distribution among dividing daughter cells in

female meiosis prevents the normal distribution between the secondary oocyte and the polar body. Instead, two identically sized daughter cells with the same amount of cytoplasm are produced after each division while polar bodies are still designated and disintegrated.

Knowing the main function of the polar body, what effect might this mutation have?

A) Sperm will not be able to penetrate the egg.

B) Oocytes with abnormal chromosome numbers will result and produce zygotes with further abnormal numbers.

C) After fertilization, the zygote may not have enough organelles and nutrients to support further cell divisions.

D) Embryos developed from the mutated secondary oocyte will lack the X chromosome.

2393) A relatively new theory has arisen regarding the development of twins at fertilization. In

addition to the phenomena of identical and fraternal twins, the theory suggests that semiidentical twins called polar body twins can occur if fertilization occurs in the second polar body immediately after fertilization of the oocyte (different sperm fertilizing each). If this is true, what should be true about the zygotes?

A) One twin will be physically smaller than the other after birth and later in life.

B) At least one of the twins will have a genetic abnormality due to the nature of the division that produces the secondary oocyte and polar body.

C) The twins will possess exactly the same genetic material.

D) The twins will have the exact same maternal genes, but their paternal genes will vary.

2394) The female structure that is analogous to the male penis is the _________.

A) vagina B) clitoris C) vestibule D) labia minora 2395) In females, which structure is immediately anterior to the vagina?

A) Uterus B) Urethra C) Rectum D) Pubis symphysis 2396) Menopause is due to aging of the ________.

A) ovaries B) vagina C) cervix D) uterine tube 2397) What hormone(s) is/are mainly responsible for the development and maintenance of

female secondary sexual characteristics?

A) Estrogens B) Progesterone C) Androgens D) Luteinizing hormone

2398) Ovulation is triggered by a surge of _________ from the anterior pituitary gland.

A) estrogens B) progesterone C) LH D) androgens 2399) Lulu is 53 and has not had her menstrual period in a year. Several times a day, she feels a

tingling in her upper chest, and then heat washes over her, in an upward direction. It is intensely uncomfortable for about 5 minutes, during which she is nearly overwhelmed with an urge to fling off her clothing. What is the cause of Lulu's hot flashes?

A) An increase in gonadotropin concentration and a decrease in estrogen concentration B) An increase in gonadotropin concentration and an increase in estrogen concentration C) A decrease in gonadotropin concentration and an increase in estrogen concentration D) A decrease in gonadotropin concentration and a decrease in estrogen concentration 2400) What are signs of menopause?

A) Increased concentrations of estrogens B) Inexplicable euphoria, extra energy, weight loss C) Shrinking of the vagina, uterus, and breasts D) Increased bone matrix 2401) What is a female secondary sex characteristic due to estrogens?

A) Decrease in fat deposition in abdomen B) Development of breasts C) Increase in growth of body hair D) Enlargement of the vocal folds 2402) Judy runs 50 miles a week and has a low body fat composition. She and her husband have

been trying to conceive for three years, with no luck. Her disturbed reproductive cycles and infertility might be due to _________ secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone and __________ blood estrogen levels.

A) increased; increased B) decreased; increased C) increased; increased D) decreased; decreased

2403) In the reproductive cycle, estrogens __________, whereas progesterone __________.

A) stimulates erection of the clitoris; stimulates the uterine lining to become glandular B) ejects milk from the mammary glands; stimulates milk secretion C) stimulates uterine wall development; stimulates the uterine lining to become more

glandular D) inhibits the release of FSH; stimulates the release of FSH 2404) A woman going through menopause may take __________ to minimize the symptoms.

A) gonadotropin-releasing hormone B) hormone replacement therapy C) follicle-stimulating hormone D) progesterone-releasing hormone 2405) A mammary gland contains __________ lobes.

A) two B) three to nine C) ten D) fifteen to twenty 2406) The glands in a lobe of a breast drain into _________.

A) alveolar ducts B) a nipple C) lactiferous ducts D) suspensory ligaments 2407) The most commonly used oral contraceptives contain __________.

A) synthetic estrogens and progesterone B) synthetic androgens C) gonadotropins D) FSH and LH 2408) A new, non-surgical alternative to vasectomy called Vasalgel is done by injecting an

impassable gel into the ductus deferentia. What contraceptive effect will this have?

A) The prostate gland will be blocked from secreting nutrients for sperm into the ductus deferentia.

B) Ciliated columnar cells will be blocked from secreting sperm-fueling glycogen.

C) Sperm will be blocked from traveling from the testis to the urethra.

D) The interstitial cells will be blocked from releasing testosterone.

2409) Which of the following is a chemical barrier type of contraceptive?

A) Coitus interruptus B) Spermicidal cream C) Intrauterine device D) Diaphragm 2410) Which of the following provides mechanical contraception?

A) The rhythm method B) The minipill C) Combined hormone contraceptives D) A male condom 2411) What is a side effect of oral contraceptives?

A) Amenorrhea B) Breast tenderness C) Scarring in the uterus D) Loss of bone density 2412) The average prostate gland is the size and shape of a(n) _________.

A) horseshoe B) pea C) walnut or chestnut D) apple 2413) Why can undescended testes cause infertility?

A) The testes are exposed to a higher internal body temperature, slowing sperm

development.

B) The testes secrete very little testosterone.

C) The testes undergo apoptosis, and can no longer produce sperm.

D) The testes become entangled in the seminiferous tubules, which then degenerate.

2414) One cause of female infertility is failure of ovulation due to hyposecretion of hormones

from the _________.

A) anterior pituitary gland B) posterior pituitary gland C) adrenal gland D) ovary

2415) Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a disorder in which a female produces

abnormally high levels of androgens (particularly testosterone), which have various adverse effects on the female body. Which of the following describes a symptom that would be caused by high blood androgen levels in a female?

A) Excessive breast development (gynecomastia) B) Rapid, excessive ovulation C) Abnormal growth of hair on the face and back D) Thickened endometrium 2416) Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a disorder in which a female produces

abnormally high levels of androgens (particularly testosterone). This has various adverse effects on the female body, including inhibition of ovulation. Which hypothalamic or pituitary form of hormonal control could cause abnormal production of androgens in females?

A) Nonsecretion of GnRH B) Hyposecretion of FSH C) Hypersecretion of FSH D) Hypersecretion of LH 2417) What is endometriosis?

A) Diminished menstrual flow B) Growth of tissue in the abdominal cavity that resembles the uterine lining C) Discontinuation of growth of the uterine lining during reproductive cycles.

D) Cessation of the uterine and ovarian cycles 2418) Tamoxifen and raloxifene are treatments for breast cancer. How do these drugs work?

A) By blocking estrogen receptors B) By activating progesterone receptors C) By breaking up cancer cell DNA D) By depriving cancer cells of growth factors 2419) A patient comes into the emergency room with a high fever. Blood testing reveals that

their immune system is severely weakened, making them prone to infections. The patient also reports chronic weakness/fatigue. After discussing their problems with a doctor, they admit that they are a drug user and sometimes use dirty needles. Which of the following STIs is the patient most likely suffering from?

A) Gonorrhea B) HIV infection C) Chlamydia D) Syphilis

2420) A male patient comes into the clinic with his female partner. He complains of a painful

burning sensation while urinating. He suspects an STI, but his partner has no symptoms to speak of. Which of the following STIs does he most likely have?

A) Gonorrhea B) AIDs C) Chlamydia D) Syphilis 2421) A female patient develops genital warts after recent sexual contact. What pathogen has

she been exposed to? What complication can this pathogen produce if the infection advances?

A) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV); acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDs) B) Chlamydia trachomatis bacteria; pelvic inflammatory disease C) Human papilloma virus (HPV); risk of cervical cancer D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacteria; arthritis 2422) "You can't possibly have breast cancer," said Jim to his roommate Eliot, who was

distraught after a visit to a doctor. "You're a man!" "No, Jim. _______% of breast cancer cases are in men."

A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 30 2423) When fertilized, what cell becomes a zygote?

A) Mature follicle B) Primary oocyte C) Secondary oocyte D) Polar body 2424) When comparing gamete production in males and females, males produce __________

gametes that are __________ in size.

A) more; larger B) more; smaller C) fewer; larger D) fewer; smaller

2425) Name the secretory structures that produce milk in a lactating female.

A) Lactiferous sinuses B) Lactiferous ducts C) Alveolar glands D) Areolar glands 2426) Which of the following events occurs in an erection?

A) Vasoconstriction of arteries leading to erectile tissue of penis B) Engorgement of erectile tissue of penis with blood C) Dilation of venules leading from erectile tissue of penis D) Decrease of blood flow to the penis 2427) Arrange the following events in the correct sequence:

(1) ejaculation (2) emission (3) erection A) 1, 2, 3 B) 3, 1, 2 C) 3, 2, 1 D) 2, 3, 1 FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

2428) During the process of egg donation, egg banks typically try to retrieve 15 or more (sometimes up to 40) eggs from one fertility cycle. They achieve this by administering drugs that stimulate larger-than-usual amounts of follicles to develop. This overdevelopment is called __________.

2429) Following ovulation, the remaining follicular cells in the ovary enlarge to form an

endocrine structure called the __________.

2430) The sexually transmitted infection called_________ is caused by treponema pallidum

bacteria.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 22 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) B 25) D 26) A 27) B 28) D 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) D

38) B 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) D 43) D 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) C 51) C 52) D 53) C 54) B 55) D 56) D 57) A 58) B 59) B 60) C 61) A 62) D 63) B 64) D 65) A 66) B 67) C 68) D 69) B 70) B 71) A 72) A 73) C 74) A 75) C 76) B 77) D

78) C 79) B 80) D 81) A 82) A 83) C 84) B 85) D 86) B 87) C 88) A 89) A 90) C 91) D 92) B 93) A 94) B 95) A 96) C 97) A 98) C 99) B 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105)

C B C superovulation corpus luteum syphillis

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

2431) Development is a continuous process and includes growth. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2432) Progesterone in semen stimulates the movement of sperm cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2433) Proteolytic enzymes from the trophoblast aid implantation of an embryo. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2434) The umbilical cord contains two umbilical veins. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2435) The fetal stage of development begins at the end of the eighth week. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2436) Factors that can cause congenital malformations by affecting an embryo during its

periods of rapid growth and development are called teratogens. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2437) The ductus arteriosus allows fetal blood to bypass the lungs. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2438) In a fetus, the umbilical arteries arise from the renal arteries. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2439) The neonatal period of development extends from birth to the end of one year. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2440) The primary function of surfactant is to increase surface tension in the lungs. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2441) After birth, the ductus arteriosus constricts and becomes the ligamentum arteriosum. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2442) Some factors that help to stimulate the newborn's first breath are increasing CO2,

decreasing pH, decreasing O2, decreasing body temperature, and mechanical stimulation. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2443) The adolescent period begins at the end of the first year and completes at puberty. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2444) Aging-related changes include shrinking of the prostate in men and enlargement of the

breasts in women. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2445) Active dying is a distinct set of signs that may appear around the time of death. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

2446) Human prenatal development takes __________ weeks.

A) 28 B) 32 C) 38 D) 44 2447) When is the postnatal period?

A) From the time of a fertilized egg until the end of life B) From fertilization to birth C) From birth to death D) From the beginning of the fetal period until the beginning of childhood 2448) Where does fertilization usually occur?

A) In the ovary B) In the uterine tube C) In the uterus D) In the vagina

2449) Sperm movement through the uterus and uterine tubes is aided by muscle contractions of

the uterine walls and __________ in the semen.

A) estrogen B) progestins C) prostaglandins D) epinephrine 2450) A researcher engineers a deletion in the genome of sperm cell DNA that inhibits

production of an enzyme in the sperm cell membrane. The researcher then adds the sperm to a culture dish with a secondary oocyte, along with chemicals to guide the sperm to the oocyte. Upon observation, it is found that the sperm fails to penetrate the corona radiata of the oocyte. What enzyme has been deleted from the sperm membrane?

A) Hyaluronidase B) Juno C) Catalase D) Acetylcholinesterase 2451) Upon examination of a zygote, a developmental biologist discovers that it possesses 47

chromosomes. What does this indicate?

A) The zygote resulted from polyspermy (multiple fertilizations of the same oocyte) by two sperm cells.

B) The zygote is a normal, healthy diploid zygote.

C) Either the sperm or the egg received an extra chromosome as the result of a meiotic error.

D) Either the sperm or the egg had one less chromosome than normal as the result of a meiotic error.

2452) A relatively new theory has arisen regarding the development of twins at fertilization. In

addition to the phenomena of identical and fraternal twins, the theory suggests that semiidentical twins called polar body twins can occur if fertilization occurs in the second polar body immediately after fertilization of the oocyte (different sperm fertilizing each). If this is true, what should be true about the zygotes?

A) One twin will be physically smaller than the other after birth and later in life.

B) At least one of the twins will have a genetic abnormality due to the nature of the division that produces the secondary oocyte and polar body.

C) The twins will possess exactly the same genetic material.

D) The twins will have the exact same maternal genes, but their paternal genes will vary.

2453) Prior to the joining (fusion) of the nuclei of the sperm and egg to form a zygote, each

nucleus is referred to as a _________.

A) prenucelus B) mononucleus C) pronucleus D) gametocyte 2454) At the blastocyst stage, the cells are considered __________.

A) totipotent B) extraembryonic C) pluripotent D) endodermal 2455) What structure develops into the embryonic stem cells?

A) Outer cell mass of the morula B) Inner cell mass of the blastocyst C) Cells of the allantois D) Trophoblast 2456) Which of the following layers is described as loosely organized connective tissue?

A) Mesoderm B) Endoderm C) Ectoderm D) Epidermis 2457) How does fetal hemoglobin differ from adult hemoglobin?

A) Fetal hemoglobin binds has a stronger affinity for iron.

B) Fetal hemoglobin has more hemoglobin subunits.

C) Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen more readily.

D) Fetal hemoglobin has more heme units.

2458) In the fetal circulation, blood from the __________ flows directly into the descending

aorta.

A) B) C) D)

foramen ovale ductus arteriosus umbilical artery ductus venosus

2459) What regulates the process of labor?

A) Negative feedback control B) Positive feedback control C) Prolactin D) Estrogens 2460) The fetus is protected from certain infections, to which the mother is immune, by

__________.

A) antibodies from the mother's immune system B) antibodies from its own immune system C) its own innate defenses D) the extraembryonic membranes 2461) What hormones maintain the uterine wall during the last 5 to 6 months of pregnancy?

A) FSH and LH B) Human chorionic gonadotropin and estrogens C) Placental lactogen and relaxin D) Placental estrogens and progesterone 2462) Considering the roles of estrogens and progesterone in the female reproductive cycle,

how would fertility be affected if a woman had a hormonal disorder involving a constant high secretion of progesterone?

A) If ovulation occurs, the woman could become pregnant very easily because progesterone makes the cervical mucus waterier and easily penetrable by sperm.

B) The woman would have an easier time becoming pregnant because progesterone stimulates and controls ovulation, so the chances of fertilization would be higher.

C) Pregnancy would not be easily achieved because progesterone makes uterine and cervical secretions too harsh for sperm survival and movement.

D) Fertility would be lower for the woman because progesterone directly inhibits sperm tail function.

2463) What would be the effect of a lack of oxytocin secretion from the posterior pituitary

gland during birth?

A) No fetal muscular movements B) Reduced uterine wall contractions C) Increased progesterone secretion from the placenta D) Increased estrogen secretion from the placenta

2464) A fetus develops in such a way that the type II cells of the lungs never develop, resulting

in no production of surfactant in the alveoli. The fetus continues development and survives to birth. What will happen when the newborn tries to take its first breath?

A) It won’t be able to take its first breath because its lungs will remain collapsed due to high surface tension.

B) It will take a breathe and then begin coughing since the alveoli will have little to no surface tension.

C) It won’t be able to take its first breath because the lungs need to be filled with fluids after birth to allow them to expand. Without being completely filled with surfactant, air cannot enter.

D) The lungs will start to be digested, as surfactant blocks proteases and other fluids from reaching alveolar tissues.

2465) Some reproductive tumors produce hormones. One sign of the presence of a reproductive

cancer is a positive result from a basic pregnancy test when pregnancy is not possible/very unlikely. These cancers produce a positive test result because they are secreting __________.

A) estrogens B) progesterone C) hCG D) ADH 2466) The pharmaceutical drug RU-486, typically used to treat Cushing’s disease, is also

sometimes used for medical abortions. RU-486 blocks progesterone production and its binding to receptors in the reproductive tract. Why would this affect pregnancy and embryonic growth?

A) Progesterone stops the corpus luteum from degrading. Without the corpus luteum, hCG (responsible for uterine growth and development) cannot be produced.

B) Progesterone stimulates release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Without aldosterone, fluid is lost through the kidneys and causes high blood pressure in the uterus, which is fatal to the fetus.

C) Progesterone maintains the endometrium and prevents it from breaking down and shedding in a normal menstrual period. It also assists in stopping uterine contractions until birth.

D) Progesterone stimulates the ovaries to produce LH, which then causes hCG production. Production of hCG is needed to inhibit pituitary FSH secretion, which induces menstrual periods.

2467) A pregnant woman wants to know the approximate day her child was conceived. She

knows the date of the start of her last menstrual period was March 4th. What does she need to do to calculate the date of conception from this point?

A) Add 38 weeks to that date B) Add 14 days to that date C) Add 7 days to that date D) Add 266 days to that date 2468) A pregnant woman wants to know the approximate day her child was conceived. She

knows that the date of the start of her last menstrual period was March 4th. Which of the following choices should be the approximate conception date?

A) March 10th B) March 18th C) March 7th D) December 19th 2469) What cells of a blastocyst help form the chorion?

A) Blastomere B) Inner cell mass C) Trophoblast D) Zona pellucida 2470) What comprises the placental membrane?

A) The embryonic disc B) A single layer of epithelial cells C) A double layer of epithelial cells D) The amnion and chorion 2471) The ductus venosus is a fetal vessel that transports blood from the umbilical vein to the

__________.

A) umbilical artery B) aorta C) inferior vena cava D) superior vena cava

2472) The foramen ovale is an opening that allows fetal blood to pass between what two

chambers of the heart?

A) Right atrium to the left atrium B) Left atrium to right atrium C) Right ventricle to the left ventricle D) Left ventricle to the right ventricle 2473) The fetal blood that passes through the ductus venosus is relatively _________ in oxygen

and __________ in nutrients.

A) low; low B) high; high C) low; high D) high; low 2474) As a result of the foramen ovale, blood is allowed to bypass the __________.

A) aorta B) liver C) lungs D) kidneys 2475) The ductus arteriosus allows fetal blood to move from the __________.

A) right atrium into the left atrium B) left atrium into the right atrium C) aorta into the pulmonary trunk D) pulmonary trunk into the aorta 2476) The placenta is composed of tissues from the __________.

A) mother only B) fetus only C) mother and fetus 2477) Which of the following is NOT true about the fetal stage of development?

A) It begins 8 weeks after fertilization.

B) The organ systems are mostly formed, although immature.

C) The head is disproportionately large compared to the rest of the body at the beginning

of the stage.

D) It includes the blastocyst and morula stages.

2478) A difference between fetal blood flow and adult blood flow is that in the fetus the

__________ contains blood high in oxygen.

A) inferior vena cava B) pulmonary artery C) femoral vein D) left ventricle 2479) Which of the following adult structures is not derived from the same primary germ layer

as the others?

A) Nerves B) Blood vessels C) Muscles D) Bones 2480) The external genitalia of the fetus can be distinguished as male or female by about

__________ weeks after fertilization.

A) 3 B) 6 C) 12 D) 24 2481) Dizygotic twins result from fertilization of how many egg and sperm cells?

A) One egg cell and one sperm cell B) One egg cell and two sperm cells C) Two egg cells and one sperm cell D) Two egg cells and two sperm cells 2482) What are teratogens?

A) Substances that stimulate embryonic growth B) Substances that cause congenital malformations C) Substances that protect against infections D) Substances that cause genetic disease 2483) Monica takes the drug Accutane throughout her pregnancy, and her child has birth

defects, due to the exposure to the drug. Therefore, Accutane is considered a(n) __________.

A) estrogen B) mutagen C) teratogen D) carcinogen

2484) A blastomere is a __________ and a blastocyst is __________.

A) hollow ball of cells; a cell resulting from cleavage B) fetal organ produced by cleavage; an embryonic organ produced by cleavage C) fetal membrane; an embryonic membrane D) cell resulting from cleavage; a hollow ball of cells 2485) What develops from the inner cell mass?

A) The placental membrane B) The amnion C) The chorion D) The embryo 2486) What must occur for the blastocyst to implant in the uterine wall?

A) Enzymes need to digest the endometrium around the blastocyst.

B) Hyaluronic acid needs to break down the myometrium around the blastocyst.

C) hCG needs to stimulate growth of trophoblast blood vessels.

D) The acrosome needs to break down the zona pellucida.

2487) What is a function of hCG? A) It breaks down the corpus luteum.

B) It protects the blastocyst from being rejected.

C) It prevents the developing placenta from secreting hormones.

D) It stimulates the release of enzymes that enable the blastocyst to implant into the

endometrium.

2488) During the embryonic stage, the primary germ layers develop from the __________.

A) placenta B) blastocyst C) embryonic disc D) morula 2489) What major body part(s) is/are derived from ectoderm?

A) Nervous system and skin B) Muscle tissue C) Bone tissue D) Liver and pancreas

2490) What major body part is derived from endoderm?

A) The epithelial lining of the digestive tract B) Skeletal muscles C) Epidermis of the skin D) Nervous tissue 2491) What major body parts are derived from mesoderm?

A) Nervous system and sense organs B) Skeletal muscle and bones C) Epidermis and hair D) Urinary bladder and rectum 2492) What is the function of the placenta?

A) Allows oxygen and nutrients to diffuse from maternal blood to the embryo.

B) Allows carbon dioxide and other wastes to diffuse from the maternal blood to the

embryonic blood.

C) Allows maternal blood to mix with fetal blood.

D) Allows the fetus to enlarge without rupturing the mother's abdomen.

2493) What is the chorion?

A) The outer protective membrane around the embryo.

B) The membrane that projects into the endometrium and helps form the placenta.

C) The site from which the primary germ layers develop.

D) The part of the embryoblast that forms the embyro.

2494) What is the function of amniotic fluid?

A) It stores nutrients for the fetus.

B) It absorbs wastes that the fetus excretes.

C) It protects the embryo against being jarred by movements.

D) It provides nutrients to the fetus from the maternal part of the placenta.

2495) What is the function of the yolk sac?

A) It forms blood cells in early development.

B) It provides nutrients to the fetus when the umbilical cord is disconnected.

C) It stores metabolic wastes until the fetus is born.

D) It gives rise to the primary germ layers.

2496) The term newborn refers to the period from birth through __________, whereas the term

infant refers to the period from __________.

A) the first 3 months; 3 months to 6 months B) the first four weeks; the first month to 1 year C) the first week; the second week through the second year D) the first year; the first year to the second year 2497) Following birth, the infant's metabolic rate __________ and its oxygen consumption

_________.

A) increases; increases B) increases; decreases C) decreases; increases D) decreases; decreases 2498) Which of the following provides the main source of energy for a newborn during its first

few days?

A) Glucose B) Glycogen C) Fat D) Protein 2499) After birth, what causes the foramen ovale to close?

A) The increase in pressure in the right atrium.

B) The increase in pressure in the left atrium.

C) The increase in resistance in the pulmonary circuit.

D) The decrease in blood volume in the pulmonary veins.

2500) When does fetal hemoglobin become largely replaced with adult hemoglobin?

A) After the first trimester B) At birth C) Around 4 months after birth D) Around 2 years of age 2501) Which of the following is not a characteristic of childhood?

A) Replacing primary teeth with secondary teeth B) Becoming reproductively functional C) Establishing bowel control D) Developing a high degree of voluntary muscular control

2502) How long is the period of preactive dying?

A) A year to three years B) Up to three months C) One day D) An entire life time 2503) What changes occur during active dying?

A) Limbs become cool and numb B) Sudden onset of high-grade fevers C) Prolonged high blood pressure D) Flushing of the skin 2504) What is the function of repair enzymes?

A) To correct the degeneration of collagen and elastin B) To correct mutations that occur when DNA replicates C) To correct free radical build-up D) To correct lipofuscin build-up 2505) Hydrogen peroxide is a natural byproduct of cellular metabolism in the human body. It

sometimes reacts with certain ions in the body to produce a very reactive, electron-grabbing form of hydroxide (OH-) that has been observed to kill healthy cells in vitro. This product can be considered a _________.

A) free radical B) mutation C) teratogen D) catalyst 2506) What is passive aging?

A) A cessation of life B) A decay of tissues C) A breakdown of structures and slowing of functions D) A buildup of structures and speeding of functions 2507) When does apoptosis occur?

A) Only after the age 50 B) Only in adults C) From embryonic stage until death D) Only when someone has a disease

2508) The theoritical maximum human life span is __________ years.

A) 80 B) 90 C) 100 D) 120 2509) What were the three leading causes of death in the United States in 2015?

A) Infection, kidney disease, and influenza B) Heart disease, cancer, and stroke C) Diabetes, heart disease, and cancer D) Pneumonia, diabetes, and Alzheimer disease 2510) Jeremy cannot ejaculate because of an injury he sustained in a car accident. What is an

assisted reproductive technology that might help him to become a biological father?

A) Intrauterine insemination using donor sperm B) Gamete interfallopian transfer C) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection D) A surrogate mother 2511) Most large hospitals have a neonatal ward. Knowing what the neonatal period is, how old

would you expect the patients in a neonatal ward to be?

A) 8 weeks old prebirth up to the time of labor B) Newly born to four weeks old C) Newly born to one year old D) Four weeks to one year old 2512) Thalidomide is a drug used to treat leprosy. If given to a pregnant woman, what effect

might it have on a fetus?

A) Fetal alcohol syndrome B) Fetal limb defect C) Cognitive impairement D) Bacterial infection 2513) Compared to cow's milk, human milk has __________ the protein.

A) one-third B) one-half C) 2 times D) 3 times

2514) Some women prolong breastfeeding or lactation as a form of birth control. How would

extension of lactation be effective in preventing pregnancy?

A) Lactation stimulates production of placental lactinogen, which is a pregnancy hormone that prevents the corpus luteum from degrading and advancing the reproductive cycle.

B) Prolactin is stimulates lactation. It also inhibits the release of gonadotropins, so as long as lactation is actively occurring, ovulation is prevented.

C) Breastfeeding stimulates production of oxytocin, which causes the endometrium to slough off as menstrual flow, preventing implantation of a zygote.

D) The physical stimulation of breastfeeding causes high levels of progesterone to be produced, which increases secretions in the reproductive tract that are hostile to sperm.

2515) Who are centenarians?

A) People who live past 90 B) People in the military C) People who live past 100 years th D) People who die just before their 100 birthdays 2516) Genetically, aging can be affected by genes that regulate _________.

A) glucose and lipid metabolism B) maintenance of the retinas C) gametogenesis D) melanin production 2517) What is the amnion?

A) The site where an embryo is implanted into the uterus.

B) The membrane that encircles a developing embryo.

C) The site from which secondary germ layers develop.

D) The inner cell mass that forms the cardiovascular system.

2518) Implantation usually begins at about the end of the first ________ of development.

A) day B) week C) month D) trimester

2519) The process by which a blastocyst embeds within the uterine endometrium is known as

_________.

A) cleavage B) implantation C) capacitation D) the acrosome reaction 2520) Which of the following indicates the correct order of phases of development?

A) Zygote → morula → blastocyst → embryo → fetus → newborn B) Blastocyst → embryo → morula → zygote → fetus → newborn C) Zygote → blastocyst → morula → embryo → fetus → newborn D) Morula → blastocyst → zygote → fetus → embryo → newborn 2521) A sperm cell needs to pass through several layers/structures in order to fertilize a

secondary oocyte. What is the correct order of these layers?

A) Corona radiata → zona pellucida → oocyte cell membrane B) Zona pellucida → oocyte cell membrane → corona radiata C) Oocyte cell membrane → zona pellucida → corona radiata D) Zona pellucida → corona radiata → oocyte cell membrane 2522) What extends from the embryo into the endometrium, contributing to the formation of the

placenta?

A) Chorionic villi B) Embryonic disc and trophoblast C) Yolk sac and allantois D) Mesoderm and endoderm 2523) The hormone __________ suppresses uterine contractions while __________ promotes

uterine contractions.

A) progesterone; prostaglandin B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); luteininzing hormone (LH) C) estrogen; progesterone D) oxytocin; estrogen 2524) The increase in size due to an increase in cell number is called _________.

A) growth B) mitosis C) cleavage D) fertilization

2525) In 2014, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, what was the

average life expectancy for women?

A) 52 years B) 76 years C) 81 years D) 120 years FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

2526) The structure that surrounds the cell membrane of the secondary oocyte is the __________.

2527) The fertilized ovum is also called a(n) __________.

2528) The development process during which the contents of a zygote are divided into

increasingly smaller cells is called __________.

2529) The slender projections that grow out from the trophoblast into the uterine wall are called

__________ villi.

2530) During development of the hands and feet in the late embryonic stage, the fingers and

toes form as extensions of muscular, nervous, and connective tissue from the limb buds.

Completion of finger and toe extension triggers a process in which the webbed tissue between each digit is signaled/programmed to die. This process is an example of __________.

2531) If a pregnant woman becomes infected with the Varicella (chicken pox) virus during the

embryonic stage, the fetus can develop eye problems, mental retardation, and delayed growth. The Varicella virus is a(n) __________.

2532) In an adult, the proximal portions of the umbilical arteries persist and supply blood to the

__________.

2533) In the day or two before milk secretion begins, the breasts secrete __________.

2534) In an adult, a solid, cordlike structure called the __________ develops in the place of the

former umbilical vein.

2535) In an adult heart, the previous location of the foramen ovale is marked by a depression

called the __________.

2536) The process of growing old is called __________.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 23 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) C 25) B 26) A 27) C 28) B 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) C 37) B

38) B 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) A 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) C 47) D 48) A 49) A 50) C 51) D 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) D 56) A 57) B 58) C 59) A 60) A 61) B 62) A 63) B 64) C 65) A 66) B 67) A 68) C 69) B 70) C 71) B 72) B 73) A 74) B 75) A 76) C 77) C

78) D 79) B 80) C 81) B 82) B 83) A 84) B 85) C 86) A 87) B 88) B 89) B 90) A 91) A 92) A 93) A 94) A 95) C 96) zona pellucida 97) zygote 98) cleavage 99) chorionic 100) apoptosis 101) teratogen 102) urinary bladder 103) colostrum 104) ligamentum teres 105) fossa ovalis 106) senescence

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

2537) Most of the DNA in the human genome encodes protein. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2538) Chromosomes contain genes and genes contain genomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2539) Genetics is the study of the inheritance of traits and their variability. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2540) The field of genetics deals only with disease. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2541) Genetic information passes from protein to RNA to DNA. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2542) Genes determine all of our characteristics. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2543) The human genome contains millions of different genes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2544) We can predict the likelihood of a particular inherited trait occurring in a particular

family member by understanding the ways that specific genes are transmitted generation to generation. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2545) Genes have multiple alleles because the DNA sequence within a gene can vary. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2546) A heterozygote has identical alleles of a gene and a homozygote has different alleles. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2547) The expression of an inherited trait is the genotype and the DNA sequence for the gene is

the phenotype. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2548) For an albino individual, their lack of color is their genotype and the two recessive alleles

that they inherited are their phenotype. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2549) A recessive allele masks the effect of a dominant allele. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2550) A trait that skips generations, affects both sexes, and is transmitted by parents who either

have the condition or carry it, is an autosomal recessive trait. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2551) An autosomal dominant condition can disappear from a family if, in a particular

generation, no one inherits the disease. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2552) Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Janet is homozygous dominant for the

gene. Her brother Henry is a heterozygote. Therefore, neither of them have cystic fibrosis. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2553) In incomplete dominance, the phenotype of a heterozygote is in between that of either

homozygote. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2554) A genotype that does not affect everyone who inherits it is completely penetrant. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2555) Variable expressivity and pleiotropy can account for a disease that produces different

intensities of symptoms or different symptoms among individuals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2556) The muscle disorder called myotonic dystrophy can be caused by different genes located

on different chromosomes. This means that the condition is genetically heterogeneic. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2557) A multifactorial trait is determined by both genetic and environmental factors. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2558) A trait determined by more than one gene is polygenic. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2559) Absence of the SRY gene and expression of the Wnt4 gene are necessary for female

reproductive structures to develop in an embryo and fetus. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2560) Beard growth is a sex-influenced trait. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2561) Trisomic conditions, such as Down syndrome, are due to deletion of segments of

chromosomes during gametogenesis. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2562) People with aneuploid sex chromosomes are more severely affected than people with

aneuploid autosomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2563) Amniocentesis involves the obtaining a sample of the fetal portion of the placenta. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2564) Maternal serum markers can provide information about the number and condition of fetal

chromosomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2565) For genetic disorders that affect metabolic pathways, treatment often can include protein-

based therapies such as enzyme replacement therapy or substrate reduction therapy. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2566) DNA sequencing can often provide clues to help in diagnosing difficult medical

conditions. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

2567) The human genome consists of __________.

A) DNA, most of which encodes protein B) DNA, most of which does not encode protein C) DNA, most of which encodes RNA D) protein, most of which does not encode DNA 2568) What is a gene?

A) DNA sequence that contains the information for producing one type of protein.

B) Structure that contains chromosomes.

C) Amino acid sequence that contains the information for producing a particular DNA

sequence.

D) Collection of all of the protein-encoding DNA sequences on a particular chromosome.

2569) Among humans, our genomes are about __________% alike.

A) 0.1 B) 46 C) 72 D) 99.9 2570) Genetics is the study of __________.

A) sperm and eggs B) the effect of the environment on health C) inheritance of characteristics D) DNA

2571) A human zygote has __________ chromosomes, __________ each from the sperm and

the egg.

A) 22; 11 B) 44; 22 C) 46; 23 D) 48; 24 2572) What processes result in the passing of genetic information from one generation to the

next?

A) B) C) D)

Mitosis and fertilization Meiosis and fertilization Mitosis and meiosis Fertilization and cleavage

2573) What is an exome?

A) The parts of the genome that determine sex.

B) The protein-encoding parts of the genome.

C) The parts of the genome that do not encode for proteins, but have regulatory

functions.

D) The set of RNA molecules made in a particular cell type under specific conditions.

2574) Your family has a strong genetic predisposition to abnormal blood clotting and deep vein

thrombosis. How does this influence your chances of developing the same conditions?

A) At some time in your life, you will develop blood clots and deep vein thrombosis, since the genes producing such conditions are definitely in your genome and will become active at some point.

B) Since genetic predisposition does not influence your risk of developing these conditions, you do not have to worry about this.

C) If more than four or five of your relatives have died from these conditions, you can expect the same to happen to you, since medical professionals do not yet know how to stop genetic conditions from running their course.

D) While you do have a higher risk of developing these conditions, you can take precautions to reduce the risk by changing environmental factors.

2575) What two types of information are needed to predict the inheritance pattern of a trait?

A) How genes were distributed during meiosis, and how they come together at

fertilization.

B) The health of the mother and of the father.

C) How genes were distributed during mitosis, and whether the inherited alleles are dominant or recessive.

D) The age at which the trait appears, and how the sex of the offspring affects the expression of the trait.

2576) Name the two types of chromosomes.

A) Autosomes and allosomes B) Sex chromosomes and allosomes C) Sex chromosomes and autosomes D) X and Y chromosomes 2577) What is a karyotype?

A) A diagram that represents family relationships.

B) A chart of chromosomes, from largest to smallest.

C) A genome sequence.

D) A list of genes and the proteins they encode.

2578) While observing a karyotype for a fetus, an obstetrician notices that three copies of

chromosome 16 are present. What sort of chromosomal abnormality does this fetus have?

A) Monosomy B) Incomplete dominance C) Trisomy D) Polyploidy 2579) Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is a type of blood cell cancer the involves abnormal

production of white blood cells. Many genetic abnormalities have been found to be associated with development of AML, one of which is monosomy 7. How would this genetic abnormality appear on a karyotype?

A) Seven copies of each chromosome B) Three copies of each chromosome C) Only one copy each of chromosome 7 and chromosome 21 D) One copy of chromosome 7

2580) The characteristics or health conditions associated with a particular set of alleles is called

the __________.

A) genotype B) genome C) phenotype D) karyotype 2581) Why does an individual have two alleles for most genes?

A) Because each DNA strand within each chromosome has a duplicate copy.

B) Because one allele of a gene is carried on each of two homologous chromosomes.

C) Because each DNA strand contains two copies of each gene.

D) Because one allele is located on DNA and the other is located on mRNA. 2582) An individual who carries two identical alleles for a gene is said to be __________ for

that gene.

A) homozygous B) heterozygous C) aneuploid D) trisomic 2583) An individual who carries two different alleles for a gene is said to be __________ for

that gene.

A) homozygous B) heterozygous C) aneuploid D) trisomic 2584) A(n) __________ allele will mask the effect of another allele.

A) homozygous B) penetrant C) X-linked D) dominant 2585) What is the probability that a cross between a homozygous dominant female and a

heterozygous male will result in a homozygous dominant child?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 100%

2586) What is the probability that a cross between a homozygous dominant female and a

homozygous recessive male will result in a homozygous recessive child?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 100% 2587) Two alleles for a gene are "A" (normal pigmentation) and "a" (albinism). Which cross

will result in a 50% probability that the child will be albino?

A) Aa x aa B) AA x Aa C) Aa x Aa D) AA x AA 2588) A(n) __________ allele is not expressed in the heterozygous condition.

A) recessive B) dominant C) autosomal D) codominant 2589) Jonathan has straight hair. Caroline has curly hair. Their son, Carson, has wavy hair. The

inheritance pattern illustrated here is an example of __________.

A) incomplete dominance B) multifactorial inheritance C) pleiotropy D) incomplete penetration 2590) In a simple dominant-recessive inheritance pattern, what is the chance of the offspring

exhibiting the dominant trait when both parents are heterozygous for the trait?

A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100% 2591) A wide variety of eye colors (phenotypes) are possible because eye color is determined

by __________ inheritance.

A) dominant/recessive B) polygenic C) incomplete dominant D) sex-linked

2592) What is pleiotropy?

A) One allele masking the other.

B) Multiple genes determining a trait.

C) One gene having multiple and apparently unrelated effects.

D) Both alleles being expressed equally.

2593) How are traits expressed for genes that have incomplete dominance?

A) The heterozygous phenotype is intermediate between that of either homozygote.

B) One allele masks the effect of the other.

C) One allele is inactive.

D) Only one sex is affected.

2594) An individual's ABO blood type is determined by three alleles (A, B, and O) which

combine to produce one of six genotypes that then result in one of four phenotypes (blood types). This is an example of what type of inheritance?

A) Codominant inheritance with multiple alleles B) Incompletely penetrant polygenic inheritance C) Sex-limited trait with multiple alleles D) Variably expressive incomplete dominance 2595) Different individuals can express a particular phenotype (such as hearing loss or a

clotting disorder) due to the expression of different genes. What term describes this situation?

A) Genetic heterogeneity B) Sex-linked inheritance C) Euploidy D) Trimsomy 2596) What statement is true about X-linked recessive traits?

A) Because they inherit only one X chromosome, males can never be carriers of X-

linked recessive traits.

B) Since they have two X chromosomes, females are more likely than males to express X-linked recessive traits.

C) A female who exhibits an X-linked recessive trait has a mother who was homozygous dominant for the trait.

D) X-linked recessive traits result in disorders of the female reproductive system.

2597) A trait that is determined by one or more genes and environmental factors is a(n)

__________ trait.

A) sex-linked B) recessive C) completely penetrant D) multifactorial 2598) How many protein-encoding genes are found on the Y chromosome?

A) About 17 B) About 230 C) About 710 D) More than 1,500 2599) What causes the development of male structures in an embryo while suppressing

development of female structures?

A) The SRY gene but not the Wnt4 gene B) The Wnt4 gene but not the SRY gene C) Both the SRY and Wnt4 genes 2600) Colorblindness is an X-linked recessive trait. Antonio is colorblind. Emilia is not

colorblind nor is she a carrier for colorblindness. What phenotypes will occur in their children?

A) Their sons will be colorblind and theirs daughters will have color vision.

B) Their daughters will be colorblind and their sons will have normal color vision.

C) All of their children, regardless of sex, will be colorblind.

D) All of their children, regardless of sex, will have normal color vision.

2601) Hemophilia A is an example of what type of genetic trait?

A) X-linked recessive trait B) Autosomal dominant trait C) Polygenetic trait D) Multifactorial trait 2602) The trait of __________ is an example of a sex-influenced trait.

A) pattern baldness B) hemophilia A C) colorblindness D) hypertension

2603) What sex chromosome(s) is/are present in the cells of a woman with Turner syndrome?

A) XXX B) XYY C) X D) No sex chromosomes 2604) Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities will most severely affect a fetus?

A) XXX B) Monosomy of a large autosome C) Trisomy of a small autsome D) XXY 2605) Which term describes a human cell with 46 chromosomes?

A) Aneuploid B) Euploid C) Polyploid D) Haploid 2606) What chromosomal abnormality is associated with Down syndrome?

A) Trisomy 21 B) XXY C) Trisomy 18 D) Monosomy 18 2607) Which prenatal test will allow collection of a sample of the fetal genome without

puncturing the amniotic sac?

A) Amniocentesis B) Chorionic villus sampling C) Ultrasonography D) Maternal serum marker screening 2608) A human cell that has 69 chromosomes classified as a(n) ___________ cell.

A) haploid B) triploid C) diploid D) euploid

2609) A human cell that has 47 chromosomes is classified as a(n) __________ cell.

A) monosomic B) euploid C) polyploid D) trisomic 2610) Klinefelter syndrome (XXY) and Turner syndrome (XO) can result if __________ occurs

during oogenesis.

A) meiosis B) translocation C) nondisjunction D) mitosis 2611) If fertilization involves one haploid gamete and one diploid gamete, what is the result?

A) Aneuploidy B) Euploidy C) Trisomy D) Polyploidy 2612) A pregnant woman would like to check her unborn child for Trisomy 21, but wants to

avoid invasive testing methods. How should her obstetrician advise her?

A) Ultrasound can be used to provide a karyotype, so this procedure will be advised.

B) Cell-free fetal DNA testing can provide some preliminary information. If this test suggests a trisomy, chroionic villus sampling or amniocentesis should be performed to confirm.

C) Maternal serum markers should provide the woman with the information she seeks, so it is appropriate to use only non-invasive procedures.

D) The only method available to determine the presence of trisomy is amnmiocentesis, so the doctor should encourage the woman to do this test.

2613) What occurs during an amniocentesis procedure?

A) A needle is used to remove cells from the fetus.

B) A small sample of the placenta is removed and examined for abnormal cells.

C) Fetal fibroblasts in amniotic fluid are cultured and a karyotype constructed.

D) Fetal cells found in a maternal blood sample are isolated and their chromosomes

karyotyped.

2614) Which one of the following prenatal tests is non-invasive?

A) Amniocentesis B) Chorionic villi sampling C) Ultrasound D) Inserting a shunt into a fetus with water on the brain 2615) In treating genetic diseases, __________ can be a one-time treatment while __________

would need to continue throughout the patient's lifetime.

A) gene therapy; protein-based therapies B) enzyme replacement therapy; substrate reduction therapy C) protein-based therapies; gene editing D) pharmacological chaperone therapy; gene therapy FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

2616) A(n) __________ is a chart showing chromosomes in order of their size.

2617) A mutation that is not inherited, but originates in a particular individual, is called a(n)

__________ mutation.

2618) A process called __________ involves the exchange of genetic material between two

chromosomes during gametogenesis, possibly leading to a genetic disorder.

2619) When one gene contributes to several traits, or has multiple effects, it is called

__________.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 24 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) FALSE 25) FALSE 26) FALSE 27) FALSE 28) FALSE 29) TRUE 30) TRUE 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) B

38) D 39) A 40) C 41) B 42) C 43) D 44) C 45) B 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) C 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) C 57) A 58) B 59) A 60) A 61) D 62) B 63) A 64) D 65) D 66) A 67) C 68) B 69) B 70) A 71) B 72) B 73) D 74) C 75) D 76) B 77) C

78) C 79) A 80) karyotype 81) de novo 82) translocation 83) pleiotropy