Test Bank for Evolutionary Analysis 5th Edition by Herron Jon; Freeman Scott

TEST BANK FOR Evolutionary Analysis 5th Edition by Herron Jon; Freeman Scott ISBN 9780321998378 Chapter 1-20

Chapter 1 A Case for Evolutionary Thinking: Understanding HIV 1) In which of the following regions has AIDS killed the largest number of individuals?

A) India B) Sub-Saharan Africa C) United States D) China E) United Kingdom Answer: B Section: 1.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The HIV virus contains all of the following components except A) integrase B) double-stranded RNA C) single-stranded RNA D) reverse transcriptase E) protease Answer: B Section: 1.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) The acronym HIV stands for which of the following?

A) human intercellular virus B) human immune virus C) human immunodeficiency virus D) human immunity virus E) human immunodeficiency vector Answer: C Section: 1.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for transcribing viral RNA into DNA? A) RNA polymerase B) reverse transcriptase C) DNA polymerase D) reverse integrase E) RNA duplicase Answer: B

Section: 1.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) The proteins that enable the HIV virus to bind to cells are typically CD4 and CCR5. On what type of cells are these proteins typically observed?

A) plasma cells B) dendritic cells C) effector helper T cells D) memory helper T cells E) both C and D Answer: E Section: 1.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) The AIDS phase of HIV infection begins when the concentration of CD4 T cells in the blood drops below what concentration?

A) 2,000 cells per cubic millimeter B) 1,000 cells per cubic millimeter C) 500 cells per cubic millimeter D) 200 cells per cubic millimeter E) No CD4 T cells are observed.

Answer: D Section: 1.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which of the following drug categories are used to treat HIV infections?

A) integrase inhibitors B) protease inhibitors C) reverse transcriptase inhibitors D) DNAse inhibitors E) fusion inhibitors Answer: D Section: 1.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Coreceptor inhibitors block HIV infection by preventing which of the following?

A) binding of the HIV virion onto the plasma membrane B) binding of the HIV virion onto the CCR5 receptor C) binding of the HIV virion onto the gp120 protein D) degrading the coreceptor so the virion cannot attach E) binding of the HIV virion onto the CD4 receptor Answer: B Section: 1.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 9) What is the effect of the ∆32 allele of CCR5 on HIV binding?

A) appears on the surface of CD4 T cells, but the HIV virion is unable to infect the host cell B) does not appear on the surface of CD4 T cells

C) appears on the surface of the CD4 T cells and inactivates the virion upon binding D) interferes with binding of the virion to the CD4 receptor protein E) appears on the surface of the CD4 T cells and causes the virion to lyse upon binding Answer: B Section: 1.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 10) The ∆32 allele of CCR5 is found at the highest frequency in which of the following populations?

A) Africans B) Japanese C) North Americans D) Europeans E) South Americans Answer: D Section: 1.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) HIV-1 is believed to have been transmitted to humans from which of the following organisms?

A) gorillas B) sooty mangabeys C) African green monkeys D) chimpanzees E) baboons Answer: D Section: 1.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) HIV-1 Group M is responsible for 95% of human infections. When is it estimated that HIV-1 Group M was transferred to humans?

A) 1980 B) 1960 C) 1930 D) 1995 E) 1900 Answer: C Section: 1.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Antibodies and killer T cells recognize HIV or HIV-infected cells by binding to short pieces of viral proteins displayed on the virus or the infected host cell. These short pieces of viral proteins are called .

A) coat proteins B) virosomes C) proteosomes D) epitopes

E) episomes Answer: D Section: 1.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Tetherin is an important protein produced by the host. What is the function of tetherin in protecting a host cell from HIV? A) ties maturing virions to the membrane of the host cell, thereby preventing the release of the mature virus B) binds the virus to the external host cell membrane, thereby preventing the virus from entering the host cell C) binds the viral RNA to reverse transcriptase, thus preventing synthesis of the viral DNA D) binds the two viral RNA strands together, thus preventing the transcription of viral DNA in the host cell E) causes the maturing virions to aggregate together, thus preventing their release from the host cell Answer: A Section: 1.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 15) Early in the infection with HIV, most virions bind to the host cell using CCR5 as a coreceptor. As the infection progresses, the HIV population evolves to use an alternate coreceptor. What is the alternate coreceptor these X4 viruses utilize?

A) Tetherin B) CCR5α C) vpu D) TRIM5α E) CXCR4 Answer: E Section: 1.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) In what region of the world is the incidence of infection with HIV highest?

Answer: Sub-Saharan Africa Section: 1.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Originally, HIV was thought to be restricted to transmission during homosexual contact between gay men. List other ways in which HIV is currently known to be transmitted.

Answer: HIV can be transmitted by heterosexual sex, oral sex, needle sharing, transfusion with contaminated blood products, other unsafe medical procedures, childbirth and breast-feeding.

Section: 1.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) What does the acronym AIDS stand for?

Answer: Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome Section: 1.1

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) What viral coat protein typically binds first to the CD4 receptor on helper T cells?

Answer: gp120 Section: 1.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) When AZT is used to treat HIV infections, why does resistance to AZT usually develop?

Answer: Mutations present in the viral population, due to the lack of proofreading and high error rate of the viral reverse transcriptase, enable mutant virions to discriminate against the incorporation of AZT during transcription.

Section: 1.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 21) It has been observed that viral particles often revert (back mutate to non-AZT-resistant populations when treatment with AZT is discontinued. What is the most likely reason for this observation?

Answer: There is no more selective pressure applied to the viral population, and in the absence of AZT the viral particles that reproduce most efficiently have not evolved enough to have the ability to discriminate against AZT. Section: 1.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 22) What is the molecular mechanism by which reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as AZT, prevent viral replication?

Answer: These molecules are analogues of the nucleotide building blocks of DNA, and typically prevent binding or elongation of the of the transcribed DNA molecule.

Section: 1.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) In what host cell protein is the Δ32 mutation found, and what type of mutation is this?

Answer: The Δ32 mutation is found in the CCR5 coreceptor on CD4 helper T cells, and is a 32base pair deletion.

Section: 1.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Explain the phylogenetic relationship between humans, chimpanzees, and monkeys in the transmission of the current predominant deadly strain in humans, HIV-1.

Answer: HIV-1 is believed to have originated in monkeys as an SIV (simian immunodeficiency virus); SIV was passed from monkeys to chimpanzees, and SIV was passed to and mutated into HIV-1 sometime around 1930.

Section: 1.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Explain the mechanism HIV uses to avoid destruction by antibodies present in the human immune system.

Answer: The virus is constantly mutating its surface proteins, and these frequent changes in epitopes on the viral surface prevent the host cell from being able to recognize the virus over time.

Section: 1.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 26) Following long periods of infection with HIV, an X4 strain often evolves. What evolutionary advantage does the X4 strain confer on the viral population, and what specific protein does this strain interact with?

Answer: The evolutionary advantage of this strain is that it can infect a different population of T cells. The alternate population of T cells contains the coreceptor CXCR4 instead of the CCR5 coreceptor.

Section: 1.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 27) What is the function of the product of the viral gene vpu in human infections of HIV? Answer: The viral gene vpu (in a similar manner to the viral protein nef) blocks the action of the host protein tetherin, which normally adheres to viral particles and attaches them to the host cell membrane and prevents their release.

Section: 1.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) What steps are involved in producing the HIV GP120 protein? List all processes and host cellular structures involved from the point of initial infection with viral RNA to the production of the mature virion outside of the host cell.

Section: 1.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 29) Highly active antiretroviral therapies (HAART) have become the treatment method of choice in treating human HIV infections. What is required for a treatment to be classified as HAART, and why have these treatments proven so effective in the treatment of HIV infections?

Section: 1.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

30) If an individual is infected with HIV that goes undetected and untreated, the infection follows a standard clinical course of progression. Explain the three sequential phases of untreated HIV infection, the approximate times over which these phases occur, and the corresponding levels of both HIV RNA and CD4 T cells circulating in the host bloodstream.

Section: 1.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 2 The Pattern of Evolution 1) In response to environmental conditions, the average beak size in a population of birds may change between successive generations. This process of change is referred to as .

A) macroevolution B) sequestration C) speciation D) coalescence E) microevolution Answer: E Section: 2.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) After several generations of selectively breeding mice in a laboratory, Ted Garland and his colleagues established populations of mice that voluntarily chose to run great distances on exercise wheels. The process of establishing these populations of mice is termed .

A) natural selection B) artificial selection C) population selection D) experimental selection E) random selection Answer: B Section: 2.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) A useless or rudimentary body part that is thought to have been important in ancestral populations but no longer has a known function is termed a(n) .

A) evolved structure B) terminal structure C) vestigial structure D) residual structure Answer: C Section: 2.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) The coccyx, a tiny tailbone found in humans, is believed to be a

structure.

A) terminated B) vestigial C) rudimentary D) redundant Answer: B Section: 2.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

5) The biological species concept, formalized by Ernst Mayr in 1942, defined a species as a .

A) group of individuals that inhabit the same location B) group of individuals with similar morphological characteristics C) population within and among which individuals actually or potentially interbreed and outside of which they do not interbreed D) group of individuals who share similar allelic frequencies E) population of individuals within and among which reproduction takes place frequently Answer: C Section: 2.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Andrew Hendry and colleagues demonstrated that the process of speciation is gradual by studying the distribution and variation in gill raker length in .

A) brook trout B) aquatic copepods C) salmonids D) threespine sticklebacks E) razorfish Answer: D Section: 2.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 7) The comparative anatomist Georges Cuvier confirmed the concept of extinction in 1812 when he demonstrated that there were no extant species anatomically related to the fossilized remains of the .

A) mastodon B) Irish elk C) pygmy armadillo D) giant vampire bat E) Arctic lemming Answer: B Section: 2.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) The transitional fossil Archaeopteryx shows a combination of traits consistent with the hypothesis that it shared a common ancestor with .

A) dinosaurs and bats B) hippos and whales C) reptiles and birds D) dinosaurs and birds Answer: D Section: 2.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

9) Large evolutionary changes that result in the placement of related organisms into different genera or higher-level taxa occur via the process of .

A) speciation B) macroevolution C) microevolution D) independent evolution E) evolutionary differentiation Answer: B Section: 2.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Anatomical features that show an underlying structural similarity even though their superficial structure is different are termed structures.

A) homoplasic B) homologous C) symplasic D) dependent Answer: B Section: 2.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Nonfunctional copies of normal genes, which lack both introns and promoters, and are important in estimating evolutionary ages of phylogenetic relationships, are .

A) transgenes B) retrotransposons C) processed retrogenes D) processed pseudogenes E) duplicated pseudogenes Answer: D Section: 2.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Processed pseudogenes are useful for testing Darwin's theory of descent with modification because they .

A) can be utilized for examining phylogenetic relationships among asexually reproducing organisms B) demonstrate phylogenetic relationships of divergence because they do not accumulate mutations C) accumulate mutations at a constant rate, and thus older processed pseudogenes should be shared by a greater variety of species D) are distributed in organisms that are found in similar environments Answer: C Section: 2.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

13) The concept of uniformitarianism, articulated by James Hutton in the late 1700s, states that .

A) the genetic code is similar among all living and extinct species B) mutations accumulate at a constant rate in most organisms C) current geological processes on Earth operate in the same manner as those that operated in the past D) the rate of extinction has been constant throughout the time life has existed on Earth Answer: C Section: 2.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) The amount of time it takes for a radioactive element to decay to 50% of its daughter isotope is called .

A) decay rate B) half-life C) partial decay D) conversion rate E) quarter-life Answer: B Section: 2.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Radioactive dating techniques have demonstrated that Earth was formed approximately years ago.

A) 10 billion B) 46 million C) 4.6 million D) 4.6 billion Answer: D Section: 2.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) The theory that species do not change over time, are created separately and independently, and that the Earth and life on Earth are young is called the . [four words] Answer: theory of special creation.

Section: 2.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Explain how microevolution and artificial selection are demonstrated by the wide variety of dog breeds currently in existence.

Answer: Artificial selection via breeding has led to considerable variation within dog populations. However, all dogs are believed to be descended from wolves, and despite their variation, all dogs are members of the same species.

Section: 2.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

18) Vestigial structures are found in humans, and are thought to be useless or rudimentary body parts that had an important function in ancestral species. Give two examples of vestigial structures in humans.

Answer: Vestigial structures in humans are the coccyx (tailbone and arrector pili muscles at the base of each hair follicle.

Section: 2.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) In Dianne Dodd's experiments with Drosophila pseudoobscura, different populations were established that were raised on diets of either maltose or starch. When flies from the different populations were allowed to mate, some flies mated with flies fed on a different food source, but there was a preference for mating with flies raised on the same food source. What does this phenomenon illustrate about the timescale of speciation?

Answer: The process of speciation occurs over a long period of time, and this process can be observed under defined conditions in the laboratory.

Section: 2.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 20) What is the biological species concept put forth by Ernst Mayr in 1942?

Answer: Species are populations, or groups of populations, within and among which individuals actually or potentially interbreed and outside of which they do not interbreed.

Section: 2.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) What was the evolutionary significance of Georges Cuvier's analysis of the fossilized Irish elk, published in 1812?

Answer: Cuvier's analysis demonstrated that extinction had a significant role in evolution, and showed that the Irish elk belonged to a lineage that had become extinct, and was not related to any other extant species such as moose or reindeer.

Section: 2.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 22) Explain the significance of Archaeopteryx as a transitional fossil in our understanding of phylogenetic relationships.

Answer: Archaeopteryx shares a common ancestor with both dinosaurs and modern birds, and indicates that birds were derived from dinosaurs. Its phylogenetic position demonstrates that birds evolved feathers first, which was followed by muscular and skeletal modifications that enabled flight in modern birds.

Section: 2.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 23) What are structural homologies?

Answer: Anatomical features that show an underlying structural similarity even though their superficial structure is different, and that provide evidence of a shared common ancestry.

Section: 2.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

24) What are two features that characterize processed pseudogenes, and how do these arise?

Answer: Processed pseudogenes contain no introns or promoters, and arise when processed mRNAs are accidentally reverse transcribed to DNA by reverse transcriptase, and then inserted back in the genome at alternate locations.

Section: 2.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) On what basic physical principle does radiometric dating rely?

Answer: Unstable isotopes decay into either other elements or different isotopes of the same element. Each isotope decays at a constant rate, and the resultant half-life can be used to estimate the age of rocks and once-living materials.

Section: 2.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) The radioactive isotope range of 100 to 100,000 years.

Answer: Carbon-14 Section: 2.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

has a half-life of 5,730 years, and has an effective dating

27) The age of the Earth is estimated at 4.6 billion years. When are the first unicellular organisms thought to have evolved on Earth?

Answer: 3.2 to 3.4 billion years ago Section: 2.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Compare and contrast the processes of microevolution and macroevolution.

Section: 2.0/2.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 29) Discuss how the proximal CMT1A repeat that appears near the gene coding for peripheral myelin protein-22 (PMP-22) has been used to examine the phylogenetic relationships between humans, chimpanzees, bonobos, gorillas, orangutans and several other primates, and why this repeat provides evidence that supports the theory of descent with modification and against the theory of special creation.

Section: 2.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 30) Explain and provide evidence to support uniformitarianism, and how this evidence refutes the theory of special creation.

Section: 2.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 3 Evolution by Natural Selection 1) Evolution by natural selection was conceived and written about in the 1800s by

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A) Alfred Russel Wallace B) Charles Darwin C) W. C. Wells D) Patrick Matthew E) All of the above Answer: E Section: 3.0 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Natural selection .

A) works on populations, but its long-term effect is rendered on individuals B) works on individuals, but its long-term effect is rendered on populations C) can work only on populations of genetically identical individuals D) works regardless of the amount of genetic variability in populations Answer: B Section: 3.0/3.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Darwin studied and wrote extensively about the mechanism known as artificial selection.

Artificial selection is similar to natural selection, except that .

A) natural selection works toward a specific goal B) artificial selection relies on preexisting variations in populations; natural selection does not C) artificial selection produces varieties that would be less likely be favored in nature D) artificial selection produces varieties of less interest to humans than natural selection Answer: C Section: 3.1/3.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 4) Varieties produced under domestication via artificial selection most generally have traits that .

A) would continue to be perpetuated in the wild as well as, or better than, those produced by natural selection B) are based only on variations that already exist in populations C) are based only on new mutations that have arisen recently in domesticated varieties D) are not typically well adapted in a wild setting Answer: D Section: 3.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

5) Tomatoes carry a gene called fw2.2 that encodes a protein made during early fruit development―the job of which is to repress cell division. Additionally, researchers have identified a second gene called fas that controls the number of compartments in the mature fruit.

Artificial selection leading to the production of very large tomatoes has apparently capitalized on .

A) alleles associated with low production of the repressor protein and an increase in the number of fruit compartments B) alleles associated with high production of the repressor protein and an increase in the number of fruit compartments C) alleles associated with low production of the repressor protein and a decrease in the number of fruit compartments D) alleles associated with high production of the repressor protein and a decrease in the number of fruit compartments Answer: A Section: 3.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 6) When the Darwin/Wallace theory of natural selection is summarized, four central postulates emerge. Which of the following is NOT one of these four natural selection postulates?

A) Variations exist in any given generation of a species.

B) Variations in traits are produced by mutations.

C) Variations are, at least in part, heritable.

D) Those individuals whose variations confer an advantage are more likely to survive and reproduce.

Answer: B Section: 3.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which of the following statements best summarizes natural selection?

A) Organisms evolve in order to become better adapted to the environment.

B) Individuals who are most fit will survive.

C) Traits that promote survival and reproduction become more frequent in species from one generation to the next.

D) Organisms change in order to become adapted to new environments.

Answer: C Section: 3.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

8) A trait that confers a greater level of fitness, relative to those who lack it, is called a(n) .

A) adaptation B) mutation C) variation D) allele E) None of the above.

Answer: A Section: 3.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

9) In the accompanying figure of Jones and Reithel's work with snapdragons, what is the most likely outcome if these plants were in a natural setting?

A) A 2% change is too small to be significant, so yellow and white flowers will remain in roughly equal percentages in future generations.

B) Yellow and white flowers will oscillate in frequencies, depending on environmental conditions such as rainfall.

C) Yellow flowers will continue to increase in frequency, as compared to white flowers, over time.

D) Because the yellow trait is recessive, yellow flowers will ultimately take over the population.

Answer: C Section: 3.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 10) Evolution by natural selection .

A) requires that multiple unverified assumptions are made before it can be considered a viable explanation B) is only a theory and therefore not testable C) can be tested experimentally D) can be tested observationally E) Both C and D. Answer: E Section: 3.3/3.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Which of the following issues constitute a threat(s) to estimating the heritability of the Galapagos Island finches?

A) bisidentified paternity B) conspecific nest parasitism C) shared environments D) maternal effects E) All of the above.

Answer: E Section: 3.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

12) The accompanying figure shows data on composite values for beak size, beak shape, and body size for the medium ground finch (Geospiza fortis) inhabiting Daphne Major. Complete data sets were collected from 1973 onward.

For each of the three graphs in the accompanying figure, the 95% confidence intervals are shown as vertical bars extending above and below each data point for each year. The fact that many of these 95% confidence intervals do not overlap with the data from 1973 (the original reference point for this study) do not overlap reveals that .

A) no detectable change in these phenotypes was measured B) no evolution can be documented C) detectable change in phenotypes was observed, but the changes were not heritable D) detectable evolution by natural selection did occur E) None of these is an accurate statement.

Answer: D Section: 3.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

13) The accompanying figure shows data on composite values for beak size, beak shape, and body size for the medium ground finch (Geospiza fortis) inhabiting Daphne Major. Complete data sets were collected from 1973 onward.

The figure shows that .

A) the population of Geospiza fortis evolved a bigger beak in response to both droughts (1977 and 2003-04) B) the population of Geospiza fortis evolved a bigger beak in response to the 1977 drought and then evolved a smaller beak in response to the 2003-04 drought C) the population of Geospiza fortis evolved a smaller beak in response to both droughts (1977 and 2003-04) D) the population of Geospiza fortis did not evolve at all in response to either drought (1977 and 2003-04) Answer: B Section: 3.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

14) Regarding the nature of natural selection, which of the following is NOT an accurate statement?

A) Populations evolve traits by natural selection that will be useful for future environmental changes.

B) Natural selection acts on the phenotypes of individuals, but evolution occurs with changes in allele frequencies in populations.

C) Natural selection can and does produce features that are less than perfect adaptations.

D) Natural selection operates as a systematic, nonprogressive mechanism.

Answer: A Section: 3.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Darwin developed his theory of natural selection despite having an incomplete and/or inaccurate knowledge base from which to work. Which of the following were problems for Darwin?

A) the source of variations in populations B) an understanding of inheritance patterns from one generation to the next C) The accepted age of the Earth was far too young to allow for the gradual changes Darwin envisioned.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Section: 3.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Which of the following U.S. Supreme Court decisions struck down laws prohibiting the teaching of evolution?

A) The State of Tennessee v. John Thomas Scopes, 1925 B) Epperson v. Arkansas, 1968 C) Edwards v. Aguillard, 1987 D) Tammy Kitzmiller, et al. v. Dover Area School District, et al., 2005 Answer: B Section: 3.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Darwin confirmed the concept of evolution under domestication himself by experimenting with pigeons. This mechanism is more commonly known as . [two words] Answer: artificial selection Section: 3.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) An attribute that increases an organism's fitness, as compared to individuals lacking it, is called a(n) .

Answer: adaptation Section: 3.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

19) , in general terms, is an individual's ability to survive and reproduce.

Answer: Fitness Section: 3.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) can be defined as the fraction of the variation in a population that is due to differences in genes.

Answer: Heritability Section: 3.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Occasional traits, such as the insect-capturing features of carnivorous plants, emerge because existing traits become used in novel ways. Such traits are known as .

Answer: exaptations Section: 3.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Before Mendel's work was rediscovered, some argued that natural selection would not work because favorable traits would merge into existing traits over time and become lost. This hypothesis is known as . [two words] Answer: blending inheritance Section: 3.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Beginning around 1930, the [two words] developed as a reformulation of Darwinian natural selection based on the ways in which knowledge in genetics has informed us about heredity.

Answer: modern synthesis Section: 3.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Social, political, and legal controversy surrounding acceptance of evolution goes back to the decade of the , when teacher John Scopes was tried for teaching evolution.

Answer: 1920s Section: 3.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Proponents of [two words] argue that the complexities of living systems can only be accounted for by the creative acts of a conscious entity.

Answer: Intelligent Design (ID) Section: 3.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Identify and describe Darwin/Wallace's four tenets of natural selection.

27) Rewrite Darwin/Wallace's four tenets of natural selection by incorporating what we've learned from the field of genetics (i.e., "The Modern Synthesis").

28) Compare and contrast the experimental work of Jones and Reithel on snapdragons with Peter and Rosemary Grant's research with the medium ground finch (Geospiza fortis).

29) Darwin's calculations on elephant reproduction under ideal conditions reveal that far more elephants could be produced than actually are. Explain why this supporting fact is important to the theory of natural selection.

30) Suppose you were a dog breeder who wished to reduce the incidence of barking in an otherwise popular breed of dog. Design a strategy that would allow you to do this. What assumptions would you need to make, and what key elements would need to be in place to be successful?

Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 4 Estimating Evolutionary Trees 1) The illustration in the accompanying figure represents an early phylogenetic tree as depicted by .

A) Dembski B) Wallace C) Lamark D) Darwin Answer: D Section: 4.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

2) The label "1" in the accompanying figure represents

.

A) the "root" for the tree B) the common ancestor for the hypothetical lineage C) both A and B D) None of the above.

Answer: C Section: 4.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Every node in a phylogenetic tree represents a(n) A) common ancestor B) extinction event C) transitional form D) sister species Answer: A Section: 4.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

.

4) In determining the evolutionary relationships of current species, one needs to .

A) read along the tree tips: Species closer to each other are always more closely related B) read along the tree tips: Species shown at the tips are arranged in patterns reflecting which groups evolved from others C) read "back" to nodes connecting species to determine common ancestry D) None of the above is an accurate way to read phylogenetic trees.

Answer: C Section: 4.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

5) Phylogenetic trees can always be regarded as A) facts B) hypotheses C) guesses D) none of the above Answer: B Section: 4.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 6) A novel, derived character is also referred to as a(n) A) apomorphy B) plesiomorphy C) synapomorphy D) clade Answer: A Section: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) A preexisting, ancestral character is also known as a(n) A) apomorphy B) plesiomorphy C) synapomorphy D) clade Answer: B Section: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

about evolutionary relationships.

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8) A derived character that is shared among two or more lineages is also called a(n) A) apomorphy B) plesiomorphy C) synapomorphy D) clade Answer: C Section: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) An ancestor and all of its descendants are known as a monophyletic group or a(n) A) apomorphy B) plesiomorphy C) synapomorphy D) clade Answer: D Section: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

.

.

10) A phylogenetic tree grouping that consists of a common ancestor and all of its descendants is known as a group.

A) monophyletic B) paraphyletic C) polyphyletic D) polytomy Answer: A Section: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) A group consisting of a common ancestor and some, but not all, of its descendants is known as a group.

A) monophyletic B) paraphyletic C) polyphyletic D) polytomy Answer: B Section: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) In constructing phylogenetic trees, it is useful to think of monophyletic groups as being defined by .

A) apomorphies B) plesiomorphies C) synapomorphies D) clades Answer: C Section: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) The wings of bats and birds and the streamlined body form of sharks and whales represent examples of .

A) convergence B) reversal C) outgroups D) a clade Answer: A Section: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

14) Estimating the uncertainty of phylogenetic trees using computer-generated replicates from an original data set is known as .

A) a heuristic search B) the likelihood scenario C) Bayesian inference D) bootstrapping Answer: D Section: 4.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) In the case study involving the phylogeny of whales, .

A) molecular data and fossil data are in conflict with each other B) molecular data confirmed what was already known from the fossil record: whales are cetaceans C) fossil discoveries confirmed what molecular data already suggested: whales are cetaceans D) both molecular and fossil data are inconclusive Answer: C Section: 4.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 16) Which of the following phylogeny inference tools is the best at reconstructing the most accurate phylogenetic trees?

A) parsimony B) maximum likelihood C) Bayesian inference D) All of these methods have pros and cons.

Answer: D Section: 4.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 17) The use of phylogenetic trees in answering questions about the spatial distribution of living things is called .

A) biogeography B) phylogeography C) physiogeography D) polyphyletogeography Answer: B Section: 4.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) A [two words] is the evolutionary history of an ancestral lineage and its descendants.

Answer: phylogeny/phylogenetic tree Section: 4.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

19) Two closely related species that share a recent common ancestor are called species.

Answer: sister Section: 4.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) A(n) [two words] is a novel feature that evolved in a lineage and may be unique to a species or shared among species.

Answer: derived character Section: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) evolution is the independent evolution of similar derived characters in different lineages.

Answer: Convergent Section: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Complications in constructing phylogenetic trees due to reversals and convergent evolution are known collectively as .

Answer: homoplasy Section: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

23) In the accompanying figure, the three "dashes" in the fourth row of nucleotides represent a(n) that was corrected for in this example of molecular data analysis.

Answer: deletion Section: 4.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

24) After correcting for the noted deletion in slots 62-64, it becomes clear that mutations in the triplet have the most effects on changes in phenotype.

Answer: third Section: 4.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 25) Analysis of neutral mutation rates to answer interesting questions such as "When did humans begin to wear clothes?" relies on the [two words] hypothesis, which states that molecular traits change at a steady rate.

Answer: molecular clocks Section: 4.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Explain what parsimony is, and why it is preferred in constructing phylogenetic trees.

27) Your textbook states that under optimal conditions, all of the methods discussed (parsimony, maximum likelihood, neighbor joining, and Bayesian inference reveal the true branching pattern of the phylogeny in question with accuracies approaching 100%. However, real phylogenies are rarely inferred under ideal circumstances. Explain, using examples, why this is so.

28) Evaluate the merits and limits of parsimony, maximum likelihood, and Bayesian inference as tools for evaluating alternative phylogenies.

29) Convergence and reversal are two complications that can interfere with accurate reconstruction of phylogenies. Describe each one, using examples, and explain the common strategies used to overcome them.

30) Biogeographers study the spatial distribution of living things, and how they came to be where they are. Explain, using examples, how phylogeography can be used to answer the questions of biogeographers.

Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 5 Variation Among Individuals 1) Which of the following is NOT one of the types of variation that occurs within individuals?

A) genetic variation B) environmental variation C) normalizing variation D) genotype-by-environment variation Answer: C Section: 5.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Daphnia pulex grows protective armor upon sensing chemicals produced by the predatory phantom midge by the process of .

A) barrier defense B) inducible defense C) stimulatory defense D) predatory defense Answer: B Section: 5.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The patterns of phenotypes an individual may develop upon exposure to different environments is called its .

A) predictability norm B) variability norm C) response norm D) reaction norm Answer: D Section: 5.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Many studies on genetic variation in humans have been done with the perception of taste. The chemical phenylthiocarbamide (PTC) has been used extensively in these studies. Although many individuals cannot taste PTC, many individuals find the taste of PTC to be .

A) umami B) salty C) sour D) bitter E) sweet Answer: D Section: 5.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

5) In DNA, the substitution of a purine for a purine or a pyrimidine for a pyrimidine is called a(n) .

A) inversion B) transmutation C) transversion D) transition E) in-kind substitution Answer: D Section: 5.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) In DNA, the substitution of a purine for a pyrimidine or a pyrimidine for a purine is called a(n) .

A) inversion B) transmutation C) transversion D) transition E) substitution Answer: C Section: 5.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) The genetic code, which specifies the three-letter codons that specify particular amino acids, is said to be redundant because .

A) amino acid sequences are produced by different alleles B) it is observed in virtually all know organisms C) one codon can code for more than one amino acid D) phenotypic variation is observed depending on the codon usage E) some amino acids are coded for by more than one codon Answer: E Section: 5.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 8) Genes that are duplicated within a genome and later diverge in function, such as the RNASE1 and RNASE1B genes in douc langur monkeys, are described as .

A) duplicated genes B) orthologous genes C) homologous genes D) paralogous genes E) derived genes Answer: D Section: 5.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

9) Genes that are derived from a common ancestral sequence, and are separated by a speciation event such as the RNASE1 gene in douc langur monkeys and the RNASE1 gene in humans, are described as .

A) duplicated genes B) orthologous genes C) homologous genes D) paralogous genes E) derived genes Answer: B Section: 5.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) A hypothetical population has two alleles for a gene: A and a. In a random sample of 50 individuals, 20 are homozygous for a, 20 are homozygous for A, and 10 are heterozygous. What is the frequency of A? A) 20% B) 40% C) 50% D) 60% E) 80% Answer: C Section: 5.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Chromosome inversions often result from a multistep process that begins when radiation causes .

A) a duplication event, followed by reannealing of chromosomes B) four double-stranded breaks in a chromosome C) two double-stranded breaks in a chromosome D) two single-stranded breaks in a chromosome Answer: C Section: 5.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Organisms with more than two chromosome sets are said to be A) multiploid B) polyploid C) diploid D) haploid E) None of the above.

Answer: B Section: 5.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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13) Frequencies of inversions and/or allele frequencies often vary regularly when examined over a geographic area changing in either latitude or climate. This type of regular change is called a .

A) zonality B) cline C) gradient D) biome Answer: B Section: 5.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) According to the studies of Eyre-Walker and Keightley (2007), there appear to be four types of mutations observed in most organisms. Which of the following is NOT a type of mutation that is observed?

A) deleterious B) lethal C) neutral D) additive E) beneficial Answer: D Section: 5.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) The haploid human genome contains approximately 3.2 billion base pairs. How many mutations, on average, does each individual inherit from each of the gametes that united to form the zygotes from which he or she grew?

A) 3 B) 36 C) 360 D) 3,600 Answer: B Section: 5.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) An organism that develops different phenotypes in different environments is said to exhibit what trait?

Answer: phenotypic plasticity Section: 5.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) What DNA modifications characterize epigenetic marks?

Answer: Attachment of methyl groups to cytosine nucleotides in DNA, or other similar chemical modifications to DNA. Section: 5.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

18) What does one call a mutation that occurs in a DNA sequence, but leaves the resulting amino acid sequence unchanged?

Answer: synonymous or silent mutation Section: 5.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) What does one call a mutation that occurs in a DNA sequence that changes the amino acid specified by that sequence?

Answer: nonsynonymous or replacement substitution Section: 5.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) The process of producing proteins from DNA involves two different steps. What is the term used to describe each step, and what happens during each of these steps?

Answer: The DNA is transcribed into mRNA during the first step. The mRNA is then translated into proteins in the second step.

Section: 5.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 21) What is the term used to describe the smallest possible mutation in a DNA strand, which involves only one base?

Answer: a point mutation Section: 5.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Genes can be duplicated when a processed messenger RNA, from which introns have been spliced out, is reverse-transcribed to form a double-stranded DNA segment that is reintegrated into the main chromosome. What is the name for this process that may form nonfunctional pseudogenes?

Answer: retroposition or retroduplication Section: 5.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Unequal crossing over often results in the formation of duplicate copies of existing genes. At what phase of meiosis can unequal crossing over occur, and why does this happen?

Answer: Unequal crossing over occurs during prophase of meiosis I, and occurs when homologous chromosomes line up incorrectly.

Section: 5.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 24) What is the term given to the average frequency of heterozygotes at all loci of an individual?

This value can also be expressed as the fraction of genes that are heterozygous in the genotype of an average individual.

Answer: the mean heterozygosity Section: 5.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

25) In experiments with Caenorhabditis elegans, deleterious mutations accumulate at a slow but steady rate when the populations are grown in as benign an environment as possible, with optimal temperature and humidity, minimal crowding of individuals, abundant food, and no predators or parasites. From what important evolutionary force do these conditions insulate C. elegans?

Answer: natural selection Section: 5.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 26) Explain the relationship between genotype and phenotype with respect to the ability in humans to taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC), and the correlation of this ability to the type 2 taste receptors (TAS2Rs). How does the conformation of the TASTRs receptors affect the ability to sense the bitter taste of phenylthiocarbamide?

Section: 5.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 27) Organisms that exhibit different phenotypes in different environments are said to exhibit phenotypic plasticity. Using the tobacco hornworm, Manduca sexta, studied by Suzuki and Nijhout, describe the experiments done to illustrate the dependence of color on temperature. Be sure to explain the importance of using reaction norms in this type of study.

Section: 5.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 28) Explain the function of retroposition (retroduplication) in gene duplication. Describe the cellular mechanism used for this method of gene duplication, and the manner in which these typically nonfunctional pseudogenes can become active, functional genes.

Section: 5.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 29) Chromosome inversions often have a major impact on evolutionary processes. Describe the process and causes whereby chromosome inversions occur. Describe the effect chromosome inversions have on the process of meiosis, and provide a specific example of chromosome inversions discussed in the text.

Section: 5.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 30) In the mutation accumulation experiments of Dee Denvers and colleagues (2004) with Caenorhabditis elegans, deleterious mutations were observed to accumulate at a slow but steady rate when the populations were grown in a benign environment, with optimal temperature and humidity, minimal crowding of individuals, abundant food, and no predators or parasites.

Control lines grown under normal conditions did not accumulate mutations at the same rate.

After 240 generations, experimental lines that had accumulated substantial mutations were removed from the benign environment and these lines were propagated. Explain the results once the recovery lines were established, and how this experiment demonstrates the significance of natural selection in the evolutionary process.

Section: 5.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 6 Mendelian Genetics in Populations I: Selection and Mutation 1) A hypothetical population has two alleles for a gene: A and a. In a random sample of 100 individuals, 20 are homozygous for a, 20 are homozygous for A, and 60 are heterozygous. What is the frequency of A? A) 20% B) 25% C) 50% D) 60% E) 80% Answer: C Section: 6.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 2) In the mating of an Aa female and an Aa male, the genotypic outcome predicted by a Punnett square is .

A) three-quarters Aa and one-quarter AA B) one-half AA and one-half aa C) three-quarters Aa and one-quarter aa D) one-quarter AA, one-quarter aa, and one-half Aa E) All offspring will have the genotype Aa Answer: D Section: 6.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 3) The probability that two mutually exclusive events will occur is calculated by A) multiplying the probability of each individual event B) adding the probability of each individual event C) adding the probability of each individual event and subtracting 1 D) adding the probability of each individual event and multiplying by 2 Answer: B Section: 6.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

.

4) If a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, which of the following statements is correct?

A) Each allele will be present at a 50% frequency.

B) Allele frequencies can vary from generation to generation, but the average frequency must remain constant.

C) The size of the population must remain constant from generation to generation.

D) Allele frequencies must remain the same from generation to generation.

E) The rate of change of allele frequencies must be greater than 1 percent from generation to generation.

Answer: D Section: 6.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

5) The null hypothesis, which demonstrates that evolution is not occurring from generation to generation, is known as the model.

A) Bateman B) Hardy-Weinberg C) Fisher stability D) Mendelian stability Answer: B Section: 6.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) In large populations, the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle can be used to determine whether evolution is occurring. For instances where allelic frequencies are indicated by p and q, the resultant genotype frequencies are indicated by which of the following equations?

A) p2 + q2 B) p2 + pq + q2 C) p2 + 2pq + q2 D) p2 + (pq)2 + q2 Answer: C Section: 6.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Cavener and Clegg (1981) demonstrated natural selection by observing the cumulative change in allele frequencies in populations of Drosophila melanogaster that were subjected to high levels of .

A) mercury B) carbon dioxide C) alcohol D) sugar E) nitrous oxide Answer: C Section: 6.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) If there were a high allele frequency for the CCR5-32 coreceptor, and the rate of infection with HIV was high as well, one would expect the frequency of the CCR5-32 coreceptor allele to .

A) remain the same due to the lethality of AIDS B) remain the same due to the population maintaining Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium C) fall quickly due to heterozygote selection D) rise quickly and confer resistance on a large part of the population Answer: D Section: 6.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

9) In experiments with laboratory populations of Drosophila melanogaster, Mukai and Burdick (1959) observed that a lethal allele maintained a higher than expected frequency. The explanation for this observation is that, at equilibrium, the selective advantage of the lethal allele when it occurs in heterozygotes balances the disadvantage of the allele in homozygotes, and is termed .

A) equilibrium distribution B) underdominance C) allelic frequency dependence D) overdominance E) terminal dominance Answer: D Section: 6.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) In the study of Gigord and colleagues using Elderflower orchids, the allele frequencies of yellow and purple flowers varied such that when the yellow allele started to become rare, the reproductive success of purple flowers decreased and the reproductive success of yellowflowered individuals increased in a process known as .

A) overdominance B) frequency-dependent selection C) underdominance D) Hardy-Weinberg stabilization E) frequency depression Answer: B Section: 6.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 11) The point at which the rate that a deleterious allele is being eliminated from a population by natural selection is in equilibrium with the rate at which the deleterious allele is being replaced by a new mutation is termed .

A) mutation-dependent selection B) frequency-dependent selection C) mutation-dependent equilibrium D) mutation-selection balance Answer: D Section: 6.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

12) Cystic fibrosis is one of the most common genetic diseases among individuals of European ancestry, and affects one newborn in approximately how many?

A) 10 B) 100 C) 250 D) 2,500 E) 10,000 Answer: D Section: 6.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Cystic fibrosis is caused by a recessive loss-of-function mutation that encodes a protein called the .

A) cystic fibrosis transmembrane ion channel B) chloride ion transmembrane conductance regulator C) cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator D) cystic fibrosis ion channel regulator Answer: C Section: 6.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 14) An analysis showing the heterozygote superiority of the ΔF508 allele of CFTR demonstrates increased resistance to infections with the bacteria that cause .

A) pneumonia B) typhoid fever C) scarlet fever D) bubonic plague E) tuberculosis Answer: B Section: 6.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Chun-Hong Chen and colleagues (2007) designed a new gene that would carry a strong selective advantage and confer the resistance to malaria on free-living mosquitoes. The gene was termed Medea, and this acronym stands for which of the following?

A) Maternal-effect depleted embryonic activation B) Maternal-effect dominant embryonic activation C) Maternal-effect deleterious embryonic arrest D) Maternal-effect dominant embryonic arrest Answer: D Section: 6.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

16) A group of interbreeding individuals and their offspring is known as a(n) Answer: population Section: 6.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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17) The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle is known as the null hypothesis. List the five assumptions that are required for a population to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

Answer: no selection, no mutation, no chance events, no migration, and mating occurs randomly Section: 6.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) In biallelic populations, where allelic frequencies are indicated by p and q, the resultant genotype frequencies are indicated by what algebraic formula?

Answer: p2 + 2pq + q2 Section: 6.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle is often referred to as the , [two words] which indicates that if a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, that population is not evolving.

Answer: null model Section: 6.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) The statistical test used to determine whether the quantitative allele frequency results of an experiment fall within reasonable limits, or whether the null hypothesis is violated and the measured outcomes are significantly different than those expected is called the . [three words] Answer: chi-square test (χ2) Section: 6.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension, Application/Analysis 21) Two processes that can maintain rare or deleterious alleles in populations are words] and . [two words] Answer: negative frequency-dependent selection; heterozygote superiority Section: 6.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

[four

22) Although selection tends to eliminate deleterious alleles from populations, these mutations often persist because they are frequently created again. The rate at which deleterious alleles are being eliminated by selection is exactly equal to the rate at which new copies are being created by creation is termed . [three words] Answer: mutation-selection balance Section: 6.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

23) Cystic fibrosis in humans is caused by a recessive loss-of-function mutation in a locus on chromosome 7 that encodes for a protein called . [five words] Answer: cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) Section: 6.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Chun-Hong Chen and colleagues (2007) designed a new gene that would carry a strong selective advantage and confer the resistance to malaria on free-living mosquitoes. What was the acronym given this gene, and what does the acronym stand for?

Answer: The gene was termed Medea, and this acronym stands for maternal-effect dominant embryonic arrest.

Section: 6.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Explain the consequence of overdominance in maintaining a deleterious allele in a population as it relates to genetic diversity.

Answer: Overdominance, or heterozygote superiority, helps prevent potentially deleterious alleles from being lost in a population. Because the selective advantage of the deleterious allele in heterozygotes is balanced by the disadvantage of maintaining the allele in the homozygous state, allelic diversity within the population is maintained. This diversity enables more favorable responses to changing selective pressures of the environment.

Section: 6.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 26) Briefly describe the structure of compound chromosomes, and explain how their behavior during meiosis can be used to study underdominance.

Answer: Compound chromosomes are homologous chromosomes that have exchanged entire arms; one homolog therefore contains two copies of one arm, whereas the other homolog contains two copies of the other arm. During meiosis, four types of gametes are produced in equal numbers; gametes with both homologous chromosomes, gametes with just one member of the pair, gametes with the other member of the pair, or gametes containing no members of the homologous pair. Heterozygotes produced are therefore not viable, so the resultant populations consist of only homozygotes.

Section: 6.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 27) List the five assumptions made by the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle that are necessary to illustrate that evolution is NOT occurring from generation to generation, and provide a one- or two- sentence explanation of the importance of each assumption.

Section: 6.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

28) Discuss the experiments Cavener and Clegg (1981) performed in order to demonstrate that natural selection occurred by observing the cumulative change in allele frequencies in populations of Drosophila melanogaster that were subjected to high levels of alcohol. Be sure to discuss the methodology employed, and the significance of the AdhS and AdhF alleles in reproductive success.

Section: 6.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 29) Explain the significance of the experiments of Mukai and Burdick (1959) with laboratory populations of Drosophila melanogaster using the V (viable) and L (lethal) alleles. Be sure to explain their observation that a lethal allele was maintained at a higher than expected frequency, and the evolutionary significance of overdominance in these populations.

Section: 6.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 30) Explain the composition of the Drosophila melanogaster compound chromosomes used in the experiments of Foster and colleagues (1972), the mechanism by which these chromosomes segregate during meiosis, and the evolutionary implications of the strong underdominance that was observed.

Section: 6.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 7 Mendelian Genetics in Populations II: Migration, Drift, & Nonrandom Mating 1) The assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle include all of the following except .

A) random mating B) no migration C) limited population size D) All of these are assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg.

Answer: C Section: 7.1/7.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Gene flow through migration .

A) has no effect on allele frequencies of populations B) can go only in one direction C) may have the largest impact on small populations, such as those on islands D) maintains the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium Answer: C Section: 7.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 3) Suppose a founding population carries an allelic frequency not typical of the original population. Which of the following effects would most likely lead to homogenization?

A) genetic drift within the founding population

B) random mating within the founding population C) no mutations within either population D) migration between the original and founding populations E) None of the above.

Answer: D Section: 7.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

4) Data in the accompanying figure shows the results of allelic frequency analysis of an insectpollinated plant whose seeds are transported by wind and water, therefore making this plant one of the first colonizers of new islands. The data―particularly the lower variation of allele frequencies of intermediate-aged populations―supports the hypothesis that .

A) genetic drift tends to homogenize populations B) migration tends to homogenize populations C) gene flow tends to homogenize populations D) A, B, and C are all accurate.

E) B and C are both accurate.

Answer: E Section: 7.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

5) Figure 7.6 from your text, shown below, is a set of histograms showing the frequency of different color patterns of water snakes of Lake Erie (Nerodia sipedon). Type A snakes are unbanded, Type B are strongly banded, and Types C and D are intermediates. Given that natural selection favors unbanded snakes on the islands, how can you account for the presence/perpetuation of banded snakes on the islands?

A) Mutation rates converting unbanded alleles to a banded form operate at high frequencies on islands.

B) Natural selection favors unbanded snakes on the mainland.

C) Snakes on the islands represent a case of the so-called founder effect.

D) Natural selection favors banded snakes on the mainland, which occasionally migrate to the islands.

Answer: D Section: 7.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 6) In terms of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, genetic drift results from a violation of .

A) the random mating assumption B) the lack of natural selection assumption C) the infinite population size assumption D) the lack of mutation assumption E) the lack of migration assumption Answer: C Section: 7.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

7) Although most of the mechanisms of evolution are nonrandom, the one that is absolutely random is .

A) sexual selection B) natural selection C) artificial selection D) genetic drift Answer: D Section: 7.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) There are occasions when theoretical expectations do not match with actual outcomes, as you see in the case of zygote formation leading to genetic drift. This discrepancy is known as .

A) sampling bias B) sampling error C) nonrandom mating D) random mutations Answer: B Section: 7.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) The accompanying figure details the possible outcomes in a scenario in which 10 zygotes are formed from a gene pool where frequency of the allele A1 is 0.6, and A2 is 0.4. This graph is shown here. According to this graph, the probability that the frequency of A1 will remain the same in the next generation is about .

A) 8% B) 12% C) 16% D) 18% E) none of the above Answer: D Section: 7.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

10) The accompanying figure details the possible outcomes in a scenario in which 10 zygotes are formed from a gene pool where the frequency of the allele A1 is 0.6, and A2 is 0.4. This graph is shown here. According to this graph, the probability that the frequency of A1 will increase to 0.7 in the next generation is about .

A) 8%.

B) 12% C) 16% D) 40% E) 70% Answer: B Section: 7.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 11) Unusually high rates of rare heritable traits, such as achromatopsia in the Pingelapese people, is often due to .

A) genetic drift B) natural selection C) hitchhiking D) the founder effect E) None of the above.

Answer: D Section: 7.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

12) If genetic drift is not accompanied by natural selection, mutation, or migration, then the frequencies of alleles will "wander" between 0 and 1. Using the accompanying figure, which of the following is an accurate statement?

A) Random sampling error generates fluctuations in allelic frequencies over generations, so all populations—both simulated and real—have been found to follow the same evolutionary trajectory.

B) The effects of genetic drift are more immediate, and more pronounced, on small population sizes.

C) Genetic drift will have no long-term effect on allelic frequencies if the population numbers more than 40 individuals.

D) None of these is an accurate statement.

Answer: B Section: 7.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

13) The results of an experiment on genetic drift on Drosophila melanogaster are illustrated in the accompanying figure. These data show .

A) the loss of heterozygosity in the population over time B) the fixation of alleles in the population over time C) the permanent loss of alleles from the population over time D) All of the above are accurate.

E) None of the above is accurate.

Answer: D Section: 7.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 14) With enough time and in the absence of other evolutionary mechanisms, genetic drift will .

A) reduce the genetic variation in a population B) increase the genetic variation in a population C) have no effect on the genetic variation of a population D) None of the above.

Answer: A Section: 7.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 15) The neutral theory of molecular evolution, as developed by Kimura, posits that .

A) functionally neutral mutations that become fixed in populations occur in much larger numbers than those that become fixed by natural selection B) functionally neutral mutations never become fixed in populations without some element of selection also acting on them C) functionally neutral mutations are not subject to genetic drift D) functionally neutral mutations contribute very little to changes at the molecular level Answer: A Section: 7.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) At present, the neutral theory of molecular evolution .

A) is strongly supported by significant amounts of empirical evidence B) has been disproven, as neutral mutations have not been shown to have been fixed in populations C) is inclusive, as enough data has not yet been evaluated D) seems to work in some species but not others Answer: C Section: 7.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

17) The effects of inbreeding depression has been documented in A) plants only B) animals only C) both plants and animals D) This is a hypothetical construct and has yet to be documented.

Answer: C Section: 7.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) In an evolutionary sense, Answer: migration Section: 7.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

.

is the transfer of alleles from one population to another.

19) The fact that blind luck (more technically known as sampling error) can account for changes in allelic frequencies in populations is the evolutionary mechanism called . [two words] Answer: genetic drift Section: 7.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) The random discrepancy between theoretical predictions and actual outcomes is called . [two words] Answer: sampling error Section: 7.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Suppose a large population exists on a continent, and a new population is formed by the migration of a few individuals to an island some distance away. The fact that the alleles being carried to this island are not going to be a complete and representative set, as compared to the continental population, is a case of genetic drift known as the . [two words] Answer: founder effect Section: 7.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) A locus at which different individuals in a population carry different alleles is known as a(n) .

Answer: polymorphism Section: 7.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

23) A phenomenon known as [one or two words] occurs under conditions where a strong selection pressure acts on a particular change in an amino acid, which results in the corresponding increase in frequency of a closely linked neutral (or even mildly deleterious) mutation.

Answer: hitchhiking or selective sweep Section: 7.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) A phenomenon known as [two words] occurs under conditions where a selection pressure works against deleterious mutations, resulting in the corresponding decrease in the frequency of a closely linked neutral mutation.

Answer: background selection Section: 7.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) When we track alleles from lineages backwards in time, we see them ultimately fuse into one lineage. The result is a gene tree, which is produced by a process called .

Answer: coalescence Section: 7.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) , the most common type of nonrandom mating, will not change allelic frequencies, but it will change genotypic frequencies toward homozygosity.

Answer: Inbreeding Section: 7.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 27) The survival and fertility rates of the offspring of related individuals are commonly reduced.

This is known as . [two words] Answer: inbreeding depression Section: 7.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Compare and contrast natural selection with genetic drift as mechanisms of evolution.

29) A scenario in which 250 zygotes are formed from a gene pool in which the frequency of the allele A1 is 0.6, and A2 is 0.4, generates the accompanying figure. Explain, in general terms, what each of these graphs reveals. Is there a consistent pattern between all three graphs? If so, describe and provide an explanation for it. Are there inconsistencies among graphs? Describe and provide an explanation for these also.

30) The most common form of nonrandom mating is inbreeding. Despite the fact that inbreeding will not change allelic frequencies, it can still have a significant impact on the evolution of a lineage. Explain, using examples, why this is so.

Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 8 Evolution at Multiple Loci: Linkage and Sex 1) When genotypes at one locus of a chromosome are independent of genotypes at another locus of the same chromosome, the two loci are .

A) in linkage equilibrium B) in linkage disequilibrium C) nonrandomly associated D) None of the above.

Answer: A Section: 8.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

2) When genotypes at one locus of a chromosome are nonrandomly associated with the genotypes at another locus of the same chromosome, the two loci are .

A) in linkage equilibrium B) in linkage disequilibrium C) nonrandomly associated D) None of the above.

Answer: B Section: 8.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Which of the following can produce linkage disequilibrium?

A) genetic drift B) selection on genotypes of more than one locus C) mixing two disparate populations, each of which is in linkage equilibrium D) All of these choices can create linkage disequilibrium.

Answer: D Section: 8.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) The creation of new combinations of alleles, as a consequence of sexual reproduction with meiosis, is called .

A) genetic recombination B) outcrossing C) genetic drift D) linkage disequilibrium Answer: A Section: 8.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

5) According to the accompanying figure, we can conclude that

.

A) the rate of decline in disequilibrium occurs more quickly with a lower rate of recombination B) the rate of decline in disequilibrium occurs more slowly with a lower rate of recombination C) the rate of decline in linkage disequilibrium is inversely proportional to the rate of recombination between them D) None of these is an accurate statement.

Answer: B Section: 8.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 6) An advantage to studying linkage disequilibrium is that .

A) it provides another tool enabling the reconstruction of the history of genes and populations B) it provides clear evidence of speciation events C) it can be used to identify alleles that have been recently selected by natural selection D) Both A and C. Answer: D Section: 8.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

7) Certain loci that are in linkage disequilibrium with alleles of interest can be used as markers, which can then be useful in reconstructing the history of those alleles in populations.

One such marker/allele is described in your text, where the allele in question has an insertion mutation, rendering an enzyme (glucocerebrosidase, or GBA) nonfunctional. The decay curve for linkage disequilibrium between this marker (named D1S305) and the nonfunctional GBA allele is shown in the accompanying figure. The orange lines show the present level of linkage disequilibrium and the inferred number of generations elapsed since the most recent common ancestor. Assuming an average generation time of 25 years, what is the best estimate for how long ago the most recent common ancestor existed?

A) about 55 years ago B) about 1375 years ago C) about 2325 years ago D) There is insufficient data to make this determination.

Answer: B Section: 8.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

8) Certain loci that are in linkage disequilibrium with alleles of interest can be used as markers, which can then be useful in reconstructing the history of those alleles in populations.

One such marker/allele is described in your text, where the allele in question has an insertion mutation, rendering an enzyme (glucocerebrosidase, or GBA) nonfunctional. The decay curve for linkage disequilibrium between this marker (named D1S305) and the nonfunctional GBA allele is shown in the accompanying figure. The orange lines show the present level of linkage disequilibrium and the inferred number of generations elapsed since the most recent common ancestor. Assuming an average generation time of 25 years, how many years total will be required for the linkage disequilibrium reach 0.2?

A) about 55 years total B) about 100 years total C) about 1000 years total D) about 2500 years total E) There is insufficient data to make this determination.

Answer: D Section: 8.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 9) Alleles that are relatively new to a population and have been subject to positive natural selection are characterized by having .

A) high frequency and high linkage disequilibrium B) high frequency and low linkage disequilibrium C) low frequency and high linkage disequilibrium D) low frequency and low linkage disequilibrium Answer: A Section: 8.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

10) Which of the following choices is NOT a potential disadvantage to sexual reproduction?

A) Finding a mate is energetically expensive.

B) Finding a mate may increase the risk of predation.

C) Copulation may not produce offspring.

D) Sexual reproduction reduces linkage disequilibrium.

E) None of the above.

Answer: E Section: 8.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 11) A principle advantage of sexual reproduction is that it .

A) reduces linkage disequilibrium B) helps to recreate genotypes that are either rare or missing in a population, but are favored by selection C) regenerates genotypes in the evolutionary "arms race" between parasites and hosts D) All of the above.

Answer: D Section: 8.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 12) Which of the following reduces linkage disequilibrium by disrupting overrepresented haplotypes and by generating new ones?

A) sexual reproduction B) genetic recombination C) crossing over D) All of the above.

Answer: D Section: 8.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Muller's ratchet posits that in a finite asexual population, the number of deleterious alleles will increase over time. The accumulation of these deleterious alleles is called .

A) inbreeding B) linkage equilibrium C) linkage disequilibrium D) genetic load Answer: D Section: 8.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

14) Mathematical analysis of Muller's ratchet reveals that the most important parameter in the rate at which the ratchet works is .

A) population size B) mutation rate C) genetic heterogeneity D) sexual/asexual reproductive ratio Answer: A Section: 8.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Research and analysis has documented that Muller's ratchet works A) in mathematical modeling B) in empirical studies C) in a natural setting D) All of the above.

Answer: D Section: 8.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

.

16) Which of the following conditions accurately represent Muller's ratchet, in terms of the selective advantage of sexual reproduction?

A) Deleterious mutations accumulate in asexual populations, resulting in a significant genetic load.

B) Sexual reproduction is selected because it reintroduces no-mutation genotypes that have been lost from the population.

C) Linkage disequilibrium increases in populations by genetic drift because no-mutation multilocus genotypes are lost by chance.

D) All of the above accurately represent the conditions of Muller's ratchet.

Answer: D Section: 8.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 17) When considering two loci on a chromosome, the loci are said to be in words] when the genotype at one locus is independent of the other.

Answer: linkage equilibrium Section: 8.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

, [two

18) If there is a nonrandom association between the genotypes at two loci on a chromosome, the loci are said to be in . [two words] Answer: linkage disequilibrium Section: 8.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

19) Haploid genotypes involving two loci, such as AB, Ab, aB, and ab, are known as an organism's .

Answer: haplotype Section: 8.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Besides selection on multilocus genotypes, there are two other mechanisms that can create linkage disequilibrium. What are they?

Answer: genetic drift and population admixture Section: 8.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) The principal advantage of sexual reproduction is that it "reshuffles the genetic deck." The creation of new combinations of alleles during sexual reproduction–complete with outbreeding and meiosis with crossing over–is called . [two words] Answer: genetic recombination Section: 8.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) When a locus is discovered to be in linkage disequilibrium with nearby markers, and this allele is also found to occur in high frequency, it is logical to assume that this allele has been favored by . [two words] Answer: positive selection Section: 8.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) The mode of reproduction in which females produce genetically identical offspring from unfertilized eggs is known as .

Answer: parthenogenesis Section: 8.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) The explanation for the accumulation of deleterious alleles in asexual populations over time, with the resulting genetic load, is known as . [two words] Answer: Muller's ratchet Section: 8.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) In terms of population genetics, sexual reproduction on a functional level involves two necessary conditions. What are these conditions?

Answer: meiosis with crossing over; outcrossing/mating with unrelated individuals Section: 8.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

26) In cases where a perpetual "arms race" occurs between biological antagonists, such as parasites and their hosts, sex is favored because it reduces linkage disequilibrium by recreating missing genotypes in an oscillating fashion. This hypothesis is called the [two words] hypothesis.

Answer: Red Queen Section: 8.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Please refer to the accompanying figures. Is the population in linkage equilibrium or linkage disequilibrium? Explain, drawing on the evidence in the figures.

28) Explain and describe the three ways in which linkage disequilibrium can be produced in a population. Refer to the accompanying figures to support your explanation.

29) Drawing on the accompanying graphs for support, describe and explain the way in which Muller's ratchet works in asexual populations.

30) The observation that some organisms can (and do) produce both sexually and asexually within the same population produces some interesting questions, most notably the one Maynard Smith theorized about: Will one mode of reproduction replace the other over time?

Explain Smith's assumptions, and compare the predictions made by Smith's model with what is actually observed in nature. Are either of these assumptions violated in real life? Why or why not?

Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 9 Evolution at Multiple Loci: Quantitative Genetics 1) Traits that are conditioned by one locus are most appropriately termed A) qualitative traits B) quantitative traits C) continuously variable traits D) environmentally conditioned traits Answer: A

.

Section: 9.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Traits that are conditioned by multiple loci and form continuously variable phenotypes that are conditioned by both the genotypes and environmental influences are most appropriately termed .

A) qualitative traits B) quantitative traits C) discrete categorical traits D) Mendelian traits Answer: B Section: 9.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

3) The experimental work of Edward East in 1916, shown in the accompanying figure, confirmed that .

A) qualitative traits are essentially impossible to characterize because of their complex nature B) quantitative traits are essentially impossible to characterize because of their complex nature C) quantitative traits are established by the combined influence of Mendelian alleles at multiple loci D) quantitative traits return to qualitative attributes when allowed to outcross in the wild Answer: C Section: 9.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 4) When Clausen and colleagues grew genetically identical individuals of the yarrow plant at different elevations, the results are shown in the accompanying figure. This observation verifies that .

A) yarrow plants mutate quickly when grown in different environments B) the genotypes of yarrow plants has nothing to do with how tall these plants grow C) yarrow plants grow taller at lower elevations and shorter at higher elevations regardless of their genotype D) the genotypes of yarrow plants interacts with environmental influences to produce the phenotype Answer: D Section: 9.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

5) When Bradshaw and colleagues investigated the quantitative trait loci (QTL) of two species of Mimulus (Mimulus cardinalis and Mimulus lewisii), they used marker loci as a way to map the QTLs. Their results are shown in the accompanying figure. According to these results, .

A) the differences in genotype for the majority of these QTLs explained small amounts of the variations in flower phenotypes for both species B) some of the QTLs did have pronounced effects on the flowers' phenotypes C) at least one QTL explained 90% of the phenotypic variance for each species D) All of the above.

Answer: D Section: 9.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 6) To learn the location of and determine the role that QTLs have on phenotypes, researchers look for associations between a marker locus genotype and phenotype. Examples of research focusing on such methods have been conducted on .

A) human personality traits B) human diseases such as Crohn's disease C) the speed of thoroughbred race horses D) All of the above.

Answer: D Section: 9.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Heritability measures .

A) the difference between the environmental and genetic influences on a heritable trait of an individual B) the degree of influence that the sum of the environmental and genetic factors have on a trait C) the portion of the total variation in a trait that is due to variation in genes D) the distribution of the phenotypes of the individuals in a normally distributed population Answer: C Section: 9.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

8) The total variation in a trait is known as the A) phenotypic variation B) genetic variation C) environmental variation D) broad-sense heritability E) narrow-sense heritability Answer: A Section: 9.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

.

9) Variation among individuals that is due to variation in factors other than environmental influences is called .

A) phenotypic variation B) genetic variation C) broad-sense heritability D) narrow-sense heritability Answer: B Section: 9.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 10) Variation among individuals that is due to factors other than genetic factors is called .

A) phenotypic variation B) environmental variation C) broad-sense heritability D) narrow-sense heritability Answer: B Section: 9.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 11) The fraction known as the broad-sense heritability (where VG = genetic variation, VP = phenotypic variation, and VE = environmental variation) is expressed by .

A) VG/VP B) VG/VG + VE C) VG/VP + VE D) VG/VE E) A and B are both accurate.

Answer: E Section: 9.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

12) Determining the slope of the best-fit line for a data set of midparent versus midoffspring values by utilizing least-squares linear regression generates an estimate of heritability known as the .

A) phenotypic variation B) environmental variation C) broad-sense heritability D) narrow-sense heritability Answer: D Section: 9.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Multiple trait analysis (beak width and beak depth) on the medium ground finch, in response to the drought of 1976-77, has generated the three-dimensional graph, shown in the accompanying figure. If the blue triangles represent fitness levels for the quantified parameters, then the birds showing the greatest fitness should have .

A) deep, wide beaks B) deep, narrow beaks C) shallow, wide beaks D) shallow, narrow beaks Answer: B Section: 9.5 Skill: Application/Analysis

14) In cases where selection consistently favors a higher (or lower) value of a trait or phenotype, the result over time is a change in the average value of a trait in the population. This mode of selection is known as .

A) directional selection B) stabilizing selection C) disruptive selection D) selection gradient Answer: A Section: 9.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Data on survival of juvenile black-bellied seedcrackers as a function of beak size is shown in the accompanying figure. Given the relative survival rates of juvenile birds in terms of both the lower mandible width and length, this is a clear example of .

A) directional selection B) stabilizing selection C) disruptive selection D) selection gradient Answer: C Section: 9.6 Skill: Application/Analysis

16) The abbreviation QTL stands for influence nonqualitative traits.

Answer: quantitative trait loci Section: 9.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

, [three words] which are those genes that

17) refers to the fraction of the total variation in a trait that is due to variation in genes.

Answer: Heritability Section: 9.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Continuously variable traits typically have a(n) "bell-curve."

Answer: normal distribution Section: 9.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

, [two words] otherwise known as a

19) Determining the best-fit line for a data set by utilizing the least-squares linear regression, the slope of the resulting line represents a useful estimate known as the , [two words] for 2 which we use the symbol h .

Answer: narrow-sense heritability Section: 9.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) The authors of your textbook described two ways in which the strength of selection can be measured. What are these two ways?

Answer: selection differential; selection gradient Section: 9.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) It becomes possible to predict evolutionary changes in a population after we have measured two attributes affecting the population in question. What two measures allow us to make such predictions?

Answer: heritable variation; strength of selection Section: 9.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) In populations where individuals with intermediate values of a trait have the highest fitness, the average value of the trait does not change over time, but the variation tends to be reduced.

This set of circumstances is known as . [two words] Answer: stabilizing selection Section: 9.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

23) selection and selection tend to reduce the amount of variation in a population, whereas selection tends to increase the amount of variation in a population.

Answer: Directional; stabilizing; disruptive Section: 9.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) In populations where individuals with extreme values of a trait have the highest fitness, the average value of the trait may not change, but the amount of variance in the trait does increase over time. This set of circumstances is known as . [two words] Answer: disruptive selection Section: 9.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Suppose we consider the figures below. If Figure A represents a measurable trait in a population at time 0, and Figure B represents the same trait some generations later, we can conclude that the type of selection called selection has been at work.

Figure A Answer: stabilizing Section: 9.6 Skill: Application/Analysis

Figure B

26) Compare and contrast qualitative traits/genetics with quantitative traits/genetics.

27) Explain, using examples/equations, the similarities and differences between broad-sense and narrow-sense heritability estimates.

28) Estimating heritability using twin studies has been useful for certain human phenotypes, such as general cognitive abilities. Explain the logic behind this, and how such studies are performed.

29) Three distinct modes of selection have been proposed and studied in natural populations.

Each mode is different in its effects on the mean value and distribution of phenotypes. Compare and contrast each of these three modes.

30) Some have proposed that where human IQ scores are concerned, heritability can tell us something about the causes of differences between population means such as ethnic groups.

Explain why this perspective is erroneous.

Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 10 Studying Adaptation: Evolutionary Analysis of Form and Function 1) Conventional wisdom holds that oxpeckers remove ticks from the backs of cattle on which they feed in a mutualistic relationship, and the cattle tolerate the oxpecker's presence because the birds help remove parasites. Weeks (2000) performed observational experiments in Zimbabwe and demonstrated that the relationship between oxpeckers and cattle was not the removal of parasites but that the oxpeckers are .

A) mutualistic, but serve only to remove earwax from the cattle on which they feed B) in fact parasitic, and create and feed on wounds they make, and also feed on earwax in the cattle C) mutualistic and only feed on open wounds that have already been created by feeding ticks D) parasitic and feed on earwax and the open wounds they create during the removal of the earwax E) mutualistic and feed on open wounds that have already been created by ticks, and additionally feed on earwax Answer: B Section: 10.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Choose the incorrect statement regarding adaptation from the following: A) Some observed traits may not be adaptive, but are simply due to the process of genetic drift.

B) Although adaptations may seem to exist for obvious reasons, their presence always needs to be tested.

C) All traits that are observed are not necessarily adaptive.

D) If a trait is adaptive, it will perfectly fit a need that confers an evolutionary advantage.

E) At the molecular level, many of the variations among individuals, populations, and species may be selectively neutral.

Answer: D Section: 10.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 3) In experiments by Greene and colleagues (1987) with the tephritid fly Zonosemata vittigera and the jumping spider Phidippus apacheanus, carefully controlled experiments demonstrated that .

A) wing-waving by the tephritid fly was sufficient to prevent predation B) both wing-waving and wing markings on the tephritid fly mimicked the spider, and thus prevented predation C) wing marking on the tephritid fly were sufficient to prevent predation D) neither wing-waving or wing markings on the fly substantially prevented predation E) wing markings alone were sufficient to prevent predation Answer: B Section: 10.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

4) In experiments by Greene and colleagues (1987) with the tephritid fly Zonosemata vittigera and the jumping spider Phidippus apacheanus, the purpose for gluing housefly wings onto the bodies of the tephritid fly was to .

A) test for the effect of wing surgery in preventing predation B) test for effect of wing markings in preventing predation C) control for the effect of wing waving in preventing predation D) test for the effect of wing shape in preventing predation Answer: B Section: 10.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) In experiments with Caenorhabditis elegans by Anderson and colleagues (2011), the relationship between physiological performance and temperature was measured. This type of measurement is termed a .

A) thermal regulation distribution B) thermal fitness curve C) thermal performance curve D) reproductive success curve E) behavioral fitness curve Answer: C Section: 10.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) The data of Huey and colleagues (1989) on thermoregulation in garter snakes is an example of the method evolutionary biologists use to test hypotheses about adaptations.

A) situational B) experimental C) observational D) phylogenetic contrast E) comparative Answer: C Section: 10.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) As demonstrated by the experiments of Huey and colleagues (1989) on thermoregulation in garter snakes, snakes have a wide range of options for behavioral thermoregulation during the day―so long as they avoid thin rocks or direct sunlight at noon―but during the evening they are most often observed .

A) only on or under rocks that are of medium (20-40 cm) thickness B) on or under rocks that are of medium (20-40 cm) or thick (>40 cm) thickness C) on or under rocks that are of thin (<20 cm) or medium (20-40 cm) thickness D) only on or under rocks that are thick (>40 cm) E) avoiding rocks and moving to a deeper location under the surface Answer: B Section: 10.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

8) The method used to plot the divergence that arises between sister species as they evolve farther and farther from their common ancestor is termed .

A) phylogenetically dependent contrasts B) phylogenetically derived contrasts C) divergence contrasts D) phylogenetically independent contrasts Answer: D Section: 10.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Bush and colleagues (2010) photographed body and head lice on several cockatoos and compared the of the lice on the bird's bodies and heads.

A) size B) luminosity C) weight D) shape Answer: B Section: 10.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) To demonstrate the response of several Daphnia genotypes across a wide range of environments, Luc De Meester (1996) measured the change in phototactic behavior of Daphnia sampled from lakes that contained different numbers of predatory fish. Some genotypes altered their behavior in the presence versus absence of fish. The variation in response is termed .

A) phenotype-by-environment interaction B) genotype-by-environment interaction C) induced response interaction D) reactive response interaction Answer: B Section: 10.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) In the Kotukutuku plant, fuchsia excortiata, pollinated flowers turn colors from in order to signal pollinators that nectar is no longer being produced.

A) red; yellow B) red; green C) green; red D) green; yellow E) green; white Answer: C Section: 10.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

to

12) Futuyma and colleagues (1995) used the herbivorous leaf beetles of the genus Ophraella to study constraints in genetic diversity. Ophraella beetles feed and lay eggs on only certain members of the sunflower family because the beetles are unable to .

A) penetrate the epidermal layer to lay eggs on nonhost plants B) detect and detoxify chemical defenses produced by nonhost plants C) digest the leaves of nonhost plants D) break down the chemical defenses produced by nonhost plants in response to predation by the beetles Answer: B Section: 10.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension, Application/Analysis 13) Futuyma and colleagues (1995) demonstrated that host shifts by the herbivorous leaf beetles of the genus Ophraella in feeding on members of the sunflower family are due to the .

A) frequency-dependent selection properties among beetle populations B) low mutation rate observed in beetle populations C) need for populations to maintain sufficiently large sizes on a small number of hosts D) availability of genetic variation sufficient for evolutionary change Answer: D Section: 10.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Clayton and colleagues (2003) examined the frequency of host shifts observed among both wing feather and body lice that infect doves. They observed that body lice rarely shift host species, whereas wing feather lice often shift from one species to another. The higher frequency of host shifts observed in wing feather lice is due to the observation that .

A) wing feathers containing lice molt frequently, and are frequently used by other hosts to build nests B) body feathers do not come into contact with other hosts as frequently as wing feathers C) the lice that infect wing feathers often move from host to host on a parasitic fly D) doves preen each other's wing feathers at a higher frequency than body feathers Answer: C Section: 10.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Goriely and colleagues (2003) studied a genetic disease caused by a mutation in the gene coding for fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (FGFR2). This disease, known as syndrome, is a dominant mutation that causes premature fission of the joints in the skull, facial malformations, and fusion of the fingers and toes.

A) Marfan's B) Apert C) Edward D) Asherman's Answer: B Section: 10.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

16) Oxpeckers have long been thought to have a mutualistic relationship with cattle in Zimbabwe, whereby the birds remove ticks from the backs of cattle, and the cattle benefit due to the removal of parasitic ticks. The observational experiments of Weeks (2000) in Zimbabwe demonstrated that the relationship between oxpeckers and cattle was not mutualistic, but in fact parasitic. What two oxpecker behaviors did Weeks observe?

Answer: Weeks observed a parasitic relationship, where oxpeckers create open wounds in the cattle's skin and feed on the blood from these wounds; additionally, the oxpeckers feed on the cattle's earwax.

Section: 10.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) To determine the role of mimicry in the behavior of the tephritid fly Zonosemata vittigera and the jumping spider Phidippus apacheanus, Greene and colleagues (1987) conducted carefully controlled experiments to correlate appearance and behaviors with the deterrence of predation. What two factors were found important in preventing predation of the tephritid fly by the jumping spiders?

Answer: They determined that both wing-waving and wing markings are important deterrents to predation.

Section: 10.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) The replication of experiments or observations allows researchers to control for two important factors when considering experimental design. These two factors are and .

Answer: reducing the amount of distortion in the estimate caused by unusual individuals or circumstances; understanding how precise their estimate is by measuring the amount of variation in the data.

Section: 10.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension, Application/Analysis 19) What is the purpose of the null hypothesis in experimental design?

Answer: The null hypothesis is formulated to predict a situation where nothing of interest or significance is occurring. If the null hypothesis can then be rejected by the experimental data, the researcher has demonstrated that the null hypothesis has been violated and that an interesting or significant event has been measured or observed.

Section: 10.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension, Application/Analysis 20) Explain the role of behavioral thermoregulation in the experiments performed with Caenorhabditis elegans by Anderson and colleagues (2011).

Answer: Caenorhabditis elegans is an ectothermic organism, and its body temperature is determined by its environment. Since body temperature has significant effects on both performance and fitness, the worms will move to a temperature that optimally supports maximal performance and fitness.

Section: 10.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

21) Felsenstein (1985) developed a method to plot the divergence that arises between sister species as they evolve farther and farther from their common ancestor. This method enables researchers to better evaluate cross-species correlations among traits. The resultant plot provides divergences that arise between pairs of sister species as they evolve away from a common ancestor, and are known as . [three words] Answer: phylogenetically independent contrasts Section: 10.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) To demonstrate the response of several Daphnia genotypes across a wide range of environments, Luc De Meester (1996) measured the change in phototactic behavior of Daphnia sampled from lakes that contained different numbers of predatory fish. The lines drawn between control and fish-induced water are termed . [two words] Answer: reaction norms Section: 10.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Futuyma and colleagues (1995) demonstrated that host shifts by the herbivorous leaf beetles of the genus Ophraella in feeding on members of the sunflower family are constrained by what?

Answer: a lack of genetic diversity that would enable the beetles to detect and detoxify chemical defenses produced by nonhost plants Section: 10.6 Skill: Application/Analysis 24) In their experiments with the flowers of Begonia involucrate, Agren and Schemske (1991) observed that there was a trade-off between what two characteristics?

Answer: large individual flowers and more flowers per inflorescence Section: 10.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) In the Kotukutuku plant, fuchsia excortiata, why do pollinated flowers remain attached to the plant for several days after pollination occurs and nectar is no longer produced?

Answer: so that the pollen tube can grow for a sufficient amount of time to reach the ovary Section: 10.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) In experiments by Greene and colleagues (1987) with the tephritid fly Zonosemata vittigera and the jumping spider Phidippus apacheanus, carefully controlled experiments were used to better understand the predator/prey relationship. Treatments were designed to test whether the display of the fly when disturbed served to mimic the appearance of the jumping spider and deter an attack. When the fly is exposed to the jumping spider, it holds its wings perpendicular to its body and waves them up and down, and additionally the flies have dark banding patterns on the wings. Explain the purpose of the five different treatments used in the experiment: Zonosemata untreated, Zonosemata with own wings cut and reglued, Zonosemata with housefly wings, housefly with Zonosemata wings, and housefly untreated.

Section: 10.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

27) Huey and colleagues (1989) performed experiments to examine thermoregulation in garter snakes. Explain the factors that were examined in their experiments, how the temperature of the snakes was monitored, and the specific details of how the snakes can regulate their temperature by selective movements.

Section: 10.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 28) Describe the experiments performed by Luc De Meester (1996) to demonstrate phenotypic plasticity in the response of several Daphnia genotypes across a wide range of environments. Be sure to include (1) the experimental method used to measure the change in phototactic behavior and the use of reaction norms, (2) the types of treatments performed based on water that had been previously occupied by fish, and (3) the reaction norms observed from Daphnia eggs harvested from sediments from differing environments.

Section: 10.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 29) Describe the experiments done by Delph and Lively (1989) with the Kotukutuku plant, fuchsia excortiata. Explain the relationship of nectar production with flower color, why flowers begin to change colors once they no longer contain nectar, and why pollinated flowers must remain attached to the plant for several days after pollination occurs and nectar is no longer produced.

Section: 10.6 Skill: Application/Analysis 30) Douglas Taylor and colleagues (2002) used yeast (Saccaromyces cerevisiae) to examine selection. Yeast can harvest energy by either fermentation or respiration. Explain how this characteristic enabled the researchers to utilize parasitic mitochondria to examine selection across varying population sizes.

Section: 10.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 11 Sexual Selection 1) The differences between males and females of a species are called A) sexual morphism B) male/female dimorphism C) sexual differentiation D) sexual dimorphism Answer: D Section: 11.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

.

2) Darwin called differential reproductive success due to variation among individuals in success at getting mates .

A) sexual success ratio B) sexual selection

C) reproductive selection D) dimorphic selection Answer: B Section: 11.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) In general, when sexual selection is strong for one sex and weak for the other, we can predict that members of the sex subject to strong sexual selection will be , and members of the sex subject to weak sexual selection will be .

A) choosy; competitive B) aggressive; passive C) competitive; showy D) competitive; choosy Answer: D Section: 11.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Adam Jones and colleagues (2000) studied the mating behaviors of broad-nosed pipefish (Syngnathus typhle) in a laboratory situation. For which sex is sexual selection a more potent evolutionary force?

A) females B) males C) Both sexes are under equal sexual selection pressure.

D) Neither sex is under sexual selection pressure.

Answer: A Section: 11.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

5) Selection for the ability to successfully compete with members of their own sex to mate with opposite sex is termed .

A) mating selection B) competitive selection C) intrasexual selection D) intersexual selection Answer: C Section: 11.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 6) Small, nonterritorial male marine iguanas typically have their mating interrupted by larger males prior to ejaculation. What alternative mating strategy have these small males developed to compensate for this?

A) Small males form coalitions and distract larger males to allow enough time for copulation.

B) Small males induce ejaculation prior to copulation, and store the ejaculate in their cloacal pouches.

C) Small males have developed the ability to induce ejaculation much more quickly than large males.

D) Small males have developed sperm that are more efficient at fertilization than the sperm of larger males.

Answer: B Section: 11.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which of the following has NOT been observed as a trait of sperm competition?

A) applying pheromones that reduce the female's attractiveness B) the production of large ejaculates containing many sperm C) depositing a copulatory plug D) prolonged copulation during mating E) All of the above have been observed as traits of sperm competition.

Answer: E Section: 11.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) In his study of the Mediterranean fruit flies (Ceratitis capitata), Matthew Gage (1991) found that .

A) males allowed to mate alone produced 2 1/2 times more sperm than those mating in the presence of other males B) males allowed to mate alone produced 2 1/2 times less sperm than those mating in the presence of other males C) males produced the same amount of sperm when they were allowed to mate alone or when they mated in the presence of other males D) males engaged in aggressive behavior when mating in the presence of other males Answer: B Section: 11.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

9) Experiments by Steve Tanner and colleagues (2000) with gray tree frogs demonstrated that female frogs preferentially mated with male frogs exhibiting .

A) many short, repetitive calls over single long calls B) longer calls rather than shorter calls C) larger body size over small body size D) louder calls over softer calls E) trilling calls over constant calls Answer: B Section: 11.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) John Hoogland (1998) studied Gunnison's prairie dogs (Cynomys gunnisoni) and observed that an increase in litter size was observed when females .

A) chose males that were the largest in the colony B) mated with more than one male C) extended the time of copulation with individual males D) established a large territory for mating Answer: B Section: 11.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 11) A mating system in which at least some females mate with more than one male is termed .

A) vivapary B) polygyny C) polygamy D) polyandry Answer: D Section: 11.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) In studies on the pipefish Nerophis ophidion, females are larger than males and appear to be under greater sexual selection pressure than males. The females have two traits that male pipefish of the species lack. What are these two traits?

A) dark blue stripes and lateral spines B) bright orange stripes and skin folds on their bellies C) dark blue stripes and skin folds on their bellies D) lateral spines and skin folds on their bellies Answer: C Section: 11.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

13) Which of the following statements is true regarding the involvement of sexual selection on male function (pollen donation) leading to sexual dimorphism in flowers?

A) Female flowers typically receive far more pollen than is needed to fertilize their seeds.

B) Delph and colleagues (1996) found that out of 42 animal-pollinated plant species, 29% of females had the largest reproductive parts, but males had the largest perianths.

C) Studying wild radishes, Stanton and colleagues (1996) found that reproductive success through pollen donation was limited by pollinator visits, whereas reproductive success through seed production was not.

D) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: D Section: 11.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Maureen Stanton and colleagues (1986), experimenting with wild radishes (Raphanus raphanistrum), demonstrated that sexual selection on male flowers has led to .

A) many small flowers that attract male pollinators B) showy flowers that attract male pollinators C) flowers with large nectar-producing glands to attract male pollinators D) flowers where male and female flowers appear on the same plant Answer: B Section: 11.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Pawlowski and colleagues (2000) gathered data from over 3,000 Polish men, and investigated the hypothesis that sexual dimorphism in humans is the result of female choice.

They found that there was a slight but significant level of sexual selection on .

A) the body mass index (BMI) of men in their twenties, thirties, and forties for both marriage and producing offspring B) the weight of men in their twenties, thirties, and forties for both marriage and producing offspring C) the height of men in their twenties, thirties, and forties for both marriage and producing offspring D) the intelligence quotient (IQ) of men in their twenties, thirties, and forties for both marriage and producing offspring Answer: C Section: 11.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) In general, mothers typically make a larger parental investment in each offspring than males do. What is meant by the term parental investment?

Answer: Parental investment is the energy and time expended constructing and caring for offspring, and is typically measured in fitness.

Section: 11.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

17) Adam Jones and colleagues (2002) demonstrated that in rough-skinned newts, all females tend to mate with at least one male, and often with several. What is the overall mating success for male rough-skinned newts, and what physical characteristic was selected for in males?

Answer: The majority of males failed to mate, and most mated just once or twice. Males that mated displayed significantly larger tail crests than males that failed to mate, indicating that sexual selection is a much stronger force in males than females among rough-skinned newts.

Section: 11.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) The energy and time expended constructing and caring for offspring is known as [two words] Answer: parental investment Section: 11.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

.

19) A key event that determines reproductive success involves members of one sex choosing their mates from among the opposite sex, and is termed . [two words] Answer: intersexual selection Section: 11.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) In male-male combat observed in marine iguanas, why do males tend to grow to sizes that exceed the optimal size for survival?

Answer: Male iguanas become larger than optimal for sizes for survival because larger males tend to have more mates, and thus pass on traits that favor larger sizes.

Section: 11.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 21) Explain why male lions, after they have entered a new pride of female lions, will often engage in the practice of infanticide.

Answer: Male lions often kill offspring that have not yet been weaned from their mothers so that the females will physiologically be receptive to mating, thus improving the entering male's reproductive success.

Section: 11.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Natural selection would appear to act against long tails in male red-collared widowbirds, given that longer tails reduce body condition over the mating season. Based on the experiments of Pryke and Andersson (2005), why do long tails appear to be favored despite their obvious disadvantage?

Answer: Long tails are favored in male red-collared widowbirds because females of the species are choosy, and they select mates based on longer tail length.

Section: 11.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

23) When male and female hangflies mate, the number of sperm transferred to the female increases linearly with an increased time of mating. What determines the length of time that male and female hangflies mate?

Answer: The size of the prey items provided as nuptial gifts presented by the male to the female.

Section: 11.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) According to the experiments of Delph and colleagues (1996), is sexual selection often stronger for male or female flowers, and what tends to drive this selection?

Answer: Sexual selection is stronger in males, and is due to the need to attract pollinators.

Section: 11.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Describe the unusual pollination system used by orchids of the genus Catasetum, which are pollinated by male euglossine bees.

Answer: The male flower attracts the bee by using a chemical similar to that used by bees to attract mates, and then shoots a pollinarium that adheres to the back of the bee. This pollinarium is then carried to the female flower, where it lodges onto the stigmatic cleft.

Section: 11.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) To study sexual dimorphism in humans, Napoleon Chagnon (1988) studied the Yąnomamö, a premodern tribe that live in the Amazon rain forest in Venezuela and Brazil. What specific trait of the Yąnomamö correlated with an increased number of wives a corresponding increased number of children?

Answer: Men who have participated in a homicide (unokais) have significantly increased numbers of wives and children than those who had never killed (non-unokais).

Section: 11.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Provide an example from the text illustrating the following: If one parent invests in his or her offspring more than the other parent, the heavily investing parent is often limited by resources and time. Also, the lightly investing parent is limited by its access to mates.

Section: 11.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 28) Describe the experiments that Adam Jones and colleagues (2002) used with rough-skinned newts to demonstrate the differential relative strength of sexual selection among between males and females. What is the significance that all females tend to mate with at least one male, and often with several males, whereas many of the males failed to mate and many mated only once or twice? Discuss whether sexual selection is a more potent force in the evolution of males or females, and why.

Section: 11.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

29) Describe the experiments performed by Steve Tanner and colleagues (2000) with gray tree frogs to demonstrate the sexual selection they observed. Be sure to comment on the sexual selection that occurs to favor longer male calls, and how the length of calls might indicate male body condition.

Section: 11.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 30) Explain the results of the experiments of Pryke and Andersson (2005) with red-collared widowbirds. Be sure to explain the observations and experiments that were done by these researchers to collect data, and explain why longer tails in males appear to have been under selective pressure, even though the longer tails appear to be detrimental to the overall health of the males.

Section: 11.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 12 The Evolution of Social Behavior 1) Social interaction between animals where one individual imposes a penalty on another, and in so doing suffers a loss, is termed .

A) mutual benefit B) selfishness C) altruism D) spite Answer: D Section: 12.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Social interaction between animals that benefits both the actor and the recipient is known as .

A) mutual benefit B) selfishness C) altruism D) spite Answer: A Section: 12.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Social behavior between animals where the actor benefits at the expense of the recipient is called .

A) mutual benefit B) selfishness C) altruism D) spite Answer: B Section: 12.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

4) When one animal makes a sacrifice to support or benefit another, we call this A) mutual benefit B) selfishness C) altruism D) spite Answer: C Section: 12.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

.

5) One of the keys to understanding altruistic behavior is that .

A) the end result of what appears to be altruism on face value is actually an increase in the fitness of the "actor" B) Darwin himself recognized that this is a fatal flaw in his theory of natural selection C) other members of the population will share alleles with the "actor" D) altruism is just another form of selfishness Answer: C Section: 12.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) The form of natural selection that leads to an increase in the frequency of alleles which promote the fitness of genetic relatives is called .

A) direct selection B) indirect selection C) inclusive selection D) kin selection Answer: D Section: 12.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) A measure of the reproductive fitness of an individual without the help of others is known as .

A) direct fitness B) indirect fitness C) inclusive fitness D) kin selection Answer: A Section: 12.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) A measure of the reproductive fitness of genetic relatives resulting from the actions of an individual is called .

A) direct fitness B) indirect fitness C) inclusive fitness D) kin selection Answer: B Section: 12.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

9) The accompanying figure shows that the rate of alarm calls made by black-tailed prairie dogs is dependent on a perceived threat by a predator. This behavior most closely approximates that predicted by .

A) mutual benefit B) selfishness C) altruism D) spite Answer: C Section: 12.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

10) The accompanying figure shows that the rate of alarm calls made by black-tailed prairie dogs is dependent on a perceived threat by a predator. This behavior affects .

A) the direct fitness of the caller B) the indirect fitness of the caller C) both the direct and indirect fitness of the caller D) neither the direct nor indirect fitness of the caller Answer: C Section: 12.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 11) The success of altruistic behavior hinges on the ability to distinguish kin from unrelated individuals. Hamilton proposed that an allele that produces a distinctive trait (i.e., the greenbeard effect), along with altruistic behavior directed at the bearers of this trait, could drive such an altruistic allele to high frequencies in a population. This scenario has been discovered and studied in .

A) black-tailed prairie dogs B) red squirrels C) Belding's ground squirrel D) slime molds Answer: D Section: 12.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Multilevel selection/cooperation has been documented in A) bacteria B) plants C) humans D) All of the above.

Answer: D Section: 12.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

.

13) One would expect that conflicts between parents and offspring over parental investment would be the most pronounced in .

A) fish B) amphibians C) reptiles D) birds Answer: D Section: 12.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

14) The analysis of parent—offspring conflict in birds has generated some interesting observations. For example, researchers hypothesized that chicks should beg to be fed by their parents more loudly when their nestmates are less closely related. (See Figure A, where Of = optimal parental investment where the lost siblings are full sibs, and Oh for an offspring whose lost siblings are half sibs.) Do the data collected bear this out (Figure B)?

Figure A

Figure B A) Yes, species that evolve extra-pair parentage also tend to evolve louder begging chicks.

B) No, the genetic relatedness of the chicks has nothing to do with the level of begging by chicks.

C) The data are inconclusive; no conclusion can be formulated.

Answer: A Section: 12.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

15) Which hypothesis has been proposed to explain the evolution of eusociality?

A) the haplodiploidy hypothesis B) the Monogamy hypothesis C) the ecology/life history hypothesis D) All of the above.

Answer: D Section: 12.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Social behavior in which both the "actor" and the "recipient" benefit is known as [three words] Answer: mutualism/mutual benefit Section: 12.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

.

17) Social behavior in which the "actor" makes a sacrifice for the benefit of the "recipient" is called .

Answer: altruism Section: 12.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Social behavior in which the "actor" benefits at the expense of the "recipient" is termed .

Answer: selfishness Section: 12.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Social behavior in which a penalty is imposed on the "recipient," while the "actor" also suffers a loss, is called .

Answer: spite Section: 12.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Hamilton's Rule is a simple expression that specifies the conditions under which altruism will increase in frequency. What is this expression?

Answer: Br - C > 0, where B = benefit to the recipient, r = a measure of the genetic similarity of the individuals, and C = cost to the actor.

Section: 12.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) The sum total of an individual's direct and indirect fitness is known as words] Answer: inclusive fitness Section: 12.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

. [two

22) The existence of a hypothetical allele that confers a distinctive, recognizable trait, along with altruistic behavior toward others with this trait, was coined the [two words] by Richard Dawkins.

Answer: greenbeard effect Section: 12.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) All cases of altruism (along with some cases of mutual benefit) in which we find behaviors that are selected for because they are beneficial to the recipient are collectively known as .

Answer: cooperation Section: 12.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) The exchange of favors between genetically unrelated individuals, to the benefit of both, is termed .

Answer: reciprocity Section: 12.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) The descriptive term was coined to refer to animals that have overlapping adult generations in which nonreproductive individuals cooperate to care for young.

Answer: eusociality Section: 12.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Explain Hamilton's Rule in the context of altruistic behavior.

27) Kin selection does not always work universally and without constraints. Describe and explain, using examples, two different case scenarios of parent-offspring conflict.

28) In the insect order Hymenoptera (ants, bees, and wasps), males are haploid and females are diploid. Explain the logic behind the haplodiploidy hypothesis as a potential source of eusociality in these animals.

29) Compare and contrast, in general terms, cooperative breeding in birds, as described in your text with the case study on the white-fronted bee-eaters, also described in your text.

30) Does kin selection also apply to humans? Use specific examples to support your case.

Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 13 Aging and Other Life-History Characters 1) In an "ideal" world, organisms that are fine-tuned for reproduction would A) mature at birth B) produce high-quality offspring continuously and in high numbers C) live forever

.

D) All of the above, taken together.

Answer: D Section: Introduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) At the most fundamental of levels, differences in life histories (that is, reproductive strategies) are trade-offs that are based on differences in the .

A) onset of reproductive maturity B) reproductive sizes of the individuals C) allocation of energy between individuals D) average number of offspring produced over the life span of individuals Answer: C Section: 13.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

3) What does the accompanying figure represent?

A) the average energy budget values between male and female sand crickets in low v. medium v. high food environments B) the average energy budget values between long-winged and short-winged crickets in low v. medium v. high food environments C) the average energy budget values for low v. medium v. high food environments in two different species of sand crickets D) the average energy budget values in low v. medium v. high temperature environments for long-winged v. short-winged sand crickets Answer: B Section: 13.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Female sand crickets are known to produce two phenotypic variants: long-winged and shortwinged. Moreover, these two variants have been shown to allocate different amounts of their energy budget to flight or ovary development, respectively. The development of female crickets into one or the other of these variants is due to .

A) genetic mechanisms B) developmental mechanisms C) physiological mechanisms D) All of the above.

Answer: D Section: 13.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

5) The theory of aging that posits that aging is caused by irreparable damage to the cells, tissues, and organs of an organism brought about by such things as errors in protein synthesis and the accumulation of toxic metabolites is the .

A) theory of senescence B) rate of living theory of aging C) evolutionary theory of aging D) particulate theory of aging Answer: B Section: 13.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) The theory of aging that posits that aging is caused either by the accumulation of deleterious mutations later in life or by a trade-off between repair to damaged tissues and reproduction is called the .

A) theory of senescence B) rate-of-living theory of aging C) evolutionary theory of aging D) particulate theory of aging Answer: C Section: 13.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

7) According to the data shown in the accompanying figure, the reduction in reproduction rates most closely correlates with a corresponding reduction in survival in .

A) female collared flycatchers B) male red deer C) female red deer D) fruit flies Answer: B Section: 13.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

8) Telomeres, tandem repeat sequences at the ends of chromosomes, generally get shorter after every cell division. The resulting mechanism involves a protein called p53, which .

A) puts the cell into a permanently nondividing state B) causes the cell to enter cell senescence C) may induce the cell to undergo programmed cell death D) All of the above.

Answer: D Section: 13.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 9) Some researchers argue that short telomeres actually facilitate a longer life span in mammals.

The reasoning for this argument includes the idea that .

A) the activity of telomerase expression―the enzyme that can restore lost bits of telomeres―is repressed B) a reduction in the telomere size for every DNA replication event can serve as an accurate counting mechanism for the number of times a cell has divided C) reducing the number of divisions a cell will go through will also reduce the likelihood of mutation events occurring in the cell's DNA D) All of the above are included in this idea.

Answer: D Section: 13.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 10) The conclusion, "Mutation hypothesis notes that mutations causing premature senescence are selected against weakly," makes more sense if we consider that .

A) many mutations that cause cell death are, in fact, highly deleterious B) individuals carrying a mutation causing death before reproductive maturity would have a lifetime reproductive success rate of zero C) mutations causing death after reproduction has begun are selected against less strongly D) mutations in individual cells may cause cell death, but this does not affect the rest of the organism Answer: C Section: 13.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 11) Positive correlations have been found between .

A) telomere lengths and longevity among individuals within populations B) telomere lengths and longevity across many species of mammals C) telomere lengths and longevity among individuals within populations and across many species of mammals D) neither telomere lengths and longevity among individuals within populations nor telomere lengths and longevity across many species of mammals Answer: A Section: 13.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

12) The accompanying figure represents Lack's hypothesis on clutch size. According to this hypothetical data, .

A) the probability of survival for individual nestlings decreases linearly with each successive increase in the clutch size B) the probability of survival for individual nestlings increases, then decreases with each successive increase in the clutch size C) the optimal clutch size in terms of survival rates is intermediate D) A and C are both true.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Section: 13.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

13) Researchers have tested Lack's hypothesis on clutch sizes, and the results are shown in the accompanying figure. In this graph, the histogram shows actual clutch sizes over 22 years for the Great Tit (Parus major), whereas the individual data points reflect results of manipulation of clutch size. According to this data, .

A) Lack's hypothesis is supported B) there is an ideal clutch size in terms of survival; however, this species of bird is not producing as many offspring as could survive, therefore Lack's hypothesis is not supported C) there is an ideal clutch size in terms of survival—which is more than the number of offspring that are being produced; however, the results still support Lack's hypothesis D) there is no apparent ideal clutch size because of discrepancies in these data Answer: B Section: 13.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 14) Which of the following is NOT one of the assumptions of Lack's hypothesis?

A) There is no trade-off between a parent's reproductive effort in one year and its survival or reproductive performance in future years.

B) The only effect on clutch size of offspring is in determining whether the offspring survive.

C) The discrepancy between Lack's hypothesis and the behavior of individual birds may sometimes be more apparent than real.

D) All of these are assumptions of Lack's hypothesis.

Answer: D Section: 13.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

15) In terms of the size of offspring, data from different (a) fish families and (b) fruit fly species are represented in the accompanying figure. Evaluation of this data reveals that .

A) no relationship between these two variables has been found B) the larger the number of offspring, the larger the eggs that are produced C) the larger the number of offspring, the smaller the eggs that are produced D) there is an apparent trade-off between egg size and number of offspring E) Both C and D are accurate statements.

Answer: E Section: 13.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 16) Traits which by logic should show less genetic variation because of their close association with reproduction fall into which category?

A) life-history traits B) behavioral traits C) physiological traits D) morphological traits Answer: A Section: 13.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

17) Living things show a wide range of diversity where reproductive strategies are concerned.

The branch of evolution devoted to the analysis of this diversity is known as analysis.

Answer: life-history Section: Introduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) At the most fundamental of levels, differences among life histories are due to differences in the allocation of .

Answer: energy Section: 13.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) The decline in an individual's fertility, with a corresponding decrease in the likelihood of survival, is known as .

Answer: senescence Section: 13.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Tandem repeat sequences found at the ends of chromosomes, such as TTAGGG as found in vertebrates, are known as .

Answer: telomeres Section: 13.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Alleles that influence more than one trait are referred to as Answer: pleiotropic Section: 13.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

.

22) The hypothesis that predicts that parents will attempt to rear the number of offspring that maximizes the survival rates of offspring is known as . [two words] Answer: Lack's hypothesis Section: 13.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

23) Studies by Elgar and Berrigan (shown in the accompanying figure show a [positive/negative] correlation between the number of and the size of

.

Answer: negative; eggs; eggs Section: 13.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 24) When reproductive interests between males and females of the same species differ, as in the case of fruit flies, sexual selection may actually favor adaptations arising in one sex but that are detrimental in the other sex. This, in turn, leads to subsequent "counter-measure" adaptations in the sex that are subject to harm or detriment. This kind of antagonistic sexual adaptation has been termed sexual selection.

Answer: chase-away Section: 13.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) The maintenance of genetic variation in sea-squirts (Botryllus scholosseri) has been studied

by Richard Grosberg. Interestingly, these sea-squirts have two genetically determined life history forms. In one, called the modules in a colony reproduce once and then die. In the other morph, called colonies reproduce sexually at least three times before they die.

Answer: semelparous; iteroparous Section: 13.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

26) In reading the accompanying figure from left to right, the data reveal that as herbivorous mammals get , their litter sizes get .

Answer: larger; smaller Section: 13.6 Skill: Application/Analysis 27) Female sand crickets are known to develop either long- or short-winged forms. The shortwinged forms devote more of their energy budget to ovary development, whereas the longwinged forms allocate more to flight. Explain how natural selection could have produced these two phenotypic variants, given that the essential measure of fitness is reproductive success.

28) Two theories have been proposed regarding the aging process: the rate-of-living theory and the evolutionary theory of aging. Compare and contrast these two theories. Are there any similarities? What are their differences? Which elements are supported by research, and which elements have been refuted?

29) Life-history analysis may provide us with clues to human female menopause―more specifically, the way in which your text describes it, "Why should women's reproductive systems shut down by age 50, while the rest of their organs and tissues are still in good repair?" Two hypotheses were discussed; describe, compare, and contrast them. Which one do you think is more likely, and why?

30) Lack's hypothesis was first proposed by David Lack in 1947. Describe and explain the essence of this hypothesis, along with the major assumptions that go along with it. Are the assumptions warranted? Do research data support Lack's hypothesis?

Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman)

Chapter 14 Evolution and Human Health 1) Initial studies of the influenza A virus by Walter Fitch and colleagues showed that A) influenza A actually has DNA as its genetic material B) selection is causing influenza A to become more virulent over time C) selection by the immune system drives change in hemagglutinin's antigenic sites D) protein evolution in influenza A is consistent with the neutral theory E) flu strains from one host cannot exchange genetic material with strains from another Answer: C Section: 14.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

.

2) The specific parts of foreign proteins that the immune system recognizes and "remembers" are called .

A) receptor sites B) binding sites C) antibody sites D) antigenic sites E) None of the above.

Answer: D Section: 14.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The biggest issue facing the successful production of influenza vaccines is that .

A) flu virus populations evolve rapidly B) flu vaccines can take months to prepare C) researchers must successfully predict which flu strain(s) will survive from among the existing strains to become the next season's epidemic D) All of these are serious issues.

E) Generalized vaccines are easy to produce; none of these are serious issues.

Answer: D Section: 14.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

4) Analysis of the phylogeny of flu viruses reveals that the two 1968 strains (see the accompanying figures) both carry neuraminidase N2, but their hemagglutinins are distantly related (H2 and H3). Moreover, before the global pandemic of 1968, human flu viruses had never carried H3. This observation suggests that .

A) H3 was acquired from a nonhuman strain which, in turn, allowed the virus to infect humans on a global scale B) flu strains, when present together in the same host cell, can trade genes C) the 1968 human flu strain acquired its H3 gen from a bird virus D) All of these conclusions are supported by this data.

Answer: D Section: 14.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

5) Analysis of the 1918 and 2009 flu epidemics reveals that the most likely scenario was that .

A) the virus causing these outbreaks were derived from a single strain within which significant mutations changed the protein hemagglutinin B) these viruses switched from using RNA to using DNA C) the virus ultimately arose in birds, jumped to pigs, and then was able to switch to humans D) strong selection produces particularly virulent flu strains with predictable periodicity Answer: C Section: 14.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 6) In the late 1980s and early 1990s, the percentage of Icelandic children whose bacterial infections were caused by bacteria resistant to penicillin rose at an alarming rate. After public health officials initiated a campaign to reduce the use of penicillin, resistance dropped off. (See the accompanying figure.)

This observation is consistent with the hypothesis that .

A) bacteria generate mutations so that they can evolve in order to become better adapted to their environment B) the use of antibiotics generates mutations in bacteria that affects their resistance C) antibiotics really have no effect on bacterial resistance; such fluctuations are natural and occur whether we use antibiotics or not D) bacterial populations evolve in response to the selection pressure imposed by antibiotics Answer: D Section: 14.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

7) Evidence for the evolution of antibiotic resistance in bacteria has been evaluated .

A) in populations of bacteria within individual patients B) in studies comparing newly diagnosed patients v. patients who have relapsed after antibiotic treatment C) in studies comparing the fraction of patients with resistant bacteria and society-wide use of antibiotics D) in all of the above examples E) in no empirical studies; there is no evidence that antibiotics act as a selective agent Answer: D Section: 14.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Despite some evidence that antibiotic resistance can confer a fitness disadvantage to bacteria in nonantibiotic environments as compared to susceptible strains, research has also documented that .

A) compensatory evolution by way of mutation events in other genes may very well make antibiotic resistant strains as fit, or even more fit, than sensitive strains B) an energy balance trade-off outweighs the advantages that antibiotic sensitive strains have otherwise C) strains sensitive to antibiotics will readily and spontaneously mutate at will to achieve antibiotic resistance, even in the absence of antibiotics D) None of the above.

Answer: A Section: 14.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Which of the following are NOT one of Stuart Levy's guidelines for limiting the development of antibiotic resistance?

A) To avoid contracting food-borne bacteria, consumers should wash fruits and vegetables and avoid raw eggs and undercooked meat.

B) Consumers should always use antibacterial soaps and cleaners, even when no perceived bacterial threat is present.

C) Patients should not request antibiotics for viral infections, such as colds or flu.

D) When they take antibiotics, patients should complete the course of treatment.

E) To avoid spreading infections from patient to patient, physicians should wash their hands thoroughly between patients.

Answer: B Section: 14.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

10) The statement "The virulence of many pathogens in humans may not be a target of selection itself, but rather an accidental by-product of selection on other traits" describes .

A) the coincidental evolution hypothesis B) the shortsighted evolution hypothesis C) the trade-off hypothesis D) the energy-balance hypothesis Answer: A Section: 14.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) The statement "Natural selection should favor pathogens that strike an optimal balance between the costs and benefits of harming their hosts" describes .

A) the coincidental evolution hypothesis B) the shortsighted evolution hypothesis C) the trade-off hypothesis D) the energy-balance hypothesis Answer: C Section: 14.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Multicellular organisms such as humans could be thought of as populations of cells, where each member of the population is derived from a single ancestor: the zygote. In such populations, we would expect to see that .

A) all of the cells of the population are genetically identical, since they are derived by mitosis from the zygote B) mutations can occur, but only in cells that develop into tumors C) mutations could occur in any cell, and if so, they may be still be capable of division, leading to cells with heritable genetic variation D) mutation events that lead to increased cell survival or more rapid reproduction could, in effect, develop into tissues which evolve by natural selection within the organism E) Both C and D are possible outcomes.

Answer: E Section: 14.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

13) Given that humans shifted from hunter-gathers to an agriculturally based society within the last 10,000 years does NOT mean that .

A) we cannot expect evolution by natural selection in human populations to have kept pace with our changing way of life B) humans still retain many, if not most, of the features that made us well adapted to living in the hunter-gatherer societies of the stone age C) we can use knowledge of the differences between our current lifestyle and the lifestyle of our pre-agricultural lifestyle to better understand both the peculiarities of humans and risks associated with our modern lifestyle D) humans are unique in that we have the capacity evolve by natural selection much more rapidly in response to changes in our environment than other organisms do Answer: D Section: 14.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 14) The modern lifestyle of humans has generated an apparent increase in the frequency of some conditions, as compared to our hunter-gatherer ancestors. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

A) breast cancer B) myopia C) obesity D) lactose intolerance E) None of these.

Answer: D Section: 14.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Research on conditions that are relatively new to human populations such as myopia, breast cancer, and obesity support the conclusion that .

A) human populations have accumulated a number of mutations that have become fixed by genetic drift B) the changes in human lifestyle account for all of the increase in frequencies of these conditions C) these conditions are indeed "diseases of civilization" and are likely caused by the interaction between genes (genetic susceptibility) and novel environments D) these human conditions are mere artifacts of the way in which they have been evaluated Answer: C Section: 14.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

16) Two evolutionary hypotheses on the function of fever have been suggested: A fever may reflect manipulation of the host by the pathogen, to the pathogen's benefit, or a fever may be an adaptive response by the host to help to control the pathogen itself. Studies on whether the use of fever-reducing drugs were helpful or interfered with the body's ability to fight the pathogen .

A) supported the hypothesis that fevers are a manipulation of the host by the pathogen B) supported the hypothesis that fevers are an adaptive response to the pathogen C) supported both of these hypotheses, but in different contexts D) were inconclusive Answer: D Section: 14.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Determining the effects of natural selection on human behavior is much more robust if .

A) one disentangles the effects of culture from evolutionary history in detailed, controlled studies of a single culture B) groups of humans are separated into control and treatment groups for extensive experimentation C) data is collected cross-culturally to eliminate the effects of culture on behavior D) We cannot study human behavior in an evolutionary context.

Answer: C Section: 14.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) The immune system recognizes and reacts to foreign protein.

Answer: antigenic sites Section: 14.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

, [two words] specific parts of a

19) A group of lineages―such as viral strains―that all descend from a common ancestor makes up a .

Answer: clade Section: 14.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) An unusually dangerous strain of flu that infects humans was reported from China in the spring of 2013. The strain is called H7N9. In this coding scheme, H and N refer to and proteins.

Answer: hemagglutinin; neuraminidase Section: 14.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

21) The frequency of antibiotic-resistant bacteria tends to go down when the bacterial population is no longer being exposed to the antibiotic. This implies that bacterial antibiotic resistance mechanisms have a significant to the bacterial population.

Answer: cost Section: 14.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) The [two words] hypothesis for the evolution of virulence states that pathogens may evolve traits that enhance their chances of survival within a host, but that decrease their chances of being spread to a new host.

Answer: shortsighted evolution Section: 14.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) An insect or other organism that transmits disease from one host to another is called a .

Answer: vector Section: 14.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Strokes, cancer, and heart disease are sometimes called are/were rare in hunter-gatherer populations.

Answer: diseases of civilization Section: 14.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

[three words] because they

25) Your text discusses one of the most well-known examples in which human populations have evolved in response to selection imposed by changes in lifestyle. Specifically, this example has to do with a change toward the life-long production of an enzyme that allows humans to digest something our ancestors normally would have ingested only as infants. What is the name of this enzyme?

Answer: lactase Section: 14.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) The idea that fundamental aspects of human behavior are "hardwired" or "programmed" by human genes is sometimes called . [two words] Answer: genetic determinism Section: 14.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) The relation between the variation in a phenotypic trait and the variation in an environmental variable―in other words, the pattern of phenotypic plasticity in a trait―is called a . [two words] Answer: reaction norm Section: 14.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

28) The 2011 medical thriller film Contagion revolves around a fictional virus called MEV-1, which causes flu-like symptoms followed by seizures and encephalitis; about 25% of infected patients die. MEV-1 appeared as a result of accidental genetic exchange between a bat virus and a pig virus. Discuss the plausibility of this scenario in the light of recent work on viruses and their evolution.

29) Your text discusses Paul Ewald's studies of how evolutionary trade-offs might have influenced the evolution of virulence in human pathogens. One thing your text did not mention is disease caused by food-borne pathogens such as Salmonella, Campylobacter, and Escherichia coli O157:H7. In industrialized nations, fresh food is often shipped in bulk quantities for thousands of miles from where it is grown. This means that food-borne outbreaks can sicken large numbers of people, and also may force the costly recall of large amounts of contaminated food, over wide regions. This is a relatively recent development; for almost all of human history, fresh food had to be eaten close to where it was produced. Apply Ewald's ideas to food-borne diseases. Can we make any predictions of future trends in virulence? Are there steps we can take, specifically based on evolutionary biology, to decrease the incidence and severity of food-borne disease?

30) In most vertebrates, full siblings share as many genes with each other, on average, as each one does with either parent. One might predict that serious conflict between siblings should be rare and altruistic behavior should be the norm, given that siblings share the same "genetic interests." As anyone who has ever had a brother or sister knows, this is not always the case. In fact, in a number of bird species, notably eagles and other raptors (birds of prey), females usually lay two eggs; soon after hatching, the larger chick pushes the other chick out of the nest, or otherwise attacks it and tries to kill it. (This behavior is known as Cainism, after the Bible story of Cain and Abel.) Generate a hypothesis to explain this behavior in evolutionary terms. Can you apply this hypothesis to human behavior?

Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 15 Phylogenomics and the Molecular Basis of Adaptation 1) What is a key difference between prokaryote genomes and the genomes of multicellular eukaryotes?

A) Multicellular eukaryote genomes have a greater number of protein-coding genes than prokaryote genomes.

B) Prokaryote genomes have more introns than multicellular eukaryote genomes.

C) Multicellular eukaryote genomes have larger intergenic regions than prokaryote genomes.

D) There are more mobile genetic elements in prokaryote genomes than in multicellular eukaryote genomes.

Answer: C Section: 15.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Which statement BEST describes the role and importance of mobile genetic elements in genomes?

A) Mobile genetic elements almost always have either neutral or deleterious consequences for

their host.

B) Mobile genetic elements are largely beneficial to hosts because they introduce new phenotypic variation into a population via transposition and/or duplication of important genes.

C) Mobile genetic elements can have deleterious, neutral, OR beneficial consequences for the host organism, and all three kinds of outcomes are common.

D) Mobile genetic elements are especially important for plant genomes such as the tomato, but they are not present in most animal genomes.

Answer: A Section: 15.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) What is the relationship between mobile genetic elements and DNA methylation?

A) DNA methylation is considered to be a defense against the spread of mobile genetic elements because it prevents transcription.

B) DNA methylation is reduced in regions of the genome associated with mobile genetic elements because methylation only targets protein-coding genes.

C) DNA methylation prevents RNA interference and therefore allows mobile genetic elements to spread.

D) DNA methylation is a form of post-transcriptional silencing of mobile genetic elements.

Answer: D Section: 15.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

4) Which of the following is a TRUE statement about the relationship between RNA interference and mobile genetic elements?

A) RNA interference is a mechanism that allows mobile genetic elements to move to new locations in a genome.

B) RNA interference is a laboratory method that researchers use to study how mobile genetic elements function.

C) RNA interference is a mechanism for silencing mobile genetic elements that exist in many kinds of organisms.

D) RNA interference does not have a known relationship with mobile genetic elements.

Answer: C Section: 15.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) Methylation and RNA interference are both involved in regulating mobile genetic elements.

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Methylation is a form of post-transcriptional silencing, whereas RNA interference is a form of pre-transcriptional silencing.

B) Both are examples of post-transcriptional silencing.

C) Both are examples of pre-transcriptional silencing.

D) RNA interference is a form of post-transcriptional silencing, whereas methylation is a form of pre-transcriptional silencing.

Answer: D Section: 15.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Which statement accurately describes a relationship between mutation rate and genome size?

A) Larger genomes have higher mutation rates across all domains of life.

B) Larger genomes have lower mutation rates across all domains of life.

C) Mutation rate increases with genome size in multicellular organisms.

D) Mutation rate increases with genome size in unicellular organisms.

Answer: C Section: 15.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) What processes have been hypothesized to influence the evolution of mutation rates?

A) natural selection only B) genetic drift only C) both natural selection and genetic drift, acting in the same direction to either increase or decrease mutation rates D) both natural selection and genetic drift, acting in opposing directions: one process favors increasing mutation rates and the other favors decreasing mutation rates Answer: D Section: 15.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

8) Laboratory experiments about bacterial mutation rates have demonstrated which of the following?

A) Bacterial mutation rates rarely evolve in short-term laboratory experiments; they are a relatively fixed feature of a species biology.

B) In short-term laboratory experiments, bacterial mutation rates often evolve to be higher because higher mutation rates result in higher fitness.

C) In short-term laboratory experiments, bacterial mutation rates often evolve to be lower because mutations are typically deleterious for organisms.

D) Depending on the experiment, bacterial mutation rates sometimes evolve to higher rates, and other times evolve to lower rates.

Answer: B Section: 15.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Immediately following a gene duplication event, what is the most likely evolutionary outcome for a duplicated gene?

A) Duplicated genes usually evolve to perform new functions that differ from their original function (called neofunctionalization), or both duplicate copies evolve via subfunctionalization.

B) Most gene duplication events are selectively neutral and therefore the duplicated gene usually spreads through the population. It can later evolve a new function or keep its original function.

C) Most gene duplication events are deleterious to an organism and therefore are lost due to natural selection.

D) Most gene duplication events are selectively neutral and are therefore lost due to drift.

Answer: D Section: 15.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the relationship between gene duplication and mobile genetic elements?

A) The most common way that genes are duplicated is by the activity of mobile genetic elements.

B) A duplicated gene is an example of one kind of mobile genetic element.

C) Mobile genetic elements can cause gene duplication, but most gene duplication events are caused by other mechanisms.

D) Gene duplication is one kind of genomic defense against the spread of mobile genetic elements.

Answer: C Section: 15.2/15.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

11) Under most models for the preservation of duplicated genes that eventually perform new functions, what is the proposed order of events and evolutionary reasoning behind them?

A) After a gene is duplicated, it must rise to high frequency in a population due to drift; only after it has risen to high frequency will it then be likely to evolve to perform a new function favored by natural selection.

B) After a gene is duplicated, one of the copies must evolve to perform a new function that increases an organism's fitness; only after the new function evolves will the duplicated gene rise in frequency within the population due to natural selection.

C) After a gene is duplicated, it will typically be favored by natural selection even before it evolves to perform a new function, because having duplicate gene copies provides beneficial redundancy within genomes. Therefore, duplicate copies rise to high frequency in a population due to natural selection, and later a new function can evolve that is also favored by natural selection.

D) Duplicated genes usually differ in function immediately after duplication, because gene duplication is an imperfect process and mutations are typically introduced during duplication. If the duplicate copy happens to perform a new function that benefits an organism, it rises in frequency in the population due to natural selection.

Answer: A Section: 15.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which of the following most accurately describes the preservation of duplicate genes via the subfunctionalization model?

A) The ancestral gene performs two different functions, and eventually the two duplicate copies evolve so that one copy performs one function, and the other copy performs the other function; both copies are therefore required for the organism to have optimal fitness.

B) In order to be favored by natural selection and therefore to increase in frequency, the duplicated copies must evolve so that together they perform the original gene's functions better than the original gene, giving organisms with subfunctionalized genes a fitness advantage.

C) Subfunctionalization is most commonly a defense against mobile genetic elements. Because subfunctionalized genes separate two functions from an ancestral gene into two separate genes, a mobile genetic element insertion can damage only one of the two functions, not both; therefore, subfunctionalization is favored by natural selection in genomes with a high load of mobile genetic elements.

D) All that matters for the subfunctionalization model is that together the duplicated genes perform the original gene's function(s) the same or better; even if one gene copy becomes nonfunctional, this still counts as subfunctionalization so long as the other copy performs the original function.

Answer: A Section: 15.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

13) Why have gene families evolved? Choose the most accurate answer for gene families in general.

A) Although in some cases researchers have inferred that gene families are adaptive, gene families may also evolve due to genetic drift.

B) Having multiple copies of a gene can increase transcription and translation of the gene, so when increased transcription is adaptive, then natural selection favors genes duplicating into gene families.

C) Gene families are adaptive because each gene can produce a slightly different protein, which allows for diverse functions that are favored by natural selection.

D) Gene families evolve because of the activity of mobile genetic elements, which cause repeated gene duplication events.

Answer: A Section: 15.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 14) What is meant by adaptation from standing genetic variation in natural populations?

A) A population adapts to an environmental change by the occurrence of a beneficial mutation in an individual that introduces genetic variation, which rises to high frequency in the population because it is favored by natural selection following the environmental change.

B) A population adapts to an environmental change by the rise to high frequency of an existing genetic variant that was already present in the population at low frequency before the environmental change.

C) Individuals with more variation present in their genomes are favored by natural selection following an environmental change, and the population adapts via an overall increase in genetic variation in the population because the most genetically variable individuals have highest fitness.

D) Genetic variation becomes costly for individuals following an environmental change, and the result is that overall genetic variation in a population decreases as the population adapts to the environmental change.

Answer: B Section: 15.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) How does a gene tree differ from a species tree?

A) A gene tree shows the relationships among all the genes in a species genome, whereas a species tree shows the relationships among species.

B) A gene tree is based on gene sequences, whereas a species tree is based on morphological features of each species.

C) A gene tree is a phylogeny of individual genes, and can include multiple genes from a single species and/or samples of the same gene from multiple species; in a species tree, each species is represented by only a single branch.

D) A gene tree is a subcategory of species tree, in which the data used to create the tree comes from gene sequences.

Answer: C Section: 15.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

16) What are mobile genetic elements, and how do they affect host organisms?

Answer: Mobile genetic elements are genomic parasites that spread within genomes to increase their own fitness. They sometimes have deleterious consequences, although they often have no discernible effect on the phenotype or fitness of the host genome. Mobile elements can affect host phenotypes but are rarely beneficial to hosts.

Section: 15.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Describe the general relationship between total genome size and the proportion of the genome that encodes mobile genetic elements for plants and animals.

Answer: Larger genomes tend to have a larger proportion of their genome encoding mobile genetic elements. OR: As genome size increases, the proportion of the genome that encodes mobile genetic elements also increases.

Section: 15.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Briefly describe three key differences between prokaryote genomes and the genomes of multicellular eukaryotes.

Answer: Multicellular eukaryote genomes have large intergenic regions (or lots of mobile genetic elements) and the genes include introns, whereas prokaryote genomes have small intergenic regions (few mobile elements) and no introns. Finally, multicellular eukaryote genomes are larger than prokaryote genomes.

Section: 15.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Briefly describe the relationship between DNA methylation, small RNAs (also known as RNA interference), and mobile genetic elements.

Answer: Both DNA methylation and small RNAs are defenses that host genomes employ to reduce the spread of mobile genetic elements by silencing them. DNA methylation of mobile genetic elements prevents transcription (pre-transcriptional silencing), whereas small RNAs silence mobile genetic elements by targeting transcribed sequences from these elements (posttranscriptional silencing). Additionally [graders, note that this is probably a BONUS observation], small RNAs are also responsible for targeting the methylation of mobile element DNA in the genome.

Section: 15.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) First, briefly describe the relationship between mutation rate and genome size for viruses and prokaryotes. Second, briefly describe the relationship between mutation rate and genome size for multicellular eukaryotes, if different from the first.

Answer: Mutation rate decreases with genome size for viruses and prokaryotes. In contrast, mutation rate increases with genome size for multicellular eukaryotes.

Section: 15.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

21) Can mutation rates evolve in laboratory experiments? Briefly describe an experiment that researchers performed to investigate this, and state whether the mutation rate did evolve, and if so, whether it evolved to become higher or lower.

Answer: Mutation rates do evolve in laboratory experiments. There are two examples in the text: First, when bacterial strains with a large range of mutation rates were competed against each other in the laboratory, the winning strains had higher mutation rates than the ancestral strain.

Second, when bacterial strains coexisted with a harmful virus, several strains evolved higher mutation rates, but when bacterial strains grew in the absence of the virus, they never evolved higher mutation rates.

Section: 15.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Briefly describe the three phases included in most evolutionary models for the preservation of duplicate genes, and the evolutionary processes involved.

Answer: First, the duplicated gene must rise to fixation (or high frequency) within a population due to drift, because most gene duplication events are initially selectively neutral. Second, one of the duplicate copies acquires a mutation that changes its function. Finally, the new, mutated allele rises to fixation (or high frequency) due to selection favoring the mutated allele with a new function.

[Graders: The final step does not require selection; in principle, the mutated allele could be selectively neutral and rise to fixation due to drift.]

Section: 15.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Briefly describe the escape from adaptive conflict hypothesis for the preservation of duplicate genes.

Answer: The ancestral gene performs two functions, but an adaptive constraint (also referred to as a conflict) is present that prevents both functions from being fully optimized at the same time: The gene cannot get better at performing function A without getting worse at performing function B. After duplication, the duplicate copies evolve to each perform one of the two ancestral functions, and because these functions are no longer performed by the same gene, the two copies are free to evolve to optimally perform a single function. (They become specialized.)

The result is that both functions are performed better than by the ancestral gene.

Section: 15.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) How do researchers use gene trees, species trees, and rates of nonsynonymous versus synonymous nucleotide substitution, to explore the evolutionary history of gene families?

Answer: By comparing gene trees and species trees, researchers can infer whether specific major duplication events occurred before or after particular species separated into different lineages. This allows researchers to identify the historical timing of gene family evolution and conclude whether the gene family is an ancient or recently evolved phenomenon. Rates of nonsynonymous versus synonymous substitution are used to test for positive selection to infer whether gene family expansion was favored by natural selection.

Section: 15.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

25) Briefly describe the difference between adaptation from new mutation and adaptation from standing genetic variation in natural populations.

Answer: Adaptation from new mutation occurs when a novel adaptive allele appears in a population after a new selective challenge (such as an environmental change arises; the new mutation is favored by natural selection and spreads through the population. Adaptation from standing genetic variation occurs when an allele that was already present at low frequency within a population is favored by a new selective challenge that comes later; the pre-existing allele then rises to fixation in the population because it is favored by natural selection.

Section: 15.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) The biologist Michael Lynch has a hypothesis about the role of effective population size in influencing the evolution mutation rates. Describe this hypothesis, with particular attention to the roles of natural selection and genetic drift, and how it can explain the pattern shown in the accompanying figure.

Section: 15.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 27) Describe four possible fates of duplicated genes, and provide detail regarding the evolutionary hypotheses for how the four possible fates come about.

Section: 15.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 28) Describe how mobile genetic organisms function, how they affect host organisms, and the mechanisms that host organisms possess to interact with mobile genetic elements.

Section: 15.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

29) Imagine you are studying an expanded gene family in a group of closely related species, and you would like to know whether the gene family expanded long ago in the common ancestor of all the species, or whether the gene family has expanded independently, and more recently, within some or all of the species. How would you use DNA sequences from the gene family in each species to test this? (Hint: Evolutionary trees are required.)

Section: 15.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 30) Describe four major patterns in genome structure and function across all groups of organisms as they relate to overall genome size.

Section: 15.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 16 Mechanisms of Speciation 1) The species concept based on careful analysis of the anatomical details of the specimen in question is .

A) the morphospecies concept B) the phylogenetic species concept C) the biological species concept D) the ecological species concept Answer: A Section: 16.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The species concept based on analysis of character states that indicate the smallest monophyletic group is .

A) the morphospecies concept B) the phylogenetic species concept C) the biological species concept D) the ecological species concept Answer: B Section: 16.1 Skill: Knowledge/Application 3) The species concept defined as a group of organisms that are capable of interbreeding to produce fertile offspring is .

A) the morphospecies concept B) the phylogenetic species concept C) the biological species concept D) the ecological species concept Answer: C Section: 16.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) A disadvantage of the morphospecies concept is

.

A) it can be difficult to apply to organisms with small, difficult to distinguish features B) species definitions may become arbitrary if the concept is not applied carefully C) species definitions applied by different researchers may not be comparable D) All of these are potential problems with this species concept.

Answer: D Section: 16.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

5) Early classification systems from Aristotle to Linneaus would have been most like what we now call .

A) the morphospecies concept B) the phylogenetic species concept C) the biological species concept D) the ecological species concept Answer: A Section: 16.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 6) The species concept that relies most heavily on the criterion that species are evolutionarily independent units that are isolated by gene flow is .

A) the morphospecies concept B) the phylogenetic species concept C) the biological species concept D) This criterion is common to all of these concepts.

Answer: D Section: 16.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 7) Organisms such as prokaryotes (bacteria and archaea)―along with some eukaryotes―reproduce asexually. In the case of bacteria and archaea in particular, which exchange DNA but do not reproduce utilizing conventional sexual reproduction, the BEST way in which to define species is with .

A) the morphospecies concept B) the phylogenetic species concept C) the biological species concept D) an ecological species concept Answer: D Section: 16.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 8) There are two closely related populations of squirrels living in the Grand Canyon area―one lives on the north rim, the other lives on the south rim. Speciation in these squirrels BEST fits which model?

A) dispersive allopatric speciation B) dispersive sympatric speciation C) vicariant allopatric speciation D) vicariant sympatric speciation Answer: C Section: 16.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

9) Which of the following models of speciation hinges on a physical barrier which prevents gene flow between populations?

A) dispersive allopatric B) dispersive sympatric C) vicariant allopatric D) vicariant sympatric E) Both A and C. Answer: E Section: 16.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Your textbook authors make the claim that "sympatric species with matching chromosome numbers are rare." Why is this?

A) because allopatric speciation is far more common B) because sympatric speciation has only been hypothesized but not documented C) because coexisting populations need a boundary to gene flow before divergence can occur, and differences in chromosome numbers provide this D) because macroevolution is just a theory Answer: C Section: 16.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 11) Isolating mechanisms leading to speciation have been documented by A) geographic isolation B) polyploidy C) temporal isolation D) a mutation in a single gene E) All of the above.

Answer: E Section: 16.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 12) It now seems clear that the strongest factor in speciation events is A) genetic drift B) sexual selection C) natural selection D) the bottleneck effect Answer: C Section: 16.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

.

.

13) Research on speciation of Hawaiian crickets, shown in the accompanying figure, has led researchers to conclude that .

A) these cricket species have diverged by a mechanism known as assortative mating B) females of different species have strong preferences for the singing pulse rate of the males of their own species C) female preference for male singing pulse rate is genetically linked to the combination of genes regulating the singing pulse rate of males D) All of the above are accurate.

Answer: D Section: 16.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 14) Factors such as behavioral, temporal, or ecological isolation mechanisms that prevent two closely related sympatric populations from interbreeding can be grouped together and classified as .

A) prezygotic isolating mechanisms B) postzygotic isolating mechanisms C) polyploidy hybrid speciation D) adaptive radiation Answer: A Section: 16.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Hybridization between populations upon secondary contact may result in .

A) reinforcement of the two original species by way of pre- or post-zygotic isolating mechanisms B) the creation of one or more new species as hybrids between the two parental species C) the creation of a hybrid lineage that has higher fitness than either of the parental species D) All of the above are possible.

E) None of the above are possible.

Answer: D Section: 16.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

16) The accompanying figure most closely represents speciation by

A) natural selection B) reinforcement C) hybridization D) polyploidy Answer: C Section: 16.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

.

17) From an ecological perspective, the dispersal of fruit flies (Drosophila) on the Hawaiian islands, which has resulted in speciation, is BEST termed .

A) vicariance B) reinforcement C) hybridization D) adaptive radiation Answer: D Section: 16.2/16.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 18) Groups of organisms that cannot be distinguished morphologically but have no gene flow between them, and are indeed evolutionary independent units, are known as species.

Answer: cryptic Section: 16.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) The classical hypothesis of speciation is comprised of a three-step process. What are the three steps?

Answer: Isolation of populations; divergence in traits; reproductive isolation.

Section: 16.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

20) The model of speciation that hinges on a physical barrier preventing gene flow is speciation.

Answer: allopatric Section: 16.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Geographic isolation of populations can generally come about in two ways. What are they?

Answer: dispersal and vicariance Section: 16.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Speciation events that occur when the geographic ranges of the populations involved overlap are termed .

Answer: sympatric Section: 16.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Species divergence due to mating behavior and sexual selection, as has been documented in the Hawaiian crickets, is termed . [two words] Answer: assortative mating Section: 16.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Relative to chromosome numbers, hybridization can produce speciation in two ways. What are they?

Answer: polyploidy hybrid speciation and homoploid hybrid speciation Section: 16.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Selection that reduces the frequency of hybridization and/or the fitness of hybrids between populations following secondary contact is termed .

Answer: reinforcement Section: 16.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Each of the species concepts (morphospecies, biological, and phylogenetic) have strengths and weaknesses. Compare and contrast all three, and evaluate them for their relative usefulness.

27) Speciation through hybridization may or may not involve a change in the chromosome number of the hybrids. Name and explain, using examples, how speciation events in both of these cases has been documented.

28) Suppose a bird population that qualifies as a single species according to the Biological Species Concept (BSC) is separated into two isolated populations by an advancing glacier during an Ice Age. What will happen when the glacier retreats, allowing the two populations to come back together (secondary contact)? Be sure to account for all possible outcomes.

Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 17 The Origins of Life and Precambrian Evolution 1) Proteins carry out much of the biochemistry of life, including DNA replication, but DNA stores the information needed to build correct proteins. Early life forms would have needed both proteins and DNA, but neither can exist without the other. The RNA world hypothesis is an appealing solution to this problem, because it states that .

A) RNA can evolve into DNA by natural selection B) proteins can store the information needed for their own synthesis C) RNA is more chemically stable than DNA D) nucleotides of RNA are chemically similar to amino acids E) some RNA molecules both store information and catalyze chemical reactions Answer: E Section: 17.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 2) Could a varying, self-replicating population of RNA molecules be considered alive?

A) No, because such a population would not be contained inside a cell.

B) Yes, because such a population would show variation, inheritance, and selection.

C) No, because RNA molecules are not subject to selection.

D) Yes, because RNAs code for proteins that can then replicate the RNAs. E) No, because ribonucleotides are not suited for energy transfer functions.

Answer: B Section: 17.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 3) The Murchison meteorite was a significant discovery for the study of the origin of life, because it .

A) contained self-replicating organisms B) contained carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen C) contained significant amounts of amino acids D) contained short lengths of RNA E) descended through the atmosphere slowly enough that friction was negligible Answer: C Section: 17.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) A famous experiment that generated organic molecules from a mixture of gases thought to resemble the early Earth's atmosphere was carried out in 1953 by .

A) Stanley Miller B) Charles Darwin C) Thomas Cech D) J. S. Haldane E) Aniela Wochner Answer: A Section: 17.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

5) A problem with the basic Oparin-Haldane model for the origin of life (though not necessarily an unsolvable one) is that .

A) it does not explain the origin of chirality B) the early Earth is now not thought to have had a highly reducing atmosphere C) monomers have to be chemically activated before they will polymerize D) purine bases can attach to sugars in many equally probable ways E) All of the above.

Answer: E Section: 17.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 6) Minick Rosing's analysis of microscopic globules of carbon found in rocks 3.7 billion years old showed that they were somewhat higher in 12C as opposed to 13C. This is significant because .

A) 13C radiometrically decays into 12C, which lets us calculate the age of these rocks B) life could not have arisen in an environment with excessive 13C C) these carbon globules contain visible remains of cell walls and nuclei D) living things that fix carbon preferentially incorporate 12C over 13C E) meteorites must have brought 13C to the early Earth Answer: D Section: 17.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which of these is NOT an evolutionary advantage of the first cell membranes?

A) Membranes allow cells to move independently.

B) Membranes allow for cells to be compartmentalize.

C) Membranes allow substances to be concentrated inside a cell, or pumped outside.

D) Membranes allow genotypes and the phenotypes they produce to stay linked.

E) All of the above are advantages of cell membranes.

Answer: A Section: 17.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) The earliest fossil records of bacteria-like organisms, dated at over 3 billion years, A) are too spotty to allow us to trace lines of descent to present-day organisms B) unquestionably belong to cyanobacteria C) show that early cells had membranes made of short amino acid chains D) used only RNA molecules for both information storage and chemical catalysis E) already contained endosymbiotic organelles Answer: A Section: 17.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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9) The gene that encodes small-subunit ribosomal RNA is useful for reconstructing the phylogeny of all organisms, because .

A) the gene is subject to strong stabilizing selection B) the gene's function has stayed unchanged in all organisms C) all organisms have ribosomes with similar composition and structure D) all organisms have the gene E) All of the above.

Answer: E Section: 17.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 10) Carl Woese is BEST known for discovering that .

A) eukaryote membrane-bound organelles are descended from endosymbionts B) the oldest fossils are 3.4 billion years old C) prokaryotes comprise two very different branches: Bacteria and Archaea D) energy acting on gases and water vapor will create a "primordial soup" of organic molecules E) the last universal common ancestor (LUCA) did not have DNA-dependent RNA polymerase Answer: C Section: 17.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Lateral gene transfer means that phylogenetic analyses of different individual genes from the same set of organisms often yield results that are inconsistent with each other. What technique seems to avoid this problem and give us the clearest, most consistent view of the "tree of life"?

A) the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) B) molecular clock analyses C) "shotgun" rRNA sequencing from environmental samples D) Bayesian phylogenetic reconstruction E) whole-genome phylogenetic analysis Answer: E Section: 17.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) The minimum age of the LUCA (last unique common ancestor) is the age of the oldest fossils that can be identified with certainty as close relatives of present-day prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Such fossils are about .

A) 3.8 billion years old B) 2 billion years old C) 542 million years old D) 3.28 billion years old E) 65 million years old Answer: B Section: 17.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

13) According to Patrick Forterre's hypothesis, viruses are ultimately responsible for .

A) introducing DNA into the ancestors of Bacteria, Archaea, and Eucarya B) fusing with a bacterium and giving rise to the eukaryote nucleus C) introducing information-processing genes into the ancestral chronocytes D) enabling Archaea to withstand extreme environmental conditions causing mass extinctions Answer: A Section: 17.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Carl Woese has controversially proposed that all three domains of life evolved from a(n) .

A) single last unique common ancestor (LUCA) B) extremophilic archaean C) fusion of a bacterium with an archaean D) universal gene-exchange pool E) very large virus Answer: D Section: 17.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) James Ferris discovered that clay minerals are capable of A) joining pyrimidines to simple sugars B) catalyzing the polymerization of activated nucleotides C) breaking down biomolecules to release energy D) activating nucleotides by adding phosphate groups E) forming microscopic spheres from short polymers of amino acids Answer: B Section: 17.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) The organisms formerly classified in the Kingdom Protista A) all contain chloroplasts B) form a single monophyletic group C) include the last universal common ancestor (LUCA) of life D) are scattered throughout all branches of the eukaryote family tree E) have a fossil record extending back 3.4 million years Answer: D Section: 17.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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17) The accompanying figure shows the history of large meteorite impacts on both the earth and the moon. What is the graph's major implication for the origin of life on Earth?

A) Huge impacts make it unlikely that life arose and survived on Earth before about 3.8 billion years ago.

B) Meteorites could not have brought the organic molecules that were necessary for life appear.

C) The moon is considerably older than the Earth.

D) Life must have originated on a different body in the solar system and been brought to Earth.

E) The Oparin-Haldane model of life's origins applies to the moon as well as to the Earth.

Answer: A Section: 17.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 18) Deductive reasoning generates the conclusion that because we are here to think about and ask questions about the first living thing on Earth, it must have existed. This first living thing presumably gave rise to multiple lineages, at least one of which served as the ancestor for all of life on Earth. The acronym IDA has been applied to the first living thing, and LUCA to the ancestor that gave rise to all of life. What do IDA and LUCA stand for?

Answer: initial Darwinian ancestor; last universal common ancestor Section: Introduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

19) Important molecular discoveries in the 1980s have led researchers to hypothesize that the original, vital organic molecule shaping living things was not what was first thought. What molecule is currently supported as the candidate for the vital molecule for early life?

Answer: RNA Section: 17.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) The model of life's origins, which posits that all of the necessary ingredients for the origin of life were present on early Earth, has been named after two early twentieth-century scientists.

This model is called the [two words] model.

Answer: Oparin-Haldane Section: 17.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Estimates of the age of Earth, taken from meteorites, date our planet to be approximately years old. The BEST estimate of when life emerged, based on extrapolation of known and verifiable fossils, is approximately years ago. In essence, then, life emerged approximately years after Earth formed.

Answer: 4.5 to 4.6 billion; +/- 4 billion; +/-500 million Section: Introduction/17.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 22) Analysis of the sequences of the small subunit rRNA generated a shift in our current taxonomic scheme, with the addition of three levels called domains. What are the three domains?

Answer: Bacteria, Archaea, Eucarya Section: 17.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

23) In attempting to construct a universal phylogeny, researchers analyzed several different gene sets. The results of this analysis are not congruent (see accompanying figure). The most likely explanation for this, as proposed by Carl Woese and others, is [three words] in early populations, which would account for these discrepancies.

Answer: horizontal/lateral gene transfer Section: 17.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

24) An estimate of the universal phylogeny, based on the small subunit rRNA, is reproduced in the accompanying figure. According to this reconstruction, the domain that Eucarya shares the most recent common ancestor with is .

Answer: Archaea Section: 17.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

25) It is now thought that the last common ancestor of the three domains was not a single lineage. Rather, it was .

Answer: a community of organisms/species that readily exchanged genes with each other Section: 17.3/17.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Fossil evidence suggests that the latest possible date for root of the universal phylogeny predates the billion-year mark.

Answer: 2 Section: 17.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) The explanation linking viruses to the origin of the three domains, which includes the conversion of cellular genomes from RNA to DNA, is known as the .

Answer: three viruses OR three domains hypothesis Section: 17.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

28) The authors of your textbook maintain that "the ability to store and transmit information (genotype) and the ability to express that information (phenotype) are perhaps the most important criteria that set life apart from nonlife." When we compare this statement to Darwin's four natural selection postulates (variation, inheritance, excess reproduction, and differential survival and reproduction), interesting parallels emerge. Evaluate the authors' claim in the context of Darwinian evolution by natural selection.

29) After important molecular discoveries in the 1980s, researchers have shifted their attention to RNA as the founding organic molecule for all of life on Earth ("The RNA World"). What attributes does RNA have, and what evidence has been generated to support this hypothesis?

30) The Oparin-Haldane model of the origins of life on Earth can be concisely elucidated in three stages. Identify and describe each stage in the context of what is currently known, as well as what has been hypothesized, about the conditions of early Earth.

31) The authors of your textbook suggest that, "for genes shared among all organisms…Animals, Plants, and Fungi appear to possess less than 10% of the nucleotide-level diversity observed on Earth." Given the relatively recently generated phylogenies such as those in the accompanying figures, along with what you know about the history of life on this planet, does this seem like a reasonable statement? Explain.

Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 18 Evolution and the Fossil Record 1) The study of the fossilization process itself is called A) sequence stratigraphy B) permineralization C) functional morphology D) stratigraphic correlation E) taphonomy Answer: E Section: 18.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The expression "pull of the recent" refers to the fact that

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A) younger fossils are more important for the study of evolution than older fossils B) older rocks are more likely to be volcanic rocks with no fossils C) younger rocks are more likely to be covered up or otherwise inaccessible D) the quality of the fossil record gets worse the farther back in time you look E) younger fossils are more likely to be preserved by permineralization Answer: D Section: 18.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 3) The past 542 million years is collectively known as the A) Phanerozoic B) Cenozoic C) Archaean D) Paleozoic E) Cambrian Answer: A Section: 18.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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4) Species of fossil organisms are morphospecies, which means they are defined on the basis of .

A) DNA sequence similarities B) mate recognition behaviors C) anatomical features D) ability to interbreed E) the locations where they are found Answer: C Section: 18.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

5) The famous Cambrian-era fossil deposit known as the Burgess Shale is now estimated to contain fossils of how many animal phyla?

A) None―animals had not appeared at the time.

B) just two or three anatomically simple animal phyla C) about the same number as those alive today D) two or three times as many as alive today E) about half as many as are alive today Answer: C Section: 18.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Which of these is a niche that Cambrian animals occupied―that, as far as we know, their predecessors did not?

A) grazing on microbial mats B) feeding on organic debris C) absorbing nutrients across membranes D) predation while actively swimming E) None of the above.

Answer: D Section: 18.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Imagine that you find a fossil skeleton of a Late Devonian vertebrate. Which feature would enable you to conclude that it was fully a tetrapod?

A) a flattened skull with dorsally facing orbits B) the loss of skeletal support for any gills C) the loss of dorsal and anal fins D) well-developed joints between vertebrae, and between vertebrae and the pelvis E) lungs to enable breathing of atmospheric oxygen Answer: D Section: 18.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 8) An example of a plesiomorphy in the earliest fossil birds would include A) three clawed fingers on each hand B) a long, bony tail C) teeth D) down-like feathers E) All of the above.

Answer: E Section: 18.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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9) Why is it inaccurate to refer to early synapsids as "mammal-like reptiles"?

A) Mammals did not evolve from synapsids.

B) Synapsids do not nest within the clade Reptilia as we define it now.

C) The taxon Synapsida is actually polyphyletic.

D) The earliest synapsids had no features that we associate with reptiles today.

E) Synapsids and reptiles lived on different continents in the late Paleozoic.

Answer: B Section: 18.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Which well-known paleontologist created a global database of marine animal families to study changes in diversity through time?

A) Charles D. Walcott B) Jere H. Lipps C) David Raup D) Michael Foote E) Jack Sepkoski Answer: E Section: 18.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Which of the following is NOT one of the "Big Five" mass extinctions?

A) End-Permian (251 Ma) B) End-Triassic (200 Ma) C) Late Devonian (about 360 Ma) D) Eocene-Oligocene (33.9 Ma) E) Terminal Ordovician (444 Ma) Answer: D Section: 18.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which of the following is NOT key evidence for a large meteorite impact striking the Earth approximately 65 million years ago?

A) tiny particles of glass called microtektites B) "shocked quartz" grains, with fine parallel planes caused by a burst of intense pressure C) the disappearance of many taxa of large reptiles beginning about 70 million years ago D) a worldwide layer of sediments highly enriched in the element iridium E) gravity anomalies that allow us to map the now-buried meteorite crater Answer: C Section: 18.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

13) Which of the following was NOT a likely consequence of the Chicxulub meteorite impact 65.5 million years ago?

A) eruption of massive volcanoes in India, forming deposits known as the Deccan Traps B) intense acid rain from sulfuric acid forming in the atmosphere C) global cooling caused by sulfur dioxide and airborne dust blocking solar radiation D) a massive tsunami in the Gulf of Mexico E) earthquakes of huge magnitude Answer: A Section: 18.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) David Jablonski and colleagues found that species of bivalves with which of the following trait(s) persisted longer, and were less likely to die out, during times of background extinction?

A) epifaunal, suspension-feeding lifestyle B) wider geographic ranges C) planktonic larval stages D) All of the above.

E) None of the above.

Answer: D Section: 18.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

15) The accompanying figure shows the results of Jackson and Cheetham's studies on fossil and living cheilostome bryozoans. What can you infer from these diagrams?

A) Species of bryozoan have tended to persist with very little morphological change.

B) Bryozoans have unusually low genetic diversity.

C) Bryozoans predominantly evolve by phyletic transformation, or anagenesis.

D) Bryozoans have suffered heavily from extinction events on islands.

E) It is hard to define bryozoan species because of the presence of so many intermediate forms.

Answer: A Section: 18.5 Skill: Application/Analysis

16) The accompanying figure shows the results of comparative analyses of two clades: the horseshoe crabs, and the king crabs and hermit crabs. What can you conclude from these diagram?

A) Horseshoe crabs have been on the Earth for an unusually long time.

B) King crabs appeared in the fossil record before horseshoe crabs did.

C) Hermit crabs are much older than their fossil record reveals.

D) Horseshoe crabs are as genetically divergent as king and hermit crabs, despite being far less morphologically diverse.

E) Horseshoe crabs have not been subjected to significant stabilizing selection.

Answer: D Section: 18.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 17) Rock layers right at the K-Pg boundary have enriched concentrations of the element iridium.

This is significant for understanding the mass extinction that happened at the time, because .

A) iridium is toxic to life and could have killed off many species B) iridium is very rare in the Earth's crust but relatively common in meteorites C) iridium forms under conditions of extreme shock and heat D) iridium would have caused an episode of severe acid rain E) iridium-rich dust is particularly effective at blocking incoming solar radiation Answer: B Section: 18.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 18) The range of shapes found among members of a taxon may be thought of as a multidimensional space called a(n) .

Answer: morphospace Section: 18.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) The [two words] is a well-known set of soft-bodied organisms living just before the Cambrian period, which probably includes at least simple animals and early bilaterians.

Answer: Ediacara biota Section: 18.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

20) The relatively rapid appearance of animal phyla in the Cambrian period is correlated with a rise in at the same time.

Answer: oxygen Section: 18.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Stephen J. Gould and Niles Eldredge proposed that most morphological change happens at speciation events, and that most species show stasis (little or no morphological change) during most of their existence. This is the theory of . [two words] Answer: punctuated equilibrium Section: 18.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) The term is often used for large-scale evolutionary change in general, but also more precisely for processes operating above the species level.

Answer: macroevolution Section: 18.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Another common term for morphological diversity―that is, for the range of different shapes and physical features found in a taxon―is .

Answer: disparity Section: 18.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Hawaiian fruit flies descend from a single common ancestor that reached the islands and rapidly diversified into a wide range of ecological niches. This is a good example of . [two words] Answer: adaptive radiation Section: 18.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) An exceptionally rich fossil deposit is known as a(n) Answer: Lagerstätte Section: 18.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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26) Comparing DNA sequences from living taxa and calibrating their rates of change with at least one well-dated fossil allows scientists to create time-calibrated trees with minimum and maximum age estimates for all branch points. Such studies are called [two words] studies.

Answer: molecular clock Section: 18.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

27) Trace fossils record the behavior of ancient organisms, but not necessarily their form; it is often difficult or impossible to link a given trace fossil with the precise species that made it.

Nonetheless, trace fossils provide valuable data for reconstructing the history of life. Your textbook mentions that dinosaur trackways can be used to estimate living dinosaurs' speed.

Generate another way in which trace fossils could contribute to paleontological studies even if the identities of their makers are unclear.

28) Molecular analyses suggest that the major lineages of animals diverged hundreds of millions of years before their first known appearances in the fossil record. Some scientists propose that the reason for this discrepancy is that the earliest animals were small and larval-like, leaving no trace in the fossil record. Generate an alternative hypothesis that explains this discrepancy, and suggest how the two hypotheses could plausibly be tested.

29) David Raup and Jack Sepkoski showed that rates of background extinction have been slowly declining in the animal kingdom throughout the Phanerozoic era. Compare and contrast two possible explanations as to why these rates are declining.

30) We may be living in the middle of the sixth great mass extinction, as human activity directly and indirectly drives species to extinction. How might the study of past mass extinctions show us how the current extinction might play out? Can paleontology give us any information that might help us mitigate the effects of the current extinction?

Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 19 Development and Evolution 1) Why was developmental biology left out of the "modern synthesis" of evolution as it developed in the 1930s and 1940s?

A) Many developmental biologists believed that evolution progresses by rapid jumps, not slow and gradual change.

B) It was widely felt that development and genetics had to be "properly separated" for either to make any progress.

C) Many developmental biologists focused on "structuralist" explanations of evolution.

D) The genetic mechanisms of development were poorly understood at the time.

E) All of the above.

Answer: E Section: 19.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) According to a database kept by the HUGO Gene Nomenclature Committee, there are currently six genes in the human genome for different variants of the protein collagen IV. Assuming that all these genes are derived from an ancestral gene, the most precise term for these genes would be .

A) homeotic B) paralogous C) transcription factors D) structural E) orthologous

Answer: B Section: 19.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The concept of developmental constraint may be defined as .

A) the sudden appearance of new phenotypes B) homoplasy that results from the same underlying developmental mechanism C) phenotypic similarity due to descent from a common ancestor D) a bias toward certain kinds of variation in phenotype E) the fact that all animals develop using the same "toolkit" of Hox genes Answer: D Section: 19.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

4) In early human embryos, the gene HoxB7 is involved in patterning the central nervous system.

In later embryos, HoxB7 plays a critical role in growth and development of the kidney. These different functions of the same gene at different times and places are an example of .

A) homology B) taphonomy C) pleiotropy D) unconformity E) constraint Answer: C Section: 19.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) All of the following factors can cause rapid evolutionary "jumps" except A) single alleles with major effects on life history B) hybridization between species, producing a form that differs from both parents C) stabilizing selection on homeotic genes D) horizontal gene transfer between unrelated organisms E) transposable genetic elements, or transposons Answer: C Section: 19.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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6) François Jacob and Jacques Monod discovered .

A) a mechanism for how proteins regulate gene activity B) the degree of genetic similarity between humans and chimpanzees C) the Hox cluster of homeotic genes D) evolutionary changes in the timing and rate of developmental processes E) the parallel between the order of regulatory genes on a chromosome and the location in the embryo where these genes are expressed Answer: A Section: 19.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) The simplest hypothesis for the original function of Hox genes is that the common ancestor of bilateral animals had Hox genes that were .

A) expressed in the development of its appendages B) scattered throughout the genome C) expressed in the canonical spatial pattern D) crucial for the development of its digestive system E) organized in multiple clusters Answer: C Section: 19.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

8) Which of the following is a good example of two genes that are orthologous?

A) the promoter and the repressor genes of the lac operon in E. coli B) the genes for the first two enzymes in the glycolytic pathway C) the gene for the photosynthetic enzyme RuBisCO in a fern and in an oak D) the human gene for the cell surface protein Siglec-12, and the human pseudogene Siglec-13 E) None of these pairs are orthologous.

Answer: C Section: 19.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 9) The hindwing eyespots of the butterfly Bicyclus anyana responded to artificial selection for increased gold color in both or increased black color in both, but artificial selection could not produce increased gold in one spot and increased black in the other. This is an example of .

A) homoplasy B) heterochrony C) genetic linkage D) orthologous genes E) constraint Answer: E Section: 19.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) The most significant conclusion of the experiments on Heliconius butterfly mimics is that .

A) evolution can sometimes happen by sudden jumps B) genes can occasionally be transferred between completely unrelated organisms C) natural selection is the only mechanism for evolutionary diversification D) the same developmental genetic mechanisms underlie a great range of variants E) development must be studied separately from evolutionary genetics Answer: D Section: 19.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 11) The ectodysplasin gene of stickleback fish in fresh and salt waters provides a good example of pleiotropy, because it .

A) affects both growth rate and bony armor of a stickleback B) includes a DNA-binding homeodomain C) has been duplicated repeatedly to create a whole family of variants D) has been transferred from another organism E) allows different populations of stickleback to interbreed Answer: A Section: 19.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

12) Libbie Hyman's comprehensive study of invertebrates, beginning in the 1940s, was noteworthy for being one of the few major works at the time to .

A) use Lamarckian evolution to explain the origins of animal phyla B) use cladistics to resolve invertebrate relationships C) integrate development with adult morphology to understand adaptation D) propose gene regulation as an explanation for development E) explain invertebrate evolution using "macromutations" with large effects Answer: C Section: 19.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) The discoverer of "homeotic mutations," who also resisted the growing "modern synthesis" model of evolution, was .

A) St. George Mivart B) Ernst Mayr C) Julian Huxley D) David Wake E) William Bateson Answer: E Section: 19.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) A "structuralist" biologist would explain an organism's features as the result of A) natural selection acting on random, small-scale variation B) the inheritance of traits acquired over an individual's lifetime C) principles of mathematics and physics that determine form and function D) major "leaps" or "jumps" in phenotype within one generation E) divine intervention in an organism's DNA Answer: C Section: 19.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) Genes in the NK4 class are involved in heart development in both vertebrates and fruit flies.

They are also involved in the development of pumping organs in organisms that lack a heart, such as roundworms and cnidarians. Available information suggests that in early animals, the ancestral NK4 gene and its associated regulatory network .

A) evolved convergently in vertebrates and arthropods B) were important in the development of the heart and blood vessels C) evolved by duplication of the Hox cluster D) governed the development of some fluid-filled pumping structure E) did not have any function Answer: D Section: 19.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

16) The embryonic nervous systems of peanut worms (Sipuncula) and spoon worms (Echiura) show that these worms .

A) are descended from segmented ancestors B) have appendages that are homologous with arthropod appendages C) do not express Hox genes during development D) are similar to each other because of homoplasy E) are surprisingly closely related to vertebrates Answer: A Section: 19.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Unlike all other honeybees, worker bees in the South African subspecies Apis mellifera capensis can lay eggs that develop asexually into queens, which makes it possible for them to "nest parasitize" other subspecies of honeybees. This is due to .

A) the effects of many genes integrated together (epistasis) B) a homeotic mutation of a gene in the Hox cluster C) the appearance of new genes that are paralogous with Hox genes D) a deletion of nine nucleotides in the gemini transcription factor gene E) horizontal gene transfer from a distantly related insect species Answer: D Section: 19.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Evolutionary shifts in the relative rates and timing of developmental events are known as .

Answer: heterochrony Section: 19.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Mutations of [two words] in fruit flies can cause appendages to appear in the wrong places, such as legs growing in place of antennae.

Answer: homeotic genes Section: 19.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Genes of both the ANT-C and BX-C clusters encode proteins that all include a common sequence of amino acids that interact with DNA, known as the .

Answer: homeodomain Section: 19.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

21) Despite a great deal of variation across the animal kingdom, Hox genes tend to appear along a chromosome or chromosomes in the same order that they are expressed in along the anteroposterior axis of an embryo. This pattern of Hox gene expression is called the . [four words] Answer: canonical spatial expression pattern Section: 19.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) South American anteaters have no teeth and a long sticky tongue; they rip open anthills and termite mounds and capture insects with their tongues. An Australian marsupial known as the numbat (Myrmecobius fasciatus) is not closely related to anteaters, but it too has highly reduced teeth and a long sticky tongue, and it feeds by ripping open termite burrows and lapping the insects up. Such similarities between species that are not inherited from a common ancestor are known as .

Answer: homoplasy Section: 19.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 23) The simplest hypothesis for the original function of Hox genes is that they were expressed in the [two words] in early animals.

Answer: nervous system Section: 19.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) A is one who believes that major evolutionary change happens, or can happen, by large "jumps" or bursts, such as mutations with large effects.

Answer: saltationist Section: 19.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) The evolutionary conversion of a structure, gene, or gene complex from one function to another was called

by Stephen Jay Gould and Elisabeth Vrba.

Answer: exaptation Section: 19.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) When selection increases one feature of an organism at the expense of another, we speak of an evolutionary .

Answer: trade-off Section: 19.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Australian marsupials known as flying phalangers (genus Petaurus), southeast Asian mammals known as colugos (order Dermoptera), and North American flying squirrels (genus Glaucomys) are not closely related, but all three have furry membranes extending from wrist to ankle that enable them to glide from tree to tree. Explain how you could decide whether these similarities are due to convergence or to parallel evolution.

28) In 1996, Michael Behe argued that the bacterial flagellum (a rotating filament-like structure that enables a bacterium to swim) could not have evolved by natural selection, since it is made up of many integrated parts (proteins), and the absence of any one of those parts would make the entire structure useless. Outline a set of experiments on flagella that would test the alternate hypothesis that flagella evolved through exaptation at the molecular level.

29) The eighteenth-century French scientist Étienne Geoffroy Saint-Hilaire argued for a farreaching concept of what we would now call homology. For example, he argued that the vertebrae and ribs of vertebrates are fundamentally the same structures, built on the same plan, as the segmented exoskeleton and legs of insects and other arthropods. Insects, according to Geoffroy Saint-Hilaire, quite literally live inside their vertebrae and walk on their ribs. His idea is not really true in the sense that he conceived it―and yet, in the light of discoveries about Hox genes and developmental regulation, some modern evolutionary biologists have had good things to say about Geoffroy Saint-Hilaire's work. (See "Brotherhood by Inversion" in Stephen Jay Gould's book Leonardo's Mountain of Clams and the Diet of Worms, for example.) Explain why a modern "evo-devo" specialist might find Geoffroy Saint-Hilaire's ideas worth revisiting in the light of current knowledge.

30) At the end of the chapter, the text points out that almost all our knowledge of evo-devo is based on plants and animals; we know little about other complex multicellular organisms that undergo development. Consider a mushroom, a member of the Kingdom Fungi. Based on what you know of its structure and mode of growth, would you predict that it would have orthologous genes to the Hox genes of animals? Explain why or why not.

Evolutionary Analysis, 5e (Herron/Freeman) Chapter 20 Human Evolution 1) Which of the following organisms is NOT considered a great ape?

A) human B) baboon C) orangutan D) bonobo E) gorilla Answer: B Section: 20.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Vincent Sarich and Allan Wilson estimated that humans diverged from their closest living primate relatives about 5 million years ago. What line of evidence did they use initially?

A) cladistic analysis of DNA sequences from living primates B) chromosomal banding patterns, fusions, and fissions C) radiometric dating of fossils D) DNA denaturation and re-annealing temperatures E) reactions between primate serum proteins and antibodies to human serum Answer: E Section: 20.1

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Most DNA-based phylogenetic analyses place humans and chimpanzees (including bonobos) as each other's closest relatives, but a persistent minority of studies place gorillas and chimpanzees as sharing a common ancestor that was not a human ancestor. The reason is incomplete lineage sorting, which simply means that .

A) the ancestral species of all great apes was genetically variable at some loci, and each descendant species lost different random combinations of ancestral alleles B) the labs that sequenced great ape DNA made a simple procedural error C) mitochondrial genes can become unlinked and be inherited by independent assortment D) primate lineages are not completely reproductively isolated and can hybridize E) coding regions of the primate genome are more likely to give false results than noncoding regions such as SINEs Answer: A Section: 20.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

4) Chimpanzees and gorillas share the trait of knuckle-walking, which humans do not generally have. Why do most scientists NOT classify chimpanzees and gorillas as each other's closest relatives?

A) The majority of genetic evidence places chimpanzees closest to humans, not to gorillas.

B) Fossil evidence suggests that knuckle-walking was present in ape ancestors and is not a uniquely derived trait for chimpanzees and gorillas.

C) Chimpanzees and humans share more unique features in common than either share with gorillas.

D) Fossil apes that are thought to be closest to humans show adaptations for knuckle-walking, implying that humans have secondarily lost the trait.

E) All of the above.

Answer: E Section: 20.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 5) The accompanying figure shows how levels of a microRNA called miR-320b change with age in the prefrontal cortex of the brains of humans, chimps, and macaques (African monkeys). This may be important for understanding the genetic features that make us human, because microRNAs .

A) are found only in primates B) are translated into short polypeptides C) influence gene expression by binding to messenger RNAs D) are transcribed from "selfish DNA" sequences such as Alu elements E) are known to increase neuronal connectivity and therefore intelligence Answer: C Section: 20.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

6) Judging by the nature of modern humans, chimpanzees, and bonobos, which of these traits did the last common ancestor of all three probably NOT show?

A) some form of culture B) tool use to get and process food C) a broad diet including plenty of fruit D) strictly heterosexual mating patterns E) some degree of hunting Answer: D Section: 20.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) The fossil Sahelanthropus tchadensis from the Djurab Desert of Chad, dated at 6 to 7 million years ago, may be a hominin (i.e., share more recent common ancestry with humans than with any other ape because of .

A) its relatively large brain B) the shape of its thighbones C) its sophisticated use of stone tools D) fossil footprints showing bipedal locomotion E) its relatively flat face Answer: E Section: 20.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Which genus or genera of hominin is/are most consistently associated with stone tools?

A) Homo B) Paranthropus C) Australopithecus D) Sahelanthropus E) All of the above.

Answer: A Section: 20.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) All of the following traits are shared by all great apes, except A) increased flexibility of the wrist and thumb B) spoken language C) absence of a tail D) increased flexibility of hips and ankles E) relatively large brains Answer: B Section: 20.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) Although attempts to date the divergence between humans and chimpanzees using molecular sequence data do not perfectly agree, a rough consensus from multiple analyses would place the divergence date at .

A) 175,000 years ago B) 6,000 years ago C) 5 to 7 million years ago D) 3.14 million years ago E) 65 million years ago Answer: C Section: 20.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) "Robust australopithecines," now classified in the genus Paranthropus, are distinctive as compared to other hominins because of their .

A) great height B) unusually large brains C) knuckle-walking ability D) cave paintings and other artwork E) huge teeth, faces, jaws, and jaw muscles Answer: E Section: 10.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which piece of evidence BEST supports the "multiregional evolution" model of the evolution of modern humans?

A) Molecular clocks date the last common ancestor of modern humans to about 171,500 years ago.

B) Present-day human populations from Africa have greater genetic diversity than non-African populations.

C) African Homo ergaster/erectus appear almost simultaneously with Asian Homo erectus, 1.6 to 1.9 million years ago.

D) Both Asian fossil Homo erectus and modern Asian human populations show a high frequency of shovel-shaped incisors.

E) There is no solid evidence supporting the multiregional hypothesis.

Answer: D Section: 20.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

13) Which piece of evidence BEST supports the "out of Africa" model of the evolution of modern humans?

A) African populations show the greatest diversity in numbers at a short tandem repeat (STR) locus on chromosome 12.

B) African Homo ergaster/erectus appear almost simultaneously with Asian Homo erectus, 1.6 to 1.9 million years ago.

C) Both Indonesian fossil Homo erectus and modern Australian aboriginal populations (which probably reached Australia by way of Indonesia) have unusually prominent and straight brow ridges.

D) In most regions, there does not seem to be a rapid replacement of earlier hominins by Homo sapiens.

E) There is no solid evidence supporting the "out of Africa" hypothesis.

Answer: A Section: 20.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 14) The accompanying figure shows the percentage of pairwise genetic comparisons within sample populations of living hominids, graphed against the percentage of sequence divergence for each pair. We can conclude from the figure that .

A) any randomly selected pair of humans in the world should differ in their mitochondrial DNA sequences by less than 6% B) humans are more genetically diverse than Western chimpanzees C) hominid species do not differ significantly in levels of genetic diversity D) humans share a more recent common ancestor with bonobos than gorillas E) All of the above.

Answer: A Section: 20.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

15) All non-African humans today show evidence of a limited amount of past interbreeding with .

A) Denisovans B) Paranthropus boisei C) Homo ergaster D) Neandertals E) Australopithecus sediba Answer: D Section: 20.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) The accompanying figure shows that humans have thicker thumb metacarpals than chimpanzees or bonobos, with broader heads. This is directly correlated with humans'

A) bar-shaped central portion of the hyoid bone B) increasing dependence on meat in the diet C) more elaborate thumb musculature and better precision grip D) loss of the ability to knuckle-walk E) loss of an arboreal (tree-based) lifestyle Answer: C Section: 20.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

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17) Modern humans have lost the system of air sacs that other great apes have. Whatever the reason for this loss, one resulting effect on human behavior was .

A) restriction of modern humans to low altitudes B) loss of the ability to make loud calls C) improved ability to swallow D) increase in the sizes of Broca's and Wernecke's areas E) the ability to pronounce sounds more clearly Answer: E Section: 20.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Your textbook, and many (but not all) paleoanthropologists, refer to a species more closely related to humans than to chimps as a(n) .

Answer: hominin Section: 20.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) The first close human relative known to have dispersed out of Africa was words] Answer: Homo erectus/ergaster Section: 20.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

. [two

20) Short sequences of nucleotides (typically 4 to 8 bases) that are repeated a variable number of times at a locus are known as . [three words] Answer: short tandem repeats (STRs) Section: 20.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Human populations vary genetically, but the variation is subtle and not easy to find without large data sets. Most of the genetic variation in the human species exists between .

Answer: individuals Section: 20.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) are fragmentary hominids 30,000 to 50,000 years old, found in a Siberian cave, who astonishingly appear to have interbred with the ancestors of modern Melanesian human populations.

Answer: Denisovans Section: 20.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

23) Green and colleagues assessed the degree of past interbreeding between modern Homo sapiens populations and extinct premodern populations by looking at an aspect of genetic diversity known as . [three words] Answer: single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) Section: 20.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) In humans and possibly even in chimpanzees, there seems to be a neurological correlation between and .

Answer: language; tool use Section: 20.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) The only hominid skeletal feature that is fairly clearly correlated with the ability to speak is the shape of the .

Answer: hyoid Section: 20.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) The earliest style of stone tools, dating as far back as 2.6 million years, is called Answer: Oldowan Section: 20.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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27) Both the "out of Africa" hypothesis and the "multiregional evolution" hypothesis agree that the last common ancestor of all modern humans lived in Africa. Overwhelming fossil and genetic evidence confirms an African origin for modern humans―but that isn't enough, by itself, to decide between the two hypotheses. Explain one of the lines of evidence that does tend to support one or the other of these hypotheses.

28) In 2003, fairly complete remains of what was claimed to be a new species of hominin were described from the Indonesian island of Flores. The species, Homo floresiensis, may have lived between 100,000 and perhaps as recently as 12,000 years ago; because of its small stature, about three feet (1 meter), it was perhaps unfortunately nicknamed "hobbit" (it didn't help that film The Lord of the Rings: The Return of the King came out the same year). If Homo floresiensis is a real species, it lived at the same time and general area as fully modern humans. However, some scientists are convinced that the bones belonged to a fully modern human who suffered from a growth disorder of some kind. Devise a detailed hypothesis for the origins and relationships of Homo floresiensis, and come up with the best test that you can, given that it has not yet been possible to extract DNA from the fossils.

29) The peoples of Africa have often been negatively stereotyped by Europeans and Americans as "primitive" and "less advanced" than other peoples. Recent genetic analyses show that Africans make up the earliest branches of the human family tree. But do these two statements mean the same thing? Does genetic research imply anything about the relative "advancement" (or lack thereof) of different human groups?

30) In 1912, parts of a skull and jawbone were found in a gravel pit near the English town of Piltdown, about 40 miles south of London. These were claimed to belong to a human ancestor with a brain about two-thirds the size of a modern human brain, and a large, protruding jaw.

"Piltdown Man," or Eoanthropus dawsoni as it was named, was conclusively shown to be a hoax in 1953―pieces of a human skull braincase and an orangutan jaw, stained to look old and to have the same color. (The perpetrator's identity is still not certain.) However, almost from the start, a growing number of scientists were skeptical of Piltdown Man. Discuss two facts about Piltdown Man that would have been increasingly difficult to reconcile with the emerging picture of human evolution in the first half of the twentieth century.