Test Bank for Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 16th edition Stephen P. Robbins Timothy A. Judg

Exam Name

Test Bsnk For Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 16th edition Stephen P. Robbins Timothy A. Judge Chapter 1-17 Chapter 1 MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is not a managerial activity that managers were engaged in, according to Luthans and associates?

A) Communications B) Traditional management C) Networking D) Filing documents E) Human resource management

1)

2) Raul is a financial analyst who oversees the daily financial expenditures for a major big box retailer.

On a typical day, Raul does not interact with other employees and only meets with his team on Monday afternoons; however, he typically has to run a report at 7:30 am and then a final report at 7:30 pm. Raul and his wife Emily have a 6-month-old son and Emily will soon be returning to work thus requiring the couple to engage childcare. To enhance Raul's well-being at work, his manager could .

A) reassign Raul to a position which requires less time B) allow Raul to completely work from home C) allow Raul to work from home four days a week D) do nothing E) fire Raul

2)

3) A growing area in OB research is , which studies how organizations develop human strengths, foster vitality and resilience, and unlock potential.

A) positive organizational scholarship B) organizational anthropology C) network externality study D) departmental dissonance E) industrial foundation scholarship

3)

4) Which of the following is not a core topic of organizational behavior?

A) Attitude development B) Conflict C) Work design D) Motivation E) Resource allocation

4)

5) Situations in which individuals are required to define right and wrong conduct are called A) ethical dilemmas B) managing trade-offs C) addressing organizational routines D) managerial decision-making E) organizational problem-solving 1

.

5)

6) You are bringing together faculty from different behavioral disciplines to author a new textbook in organizational behavior. Represented are professors from psychology, sociology, social psychology, anthropology, political science, and industrial engineering. Which professor out of this group would you expect to address issues on organizational culture?

A) The political scientist B) The sociologist C) The psychologist D) The industrial engineer E) The anthropologist

6)

7) Productivity requires both efficiency and A) effectiveness B) collaboration C) rigidity D) citizenship E) flexibility

7)

.

8) A is an abstraction of reality, a simplified representation of some real-world phenomenon.

A) framework B) law C) process D) model E) rule

8)

9) Gabriela is studying how organizations in different countries develop their culture and how organizational culture is passed on to new hires. She is surveying twenty organizations in each of France, Germany, China, and Mexico. Gabriela's study exemplifies how contributes to OB. A) archaeology B) anthropology C) corporate strategy D) psychology E) political science

9)

10) The South Korean company, Samsung, sells most of its products to organizations in other countries.

Burger King is owned by a Brazilian firm. McDonald's sells hamburgers in 101 countries on six continents. All these are examples of .

A) localization B) divergence C) outsourcing D) contraction E) globalization

10)

11) Popular measures of organizational labor, and profit per dollar of sales.

A) solidarity B) effectiveness C) citizenship D) inventiveness E) efficiency

11)

include return on investment, output per hour of

2

12) Which of the following is not an employability skill that applies across majors?

A) Financial analysis B) Collaboration C) Critical thinking D) Communication E) Social responsibility

12)

13) As a manager in Domingo, Inc., a multinational company operating in 26 countries, Shonda has subordinates from many different countries and cultures. How can she effectively manage her subordinates?

A) By keeping a straightforward and open communication style B) By adapting her management style to their differences C) By treating all subordinates uniformly, regardless of their background D) By using her own motivations to guide others E) By guiding them to adapt to her management style

13)

14) Group behavior, power, and conflict are central areas of study for A) philanthropists B) social psychologists C) archaeologists D) anthropologists E) operations analysts

14)

.

15) Chang studies change. He looks at ways to implement change and how to reduce barriers to its acceptance. Chang is most likely a(n) .

A) social psychologist B) linguist C) sociologist D) anthropologist E) psychologist

15)

16) Which of the following is not an example of group cohesion?

A) Complimenting a coworker B) Calling a teammate after the death of his grandmother C) Assaulting a coworker D) Staying late to help a coworker meet her deadline E) Bringing donuts to a meeting

16)

17) At the individual level, processes can include all except which of the following?

A) Motivation B) Decision making C) Emotions and moods D) Leadership E) Perception

17)

18)

18)

focuses on the study of people in relation to their social environment.

A) Sociology B) Corporate strategy C) Political science D) Psychology E) Operations management

3

19) According to a study by Monster (a global employment company), the number one most frequently desired skill in applicants was .

A) ethical B) accounting C) communication D) computer E) technical

19)

20) When we say x leads to y, but only under conditions specified in z, the z refers to A) contingency variables B) scientific variables C) control variables D) universal variables E) laboratory variables

20)

.

21) On average, managers spend the least amount of time doing which managerial activity?

A) Human resource management B) Traditional management C) Communication D) Systems E) Networking

21)

22) You are bringing together faculty from different behavioral disciplines to author a new textbook in organizational behavior. Represented are professors from psychology, sociology, social psychology, anthropology, political science, and industrial engineering. Which faculty member should furnish information about personality, learning, and motivation?

A) Anthropology B) Industrial engineering C) Sociology D) Political science E) Psychology

22)

23) Which field of study has helped us understand differences in fundamental values, attitudes, and behavior between people in different countries and within different organizations?

A) Psycholinguistics B) Political science C) Operations research D) Anthropology E) Corporate strategy

23)

24) Which of the following are typically assigned just before or after a group is formed?

A) Inputs B) Culture C) Individual responsibilities D) Roles E) Environment

24)

4

25) What are the three primary determinants of behavior in organizations?

A) Profit structure, organizational complexity, and job satisfaction B) Individuals, groups, and structure C) Groups, structure, and profit structure D) Individuals, profit structure, and job satisfaction E) Individuals, groups, and job satisfaction

25)

26) In order to predict human behavior, it is best to supplement your intuitive opinions with information derived in what fashion?

A) Organizational theory B) Systematic study C) Direct observation D) Speculation E) Common sense

26)

27) There is a connection between companies which have organizational behavior principles.

A) long-lasting CEO's B) high turnover rates C) specialized technical processes D) both high turnover rates and long-lasting CEOs E) superior financial performance

27)

and their attention to

28) Some key subjects in research are engagement, hope, optimism, and resilience in the face of strain.

A) positive organizational scholarship B) cultural anthropology C) organizational dynamics D) organizational sociology E) industrial psychology

28)

29) The subject of organizational culture has been most influenced by which behavioral science discipline?

A) Social psychology B) Psychology C) Political science D) Anthropology E) Corporate strategy

29)

30) According to Luthans, if you want to be an effective manager, your time would be best spent not focusing on which managerial activity?

A) Human resource management B) Networking C) Systems D) Communication E) Traditional management

30)

5

31) Dharma, who works in the payroll department of Acme Manufacturing, believes that the plant manager is encouraging the falsification of time cards for a few of his cronies. Dharma is wondering if she should "blow the whistle." Dharma is facing a(n) .

A) social puzzle B) ethical dilemma C) diversity issue D) human resource problem E) organizational complexity

31)

32) Since the year 2000, longevity rates have A) increased; increased B) decreased; decreased C) increased; remained consistent D) increased; decreased E) decreased; increased

32)

while birth rates have

.

33) Analyzing relationships, determining causes and effects, and basing conclusions on scientific evidence all constitute aspects of study.

A) theoretical B) intuitive C) systematic D) organizational E) case-based

33)

34) According to Luthans, if you want to be a successful manager, your time would be best spent on which managerial activity?

A) Human resource management B) Networking C) Traditional management D) Systems E) Communication

34)

35) An ethically healthy climate .

A) cannot be created by managers, but must be dictated by the organization's mission B) interferes with the actual performance of the organization C) is non-existent in businesses D) exists where employees confront a minimal degree of ambiguity regarding what constitutes right and wrong behaviors E) seldom allows employees to do their work productively

35)

36) Many employees of global firms are "on call" 24 hours a day for all of the following reasons except .

A) they are being asked to put in longer hours by their organizations B) they can now do their work at home or other non-office locations C) they are able to create and structure their own roles with flexible work schedules D) they need to consult with colleagues or customers eight or ten time zones away E) they are facing increasing demands of globalization and competition

36)

6

37) The extensive use of statistical compilation and analysis is called A) traditional management B) organizational behavior C) big data D) artificial intelligence E) qualitative management

.

37)

38) Priya was a successful manager in a steel plant. The plant was focused on achieving increased productivity and Priya achieved her unit's productivity mandate by clearly structuring the tasks of her subordinates and holding them accountable to completing their tasks on time. While her subordinates complained about her rigidity, top management lauded her leadership style. Priya quit the steel plant when she got a better paying job at an e-commerce start up. When Priya imposed her rigid, task-oriented leadership style that was successful in the steel plant, her e-commerce subordinates rebelled and complained to top management. Many quit their jobs.

Priya's predicament can be explained through .

A) organizational behavior B) big data C) interpersonal skills D) sociology E) contingency variables

38)

39) In the basic OB model, the variables, such as personality, group structure, and culture, which lead to processes are called .

A) inputs B) abilities C) genetics D) ethics E) resources

39)

40) Managers and their organizations are responding to the problem of unethical behavior in all of the following ways except .

A) by encouraging employees to behave with integrity B) by promoting a strong ethical mission C) by hiring people who can identify unethical employees and take action against them D) by providing strong leadership E) by offering classroom training sessions in ethics

40)

41) Aisha believes that it is best to take the casual or common-sense approach to reading others. She needs to remember that .

A) the casual or common-sense approach to reading others can often lead to erroneous predictions B) laboratory experiments on human behavior often result in unreliable findings C) behavior is unpredictable, hence there is no accurate way to analyze it D) the casual approach is nonsensical, and should be avoided as much as possible E) the systematic approach and the casual approach are one and the same

41)

42) A group with a high level of cohesion is most likely to exhibit A) productivity B) inputs C) citizenship behaviors D) processes E) withdrawal behaviors

42)

7

.

43)

is the study of the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations.

A) Leadership B) Organizational behavior C) Performance management D) Employee relations E) Organizational strategy

44) The number of direct reports under a manager has increased from A) 4; 10 B) 3; 4 C) 5; 7 D) 1; 5

to

.

E) 2; 7

43)

44)

45) Lakeesha needs to assign a very important advertising account to one of her writers. First, she reviewed each writer's workload, then she studied the sales data of the products for the last three campaigns of each writer, then she reviewed each writer's annual review to familiarize herself with their goals. Finally, she gave the account to Paula, a very creative, efficient, writer who has had high sales results with her last three clients' products. Lakeesha's management style is based on .

A) systematic study B) subjective assessments C) preconceived notions D) intuition or "gut feeling" E) organizational behavioral studies

45)

46) According to Luthans, if you want to be a successful manager, your time would be best spent not focusing on which managerial activity?

A) Traditional management B) Networking C) Communication D) Systems E) Human resource management

46)

47) Vance has been at his job as a department manager for four years. During this time, Vance has continually been abused by his supervisor; however, he has continued to do his job well. If Vance's motivation falters, what behavior is Vance most likely to exhibit?

A) Increase productivity B) Bring everyone donuts C) Continue attending the monthly directors' meeting D) Begin showing up for work late E) Work longer hours

47)

48) Navar is a manager at a mid-sized consulting firm. Within his role, he is responsible for interacting with both the other departments in his organization and with both vendors and customers of the firm. Which of the four managerial activities is Navar exhibiting?

A) Communication B) Systems C) Networking D) Traditional management E) Human resource management

48)

8

49) Which behavioral science discipline is most focused on understanding group behavior?

A) Sociology B) Organizational psychology C) Social psychology D) Anthropology E) Psychology

49)

50) Which one of the following is not an example of globalization?

A) At Finland-based phone maker Nokia's renowned research center in Helsinki, non-Finns now outnumber Finns.

B) Burger King is owned by a Brazilian firm.

C) After years of lackluster performance, Boeing realized it needed to change its business model.

D) All major automobile makers now manufacture cars outside their borders.

E) McDonald's sells hamburgers in more than 101 countries in six continents.

50)

51) Ample evidence exists which indicates that an employee who is satisfied and treated fairly is more likely to .

A) be named team lead B) become used by others within the team C) meet their managers expectations D) engage in citizenship behaviors E) be recruited by other organizations

51)

52)

52)

blends concepts from psychology and sociology and focuses on the influence people have on one another.

A) Corporate strategy B) Social psychology C) Archaeology D) Political science E) Anthropology

53) Which of the following is not an attribute of workforce diversity?

A) Gender B) Age C) Height D) Ethnicity E) Sexual orientation

53)

54) Of the following disciplines, which one has contributed to our understanding of macro concepts in OB such as group processes and organization?

A) Statistics B) Anatomy C) Biology D) Anthropology E) Neurology

54)

9

55) According to a recent large-scale survey, 58 percent of managers did not receive A) administrative support B) pay incentives C) insurance D) office space E) training 56) According to the systematic approach, A) behavior B) inputs C) resources D) outcomes E) technology

.

is(are) generally predictable.

55)

56)

57) On average, managers spend most of their time doing which managerial activity?

A) Human resource management B) Networking C) Systems D) Traditional management E) Communication

57)

58) When an OB person says, "A job attractive to one person may be unattractive to another; its appeal depends on the person holding it," the second part of the sentence refers to variables.

A) dependent B) contingency C) global D) non-reactive E) general

58)

59) You are bringing together faculty from different behavioral disciplines to author a new textbook in organizational behavior. Represented are professors from psychology, sociology, social psychology, anthropology, political science, and industrial engineering. You should expect that the faculty member from will probably contribute information about large-scale group behavior.

A) psychology B) anthropology C) sociology D) social psychology E) industrial engineering

59)

60) Austin is a graduate student helping to organize a study on group processes, more specifically, whether homogeneous or heterogeneous groups perform better. His department is observing 200 groups in a laboratory setting. Austin is most likely a graduate student in the department of .

A) sociology B) anthropology C) archaeology D) social psychology E) psychology

60)

10

61) Whereas focuses on differences among people from different countries, addresses differences among people within given countries.

A) culturalization; workforce diversity B) workforce diversity; globalization C) culture; diversity D) psychology; social psychology E) globalization; workforce diversity

61)

62) Which field of study has contributed to OB through its research on organizational culture and formal organization theory and structure?

A) Political science B) Sociology C) Operations management D) Psychology E) Physiology

62)

63) The ultimate goal of organizational behavior is to A) improve an organization's effectiveness B) better understand management C) replace human resources D) create boilerplates E) balance diversity

63)

.

64) At the group level, processes can include all except which of the following?

A) Communication B) Power C) Conflict D) Motivation E) Politics 65) Basing managerial decisions on the best available scientific support is called A) organizational process B) intuition C) evidence-based management D) conceptual management E) organizational behavior 66)

64)

.

are actions that individuals, groups, and organizations engage in as a result of inputs.

A) Policies B) Processes C) Outcomes D) Structures E) Cultures

67) The combination of and of task performance.

A) effectiveness; esteem B) efficiency; motivation C) efficiency; esteem D) roles; motivation E) effectiveness; efficiency

at doing one's core job tasks is a reflection of one's level

11

65)

66)

67)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

68) One of the biggest challenges to maintaining employee well-being is the reality that many workers never get away from the virtual workplace.

68)

69) Organizational behavior is essentially the study of "technical skills."

69)

70) The Johnson-Douglas corporation can maintain an ethically healthy climate for employees by enabling them to work productively with minimal ambiguity about right and wrong behaviors.

70)

71) Organizations are becoming more heterogeneous, reflecting an increasing workforce diversity.

71)

72) Sexual orientation is an attribute of workforce diversity.

72)

73) Organizations typically choose the wrong candidate for management positions 82 percent of the time.

73)

74) Asking your professor of this course to redo the mid-term exam when the opportunity is not given to all students might cause your professor to have an ethical dilemma.

74)

75) Processes lead to inputs.

75)

76) There are a number of absolutes in OB.

76)

77) Anthropology has made important contributions to our study of power and conflict.

77)

78) Systematic study of behavior is a way to make reasonably accurate predictions.

78)

79) Managers who explain their decisions and seek information from colleagues and employees tend to be less successful because they emphasize negativity.

79)

80) Psychology has helped us understand differences in values and attitudes between people in different countries.

80)

81) Evidence-based management is based on "gut feelings" about the state of some phenomenon of interest.

81)

82) Intuition is an instinctive feeling that is typically supported by research.

82)

83) Workforce diversity is a threat to managers in organizations.

83)

84) Psychology is to the individual what sociology is to the group.

84)

85) Social psychology is an area within psychology, blending concepts from both psychology and anthropology.

85)

86) Social media in the business world is a temporary phenomenon.

86)

12

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

87) Compare and contrast the fields of psychology, social psychology, and sociology.

88) How have the fields of psychology and sociology contributed to our understanding of organizational behavior?

89) Why are critical thinking and communication two of the several employability skills that apply across majors?

90) Explain "workforce diversity." What key managerial skill do you think is most important when dealing with workforce diversity?

91) Explain why there are few absolutes in organizational behavior. Despite this, how are we able to make valid predictions?

92) It is important for service organizations to include customer needs and requirements in assessing their effectiveness. Why is this so?

93) Brick and mortar retail stores such as Sears maintained long standing success until challenged by the internet, particularly Amazon. Using the theory of Organizational Survival, explain why Sears faltered.

94) What conclusions can you draw about turnover if an employer strives to find balance in work-life conflicts? How can the employer find this balance and still have productive employees?

95) What do we mean by workforce diversity? Why is workforce diversity a challenge for organizations?

96) Sergio is the manager of a Honda dealership in Orlando, Florida. When one of his salespersons, Karen, posts on her Facebook account how she enjoys driving her Toyota Camry, Sergio finds out. Should Sergio punish Karen?

Why or why not?

97) Describe how one of the sciences that contributes to organizational behavior could be used in evidence-based management (EBM). Define the science, some of the science's contributions to OB, and describe a workplace example of how it could be used in EBM. 98) Is it true that no job is actually stressful? Explain your response.

99) As Rahim is the manager of a large convenience store chain, Rahim's company has access to millions of pieces of data on consumer activity at the company's stores. How can Rahim use this data to make human resources decisions?

100) What is "intuition"? How does it fit with systematic study?

13

Answer Key Testname: C1

1) D 2) C 3) A 4) E 5) A 6) E 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) E 11) E 12) A 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) A 21) E 22) E 23) D 24) D 25) B 26) B 27) E 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) B 32) D 33) C 34) B 35) D 36) C 37) C 38) E 39) A 40) C 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) C 45) A 46) E 47) D 48) C 49) A 50) C 14

Answer Key Testname: C1

51) D 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) E 56) A 57) D 58) B 59) C 60) A 61) E 62) B 63) A 64) D 65) C 66) B 67) E 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) These fields all deal with the human condition. While psychology focuses on the individual, sociology studies people in relation to their social environment or culture. Social psychology blends concepts from both psychology and sociology, though it is generally considered a branch of psychology. It focuses on people's influence on one another.

Thus, it could be said that social psychology falls between the extremes of the individual focus of psychology and the large group focus of sociology.

88) Psychology seeks to measure, explain, and change the behavior of humans. Contributions have been made by learning theorists, personality theorists, counseling psychologists, and industrial and organizational psychologists.

Contributions have been made in learning, perception, personality, emotions, training, leadership effectiveness, needs and motivational forces, job satisfaction, decision-making processes, performance appraisals, attitude measurement, employee-selection techniques, work design, and job stress. Sociology studies people in relation to their social environment or culture. The greatest contributions by sociologists have been in the study of group behavior in organizations, organizational culture, formal organization theory and structure, organizational technology, communications, power, and conflict.

15

Answer Key Testname: C1

89) Critical thinking helps to define and solve problems. It helps make decisions or form judgments. Communication helps to get your message across—whether it is to inform, instruct, motivate, persuade, or share ideas. Both critical thinking and communication work in diverse contexts and hence are employability skills regardless of the type of jobs.

90) Workforce diversity is a term used to describe how organizations are becoming more heterogeneous with regard to gender, race, and ethnicity. It also includes disabilities, sexual orientation, and age. While student responses may vary regarding the required skills, one of them could be human skills. Human skills are defined by the ability to work with, understand, and motivate other people and would be important to manage a diverse workforce because of the different individual variables that the manager would be working with.

91) Human beings are complex, and few, if any, simple and universal principles explain organizational behavior. Because we are not alike, our ability to make simple, accurate, and sweeping generalizations is limited. Two people often act very differently in the same situation, and the same person's behavior changes in different situations. Not everyone is motivated by money, and people may behave differently at a religious service than they do at a party. However, we can offer reasonably accurate explanations of human behavior or make valid predictions, provided OB concepts reflect situational, or contingency, conditions. We can say x leads to y, but only under conditions specified in z—the contingency variables. For example, OB scholars would avoid stating that everyone likes complex and challenging work (the general concept) because not everyone wants a challenging job. Some people prefer routine over varied, or simple over complex. A job attractive to one person may not be to another; its appeal is contingent on the person who holds it.

92) The attitudes of employees directly affect customer behaviors and therefore profitability.

93) Sear's model of requiring customers to come into the store and physically buy products from a selection limited by store space and store hours was no longer a fit in the technologically advanced environment which allowed customers to access a vast variety of products at any time.

94) Because work is constantly infringing on people's lives, some employers make efforts to find balance in the work-life conflict. For example, if a job requires a lot of travel time away from the family, when the travel assignment is done, the employer could allow the employee to work from home several days to be able to spend more time with the family. Allowing flexible schedules and complementary time off for overtime worked gives an employee time to recuperate what was lost to work, thus increasing job satisfaction and most likely decreasing turnover.

Turnover is the voluntary and involuntary permanent withdrawal from an organization. A high turnover rate results in increased recruiting, selection, and training costs–which are quite significant. Although it might appear that the employer is losing productivity by allowing flexible time and balance in work-life conflicts, he is actually increasing productivity because he isn't training new employees due to reduced turnover, and employees with high job satisfaction are more productive.

95) Workforce diversity relates to how organizations are becoming more heterogeneous in terms of employees' gender, age, race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, and other characteristics. This poses tremendous challenges for organizations.

Organizations have to address questions such as: How can we recognize the strength of our diversity? Should we treat all employees alike, or adapt to accommodate each other's differences? There are challenges relating to the legal requirements with regard to protecting a diverse workforce from discrimination.

96) Responses to this question will vary but should address both the right of the employee to make personal statements but also address that employees should not make public statements that might harm the reputation of the company. In this case, Karen sells Hondas but extolls the virtues of a rival brand—Toyota. This could harm the reputation of the Honda dealership.

97) Student responses could vary. One answer could be as follows. Evidence-based management (EBM) complements systematic study by basing managerial decisions on the best available scientific evidence. Doctors need to make decisions about patient care based on the latest available evidence, and EBM argues that managers should do the same, becoming more scientific in how they think about management problems. For example, a manager who is struggling with high turnover in his company could look toward social psychology to help solve the problem. Social psychology, generally considered a branch of psychology, blends concepts from both psychology and sociology to focus on people's influence on one another. One major study area is change, how to implement it and how to reduce barriers to its acceptance. A manager could look at a social psychology study on job satisfaction to determine what changes he might make to be able to better retain employees.

16

Answer Key Testname: C1

98) Yes, it is true that no job is inherently stressful. Stress is a psychological response to the processes within a job. The tasks of any job are not themselves stressful, it is just how an individual responds that makes the job seem stressful (or not).

99) One of the benefits of Big Data is to be able to predict events. Using the data, Rahim can determine the staffing needs at various times in each store and ensure that store staffing keeps pace with customer traffic.

100) Intuitions are "gut feelings" about what makes others (and ourselves) "tick." Intuition will provide a base from which more accurate predictions of behavior can be made. That is, we can improve our predictive ability by complementing intuitive opinions with a more systematic approach. Systematic study involves looking at relationships, attempting to attribute causes and effects, and basing conclusions on scientific evidence. This process helps us to explain and predict behavior.

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Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) ________ is the ability to exert muscular force repeatedly or continuously over time.

A) Dynamic strength B) Static strength C) Trunk strength D) Explosive strength E) Body coordination

1)

2) The act of discriminating can be positively utilized in all of the following manners except ________.

A) classifying members of a given race for marketing purposes B) recognizing differences in skill sets C) determining the direction of a strategic plan D) hiring appropriate candidates E) making promotional decisions

2)

3) Karen and Julio are two employees in an organization who recently started working together.

Karen is an older, white woman raised in Idaho, who achieved her current level in the organization by starting as a high school graduate and working her way up the hierarchy. Julio, a Hispanic, is a young, recently hired male college graduate with a business degree, raised in a Spanish-speaking neighborhood in Miami. However, both are deeply committed to their families, share a common way of thinking about important work problems, like to work collaboratively, and are interested in international assignments in the future. Which of the following describes the diversity between these two?

A) Surface-level diversity B) Deep-level diversity C) Hierarchical-level diversity D) Lateral-level diversity E) Individual-level diversity

3)

4) Which of the following is not a part of the nine basic physical abilities identified by research to be needed in the performance of physical tasks?

A) Balance B) Extent flexibility C) Stamina D) Dynamic strength E) Perceptual speed

4)

5) The Dixon Company held a contest for its employees. The task was to spot the six similarities and the eight differences between two nearly identical pictures. Juan won the contest handily when he was twice as fast as the next best competitor. Juan's intellectual ability is called ________.

A) inductive reasoning B) memory C) verbal comprehension D) spatial visualization E) perceptual speed

5)

1

6) ________ is the ability to expend a maximum of energy in one or a series of acts.

A) Static strength B) Dynamic flexibility C) Trunk strength D) Explosive strength E) Extent flexibility

6)

7) Which of the following is not a component of comprehensive workforce programs encouraging diversity?

A) Teaching managers about the legal framework for equal employment opportunity B) Encouraging fair treatment of all people regardless of their demographic characteristics C) Fostering personal development practices that bring out the skills and abilities of all workers D) Encouraging their employees to learn foreign languages and culture to promote and attract a diverse workforce E) Teaching managers how a diverse workforce will be better able to serve a diverse market of customers and clients

7)

8) ________, the most widely used intelligence test in hiring decisions, takes only 12 minutes to complete.

A) Wonderlic Cognitive Ability Test B) Kaufman Adolescent and Adult Intelligence Test (KAIT) C) Kaufman Brief Intelligence Test (KBIT) D) Multidimensional Aptitude Battery (MAB-II) E) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator Assessment

8)

9) Thadius works as a Police Officer at the U.S. Capitol Building in Washington, D.C. Recently, at the same time Thadius and his partner Ryan announced plans to marry, he was denied a promotion to Captain. Within which doctrine can Thadius make a claim of discrimination?

A) Civil Rights Act of 1964 B) Military Law C) Occupational Law D) Equal Employment Opportunity Law E) Waxman-Hatch Act of 1988

9)

10) Which of the following statements is not true about gender stereotypes?

A) Women are perceived as more agentic than men.

B) White males are depicted as ideal leaders.

C) Women default to a caregiving or relational role.

D) Women are "penalized" for experiencing work-family conflict.

E) Men are perceived as more dominating than women.

10)

11) Recently, Thadius announced that he and his partner Ryan were planning to marry. Since this time, Thadius has no longer been invited to lunch with the members of his team and was not asked to play in the inter-departmental softball league this year. Thadius is experiencing which form of discrimination?

A) Sexual harassment B) Intimidation C) Exclusion D) Incivility E) Insult

11)

2

12) The head of the marketing department at Omega Beauty Products had the habit of celebrating job promotions by having strippers come into the office to congratulate the promoted, much to the disgust of the four women who worked in the department. Which of the following terms best defines the type of discrimination the women in the department were subject to?

A) Intimidation B) Inclusion C) Mockery D) Sexual harassment E) Exclusion

12)

13) Stereotypes are most likely to be activated by ________-level diversity.

A) deep B) tertiary C) organic D) surface

13)

E) lateral

14) Sergio has the ability to quickly and correctly identify visual similarities and differences. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does Sergio's skill reflect?

A) Inductive reasoning B) Spatial visualization C) Number aptitude D) Deductive reasoning E) Perceptual speed

14)

15) When Emma was promoted to the vice president of marketing at Elite Beauty Supply, she found that the company's CEO liked to have weekly informal get-togethers at the local golf club, where over eighteen holes of competitive golf, a lot of business issues were talked about. Emma's dislike of golf or any sport was well-known in the company. However, she was still surprised at not receiving an invitation for the golfing event. Which of the following types of discrimination does Emma's situation best relate to?

A) Invalidation B) Sexual harassment C) Mockery and insults D) Intimidation E) Exclusion

15)

16) ________ is the ability to move the trunk and back muscles as far as possible.

A) Static strength B) Dynamic strength C) Explosive strength D) Dynamic flexibility E) Extent flexibility

16)

17) Which of the following situations would be considered a faith-based employment issue?

A) Leaving work early every day B) Refusing to play in the office softball team C) Wearing of a Hijab in the office D) Refusing to operate machines E) Refusing to go for computer training

17)

3

18) ________ management makes everyone more aware of and sensitive to the needs and differences of others.

A) Diversity B) Organizational C) Egocentric D) Sociocentric E) Paternalistic

18)

19) ________ is the ability to exert force against external objects.

A) Dynamic strength B) Extent flexibility C) Explosive strength D) Static strength E) Trunk strength

19)

20) Michelle has worked in the finance function of a large organization for many years after completing her undergraduate degree in finance from a reputable university. However, she finds that she is always given marginal jobs and is not involved in major projects. This has led to her not being promoted to a higher position in a number of years. Michelle's situation is an example of ________.

A) recessionary practice B) mockery and insult C) exclusion D) intimidation E) incivility

20)

21) Which of the following is not a stereotype?

A) Women are too emotional to be police officers.

B) Physicians are highly trained.

C) Older workers will tire more quickly than younger workers.

D) College professors love to talk.

E) All Asians are good at math.

21)

22) Differences in a characteristic such as personality form part of ________.

A) lateral-level diversity B) individual-level diversity C) surface-level diversity D) deep-level diversity E) organizational-level diversity

22)

23) Someone who had been stereotyped may experience which of the following?

A) Underperformance on tests B) Higher job satisfaction C) Lower turnover intentions D) Lower absenteeism E) Rewards

23)

4

24) Hassan is a server at a popular restaurant. He addresses all his customers by their first names.

Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does this skill accurately refer to?

A) Inductive reasoning B) Spatial visualization C) Perceptual speed D) Deductive reasoning E) Memory

24)

25) Which of the following statements is not true about the Wonderlic Cognitive Ability Test?

A) Most of the companies using the Wonderlic stop using other hiring tools, such as application forms or interviews.

B) It has different forms and each has 50 questions.

C) It measures both speed and power, so the average score is relatively low about 21/50.

D) More companies are using the Wonderlic in hiring decisions.

E) It is able to provide valid information cheaply.

25)

26) The two major forms of workforce diversity are ________ and ________.

A) organizational-level diversity; individual-level diversity B) surface-level diversity; lateral-level diversity C) lateral-level diversity; deep-level diversity D) surface-level diversity; deep-level diversity E) physical-level diversity; intellectual-level diversity

26)

27) Julia is a warehouse manager who is adept in implementing complex corporate policies for hiring and training. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does her skill reflect?

A) Perceptual speed B) Inductive reasoning C) Verbal comprehension D) Spatial visualization E) Deductive reasoning

27)

28) ________ is defined as the biological heritage people use to identify themselves.

A) Race B) Civilization C) Ethnography D) Diversity E) Culture

28)

29) Which of the following statements is true regarding surface-level diversity?

A) Surface-level diversity does not affect employees' perceptions.

B) Surface-level diversity in the workforce can be eliminated by effective diversity management.

C) Surface-level diversity cannot co-exist with deep-level diversity within an organization.

D) Surface-level diversity will overcome fundamental differences and promote harmony.

E) Surface-level diversity, not thoughts and feelings, is mostly reflected in demographics.

29)

5

30) Erin is a high school student who is deciding upon her field of study. She is very good at mentally manipulating various positions of objects in space. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does this skill accurately refer to?

A) Perceptual speed B) Memory C) Inductive reasoning D) Deductive reasoning E) Spatial visualization

30)

31) In 2020, women held ________ percent of CEO positions in S&P 500 companies.

A) 6 B) 14 C) 17 D) 23

E) 27

31)

32) Thinking, reasoning, and problem solving are examples of ________ activities.

A) dynamic B) flexible C) mental D) routine

E) physical

32)

33) Saad, an Arab-American employee, has been asked if he is a terrorist. Which of the following terms best defines the type of discrimination he has been subjected to?

A) Intimidation B) Inclusion C) Sexual harassment D) Exclusion E) Mockery

33)

34) ________ is the ability to make rapid, repeated flexing movements.

A) Dynamic flexibility B) Trunk strength C) Explosive strength D) Extent flexibility E) Dynamic strength

34)

35) ________ is the ability to direct the simultaneous actions of different parts of the body.

A) Dynamic flexibility B) Balance C) Body coordination D) Stamina E) Extent flexibility

35)

36) Alton, a mid-level manager for Knockaround Clothing in charge of monthly inventory, often participates in quarterly meetings of the Cherokee Nation in Tahlequah, Oklahoma. Alton's supervisors' allowing him flex time to attend these meetings embraces Alton's ________.

A) tenure B) ethnicity C) abilities D) religion E) cultural identity

36)

6

37) Jared was raised on a cattle farm and currently works as a civil engineer. When Jared recently represented his company at a formal dinner, his supervisor was surprised to see Jared wearing an expensive suit with cowboy boots. Jared's boots would be an example of his ________.

A) ethnicity B) tenure C) religion D) abilities E) cultural identity

37)

38) ________ is the ability to continue maximum effort requiring prolonged effort over time.

A) Static strength B) Stamina C) Explosive strength D) Dynamic strength E) Balance

38)

39) Sergio claims that he is frequently cut off or his comments not taken seriously when talking with his male colleagues. Which of the following terms accurately explains the type of discrimination he has been subjected to?

A) Insult B) Sexual harassment C) Intimidation D) Exclusion E) Incivility

39)

40) ________ can be defined as actions taken by representatives of the organization that deny equal opportunity to perform or unequal rewards for performance.

A) Exclusive practices B) Intimidation C) Inclusive practices D) Discriminatory policies or practices E) Sexual harassment

40)

41) Adrianna is a research analyst in the New York Stock Exchange. Her job requires her to forecast demand for various companies' stocks and shares for various time periods. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does this skill accurately refer to?

A) Verbal comprehension B) Inductive reasoning C) Memory D) Spatial visualization E) Perceptual speed

41)

42) Hector is a chief consultant and has to choose between suggestions offered by members of his team.

Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does this skill accurately refer to?

A) Verbal comprehension B) Deductive reasoning C) Spatial visualization D) Perceptual speed E) Memory

42)

7

43) ________ is the ability to imagine how an object would look if its position in relation to other objects were changed.

A) Deductive reasoning B) Cymographic visualization C) Spatial visualization D) Inductive reasoning E) Perceptual speed

43)

44) ________ is an individual's current capacity to perform the various tasks in a job.

A) Dynamic strength B) Deductive reasoning C) Inductive reasoning D) Ability E) Social intelligence

44)

45) Which of the following statements is not true about the age-job satisfaction relationship?

A) Older workers tend to be more satisfied with their work.

B) As people age, their pay and benefits increase.

C) Older workers tend to be less satisfied with their work.

D) Older workers report better relationships with coworkers.

E) As people age, their job satisfaction tends to increase.

45)

46) According to David Galenson, individuals do their most creative work during their ________.

A) 40s, 50s, and 60s B) teens, 20s, and 30s C) teens, 30s, and 60s D) 20s, 30s, and 40s E) 30s, 40s, and 50s

46)

47) In the United States, there are no federal laws prohibiting discrimination based on which of the following?

A) Sexual orientation B) Religion C) Disability D) Gender E) Occupation

47)

48) Increasingly, Maria believes that her boss puts her in leadership roles in projects that because of time and resource constraints have a high chance of failure. Maria believes that she is facing ________.

A) a job conflict B) a stereotype threat C) a glass ceiling D) cognitive dissonance E) a glass cliff

48)

8

49) ________ is the additional set of cultural characteristics which often overlaps with race.

A) Ethnicity B) Anthropology C) Civilization D) Acculturation E) Diversity

49)

50) According to the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), a person who has any physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities is classified as ________.

A) disabled B) excluded C) discriminated D) stereotyped E) onboarded

50)

51) Which is the best manner in which to deal with racial and ethnic diversity in the workplace?

A) Implement policies which prohibit cultural conversations.

B) Hold an orientation in which team members can discuss their differences.

C) Ignore the differences…we are all the same.

D) Force people to work with people with whom they are uncomfortable.

E) Create work groups which have members of some racial groups.

51)

52) Which of the following is not a hidden or invisible disability?

A) Insomnia B) Impaired hearing C) Carpal tunnel syndrome D) Rheumatoid arthritis E) Blindness

52)

53) Which of the following is not a part of the seven most frequently cited dimensions comprising the intellectual abilities?

A) Number aptitude B) Verbal comprehension C) Spatial visualization D) Perceptual speed E) Balance

53)

54) Which of the following is a type of discrimination that cannot be monitored or observed and may occur simply because the actor is not aware of the effects of their actions?

A) Randomization B) Sexual harassment C) Company policy D) Exclusion E) Inclusion

54)

55) By 2024, it is expected that 25 percent of the working population will be ________.

A) Black B) Asian C) over 55 D) female

55)

9

E) Hispanic

56) Magnus is 58 years old and after being laid off from a large organization where he had worked for many years, he applied for an entry-level job in a new industry. When he saw that the other applicants for the job were all millennials, he feared that the interviewer would judge him negatively as being out of touch with current trends. The threat that Magnus is feeling is called ________ threat.

A) stereotype B) organizational C) lateral D) glass cliff E) glass ceiling

56)

57) Which of the following biological characteristics is a potent variable in explaining turnover?

A) Religion B) Gender identity C) Sexual orientation D) Race E) Tenure

57)

58) ________ is the ability to maintain equilibrium despite forces pulling off equilibrium.

A) Dynamic strength B) Stamina C) Extent flexibility D) Dynamic flexibility E) Balance

58)

59) The Brookhaven Hospital in Orlando, Florida consists almost completely of male doctors and female nurses. Ming is one of a very small number of female doctors in the hospital. Although she wears the white scrubs that all doctors wear, she is often mistaken for a nurse. This is an example of ________.

A) managerialism B) performance assessment C) stereotyping D) discrimination E) the "glass ceiling" phenomenon

59)

60) Sundar has the ability to use logic and assess the implications of an argument. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does this skill accurately refer to?

A) Verbal comprehension B) Spatial visualization C) Inductive reasoning D) Deductive reasoning E) Perceptual speed

60)

61) Which of the following is not a consequence of discrimination for employers?

A) Reduced productivity B) Citizenship behavior C) Societal diversity D) Increased turnover E) Negative conflicts

61)

10

62) ________ is the heritage people use to identify themselves.

A) Culture B) Ethnicity C) Demographic D) Nationality E) Race

62)

63) The top managers at Trent Diggs Company recently found out that their production facility employees were deeply divided based on age. The younger employees were united into a group as were the employees age forty and older. This caused everyday issues in the production facility, including things such as scheduling and productivity. The top managers at the company have identified what is called a(n) ________.

A) faultline B) power distance C) stereotype D) exclusion E) sociocentrism

63)

64) Which of the following is not an example of a recognized disability that substantially limits one or more major life activities?

A) Deafness B) Stockholm syndrome C) Schizophrenia D) Alcoholism E) Down syndrome

64)

65) ________ is the ability to identify a logical sequence in a problem and then solve the problem.

A) Perceptual speed B) Inductive reasoning C) Deductive reasoning D) Verbal comprehension E) Spatial visualization

65)

66) Although discrimination has come under great legal and public scrutiny over the past years, still thousands of cases of discrimination occur every year. Which action would not be considered a form of discrimination?

A) Exclusion B) Incivility C) Profiling D) Conflict E) Stereotyping

66)

11

67) The Omega Conduit Corporation is aware of a lack of diversity in the company. Certain groups are underrepresented in its workforce. The company wishes to enhance its workforce diversity by targeting recruiting messages to specific demographic groups underrepresented in the workforce.

If it wants to maximize its results, which of the following options should it not resort to?

A) Rely on word of mouth marketing from its employees and resort to an e-mail campaign.

B) Recruit at colleges, universities, and other institutions with significant numbers of underrepresented minorities.

C) Enter into a contractual agreement to hire from the Graduate Minority Business Association.

D) Place advertisements in publications geared toward specific demographic groups.

E) Form partnerships with associations like the Society for Women Engineers.

67)

68) The manner in which people carry themselves in terms of race and ethnicity is commonly referred to as ________.

A) ethnic background B) heritage C) cultural identity D) collective individuality E) local customs

68)

69) Differences in ethnicity is an example of ________.

A) lateral-level diversity B) firm-level diversity C) surface-level diversity D) deep-level diversity E) organizational-level diversity

69)

70) Of the three senior managers considered for the top job at Endeavor Corporation, Carla perceived herself to be the most experienced and the best qualified candidate for the job. The other two candidates were male. Carla attributes her not getting the job to the phenomenon known as ________.

A) the glass ceiling B) the glass cliff C) organizational citizenship D) cognitive dissonance E) age discrimination

70)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

71) Demographics always reflect both surface-level diversity and deep-level diversity.

71)

72) Balance and stamina are dimensions of intellectual abilities.

72)

73) An example of a stereotype threat would be when older workers applying for a job in a predominantly millennial-age workforce assume the interviewer thinks they are out of touch with current trends.

73)

74) To stereotype is to note a difference between things, which is not necessarily bad.

74)

75) The occurrence of stereotype threat is inevitable in the workplace.

75)

12

76) The term "glass ceiling" refers to the phenomenon of age discrimination.

76)

77) In 2016, women comprised less than half of the American workforce.

77)

78) Demographic diversity (in gender, race, and ethnicity) does not appear to help or hurt team performance in general.

78)

79) Diversity programs are not meant for every organization.

79)

80) The term "glass cliff" relates to the area of gender diversity.

80)

81) The intelligence test most widely used in hiring decisions is the Managerial Grid test.

81)

82) Diversity is a narrow term.

82)

83) Industries like health care, education, government, and nonprofit service generally shun older workers.

83)

84) Age, gender, race, disability, and length of service are deep-level characteristics.

84)

85) While intelligence is a big help in performing a job well, it does not make people happier or more satisfied with their jobs.

85)

86) Stereotypes of older workers as being behind the times, grumpy, and inflexible are changing.

86)

87) The majority of studies have shown a significant relationship between age and job performance.

87)

88) Problem solving is a physical activity.

88)

89) Federal law prohibits discrimination against employees based on sexual orientation and gender identity.

89)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

90) Describe the characteristics of the United States workforce. Summarize the two major forms of workforce diversity.

91) What do we mean by stereotype threat? How is it different from discrimination?

92) Discuss discrimination and paraphrase with an example how its types can affect organizational behavior.

93) Explain and provide a workplace example of how stereotypes function in an organizational setting.

94) What is general mental ability (GMA)?

95) Explain how the biological characteristics of religion, sexual orientation, and gender identity affect organizational behavior in the United States.

96) In physical abilities, how are strength factors different from flexibility factors?

13

97) What do we know about diversity and team or work performance?

98) Discuss how intellectual abilities are relevant to organizational behavior.

99) Discuss whether diversity helps or hinders a group.

100) What are faultlines? How do they impact the management of diversity?

101) What are hidden disabilities? How are they different from other disabilities?

14

Answer Key Testname: C2

1) A 2) A 3) A 4) E 5) E 6) D 7) D 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) D 14) E 15) E 16) E 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) E 25) A 26) D 27) C 28) A 29) E 30) E 31) A 32) C 33) E 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) E 38) B 39) E 40) D 41) B 42) B 43) C 44) D 45) C 46) A 47) E 48) E 49) A 50) A 15

Answer Key Testname: C2

51) B 52) E 53) E 54) D 55) C 56) A 57) E 58) E 59) C 60) D 61) C 62) E 63) A 64) B 65) B 66) D 67) A 68) C 69) C 70) A 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) The predominantly white, male managerial workforce has given way to a gender-balanced, multiethnic workforce.

That change is increasingly reflected in the makeup of managerial and professional jobs. This permanent shift toward a diverse workforce means organizations need to make diversity management a central component of their policies and practices. Experts recognize the demographic characteristics of age, race, gender, ethnicity, religion, and disability status as just the tip of the diversity iceberg.

Diversity is a broad term, and the phrase workplace diversity can refer to any characteristic that makes people different from one another. Surface-level diversity refers to the differences in characteristics like education, upbringing, work-status, regional background, and gender. Deep-level diversity, on the other hand, refers to differences in individual characteristics like personality, values, belief-system, and interests.

16

Answer Key Testname: C2

91) Stereotype threat is the degree to which we are concerned with being judged by or treated negatively based on a certain stereotype. In other words, we perceive ourselves to be negatively judged in this situation. In contrast, when you discriminate you notice a difference between things. Here, we are the actors who initiate an action or a judgment.

92) To discriminate is to note a difference between things, which in itself isn't necessarily bad. Although diversity does present many opportunities for organizations, effective diversity management also means working to eliminate unfair discrimination. Usually when we talk about discrimination, though, we mean allowing our behavior to be influenced by stereotypes about groups of people. Rather than looking at individual characteristics, unfair discrimination assumes everyone in a group is the same. This discrimination is often very harmful to organizations and employees.

Some of the types of discrimination in an organizational setup are unfair policies or practices, sexual harassment, intimidation, mockery and insults, exclusion, and incivility. Discriminatory policies or practices of the organization's representatives would result in denying equal opportunities to perform or unequal rewards for performance.

Unwanted sexual advances and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature would create a hostile or offensive work environment. Overt threats or bullying directed at members of specific groups of employees would make the targeted employees intimidated. Jokes or negative stereotypes would be taken as mockery or insults when the results of the jokes are taken farther than what is acceptable. Exclusion of certain people from job opportunities, social events, discussions, or informal mentoring could happen unintentionally. Disrespectful treatment, including behaving in an aggressive manner, interrupting the person, or ignoring their opinion is considered as uncivil behavior.

93) Answers to this question will vary but should include some discussion of demographics that mostly reflect surface-level diversity, not thoughts and feelings, and can lead employees to perceive one another through stereotypes and assumptions. However, evidence has shown that as people get to know one another, they become less concerned about demographic differences if they see themselves as sharing more important characteristics, such as personality and values, that represent deep-level diversity.

Luis and Carol are co-workers who seem to have little in common at first glance. Luis is a young, recently hired male college graduate with a business degree, raised in a Spanish-speaking neighborhood in Miami. Carol is an older, long-tenured woman raised in rural Kansas, who achieved her current level in the organization by starting as a high school graduate and working her way up the hierarchy. At first, these co-workers may experience some differences in communication based on their surface-level differences in education, ethnicity, regional background, and gender.

However, as they get to know each other, they may find they are both deeply committed to their families, share a common way of thinking about important work problems, like to work collaboratively, and are interested in international assignments in the future. These deep-level similarities will overshadow the more superficial differences between them, and research suggests they will work well together.

94) Intellectual abilities are abilities needed to perform mental activities–thinking, reasoning, and problem solving. Most societies place a high value on intelligence, and for good reason. There are seven most frequently cited dimensions making up intellectual abilities—number aptitude, verbal comprehension, perceptual speed, inductive reasoning, deductive reasoning, spatial visualization, and memory. While these are individual dimensions, they are also positively correlated. This leads to recognizing a general factor of intelligence called general mental ability or GMA.

17

Answer Key Testname: C2

95) Religion: Not only do religious and nonreligious people question each other's belief systems, they often are in conflict.

United States federal law prohibits employers from discriminating against employees based on their religion, with very few exceptions. However, that doesn't mean it's a nonissue in organizational behavior. Nearly two million Muslims live in the United States and there is a wide variety of perspectives on Islam. Some take these general biases a step further. Research has shown that job applicants in Muslim-identified religious attire who applied for hypothetical retail jobs in the United States had shorter, more interpersonally negative interviews than applicants who did not.

Religious individuals may also believe they have an obligation to express their beliefs in the workplace, and those who do not share those beliefs may object. Perhaps as a result of different perceptions of religion's role in the workplace, religious discrimination claims have been a growing source of discrimination claims in the United States.

Sexual orientation and Gender identity: Employers differ widely in their treatment of sexual orientation. Federal law does not prohibit discrimination against employees based on sexual orientation, though many states and municipalities do. In general, observers note that even in the absence of federal legislation requiring nondiscrimination, many organizations have implemented policies and procedures protecting employees on the basis of sexual orientation. More than half the Fortune 500 companies offer domestic-partner benefits for gay couples.

Despite some gains, many lesbian, gay, and bisexual employees keep their gender identity from their co-workers for fear of being discriminated against. Companies are increasingly putting policies in place to govern how their organizations treat transgender employees. Dealing with transgender employees requires some special considerations, such as for bathrooms, employee names, and so on.

96) Strength factors and flexibility factors are two of the three categories of physical abilities.

Strength factors consist of: 1. dynamic strength (ability to exert muscular force repeatedly or continuously over time), 2. trunk strength (ability to exert muscular strength using the trunk–particularly abdominal–muscles), 3. static strength (ability to exert force against external objects), and 4. explosive strength (ability to expend a maximum of energy in one or a series of explosive acts).

Flexibility factors consist of: 1. extent flexibility (ability to move the trunk and back muscles as far as possible), and 2. dynamic flexibility (ability to make rapid, repeated flexing movements).

Other factors consist of: 3. body coordination (ability to coordinate the simultaneous actions of different parts of the body), 4. balance (ability to maintain equilibrium despite forces pulling off balance), and 5. stamina (ability to continue maximum effort requiring prolonged effort over time).

97) Working often involves interacting with a number of very diverse people. In some cases, diversity in various traits can hurt team performance, whereas in other cases it can facilitate performance. The key to understanding the relationship between diversity and performance is in isolating the variable of interest. For example, while demographic diversity does not appear to hurt or help team performance in general, racial diversity does help performance in certain conditions.

98) Intellectual abilities are abilities needed to perform mental activities–thinking, reasoning, and problem solving. Most societies place a high value on intelligence, and for good reason. Smart people generally earn more money and attain higher levels of education. They are also more likely to emerge as leaders of groups. Jobs differ in the demands they place on intellectual abilities. The more complex a job in terms of information-processing demands, the more general intelligence and verbal abilities will be necessary to perform successfully.

Interestingly, although intelligence is a big help in performing a job well, it doesn't make people happier or more satisfied with their jobs. While intelligence is a big help in performing a job well, it does not make people happier or more satisfied with their job. Research suggests that those with higher cognitive ability and who are high performers in the workplace might be victimized, bullied, and mistreated by their peers due to envy and social comparison.

18

Answer Key Testname: C2

99) Most contemporary workplaces require extensive work in group settings. When people work in groups, they need to establish a common way of looking at and accomplishing the major tasks, and they need to communicate with one another often. If they feel little sense of membership and cohesion in their groups, all these group attributes are likely to suffer.

In some cases, diversity in traits can hurt team performance, whereas in others it can facilitate it. Whether diverse or homogeneous teams are more effective depends on the characteristic of interest. Demographic diversity (in gender, race, and ethnicity) does not appear to either help or hurt team performance in general. On the other hand, teams of individuals who are highly intelligent, conscientious, and interested in working in team settings are more effective.

Thus diversity on these variables is likely to be a bad thing–it makes little sense to try to form teams that mix in members who are lower in intelligence, conscientiousness, and uninterested in teamwork. In other cases, differences can be a strength. Groups of individuals with different types of expertise and education are more effective than homogeneous groups. Similarly, a group made entirely of assertive people who want to be in charge, or a group whose members all prefer to follow the lead of others, will be less effective than a group that mixes leaders and followers.

Regardless of the composition of the group, differences can be leveraged to achieve superior performance.

100) Faultlines are the perceived divisions that split groups into two or more subgroups based on individual differences such as sex, race, and age. When these divisions are identified, their effects can be reduced by emphasizing similarities among members, capitalizing on complementary differences, and sharing a common goal or vision.

101) Most disabilities are observable. For example, we can see that a person is in a wheelchair or is blind. Other disabilities may not be obvious, at least at first. Unless an individual decides to disclose a disability that is not easily observable, it can remain hidden at the discretion of the employee. These are called hidden or invisible disabilities and examples include impaired hearing and rheumatoid arthritis.

19

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) In high power-distance countries such as China, employee perceived organizational support perceptions are not as deeply based on employer demonstrations of fairness, support, and encouragement. The difference is the ________.

A) level of expectations by employees B) rate of financial rewards C) willingness of employers to take part in employees' personal lives D) willingness to work overtime by employees E) amount vacation days awarded

1)

2) The performance variables absenteeism and reduced effort are generally considered a part of the ________ behavior in the exit-voice-loyalty-neglect framework.

A) neglect B) voice C) citizenship D) exit E) loyalty

2)

3) Which of the following is not a moderating variable of the attitude-behavior relationship?

A) Power B) Direct experience C) Importance D) Correspondence to behavior E) Accessibility

3)

4) How can the gaps between what managers think employees feel and what employees really feel be reduced?

A) Improving work place conditions B) Training employees C) Conducting regular surveys D) Providing incentives E) Enforcing administrative policies

4)

5) Which of the following is the best definition of attitude?

A) Attitudes are the yardstick by which one measures one's actions.

B) Attitudes are a measure of how the worth of an object, person, or event is evaluated.

C) Attitudes indicate how one will react to a given event.

D) Attitudes are the emotional part of an evaluation of a person, object, or event.

E) Attitudes are evaluative statements of what one believes about something or someone.

5)

6) The relationship between job satisfaction and ________ is stronger than between satisfaction and absenteeism.

A) cognition B) attitude C) motivation D) turnover E) behavior

6)

1

7) Perceived organizational support (POS) is important in countries where the ________ is lower.

A) employer engagement B) power distance C) cognitive dissonance D) individualism E) uncertainty avoidance

7)

8) Employees' beliefs in the degree to which they influence their work environment, their competence, the meaningfulness of their job, and their perceived autonomy is termed as ________.

A) psychological empowerment B) organizational commitment C) job satisfaction D) employee engagement E) perceived organizational support

8)

9) Common causes of counterproductive work behaviors include ________.

A) lack of promotional opportunities B) being in the wrong organization C) being in the wrong line of work D) lack of job satisfaction E) abusive supervision

9)

10) In her work in the publishing industry, Vera seeks out new authors whom she considers promising.

In the past two years she has found a number of new writers whose work she thought was exceptional and immersed herself in the task of helping them shape their manuscripts for submission to her managers for publishing. Although she was extremely proud of the results, none of the authors she worked with were chosen for publication. Vera believes that the decision not to publish these authors was based on personal rivalries within management, rather than the quality of her writers' work. She is extremely frustrated, dreads coming into work each morning, and is seriously thinking of resigning. How can Vera's job attitudes best be described?

A) Low organizational commitment B) High job satisfaction and high job involvement C) Low job satisfaction and low job involvement D) Low job satisfaction and high job involvement E) High job satisfaction and low job involvement

10)

11) Lakeesha believes strongly that it is important that worker's rights be respected, and that one of the more important ways of doing this is to ensure that all workers be properly documented. She is supervising a contracting company that is building a new warehouse for her company. While doing this she discovers that many of the workers employed by the contractor are undocumented aliens working for well below minimum wage. Lakeesha is likely experiencing ________.

A) unresolved anger B) ethical evasion C) social pressure D) uncertainty avoidance E) cognitive dissonance

11)

2

12) Research supports the idea that attitudes predict ________.

A) diversity handling B) future behavior C) motivational bases D) stereotyping E) job raises

12)

13) What is the correlation between job satisfaction and organizational citizenship behavior (OCB)?

A) None B) Moderate C) Negative D) Inverse E) Curvilinear

13)

14) Employees at Acme Express are dissatisfied with the working conditions, salary, and the general attitude of the management. Carlos, Susan, and Toni are good friends who work at Acme, yet each seems to be reacting differently to the problems at work. Toni has decided that she'll just get a new job and get away from the problem. Toni is dealing with her dissatisfaction through ________.

A) acceptance B) loyalty C) voice D) exit E) neglect

14)

15) Voice is a type of ________ response to dissatisfaction.

A) constructive/passive B) destructive/passive C) destructive/active D) constructive/active E) demonstrative/passive

15)

16) Which of the following is not an example of organizational citizenship behavior?

A) Telling your friends about the company's great work environment B) Volunteering to help a colleague meet a deadline C) Contributing to a fund for a co-worker to help with medical bills D) Discouraging a friend from applying for a job at the company E) Working over the weekend to make sure a project gets done

16)

17) Five high school classmates meet at their 10th high school reunion and compare their salaries.

Charles makes $24,000 a year. Ana makes $40,000 a year. Ellis makes $75,000 a year. Adam makes $75,000 a year. Shonali makes $30,000 a year. If the former classmates converse about pay and job satisfaction, which of the following would not be a true statement about the usual correlation between pay and job satisfaction?

A) Charles is less likely to be satisfied with his job than Shonali.

B) Charles is less likely to be satisfied with his job than Adam.

C) Ana is as likely to be as satisfied with her job as Ellis.

D) Shonali is as likely to be satisfied with her job as Charles.

E) Ellis and Adam are more likely to be satisfied with their jobs than Shonali.

17)

3

18) Individuals with high levels of ________ are most likely to have high levels of job satisfaction.

A) career commitment B) mentoring relationships C) social interactions D) cognitive resonance E) core self-evaluations

18)

19) Employees at Pizza Palace are dissatisfied with various aspects of their job: the working conditions, salary, and the general attitude of the management. Priyanka, Amaro, and Bijoy all work the same shift at the company, yet each seems to be reacting differently to the problems at work. Bijoy is dissatisfied with the way that her manager, Tony treats her. She has quit her job and found a new position with Pizza Palace's rival, Pizza Delight She has expressed her dissatisfaction through ________.

A) voice B) exit C) neglect D) loyalty E) citizenship

19)

20) Your friend Leslyn has been driving a Mustang for the past few years and is very vocal about how much she likes her car. Unfortunately, she was recently in an accident and has now purchased a brand-new Challenger. Now she talks about how much she likes the Challenger and has started to criticize Mustangs! Which statement would best describe what you should say to Leslyn the next time she talks about cars?

A) Leslyn, I am sorry about your car. Why did you not get another Mustang?

B) Leslyn, I am sorry about your Mustang. It was a great car, but your Challenger is great too!

C) Leslyn, I am sorry about your Mustang, but do you need to be so negative toward it now?

D) Leslyn, your negativity is driving us all nuts!

E) Leslyn, I liked your Mustang, but your Challenger is great too!

20)

21) Which of the following statements is not true about organizational commitment?

A) An employee with strong organizational commitment will wish to remain a member.

B) Employees who are committed are more likely to engage in work withdrawal.

C) Even if employees are not currently happy with their work, they may decide to continue with the organization if they are committed enough.

D) Employees who are committed have a sense of organizational loyalty.

E) An employee with strong organizational commitment identifies with their organization.

21)

22) ________ is the degree to which employees believe the organization values their contribution and cares about their well-being.

A) Perceived organizational support B) Job involvement C) Psychological empowerment D) Organizational commitment E) Employee engagement

22)

4

23) Things are not good at work for Ryan. He is not getting the promotion that he deserves, and he is unable to get out of the graveyard shift that he has been doing for the last two years. To address his concerns, Ryan began attending his company's union meetings on a regular basis. What type of job dissatisfaction response is Ryan exhibiting?

A) Neglect B) Loyalty C) Voice D) Reification E) Exit

23)

24) Guillermo's wife was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. Guillermo had to take a considerable amount of time off work to care for their children, and he was late in completing his portion of a large project. Guillermo never feared that his job was in jeopardy because of his absences or his delay in completion of work. Name the major job attitude relative to the above stated example.

A) Employee engagement B) Job involvement C) Psychological empowerment D) Perceived organizational support E) Organizational commitment

24)

25) While conversing at lunch, the employees of Dinkin Douglas Corporation made several statements.

Which of the following is an example of an affective attitude?

A) Deidre: "My opinion is that it is never acceptable to steal."

B) Carla: "My observation is that most dogs have four legs."

C) Sam: "I believe you did a good job on that project."

D) Rahim: "I avoid a restaurant where I once received bad service."

E) Lakeesha: "I am angry at being unfairly accused of a wrongdoing."

25)

26) Ming works as a customer service representative at a community bank. Ming identifies strongly with her job that involves solving customer problems. In addition, she often works long hours happily in her job and considers her job performance as important to her self-worth. The above describes Ming's ________.

A) job satisfaction B) job involvement C) job stability D) social investment E) organizational commitment

26)

27) A satisfied workforce does not guarantee successful organizational performance. In order to improve organizational effectiveness, managers ________.

A) must make jobs easier and targets achievable B) must offer periodic salary increments C) must formulate strategies to attack and eliminate deviant behaviors D) must keep track of absenteeism and turnover among the employees E) must try to improve employee attitudes

27)

5

28) Cameron loves her job as a data programmer, but her co-worker Chang, is very challenging. Chang often loses his temper over aspects of shared projects that neither of them can control. When discussing projects in Cameron's workstation, Chang plays with her office supplies, rearranges her desk, and leaves snack and food crumbs. Worst of all, Chang always takes the portion of a project that is the easiest, leaving Cameron to work harder and longer hours. Which of the following is not an effective method for handling Cameron's problems with Chang?

A) Cameron should invite Chang to lunch and directly confront him with her feelings.

B) Cameron should make a point of going to Chang's workstation and leaving a mess.

C) Cameron should ask a manager to help divide the workload for the next project.

D) Cameron should simply ignore Chang and his behavior.

E) Cameron should invite Chang to coffee to clarify if there are any misunderstandings.

28)

29) ________ may help to lower counterproductive work behaviors within groups.

A) Individual-based incentives B) Personality testing C) Strict punishments D) Citizenship behaviors E) Team-based incentives

29)

30) The opinion or belief component of a person's attitude is called ________.

A) the cognitive component B) the behavior component C) the affective component D) a complex attitude E) complex understanding

30)

31) Of the following attitudes, the best predictor of turnover is ________.

A) cognitive dissonance B) supervision C) organizational commitment D) affective dissonance E) pay

31)

32) Employees at Pizza Palace are dissatisfied with various aspects of their job: the working conditions, salary, and the general attitude of the management. Priyanka, Amaro, and Bijoy all work the same shift at the company, yet each seems to be reacting differently to the problems at work. Amaro believes that his manager, Tony is a good person and will work things out if Amaro just gives him time to do so. Amaro is dealing with his dissatisfaction through ________.

A) neglect B) loyalty C) voice D) acceptance E) exit

32)

33) Job dissatisfaction is more likely to translate into ________ when employees feel or perceive they have many available alternatives. This can happen when employees have high human capital.

A) tardiness B) absenteeism C) turnover D) neglect E) engagement

33)

6

34) Janice is spending the summer working as an intern writing copy for a local firm. Today Janice's senior editor sent back some of Janice's work covered in red ink corrections. Up until now, all of Janice's work had been corrected in green or blue ink. Janice is upset and worried that her senior editor doesn't like her. Which component of an attitude is not represented in the previous scenario?

A) The affective component B) The negative component C) The behavioral component D) The positive component E) The cognitive component

34)

35) Contradictions individuals might perceive between their attitudes and their behavior is called ________.

A) cognitive dissonance B) objective ambiguity C) power distance D) organizational identification E) psychological empowerment

35)

36) After working for twenty years at the Harper Company, Darci gets a pay of $80,000, a figure that enables her to make a comfortable living. To Darci, the relationship between pay and job satisfaction ________.

A) becomes negative B) becomes negligible C) turns positive D) weakens, but only slightly E) becomes stronger

36)

37) Amy works as a reporter at City Gazette. Because of a sharp decline in advertising revenues, the paper laid off 10 percent of its workforce. This led to significant criticism in the community. Amy voiced her support of the newspaper at a community hearing. Which response is demonstrated by Amy's actions?

A) Neglect B) Performance C) Exit D) Loyalty E) Disgruntlement

37)

38) Which of the following is not considered a major job attitude by OB researchers?

A) Organizational commitment B) Employee engagement C) Job satisfaction D) Positive personality E) Job involvement

38)

7

39) Dispatch Heroes Inc. is a medium-sized logistics company. The management is facing tough times as the workers are dissatisfied and are engaging in a number of deviant workplace behaviors such as stealing, undue socializing, and tardiness. The management is considering enforcing several restrictions to curb these counterproductive behaviors. What would be a better way to deal with such forms of workplace deviance?

A) Employers must introduce surveillance to ensure smooth flow of work.

B) Employers must take corrective action to stop the unwanted activities.

C) The management must suspend employees who engage in deviant workplace behaviors.

D) Employers should attack the source of the problem, i.e., the dissatisfaction.

E) The management must restrict the activities that adversely affect productivity.

39)

40) Aditi is dissatisfied with her job at Omega Optics and does not like her boss. She quits the organization and relocates to a different city for a new job. Which type of response is Aditi using in the situation at Omega Optics?

A) Exit B) Loyalty C) Performance D) Neglect E) Voice

40)

41) Organizational commitment is defined as ________.

A) an employee's belief that the organization they work for will go to considerable lengths to ensure that its employees are treated fairly B) the degree to which an employee identifies with the organization they work for and its goals C) the degree to which an employee believes their work impacts their organization D) the degree to which an employee's sense of fulfillment and self-worth is related to their job E) the amount of effort an employee will make in order to keep or advance their position in an organization

41)

42) When there is ________, people will alter either their attitudes or their behaviors, or they will develop a rationalization for the discrepancy.

A) dissonance B) consistency C) reactance D) constancy E) resistance

42)

43) Mario has been a forklift driver for the local grocery store for six years. He earns $32,000 a year. He likes and gets along well with his work group. He plays soccer with his co-workers on the weekends and watches his and his work group's favorite team on TV. The work group also volunteers together at the local food bank during the holidays, and socializes with their families at summer picnics. Mario is highly satisfied with his job. Which of the following is the most probable cause of Mario's high job satisfaction?

A) Social context B) High stress C) Pay D) Work itself E) Promotion

43)

8

44) The exit-voice-loyalty-neglect framework to understand job dissatisfaction uses two dimensions: ________ and ________.

A) low; high B) engaged; disengaged C) demonstrative/destructive; transparent/opaque D) loyalty; disloyalty E) constructive/destructive; active/passive

44)

45) Lance recently earned his doctorate from a historic university, famous for its top academics and sports programs. While in graduate school, he was very active in student life and intramurals and maintained an active social life while earning high marks for his teaching and research. Upon graduation, he was elected "senator at large" for the alumni association and still maintains strong relationships with his faculty and mentors. After graduation, Lance was hired as an assistant professor at a metropolitan university. This university is only 30 years old, has no sports program and very little collegiality among the faculty and staff. Although his teaching evaluations are high, he gets very little positive input from his supervisors and feels that he is constantly being abused and overworked by the administration, regardless of his personal life. With which two job attitudes is Lance most likely having issues?

A) Job satisfaction and perceived organizational support B) Employee engagement and perceived organizational support C) Perceived organizational support and cognitive dissonance D) Cognitive dissonance and job satisfaction E) Job satisfaction and employee engagement

45)

46) Which of the following employees does not exhibit deviant behavior in the workplace?

A) Ramos takes work supplies like pens and paper clips home for personal use.

B) Lakeesha does not show up for work for more than 3 days a week.

C) Samuel quits his job because his manager never appreciates his efforts.

D) Ming wraps up her work early to attend her daughter's ballet recital.

E) Joanna, an HR executive, uses work time to surf articles on the latest fashion trends.

46)

47) In regard to job engagement, having a good manager they enjoy working for and ________ were found to be the top causations.

A) being paid what they feel they are worth B) feeling appreciated by one's supervisor C) having flexible work schedules D) getting timely promotions E) socializing with one's coworkers

47)

48) Under which of the following conditions is job dissatisfaction not likely to translate into turnover?

A) High employee education B) Ease of job mobility C) High human capital D) Alternative job prospects E) Lack of job prospects

48)

9

49) As the manager of a high-volume bank, you are faced daily with customers who are in a hurry and need decidedly speedy service from the window tellers. Which of the following would most likely cause your employees to offer the customers the service they want while also keeping your employees satisfied with their roles?

A) Let the tellers manage themselves B) Bring donuts for the break room C) Seek input from the tellers on how to improve their job D) Offer them flex time E) Pay them more

49)

50) Related to job satisfaction, ________ is the degree to which a person identifies with his or her job, actively participates in it, and considers his or her performance as being important to self-worth.

A) organizational commitment B) social embeddedness C) job stability D) job satisfaction E) job involvement

50)

51) Roberto works as a reporter for his local newspaper. Because the newspaper was hard hit by a downturn in the economy, it reduced Roberto's pay by 20 percent. Roberto is upset about the reduction pay, but he shows up at work every morning and is willing to patiently wait until economic times improve, and he can get back to his full pay. Which of the following best describes Roberto's response to his dissatisfaction?

A) Active, constructive, loyal B) Active, constructive, voice C) Passive, destructive, neglect D) Active, destructive, exit E) Passive, constructive, loyal

51)

52) Any incompatibility between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes results in ________.

A) attitudinal clarification B) values clarification C) affective reactance D) cognitive dissonance E) organizational dissonance

52)

53) In the 2017 World Happiness Report, what percentage of employees were satisfied with their jobs?

A) 84 B) 92.5 C) 27.5 D) 71.2 E) 52.8

53)

54) The Danone Corporation embarks on a number of self-regulated actions to benefit society or the environment beyond what is required by law. This refers to The Danone Corporation's commitment to ________.

A) shareholder primacy B) shareholder compact C) corporate social responsibility D) fiduciary responsibility E) organizational citizenship

54)

10

55) Lakeesha believes strongly that it is important that worker's rights be respected, and that one of the more important ways of doing this is to ensure that all workers be properly documented. She is supervising a contracting company that is building a new warehouse for her company. While doing this, she discovers that many of the workers employed by the contractor are undocumented aliens working for well below minimum wage. Lakeesha can be expected to relieve the discomfort she is experiencing by doing all of the following except ________.

A) terminating the contract as it is against her attitude B) rationalizing that it is not her problem since she is not the contractor C) coming to accept that using undocumented workers does not harm workers' rights D) deciding this issue is unimportant E) attempting to stop the contractor using undocumented workers

55)

56) In Malaysia, people accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally.

This refers to ________.

A) uncertainty avoidance B) organizational ambiguity C) cognitive dissonance D) organizational hierarchy E) power distance

56)

57) Lakeesha believes strongly that it is important that worker's rights be respected, and that one of the more important ways of doing this is to ensure that all workers be properly documented. She is supervising a contracting company that is building a new warehouse for her company. While doing this she discovers that many of the workers employed by the contractor are undocumented aliens working for well below minimum wage. In this situation Lakeesha has a(n) ________ that is in conflict with a(n) ________.

A) social need; social interest B) attitude; behavior C) attitude; attitude D) behavior; behavior E) social need; social need

57)

58) Several powerful characteristics change the nature of the attitudes-behavior relationship. Which of the following is not one of them?

A) The importance of the attitude B) Its accessibility C) Its correspondence to behavior D) The person's indirect experience with the attitude E) The presence of social pressures

58)

59) Who are most likely to demonstrate organizational citizenship behaviors?

A) Those whose citizenship behaviors go unnoticed B) The highest paid employees C) The lowest paid employees D) Those who are satisfied with their jobs E) The supervisor

59)

11

60) Which of the following does not apply to corporate social responsibility?

A) Participation for all employees is sometimes expected.

B) Some organizations require employees to contribute in a prescribed manner.

C) Not all projects are equally meaningful for every person's job satisfaction.

D) Pressuring people to go along with CSR will help them think outside the box.

E) CSR measures can seem disconnected from the employee's actual work.

60)

61) Aisha is a courier delivering parcels throughout the metropolitan area. Although she considers herself law abiding, she often breaks the speed limit while making her deliveries. Which of the following statements does not reflect a likely response to the conflict between her attitude and her behavior?

A) "It's wrong to break even minor laws, but I'll probably keep speeding anyway."

B) "I've got to drive fast sometimes, otherwise I will not make all my deliveries and I'll lose clients."

C) "This speeding is irresponsible. From now on I am observing the speed limits."

D) "The speed limits are just too low around here; anyone driving at a reasonable speed will break them."

E) "It's not a problem that I speed a little bit; it's not much over the limit, and everyone else speeds some."

61)

62) Which of the following is generally considered the best predictor of job satisfaction?

A) Social interactions B) The work itself C) Co-workers D) Pay E) Task interdependence

62)

63) Siddarth has a positive attitude toward his organization. He feels the management treats all employees fairly in matters concerning rewards, takes into account employees' opinions, and overall, is highly supportive. Siddarth's attitude toward his employing organization is indicative of ________.

A) organizational citizenship B) core self-evaluations C) perceived organizational support D) psychological empowerment E) employee engagement

63)

64) Thad, Jamarcus, and Willy have been working for Davidson International each for three years.

While the trio started together as analysts and are all still on the same team, Jamarcus has recently been made a team lead while Willy and Thad are still in their respective positions although Willy did receive a small raise after his last performance evaluation. Of the five major job attitudes, Jamarcus probably has the highest level of ________, while Willy probably has the highest level of ________.

A) organizational commitment; job involvement B) job involvement; job satisfaction C) job satisfaction; organizational commitment D) job satisfaction; perceived organizational support E) organizational commitment; job satisfaction

64)

12

65) In the United States, people are more likely to view work as a(n) ________ than as a moral obligation.

A) pastime B) avocation C) recreation D) end E) exchange

65)

66) The desire to reduce dissonance is determined by three moderating factors including the ________.

A) values of the elements creating the dissonance B) degree of positive affect the person has toward the behavior C) degree of influence the individual believes he or she has over the elements D) awareness that dissonance exists E) fact that values and attitudes will vary over the short term

66)

67) DeSean's belief that "his pay is low" is an evaluative statement. Such an opinion constitutes the ________ component of DeSean's attitude.

A) reflective B) cognitive C) affective D) behavioral E) reactive

67)

68) Malcolm is unhappy with his job at City Lubes. He resorts to putting in reduced effort and deliberately increases his error rate at his oil change jobs. Malcolm is expressing his dissatisfaction through ________.

A) loyalty B) voice C) social voice D) neglect E) exit

68)

69) Companies listed within the "100 Best Companies to Work for in America" ________.

A) paid 10% more for equivalent jobs than other firms B) experienced 25% lower turnover in their employees than other firms C) reported 14% higher profits than other firms D) generated 2.3% to 3.8% higher stock returns than other firms E) experienced a 10% increase in their market share

69)

70) Employees at Pizza Palace are dissatisfied with various aspects of their job: the working conditions, salary, and the general attitude of the management. Priyanka, Amaro, and Bijoy all work the same shift at the company, yet each seems to be reacting differently to the problems at work. Priyanka has written down her list of concerns along with her suggestions for improving conditions.

Priyanka is dealing with her dissatisfaction through ________.

A) acceptance B) voice C) loyalty D) exit E) neglect

70)

71) Under which of the following conditions is job dissatisfaction less predictive of turnover?

A) When employees are presented with unsolicited job offers B) When employees are highly skilled C) When employees consider their current jobs to be unattractive D) When employees are highly educated E) When employment opportunities are plentiful

71)

13

72) Sheila works for a manufacturer of Styrofoam trays for school lunches. Last year her son came home from school and told her that the trays she makes go straight to the landfill where they sit for hundreds of years without ever biodegrading. Although this information bothers Sheila, she does not look for another job because she enjoys her very high salary. Which dissonance moderating factor is illustrated by this example?

A) Dissonance is reduced because of the sense of control by the individual.

B) Dissonance is increased because of the sense of control by the individual.

C) Dissonance is reduced because of the importance to the individual.

D) There is no dissonance moderating factor in the example.

E) High dissonance is tolerated because of a high reward.

72)

73) Thad, Jamarcus, and Willy have been working for Davidson International each for three years.

While the trio started together as analysts and are all still on the same team, Jamarcus has recently been made a team lead while Willy and Thad are still in their respective positions although Willy did receive a small raise after his last performance evaluation. Willy was happy to receive the raise but felt guilty that Thad did not also get a raise. Which best describes Willy's feelings?

A) Job satisfaction B) Workplace deviance C) Organizational citizenship D) Cognitive dissonance E) Affective behavior

73)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

74) Job involvement refers to the positive feeling about one's job resulting from an evaluation of its characteristics.

74)

75) The exit response is dissatisfaction expressed through behavior directed toward leaving the organization.

75)

76) Contradictions individuals might perceive between their attitudes and their behavior is called cognitive dissonance.

76)

77) Loyalty is an active and constructive response to dissatisfaction.

77)

78) Research, in general, supports the idea that attitudes predict future behaviors.

78)

79) Neglect is an active and constructive response to dissatisfaction.

79)

80) Happy workers are more likely to be productive workers.

80)

81) Attitudes are objective statements.

81)

82) In general, U.S. workers are satisfied with their jobs.

82)

83) Job satisfaction is not related to organizational citizenship behavior (OCB).

83)

84) The statement, "I'm going to look for another job that pays better," is an example of the behavioral component of an attitude.

84)

14

85) The affective component of an attitude is an opinion or belief about the attitude target.

85)

86) Generally, interesting jobs that provide training, variety, independence, and control satisfy most employees.

86)

87) The presence of social pressures is a characteristic that changes the nature of the attitudes-behavior relationship.

87)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

88) Discuss how job dissatisfaction can impact employee absenteeism.

89) Sabrina works in the call center of a major Internet retailer. She earns $38,000 a year. Her schedule is strict, and she is generally not able to attend her son's high school cross-country events because they always seem to clash with her work schedule.

Elmo works for the same Internet retailer as Sabrina, but his job is in the product development department. He earns $80,000 a year. He is expected to work 40 hours a week, but he is allowed to set his own work hours every day. As a single parent, Elmo's flexible work schedule allows him to attend his daughter's school events How would you compare Sabrina and Elmo's levels of job satisfaction?

90) Sandra works as a waitress at Chez Rivera, an upscale restaurant that is located in the city's business district. She is dissatisfied with her job because she is given a shift that clashes with her classes at a nearby university. Her boss wouldn't listen to her pleas and has threatened to dock her pay if she keeps requesting changes to her schedule.

Sandra is a soft spoken and generally timid person who hates confrontation. She needs this job to pay her college tuition. How can she express her dissatisfaction?

91) Describe the characteristics that change the nature of the attitudes-behavior relationship.

92) Ramona has just been passed up for a promotion and is still earning less than $40,000 a year. She is experiencing a very low level of job satisfaction. Describe two passive responses that Ramona might take due to her dissatisfaction.

93) One of your co-workers has begun to exhibit a prevalent CWP: surfing the Internet during work hours. What does this tell you about your co-worker and what can you do to reverse the issue?

94) James is a scientist for a local manufacturer that employs a large percentage of the small town where he lives. Until recently James has loved his job. However, it has been discovered that the company is releasing small amounts of toxins into the local river. James is extremely bothered by this information. Based on what you know about James, describe the cognitive dissonance that he is experiencing, and two ways that James might alter his behavior or attitude to reduce the dissonance.

95) Explain the relationship between perceived organizational support (POS) and power distance.

96) What is corporate social responsibility (CSR) and how is it related to job satisfaction?

97) Adam and Devin are both in their fifties. They have had long careers and had switched multiple jobs in their careers. Adam has a new job opportunity, and he asks Devin for his opinion. Devin suggests that Adam think about the best job he has ever had and whether the new opportunity features any of these attributes. If you were Adam, how would you respond to this?

15

98) Discuss cognitive dissonance theory. How do individuals seek consistency among their attitudes, and between their attitudes and their behavior?

99) Elisa is upset with her supervisor because she was denied her requested vacation days, which were given to another worker. She is experiencing a very low level of job satisfaction but cannot afford to quit her job. Describe three negative, passive responses that Elisa might take due to her dissatisfaction. Imagine that her manager actively catches her in a manifestation of workplace deviance. Predict the outcome of Elisa's behavior.

100) Most of the research in OB has been concerned with three attitudes: job satisfaction, job involvement, and organizational commitment. Explain the difference between these attitudes.

16

Answer Key Testname: C3

1) A 2) A 3) A 4) C 5) E 6) D 7) B 8) A 9) A 10) D 11) E 12) B 13) B 14) D 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) E 19) B 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) E 26) B 27) E 28) B 29) E 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) B 37) D 38) D 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) A 43) A 44) E 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) E 49) C 50) E 17

Answer Key Testname: C3

51) E 52) D 53) B 54) C 55) A 56) E 57) B 58) D 59) D 60) D 61) A 62) B 63) C 64) C 65) E 66) C 67) B 68) D 69) D 70) B 71) A 72) E 73) D 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) While unsatisfied employees tend to be absent more often, the relationship between dissatisfaction and absenteeism is not very strong. Generally, when numerous alternative jobs are available, dissatisfied employees have high absence rates, but when there are few alternatives, dissatisfied employees have the same (low) rate of absence as satisfied employees.

89) Sabrina is likely to be less satisfied than Elmo in the pure measurement of pay because she makes less than the $40,000 level required for a comfortable living, while Elmo (who works for the same organization) is able to make a good living. Elmo's level of perceived organizational support is higher because the company allows him a flexible schedule that enables him to be a big part of his daughter's life. Sabrina's situation is the very opposite of Elmo's because her strict schedule makes her miss her son's activities. Elmo probably has a higher level of job involvement due to the challenging nature of his work, in contrast to Sabrina's more routine job.

18

Answer Key Testname: C3

90) There are four responses to dissatisfaction that differ along two dimensions: constructive/destructive and active/passive. Given Sandra's character, it is likely that her response would be loyalty—a response that is in the passive domain but is not destructive. It is likely that Sandra expresses her dissatisfaction by passively waiting for conditions to improve (such as her boss being replaced by someone more sympathetic).

91) Five characteristics change the nature of the attitudes-behavior relationship. They are: the importance of the attitude, its correspondence to behavior, its accessibility, the presence of social pressures, and whether a person has direct experience with the attitude.

92) Responses to job dissatisfaction differ along two dimensions: constructive/destructive and active/passive. Ramona's passive responses could include loyalty or neglect. The loyalty response means passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve. In contrast, Ramona's neglect response would passively allow conditions to worsen, including chronic absenteeism, reduced effort, and an increased error rate.

93) While responses to this will vary, student responses should touch upon Internet surfing as a withdrawal behavior which is indicative of boredom or lack of motivation. As the student is not in a managerial position, an appropriate response would be to help motivate their co-worker or to help them seek more challenging responsibilities.

94) As a scientist James is horrified by his company's pollution. The dissonance he feels is the contradiction between a sense of loyalty and love for his job, versus an anger at the company's infractions. To reduce the dissonance James could rationalize that all companies pollute a little bit, and that it is worth the sacrifice because his company provides jobs for the whole community. James could accept certain excuses and evidence that the company provides, such as that the pollution is tiny and moves down-river, not really affecting his community. James can ignore the dissonance because he values his job as a scientist in a community with few jobs.

95) POS is the degree to which employees believe the organization values their contributions and cares about their well-being. POS is influenced by culture. One such cultural dimension is power distance, the degree to which people in a country accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally. POS is important in low power distance countries such as the United States. In contrast, in a country with high power distance such as China, POS perceptions are not as deeply based on employer demonstrations of fairness, support, and encouragement.

96) CSR refers to an organization's self-regulated actions to benefit society or the environment beyond what is required by law. Organizations practice CSR through environmental sustainability initiatives, nonprofit work, and charitable giving. CSR is related to job satisfaction in that employees whose personal values fit with the organization's CSR mission are often more satisfied. This is supported by results of surveys. When managed well, CSR can increase employee job satisfaction.

97) Answers to this question will vary greatly but Adam should include reference to some elements of training, variety, independence, and control that varied among the jobs that he had had. In addition, how did the jobs vary in terms of interdependence, feedback, social support, interaction with coworkers outside the workplace, and/or the work itself.

Most students playing the role of Adam will probably also reference interactions with the manager.

98) Cognitive dissonance refers to any incompatibility an individual might perceive between two or more attitudes, or between behavior and attitudes. Festinger argued that any form of inconsistency is uncomfortable, and that individuals will attempt to reduce the dissonance and, hence, the discomfort. They will seek a stable state, in which there is a minimum of dissonance.

Research has generally concluded that people seek consistency among their attitudes, and between their attitudes and their behavior. They do this by altering either the attitudes or the behavior, or by developing a rationalization for the discrepancy. They can deny that any clear causation between the attitude and the behavior has been established. They can brainwash themselves by continually articulating the benefits of the attitude or the behavior. They can acknowledge the negative consequences of the attitude or behavior but rationalize it. They can accept the research evidence and begin actively working to better the conditions. Or they can quit the attitude or the behavior because the dissonance is too great.

19

Answer Key Testname: C3

99) Because Elisa cannot quit her job, her responses will be to passively neglect her work. She could manifest this in a number of ways, from increased absenteeism, to poor customer service, to workplace deviance, such as surfing the Internet during work hours, or stealing work supplies. If Elisa's manager were to catch her surfing the Internet he or she would most likely reprimand Elisa, increasing her level of dissatisfaction and level of job neglect. A better solution would be to question Elisa as to what she is doing, and perhaps opening up lines of communication which would allow her a chance to actively and positively voice her grievance.

100) Job satisfaction refers to an individual's general attitude toward his or her job. A person with a high level of job satisfaction holds positive attitudes toward the job, while a person who is dissatisfied with his or her job holds negative attitudes about the job. Job involvement measures the degree to which a person identifies psychologically with his or her job and considers his or her perceived performance level important to self-worth. Employees with a high level of job involvement strongly identify with and really care about the kind of work they do. Organizational commitment is defined as a state in which an employee identifies with a particular organization and its goals and wishes to maintain membership in the organization. So high organizational commitment means identifying with one's employing organization.

20

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following statements is true regarding deep acting?

A) A worker who smiles at a customer even when he doesn't feel like it is deep acting.

B) Deep acting is hiding inner feelings and forgoing emotional expressions in response to display rules.

C) Research shows surface acting is less stressful to employees than deep acting.

D) A healthcare provider trying to genuinely feel more empathy for her patients is deep acting.

E) Deep acting deals with displayed emotions as opposed to surface acting.

1)

2) U.S. adults tend to experience their lowest positive affect on ________.

A) Monday B) Friday C) Tuesday D) Thursday E) Wednesday

2)

3) Negative affect is a mood dimension consisting of ________ at the low end.

A) nervousness B) stress C) anxiety D) relaxation E) depression

3)

4) Carlos, the manager of a large investment fund, kept his reaction in check to the 10 percent drop in the day's stock market and was able to develop a number of moves to help his fund. Carlos' emotion regulation technique is called ________.

A) cognitive reappraisal B) emotional suppression C) social sharing D) emotional contagion E) cognitive dissonance

4)

5) Which of the following statements is true regarding moods?

A) Moods are more intense feelings than emotions.

B) Moods are generally not indicated by distinct facial expressions.

C) Moods don't last longer than emotions.

D) Moods are less cognitive in nature than emotions.

E) Moods are more action oriented in nature, as compared to emotions.

5)

6) When his son won the regional Spelling Bee, Mario immediately felt a surge of joy, which turned into a feeling of satisfaction that lasted for several weeks. What is one of the reasons that Mario's feeling of satisfaction might be categorized as a mood and not an emotion?

A) It is expressed on his face.

B) It has a lengthy duration.

C) It is a very strong feeling.

D) It is a positive feeling.

E) It is brought about by a specific event.

6)

1

7) Which of the following statements is true about emotional intelligence (EI)?

A) It is moderately correlated with job performance.

B) It is not related to personality and intelligence.

C) It is not genetically influenced.

D) It can be measured easily.

E) It indicates mathematical aptitude of an individual.

7)

8) Roger works at a retail store where he deals with customer complaints. After one encounter, he concluded that the customer was clearly wrong. She was insisting on a full refund even when she was clearly at fault. Roger felt angry at how untruthful the customer was, but he projected a calm demeanor while responding to the customer. What Roger is feeling is called ________.

A) emotional distancing B) emotional dissonance C) cognitive ambiguity D) cognitive dissonance E) cognitive distancing

8)

9) Ben is prone to experiencing emotions in a much stronger manner than most other people. Events that don't provoke any significant emotional response in the average person often send him into fits of happiness, anger, or depression. Ben has a high level of ________.

A) negative affect B) emotional intelligence C) emotional dissonance D) positive affect E) affect intensity

9)

10) What term is used for those emotions that an organization requires workers to show and considers appropriate in a given job?

A) Felt emotions B) Required emotions C) Displayed emotions D) Mandated emotions E) Conditional emotions

10)

11) Whether a candidate has high emotional intelligence would not be a significant factor when considering candidates for the job of a(n) ________.

A) realtor arranging sales between homeowners and potential buyers B) copy editor who seeks out spelling errors and grammatical mistakes in manuscripts C) meeting planner who must set up meetings for candidates around the world D) engineer heading a team designing a complex software/hardware interface E) interviewer who assesses candidates in an employment agency

11)

12) ________ indicates a person's ability to perceive emotions in oneself and others, to understand the meaning of these emotions, and regulate his/her own emotions accordingly.

A) Emotional dissonance B) Cognitive distortion C) Confirmation bias D) Cognitive dissonance E) Emotional intelligence

12)

2

13) The corporate office has determined that the company vision needs to be amended. What should corporate leaders do to increase the likelihood that employees will accept this change?

A) Evoke empathy for the CEO B) Arouse emotions and link them to an appealing vision C) Motivate employees by putting them in a good mood D) Demonstrate how the vision will better company profits E) Negotiate with them and express anger

13)

14) Jo has a job interview. Which of the following will have the least effect on her feelings on the day of the interview?

A) The weather on the day of the interview B) Sleep quality that Jo had the night before C) Jo's gender D) The amount Jo exercised on that day E) Jo's age

14)

15) Which of the following is the first step in the Cascading Model of Emotional Intelligence?

A) Emotional stability B) Attitude C) Conscientiousness D) Dissonance E) Cognition

15)

16) People who score ________ on emotional stability are more likely to react strongly to ________ events.

A) average; negative B) average; positive C) low; positive D) low; negative E) high; negative

16)

17) Moral emotions are those emotions that have moral implications because of our ________.

A) guilt caused by our society B) religious beliefs C) individualistic culture D) instant judgment of the situation that evokes them E) interpersonal relationships

17)

18) When William was one of the many who were laid off when his company downsized, he immediately gathered his fellow fired co-workers to enable everyone to vent their feelings about their predicament. William and his co-workers were using _________ as their emotion regulation technique.

A) emotional reappraisal B) emotional suppression C) social sharing D) cognitive dissonance E) emotional contagion

18)

3

19) When Denise's boss told her at her annual performance appraisal that, much to her shock, she was not getting the promotion that she had hoped for, she immediately blocked her first angry response, thanked her boss and walked away. The emotion regulation technique that Denise used is called ________.

A) social sharing B) cognitive affirmation C) emotional suppression D) cognitive reappraisal E) cognitive dissonance

19)

20) Emotions are ________.

A) strongly affected by weather B) critical to rational thinking C) less likely to be caused by a specific event than moods D) independent of the personality of individuals E) less intense as compared to moods

20)

21) Which of the following mood dimensions is not a pure marker of high negative affect?

A) Tension B) Nervousness C) Boredom D) Stress E) Upset

21)

22) Research suggests which of the following relationships exists between the weather and mood?

A) Moderately negative effect B) Limited or little effect C) Strong positive effect D) Moderately positive effect E) Strong negative effect

22)

23) Which of the following is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings that people experience?

A) Moods B) Emotions C) Affect D) Cognition E) Emotional labor

23)

24) Bingo Airlines mandates that all its flight attendants are always cheerful during a flight. This is an example of ________.

A) cognitive dissonance B) organizational citizenship C) moral ambiguity D) emotional labor E) emotional dissonance

24)

4

25) A ________ means that when nothing is going on, people are generally in a mildly good mood.

A) positivity offset B) low positive affect C) high positive affect D) residual positivity E) high negative affect

25)

26) Which of the following emotions is an example of a positive affect?

A) Excitement B) Nervousness C) Anxiety D) Serenity E) Stress

26)

27) Ramona's team was recently responsible for missing a major sales goal. According to the affective events theory, which of the following is most likely to occur?

A) Ramona will become more motivated and will keep working harder for next time.

B) Ramona will be discouraged but will become more motivated and will keep working harder for next time.

C) Ramona will become discouraged and will start to dislike her job.

D) Ramona will become more motivated but will start to dislike her job.

E) Ramona will become discouraged but will keep working harder for next time.

27)

28) ________ are the emotions that the organization requires workers to show and considers appropriate in each job.

A) Displayed emotions B) Felt emotions C) Surface emotions D) Conditional emotions E) Disseminative emotions

28)

29) Which of the following terms best describes feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions?

A) Cognition B) Thoughts C) Moods D) Reactions E) Affect

29)

30) Which of the following is not an example of a moral emotion?

A) Sympathy for the suffering of others B) Anger over coworker's tardiness C) Anger about injustice done to others D) Contempt for those who behave unethically E) Guilt about own immoral behavior

30)

31) Gerardo believes that every time he picks up a penny he is blessed with good fortune, due to the fact that the last time he picked up a penny he had a lottery win, and the time before that he got a big bonus at work. Gerardo's perception is likely a product of a(n) ________.

A) high-positive affect B) illusory correlation C) self-serving bias D) emotional dimension E) affect intensity

31)

5

32) Jason and Lupe work in the loan processing department of a large bank. To his co-workers, Jason appears the same every day. He goes about his work with the same calm expression on his face.

This was true even after he did not get the pay raise that he thought he would get. Lupe, however, lets everyone know how she feels on a particular day, and even at various times during the day.

She was visibly elated when she got the raise that she was hoping for. The degree to which Lupe and Jason experience their emotions is called ________.

A) mood sensitivity B) positivity offset C) cognitive dissonance D) moral ambiguity E) affect intensity

32)

33) Which of the following statements about emotions and moods is not true?

A) Emotions are caused by specific events.

B) Emotions are specific and numerous in nature.

C) Emotions are usually accompanied by distinct facial expressions.

D) The cause of moods is often general and unclear.

E) Moods are very brief in their duration.

33)

34) Diane Marshall is an office manager. Her awareness of her own and others' emotions is almost nil.

She's moody and unable to generate much enthusiasm or interest in her employees. She doesn't understand why employees get upset with her. She often overreacts to problems and chooses the most ineffectual responses to emotional situations. Diane has ________.

A) high cognitive dissonance B) low emotional intelligence C) low confirmation bias D) low emotional dissonance E) high self-serving bias

34)

35) When situations are overly emotionally charged and stressful, we have a natural response to ________.

A) disengage and just look away B) seek vengeance C) disengage and exhibit counterproductive work behaviors D) find positive outlets for our emotions E) find negative outlets for our emotions

35)

36) Ismael spent the morning in the field making sales calls. He called on four prospective clients and they all declined to purchase his company's product. Ismael returned to the office stressed and exhausted. He has an hour and a half for lunch before he has to make a large sales presentation to a current client, which Ismael hopes will expand his account. Which of the following is most likely to be the best way for Ismael to spend his lunch hour?

A) He should practice his sales pitch orally with a co-worker.

B) He should rest and relax before the presentation.

C) He should go through the past sales orders placed by this client in order to better understand her requirements.

D) He should ask his boss to help him prepare the presentation.

E) He should prepare his sales pitch data and graphics on the computer.

36)

37) ________ is a pure marker of high positive affect.

A) Relaxed B) Serene C) Excited

37)

6

D) Bored

E) Nervous

38) Which of the following statements is true regarding the sources of moods and emotions?

A) As we grow older, we experience more negative emotions.

B) People tend to be in their best moods on Sundays.

C) The weather strongly affects moods.

D) Sleep quality affects mood.

E) Moods and emotions are independent of the personality of the individuals.

38)

39) People feeling different emotions after being subjected to identical emotion-provoking stimuli is a result of ________.

A) emotional dissonance B) personality C) emotional labor D) cognitive dissonance E) positivity offset

39)

40) Which of the following is an emotion regulation technique?

A) Cognitive regulation B) Cognitive reappraisal C) Cognitive declaration D) Cognitive affirmation E) Cognitive dissonance

40)

41) Which of the following statements is true regarding emotional intelligence (EI)?

A) Evidence suggests that EI is not genetically influenced.

B) EI can be measured easily.

C) EI is a simple, straightforward concept.

D) Evidence suggests that a person's performance on the job is independent of her EI. E) EI is related to a person's ability to detect emotions in others.

41)

42) Erin works at a software company, in charge of the help desk. After being yelled at by a customer about the state of her company's software, she becomes angry, and has to take a short break to calm down. What makes her anger an emotion, rather than a mood?

A) Her response is not accompanied by facial expressions.

B) It has a contextual stimulus.

C) Her response is prolonged.

D) It is cognitive in nature.

E) It is a simple, unambiguous feeling.

42)

43) Which of the following is not an example of surface acting?

A) Sonora smiles at her cubicle neighbor when she walks by, even though his behavior annoys her.

B) David invites a co-worker that he doesn't like to lunch, in the hope of getting to know him better.

C) Liz is worried about her sick dog, but makes her morning sales calls with a smile.

D) Javier is angry at his boss who makes him work on a Saturday, but keeps a poker face at work all day.

E) Andy is disappointed when a customer turns down his sales call, but smiles pleasantly on his way out.

43)

7

44) When Juan saw a homeless man begging for food on the street, he felt a strong wave of sympathy.

In feeling this, Juan expresses his ________ emotion.

A) societal B) valence C) cognitive D) agentic E) moral

44)

45) Lowest negative effect is ________ in the morning and tends to ________ over the course of the day and evening.

A) lowest; remain consistent B) highest; decrease C) highest; remain consistent D) lowest; increase E) stable; increase

45)

46) When Ariana is told that her dog has been killed by a car, her eyes widen in disbelief and tears begin to stream down her face. Later that day she is able to laugh and talk about the fun times she had with her dog. What is one of the reasons that Ariana's reaction can be categorized as an emotion?

A) Her reaction is cognitive in nature.

B) It is a general, unambiguous feeling.

C) It is a positive feeling.

D) It is accompanied by facial expressions.

E) It has a lengthy duration.

46)

47) Deep level acting is less psychologically costly than surface level acting because in deep level acting, we are actually trying to experience the emotion, so we ________.

A) transfer the emotion to the other party B) find ways to channel the emotion C) translate the emotion to something we already know D) experience less emotional exhaustion E) are not really acting

47)

48) What effect do stressful events typically have on mood?

A) Positive B) Negative C) Short-term positive D) Long-term positive E) Short-term positive but long-term negative

48)

49) On which day of the week does negative affect tend to be the highest?

A) Thursday B) Tuesday C) Wednesday D) Sunday E) Monday

49)

50) Which of the following is the term used for the strength with which individuals experience emotion?

A) Emotional intelligence B) Emotional dissonance C) Emotional labor D) Positivity offset E) Affect intensity

50)

8

51) ________ is an emotion that falls into the category of high negative affect.

A) Anxiety B) Boredom C) Fatigue D) Serenity

E) Relaxation

51)

52) Eduardo is upset because his boss recently reprimanded him for missing a deadline. The boss put Eduardo on a probation period, causing him to lose his two days a week telecommuting privilege.

Eduardo now has to work at the office five days a week. Which of the following is most likely to result from Eduardo's negative attitude due to the reprimand?

A) Cognitive dissonance B) Distinction bias C) Emotional contagion D) Deviant workplace behavior E) Positivity offset

52)

53) ________ is the highest negative-affect day across most cultures.

A) Friday B) Monday C) Tuesday D) Thursday E) Wednesday

53)

54) Positive affect is a mood dimension consisting of ________ at the low end.

A) nervousness B) stress C) tranquility D) boredom E) excitement

54)

55) When DeSean watched the news one day, he felt disgusted when he saw a clip of a politician making a sexist remark. What kind of an emotion is DeSean expressing?

A) Moral B) Gender C) Acquired D) Sublimal E) Genetic

55)

56) Which of the following statements is true regarding emotions?

A) Emotions are caused by specific events.

B) Emotions are less intense feelings than moods.

C) Moods are more action oriented in nature than emotions.

D) Emotions last longer than moods.

E) Emotions are generally not indicated by distinct facial expressions.

56)

57) Agnes works in a fish processing plant, doing work that most people find extremely unpleasant.

However, she still has a positive mood about 60 percent of the time. Which of the following concepts can explain such a finding?

A) Positivity offset B) Moral effect C) The fundamental attribution error D) Self-serving bias E) Framing effect

57)

9

58) Evidence suggests people who feel negative emotions, particularly ________ or hostility, are more likely than others to engage in deviant behavior at work.

A) stress B) anger C) tension D) depression E) nervousness

58)

59) Jim and DeSean are salesmen at Ironwood Company. Jim is a prankster, and he makes it his mission to annoy DeSean on a daily basis. When DeSean came in one morning, he found all his business cards stapled together, just when he was about to leave for a sales call. In response, DeSean throws his chair at Jim. Which of the following best describes DeSean's anger?

A) An emotion B) A mental process C) An affect D) A thought E) A mood

59)

60) Priya is highly aware of her own and other's emotions. She is good at reading emotional cues and knows how to express her emotions without violating organizational norms. This information indicates that Julia has ________.

A) low cognitive dissonance B) high job satisfaction C) high emotional intelligence D) low emotional dissonance E) low self-esteem

60)

61) When Ming learnt that she was one of many in her department who was laid off due to an industry-wide economic downturn, unlike her coworkers she saw this as an opportunity to fulfill her lifelong dream of opening a bakery. Ming's emotion regulation technique is called ________.

A) cognitive reappraisal B) emotional suppression C) emotional distancing D) social sharing E) cognitive dissonance

61)

62) Barry is angry at losing his job. In order to regulate his emotions, he can do all of the following except ________.

A) suppress negative thoughts B) focus on the problem at hand C) distract himself D) think about pleasant things E) engage in relaxation techniques

62)

10

63) Daisy works in customer relations for a large airline company. Her job involves interacting with customers, many of whom are typically irate at canceled bookings or delayed flights. However, Daisy has trained herself to organizationally desired emotions during these interpersonal transactions (irrespective of her true emotions). Daisy's behavior is known as ________.

A) negative affect B) positive affect C) deviant behavior D) emotional intelligence E) emotional labor

63)

64) ________ is a pure marker of low negative affect.

A) Tenseness B) Stress C) Relaxation

64)

D) Boredom

E) Anxiety

65) The way we ________ an emotion is not always the same as the way we ________.

A) experience; interpret it B) experience; show it C) trust; experience it D) show; trust it E) show; interpret it

65)

66) What do you call the practice of modifying one's true inner feelings based on display rules?

A) Deep acting B) Emotional intelligence C) Confirmation bias D) Affective camouflage E) Surface acting

66)

67) In a CareerBuilder survey of over 2,500 hiring managers and HR professionals, 59 percent said they would not hire someone with high ________, but low emotional intelligence (EI).

A) analytical skills B) cognitive ability C) numerical skills D) mathematical skills E) scientific skills

67)

68) Which of the following statements is true regarding surface acting?

A) Research shows surface acting is less stressful to employees than deep acting.

B) Surface acting is hiding inner feelings and forgoing emotional expressions in response to display rules.

C) Surface acting deals with felt emotions as opposed to deep acting which deals with displayed emotions.

D) Surface acting is trying to modify our true inner feelings based on display rules.

E) A healthcare provider trying to genuinely feel more empathy for her patients is surface acting.

68)

11

69) Joanna and Rahul are working as a team on a project for the Almeida Company. Rahul's tardiness causes the team to miss an important deadline. Joanna yells at Rahul in anger for his mistake.

Which of the following terms best describes the intense feelings that Joanna directs at Rahul?

A) Affect B) Emotional labor C) Moods D) Cognition E) Emotions

69)

70) Theresa is the manager of a production unit. Which of the following methods would likely be of the least use to improve her employees' moods?

A) Hire positive employees.

B) Be in a good mood herself.

C) Arrange for employees to see funny videos at work.

D) Give employees tokens of appreciation for work they do well.

E) Use humor.

70)

71) Research finds that when nothing in particular is happening, called positivity offset, most individuals experience a(n) ________.

A) intensely negative mood B) neutral mood C) intensely positive mood D) mildly positive mood E) mildly negative mood

71)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

72) More employers are starting to use emotional intelligence (EI) measures to hire people.

72)

73) There is evidence to suggest that in the workplace, women are emotional and men are angry.

73)

74) Deep acting deals with displayed emotions.

74)

75) Moods are short-lived, while emotions are longer-lived feelings.

75)

76) Felt emotions are our actual emotions.

76)

77) Emotional intelligence (EI) can be trained and developed as a skill.

77)

78) Positive emotions and moods seem to help people make sound decisions.

78)

79) Emotional suppression is an emotion regulation technique.

79)

80) Emotions are caused by specific events.

80)

81) Affectively intense people experience both positive and negative emotions deeply.

81)

82) Illusory correlation is when we associate two events that, in reality, have no connection.

82)

12

83) Displaying emotions we do not really feel is easy.

83)

84) People experience the same emotion with different intensities.

84)

85) When John, a funeral director, maintains a sad demeanor at work because his organization requires it, he is performing emotional labor.

85)

86) A worker who smiles at a customer even when they do not feel like it is surface acting.

86)

87) A large and detailed body of evidence suggests weather has considerable effect on mood, at least for most people.

87)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

88) What is emotional contagion? What implications does it have for the workplace?

89) Explain the term "affect" and indicate how affect is related to moods and emotions.

90) Explain what a "positivity effect" is in terms of moods and emotions.

91) Explain how weather affects emotions and moods.

92) Discuss the concept of illusory correlation.

93) What is the difference between surface acting and deep acting? Give an example.

94) Briefly explain how social sharing acts as an emotion regulation technique.

95) Elvira wants to hire three new customer service representatives. She is considering using a measure of EI to help select her new employees. Explain what EI is and how it could be useful to Elvira for the jobs that she's hiring for, and the reasons why she should not depend entirely on the EI measures for her selection.

96) What are the basic emotions? What do scholars feel about them?

97) You and your friends are attending a basketball game at your college. A player on your school's team has a foul called on her for slapping to which you and your friends booed the referee. Seconds later, a player on the opposing team is called for the same foul for which you cheered. Why did you act in this seemingly hypocritical manner?

98) Nicole and Chang are discussing their co-worker, Angie. They both agree that Angie is easier to work with at certain times of the day. Since you are an expert on moods and emotions, they ask you to explain Angie's behavior in relation to the time of day. What would your answer be?

99) On the morning that Walter faced a job interview for a position that he was really interested in, his dog died.

Should Walter use emotional suppression at his interview?

100) Alston is a pharmaceutical sales representative whose job requires him to call on busy doctors, for many of whom his visit is seen as an interruption to their meeting with patients. Regardless, as per his company's norms, he must put on a smile every day at work with his clients. Discuss the emotional labor experienced by Alston. What role does emotional intelligence play in Alston's job?

13

101) What do we know about mood and time of day?

14

Answer Key Testname: C4

1) D 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) B 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) E 10) C 11) B 12) E 13) B 14) A 15) C 16) D 17) D 18) C 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) A 26) A 27) B 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) B 32) E 33) E 34) B 35) A 36) B 37) C 38) D 39) B 40) B 41) E 42) B 43) B 44) E 45) D 46) D 47) D 48) B 49) E 50) E 15

Answer Key Testname: C4

51) A 52) D 53) B 54) D 55) A 56) A 57) A 58) B 59) A 60) C 61) A 62) B 63) E 64) C 65) B 66) A 67) B 68) B 69) E 70) C 71) D 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) Emotional contagion refers to the "catching" of emotions from others. When someone at work experiences positive emotions and laughs and smiles at you, like when they are sending you a funny meme about retail life, you tend to respond positively. The opposite is true as well. This is important in the workplace because workers' emotional states influence the level of customer service they give, which in turn influences levels of repeat business and customer satisfaction.

89) The term "affect" refers to a broad range of feelings that people experience. Affect varies by its valence, or the degree to which the feelings are positive or negative. The broad term "affect" is divided into emotions and moods. Emotions are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something. Finally, moods are feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and which lack a contextual stimulus.

90) A positivity effect means that at zero input (when nothing in particular is going on), most individuals experience a mildly positive mood. In other words, positivity seems to be the default mood for most people. In general, positive moods enable employees to perform better, be more creative, be more social, as well as improve their health and longevity—for these reasons, humans may have evolved to possess a positivity effect.

16

Answer Key Testname: C4

91) The effect of weather on emotions and moods illustrates what is commonly referred to as "illusory correlation." Many people believe their mood is tied to the weather. That is why we have people who are self-proclaimed "rain haters" and "summer lovers." Evidence, however, suggests that weather has little effect on mood, at least for most people. We are associating two events (weather and, say, mood) that, in reality, have no connection.

92) Illusory correlation refers to the tendency of people to associate two events when in reality there is no connection. As an example, many people believe their mood is tied to the weather. However, a large and detailed body of evidence suggests weather has little effect on mood, at least for most people.

93) Surface acting deals with displayed emotions, and deep acting deals with felt emotions. Surface acting is hiding feelings and emotional expressions in response to display rules. In contrast, deep acting is trying to modify our true feelings based on display rules. Imagine a customer service representative confronting an irate customer. In surface acting, the rep would hide their true feelings and keep a smiling face in the interaction. In deep acting, the rep would attempt to mitigate their irritation and try to understand why the customer is irate.

94) Social sharing or venting is an open expression of emotions to help individuals regulate their emotions as opposed to keeping emotions "bottled up." Social sharing can reduce anger reactions when people can talk about the facts of a bad situation, their feelings about the situation, or any positive aspects of the situation.

95) Emotional intelligence (EI) is a person's ability to (1) be self-aware (to recognize her own emotions when she experiences them), (2) detect emotions in others, and (3) manage emotional cues and information. People who know their own emotions and are good at reading emotion cues, for instance, knowing why they're angry and how to express themselves without violating norms, are most likely to be effective. One implication from the evidence on EI to date is that employers should consider it a factor in hiring employees, especially in jobs that demand a high degree of social interaction. Elvira is hiring for customer service, which requires a great deal of social interaction. Elvira should also consider that EI is hard to measure and is very vaguely defined so she should not entirely depend on EI measures for her selection.

96) Anger, fear, sadness, and disgust are examples of emotions that researchers regard as "basic" or belonging to a fundamental set. However, some scholars argue that by thinking in terms of "basic" emotions, we lose sight of the bigger picture because emotions can mean different things in different contexts and may vary across cultures. It is unlikely psychologists or philosophers will ever completely agree on a set of basic emotions, or even on whether there is such a thing.

97) We tend to judge outgroup members (anyone who is not in our group) more harshly for moral transgressions than ingroup members, even when we are trying to be objective. In addition, perhaps to restore an emotional sense of fair play, we are likely to spitefully want outgroup members to be punished.

98) We often think that people differ, depending on whether they are "morning" or "evening" people. However, the vast majority of us follow the same pattern. Regardless of what time people go to bed at night or get up in the morning, levels of positive affect tend to peak around the halfway point between waking and sleeping. Negative affect, however, shows little fluctuation throughout the day. This basic pattern seems to hold whether people describe themselves as morning people or evening people. In short, you should tell Nicole and Chang that it may not be the time of day that affects Angie's behavior, but various other factors may impact it.

99) Emotional suppression is an emotion regulation technique. In emotional suppression, one blocks or ignores the initial emotional responses to situations. Emotional suppression allows one to temporarily counteract an emotion which might cause distress. In this case, given the importance of the job interview to Walter, the negative feeling regarding the dog should be repressed to keep the emotions from affecting the interview performance.

17

Answer Key Testname: C4

100) As a pharmaceutical sales representative calling on busy doctors, Alston has to engage in surface acting on a daily basis. He has to smile and act positive regardless of his felt emotions in order to be successful. Certainly there will be times when Alston has emotional dissonance (such as when he gets a brush off from a doctor's staff for intruding into their work), or feels a disparity between his true emotions and how he must appear to his clients. Alston's job would require a fair amount of rest and relaxation for him to continue to be successful. Alston should use his emotions and moods positively to guide his clients into making quick decisions in the purchase of his products. People in good moods tend to make quicker decisions. Alston should also apply his moods to stay motivated, to walk out the door into the field every day. Each sale is a tiny negotiation and Alston must have a bit of a poker face, not letting the client know the true impact of the sale on his life. Finally, Alston should apply his moods and positive emotions to provide excellent customer service to his clients. He spreads his good mood through emotional contagion and is able to get his customers to make larger orders and remain loyal to him in the competitive pharmaceutical industry.

101) Research shows that moods vary by time of day. Levels of positive effect tend to peak in the late morning (ten o'clock to noon) and then remain at that level until early evening (around seven o'clock). Starting about twelve hours after waking, positive affect begins to drop until dusk, and then, continues to accelerate until midnight. For those who remain awake, the drop continues until positive mood picks up again after sunrise. Research suggests that negative affect fluctuates less than positive affect. The general trend is for it to increase over the course of a day, so that it is lowest early in the morning and highest late in the evening.

18

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) A commission-based compensation plan would likely activate the extraversion trait because extraverts are more reward-sensitive, than, say, open people. This is an example of ________.

A) organizational citizenship theory B) situation strength theory C) trait-activation theory D) instrumental values framework E) cognitive dissonance theory

1)

2) With reference to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, people belonging to the "enterprising" type prefer ________.

A) activities that involve helping others B) activities that involve thinking, organizing, and understanding C) activities in which there are opportunities to influence others and attain power D) ambiguous and imaginative activities that allow creative expression E) physical activities that require skill, strength, and coordination

2)

3) Juanita is normally a very quiet person who remains somewhat quiet during conversations and social settings. Juanita is also the reigning national debate club champion. According to the Trait Activation Theory, what happens to Juanita at competitions?

A) She becomes highly narcissistic and is rude to the other competitors.

B) Juanita wins by not saying much.

C) Being at the competition causes Juanita to draw on normally unused traits.

D) Being at the competition causes Juanita to internalize.

E) Juanita stops pretending to be shy.

3)

4) According to the Big Five Model, people who score high on the ________ dimension are creative, curious, and artistically sensitive.

A) extraversion B) openness to experience C) conscientiousness D) agreeableness E) emotional stability

4)

5) According to the GLOBE framework, ________ indicates the extent to which a society supports collective action and resource distribution.

A) power distance B) institutional collectivism C) long-term orientation D) in-group collectivism E) collectivism

5)

1

6) A major concern with the use of the MBTI is that it ________.

A) is more favorable toward those in individualistic cultures B) has a high error rate C) permits employers to racially discriminate against applicants D) is easily manipulated through identity management E) forces individuals into one category or another

6)

7) People in cultures with short-term orientation ________.

A) treat women as the equals of men in all respects B) tolerate large inequalities of power and wealth C) emphasize a tight social framework in which people expect others in groups of which they are a part to look after them and protect them D) are less rule oriented, take more risks, and more readily accept change E) prefer to maintain a link to their past

7)

8) When we rank values in terms of intensity, we obtain that person's ________.

A) personality type B) value system C) trait activation profile D) organizational profile E) social desirability framework

8)

9) Amos works as a janitor. His job strength is dictated most likely by ________.

A) consequences B) clarity C) comprehension D) consistency E) constraints

9)

10) Brenda is a highly conscientious person per the Big Five Model, so she would be ________.

A) reserved, timid, and quiet B) creative, curious, and artistically sensitive C) gregarious, assertive, and sociable D) responsible, organized, dependable, and persistent E) nervous, anxious, depressed, and insecure

10)

11) Which of the following statements is true about personality?

A) Personality traits are uniform across all cultures.

B) Observer-ratings surveys do not provide an independent assessment of personality.

C) Personality is independent of environmental factors.

D) The most common means of measuring personality is through personal interviews.

E) Personality is the sum of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others.

11)

12) John Holland's personality-job fit theory presents six personality types. Which of the following is not one of these six types?

A) Social B) Conventional C) Realistic D) Pragmatic E) Artistic

12)

2

13) During an annual review, DeSean made the following assertion: "When I look at myself and my performance, I see that what I have achieved is outstanding and has, not surprisingly, won me the admiration and envy of most of my colleagues. I notice that everyone keeps talking about me; they are all just waiting to find out what triumph I will pull off next! In short, I don't just deserve a raise, but need one, since without me, let's face it, the place would simply fall apart." Which of the following personality traits best describes DeSean's personality?

A) Narcissistic B) External locus of control C) High Machiavellianism D) High-self monitoring E) Type A personality

13)

14) Individuals with ________, who are unable to cope with changing demands in the workplace, may experience burnout.

A) low emotional stability B) low extraversion C) high conscientiousness D) high cognitive dissonance E) high extraversion

14)

15) You have decided to use Holland's Typology of Personality and Congruent Occupations to help your friends recognize which jobs they would be well-suited for. Aisha is shy, stable, and persistent. Carlos is ambitious and energetic and likes to dominate conversations. Ming is idealistic, impractical, and very imaginative. DeSean is efficient and practical, but he lacks imagination and tends to be inflexible. Chris is analytical, independent, and an original thinker. Which of your friends is best suited to being an accountant?

A) Chris B) Aisha C) Carlos D) Ming E) DeSean

15)

16) Lakeesha is responsible, organized, dependable, and persistent. Lakeesha probably scores high on ________.

A) agreeableness B) emotional stability C) extraversion D) openness to experience E) conscientiousness

16)

17) Joe, a paramedic, is a very self-directed person and does not need step-by-step instructions in his work. According to the idea of situational strength, if Joe's supervisor gives him detailed instructions on how to bandage a broken finger, Joe will perceive this as his manager ________.

A) not having enough to do with her own time B) being concerned for his well being C) not having faith in his abilities D) being neurotic and narcissistic E) using good quality control

17)

18) In comparison to low Machs, which of the following is true about high Machs?

A) They perform better in situations that have several rules and regulations.

B) They are persuaded less.

C) They manipulate less.

D) They persuade others less.

E) They win less.

18)

3

19) Which of the following Big Five traits is most strongly related to life satisfaction, job satisfaction, and low stress levels?

A) Openness to experience B) Agreeableness C) Extraversion D) Emotional stability E) Conscientiousness

19)

20) Jose lives and works for a company in Guatemala where there are strict rules separating the office space and eating areas for managers and subordinates. Which dimension of Hofstede does this refer to?

A) Masculinity B) Uncertainty avoidance C) Power distance D) Long-term orientation E) Individualism

20)

21) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the "intuitive" type ________.

A) rely on their personal values and emotions B) rely on unconscious processes and look at the "big picture" C) are flexible and spontaneous D) want control and prefer their world to be ordered and structured E) are outgoing, sociable, and assertive

21)

22) With reference to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, people belonging to the "conventional" type will be most suitable for the job of a(n) ________.

A) painter B) mechanic C) accountant D) biologist E) lawyer

22)

23) The "Big Five" personality traits include all but which of the following?

A) Self-confidence B) Agreeableness C) Extraversion D) Openness to experience E) Conscientiousness

23)

24) In the GLOBE framework, the extent to which a society values caring, friendliness, altruism, fairness, kindness, and generosity is called________.

A) humane orientation B) power distance C) future orientation D) gender differentiation E) individualism/collectivism

24)

4

25) A high Mach would be most suited for which of the following positions?

A) A manager who leads a team of geographically distant consultants B) A human resources manager who ensures staff firings do not place the company in legal jeopardy C) A real estate broker negotiating the lease of large amounts of office space D) An auditor who checks that all company accounts are kept properly E) An ombudsman who investigates consumer complaints and mediates their outcome

25)

26) Lupe's goal is to visit at least one country in every continent in the next ten years. As a traveler, what Lupe likes to do best while abroad is visiting museums, painting, traveling, and learning new languages. Which dimension of the Big Five Model best describes Lupe, according to her interests?

A) Agreeableness B) Extraversion C) Emotional stability D) Conscientiousness E) Openness to experience

26)

27) Which of the following is not true about the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)?

A) Results from the MBTI tend to be unrelated to job performance.

B) The MBTI forces a person into one type or the other; that is, there is no in-between.

C) There is mixed evidence about its validity.

D) When people retake the assessment, they often receive different results.

E) It is not widely used.

27)

28) You are the manager of a small boutique. You have decided to apply the Big Five Model in order to understand your employees and their work habits because it is generally supported by an impressive body of research. You want to use the five dimensions of personality to match individuals with jobs to which they are well-suited. You know that your customers are demanding and sometimes difficult. So the salesperson should be able to withstand high levels of stress. Which personality dimension taps a person's ability to withstand stress?

A) Openness to experience B) Conscientiousness C) Emotional stability D) Extraversion E) Agreeableness

28)

29) Mexico is an example of a country where gender roles are very clearly defined. Here, certain occupations are staffed largely by men while others by women. Which of Hofstede's dimensions would this refer to?

A) Collectivism B) Uncertainty avoidance C) Masculinity D) Long-term orientation E) Power distance

29)

5

30) You have decided to use Holland's Typology of Personality and Congruent Occupations to help your friends recognize which jobs they would be well-suited for. Aisha is shy, stable, and persistent. Carlos is ambitious and energetic and likes to dominate conversations. Ming is idealistic, impractical, and very imaginative. DeSean is efficient and practical, but he lacks imagination and tends to be inflexible. Chris is analytical, independent, and an original thinker. Which of your friends is most likely to find a successful career as a writer?

A) Chris B) Aisha C) DeSean D) Carlos E) Ming

30)

31) Carlos has known Jose since their childhood, twenty-four years ago. When asked to describe Jose, Carlos says that he is nice, fun, and outgoing. Here, Carlos is referring to Jose's ________.

A) cognitive skills B) family upbringing C) mental acuity D) personality traits E) societal roles

31)

32) Which of the following is the most common means of measuring personality?

A) Self-report surveys B) Benchmark surveys C) Dissonance tests D) Cognitive tests E) Attitude surveys

32)

33) The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classifies people in all of the following categories except ________.

A) thinking/feeling B) perceiving/judging C) extraverted/introverted D) independent/dependent E) sensing/intuitive

33)

34) You are seeking to fill the position of a counselor and have administered Holland's Vocational Preference Inventory questionnaire to all candidates. The best candidates for the position would have which of the following personality types?

A) Social B) Realistic C) Investigative D) Enterprising E) Conventional

34)

35) You have decided to use Holland's Typology of Personality and Congruent Occupations to help your friends recognize which jobs they would be well-suited for. Aisha is shy, stable, and persistent. Carlos is ambitious and energetic and likes to dominate conversations. Ming is idealistic, impractical, and very imaginative. DeSean is efficient and practical, but he lacks imagination and tends to be inflexible. Chris is analytical, independent, and an original thinker. According to Holland's Typology, a congruent occupation for Chris would be ________.

A) teacher B) economist C) lawyer D) farmer E) writer

35)

6

36) According to the Big Five Model, a person who scores ________ is responsible, organized, dependable, and persistent.

A) low on emotional stability B) high on openness to experience C) low on agreeableness D) high on conscientiousness E) high on extraversion

36)

37) Ming rates low on openness. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true about Ming?

A) She will be quite compliant and conforming.

B) She will be quite creative.

C) She will be less comfortable with ambiguity.

D) She will be very emotionally expressive.

E) She will be well liked.

37)

38) In recent years, Hofstede has proposed an additional dimension that emphasizes enjoying life and having fun versus regulating conduct through strict social norms. That dimension is called ________.

A) individualism versus collectivism B) uncertainty avoidance C) indulgence versus restraint D) long-term versus short-term orientation E) power distance

38)

39) Neha is positive, optimistic, and usually happy. In which of the Big Five personality traits would Neha most likely score high?

A) Extroversion B) Agreeableness C) Openness to experience D) Emotional stability E) Conscientiousness

39)

40) Varghese is a high-level administrator at an organization. Consistently, he calls employees into his office to point out their mistakes and to inform them of flaws within their performance; however, he never praises his employees nor informs them of positive feedback. Varghese most likely has which of the Dark Triad?

A) Machiavellianism B) Psychopathy C) Narcissism D) Psychopathy and narcissism E) Machiavellianism and narcissism

40)

41) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the "________" type are flexible and spontaneous.

A) thinking B) feeling C) introverted D) extraverted E) perceiving

41)

7

42) Which of the following is not a trait of a narcissistic individual?

A) A lack of empathy B) A tendency to exploit situations and people C) Fantasies of grand success D) A sense of entitlement E) A tendency toward being insensitive

42)

43) Carlos is a very exciting person, people want to be friends with him, and find his company very desirable. Carlos usually takes the lead within his circle of friends and seldom considers what others want. Most likely, Carlos has which of the Dark Triad?

A) Narcissism B) Psychopathy and narcissism C) Psychopathy D) Machiavellianism E) Machiavellianism and narcissism

43)

44) ________ essentially means that people are attracted to and selected by organizations that match their values, and they leave organizations that are not compatible with their personalities.

A) Dark Triad B) Person-organization fit C) Big-Five Personality D) Person-job fit E) Work-life balance

44)

45) Which of the following dimensions is common to both Hofstede and GLOBE? A) Future orientation B) Humane orientation C) Assertiveness D) Power distance E) Gender egalitarianism

45)

46) ________ argued that we can separate values into terminal versus instrumental values.

A) Milton Rokeach B) Sam Donaldson C) Geert Hofstede D) John Holland E) Milton Friedman

46)

47) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the "________" type are practical and prefer routine and order.

A) extraverted B) perceiving C) sensing D) introverted E) feeling

47)

8

48) The Briggs Public Relations firm wants to hire a marketing person who is sociable, gregarious, and assertive. This means, the firm wants to hire a person with the ________ Big Five trait.

A) agreeableness B) introversion C) obsessive-compulsive D) extraversion E) avoidant

48)

49) ________ surveys provide an independent assessment of personality.

A) Cognitive B) Organizational C) Observer-ratings D) Self-report E) Benchmark

49)

50) Which of the following statements best describes the traits of people having a proactive personality?

A) They naturally seem to think about other people a lot, being concerned about their well-being and feelings.

B) They make more rapid decisions and use less information than the low risk takers do.

C) They identify opportunities, show initiative, take action, and persevere until meaningful change occurs.

D) They are more charismatic and thus are more likely to emerge as leaders and display better psychological health.

E) They tend to display their true dispositions and attitudes in every situation and express behavioral inconsistency.

50)

51) When Carlos was in high school, he took the Holland's Vocational Preference Inventory questionnaire. The results showed that he was a "conventional" type. Of the following occupations, which would best fit Carlos's personality?

A) Writer B) News reporter C) Social worker D) Bank teller E) Teacher

51)

52) Ingrid rates autonomy, self-reliance, kindness, and goal-orientation as her most important values.

These are her ________ values.

A) terminal B) instrumental C) genetic D) cognitive E) existence

52)

53) Ankit is easily distracted, disorganized, and unreliable. In the Big Five personality model, this would make him low on ________.

A) extraversion B) emotional stability C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience E) agreeableness

53)

9

54) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the "judging" type ________.

A) rely on their personal values and emotions B) rely on unconscious processes and look at the "big picture" C) are quiet and shy D) are outgoing, sociable, and assertive E) want control and prefer their world to be ordered and structured

54)

55) Which of the following pairs of traits are a part of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)?

A) Organized-disorganized B) Extraverted-introverted C) Unreliable-reliable D) Individualism-collectivism E) Masculine-feminine

55)

56) Miguel is practical and prefers routine and order. He tends to focus on details. In the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), which of the following would Miguel's classification be?

A) Judging B) Sensing C) Thinking D) Intuitive E) Feeling

56)

57) Which of the following personality traits is described as having a lack of concern for others, and a lack of guilt or remorse when actions cause harm?

A) Psychopathy B) Machiavellianism C) Type A personality D) Narcissism E) Self-monitoring

57)

58) You are assembling a team to work on a long-term project to help prepare the organization for sudden and fundamental changes in the marketplace. The only piece of information available to you is the Myers-Briggs Type of each of the applicants. These results are shown below:

58)

Candidate Myers-Briggs Type

Raj

Brenda

Carlos

Drusilla

Juanita

INTJ

ESTJ

ENTP

ESFJ

INFJ

While you have filled most of the slots on the team, you need a person who is flexible to adapt to changes and able to spontaneously come up with solutions. Who would be the best candidate based on their Myers-Briggs Type?

A) Raj B) Drusilla C) Carlos D) Juanita E) Brenda

59) Which of the following is one of the five factors included in the Big Five Model?

A) Extraversion B) Thinking C) Feeling D) Sensing E) Judging

10

59)

60) To Aisha, freedom was the highest value, followed by kindness, self-respect, honesty, and pleasure. This hierarchical list is Aisha's ________.

A) Big Five framework B) personality profile C) needs hierarchy D) value system E) mission statement

60)

61) Which model adds the honesty/humility dimension to the Big Five framework?

A) The Dark Triad B) Hofstede's Value Dimensions C) Leadership Grid D) HEXACO Model E) Wonderlic Test

61)

62) ________ is the sum of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others.

A) Intelligence B) Talent C) Knowledge D) Skill E) Personality

62)

63) Individuals high in self-monitoring ________.

A) show considerable adaptability in adjusting their behavior to external situational factors B) have a grandiose sense of self-importance, require excessive admiration, and are arrogant C) tend to dislike themselves and view themselves as powerless over their environment D) are easily distracted, disorganized, and unreliable E) are pragmatic, maintain emotional distance, and believe ends can justify means

63)

64) John Holland is associated with ________.

A) the GLOBE framework B) person-job fit theory C) MBTI D) cognitive dissonance theory E) person-supervisor fit theory

64)

65) Which of the following terms indicates the degree to which people like or dislike themselves?

A) Authoritarianism B) Self-monitoring C) Agreeableness D) Machiavellianism E) Core self-evaluation

65)

66) With reference to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, a congruent occupation for a person belonging to the "investigative" type would be a(n) ________.

A) farmer B) accountant C) news reporter D) teacher E) lawyer

66)

11

67) You are assembling a team to work on a long-term project which requires creativity, persistence, and formal thinking. The only piece of information available to you is the Myers-Briggs Type of each of the applicants. These results are shown below: Candidate Myers-Briggs Type

Raj

Brenda

Carlos

Drusilla

Juanita

INTJ

ESTJ

ENTP

ESFP

INFP

67)

You need to choose a lead person for the team. This person must be a visionary; combining an original mind with great drive. Who would be the best candidate based on their Myers-Briggs Type?

A) Brenda B) Carlos C) Drusilla D) Juanita E) Raj

68) Which of the following statements is true about people with positive core self-evaluations?

A) They set ambitious goals.

B) They are less popular co-workers than those with negative core self-evaluation.

C) They tend to question their capabilities.

D) They view themselves as powerless over their environment.

E) They lack persistence.

68)

69) You are assembling a team to work on a long-term project. The only piece of information available to you is the Myers-Briggs Type of each of the applicants. These results are shown below:

69)

Candidate Myers-Briggs Type

Raj

Brenda

Carlos

Drusilla

Juanita

INTJ

ESTJ

ESTP

ESFP

ISFP

While you have filled most of the slots on the team, you are looking for a person who can look at the "big picture." Who would be the best candidate based on their Myers-Briggs Type?

A) Brenda B) Carlos C) Juanita D) Drusilla E) Raj

70) ________ is as important for managers as for front-line employees, and among all Big Five traits, this trait is the best overall predictor of job performance.

A) Extraversion B) Openness to experience C) Conscientiousness D) Agreeableness E) Emotional stability

70)

71) You have decided to use Holland's Typology of Personality and Congruent Occupations to help your friends recognize which jobs they would be well-suited for. Mara prefers physical activities that require skill, strength, and coordination, Carlos prefers verbal activities in which there are opportunities to influence others and attain power, Inga prefers activities that involve helping and developing others, Rohan prefers activities that involve thinking, organizing, and understanding, while you (Peter) prefer rule-regulated, orderly, and unambiguous activities. Who might be well-suited to being a lawyer?

A) Rohan B) Peter C) Inga D) Carlos E) Mara

71)

12

72) Which of the following traits is most likely to aid someone in becoming a leader?

A) Machiavellianism B) Narcissism C) Benevolence D) Type A Personality E) Psychopathy

72)

73) Which of the following describes the Dark Triad trait of psychopathy?

A) A lack of concern for others, and a lack of guilt or remorse when actions cause harm B) Sociable, gregarious, and assertive C) A grandiose sense of self-importance, requires excessive admiration, and is arrogant D) Pragmatic, maintains emotional distance, and believes that ends justify means E) Good natured, cooperative, and trusting

73)

74) What does the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classification of "S or N" stand for?

A) Stable/informative B) Sensing/intuitive C) Stable/innovative D) Sensitive/thinking E) Social/thinking

74)

75) As compared to high self-monitors, low self-monitors ________.

A) are less likely to emerge as leaders B) tend to be more mobile in their careers C) receive better performance ratings D) show less commitment to their organizations E) pay closer attention to the behavior of others

75)

76) ________ is/are defined as "the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determine his unique adjustments to his environment."

A) Personality B) Beliefs C) Attitudes D) Values E) Perceptions

76)

77) Why are agreeable people usually less successful in their careers?

A) They don't make many friends.

B) They aren't happy in their lives.

C) They aren't liked by superiors.

D) They are prone to impulsive behavior.

E) They don't negotiate well.

77)

78) Compared to others in his department, Mario is very good at identifying opportunities and showing initiative. Once he senses an opportunity, Mario is also one who will take action and persevere until meaningful change occurs. Mario likely has a(n) ________ personality.

A) judgmental B) intuitive C) sensing D) proactive E) narcissistic

78)

13

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

79) According to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, individuals belonging to the "investigative" type prefer physical activities that require skill, strength, and coordination.

79)

80) All personality traits are uniform across cultures.

80)

81) The personality characteristics that go with John Holland's "conventional" type are sociable, friendly, cooperative, and understanding.

81)

82) Machiavellianism, narcissism, and psychopathy are three of the Big Five traits.

82)

83) According to Hofstede's framework, indulgence versus restraint refers to a national culture attribute that emphasizes enjoying life and having fun versus regulating conduct through strict social norms.

83)

84) Personality refers to the sum of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with the world around them.

84)

85) Prosperity and economic success are examples of instrumental values.

85)

86) Chang manipulates his co-workers, persuades them on a regular basis but is himself not usually persuaded by them. Chang is a high-Mach individual.

86)

87) At work, Gopal's constant refrain is, "I do what I have to do to get ahead." Gopal would be described as high Machiavellian.

87)

88) High self-monitor employees show less commitment to their organizations.

88)

89) Narcissists can be hypersensitive and fragile people.

89)

90) People with a proactive personality need much oversight at work.

90)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) As per John Holland's personality-job fit theory, how would the qualities of an accountant differ from that of a musician?

92) Who are proactive personalities?

93) When Varun did the Myers-Briggs assessment, he found out that he was an ISFP. What does this mean?

94) What similarities and differences do Hofstede's cultural dimensions and the GLOBE framework share?

95) How are terminal values different from instrumental values?

96) Explain the concept of self-monitoring and how it is a powerful predictor of behavior in organizations.

97) Describe the personality characteristic of Machiavellianism.

14

98) Per Hofstede's framework, Malaysia ranked number 1 in power distance while Greece took the top spot in uncertainty avoidance. What does this mean?

99) Describe the Big Five personality dimension of emotional stability and explain how it can predict behavior at work.

100) Compare the characteristics of extraverts with those of introverts.

15

Answer Key Testname: C5

1) C 2) C 3) C 4) B 5) B 6) E 7) E 8) B 9) B 10) D 11) E 12) D 13) A 14) A 15) E 16) E 17) C 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) A 25) C 26) E 27) E 28) C 29) C 30) E 31) D 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) C 38) C 39) D 40) B 41) E 42) E 43) B 44) B 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) D 49) C 50) C 16

Answer Key Testname: C5

51) D 52) B 53) C 54) E 55) B 56) B 57) A 58) C 59) A 60) D 61) D 62) E 63) A 64) B 65) E 66) C 67) E 68) A 69) E 70) C 71) D 72) B 73) A 74) B 75) A 76) A 77) E 78) D 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) The effort to match job requirements with personality characteristics is best articulated in John Holland's personality-job fit theory. Holland presents six personality types and proposes that satisfaction and the propensity to leave a position depend on how well individuals match their personalities to a job. Holland developed the Vocational Preference Inventory questionnaire, which contains 160 occupational titles. Respondents indicate which they like or dislike, and their answers form personality profiles.

Per Holland's typology, "artistic" types are those who prefer ambiguous and unsystematic activities that allow creative expression—qualities suitable for a musician. In contrast, a "conventional" type person prefers rule-regulated, orderly, and unambiguous activities—best suited for an accountant.

17

Answer Key Testname: C5

92) Proactive personalities are people who identify opportunities, show initiative, take action, and persevere until meaningful change occurs, compared to others who generally react to situations. Proactive individuals have many desirable behaviors that organizations covet. They have higher levels of job performance and creativity and do not need much oversight. They tend to be satisfied with their jobs, committed to their organizations, and engaged in their work.

93) The ISFP in Varun's assessment means that he has the following personality traits: a) Introverted: Introverts are quiet and shy. b) Sensing: Sensing types are practical and prefer routine and order, and they focus on details. c) Feeling: Feeling types rely on their personal values and emotions. d) Perceiving: Perceiving types are flexible and spontaneous.

94) The Hofstede framework has six dimensions (if we include indulgence versus restraint that was added recently), while GLOBE has nine dimensions. Some dimensions power distance, individualism/collectivism, uncertainty avoidance, gender differentiation (similar to masculinity/femininity of Hofstede), and future orientation (akin to Hofstede's long-term versus short-term orientation) are the same, although they are defined differently. The main difference between Hofstede's cultural dimensions and the GLOBE framework is that the GLOBE framework added dimensions, such as humane orientation (the degree to which a society rewards individuals for being altruistic, generous, and kind to others) and performance orientation (the degree to which a society encourages and rewards group members for performance improvement). In addition, it also splits Hofstede's collectivism into institutional and in-group collectivism.

95) Values represent basic convictions that "a specific mode of conduct or end-state of existence is personally or socially preferable to an opposite or converse mode of conduct or end-state of existence." Terminal values refer to desirable end-states, such as prosperity, economic success, and freedom. In contrast, instrumental values refer to preferable modes of behavior, or means of achieving the terminal values. Examples of instrumental values are autonomy, self-reliance, and kindness.

96) Along with core self-evaluations and a proactive personality, self-monitoring is an attribute that is a powerful predictor of behavior in organizations. Self-monitoring describes an individual's ability to adjust behavior to external, situational factors. High self-monitors show considerable adaptability in adjusting their behavior to external situational factors. High self-monitors show less commitment to their organizations but receive better performance ratings and are more likely to emerge as leaders. However, they also tend to be more mobile in their careers.

97) The personality characteristic of Machiavellianism (often abbreviated Mach) is named after Niccolo Machiavelli, who wrote in the sixteenth century on how to gain and use power. An individual high in Machiavellianism is pragmatic, maintains emotional distance, and believes ends can justify means. "If it works, use it" is consistent with a high-Mach perspective. High Machs manipulate more, win more, are persuaded less, and persuade others more than low Machs.

They are more likely to act aggressively and engage in CWBs as well.

98) According to Hofstede, power distance is the degree to which people accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally. A high rating on this dimension (as exhibited by Malaysia) means large inequalities of power and wealth exist and are tolerated in the culture, as in a class or caste system that discourages upward mobility. Uncertainty avoidance refers to the degree to which people in a country prefer structured over unstructured situations. In cultures scoring high on this dimension (like Greece), people have increased anxiety about uncertainty and ambiguity and use laws and controls to reduce uncertainty.

99) The emotional stability dimension, often labeled by its converse, neuroticism, taps a person's ability to withstand stress. People with positive emotional stability tend to be calm, self-confident, and secure. Those with high negative scores tend to be nervous, anxious, depressed, and insecure.

People who score high on emotional stability are happier than those who score low. Of the Big Five traits, emotional stability is most strongly related to life satisfaction, job satisfaction, and low stress levels. This is probably true because high scorers are more likely to be positive and optimistic in their thinking and experience fewer negative emotions.

People low on emotional stability are hypervigilant (looking for problems or impending signs of danger) and are especially vulnerable to the physical and psychological effects of stress. In the work place, emotionally stable employees offer less negative thinking and fewer negative emotions. They are less hypervigilant.

18

Answer Key Testname: C5

100) Both the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) and the Big Five Model identify the personality type of extraverts versus introverts. According to the MBTI, extraverted individuals are outgoing, sociable, and assertive, while introverts are quiet and shy. In the Big Five Model, the extraversion dimension captures our relational approach toward the social world. Extraverts tend to be gregarious, assertive, and sociable. They experience more positive emotions than do introverts, and they more freely express these feelings. On the other hand, introverts (those with low extraversion) tend to be more thoughtful, reserved, timid, and quiet.

19

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Meg has exceeded her budget by at least $200 every month for the last three months. After recognizing that this is a problem, she decides to use the rational decision-making model to decide what to do. What should be the next step she should take, if she follows this model?

A) Evaluate different ways that she could use to either reduce her expenses or increase her income.

B) Come up with different ways that would either reduce her expenses or increase her income.

C) Determine what criteria she needs to take into account when making her decision.

D) Choose a method to cut her expenses.

E) Implement some other method of budgeting.

1)

2) Johannes loves European cars. All the cars that he has owned were European models and his last three cars were BMWs. While he has difficulty remembering his co-worker's names, he has no trouble remembering the names of his colleagues who drive BMWs. What is this common shortcut in judging others called?

A) Selective perception B) Halo effect C) Contrast effect D) Self-serving bias E) Stereotyping

2)

3) Which of the following is not an example of individual differences that influence decision making?

A) General mental ability B) Cultural differences C) Historical precedent D) Gender E) Personality

3)

4) In the real world, what do people typically do when making a decision about a problem?

A) Follow the rational decision-making model B) Obtain complete information about all possible alternatives before making a decision C) Seek the optimal decision D) Evaluate all the possible options in an unbiased and objective manner E) Find a satisfactory and sufficient solution

4)

5) Darci gets back to her workstation late each day by about fifteen minutes. How would the attribution theory describe Darci's behavior?

A) It shows reliability.

B) It shows similarity.

C) It shows consistency.

D) It shows consensus.

E) It shows distinctiveness.

5)

1

6) Tom knows that the title insurance company made a mistake on his property title. Because of their mistake, his neighbor now has access to an easement road through the 25 acres located at the back of his property. He can't use the acreage for pasture, because his neighbor insists that the gates remain open. The title company has offered a $40,000 settlement. Tom has decided to take the settlement rather than possibly lose in court if he were to sue the title company for more money.

Tom's decision is based on ________.

A) availability bias B) escalation of commitment C) hindsight bias D) randomness error E) risk aversion

6)

7) Your boss never gives you the benefit of the doubt. When you arrived late from lunch, he assumed that you had simply taken too much time. He never considered that the elevators were not working that day and the fact that you had to walk up 10 flights of stairs. Your boss is guilty of ________.

A) selective perception B) the fundamental attribution error C) stereotyping D) a self-serving bias E) inconsistency

7)

8) Which of the following types of biases in decision making represents the tendency of decision makers to prefer a sure thing?

A) Escalation of commitment B) Bounded rationality C) Hindsight bias D) Risk aversion E) Selective perception

8)

9) You are part of a group, making a decision about whether it is appropriate to discontinue research on a new drug. This new drug would save lives, but it is uncertain whether you can develop it within a reasonable time frame and at a reasonable cost. Your firm has already spent a small fortune on this drug. You have gathered so much information in preparation to making the decision that you are unable to sort the good information from the superfluous data. You just feel that this project has merit. What form of decision making are you using if you decide to continue the project because you feel that the project has merit?

A) Rational B) Intuitive C) Bounded rationality D) Optimization E) Satisficing

9)

10) According to attribution theory, if a behavior scores ________, we tend to attribute it to internal causes.

A) high on consensus B) high on traceability C) low on consistency D) low on distinctiveness E) low on flexibility

10)

2

11) Given a problem, the solution is rarely clear at the outset. We need time to learn more and to process what we have learned. This step in creative behavior is called ________.

A) idea generation B) information gathering C) selective perception D) idea evaluation E) problem formulation

11)

12) Robbie and Carlos are both coaches for a city youth baseball league which has recently experienced a five-game losing streak. Robbie is concerned that the team is not practicing enough while Carlos thinks that it is just a slump. The discrepancy within their thoughts is explained by ________.

A) intuition B) bounded rationality C) perceptual issue D) halo effect E) escalation of commitment

12)

13) Which of the following statements is true regarding the rational decision-making model?

A) The rational decision-making model takes into consideration the limited information-processing capability of individuals.

B) The rational decision-making model assumes that an individual is able to identify all the relevant options in an unbiased manner.

C) Rational decision-making models involve constructing simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity.

D) The rational decision-making process is an unconscious one created from distilled experience.

E) The rational decision-making model involves satisficing; seek solutions that are satisfactory and sufficient.

13)

14) Gene is regarded by his peers as an extremely creative designer of watercraft. He attributes much of his success to his family: he was raised by a traditional boat builder and from a very early age was surrounded by boats and the people who made them. To what element of creativity does Gene attribute his success?

A) Intuitiveness B) External locus of control C) Creative thinking skills D) Expertise E) Task motivation

14)

15) William believes Carlos is a hardworking individual because Carlos always dresses nicely and wears well-tailored suits. Which short-cut is William using to judge Carlos?

A) Self-serving bias B) Contrast effect C) Framing effect D) Impact bias E) Halo effect

15)

3

16) Jorge heads a venture capital fund that provides seed capital to entrepreneurs. In evaluating venture proposals, Jorge decides to avoid investing in ventures where the entrepreneur is overly optimistic about the venture's prospects because such ventures tend to be less successful. Which of the following systematic biases and errors in judgment is Jorge referring to?

A) Confirmation bias B) Hindsight bias C) Availability bias D) Anchoring bias E) Overconfidence bias

16)

17) One of the core problems that created the financial meltdown of 2008 was that large loans were made to individuals who could not repay them, and the finance companies purchased these bad debts without realizing how poor the prospects of repayment were. Which of the following decision-making errors was made by the lenders and borrowers?

A) Hindsight bias B) Anchoring bias C) Confirmation bias D) Availability bias E) Overconfidence bias

17)

18) DeSean always turns in reports with punctuation errors. The reports of the three other employees on the QA report writing team always produce grammatically clean reports. DeSean is about to turn in another report, and his manager has already noticed errors. DeSean demonstrates ________.

His sloppy reports can be attributed to an ________ cause.

A) high distinctiveness, high consensus, and high consistency; internal B) low distinctiveness, low consensus, and high consistency; external C) low distinctiveness, high consensus, and high consistency; internal D) high distinctiveness, low consensus, and high consistency; external E) low distinctiveness, low consensus, and high consistency; internal

18)

19) Aisha submitted a formal complaint to OSHA about unsafe work conditions in her company's warehouse. Aisha is a ________.

A) creative thinker B) humanitarian C) utilitarian thinker D) judge E) whistle-blower

19)

20) While ________ decision-making models have merit, they do not always describe how people make decisions.

A) rational B) intuitive C) sequential D) bounded rationality E) convolutional

20)

4

21) According to the attribution theory, if a behavior scores ________, we tend to attribute it to internal causes.

A) high on consensus B) high on cognizance C) high on distinctiveness D) high on superficiality E) high on consistency

21)

22) "All men like sports. DeSean is a man and so he should like sports." What is this type of shortcut to judging others called?

A) Stereotyping B) Framing effect C) Distinction bias D) Bandwagon effect E) Confirmation bias

22)

23) Which of the following is not an example of externally caused behavior?

A) An employee is late to work because of bad traffic.

B) An employee was late to work because the building elevators were malfunctioning.

C) An employee is late because of a flat tire.

D) An employee is late to work because the parking lot was full due to a construction issue.

E) An employee was late to work because he had overslept.

23)

24) What is the last step in the rational decision-making model?

A) Defining the problem B) Collecting relevant data C) Developing alternatives D) Selecting the best alternative E) Weighing the decision criteria

24)

25) Loud people are more likely to be noticed in a group than quiet ones. So, too, are extremely attractive or unattractive individuals. Which of the following statements best explains the reason behind this fact?

A) The relationship of a target to its background influences our perception of the target.

B) The time at which we see an object can influence our perception of the object.

C) Our motives and expectations affect our perception of a target.

D) Our perception of reality depends on our personality.

E) Our perception of reality depends on our past experiences.

25)

26) Which of the following statements is true regarding escalation of commitment?

A) It refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence it is wrong.

B) It indicates a tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information.

C) It indicates that we seek out information that reaffirms our past choices, and we discount information that contradicts them.

D) It indicates our tendency to base judgments on information readily available.

E) It indicates our tendency to draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic, such as intelligence.

26)

5

27) What are the three generally accepted constructs of decision making each of us employs to make determinations?

A) Distinctiveness, consensus, and consistency B) Utilitarianism, rights, and justice C) Rational decision making, bounded rationality, and intuition D) Escalation of commitment, risk aversion, and hindsight bias E) Expertise, creative-thinking skills, and intrinsic task motivation

27)

28) While negotiating salary with your prospective employer, if you suggest an initial target salary of $55,000, your employer will consider $50,000 to $60,000 a reasonable range for negotiation, but if you mention $55,650, your employer is more likely to consider $55,000 to $56,000 the range of likely values for negotiation. In this example your employer is exhibiting the ________ bias.

A) hindsight B) confirmation C) impact D) anchoring E) availability

28)

29) When an employee says, "I've got rules and directives covering almost every decision I make and so my job doesn't come with much freedom of choice," what kind of constraint to decision making is the employee referring to?

A) Peer pressure B) Formal regulations C) Reward systems D) Performance evaluation systems E) Personality

29)

30) Which of the following terms best describes the tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others?

A) Selective perception B) Overconfidence C) Fundamental attribution error D) Halo effect E) Randomness error

30)

31) Which ethical yardstick is consistent with goals such as rationality, efficiency, productivity, and high profits?

A) The rationality approach B) The justice approach C) The rights approach D) Deonance E) Utilitarianism

31)

32) A comedian once said that Robin Williams, because he was so funny, was a tough act to follow.

What is the comedian trying to avoid here?

A) The projection effect B) The fundamental attribution error C) The stereotyping effect D) The halo effect E) The contrast effect

32)

6

33) Aisha has already presented two excellent reports. The third report she has just presented is clearly not as good as the first two reports, yet she is given the same high grade as before. What shortcut has the teacher used in this case?

A) The hindsight bias B) The framing effect C) Stereotyping D) The contrast effect E) The halo effect

33)

34) We use a number of shortcuts when we judge others. Which of the following is a shortcut used to judge others?

A) Stereotyping B) Consensus C) Self-serving bias D) Consistency E) Distinctiveness

34)

35) Attribution theory suggests that when we observe an individual's behavior, we attempt to determine whether it was internally or externally caused. That determination, however, depends largely on three factors. Which of the following is one of these three factors?

A) Intuition B) Anchoring C) Rationality D) Consistency E) Stereotyping

35)

36) On the first day of class, you came dressed in a business suit while the remainder of your classmates came dressed in casual clothing or their workout clothes. You also sat in the first row and volunteered to answer the questions the professor asked. You also made it a habit to ask questions to your professor after every class after all the other students had left, just when the professor was getting ready to leave the room. All semester you have noticed that your professor always seems to talk to you before or after class and that you always seem to get a little more feedback on your papers than your classmates. Why is this?

A) Your professor thinks you are a more serious student.

B) Your professor is hitting on you.

C) You are sucking up to your professor.

D) There is no theoretical explanation for this.

E) Your professor feels sorry for you because you are a social outcast.

36)

37) We don't evaluate a person in isolation. Our reaction to a person is influenced by other persons we have recently encountered. This is known as the ________.

A) confirmation bias B) contrast effect C) halo effect D) framing effect E) impact bias

37)

7

38) When we take a simplified approach to decision making by perceiving and interpreting the essential features of the problem without capturing its complexity and by behaving rationally within these boundaries, we are using ________.

A) common sense B) rationality C) optimal decision making D) bounded rationality E) intuitive decision making

38)

39) ________ theory tries to explain the ways in which we judge people differently, depending on the meaning we attribute to a given behavior.

A) Two factor B) Hierarchy of needs C) Acquired needs D) ERG E) Attribution

39)

40) The ________ bias is typically associated with negotiation.

A) confirmation B) anchoring C) distinction D) hindsight E) availability

40)

41) Lamar is of the opinion that people who wear flashy clothes are superficial thinkers. He often thinks that people wearing flashy clothes don't think deeply about things, even when other observers can point out examples of flashy dressers who are thoughtful. What factor is affecting Lamar's perception in this case?

A) His expectations B) His motives C) His personality D) His interests E) His attitude

41)

42) You have heard that the teacher believes that men perform better in oral presentations than women. What shortcut has the teacher used in this case?

A) The hindsight bias B) Stereotyping C) The self-serving bias D) The contrast effect E) The halo effect

42)

43) The tendency of Hollywood studios to continue the production of a star-studded, big budget movie that goes out of control and over budget is an example of what error in decision making?

A) Selective perception B) Availability bias C) Hindsight bias D) Escalation of commitment E) Satisficing

43)

8

44) With reference to decision making, satisficing involves ________.

A) evaluating all possible alternatives objectively B) seeking solutions that are merely sufficient C) using an unconscious decision-making process created from distilled experience D) identifying all possible alternative decisions E) selecting the best option with the highest utility

44)

45) Lakeesha and Juanita started working at a human resources firm as recruiters on the same day and have the same position. Both women have been meeting their placement goals and are both very well liked within the organization. Because Juanita lives almost 60 miles away, she sometimes works 9-6 to avoid traffic rather than the 8-5 that Lakeesha works. Rohan, their supervisor, awarded Lakeesha the "Employee of the Month" award for her outstanding work. Which factor shaped and distorted perception in this situation?

A) Perceiver: Rohan thinks because Juanita arrives at 9 that she must not be working a full day.

B) Perceiver: Juanita thinks she is entitled to special privilege because she is meeting her goals.

C) Situation: Since the office opens at 8, Lakeesha is more conscientious than Juanita.

D) Target: Lakeesha arrives on time so people think she is doing her job better than Juanita.

E) Situation: Since Juanita travels the farthest, she is actually more dedicated than Lakeesha.

45)

46) Jose talks softly and has a winning smile. According to the halo effect, which of the following are we most likely to ascribe to Jose?

A) He is always punctual.

B) He is highly narcissistic.

C) He is a nice person.

D) He has a good home life.

E) He has low self-esteem.

46)

47) ________ is the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.

A) Cognitive dissonance B) Social verification C) Emotional labor D) Environmental analysis E) Perception

47)

48) Ming is known to be tardy to social events but is always punctual to work meetings. Per attribution theory, which element of attribution theory does Ming's behavior exhibit?

A) Stability B) Distinctiveness C) Flexibility D) Continuity E) Integrity

48)

49) ________ decision making is the least rational way of making decisions.

A) Halo effect B) Contrast effect C) Intuitive D) Selective perception E) Cognitive

49)

9

50) In the ethical yardstick of ________, decisions are made solely on the basis of their outcomes, ideally to provide the greatest good for the greatest number.

A) anchoring bias B) bounded rationality C) selective perception D) utilitarianism E) self-serving bias

50)

51) For many people, a 50-50 flip of a coin for $100 might not be worth as much as a sure promise of $50, even though the gamble is mathematically worth twice as much as the sure thing. This is an example of ________.

A) risk aversion B) availability bias C) self-serving bias D) confirmation bias E) selective perception

51)

52) As a boss, Juan is known for attributing his own success to internal factors. At the same time, Juan's subordinates know that he is likely to blame them and other external factors for failures. What is Juan's tendency called?

A) Stereotyping B) Selective perception C) Fundamental attribution error D) Self-serving bias E) Distinction bias

52)

53) Creativity is positively linked to each of these traits except ________.

A) intelligence B) risk-taking C) ethics D) personality E) expertise

53)

54) Of the five organizational constraints of decision making, which is most likely to be affected by risk aversion?

A) Reward system B) Time constraints C) Formal regulation D) Performance evaluations E) Historical precedents

54)

55) We tend to accept at face value information that is consistent with our preconceived views, while we are critical and skeptical of information that challenges these views. This represents the ________ bias.

A) impact B) hindsight C) self-serving D) confirmation E) distinction

55)

10

56) Which of the following statements best represents a horns effect?

A) When we make judgments about the behavior of other people, we tend to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal or personal factors.

B) We tend to draw a positive impression about an individual based on a single characteristic, such as intelligence or sociability.

C) We tend to attribute our own successes to internal factors, but we tend to put the blame for our failure on external factors.

D) We tend to judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he or she belongs.

E) We tend to draw a negative impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic, such as tardiness or appearance.

56)

57) Which of the following statements is true regarding perception?

A) Our perception of reality is independent of our past experiences.

B) Our perception of reality can be different from the objective reality.

C) The context of the situation in which the perception is made has little effect on our perception of reality.

D) Our perception of reality is independent of our personality.

E) We form a perception of a target by looking at it in isolation.

57)

58) The three criteria for making ethical decisions are ________.

A) historical precedents, reward, and justice B) rewards, regulations, and time orientation C) utilitarianism, rights, and justice D) utilitarianism, creativity, and rights E) historical precedents, rights, and utilitarianism

58)

59) Which of the following traits does a decision maker need to have if they are to fully appraise a problem and even see problems that others are not aware of?

A) Rationality B) Intuition C) Creativity D) Individuality E) Conceptual style

59)

60) Attribution theory uses three factors to determine if a person's behavior is caused internally or externally. One of these three factors is consensus. It indicates if ________.

A) the individual displays different behaviors in different situations B) the person scores high on conscientiousness C) the individual responds the same way over time D) the person has high propensity to defer to others E) everyone who faces a similar situation responds in the same way

60)

11

61) Which of the following statements is true regarding a contrast effect?

A) The contrast effect indicates a tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information.

B) Our tendency to attribute our success to internal factors and blame our failure on external factors is called the contrast effect.

C) A person appears more appealing than normal when compared with a person of less appeal due to the contrast effect.

D) If we think that women won't relocate for a promotion, we are using a shortcut to judge all women and it is called the contrast effect.

E) The contrast effect states that we tend to judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he or she belongs.

61)

62) Inga started and completed her term paper the night before it was due. She collected data from the first page of her Google search rather than go over to the library and do a detailed search. What is the common type of bias her paper is likely to suffer from?

A) Hindsight B) Self-serving C) Availability D) Confirmation E) Distinction

62)

63) Many of our perceptions are formed by ________ and small ________ that have little supporting evidence.

A) stereotypes; directives B) directives; targets C) targets; first impressions D) first impressions; cues E) cues; stereotypes

63)

64) Decision making occurs as a reaction to a ________.

A) problem B) judgment C) perception D) bias E) context

64)

65) Two people see the same thing at the same time yet interpret it differently. In this situation, factors that operate to shape their dissimilar perceptions reside in the ________.

A) situation B) perceivers C) target D) context E) timing

65)

66) When the situation has not changed, which of the following factors influences perception?

A) Satisficing B) Selective perception C) Stereotyping D) Target E) Self-serving bias

66)

12

67) The statement, "I never make important decisions on Friday the 13th" is an example of ________.

A) overconfidence bias B) selective perception C) randomness error D) intuitive decision making E) bounded rationality

67)

68) Megan's colleagues know that while she would accept positive feedback about her work, she would always reject any negative feedback. Megan is guilty of ________.

A) confirmation bias B) attribution bias C) fundamental attribution error D) self-serving bias E) distinction bias

68)

69) Priya's rating in a job interview is high in contrast to the candidate who was interviewed directly before her, who was rated extremely low. In this case, Priya's high rating can be partially attributed to the ________.

A) self-serving bias B) bandwagon effect C) fundamental attribution error D) contrast effect E) confirmation bias

69)

70) It was Marisol's first day at work. At first, she was very nervous, but when she was introduced to her cubicle neighbor, Hanna, she was reassured by Hanna's soothing smile. Marisol thought that a person with such a beautiful smile could not be bad, and that she would enjoy having her in such close proximity. Which of the following concepts best describes this example?

A) Self-serving bias B) Fundamental attribution error C) Contrast effect D) Horns effect E) Halo effect

70)

71) Juanita is the manager of a development group in a large computer software company. She has decided that it is important for her group to understand the many ways that ethical decisions can be made and she is designing a training program on the subject of ethics. Since she wishes to emphasize the importance of making decisions solely based on their outcomes, ideally to provide the greatest good for all, the focus of her program will be on ________.

A) justice B) service C) privilege D) utilitarianism E) rights

71)

13

72) Which of the following is not an example of an organizational constraint that influences decision-making?

A) General mental ability B) Formal regulations C) Historical precedents D) Performance evaluation E) Reward systems

72)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

73) Decision making tends to be generally objective.

73)

74) Overconfidence bias is the tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust to subsequent information.

74)

75) The characteristics of the target affect what we perceive.

75)

76) Individual differences such as personality create deviations from the rational decision-making model.

76)

77) The ethical yardstick of deonance proposes making decisions solely based on their outcomes, ideally to provide the greatest good for all.

77)

78) The halo effect is when we draw a negative impression about an individual from a single characteristic.

78)

79) If everyone who faces a similar situation responds in the same way, we can say the behavior shows consistency.

79)

80) People are generally perceptive about their own abilities.

80)

81) The normative decision-making model describes how individuals should behave in order to maximize some outcome.

81)

82) Cognitive dissonance theory tries to explain the ways we judge people differently depending on the meaning we attribute to their behavior.

82)

83) If you suggest a salary of $45,000, your interviewer will consider $40,000 to $50,000 a reasonable range for negotiation, but if you mention $45,550, your interviewer is more likely to consider $45,000 to $46,000 the range of likely values. This is an example of anchoring bias.

83)

84) Bounded rationality allows the decision maker to appraise and understand problems fully, including seeing problems others cannot see.

84)

85) The statement, "employees feel as if they ought to behave in a certain way, as laid out in rules, laws, norms, and moral principles," illustrates the deonance standpoint.

85)

86) The rational decision-making model assumes the decision maker has complete information, can identify all relevant options without bias, and chooses the option with the highest utility.

86)

14

87) Intelligence is related to creativity.

87)

88) Confirmation bias refers to our staying with a decision even if there is clear evidence it is wrong.

88)

89) One of the factors that shapes and sometimes distorts perception is the situation in which the perception is made.

89)

90) Our perception and judgment of a person's actions are influenced by the assumptions we make about that person's state of mind.

90)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

91) With the help of an example, point out the difference between the horns effect and stereotyping.

92) What do we do when we "satisfice?" How is it related to decision making?

93) You are in your senior year and, unfortunately, your GPA is a very low 1.87 (on a scale of 4.0), you hate going to class, and your internship makes you want to purposely catch food poisoning just so you can miss work. During a visit with your academic advisor, it is suggested that you might want to change your major. Why do you not change your major?

94) Discuss some of the errors in perceptual judgment made by interviewers in job interviews.

95) Explain how stereotyping can cause problems for some managers when making ethical decisions. Provide an example.

96) What is the distinction between the halo and horns effects?

97) What factors that operate to shape and sometimes distort perception reside in the perceiver, what factors reside in the target being perceived, and what factors reside in the context of the situation in which the perception is made?

98) Contrast the fundamental attribution error and the self-serving bias.

99) What is escalation of commitment?

100) Why is risk aversion considered a bias in decision making?

15

Answer Key Testname: C6

1) C 2) A 3) C 4) E 5) C 6) E 7) B 8) D 9) B 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) E 16) E 17) E 18) E 19) E 20) A 21) E 22) A 23) E 24) D 25) A 26) A 27) C 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) E 32) E 33) E 34) A 35) D 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) E 40) B 41) A 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) A 46) C 47) E 48) B 49) C 50) D 16

Answer Key Testname: C6

51) A 52) D 53) C 54) A 55) D 56) E 57) B 58) C 59) C 60) E 61) C 62) C 63) D 64) E 65) B 66) D 67) C 68) D 69) D 70) E 71) D 72) A 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) Both the horns effect and stereotyping are shortcuts used in judging others. In the horns effect, we draw a negative impression from a single characteristic. For example, Tom is exhibiting the horns effect when he concludes that Ana is an unmotivated, lazy, and unintelligent individual just because she is tardy to work. In contrast, when we judge someone based on our perception of the group they belong to, we are stereotyping. If Tom concludes that Ana is an unmotivated, lazy, and unintelligent person because she is a woman (because he categorizes all women to be unmotivated, lazy, and unintelligent), then he is stereotyping.

17

Answer Key Testname: C6

92) The rational decision-making model assumes the decision maker has complete information, can identify all relevant options without bias, and chooses the option with the highest utility. However, most decisions do not follow this model. People are usually content to find an acceptable or reasonable solution to a problem rather than an optimal one.

When we cannot solve complex problems with full rationality, we operate within the confines of bounded rationality.

Satisficing, or seeking solutions that are merely sufficient, i.e., "good enough," is an outcome of the bounded rationality model of decision making.

93) Responses to this question will vary but should feature a discussion regarding escalation of commitment. The student should discuss elements of the money that has been spent, the time that has been used, and the effort which has been expended on earning their current degree.

94) Interviewers make perceptual judgments that may be inaccurate. They generally draw early impressions that very quickly become entrenched. Research shows that we form impressions of others within a tenth of a second, based on our first glance at them. This is the halo effect. Interviewers might draw conclusions about a candidate based on the group (such as religion, ethnicity) to which the candidate belongs. This is known as stereotyping. If these first impressions are negative, they tend to be more heavily weighted in the interview than if that same information came out later. Most interviewers' decisions change very little after the first 4 or 5 minutes of the interview. This represents anchoring bias. Also, candidates are generally evaluated by comparing them with the previous candidates. This is known as the contrast effect.

95) Because one of the criteria of ethical decision making is to focus on individual rights, the use of stereotyping would affect the ethical decision-making process. The focus on rights calls on individuals to make decisions consistent with fundamental liberties and privileges as set forth in documents like the Bill of Rights. An emphasis on rights in decision making means respecting and protecting the basic rights of individuals. If a manager engages in stereotyping, for example, believing that all women are less productive than men, he may be inclined to base organizational decisions on this stereotype. When an important project or promotion comes up, he would always be inclined to reward men over women.

96) Shortcuts for judging others often allow us to make accurate perceptions rapidly and provide valid data for making predictions. However, they can and do sometimes result in significant distortions. The halo and horns effects are instances of such shortcuts. When we draw a positive impression about an individual based on a single characteristic, such as intelligence, sociability, or appearance, a halo effect is operating. In contrast, the horns effect is when we draw a negative impression from a single characteristic.

97) A number of factors operate to shape and sometimes distort perception. These factors can reside in the perceiver, in the object or target being perceived, or in the context of the situation in which the perception is made. When an individual looks at a target and attempts to interpret what he or she sees, that interpretation is heavily influenced by personal characteristics of the individual perceiver. Personal characteristics affecting perception include his or her attitudes, personality, motives, interests, past experiences, and expectations. Characteristics of the target being observed can affect what is perceived. The relationship of a target to its background influences perception, as does our tendency to group close things and similar things together. The context in which we see objects or events is also important. The time at which an object or event is seen can influence attention, as can location, light, heat, or any number of other factors.

98) When we make judgments about the behavior of other people, we have a tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal or personal factors. This is called the fundamental attribution error. There is also a tendency for individuals to attribute their own successes to internal factors, such as ability or effort, while putting the blame for failure on external factors, such as bad luck or unproductive co-workers.

This is called the self-serving bias.

99) Escalation of commitment refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence it's wrong. Individuals escalate commitment to a failing course of action when they view themselves as responsible for the failure. In fact, people who carefully gather and consider information consistent with the rational decision-making model are more likely to engage in escalation of commitment than those who spend less time thinking about their choices. Perhaps they have invested so much time and energy into making their decisions that they have convinced themselves they're taking the right course of action and don't update their knowledge in the face of new information.

18

Answer Key Testname: C6

100) Systematic biases and errors can creep into the judgment of decision makers. One of them is risk aversion. Risk aversion is the tendency to prefer a sure gain of a moderate amount over a riskier outcome, even if the riskier outcome might have a higher expected payoff. The framing of a decision has an effect on whether or not people will engage in risk averse behavior. When decisions are framed positively (such as a potential gain of fifty dollars), people will be more risk averse. In contrast, when the decision is framed in a negative manner (such as a loss of fifty dollars), people will engage in riskier behaviors.

19

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) In equity theory, individuals assess the ________.

A) cost-benefit ratio B) efficiency-effectiveness trade-off C) quality of outcome D) quantity-quality trade-off E) outcome-input ratio

1)

2) What can be an unintended result of goal-setting?

A) Employees might improve their performance.

B) Employees might become hyper competitive.

C) Employees might bond together.

D) Employees might act in unethical manners.

E) All options may be an unintended result of goal setting.

2)

3) A local church is made up of people who are very different in their lifestyles and their stages of life.

Mary is a 23-year-old single parent who earns the minimum wage. Jonathan is 60 years old, extremely wealthy, and works because he enjoys it. Jane is a 45-year-old lawyer who earns well and is well-respected in her profession. She is extremely career-oriented and is proud of her achievements. Which of the following do you think would motivate Jonathan the most?

A) Greater career growth B) More vacation time C) A greater sense of inner peace D) More responsibility E) More money

3)

4) Jessica does not believe that the methods and processes for determining salary increases in her company are fair. As per this example, Jessica believes that there is a problem with the firm's ________ justice.

A) procedural B) distributive C) associative D) interpersonal E) outcome

4)

5) With reference to the expectancy theory, which of the following examples indicates a weak rewards-personal goals relationship?

A) The employee expects a poor appraisal as he believes that his manager does not like him.

B) The employee wants to be relocated to the Paris office but instead is transferred to Singapore.

C) The organization's appraisal system assesses nonperformance factors such as creativity and initiative.

D) The organizational rewards are based on seniority.

E) The employee lacks the skill required for the desired performance level.

5)

1

6) Which of the following theories suggests that extrinsic rewards will reduce intrinsic interest in a task?

A) Motivation-hygiene theory B) Theory of needs C) Two-factory theory D) Expectancy theory E) Cognitive evaluation theory

6)

7) In a down economy, the only job that Raymond could find was that of a plant supervisor at an auto component manufacturer. The plant is located in an old, run-down building with an antiquated heating system. The work itself is tedious, in that it involves doing repetitious things on an assembly line. The labor-management relationship is poor and the only interaction that appears to happen between shift supervisors and employees is when supervisors reprimand workers for tardiness or sloppy work. Raymond is trying to improve this situation with the help of Herzberg's two-factor theory. He has decided that his first step should be to improve the hygiene factors.

Which of the following should Raymond attend to first?

A) An "employee of the month" scheme B) The working conditions in the plant C) Forming employee social groups D) Growth opportunities for employees E) Promotion prospects for employees

7)

8) Which of the following statements is true according to the two-factor theory?

A) The hygiene factors tend to be intrinsic factors.

B) Adequate hygiene factors ensure that people are not dissatisfied.

C) Recognition is a hygiene factor.

D) Factors that lead to job satisfaction are extrinsic factors.

E) Hygiene factors lead to job satisfaction.

8)

9) After receiving a new position, you are told that you will spend the first three days in training.

While you expected to be sitting in the conference room being told what to do, you arrive your first day to find you will be following Puja around and watching her do the job you will be expected to do. On which theory is this type of training based?

A) Operant Conditioning B) Equity Theory C) Social-Learning Theory D) Pygmalion Effect E) Reinforcement Theory

9)

10) When thinking about the progression of individual effort leading into individual performance, we see that an objective performance evaluation system plays a large role. Which individual element also plays an important role?

A) Personality B) Ability C) Ethics D) Needs E) Opportunity

10)

2

11) The question, "What do people want from their jobs" is at the heart of ________ theory.

A) hierarchy of needs B) two-factor C) goal-setting D) self-determination E) cognitive evaluation

11)

12) Which of the following is a self-regulation strategy that involves striving for goals through advancement and accomplishment?

A) Prevention focus B) Actualization focus C) Locus of control focus D) Efficacy focus E) Promotion focus

12)

13) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following is at the bottom of the hierarchy?

A) Social B) Physiological C) Safety D) Self-actualization E) Esteem

13)

14) In Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, hunger and thirst would fall under ________ needs.

A) physiological B) safety-security C) esteem D) social-belongingness E) self-actualization

14)

15) Jim and Pam are two salespeople at The Magna Corporation. Pam is a great salesperson who always overshoots her targets, while Jim is a perennial underachiever when it comes to achieving targets. In an effort to improve his prospects, Jim shadows Pam during her sales calls. This increases his confidence that he can close more sales too. Which of the following ways of increasing self-efficacy is represented by this example?

A) Enactive mastery B) Focused training C) Verbal persuasion D) Arousal E) Vicarious modeling

15)

16) ________ argues that behavior follows stimuli in a relatively unthinking manner.

A) Self-fulfilling prophecy B) Cognitive dissonance C) Social-learning theory D) The Pygmalion effect E) Behaviorism

16)

3

17) McClelland's theory of needs concentrates on which three needs?

A) Affiliation, control, and security B) Achievement, growth, and security C) Achievement, power, and affiliation D) Control, status, and affiliation E) Self-actualization, stability, and affiliation

17)

18) The policy of Sam's calculus instructor is that when he decides to give one student the chance for extra credit work, he opens up the same opportunity to all his students. Sam's instructor's behavior is an attempt at ________.

A) interpersonal justice B) distributive justice C) punitive justice D) intrinsic justice E) procedural justice

18)

19) A recent large-scale study suggested that justice perceptions are more important to all of the following values except ________.

A) uncertainty-avoidance B) feminine C) individualism D) low power-distance E) collectivism

19)

20) Job ________ refers to the investment of an employee's physical, cognitive, and emotional energies into job performance.

A) enhancement B) engagement C) enrichment D) description E) posting

20)

21) ________ suggests that people learn to behave a certain way to either get something they want or to avoid something they do not want.

A) Operant conditioning B) Enactive mastery C) Cognitive dissonance D) The Pygmalion effect E) Self-fulfilling prophecy

21)

22) Which theory would be associated with a statement such as ,"Removing dissatisfying characteristics from a job does not necessarily make the job satisfying; managers would be placating, rather than motivating, the employees"?

A) Two-factor theory B) Theory of needs C) Cognitive evaluation theory D) Hierarchy of needs theory E) Self-determination theory

22)

4

23) You manage a department of five employees. You have identified that Joe has high need for achievement, Mary has high need for power, and Tim has high need for affiliation. Sarah scored high on the need for power and low on the need for affiliation. Doug scores low on both need for power and need for affiliation. Which of these five employees is most suitable for taking on your responsibilities when you are on a vacation?

A) Doug B) Sarah C) Joe D) Mary E) Tim

23)

24) Among students at Northern University, the perception of Professor Matthews's tests is that they are extremely hard because the questions are trickily worded and usually about material not explicitly covered in class. The conclusion is that no matter how hard they prepare for Professor Matthews' tests, they are likely to get a poor score. Professor Matthews' students are most likely to perceive that there is a problem in the ________ relationship.

A) personal goal-self actualization B) rewards-personal goals C) effort-performance D) performance-achievement E) performance-awareness

24)

25) Gloria thinks that she is paid less than other workers in her division and feels extremely resentful.

She starts taking long breaks and generally wasting time. Her actions result due to a perceived ________ injustice.

A) associative B) distributive C) interpersonal D) interactive E) procedural

25)

26) The concept of self-concordance proposes that ________.

A) employees inherently dislike work and must therefore be directed or even coerced into performing it B) individuals who pursue goals because of an intrinsic interest are more likely to attain their goals C) extrinsic rewards will reduce intrinsic interest in a task D) people with high achievement need tend to be the best general managers E) the factors that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction

26)

27) The ________ effect is a form of self-fulfilling prophecy.

A) pseudocertainty B) self-concordance C) self-efficacy D) Pygmalion E) self-determination

27)

5

28) Which of the following theories is a meta-theory of motivation at work that is concerned with autonomy, intrinsic motivation, extrinsic motivation, and the satisfaction of psychological work needs?

A) Two-factor theory B) Motivation-hygiene theory C) Self-determination theory D) Theory of needs E) Goal setting theory

28)

29) Goals seem to have a more substantial effect on performance when the ________.

A) tasks are novel rather than well learned B) goals are easy rather than difficult C) goals are generalized (like "Do your best") rather than specific D) tasks are complex rather than simple E) tasks are independent rather than interdependent

29)

30) According to the two-factor theory, which of the following factors is most likely to merely placate workers when adequate?

A) Status B) Promotional opportunities C) Autonomy D) Responsibility E) Supervision

30)

31) Jamie is looking for a new job. She used to be the top sales representative for the region and was expecting to be promoted. However, one of the regional manager's golfing buddies was promoted to district manager instead. Jamie's dissatisfaction with her current job stems from a breakdown in the ________ relationship.

A) effort-satisfaction B) performance-reward C) personal goal-self actualization D) effort-performance E) rewards-personal goals

31)

32) Which of the following needs is at the top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

A) Physiological B) Social-belongingness C) Esteem D) Safety-security E) Self-actualization

32)

33) An employee, rightly or wrongly, perceives the boss doesn't like him. As a result, he expects to get a poor appraisal, regardless of the level of effort he puts in. Under such circumstances, according to the expectancy theory, the employee is likely to see the ________ relationship as weak and demotivating.

A) rewards-personal goals B) effort-performance C) personal goal-self actualization D) performance-achievement E) performance-reward

33)

6

34) You manage a department of five employees. You have identified that Joe has high need for achievement, Mary has high need for power, and Tim has high need for affiliation. Sarah scored high on the need for power and low on the need for affiliation. Doug scores low on both need for power and need for affiliation. Which of these five employees is most likely to be suitable for a new assignment that involves a high degree of personal responsibility and feedback?

A) Mary B) Doug C) Tim D) Joe E) Sarah

34)

35) ________ indicates how strongly people's reasons for pursuing goals are consistent with their interests and core values.

A) Positivity offset B) Cognitive dissonance C) Self-concordance D) Emotional contagion E) Selective perception

35)

36) A local church is made up of people who are very different in their lifestyles and their stages of life.

Mary is a 23-year-old single parent who earns the minimum wage. Jonathan is 60 years old, extremely wealthy, and works because he enjoys it. Jane is a 45-year-old lawyer who earns well and is well-respected in her profession. She is extremely career-oriented and is proud of her achievements. Jane is likely to focus on which of the following levels of needs?

A) Physiological B) Esteem C) Growth D) Safety E) Self-actualization

36)

37) According to expectancy theory, which of the following terms refers to the relationship between performance and reward?

A) Valence B) Divergence C) Instrumentality D) Expectancy E) Congruence

37)

38) When you give employees relevant experiences with the task, you are increasing self-efficacy via ________.

A) enactive mastery B) arousal C) vicarious modeling D) verbal persuasion E) espousal

38)

39) According to the two-factor theory, when ________ factors are adequate, people will not be dissatisfied; neither will they be satisfied.

A) self-actualization B) achievement C) intrinsic D) esteem E) hygiene

39)

7

40) Self-efficacy theory proposes four ways self-efficacy can be increased. Which of the following refers to increasing self-efficacy by enabling employees to watch someone else do the task?

A) Vicarious modeling B) Focused training C) Enactive mastery D) Arousal E) Verbal persuasion

40)

41) Self-efficacy has been found to be associated with a higher level of focused attention, which led to ________.

A) decreased task performance B) increased task performance C) increased citizenship behaviors D) decreased counterproductive work behaviors E) increased counterproductive work behaviors

41)

42) ________ theory is a component of social cognitive theory or social learning theory.

A) Goal-setting B) Two-factor C) Hierarchy of needs D) Self-efficacy E) Self-determination

42)

43) ________ refers to an individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task.

A) Affect intensity B) Cognitive dissonance C) Need for power D) Emotional contagion E) Self-efficacy

43)

44) Which of the following is a key feature of management by objectives (MBO) programs?

A) Industry-specific heuristics B) Cascading objectives C) Profit-driven framework D) Hierarchy of needs approach E) Autocratic goal setting

44)

45) Regardless of the criticisms, Herzberg's two-factor theory has been quite influential and has been used in many studies in countries such as ________ and ________.

A) Chile; Argentina B) Australia; New Zealand C) Germany; France D) Japan; India E) Portugal; Spain

45)

46) You manage a department of five employees. You have identified that Joe has high need for achievement, Mary has high need for power, and Tim has high need for affiliation. Sarah scored high on the need for power and low on the need for affiliation. Doug scores low on both need for power and need for affiliation. Which of these five employees would be best suited as a mentor to new employees with a chance to develop friendships?

A) Joe B) Mary C) Sarah D) Doug E) Tim

46)

8

47) ________ involves translating the organization's overall objectives into specific objectives for each succeeding level in the organization.

A) Management by exception B) Management buy-out C) Management by objectives D) Strategic planning E) Representative participation

47)

48) With reference to the expectancy theory, when pay is based on factors other than performance, such as seniority, the ________ relationship tends to be weak.

A) effort-performance B) personal goal-self actualization C) performance-reward D) effort-satisfaction E) performance-achievement

48)

49) Which of the following is not an ingredient common to all MBO programs?

A) Specificity of the goal B) Performance feedback C) Top down identification of tasks D) An explicit time period E) Participative decision making

49)

50) Which of the following statements is true according to McClelland's theory of needs?

A) People with a high achievement need tend to be successful managers, especially in large organizations.

B) The best managers tend to have a high need for affiliation.

C) People with a high achievement need prefer doing tasks that involve a very high level of risk.

D) The best managers tend to have a high need for power.

E) People with a high achievement need prefer jobs that have a low degree of personal responsibility.

50)

51) According to the two-factor theory, ________ is a motivating factor.

A) responsibility B) pay C) job security D) better company policy E) quality of supervision

51)

52) Which of the following theories see behavior as environmentally caused?

A) Pygmalion B) Two-factor C) Reinforcement D) Expectancy E) Equity

52)

9

53) Which of the following statements is true regarding a management by objective (MBO) program?

A) MBO strongly advocates that the goals should be assigned by the managers without the employees participating in the goal setting process.

B) MBO programs strongly discourage providing performance feedback because it can have negative effects on employee motivation.

C) MBO programs involve explicit time periods.

D) Many elements in MBO programs match propositions of cognitive evaluation theory.

E) MBO programs set generalized rather than specific goals.

53)

54) In Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following needs would self-respect and autonomy fall under?

A) Self-actualization B) Safety-security C) Physiological D) Social-belongingness E) Esteem

54)

55) Which of the following types of justice is concerned with the fairness of outcomes, such as pay and recognition that employees receive?

A) Associative justice B) Integrative justice C) Interactional justice D) Distributive justice E) Procedural justice

55)

56) In an automotive service dealership, service technicians' pay depends on whether they work on a customer paid job or on a warranty job. A customer paid job pays more in wages than warranty jobs. In an effort to remedy this imbalance, an automotive dealership decided to offer a monetary bonus to a well-done warranty job. Per expectancy theory, which relationship is the bonus aimed at?

A) Valence B) Instrumentality C) Behaviorism D) Expectancy E) Goal congruence

56)

57) If a manager incorrectly assumes that all employees want the same thing, then according to the expectancy theory, it is most likely to result in a weak ________ relationship.

A) performance-reward B) effort-satisfaction C) effort-performance D) rewards-personal goals E) performance-achievement

57)

58) Which of the following is not a way to increase self-efficacy?

A) Verbal persuasion B) Arousal C) Espousal D) Vicarious modeling E) Enactive mastery

58)

10

59) A local church is made up of people who are very different in their lifestyles and their stages of life.

Mary is a 23-year-old single parent who earns the minimum wage. Jonathan is 60 years old, extremely wealthy, and works because he enjoys it. Jane is a 45-year-old lawyer who earns well and is well-respected in her profession. She is extremely career-oriented and is proud of her achievements. According to Maslow's hierarchy, Mary is likely to focus on satisfying ________ needs.

A) self-actualization B) physiological C) growth D) esteem E) social

59)

60) Which of the following theories proposes that the strength of a tendency to act in a certain way depends on the strength of our expectation of a given outcome and its attractiveness?

A) Social learning B) Expectancy C) Reinforcement D) Equity E) Operant conditioning

60)

61) Intrinsic motivation contributes to the ________ of work; incentives contribute to the ________ of work.

A) quantity; quality B) quality; quality C) quality; outcome D) quantity; quantity E) quality; quantity

61)

62) Christine has recently hired Wanda, Ming, and Jasmine for a consulting position in her firm. Not only did Jasmine attend the same college but they were also in the same sorority, but several years apart. Christine is very excited about Jasmine joining the team and has told her that she knows someone with her background will move up the ladder quickly. According to the Pygmalion effect theory, which is the most likely outcome in this situation?

A) Jasmine will succeed because Christine's expectations can form self-fulfilling prophecy.

B) Jasmine will quit because of the pressure of living up to Christine's expectations.

C) Jasmine, Wanda, and Ming will band together more closely because of Christine's faith in Jasmine.

D) Wanda and Ming will quit because Christine does not care about them.

E) Christine will be disappointed in Jasmine because no one can live up to these expectations.

62)

63) According to expectancy theory, the degree to which an individual believes that performing at a particular level will generate a desired outcome is indicated by the ________ relationship.

A) divergence B) convergence C) expectancy D) valence E) instrumentality

63)

11

64) The two-factor theory proposes that ________.

A) employees inherently dislike work and must therefore be directed or even coerced into performing it B) achievement, power, and affiliation are three important needs that help explain motivation C) the factors that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction D) employees can view work as being as natural as rest or play, and therefore the average person can learn to accept, and even seek, responsibility E) within every human being, there exists a hierarchy of five needs and as each of these needs becomes substantially satisfied, the next one becomes dominant

64)

65) What sort of participatively set goals does Management by Objectives (MBO) emphasize?

A) Achievable, controllable, and profitable B) Tangible, verifiable, and measurable C) Profitable, attainable, and verifiable D) Challenging, rewarding, and measurable E) Inspirational, verifiable, and creative

65)

66) According to the two-factor theory proposed by Herzberg, which of the following factors is considered a hygiene factor?

A) Quality of supervision B) Recognition C) Promotional opportunity D) Achievement E) Responsibility

66)

67) Which of the following theories discusses three relationships: effort-performance relationship, performance-reward relationship, and rewards-personal goals relationship?

A) Expectancy theory B) Self-determination theory C) Self-efficacy theory D) Goal-setting theory E) Equity theory

67)

68) Motivation can be defined by three key elements. ________ is one of these three key elements and it is the element most of us focus on when we talk about motivation.

A) Intelligence B) Knowledge C) Intensity D) Experience E) Expertise

68)

12

69) Jasmine wants to become head of her department. Although she will be greatly compensated if she achieves this aim and will gain control over many subordinates, the main reason she is pursuing this position is that she thinks she can do the job better than anyone else and wants people to know this. According to the McClelland's theory of needs, which of the following needs primarily drives Jasmine in this case?

A) The need for achievement B) The need for growth C) The need for power D) The need for stability E) The need for affiliation

69)

70) Which of the following ways of increasing self-efficacy is generally used by motivational speakers?

A) Espousal B) Vicarious modeling C) Verbal persuasion D) Focused training E) Enactive mastery

70)

71) Which of the following is one of the four ways of increasing self-efficacy that involves gaining relevant experience with the task or job?

A) Enactive mastery B) Focused training C) Vicarious modeling D) Arousal E) Verbal persuasion

71)

72) ________ is defined as the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.

A) Emotional labor B) Management C) Leadership D) Selective perception E) Motivation

72)

73) According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, job security and company policies would be examples of ________ factors.

A) esteem B) security C) social D) hygiene E) physiological

73)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

74) Sensitivity to the quality of interpersonal treatment is called collaborative justice.

74)

75) The statement, "When telling me about my raise, my supervisor was very nice and complimentary" refers to procedural justice.

75)

76) Cognitive evaluation theory suggests that extrinsic rewards will reduce intrinsic interest in a task.

76)

13

77) According to equity theory, individuals compare their job inputs and outcomes with those of others and then respond to eliminate any inequities.

77)

78) The statement, "I got the pay I deserved" refers to distributive justice.

78)

79) According to Maslow, there is a hierarchy of five needs humans are motivated to meet.

79)

80) Inputs and outcomes are valued the same in all cultures.

80)

81) Reinforcement theorists see behavior as internally caused.

81)

82) According to Herzberg, advancement, recognition, responsibility, and achievement are hygiene factors.

82)

83) Motivation has a persistence dimension.

83)

84) Distributive justice refers to fairness in the workplace.

84)

85) While procedural justice looks at what outcomes are allocated, distributive justice examines how.

85)

86) Self-determination theory is an example of a meta-theory.

86)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

87) What is job engagement and why is it important?

88) Why is Herzberg's two-factor theory criticized?

89) What choices do employees have when they perceive inequity with respect to the ratio of their outcomes to inputs?

90) What is self-determination theory?

91) What are the key relationships that underpin expectancy theory?

92) How are intensity and persistence related to the concept of motivation?

93) What do we know about culture and justice?

94) Given that individuals tend to judge the favorability of their outcomes relative to what others receive, what can be the result of someone getting rewarded for their performance but yet being disappointed in the reward that they receive?

95) How does the question, "What do people want from their jobs?" help us understand the two-factor theory?

96) Differentiate motivators from hygiene factors.

97) What is equity theory?

14

98) According to McClelland's theory of needs, what type of job is preferred by those employees who have high need for achievement?

99) Discuss distributive justice, procedural justice, and interactional justice.

100) How do critics react to equity theory?

15

Answer Key Testname: C7

1) E 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) B 6) E 7) B 8) B 9) C 10) B 11) B 12) E 13) B 14) A 15) E 16) E 17) C 18) E 19) E 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) B 26) B 27) D 28) C 29) E 30) E 31) B 32) E 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) E 40) A 41) B 42) D 43) E 44) B 45) D 46) E 47) C 48) C 49) C 50) D 16

Answer Key Testname: C7

51) A 52) C 53) C 54) E 55) D 56) A 57) D 58) C 59) B 60) B 61) E 62) A 63) E 64) C 65) B 66) A 67) A 68) C 69) A 70) C 71) A 72) E 73) D 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) Job engagement refers to the investment of an employee's physical, cognitive, and emotional energies into job performance. Practicing managers and scholars have been interested in facilitating job engagement, given that disengaged employees cost U.S. businesses up to $550 billion annually in lost productivity. Job engagement appears to matter for organizations and has been found to predict higher levels of task performance and citizenship behaviors.

88) While influential, Herzberg's two-factor theory faces a number of shortcomings. First, the theory has not been well supported in research. Criticisms center on Herzberg's original methodology and his assumptions, such as how the participants may be biased in thinking back to times when they felt good or bad about their jobs. Second, if hygiene and motivational factors are equally important to a person, both should be capable of motivating.

17

Answer Key Testname: C7

89) Outcome-input comparison is at the heart of equity theory. Based on equity theory, employees who perceive inequity will make one of six choices: a) change inputs b) change outcomes c) distort perceptions of self d) distort perceptions of others e) choose a different referent (i.e., compare with someone else) f) leave the field.

90) Self-determination theory is a meta theory, a collection of related theories behind a common theme, of motivation at work that is concerned with autonomy, intrinsic motivation, extrinsic motivation, and the satisfaction of psychological work needs. It is widely used and contains several sub-theories, including cognitive evaluation theory and self-concordance theory.

91) Expectancy theory focuses on three relationships: the effort-performance relationship (called expectancy), the performance-reward relationship (called instrumentality), and the rewards-personal goals relationship (called valence). Motivation per this theory is explained by the presence or absence of a direct link between effort, performance, and rewards.

92) Motivation is defined as the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.

Intensity describes how hard a person tries. The persistence dimension measures how long a person can maintain effort. In other words, motivated individuals work intensely on an appropriate task, long enough to achieve their goals.

93) Across nations, the same principles of procedural justice are respected. In other words, workers around the world prefer rewards based on performance and skills over rewards based on seniority. However, culture plays a part in how one values inputs and outcomes. A study pointed out that justice perceptions are most important to people in countries with individualistic, feminine, uncertainty-avoidance, and low power-distance (all Hofstede's dimensions) values.

94) When someone is disappointed by the reward they receive; they will tend to focus on the fairness of the reward. This is not to say they will find fault in and/or reject the reward itself but rather will focus on the fairness of the procedures used to determine the reward and the consideration given to them as an individual by their supervisor.

95) Psychologist Frederick Herzberg tried to understand motivation by wondering what people wanted from their jobs.

He asked people to describe, in detail, situations in which they felt exceptionally good or bad about their jobs. What he found was that the responses differed significantly. This led him to formulate his two-factor theory, that essentially says the factors leading to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction.

Conditions surrounding the job such as quality of supervision, pay, company policies, physical working conditions, relations with others, and job security were characterized by Herzberg as hygiene factors. When they are adequate, people will not be dissatisfied; neither will they be satisfied. If we want to motivate people on their jobs, Herzberg suggested emphasizing factors associated with the work itself or to outcomes directly derived from it, such as promotional opportunities, opportunities for personal growth, recognition, responsibility, and achievement. These are the characteristics that people find intrinsically rewarding.

96) Conditions surrounding the job such as quality of supervision, pay, company policies, physical working conditions, relations with others, and job security were characterized by Herzberg as hygiene factors. When hygiene factors are adequate, people will not be dissatisfied. Herzberg suggested that factors associated with the work itself or outcomes directly derived from it, such as promotional opportunities, opportunities for personal growth, recognition, responsibility, and achievement are motivators. These are the characteristics that people find intrinsically rewarding.

These factors are motivators.

97) Equity theory falls under the broad category of organizational justice. Equity theory states individuals compare their job inputs and outcomes with those of others and then respond to eliminate any inequities. According to this, employees compare what they get from their jobs (their outcomes such as pay, promotions, recognition, or a bigger office) to what they put into it (their inputs such as effort, experience, and education). They take the ratio of their outcomes to their inputs and compare it to the ratio of others, usually someone similar such as a coworker. Based on this ratio of outcomes to inputs, employees take action to eliminate any inequities.

18

Answer Key Testname: C7

98) Individuals with a high need to achieve prefer job situations with personal responsibility, feedback, and an intermediate degree of risk. When these characteristics are prevalent, high achievers will be strongly motivated. The evidence consistently demonstrates, for instance, that high achievers are successful in entrepreneurial activities such as running their own businesses and managing a self-contained unit within a large organization. A high need to achieve does not necessarily lead to being a good manager, especially in large organizations. People with a high achievement need are interested in how well they do personally and not in influencing others to do well.

99) Distributive justice indicates the employee's perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals.

Procedural justice indicates the perceived fairness of the process used to determine the distribution of rewards.

Interactional justice indicates an individual's perception of the degree to which she is treated with dignity, concern, and respect.

People base distributive judgments on a feeling or an emotional reaction to the way they think they are being treated relative to others. Procedural justice relates most strongly to job satisfaction, employee trust, withdrawal from the organization, job performance, and citizenship behaviors. There is less evidence about interactional justice.

100) While equity theory has support from some researchers, it does face criticism. As some examples demonstrate, it appears that some employees are more sensitive to equity than others. In other words, some feel more entitled with respect to equity while others feel more benevolent. Also, it is unlikely to expect someone who is overpaid in a job to give back part of their salary.

19

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The core dimensions of the job characteristics model (JCM) are combined into a single predictive index called the ________.

A) potential aggregate score (PAS) B) cognitive ability score (CAS) C) organizational motivation score (OMS) D) motivating potential score (MPS) E) job motivation score (JMS)

1)

2) The job characteristics model describes five dimensions of a job. A job can be enriched by modifying one or more of these five dimensions. Which of the following methods of job enrichment involves modifying task identity and task significance dimensions of a job?

A) Opening feedback channels B) Expanding jobs vertically C) Combining tasks D) Establishing client relationships E) Forming natural work units

2)

3) With reference to the job characteristics model, which of the following defines task identity?

A) The degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling and procedure B) The degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work C) The degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people D) The degree to which work activities generate direct and clear information about performance E) The degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities

3)

4) ________ is a participative process that uses employees' input to increase their commitment to the organization's success.

A) Job enrichment B) Organizational reengineering C) Employee involvement D) Corporate restructuring E) Job sharing

4)

5) Managers at Precision Technologies, a custom-machine shop in Indiana, train workers on all the company's equipment so they can move around as needed in response to incoming orders. Based on this information, which of the following methods is most likely being used by Precision Technologies?

A) Flextime B) Job sharing C) Job enlargement D) Job enrichment E) Job rotation

5)

1

6) The FlipBurger national chain of fast food restaurants enjoys an unusually low labor turnover rate and high productivity although it only pays the minimum wage for all non-managerial positions.

One of the reasons for this is that at FlipBurger, supervisors constantly act as cheerleaders in singling out employees for public praise and having a lavish ceremony to reward their "Employee of the Month." Based on this, what kind of rewards are used to motivate employees at FlipBurger?

A) Pay-for-performance B) Extrinsic C) Intrinsic D) Variable-pay program E) Profit-sharing

6)

7) Which of the following is the major drawback of job sharing from management's perspective?

A) Increased costs for providing supporting infrastructure (such as desk and computer) to two employees instead of one B) Difficulty in designing the reward structure C) Difficulty in coordinating schedules D) Increase in supervisory workload E) Difficulty in finding compatible partners

7)

8) Jackie works as the front office receptionist in a lube shop. Her exemplary manner in dealing with often irate customers caught the eye of the lube shop's manager. He gave her a monetary bonus.

What type of award did Jackie receive?

A) Variable B) Profit-sharing C) Extrinsic D) Intrinsic E) Compensatory

8)

9) Which of the following programs is associated with self-esteem, self-efficacy, and job satisfaction?

A) Employee recognition B) Piece-rate C) Merit-based pay D) Stock options E) Bonus

9)

10) Samantha is an emergency medical technician. Yesterday, due to an emergency, she was called to a house where a man suffered a heart attack. She was able to resuscitate the man, and while her colleagues were transporting him to the ambulance, she spent 10 minutes calming the 12-year-old daughter, who was home alone with the father at that time. Based on this description, it's safe to say that Samantha's job is high in ________.

A) feedback B) reward C) task significance D) task identity E) skill variety

10)

2

11) Anya is a graphic designer in a firm specializing in making logos for their clients. Last week, she got client specifications on how to make a new logo. She was able to create a prototype and with an initial review by her immediate supervisor, she made changes until the client was satisfied with her final product. Based on this description, it's safe to say that Anya's job is high in ________ and ________.

A) feedback; skill variety B) skill variety; autonomy C) autonomy; skill variety D) task significance; feedback E) task identity; feedback

11)

12) What is the main drawback of job rotation?

A) It eliminates management involvement.

B) It impacts sales.

C) It increases training costs.

D) It has no effect on productivity.

E) It decreases supervisor workload.

12)

13) Janice and Sunil are both senior software analysts. They have worked together on projects for six years and get along great. Janice is pregnant and anticipating the arrival of her first child and she is not willing to work full time. Sunil would like to experiment with opening his own business as a home media installation consultant and does not want to continue to work full time. They both need some income. Which of the following alternative job structures would be best for Janice and Sunil?

A) Job enrichment B) Job enlargement C) Job rotation D) Job sharing E) Telecommuting

13)

14) Which of the following statements is true regarding participative management?

A) Participative management typically has only a modest influence on variables such as employee productivity and motivation.

B) It is called "the most widely legislated form of employee involvement around the world."

C) Participative management involves few representatives of workers sitting on the company's board of directors.

D) Research evidence on participative management indicates that it is a sure means for improving employee performance.

E) The two most common forms are works councils and board representatives.

14)

15) Singapore Airlines is rated one of the best airlines in the world and often requires ticket agents to serve as baggage handlers. What is the logic behind this action?

A) Baggage handlers in Singapore often go on strike and replacements are needed.

B) Ticket agents often have stressful jobs and need a break.

C) There is no logical reason for this action.

D) Ticket agents often deal with luggage and so cross-training makes them more efficient.

E) Ticket agents often have attitude problems and need to be "punished."

15)

3

16) Atul works on an assembly line that produces iPads. His job involves installing a specific part to the iPad all through his eight-hour shift. Per the job characteristics model (JCM), the characteristic that is most lacking in Atul's job is ________.

A) resonance B) feedback C) convergence D) ambiguity E) causality

16)

17) The Kingstown plant of a major auto manufacturer makes a popular model of sports utility vehicles (SUVs) using an assembly line. Since the workers' tasks involve working eight-hour shifts doing a single task (such as installing the front passenger door), the plant supervisor came up with the idea of prominently displaying a fully assembled SUV at the end of each assembly line. Which job characteristics model (JCM) dimension did the plant supervisor address with this move?

A) Skill variety B) Job enrichment C) Feedback D) Task significance E) Task identity

17)

18) The competitiveness of an organization's pay relative to pay in its industry is called ________ equity.

A) organizational B) validating C) compensatory D) external E) internal

18)

19) What percentage of U.S. organizations offer some form of flextime?

A) 57 B) 46 C) 68 D) 35

19)

E) 79

20) The key to a successful bonus plan is that the reward needs to be ________.

A) tied to a specific amount of deliverables B) made very public C) equal across everyone in the department D) tied to a recent performance E) cumulative in nature

20)

21) Ned is particularly adept at designing and creating new fashions. In which of the following would Ned have the highest level of skill variety?

A) Creating custom gowns and suits for a pageant B) Working as a private tailor for a local real estate agent C) Doing alterations at the dry cleaners D) Creating custom bridal gowns in a bridal store E) Working as a stylist for a local celebrity

21)

4

22) For employees, the major downside of telecommuting is ________.

A) difficulty in scheduling work B) decreased productivity C) increased turnover D) increased feelings of isolation E) reduced morale

22)

23) Which of the following is true about job enrichment?

A) It excludes feedback that a worker receives from his or her supervisor and peers.

B) It includes evaluation of superiors.

C) It increases the horizontal integration of tasks.

D) It increases the number of tasks to be performed.

E) It adds high-level responsibilities to the job.

23)

24) Which of the following statements is true regarding job sharing?

A) It involves periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level.

B) It expands jobs by increasing the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of the work.

C) It allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job.

D) It is also called cross-training.

E) Job sharing is a method of job enrichment.

24)

25) The worth of the job to the organization that is usually established through a technical process called job evaluation refers to ________.

A) pay equity B) external equity C) internal equity D) compensatory equity E) societal equity

25)

26) A ________ pay plan pays for individual performance based on performance appraisal ratings.

A) piece-rate B) competency-based C) merit-based D) profit sharing E) skill-based

26)

27) Which of the following is a form of intrinsic reward?

A) Profit sharing B) Employee of the month recognition C) Employee stock ownership plans D) Merit-based pay E) Bonus

27)

5

28) Ned is particularly adept at designing and creating new fashions. In which of the following would Ned have the highest level of autonomy?

A) Working as a private tailor for a local real estate agent B) Working as a stylist for a local celebrity C) Creating custom gowns and suits for a pageant D) Creating custom bridal gowns in a bridal store E) Working as a freelance tailor

28)

29) Approximately what percentage of respondents to an American Psychological Association survey indicated that they were staying with their current employer because of the pay and benefits?

A) 90 B) 80 C) 70 D) 60 E) 50

29)

30) According to the job characteristics model, ________ indicates the degree to which carrying out work activities generates direct and clear information about your own performance.

A) skill variety B) feedback C) task identity D) task significance E) autonomy

30)

31) You notice that members of the janitorial staff are low skilled and are suffering from over-routinization of their work. They are most likely to be motivated by ________.

A) merit-based pay plans B) job rotation C) gainsharing D) skill-based pay plans E) employee stock options

31)

32) The two most common forms of representative participation are ________ and board representatives.

A) task teams B) employee unions C) self-regulatory organization D) quality circles E) works councils

32)

33) Andy is an architect who works for a large design company. At the birth of their first child, Andy and his wife decided that he should play a significant role in providing childcare for their newborn.

Toward this, Andy arranged to work two days a week from home on his computer that was linked to his firm's office. Which of the following terms accurately represents Andy's work arrangement?

A) Task identity B) Flextime C) Autonomy D) Telecommuting E) Job sharing

33)

34) Globally, around ________ percent of companies offer some form of variable-pay plan.

A) 26 B) 39 C) 57 D) 72 E) 84

34)

6

35) ________ suggests that the way elements in a job are organized can influence employee effort.

A) Job design B) Organizational design C) Job enrichment D) Job enlargement E) Workflow

35)

36) Vance and Jared were both recently hired to be program directors at an urban university. Vance attended a large, historic university while Jared attended a branch campus of a regional university.

Jared is paid 15 percent more than Vance. The best explanation for this is ________.

A) Jared is a better negotiator B) the institution is not competitive within the industry C) Vance's position is not important to the university D) Jared's position is worth more to the university E) Vance did not do well in school

36)

37) Which of the following statements is true regarding job rotation?

A) It decreases supervisory workload.

B) It decreases employee motivation.

C) It decreases the flexibility with which an organization can adapt to a change.

D) It decreases productivity.

E) It decreases the flexibility in scheduling work.

37)

38) Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic reward?

A) Employee stock option B) Bonus C) Employee recognition D) Gainsharing E) Profit-sharing plan

38)

39) Beyond redesigning the nature of the work itself and involving employees in decisions, another approach to making the work environment more motivating is to alter work arrangements. Which of the following is designed to give an employee greater control of their schedule?

A) Flextime B) Job enlargement C) Job rotation D) Job centralization E) Job enrichment

39)

40) John is a design manager for a production company. He independently assigns teams, chooses projects, researches trends, and is able to work from home two to three days a week. He provides a status report to the design director once a month. Based on this description and as per the job characteristics model, it's safe to say that John's job is high in ________.

A) autonomy B) feedback C) task identity D) task significance E) skill variety

40)

7

41) Participative management is a method of management where ________.

A) few representatives of workers sit on a company's board of directors B) low-level workers are responsible for making corporate policy decisions C) low-level workers meet occasionally with the CEO to discuss problems within their department D) subordinates share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors E) representatives of workers form work councils, and these councils must be consulted when management makes decisions about employees

41)

42) The competitiveness of an organization's pay relative to pay in its industry is called ________ equity.

A) compensatory B) societal C) external D) organizational E) internal

42)

43) Which of the following is the distinct characteristic common to all participative management programs?

A) Productivity enhancement B) Quality improvement C) Joint decision making D) Commitment E) Autonomy

43)

44) You are looking at flextime and realize that it will probably work least well for which of the following jobs?

A) IT personnel B) Custodial workers C) Equipment maintenance staff D) Insurance billers E) Receptionist

44)

45) Recently, the Pennypoint Corporation instituted an employee recognition program that consisted of identifying an "Employee of the Month" for each department and designated parking spots for exemplary employees. Pennypoint Corporation was doing this to improve ________.

A) punctuality B) punctuality and productivity C) absenteeism D) productivity and citizenship behavior E) self-esteem and job satisfaction

45)

46) Which of the following is a job that does not lend itself to telecommuting?

A) An attorney who spends most of her time researching on the computer B) A telemarketer who uses the phone to contact clients C) A copywriter for an advertising firm D) A car salesman who demonstrates the features of a new model of car E) A product support specialist who handles queries sent by customers

46)

8

47) In thinking about the motivating potential score (MPS), if jobs score high on motivating potential, the model predicts that motivation, performance, and satisfaction will improve, while ________ and ________ will be reduced.

A) recidivism; absence B) gossip; recidivism C) absence; turnover D) turnover; counterproductive work behaviors E) counterproductive work behaviors; gossip

47)

48) Ned is particularly adept at designing and creating new fashions. In which of the following would Ned have the highest level of task identity?

A) Creating custom gowns and suits for a pageant B) Doing alterations at the dry cleaners C) Working as a private tailor for a local real estate agent D) Creating custom bridal gowns in a bridal store E) Working as a stylist for a local celebrity

48)

49) A pure ________ plan provides no base salary and pays the employee only for what they produce.

A) bonus B) profit-sharing C) piece-rate D) merit-based E) employee stock option

49)

50) How many core job dimensions are there in the job characteristics model (JCM)?

A) 6 B) 4 C) 5 D) 2

50)

E) 3

51) The periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level is called job ________.

A) rotation B) enrichment C) expansion D) enlargement E) sharing

51)

52) With reference to the job characteristics model, which of the following defines skill variety?

A) The degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work B) The degree to which work activities generates direct and clear information about performance C) The degree to which a job requires a range of different activities D) The degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people E) The degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling and procedure

52)

53) Shawna works as a sales agent at a local big box electronics retailer in the camera department.

Though she has been successful in her position, she has grown a bit tired and is suffering from over-routinization. Which of the following would be the best opportunity for job rotation for Shawna?

A) Moving to a new store B) Moving to assistant manager C) Moving to sales in the computer department D) Moving to human resources E) Moving to customer service

53)

9

54) The evidence on job enrichment shows it ________.

A) reduces satisfaction B) reduces absenteeism C) reduces employee motivation D) increases supervisory workload E) increases turnover cost

54)

55) Which of the following is an example of a piece-rate plan?

A) $20 for each hour of work B) Paying employees based on number of skills C) Productivity bonus D) $2 for each unit produced E) Commission

55)

56) Patrick and Allison work at a local car dealership as salespersons and are paid on both salary and commission. What type of pay related motivation is being used?

A) Variable-pay program B) Skill-based plan C) External equity D) Internal equity E) Flexible benefits

56)

57) What is another term for job rotation?

A) Job sharing B) Work enrichment C) Work enlargement D) Cross-training E) Job enhancement

57)

58) Lavon has been feeling dissatisfied with his position of late. Particularly, he feels that he is underutilized. According to motivation theories, what should Lavon's supervisor do?

A) Include him in revising his job description B) Mentor him to use his time better C) Promote him D) Appoint him to numerous committees E) Fire him

58)

59) Most countries in Western Europe require companies to practice ________, which redistributes power within an organization by putting labor's interests on a more equal footing with the interests of management and stockholders.

A) management by objectives B) organizational reengineering C) participative management D) corporate restructuring E) representative participation

59)

10

60) Which of the following is not a form of a variable-pay program?

A) Employee stock ownership plans B) Piece rate C) Dental benefits D) Profit sharing E) Bonus

60)

61) Which of the following statements is true regarding employee recognition?

A) Critics argue that employee recognition programs are highly susceptible to political manipulation by management.

B) Nonfinancial incentives such as recognition are more motivating in the short term but in the long run financial incentives are more motivating.

C) Employee stock option is a more powerful workplace motivator than recognition.

D) Employee recognition is an extrinsic reward.

E) Employee recognition programs are expensive.

61)

62) An arrangement that allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job is called ________.

A) job rotation B) job enrichment C) job sharing D) flextime E) telecommuting

62)

63) The two major forms of employee involvement are participative management and ________.

A) representative participation B) job rotation C) job enlargement D) job sharing E) organizational restructuring

63)

64) Which of the following is not a management benefit of telecommuting?

A) Larger labor pool for recruitment B) Higher productivity of employees C) Improved morale in general D) Decreased office expenditures E) Decreased salary expenses

64)

65) Which of the following terms best describes employees who sit on a company's board of directors and represent the interests of the firm's employees?

A) Union representatives B) Board leaders C) Board representatives D) Quality circles E) Works councils

65)

11

66) Job ________ adds another layer of responsibility and meaning.

A) enlargement B) sharing C) centralization D) rotation E) enrichment

66)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

67) To be successful, employee involvement and participation (EIP) programs should be tailored to local and national norms.

67)

68) As companies and government organizations face tighter budgets, nonfinancial incentives become more attractive.

68)

69) External equity refers to the worth of the job to the organization.

69)

70) Enriching a job is the same as enlarging it.

70)

71) Job rotation typically increases productivity.

71)

72) Recognition programs increase an employee's intrinsic motivation.

72)

73) Job rotation tends to decrease productivity and increase training costs.

73)

74) Working from a virtual office on a relatively permanent basis is called telecommuting.

74)

75) Variable-pay programs are also called piece-rate pay plans.

75)

76) The percent of U.S. organizations offering job sharing decreased in 2014 compared to 2008.

76)

77) Per the job characteristics model (JCM), a cabinetmaker who designs furniture, selects the wood, builds the objects, and finishes them has a job that scores high on task significance.

77)

78) In the job characteristics model (JCM), task significance is one of the five core dimensions of a job.

78)

79) The job of a body shop worker who sprays paint eight hours a day scores low on the task significance dimension.

79)

80) In the job characteristics model (JCM), skill variety refers to the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work.

80)

81) Flexible benefits can accommodate differences in employee needs based on age, marital status, partners' benefit status, and number and age of dependents.

81)

82) Telecommuting allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job.

82)

12

83) The job characteristics model describes any job in terms of five core job dimensions. Autonomy is one of these five dimensions and it is the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom, independence, and discretion in scheduling work and determining the procedures for carrying it out.

83)

84) A study pointed out that managers in India who tried to empower their employees did very well in their evaluations.

84)

85) Job rotation creates disruptions when members of the work group must adjust to new employees.

85)

86) Employee recognition programs are often expensive.

86)

87) The periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level is called job enrichment.

87)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

88) Explain how participative management can enhance skill variety, task identity, and autonomy as described in the job characteristics model (JCM).

89) What do we know about the motivational capabilities of nonfinancial rewards?

90) What conditions affect the results of pay-for-performance plans?

91) What do we know about the efficacy of the job characteristics model (JCM)?

92) Are flexible benefits more motivating than traditional plans?

93) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of flextime.

94) What is representative participation? Discuss its influence on workers.

95) Lewis Vacation Rentals has been experiencing a recent decline in its bookings. In an effort to increase sales, the company is offering its employees a 1 percent share in the company profit over the next six months in addition to regular employee salaries. Will this plan increase motivation? Why or why not?

96) What are intrinsic rewards? How are they used to motivate employees?

97) Andrew is a software tester. He runs through the same types of programs day after day looking for bugs and reporting them. He is taking night classes on programming. Often, he knows the best solution to many of the bugs, but he is still learning to code. Describe two job characteristics that Andrew is striving to improve and explain two ways that Andrew's manager can redesign his current job to help him reach his goals.

98) What is job enrichment? How does it motivate?

99) What is employee involvement and why is it important? What are the two major forms of employee involvement?

100) What is job redesign? What are the ways jobs can be redesigned?

13

101) How are profit-sharing plans different from employee stock ownership plans?

14

Answer Key Testname: C8

1) D 2) E 3) B 4) C 5) E 6) C 7) E 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) E 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) E 18) D 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) D 23) E 24) C 25) C 26) C 27) B 28) E 29) D 30) B 31) B 32) E 33) D 34) E 35) A 36) D 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) A 41) D 42) C 43) C 44) E 45) E 46) D 47) C 48) C 49) C 50) C 15

Answer Key Testname: C8

51) A 52) C 53) C 54) B 55) D 56) A 57) D 58) A 59) E 60) C 61) A 62) C 63) A 64) E 65) C 66) E 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) Skill variety, the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities so the worker can use a number of different skills and talent, can be enhanced by participative management because the employees can begin to view their tasks from a different perspective, that of management, and the need for high productivity and efficiency. By learning to think differently, the employees are learning different mental and relational skills.

Task identity, the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work, can be enhanced by participative management by allowing employees to make decisions on the spot without management approval.

For example, the woman at the Wegman's bakery who convinced management to let her include a traditional family recipe in the product line will feel a much stronger sense of task identity.

Autonomy, in the sense of determining work procedures and carrying them out, is enhanced by participative management because the employee is able to participate in the decision-making process. Having a voice in the process increases the sense of autonomy and control.

16

Answer Key Testname: C8

89) Research suggests financial incentives (extrinsic rewards such as pay and benefits) may be more motivating in the short term, but in the long run nonfinancial incentives (intrinsic rewards such as recognition) work best. While surprisingly, there is not a lot of research on the motivational outcomes or global usage of employee recognition programs, what we know is that, based on studies, employee recognition programs are associated with self-esteem, self-efficacy, and job satisfaction.

90) Pay-for-performance plans are also called variable-pay programs. The results of such programs vary by several conditions. Group-based pay-for-performance plans may have a strong positive effect on organizational performance, but they may only be effective in stable economic environments and in organizations that have fair policies. Research in Canada indicated that variable-pay plans increase job satisfaction only if employee effort is rewarded as well as performance. Finally, there are cultural differences as well. For instance, when guanxi (e.g., specific, personal connections between subordinates, supervisors, and co-workers) plays a role in human resources practices, pay-for-performance plans tend to be less effective.

91) Much evidence supports the relationship between the presence of the job characteristics per the JCM and higher job satisfaction and organizational commitment through increased motivation. Also, although employees have noticed that jobs are becoming more autonomous, interdependent, and require more skills than before, the relationship with job satisfaction has not changed since the 1970s, suggesting that employees still value enriched work. In general, research supports the JCM, although some personality and context differences exist.

92) It is difficult to tell if flexible benefits are more motivating than traditional plans. Some organizations that have moved to flexible plans report increased employee retention, job satisfaction, and productivity. However, flexible benefits may not substitute for higher salaries when it comes to motivation. As more organizations worldwide adopt flexible benefits, the individual motivation they produce will likely decrease (the plans will be seen as a standard work provision). The downsides of flexible benefit plans may be obvious: They may be costlier to manage and identifying the motivational impact of different provisions is challenging.

93) There are several advantages of flextime. They include reduced absenteeism, increased productivity, reduced overtime expenses, reduced traffic congestion around work sites, elimination of tardiness, and increased autonomy and responsibility for employees, any of which may increase employee job satisfaction.

Flextime's major drawback is that it's not applicable to every job. It works well with clerical tasks for which an employee's interaction with people outside his or her department is limited. It is not a viable option for receptionists, sales personnel in retail stores, or similar jobs for which comprehensive service demands that people be at their workstations at predetermined times.

94) Almost every country in Western Europe requires companies to practice representative participation. Its goal is to redistribute power within an organization, putting labor on a more equal footing with the interests of management and stockholders by letting workers be represented by a small group of employees who actually participate. The two most common forms are works councils and board representatives. Works councils are groups of nominated or elected employees who must be consulted when management makes decisions about employees. Board representatives are employees who sit on a company's board of directors and represent employees' interests.

The influence of representative participation on working employees seems to be mixed, but generally employees would need to feel that their interests were well represented and make a difference to the organization for motivation to increase.

95) While there is always the possibility that some individuals might be motivated by this plan, as a whole this plan will fail to create the motivation and increased sales that Lewis Vacation Rentals desires. The reason for this is that for profit sharing to be effective, there has to be some sort of profit available. If the company is losing money, it is unlikely employees will be motivated to work more when it is unclear if their efforts will result in any additional income.

96) Extrinsic rewards are typically pay and benefits. These are given to employees in the form of money or money-related services such as health and dental coverage. In contrast, intrinsic rewards do not require the outlay of cash from the employer to the employee. Employee recognition programs are intrinsic benefits in that they encourage specific employee behaviors by formally appreciating specific employee contributions. Research suggests that financial incentives (extrinsic rewards) may be more motivating in the short term, but in the long run nonfinancial incentives (intrinsic rewards) work best. They are associated with employees' self-esteem, self-efficacy, and job satisfaction.

17

Answer Key Testname: C8

97) Andrew is striving to have greater task identity, which is the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. He would like to not only look for the programming bugs but be able to fix them. He is also looking for skill variety, or the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities so the worker can use a number of different skills and talent. It is clear that he is bored with only the testing aspect of his job.

Andrew's boss needs to redesign his job to include aspects of job enrichment, which refers to the vertical expansion of jobs. Job enrichment increases the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of his or her work. One way to enrich Andrew's job would be to put him in contact with his internal clients, the programmers.

They could establish a set of bug recommendations that Andrew could fix, where he could begin to learn the types of code required. His boss should also open the feedback channels so that the programmers can tell Andrew when he is making proper adjustments and using his new skills adequately.

98) In job enrichment, high-level responsibilities are added to the job to increase a sense of purpose, direction, meaning, and intrinsic motivation. This is different from enlarging it (which simply adds more tasks and requirements). It involves adding another layer of responsibility and meaning. Job enrichment has its roots in Herzberg's two-factor theory which talks about providing hygiene, or motivating factors to the job to increase motivation.

99) Employee involvement is defined as a participative process that uses employees' input to increase their commitment to the organization's success. The underlying logic is that by involving workers in those decisions that affect them and by increasing their autonomy and control over their work lives, employees will become more motivated, more committed to the organization, more productive, and more satisfied with their jobs. The two major forms of employee involvement are: a) Participative management. Participative management programs use joint decision making. Subordinates actually share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors. b) Representative participation. Representative participation refers to worker representation by a small group of employees who actually participate on the board. The goal is to redistribute power within an organization, putting labor on a more equal footing with the interests of management and stockholders by letting workers be represented by a small group of employees who actually participate.

100) Since job design deals with the way elements in a job are organized, job redesign simply means that the job elements are reorganized or configured in a different way. This has important implications because job design influences employee effort. Redesigning jobs therefore has important practical implications reduced turnover and increased job satisfaction among them.

Job rotation and job enrichment are two ways by which a job can be redesigned. Job rotation is the periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level. In job enrichment, high-level responsibilities are added to the job to increase a sense of purpose, direction, meaning, and intrinsic motivation.

101) Both profit-sharing plans and employee stock ownership plans (ESOPs) are variable-pay plans that are also called pay-for-performance plans. A profit-sharing plan distributes compensation based on some established formula designed around a company's profitability. Such compensation can be direct cash outlays or, particularly for top managers, allocation of stock options. In contrast, an ESOP is a company-established benefit plan in which employees acquire stock, often at below-market prices, as part of their benefits. Via ESOPS, employees experience ownership of the organization they work for.

18

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) When a group first meets, which of the following occurs?

A) General purpose is defined.

B) Approach to the project is determined.

C) Assumptions on direction are made.

D) Both general purpose is defined and approach to the project is determined.

E) All of general purpose is defined, assumptions on direction are made, and approach to the project is determined occur.

1)

2) In discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold. This phenomenon is called ________.

A) groupthink B) satisficing C) self-concordance D) emotional labor E) groupshift

2)

3) Julio and Waylin both work at a trendy uptown clothing store and were hired at the same time.

Julio was recently promoted over Waylin (who is balding), even though Julio often misses work.

Which element of status explains this occurrence?

A) Group interactions B) Person's ability to contribute to group goals C) The size of the organization D) An individual's personal characteristics E) Power a person wields over others

3)

4) Which of the following terms indicates the tendency of individuals to spend less effort when working collectively?

A) Groupthink B) Groupshift C) Collective efficacy D) Clustering E) Social loafing

4)

5) Which of the following statements is true regarding group decision making?

A) If creativity is important, then individuals tend to be more effective than groups.

B) Group decisions are typically less time consuming than individual decisions.

C) Group decision making tends to decrease the acceptance of the solution.

D) Group decisions are generally less accurate than the decisions of the average individual in a group.

E) Groups generate more complete information and knowledge than individuals.

5)

1

6) At the midpoint of a project, groups tend to experience all of the following except which?

A) Bursts of changes B) Adoption of new perspectives C) Increased group conflict D) Dropping of old patterns E) Heightened awareness of time

6)

7) Which of the following terms indicates the degree to which group members are attracted to one another and are motivated to stay in the group?

A) Interdependence B) Sociability C) Integration D) Cohesiveness E) Reliability

7)

8) In this group discussion technique, the group leader states the problem in a clear manner so all participants understand. Members then freewheel as many alternatives as they can in a given length of time. No criticism is allowed, and all alternatives are recorded for later discussion and analysis. One idea stimulates others, and judgments of even the most bizarre suggestions are withheld until later to encourage group members to "think the unusual." Identify the decision-making technique in the discussion.

A) Brainstorming B) Mind mapping C) Morphological analysis D) Electronic meeting E) Group polarization

8)

9) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of status on group interaction?

A) Lower-status members interrupt others more often compared to high-status members.

B) Lower-status members state fewer commands than high status members.

C) Lower-status members tend to be more assertive group members as compared to high-status members.

D) As compared to high-status members, lower-status members tend to participate in group discussions more actively.

E) Lower-status members speak more often as compared to high-status members.

9)

10) Milhouse, a classically trained violinist, recently joined a country band. The members of the band, though they like Milhouse, do not appreciate his attention to details and the preppy way he dresses. The band is pressuring Milhouse to change in order to fit into the group. Which of the following represents the most likely conformity expected of Milhouse?

A) For Milhouse to wear jeans and boots B) For Milhouse to bathe less C) For Milhouse to play the fiddle D) Both for Milhouse to bathe less and for him to wear jeans and boots E) Both for Milhouse to bathe less and for him to play the fiddle

10)

2

11) Which one of the following characteristics is not necessarily true about groups?

A) Groups interact.

B) Groups have particular objectives.

C) Group members are interdependent.

D) Groups are determined by the organization chart.

E) Groups have two or more members.

11)

12) ________ directly challenges the assumption that the productivity of the group as a whole should at least equal the sum of the productivity of the individuals in it, no matter what the group size.

A) Negative offset B) Emotional contagion C) Social loafing D) Self-concordance E) Emotional labor

12)

13) You decide that your company's choice of which new product to manufacture needs to have widespread acceptance and that this decision needs to be of the highest quality possible. Having read the literature on decision making, you believe that this choice needs to be made by a group of your best managers. You have decided to use the nominal group technique. Which of the following statements is true about this method?

A) This method is not an inexpensive means for generating a large number of ideas.

B) This method is good for processing ideas rapidly.

C) This method is good for building group cohesiveness.

D) This method is good for achieving commitment to a solution.

E) This method is good for encouraging independent thinking.

13)

14) The Walt Disney Company is world renowned for its destination resorts and theme parks. The company prides itself on providing the highest quality experiences for visitors to the parks and trains its employees as "cast members" who are all part of the show. Which group of employees is most likely to be considered an "outgroup" at the theme park?

A) Those cleaning the parks during park hours B) Those portraying famous Disney characters C) Those operating the rides D) Those repairing the rides after park hours E) Those taking the tickets

14)

15) In the punctuated equilibrium model, which stage is likely to feature inertia?

A) The nominal group technique stage B) The brainstorming stage C) The first phase of group activity D) The first stage where the group sets the direction E) The social loafing stage

15)

16) At the first meeting of Angus Realty's first time homeowners' group, Jorge Angus said, "Let's talk about how we should and how we shouldn't do things." Jorge was establishing group ________.

A) rules B) agenda C) norms D) citizenship behaviors E) expectations

16)

3

17) ________ is consistent with individualistic cultures.

A) Brainstorming B) Psychological contract C) Group cohesiveness D) Nominal group technique E) Social loafing

17)

18) Which of the following is a weakness of group decision making?

A) Groups have nonconformity pressures.

B) Groups lead to decreased acceptance of a solution.

C) Group decision making is time consuming.

D) Groups offer decreased diversity of views.

E) Groups tend to generate incomplete information.

18)

19) Which of the following terms best represents voluntary actions that violate significant organizational norms and, in doing so, threatens the well-being of the organization or its members?

A) Emotional contagion B) Deviant workplace behavior C) Negativity offset D) Self-concordance E) Positivity offset

19)

20) The important groups to which an individual belongs or hopes to belong are known as the ________ groups.

A) status B) appearance C) conformation D) power E) reference

20)

21) Sandy, Lupe, and Aisha are on the board of directors for an area non-profit organization. At a recent meeting, guest David delivered a rousing speech on how group leadership is often too complex and that non-profits could often be better served by a CEO and no board of directors.

Sandy emphatically disagreed with David stating that not having the board could open the organization up to massive levels of corruption. Lupe agreed with David and feels that maybe the organization might do better if only one of the ladies were in charge, mainly herself. Aisha chose not to comment on the matter, thus leading Sandy to assume that she agreed with her. It could be said that Sandy and Lupe are suffering from ________.

A) group polarization B) groupthink C) groupshift D) both groupthink and groupshift E) all three groupthink, groupshift, and group polarization

21)

4

22) Maya just got out of a meeting. She is extremely frustrated because nothing got done and now she has to deal with workplace drama. Ming is threatening to quit because the group members severely criticized her idea without even giving her a chance to complete her point. The entire meeting turned into a conflict management session for Maya. Which of the following meeting techniques was most likely used by Maya?

A) Interacting group B) Video conferencing C) Nominal group D) Brainstorming E) Electronic meeting

22)

23) Andie, Lupe, and Lashonda work in different departments at Auto Mechanics Inc. Via the company's intranet, they found out that they shared an interest in scrapbooking. They decided to get together on the third Saturday of each month to talk about their scrapbooking projects. They are an example of a(n) ________ group.

A) formal B) interest C) informal D) command E) task

23)

24) Individuals do not conform to the pressures of all groups to which they belong. When they do conform, it is most likely to their ________ groups.

A) social B) work C) peer D) hierarchical E) reference

24)

25) Chang is the manager of the marketing department of an organization. He is restructuring his department and is creating teams to increase the effectiveness of his department. He recognizes that the size of groups impacts their overall behavior and effectiveness. The first team that Chang forms is a new product marketing group. What would be the better group size to do something productive?

A) Ten B) Five C) Two D) Over twelve E) Seven

25)

26) Patricia needs as many creative ideas as she can get for the new advertising campaign, and her small agency doesn't have a lot of money for high-tech meeting facilities. Given the information provided, which meeting technique will provide the highest number of quality ideas?

A) Nominal group technique B) Interacting groups C) Electronic meeting D) Brainstorming E) Social interaction

26)

5

27) DeSean, an aggressive and dynamic football coach of a very successful high school team, was visibly upset when a newspaper report described him as warm and cuddly. He believed that the report would undermine his ability to be a demanding coach. DeSean is referring to issues with ________.

A) role expectation B) performance norm C) role perception D) social norms E) role norms

27)

28) Which of the following factors corresponds to surface-level diversity in groups?

A) Ability, intelligence, and personality B) Security, self-esteem, and affiliation C) Underlying attitudes, values, and opinions D) Race, ethnicity, and gender E) Roles, status, and power

28)

29) Which of the following terms best describes the acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by a group's members?

A) Role perception B) Norms C) Rules D) Traditions E) Status

29)

30) If you ever felt like speaking up in a meeting, a classroom, or an informal group but decided against it then the reason behind it could be ________.

A) self-efficacy B) self-concordance C) positivity offset D) groupthink E) groupshift

30)

31) Huberto needs an instruction manual for his new product. He needs a small team of technical writers to work together closely to rapidly write the manual. He needs them to communicate ideas quickly, creatively, and affordably. Which of the following group techniques should Huberto consider?

A) Interacting and brainstorming B) Brainstorming and global C) Nominal and interacting D) Nominal and virtual E) Electronic and interacting

31)

32) When ________, the result is role conflict.

A) we lack the skills required for performing the role B) different groups of people associate different norms with a role C) we do not approve of the behavioral requirements of a role D) our view of the role is different from others' expectations of that role E) compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with another

32)

6

33) Which of the following is a strength of group decision making?

A) Groups generate more complete information and knowledge.

B) Group decisions are not very time consuming.

C) There are conformity pressures in groups.

D) Group decisions facilitate ambiguous responsibility.

E) Groups offer clear accountability for decisions.

33)

34) Which of the following statements is true regarding behavior in a group?

A) Group norms do not press us toward conformity.

B) The low-status people in the group speak more often as compared to the high-status people.

C) Conformity to social norms is higher in individualistic cultures as compared to that in collectivist cultures.

D) Deviant workplace behavior is likely to flourish where it's supported by group norms.

E) A recent study suggests those working in a group were less likely to lie, cheat, and steal than individuals working alone.

34)

35) Sandy, Lupe, and Aisha are on the board of directors for an area non-profit organization. At a recent meeting, guest David delivered a rousing speech on how group leadership is often too complex and that non-profits could often be better served by a CEO and no board of directors.

Sandy emphatically disagreed with David stating that not having the board could open the organization up to massive levels of corruption. Lupe agreed with David and feels that maybe the organization might do better if only one of the ladies were in charge, mainly herself. Aisha chose not to comment on the matter, thus leading Sandy to assume that she agreed with her. It could be said that Sandy is suffering from ________.

A) groupthink B) group polarization C) groupshift D) both groupthink and groupshift E) groupthink, groupshift, and group polarization

35)

36) Shehenna, Puja, and Miguel were all recently hired by Blair Industries as account representatives.

During their orientation, these three discovered that they would not be receiving any paid vacation time for their first year of employment. Social identity theory tells us which of the following is likely to occur?

A) The trio will quit.

B) The trio will bond together closely.

C) The trio will bond with others in the organization.

D) The trio will sue.

E) The trio will turn on each other.

36)

37) ________ are the way others believe you should act in a given situation.

A) Citizenship behaviors B) Role expectations C) Psychological contracts D) Group status E) Social identities

37)

7

38) Leaving work early, lying about hours worked, and wasting organizational resources are examples of ________.

A) social identity B) deviant workplace behavior C) cognitive dissonance D) role expectations E) conformity to norms

38)

39) The Walt Disney Company is world renowned for its destination resorts and theme parks. The company prides itself on providing the highest quality experiences for visitors to the parks and trains its employees as "cast members" who are all part of the show. Which group of employees is most likely to be considered the "ingroup" at the theme park?

A) Those portraying famous Disney characters B) Those taking the tickets C) Those cleaning the parks D) Those repairing the rides E) Those operating the rides

39)

40) ________ refers to the adjustment of one's behavior to align with the norms of the group.

A) Organizational citizenship B) Conformity C) Psychological contract D) Discipline E) Social contract

40)

41) Which of the following statements is not true regarding brainstorming?

A) Brainstorming overcomes the pressure for conformity.

B) Brainstorming increases creativity.

C) Brainstorming withholds criticism of ideas.

D) In brainstorming, members freewheel as many alternatives to the problem in a given length of time.

E) In brainstorming, groups often censor themselves.

41)

42) Which of the following is not a group decision-making technique?

A) Group polarization B) Cognitive mapping C) Brainstorming D) Nominal group technique E) Both cognitive mapping and group polarization

42)

43) Tammy, Lisa, Bartolo, Shonda, and Roberto all work in different departments at Brinks Software.

After work, Tammy, Lisa, and Shonda all enjoy going to the Lux Lounge for Happy Hour. Tammy, Lisa, and Shonda constitute a(n) ________ group.

A) action B) task C) formal D) performance E) informal

43)

8

44) Low-status groups, perhaps in response to discrimination, are likely to leverage ________ to compete for higher status.

A) ingroup fighting B) citizenship behaviors C) outgroup fighting D) outgroup favoritism E) ingroup favoritism

44)

45) At the new product development group at Abode Homes Company, Jessica knows that she is expected to call group meetings and interact with members outside the new product group if their input is required. These refer to Jessica's ________ in the new product development group.

A) title B) role C) status D) norms E) standing

45)

46) Which of the following statements is true regarding informal groups?

A) In informal groups, the behaviors team members should engage in are stipulated by and directed toward organizational goals.

B) Command groups and task groups are examples of informal groups.

C) Informal groups are defined by the organization's structure.

D) The six members of an airline flight crew are an informal group.

E) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law is an informal group.

46)

47) According to status characteristics theory, which of the following factors does not determine status?

A) Talent B) Control over the resources needed by the group C) Personality D) Ability to conform to group norms E) Contribution to goals

47)

48) ________ is the most common form of group decision making.

A) An interacting group B) Nominal group technique C) Electronic meeting D) Brainstorming E) Delphi technique

48)

49) Role perception indicates ________.

A) acceptable standards of behavior shared by nongroup members B) others' belief regarding how you should act in a given situation C) the skills required for performing the job D) the social norms that are to be followed while performing the role E) our view of how we're supposed to act in a given situation

49)

50) Jose is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion, but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Jose would like the promotion but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In such a situation, Jose is most likely to experience ________.

A) emotional contagion B) self-concordance C) cognitive dissonance D) role conflict E) emotional labor

50)

9

51) Groups of approximately ________ or more members are good for gaining diverse input.

A) seven B) twelve C) three D) ten E) four

51)

52) ________ theory explains our tendency to personally invest in the accomplishment of a group.

A) Social identity B) Equity C) Path-goal D) Expectancy E) Cognitive dissonance

52)

53) You are likely to select the nominal group technique over brainstorming because ________.

A) during brainstorming sessions, group members feel high pressure for conformity B) research generally shows nominal groups outperform brainstorming groups C) brainstorming decreases group cohesiveness D) brainstorming encourages severe criticism to all ideas E) nominal group technique involves a great deal of face-to-face interaction

53)

54) Your organization has recently started using group decision making. You are most likely to observe that ________.

A) groups generate less information and knowledge than individuals B) group decisions are less creative than individual decisions C) group decision making leads to decreased acceptance of the solution D) group decisions are more accurate than the judgments of the most accurate individual in the group E) group decision making is slower than individual decision making

54)

55) Role ________ indicates the way others believe you should act in a given context.

A) style B) criterion C) expectation D) perception E) identity

55)

56) According to the punctuated-equilibrium model, which two triggers bring about brief revolutionary change during the group's inertia?

A) Missed deadlines and resource utilization B) Group conflict and missed deadlines C) Resource utilization and awareness of time D) Awareness of time and awareness of deadlines E) Awareness of deadlines and group conflict

56)

57) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of status on conformity pressure?

A) Groups exert equal conformity pressure on all individuals regardless of their status.

B) As compared to high-status members, low-status members are given a wider range of discretion as long as their activities aren't severely detrimental to group goal achievement.

C) People in high-status jobs have especially negative reactions to social pressure exerted by people in low-status jobs.

D) Lower-status people are better able to resist conformity pressures than their high-status peers.

E) High-status individuals are often given less freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members.

57)

10

58) Differences in skills, abilities, or other characteristics needed for the job are called ________ diversity.

A) functional B) organizational C) social D) corporate E) occupational

58)

59) Tomaz joined his firm's social media group more than a year after it was formed. In the beginning, believing that this group was similar to his previous group in the same organization that was not strict on punctuality and deadlines, he was often tardy with his work in his new group. Noticing that he was not popular with the social media group, he decided that he would be punctual in meeting deadlines. Tomaz was addressing the issue of ________.

A) commitment B) conformity C) confluence D) coercion E) convergence

59)

60) ________ refer(s) to the perceived divisions that split groups into two or more subgroups based on individual differences such as sex, race, age, work experience, language, and education.

A) Norms B) Diversity C) Externalities D) Faultlines E) Outcomes

60)

61) You have observed that the group tends to come to consensus very quickly and there appears to be an illusion of unanimity. You conclude that they may be suffering from ________.

A) groupthink B) negative affect C) cognitive dissonance D) groupshift E) positivity offset

61)

62) Most likely, what would be the size of the group that is expected to get diverse input on the effectiveness of social media as an advertising platform?

A) Five B) Ten C) Two D) Over twelve E) Seven

62)

63) While using which of the following type of group decision-making techniques is a group more likely to experience increased groupthink?

A) Nominal group technique B) Interacting group C) Video conference D) Electronic meeting E) Brainstorming

63)

11

64) Tammy, Lisa, Bartolo, Shonda, and Roberto all work in product development for office applications at Brinks Software. After work, to get to know each other better and to talk shop, Tammy, Lisa, Shonda, and Roberto all also enjoy going to the Lux Lounge for Happy Hour. Tammy, Lisa, Bartolo, Shonda, and Roberto constitute a(n) ________ group.

A) formal B) task C) action D) informal E) performance

64)

65) The phenomenon of ________ describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views.

A) social loafing B) group polarization C) groupshift D) satisficing E) groupthink

65)

66) Which of the following is not likely to encourage group cohesiveness?

A) Increasing the group's status and the perceived difficulty of attaining membership B) Increasing the size of the group C) Obtaining agreement upon the established goals D) Stimulating competition with other groups E) Physically isolating the group

66)

67) Alberto is working with a group of seven people to coordinate the merger of his company with another company in the same industry. Everyone in Alberto's group is highly qualified, offers relevant information, and has high norms. Every group member works on their regular responsibilities and the group meets for thirty minutes once a week. The group seems to be slow at outlining a definitive plan for the merger. With the information provided, what would be the fastest and best way for Alberto to increase cohesiveness and productivity?

A) Give rewards to individual members B) Invite more members into the group C) Stimulate competition within the group D) Increase the size of the group E) Increase the time members spend together

67)

68) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of group cohesiveness and performance norms on group productivity?

A) When both cohesiveness and performance norms are high, productivity will be high.

B) If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be high.

C) The productivity of the group is affected by the performance norms but not by the cohesiveness of the group.

D) If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity will be low.

E) When cohesiveness is low and performance norms are also low, productivity will be high.

68)

12

69) Which of the following is not an effective means of countering social loafing?

A) Engage in peer evaluations B) Select members who have high motivation and prefer to work in groups C) Create virtual groups D) Structure work so that each member's contribution can be identified E) Increase intergroup competition

69)

70) Which of the following is most likely to experience interrole conflict?

A) An actor who is also homosexual B) A college student who is also working full time C) A politician who is also a clergyman D) A policewoman who is also a mother E) A college professor who is also an author

70)

71) Rhoda is an executive assistant at a major medical center. Because she works directly with the head doctor, Rhoda feels that it is appropriate to council patients on their upcoming procedures. Marge, a recent graduate with a degree in Healthcare Administration, also works at the medical center and is responsible for new patients. Marge typically becomes irritated when Rhoda attempts to council new patients. Rhoda is struggling with her ________.

A) role norms B) performance norm C) social norms D) role expectation E) role perception

71)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

72) Status is a legally defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others.

72)

73) All groups have established norms.

73)

74) Per the punctuated equilibrium model, the first meeting is one of inertia and slow progress of the group.

74)

75) Surface-level diversity (e.g., gender, race) increases group conflict.

75)

76) The most common form of group decision making takes place in interacting groups.

76)

77) In group decision making, brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity that dampen creativity.

77)

78) When compliance with one role requirement makes it difficult to comply with another, the result is role conflict.

78)

79) An informal group is neither formally structured nor organizationally determined.

79)

80) According to the punctuated-equilibrium model, once set, the group's direction is solidified and is unlikely to be reexamined throughout the first half of its life.

80)

81) Group decisions suffer from ambiguous responsibility.

81)

13

82) There is a strong link between actual diversity and perceived diversity in groups.

82)

83) There are conformity pressures in groups.

83)

84) It is important for group members to believe the status hierarchy is equitable.

84)

85) While groups offer increased diversity of views, they lead to decreased acceptance of a solution.

85)

86) One way to increase cohesiveness in groups is to stimulate competition with other groups.

86)

87) According to status characteristics theory, status tends to derive from one of three sources.

87)

88) Role perception refers to the way others believe you should act in a given context.

88)

89) The social contract refers to an unwritten agreement between employees and employers that establishes mutual expectations.

89)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

90) How can faultlines be addressed or harnessed for good within organizations?

91) Explain the following terms: "groupthink" and "groupshift."

92) How do norms and conformity relate to each other?

93) What do we know about status and group interaction?

94) Please describe how the punctuated-equilibrium model addresses inertia in the stages of group development.

95) You have been working at Saxet Consulting for the past year and are expected to complete three client reviews per week. You have been very productive and have been completing two extra reviews per week. At a recent team meeting, you expected to receive praise from the President for this extra work; however, your manager took credit for the extra work and received the praise from the President. What has your manager violated and what is your likely reaction?

96) Andy, Jamie, Carlos, and Neha are working on a product development group at Ambys, Inc. Andy, Jamie, and Carlos notice that Neha contributes very little to the group's activities. They find out from colleagues that Neha works hard and is good at what she does when working on her own. What problem does the group face and how should Andy, Jamie, and Carlos address this situation?

97) What do we know about status and stigmatization?

98) Why is the nominal group technique considered an effective method?

99) What is the psychological contract?

100) How does group size affect a group's behavior?

14

Answer Key Testname: C9

1) E 2) E 3) D 4) E 5) E 6) C 7) D 8) A 9) B 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) E 14) D 15) C 16) C 17) E 18) C 19) B 20) E 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) E 25) E 26) A 27) A 28) D 29) B 30) D 31) A 32) E 33) A 34) D 35) D 36) B 37) B 38) B 39) A 40) B 41) E 42) E 43) E 44) E 45) B 46) E 47) D 48) A 49) E 50) D 15

Answer Key Testname: C9

51) B 52) A 53) B 54) E 55) C 56) D 57) C 58) A 59) B 60) D 61) A 62) D 63) B 64) A 65) E 66) B 67) E 68) A 69) C 70) C 71) E 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) Faultlines are perceived divisions that split groups into two or more subgroups based on individual differences such as sex, race, age, work experience, language, and education. Research on faultlines has shown that splits are generally detrimental to group functioning and performance.

Studies show that problems stemming from diversity and strong faultlines may be overcome when their roles are crosscut, the group is given a common goal to strive for, and similar pairs are recruited within a diverse group.

Altogether, forced collaboration between members of subgroups and a focus on accomplishing a goal may boost performance in some organizations. Pro-diversity beliefs and open-mindedness norms also help.

16

Answer Key Testname: C9

91) Groupthink is related to norms. It describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views. Groupthink is a disease that attacks many groups and can dramatically hinder their performance. Groupshift indicates that in discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions that they hold. What appears to happen in groups is that the discussion leads members toward a more extreme view of the position they already held. Conservatives become more cautious, and more aggressive types take on more risk.

92) Norms are acceptable standards of behavior shared by members that express what they ought to do and ought not to do under certain circumstances. As a member of a group, you desire acceptance and stability. Conformity is the adjustment of one's behavior to align with the norms of the group. Thus, you may conform to group norms when you perceive that others are doing so or if you experience conflict or frustration. Considerable evidence suggests that groups can place strong pressures on members to change (i.e., conform) in order to match the group's standard.

93) People tend to become more assertive when they seek to attain higher status in a group. They speak out more often, criticize more, state more commands, and interrupt others more often. Conversely, some evidence suggests that those who do have higher status tend to conceal it to promote group harmony. Lower status members participate less actively in group discussions; when they possess insights that could aid the group, failure to fully utilize these members reduces the group's overall performance.

94) The punctuated equilibrium model looks at the stages of group development as a set of phases that temporary groups go through that involve transitions between inertia and activity. Once at the first meeting the group's direction is solidified, it is unlikely to be reexamined throughout the first half of its life. This is a period of inertia the group tends to stand still or become locked into a fixed course of action, even if it gains new insights that challenge initial patterns and assumptions. Inertia is also present after a transition happens after the first period of inertia. The burst of activity after the first period of inertia results in a second phase of inertia following the transition.

95) My manager has violated the psychological contract which exists between a manager and an employee. Managers are supposed to act in an ethical manner and not take credit for other people's work. It is very unlikely that I will continue to complete the extra work and it is also possible I will start to exert less than expected efforts.

96) What Neha is exhibiting is called social loafing—the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively than when alone. To prevent Neha's social loafing, the group has to get together and (1) set group goals, so the group has a common purpose to strive toward; (2) increase intergroup competition, which focuses on the shared group outcome; (3) engage in peer evaluations; (4) select members who have high motivation and prefer to work in groups; and (5) base group rewards in part on each member's unique contributions.

97) Although it is clear that status affects the way people perceive others, the status of people with whom one is affiliated can also affect others' view. People who are stigmatized can "infect" others with their stigma. This "stigma by association" effect can result in negative opinions and evaluations of the person affiliated with the stigmatized individual, even if the association is brief and purely coincidental.

98) One of the ways to reduce problems inherent in the traditional interacting group is the nominal group technique. This is a group decision making method in which individual members meet face to face to pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion. Here, before any discussion takes place, each member independently writes down ideas about the problem. Each member then presents one idea to the group. No discussion takes place until all ideas have been presented and recorded. The group discusses all the ideas for clarity and evaluates them. Each group member silently and independently rank-orders the ideas. The idea with the highest aggregate ranking determines the final decision. This is an effective method to enable independent thinking by group members.

99) Role expectations are the way others believe you should act in a given context. In the workplace, we often look at role expectations through the perspective of the psychological contract: an unwritten agreement between employees and employers (including senior management, supervisors, coworkers, and recruiters) that establishes mutual expectations.

Management is expected to treat employees justly, provide acceptable working conditions, clearly communicate what is a fair day's work, and give feedback on how well an employee is doing. Employees are expected to demonstrate a good attitude, follow directions, and show loyalty to the organization.

17

Answer Key Testname: C9

100) Group size does affect the group's overall behavior, but the effect depends on the outcomes one is interested in. Large groups–with a dozen or more members–are good for gaining diverse input. So if the goal of the group is fact-finding, larger groups should be more effective. On the other hand, smaller groups are better at doing something productive with that input. Groups of approximately seven members, therefore, tend to be more effective for taking action.

18

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Members of successful teams put a tremendous amount of time and effort into discussing, shaping, and agreeing on ________, which then provides direction and guidance under any and all conditions.

A) developing team efficacy B) a common purpose C) allocation of resources D) allocation of roles E) the level of individual contribution

1)

2) You need to hire an analyst for an important project team. It is essential that the new employee work well on the already established team in order to meet the project's challenging deadlines. The most talented candidate doesn't have any team experience and when asked in the interview about his team experience, he replied, "I prefer to work alone. I'm much more efficient alone." What should you do?

A) Hire him and redesign the job.

B) Hire him and train him.

C) Look for a different candidate.

D) Hire him and assign him a mentor.

E) Hire him and hope that he learns.

2)

3) During an interview with one team member, you learn that several members of the team have had conflicts regarding the content of a task to which the team was recently assigned. Are these conflicts likely to be reducing the group's productivity?

A) Yes, because interpersonal conflicts always hurt a team's performance.

B) No, because task-related conflicts usually benefit the performance of a team.

C) Yes, because disagreements about tasks usually lessen groupthink.

D) No, because conflicts based on personal animosity rarely affect team operations.

E) Yes, because task-related conflicts lead to poor team decisions.

3)

4) According to studies, when team members share an accurate mental model, they ________.

A) face acute stress B) work independently C) display increased social loafing tendencies D) have frequent interactions E) have an indifferent attitude toward their work

4)

5) Myriam has been a standout team member at Amohalka Consulting for several years. She is always the first person to train new colleagues, share information, help resolve team conflicts, and master new and modern skills. Clearly, Myriam also does what in the organization?

A) Avoids promotions and pay raises B) Both makes individual contributions and has a low level of trust in her teammates' abilities C) Makes individual contributions D) Both seeks promotions and pay raises and has a low level of trust in her teammates' abilities E) Has a low level of trust in her teammates' abilities

5)

1

6) Which of the following statements is true regarding a reward system that attempts to create good team players?

A) Rewards given to individuals should be based on peer evaluation.

B) The reward system should ignore individual contributions.

C) The reward system should encourage competitive efforts.

D) The reward system should discourage cooperative efforts.

E) Performance-based rewards could include a bonus based on achievement of team goals.

6)

7) Which of the following statements is true regarding a work team?

A) Work teams are less flexible than traditional departments.

B) Work teams are less responsive to changing events than are traditional departments.

C) Today, work teams are rarely used in organizations.

D) Work teams generate positive synergy through coordinated effort.

E) Work teams impede employee participation in decision making.

7)

8) Cultural diversity seems to be ________ for tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints; also, these teams have ________ learning to work with each other and problem solving.

A) difficult; collaboration while B) a liability; difficulty C) collaborative; indifference D) an asset; difficulty E) indifferent; difficulty

8)

9) Which of the following is most likely to increase team efficacy?

A) Reducing the number of members on a team B) Improving the reflexivity of the team C) Providing measurable goals D) Ensuring that team goals are challenging E) Helping the team achieve small successes

9)

10) The A Team at Atomic Consulting often finds that it has to negotiate for resources from the organization to conduct its activities. In addition, the team finds itself constantly disturbed by outsiders criticizing the work of the team. The A Team needs a(n) ________.

A) controller B) promoter C) adviser D) maintainer E) linker

10)

11) The Alpha team at the Douglas Corporation is charged with identifying new markets for the company's products and developing market entry strategies. The team finds that getting information about various foreign markets requires access to proprietary databases that they do not have. According to the information provided, which contextual factor is most likely hindering the success of the Alpha team?

A) Adequate resources B) Interdependence C) Leadership and structure D) Culture or climate E) Technology/virtuality

11)

2

12) Which of the following refers to a shared model of information relevant to the team?

A) Convergence model B) Goal congruence system C) Reflexivity system D) Transactive memory system E) Cognitive mental model

12)

13) ________ teams are an effective way to allow people from diverse areas within an organization to exchange information, develop new ideas, solve problems, and coordinate complex projects.

A) Task B) Command C) Problem-solving D) Self-managed E) Cross-functional

13)

14) In addition to evaluating and rewarding employees for their individual contributions, management should consider using ________ to reinforce team effort and commitment.

A) consistent wages for all team members B) individual performance evaluations C) personalized incentives D) profit sharing E) fixed hourly wages

14)

15) The Jupiter company has offices all over the United States and in several Latin American countries.

What is the best option for The Jupiter Company to create teams?

A) Command teams B) Self-managed teams C) Task teams D) Virtual teams E) Problem-solving teams

15)

16) Alberto's team is evaluating and developing the database for the water pollution data of three cities. He wants to improve the team efficacy of his team. Which of the following actions can Alberto take to increase team efficacy before the project starts?

A) Create team goals that are very challenging.

B) Plan a team outing for the team members.

C) Make sure that his team is not comprised of more than nine people.

D) Spend considerable time evaluating team members and allocating proper roles for each.

E) Provide client's software and database training for all the team members.

16)

17) Which of the following is not one of the key components of effective teams?

A) Team efficacy B) Leadership and structure C) Adequate resources D) Large size E) Member flexibility

17)

3

18) The Accurate Watch Company employs a full-time quality control team that meets face to face every day and hand-checks every manufactured watch and clock. The team is most likely to be a ________ team.

A) self-managed B) task C) problem-solving D) virtual E) cross-functional

18)

19) Which of the following statements is true regarding self-managed work teams?

A) In the case of self-managed work teams, supervisory positions take on decreased importance.

B) Self-managed work teams are typically composed of employees from different departments who work independent of each other.

C) Self-managed work teams typically consist of forty to fifty employees.

D) Self-managed work teams typically manage conflicts well.

E) Members of self-managed work teams typically report lower job satisfaction.

19)

20) ________ suggest(s) that attributes such as age or the date of joining should help us predict turnover.

A) Residential mobility B) Demographic environment C) Employee mobility D) Population dynamics E) Organizational demography

20)

21) If team members have similar mental models then it means that the team members have similar ________.

A) self-efficacy B) knowledge and skills C) beliefs about how the work gets done D) attitudes towards social loafing E) roles within the team

21)

22) With reference to the team effectiveness model, which of the following is not one of the key components of an effective team, included under the category of contextual factors?

A) Adequate resources B) Culture or climate C) Norms D) Allocating roles E) Interdependence

22)

23) In which of the following type of teams does the team take on some supervisory responsibilities?

A) Problem-solving B) Technical C) Task D) Virtual E) Self-managed

23)

4

24) In the Alpha team at Dalton Auto Parts, Marci's role is to fight external battles with other departments and top management for resources. Marci is a ________.

A) linker B) promoter C) producer D) controller E) maintainer

24)

25) Cross-functional teams are not easy to manage because power is shifted due to the need for different expertise in different areas. What does this situation create?

A) Virtual teams B) Counterproductive work behaviors C) Leadership ambiguity D) Lack of diversity E) Citizenship behaviors

25)

26) Which type of team is permanent, meets at a regular time, and solves problems?

A) Quality-control teams B) Virtual teams C) Cross functional teams D) Manufacturing teams E) Action teams

26)

27) Laski United is a rock group that has been around for 5 years creating music in their studio and going on tours to play their music. They had just had their first #1 hit. This band would be best described as a ________.

A) work group B) work team C) problem-solving team D) self-managed team E) cross-functional team

27)

28) After a successful 20-year career as a rock band, and 10 years apart, Laski United has reunited for a tour. Their lead singer, Chuck Corcoran, has returned to the band after a fairly successful solo album. In this scenario, Laski United could be most likely classified as a ________.

A) self-managed team B) work group C) problem-solving team D) cross-functional team E) work team

28)

29) Which of the following types of teams is most likely to be assembled to improve the efficiency of a company's production process?

A) Critical B) Self-managed C) Task D) Cross-functional E) Problem-solving

29)

5

30) You are the manager of a software design firm that develops software programs for clients using teams of specialists. One of your most successful teams has been together for nearly 5 years. In the past, this team has performed effectively, and you have been very satisfied with the team's output.

Recently, however, you have noticed a marked decrease in the team's performance. You investigate to determine the problem. After interviewing all 7 team members, you determine that one of the team members performs routine administrative tasks that are rarely visible to any of the other team members. You suspect that this team member may be loafing off and lagging in his duties. You could most likely improve that team member's output by ________.

A) empowering the team member to make decisions B) providing him with administrative training C) giving him additional assignments to complete D) encouraging him to work more independently E) making his work clearly visible to the other team members

30)

31) Which of the following is true of work teams?

A) A team consists of two or more people who work independently, with distinct goals and strategies.

B) A team works over some time period to accomplish common goals related to some task-oriented purpose.

C) Groups are formed with a specific purpose in mind, while teams do not have a specific goal.

D) Interactions among members within teams are more personal and informal than interactions between people in groups.

E) The members of a team operate relatively independently of each other, and other members are not essential to their accomplishment of goals.

31)

32) According to the team effectiveness model, which of the following is not a process variable that influences effectiveness of a team?

A) Motivation B) Social loafing C) Common purpose D) Team efficacy E) Member preferences

32)

33) In the case of a team, when each member's contribution is not clearly visible, ________.

A) mutual accountability of the team members tends to decrease B) team efficacy tends to increase C) motivation of the team members tends to increase D) team members tend to decrease their efforts E) team cohesiveness tends to decrease

33)

34) Aisha is your director of sales. Since her team members are located in Europe, Asia, and North America, she has decided to use video conferencing facilities to tie her team members together in order to develop a marketing strategy for a new product line. This is an example of a ________ team.

A) problem-solving B) self-managed C) virtual D) cross-functional E) task-resolution

34)

6

35) Which of the following statements best defines a work group?

A) A work group is a group composed of 10 or more people who belong to the same department.

B) A work group's performance is generally greater than the sum of its inputs from individual members.

C) A work group has a positive synergy and no active group dynamics, resulting in greater outputs.

D) A work group consists of 5 or more people who work collaboratively.

E) A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in work that requires joint effort.

35)

36) According to the concept of organizational demography, if team members have dissimilar experiences, it will lead to ________.

A) higher employee turnover B) increased employee satisfaction C) higher team efficacy D) decreased level of conflicts E) higher employee motivation

36)

37) Diversity of members includes all of the following except ________.

A) marital status B) sex C) age D) educational level E) race

37)

38) Leadership is especially important in ________, in which different teams coordinate their efforts to produce a desired outcome.

A) management teams B) problem-solving teams C) technical teams D) multiteam systems E) self-managed teams

38)

39) ________ results in a level of performance that is greater than the sum of the individual inputs.

A) Emotional labor B) Emotional dissonance C) Synergy D) Positive affect E) Cognitive dissonance

39)

40) Effective teams have confidence in themselves; they believe they can succeed. This is called team ________.

A) congruence B) bonding C) reflexivity D) hubris E) efficacy

40)

7

41) Which of the following statements is true regarding a cross-functional team?

A) A cross-functional team is made up of employees from the same department.

B) A cross-functional team is made up of employees from different hierarchical levels.

C) Cross-functional teams are used for developing new ideas and coordinating complex projects.

D) Today, cross-functional teams are rarely used in well-established organizations.

E) In the case of a cross-functional team, the early stages of development are typically very short.

41)

42) When Omega Inc. puts together a team of assistant managers from marketing, finance, operations, and production, what type of a team are they forming?

A) Rapid action B) Cross-functional C) Self-managed D) Task E) Problem-solving

42)

43) In an effort to improve the efficacy of its teams, the Belding Mattress Company recently added to its basic individual incentive system an annual bonus based on the achievement of team goals. Based on the information above, which of the following statements is true?

A) The reward system changed from competition to cooperation.

B) Resources were given to company teams.

C) Team performance is likely to suffer because of misaligned incentives.

D) The change in reward system is likely to make the teams dysfunctional.

E) Team members are now likely to distrust each other.

43)

44) Teams that are composed of people who score high on ________ are more creative and innovative.

A) extraversion B) agreeableness C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience E) emotional stability

44)

45) Work teams differ from groups because ________.

A) members of teams work independently of each other, while those in groups show greater dependence on each other B) teams have no limits on the number of members, while groups have a restricted membership C) teams have no fixed duration, while groups have a fixed duration D) members of teams have a specific task-related purpose, while groups do not E) members of teams work toward individual goals that may or may not be related, while groups have a common goal

45)

46) Your company has recently landed a contract to design and manufacture a new state-of-the-art electronic device for the military. This will be a very complex project, requiring many different types of skills. Which of the following types of teams is most suited for the project?

A) Virtual B) Self-managed C) Cross-functional D) Task-resolution E) Problem-solving

46)

8

47) Which of the following is a relevant question to ask to determine if the work of a group would be better done in teams?

A) Is individual responsibility adequate to complete the job?

B) Can one person do the work well?

C) Is the total performance we expect the sum of each individual's performance?

D) Is the task simple to do?

E) Are the members of the group interdependent?

47)

48) In the product development team at Nurture Inc. Randy's role is to examine the options that the team has identified and offer an insightful analysis. Randy's role is that of a(n) ________.

A) organizer B) maintainer C) adviser D) assessor E) linker

48)

49) Which of these teams can only make recommendations?

A) Both problem-solving and virtual B) Cross-functional C) Problem-solving D) Self-managed E) Virtual

49)

50) Research has shown that having a positive experience working within a team can also influence one's ________.

A) personal decision making B) attitudes toward diversity C) job satisfaction D) abilities E) views on management

50)

51) ________ teams are groups of employees who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors.

A) Critical B) Task C) Cross-functional D) Problem-solving E) Self-managed work

51)

52) You are vice-president of a division of a large, multi-national company that makes electronic equipment for consumers and the military. Your company has several teams and there are several managers managing those teams. Juanita, the head of business development, has created a team of seven vice-presidents from various departments who meet for three hours a week to discuss new market entry. This is an example of a ________ team.

A) cross-functional B) virtual C) problem-solving D) task-resolution E) self-managed

52)

9

53) In team member roles, a(n) ________ encourages the search for more information.

A) linker B) maintainer C) promoter D) creator E) adviser

53)

54) By recognizing individuals' specific skills and abilities, as well as create a climate of respect and inclusion, leaders and members can foster positive team ________ and realize improved team outcomes.

A) congruence B) cognition C) identity D) bonding E) efficacy

54)

55) ________ systems represent a shared model of information relevant to the team.

A) Organizational B) Transactive memory C) Relationship conflict D) Cognitive E) Task conflict

55)

56) Individuals with a positive ________ identity but without a positive ________ identity can become fixed to their teams and unwilling to coordinate with other teams within the organization.

A) organizational; self-efficacy B) team; organizational C) self-efficacy; virtual D) individual; team E) virtual; individual

56)

57) The Boeing Company created a team made up of twelve employees who performed highly related jobs and gave the team some supervisory responsibilities. This team is most likely to be an example of a ________ team.

A) self-managed B) cross-functional C) problem-solving D) task E) command

57)

58) Which of the following statements is not true regarding a work team?

A) Accountability in a work team is at the individual level.

B) The performance level of the work team is greater than the summation of each group member's individual contribution.

C) Work teams look for members with complementary skills.

D) The goal of a work team is collective performance.

E) A work team generates positive synergy through coordination.

58)

10

59) Eva is not getting the results she needs from her data base administration team. She believes that this problem is occurring because the administration team is a virtual team. Which of the following is one of the things that Eva should do to create an effective virtual team?

A) Include peer evaluation in the appraisal system.

B) Conduct training for improving interpersonal skills.

C) Allow more independence among members.

D) Avoid publicizing team successes company wide.

E) Monitor progress of the team closely.

59)

60) With reference to the team effectiveness model, which of the following would be a team composition factor?

A) Norms B) Common purpose C) Interdependence D) Motivation E) Diversity

60)

61) Research suggests that when members feel confident to ________ without fear of punishment, ________ can be beneficial and boost team performance.

A) speak up; gossip B) speak up; training sessions C) speak up; conflict D) complain; conflict E) complain; training sessions

61)

62) One of the reasons that Shonda's team is very effective is because the team constantly focuses on their mission, the goals to achieve their mission, and the strategies for achieving their goals. As a case in point, the team recently moved away from what was a good plan because the external conditions had changed. A key reason for Shonda's team's success is its focus on ________.

A) modularity B) compatibility C) civility D) diversity E) reflexivity

62)

63) Generally speaking, the most effective teams have ________ members.

A) fifteen to twenty B) ten to fifteen C) two to four D) five to nine E) three to five

63)

64) Teams that consist of team members that score ________ are more likely to perform poorly.

A) low on extraversion B) high on conscientiousness C) low on agreeableness D) high on openness to experience E) high on emotional stability

64)

11

65) Lamar, your director of manufacturing, has created a team of eleven employees from quality control. Lamar gives the team members the responsibility of planning and scheduling their own work, and making operating decisions. Also, members of this team evaluate each other's performance. This is an example of a ________ team.

A) cross-functional B) virtual C) self-managed D) problem-solving E) task-resolution

65)

66) Which of the following techniques can be used for increasing effectiveness of teams?

A) Implement a reward system that encourages competitive efforts.

B) The appraisal system should take into consideration peer evaluation.

C) Training should be provided to those candidates who lack team skills.

D) Avoid giving promotions and pay raises for individual contributions.

E) The reward system should discourage cooperative efforts.

66)

67) One of the dangers of teams is that ________.

A) team members can be swayed by errors in decision-making processes B) they take time to assemble, deploy, refocus, and disband C) they emphasize the personal mindset in decision-making D) they are less flexible than traditional departments E) There are no dangers of teams.

67)

68) Effective teams begin their work by ________.

A) allocating roles to team members according to their personalities and preferences B) developing team efficacy C) discussing individual goals D) developing a climate of trust among team members E) analyzing the team's mission

68)

69) Which type of conflict can lead to better team decisions?

A) Task conflict B) Resource conflict C) Goal conflict D) Efficacy conflict E) Relationship conflict

69)

70) The team effectiveness model classifies the key components of effective teams into three general categories: context, composition, and process. Which of the following variables does not belong to the composition category?

A) Personality B) Allocating roles C) Motivation D) Member flexibility E) Diversity

70)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

71) Quality-controls teams are an example of problem-solving teams.

12

71)

72) Creating teams often means resisting the urge to hire the best talent no matter what.

72)

73) One of the roles in a team is that of the assessor one who examines details and enforces rules.

73)

74) Functionally, groups and teams are often used to refer to the same thing.

74)

75) Team scaffolds are fluid, underlying structures that establish role types, shared responsibilities, and boundaries in teams.

75)

76) Cross-functional teams share a superordinate goal.

76)

77) Teams are often created deliberately but sometimes evolve organically.

77)

78) Self-managed work teams are employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task.

78)

79) The fact that organizations have embraced teamwork means that teams are always effective.

79)

80) In work groups, the accountability is at the individual level.

80)

81) Teams can quickly assemble, deploy, refocus, and disband.

81)

82) One of the key components of effective teams is role fluidity.

82)

83) Teams have increased communication demands, conflicts to manage, and meetings to run.

83)

84) Teams should be used when tasks are independent.

84)

85) A work team is a collection of individuals doing their work, albeit with some interaction and/or dependency.

85)

86) Virtual teams use technology to unite physically dispersed members to achieve a common goal.

86)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

87) Are self-managed work teams effective?

88) Explain how reward systems can create team players.

89) What is team efficacy? What can management do to increase team efficacy?

90) How does climate of trust improve effectiveness of teams?

91) What contextual factors, according to the team effectiveness model, make up effective teams?

92) Why are mental models an important team process?

93) With respect to work teams, what is reflexivity?

13

94) What is demography and what role does it play in work teams?

95) What is a multiteam system?

96) What are some special challenges that virtual teams face? For virtual teams to be effective, what should management ensure?

97) Discuss the effect of team size on effectiveness of teams.

98) In allocating team roles, what do linkers, promoters, and controllers do?

99) What tests would you use when deciding whether the work of your group would be better done in teams?

100) How do work groups and work teams differ on goals, accountability, and skills?

14

Answer Key Testname: C10

1) B 2) C 3) B 4) D 5) C 6) E 7) D 8) D 9) E 10) D 11) A 12) D 13) E 14) D 15) D 16) E 17) D 18) C 19) A 20) E 21) C 22) D 23) E 24) E 25) C 26) A 27) B 28) B 29) E 30) E 31) B 32) E 33) D 34) C 35) E 36) A 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) E 41) C 42) B 43) A 44) D 45) D 46) C 47) E 48) D 49) C 50) A 15

Answer Key Testname: C10

51) E 52) A 53) E 54) C 55) B 56) B 57) A 58) A 59) E 60) E 61) C 62) E 63) D 64) C 65) C 66) C 67) A 68) E 69) A 70) C 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) Research on the effectiveness of self-managed work teams has not been uniformly positive. Some research indicates that the effectiveness of self-managed teams is contingent on the degree to which team-promoting behaviors are rewarded. For example, when team members perceive that economic rewards such as pay are dependent on input from their teammates, performance improves for both the individuals and the team. Research also indicates that self-managed teams are not effective when there is conflict. When disputes arise, members often stop cooperating and power struggles ensue, which leads to lower group performance. However, other research indicates that conflict can be beneficial and boost performance under specific conditions. Finally, the research on the effect of self-managed teams on member behavior is mixed. Although individuals on teams report higher levels of job satisfaction than other individuals, studies indicate that they also have higher absenteeism and turnover rates. Finally, research also suggests that in the absence of controlled supervision, leaders may "over-emerge," in that people who are not very effective leaders can take control more readily.

16

Answer Key Testname: C10

88) A traditional organization's reward system must be reworked to encourage cooperative efforts rather than competitive ones. When this happens, teams select new members carefully so they will contribute to team effectiveness (and, thus, team bonuses). Promotions, pay raises, and other forms of recognition should be given to individuals who work effectively as team members by training new colleagues, sharing information, helping resolve team conflicts, and mastering needed new skills. Team-based rewards have been shown to positively influence team performance, especially when they are distributed based on individual's levels of contribution (rather than equally distributed).

89) Effective teams have confidence in themselves; they believe they can succeed. We call this team efficacy. Teams that have been successful raise their beliefs about future success, which, in turn, motivates them to work harder. The two ways in which the management can increase team efficacy are: (1) helping the team achieve small successes that build confidence, (2) providing training to improve members' technical and interpersonal skills.

90) Interpersonal trust among team members facilitates cooperation, reduces the need to monitor each other's behavior, and bonds members around the belief that others on the team won't take advantage of them. Team members are more likely to take risks and expose vulnerabilities when they believe they can trust others on their team. Trust is the foundation of leadership. It allows a team to accept and commit to its leader's goals and decisions.

91) According to the team effectiveness model, there are eight contextual factors most significantly related to team performance. The first is the adequacy of resources. A scarcity of resources directly reduces the ability of a team to perform its job effectively and achieve its goals. The second is leadership and structure. Teams function well if they properly allocate roles and ensure the workload is shared by all team members. This requires leadership and structure, either from management or from team members themselves. The third is climate or culture. Teams can have their own cultures and climates that influence their effectiveness. The fourth is performance evaluation and reward system. A system must be put in place to both recognize individual contributions as well as overall team outcomes. The fifth deals with technology, the sixth describes the importance of interdependence among team members, while the seventh identifies the importance of group norms. Finally, crises and extreme contexts are a crucible in which the merits of teams can be put to the test. These contexts can unlock the potential of team members who do truly great things under stress. They can also lead to the unraveling of the team fabric, resulting in disaster.

92) Mental models are organized mental representations of the key elements within a team's environment. While team mission and goals pertain to what a team needs to be effective, mental models pertain to how a team does its work. If team members have the wrong mental models, which is particularly likely in teams under acute stress, their performance suffers. One review found that teams with shared mental models engaged in more frequent interactions with one another, were more motivated, had more positive attitudes toward their work, and had higher levels of objectively rated performance.

93) Reflexivity is a team characteristic of reflecting on and adjusting their purpose or plan when necessary. Effective teams show reflexivity. A team must have a good plan, but it needs to be willing and able to adapt when conditions call for it.

Reflexivity can help improve psychological well-being in manufacturing teams, help startup teams learn from their setbacks, and help improve performance in extreme environments like hospital emergency rooms.

94) Demography is the degree to which members of a work unit share a common demographic attribute, such as age, sex, race, educational level, or length of service in an organization. Demography research suggests that turnover will be greater among those with dissimilar experiences, as communication may be more difficult and conflict more likely.

However, the conclusion from reviews of hundreds of studies suggests that demographic diversity has a negative (but very small) effect on team performance and creativity.

95) Most teams are small, standalone teams, although their activities relate to the broader objectives of the organization. As tasks become more complex, teams often grow, which is accompanied by higher coordination demands. This creates a tipping point at which the addition of another team member does more harm than good. To solve this problem, organizations use multiteam systems collections of two or more interdependent teams that share a superordinate goal. In short, a multiteam system is a "team of teams."

17

Answer Key Testname: C10

96) Virtual teams may suffer from less social rapport and less direct interaction among members. They aren't able to duplicate the normal give-and-take of face-to-face discussion. Especially when members haven't personally met, virtual teams tend to be more task-oriented and exchange less social-emotional information. Not surprisingly, virtual team members report less satisfaction with the group interaction process than do face-to-face teams. For virtual teams to be effective, management should ensure that: (a) trust is established among team members (research has shown that one inflammatory remark in a team member e-mail can severely undermine team trust); (b) team progress is monitored closely (so the team doesn't lose sight of its goals, and no team member "disappears"); and (c) the efforts and products of the virtual team are publicized throughout the organization (so the team does not become invisible).

97) Generally speaking, the most effective teams have five to nine members. And experts suggest using the smallest number of people who can do the task. Unfortunately, managers often err by making teams too large. It may require only four or five members to develop diversity of views and skills, while coordination problems can increase exponentially as team members are added. When teams have excess members, cohesiveness and mutual accountability decline, social loafing increases, and more people communicate less. Members of large teams have trouble coordinating with one another, especially under time pressure. Keep teams at nine or fewer members.

98) Linkers, promoters, and controllers are three of nine potential team member roles. Successful work teams have selected people to play all these roles based on their skills and preferences (on many teams, individuals will play multiple roles). A linker coordinates and integrates. Promoters champion ideas after they are initiated. Controllers examine details and enforce team rules.

99) When deciding whether the work of a group is better done in teams, we can use three tests: (1) Can the work be done better by more than one person? Good indicators of this are the complexity of the work and the need for different perspectives, (2) Does the work create a common purpose or set of goals for the people in the group that is more than the aggregate of individual goals? and (3) Are the members of the group interdependent? Using teams makes sense when there is interdependence among tasks—the success of the whole depends on the success of each one, and the success of each one depends on the success of the others.

100) While both work groups and work teams involve a collection of individuals working together, they differ on key parameters. While the goal of a work group is to share information, the goal of a work team is collective performance.

There is individual accountability in a work group. In contrast, there is both an individual as well as mutual accountability in a work team. This is because in a work group, performance is merely a summation of each member's individual contribution. In a work team, however, positive synergy is created through coordination so that the sum is greater than the collection of individual efforts. Finally, individuals bring their random and varied skills to a work group, while effective work teams look for complementary skills in their members.

18

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is an example of upward communication?

A) A team leader sends an e-mail to one of her team members giving him feedback about his performance.

B) A manager sends an e-mail to all members in the organization informing them about new policies and procedures.

C) A team leader sends an e-mail to his team members pointing out problems that need attention.

D) A team member sends an e-mail to his colleague informing him about the latest changes in the specifications of the project.

E) A team member sends an e-mail to his team leader informing her about the problems faced by him on the current project.

1)

2) ________ communication flows to a higher level in the group or organization.

A) Downward B) Upward C) Grapevine D) Lateral E) Horizontal

2)

3) Brenda is a new employee orientation trainer for a global corporation with subsidiaries all over the world. She needs to convey information to new employees that will help them in communicating across cultures. Brenda should advise new employees to do which of the following when dealing with others from different cultures?

A) Avoid interpreting another's actions until you know the full story.

B) Minimize opportunities for feedback.

C) Remember that individuals are similar in many ways.

D) Act decisively and quickly to demonstrate your power.

E) Do your best to avoid conflict.

3)

4) Communication that takes place among members of work groups at the same level is known as ________ communication.

A) lateral B) diagonal C) grapevine D) downward E) upward

4)

5) Which of the following statements is true regarding oral communication?

A) As compared to written communication, it is more likely to be well thought out, logical, and clear.

B) It is often tangible and verifiable.

C) In the case of oral communication, when the message has to pass through a number of people, as the number of people increases the possibility of distortion of the message decreases.

D) The sender can quickly obtain feedback from the receiver.

E) It can be stored for an indefinite period.

5)

1

6) Harriet has been assigned the task of setting up work teams for a complex software development project. Each team has different work requirements. Harriet must choose the best structure for each team, based on its specific requirements. Team A must operate very quickly to meet stringent deadlines. The quality of the final project depends highly on Team A's output, so Team A must also work very accurately. Which of the following network structures should Harriet choose for this team?

A) Wheel B) Mesh C) All-channel D) Chain E) Star

6)

7) Which one of the following is an informal source of information for job applicants joining an organization?

A) Electronic communication B) Vertical communication C) Nonverbal communication D) Grapevine communication E) Horizontal communication

7)

8) Generally, which of the following methods of communication should be used for communicating a complex and lengthy message when the message has to pass through a number of people?

A) Filtered communication B) Oral communication C) Grapevine communication D) Nonverbal communication E) Written communication

8)

9) An informal communication network in an organization is typically called the ________.

A) grapevine B) contextual system C) free acting system D) wheel network E) chain network

9)

10) Which of the following values is most likely to be important to low-context cultures?

A) Status B) Titles C) Trust D) Directness E) Space

10)

11) John writes a memo to his employees. Putting his thoughts onto paper is an example of ________.

A) transferring B) editing C) channeling D) encoding E) decoding

11)

2

12) Because of an adversarial organizational culture at Bombast Inc., subordinates only tell their superiors what the superiors want to hear. What is the communication issue at Bombast Inc.?

A) Selective perception B) Filtering C) Emotional block D) Communication apprehension E) Information overload

12)

13) In a(n) ________ communication network, any group member can actively communicate with any other member.

A) chain B) mesh C) all-channel D) star E) wheel

13)

14) The grapevine within an organization provides which benefit(s)?

A) Gives managers a feel for the morale of the organization B) Creates a sense of closeness within the organization C) Gives managers a sense of who is well networked in the organization D) Both creates a sense of closeness within the organization and gives managers a feel for the morale of the organization E) Creates a sense of closeness within the organization, gives managers a feel for the morale of the organization, and gives managers a sense of who is well networked in the organization.

14)

15) A receiver who translates a sender's message is engaging in the process of ________.

A) encoding B) recoding C) decoding D) feedback E) transmission

15)

16) In ________, people rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues in communicating with others, and a person's official status, place in society, and reputation carry considerable weight.

A) low power distance cultures B) cultures that score low on uncertainty avoidance C) cultures that have long time orientation D) high-context cultures E) individualistic cultures

16)

17) Which mode of communication has the advantages of speed, feedback, and exchange?

A) Downward communication B) Nonverbal communication C) Upward communication D) Written communication E) Oral communication

17)

3

18) Which of the following statements is true regarding the grapevine?

A) It is a formal channel of communication in an organization.

B) The grapevine always helps employees' well-being.

C) It can lead to negative performance because of social pressures.

D) It serves the needs of the employer.

E) The grapevine is viewed negatively by most people.

18)

19) Which of the following is a type of formal small-group network structure?

A) Lattice B) All-channel C) Top-down D) Mesh E) Star

19)

20) Which of the following is not a barrier to effective communication?

A) Selective perception B) Silence C) The grapevine D) Filtering E) Information overload

20)

21) Intonation, body movement, and facial expressions are all part of ________ communication.

A) downward B) nonverbal C) upward D) verbal E) lateral

21)

22) When Gio came out of the four-day self-help seminar, he felt that he had learned a lot of useful things but the speaker had talked about a number of strategies with multiple pre-conditions for each strategy that Gio was not sure that he would be able to implement what he had learned. This is an example of ________.

A) information overload B) selective perception C) communication apprehension D) filtering E) emotional labor

22)

23) Your ________ can be as important as the ________ of your communication.

A) style; timeliness B) attitude; delivery C) delivery; content D) timeliness; attitude E) content; style

23)

24) With reference to the communication process, the ________ is the medium through which the message travels.

A) noise B) encoder C) decoder D) channel E) feedback

24)

4

25) Which is not one of the five major functions that communication covers within a group or organization?

A) Information exchange B) Persuasion C) Feedback D) Emotional sharing E) Foundation building

25)

26) In a communication process, the ________ is the actual physical product of the sender's encoding.

A) channel B) transmitter C) feedback D) message E) noise

26)

27) Zeus Industries sells satellite television systems. Recently, the company invested heavily in one of the many new technologies available. Employees tell senior management that this investment was the right choice, but sales keep decreasing. Some sales employees have also given incorrect information to suppliers, even though the company has held numerous intensive training sessions to keep sales personnel apprised of changes in the industry. The company has also received low customer service ratings from recent consumer surveys. These surveys indicate that customers are frustrated with the specialized technical knowledge necessary to operate their satellite systems.

Which of the following best characterizes the communication problems occurring between employees and senior management?

A) Sabotage B) Filtering C) Selective perception D) Information overload E) Communication apprehension

27)

28) Mary calls her employee, Jose, from her cell phone to let him know that today's meeting has been moved to one o'clock. Because Mary's call kept breaking up, Jose was unable to understand what Mary was saying. This is an example of ________.

A) noise B) dissonance C) ambivalence D) convergence E) divergence

28)

29) Which of the following types of small-group communication networks is most effective for facilitating the emergence of a leader?

A) All-channel network B) Chain network C) Bus network D) Mesh network E) Wheel network

29)

30) In a communication process, the ________ initiates a message by encoding a thought.

A) decoder B) receiver C) channel D) signal E) sender

30)

5

31) Brenda is a new employee orientation trainer for a global corporation with subsidiaries all over the world. She needs to convey information to new employees that will help them in communicating across cultures. Brenda explains to new employees that ________ cultures rely heavily on nonverbal cues and subtle situational cues in communicating with others, and a person's official status, place in society, and reputation carry considerable weight.

A) uncertainty avoiding B) low power distance C) low-context D) high power distance E) high-context

31)

32) Which of the following is not a barrier in cross-cultural communication?

A) Barriers caused by word connotations B) Barriers caused by tone differences C) Barriers caused by physical distance D) Barriers caused by semantics E) Differences in tolerance for conflict and methods for resolving conflicts

32)

33) Information overload occurs when ________.

A) the information transmitted to the receiver is distorted by the communication channel B) the interpretation of the message gets affected by the receiver's cultural background C) the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity D) the information sent by the sender does not reach the receiver E) a sender purposely manipulates information so the receiver will see it more favorably

33)

34) Even when we're communicating in the same language, words mean different things to different people, with ________ and jargon being two of the biggest factors that influence such differences.

A) gender B) social class C) age D) religion E) educational qualification

34)

35) Which of the following formal small-group network structures most rigidly follows the organization's hierarchical command structure?

A) All-channel B) Wheel C) Mesh D) Chain E) Star

35)

36) DeSean left a written note about a schedule change to his subordinate, Aisha. In the communication process, the written note is the ________.

A) object B) noise C) medium or channel D) feedback E) subject

36)

6

37) The Binary Company has periodic town hall meetings where employees provide feedback to higher-ups, inform them of progress toward goals, and relay current problems. What kind of communication does The Binary Company's town halls illustrate?

A) Upward communication B) Lateral communication C) Horizontal communication D) Downward communication E) Grapevine communication

37)

38) Priscilla's team at Rhythm Company is charged with selecting one of France, Germany, Spain, and Portugal as the next market for the company's flagship guitars. They are expected to research the attractiveness of each market and suggest an entry mode for the selected market. Which of the following is most likely to be the best form of communication for Priscilla's team to communicate their plan?

A) Grapevine communication B) Nonverbal communication C) Written communication D) Virtual communication E) Oral communication

38)

39) The final link in the communication process is ________.

A) encoding B) transmission C) decoding D) noise E) feedback

39)

40) When Priya was going through a social media interaction with her friends, up popped an ad for a beauty product that caught her eye. Moments later, Priya made an impulse buy of the product. This is an example of ________ processing.

A) automatic B) personal C) controlled D) hedonistic E) linear

40)

41) A manager should practice ________, which means in dealing with cross-cultural communication, a manager should put herself in the place of the employee to understand the employee's values, experiences, and frames of reference.

A) complicity B) commiseration C) empathy D) evaluation E) apathy

41)

42) Which of the following is an example of downward communication flow?

A) An employee provides feedback to higher-ups regarding her progress toward goals.

B) An employee suggests a way of improving efficiency of a process to his team lead.

C) An employee receives mail from her team leader pointing out problems that need attention.

D) An employee informs his friend from a different department about a new coffee shop that has just opened in the town.

E) An employee informs her colleague about changes in the company policy.

42)

7

43) Zeus Industries sells satellite television systems. Recently, the company invested heavily in one of the many new technologies available. Employees tell senior management that this investment was the right choice, but sales keep decreasing. Some sales employees have also given incorrect information to suppliers, even though the company has held numerous intensive training sessions to keep sales personnel apprised of changes in the industry. The company has also received low customer service ratings from recent consumer surveys. These surveys indicate that customers are frustrated with the specialized technical knowledge necessary to operate their satellite systems. The mistakes committed by the sales staff suggest that sales personnel are probably experiencing which of the following as a result of their intensive training?

A) Filtering B) Communication apprehension C) Emotional labor D) Information overload E) Selective perception

43)

44) In interviewing applicants for the job of quality control manager, DeJuan expects all the fourteen female job applicants to put their family ahead of their career. DeJuan is using ________.

A) filtering information B) communication apprehension C) emotional contagion D) selective perception of information E) emotional blockage

44)

45) All of the following are examples of nonverbal communication except ________.

A) physical distance between the sender and the receiver B) intonations or emphasis C) instant messaging D) facial expressions E) hand gestures

45)

46) Filtering is a barrier to effective communication. Filtering takes place when ________.

A) the receivers in the communication process selectively see and hear based on their motivations, experience, and other personal characteristics B) receivers also project their interests and expectations into communications as they decode them C) a sender purposely manipulates information so the receiver will see it more favorably D) the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity E) the interpretation of the message gets affected by the receiver's emotion

46)

47) Before communication can take place, it needs a ________.

A) channel B) filter C) decoder

47)

D) purpose

E) receiver

48) Which of the following statements is definitely true regarding an informal communication channel?

A) It is established by the organization.

B) It is generally used for communicating personal or social messages.

C) It traditionally follows the authority chain within the organization.

D) It generally transmits messages related to the professional activities of members.

E) Information regarding change in the policies of the organization is transmitted through it.

8

48)

49) Which of the following types of small-group communication networks should be used if high member satisfaction is desired?

A) Mesh network B) All-channel network C) Chain network D) Star network E) Wheel network

49)

50) Shonda is tasked with creating a network structure that would come up with a speedy decision.

Which of the following small-group network structures should she avoid?

A) Chain B) All-channel C) Wheel D) Both wheel and all-channel E) Both all-channel and chain

50)

51) Communication messages that are passed through a great many people will most likely suffer from which of the following?

A) Information overload B) Formal communication integration C) Lack of nonverbal cues D) Selective perception E) Distortion

51)

52) When Amy sends a text full of emojis to Ming, Ming has to first ________ the message to understand it.

A) decode B) send C) encode D) transmit E) channelize

52)

53) If Alberto is apprehensive regarding oral communication, which of the following behaviors is he least likely to display?

A) He prefers to talk on the phone.

B) He distorts the communication demands of his job.

C) He relies on memos or letters.

D) He limits his oral communication and then tends to rationalize his behavior.

E) He avoids face-to-face communication.

53)

54) With reference to the communication process, when a sender speaks, the message is then ________.

A) sent B) encoded C) transmitted D) decoded E) channelized

54)

9

55) What type of communication creates a digital or physical long-term record?

A) Written B) Lateral C) Oral D) Nonverbal E) Grapevine

55)

56) In the communication process, ________ also project their interests and expectations into communications as they decode them.

A) receivers B) managers C) employees D) senders E) corporations

56)

57) All of the following are examples of downward communication flows except ________.

A) managers pointing out problems that need attention B) managers assigning goals C) employees completing attitude surveys D) managers informing employees of procedures E) managers telling employees to work more quickly

57)

58) When engaging in upward communication, an employee should not ________.

A) engage in a meandering discussion B) meet his manager alone in a conference room C) communicate in headlines D) prepare an agenda E) support ideas with action

58)

59) Some words do not translate between cultures. Which of the following cross-cultural communication barriers does this refer to?

A) Barriers caused by word connotation B) Barriers due to differences in tolerance for conflicts C) Barriers caused by semantics D) Barriers caused by tone differences E) Barriers caused by nonverbal communication

59)

60) Of telephone conversations, video conferences, written bulletins, live speeches, and voice mail, which medium is the highest in media richness?

A) Voice mail B) Written bulletins C) Telephone conversations D) Video conferences E) Live speeches

60)

61) Since Andre's six-page report had a number of typos, spelling and syntax errors, in addition to being poorly organized, Angie, Andre's boss, had difficulty in understanding Andre's recommendations. This is an example of ________.

A) encoding B) feedback C) noise D) decoding E) filtering

61)

10

62) The ________ communication network is best illustrated by self-managed teams.

A) wheel B) ring C) mesh D) all-channel E) chain

62)

63) Which of the following is considered the ultimate example of downward communication?

A) Conference call B) Interoffice memo C) Email D) Performance review E) Job interview

63)

64) Whenever you need to gauge the receiver's receptivity, the better choice is ________ communication.

A) e-mail B) oral C) nonverbal D) memo E) letter

64)

65) The vice president of operations at Delta Manufacturing sent a memo to all operations personnel about the importance of increasing productivity and the effect of productivity on the company's bottom line. This is an example of a(n) ________ communication.

A) grapevine B) horizontal C) lateral D) downward E) upward

65)

66) ________ refers to the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode.

A) Channel bottleneck B) Communication bottleneck C) Communication capacity D) Channel richness E) Channel feedback

66)

67) Shonda has been charged with the task of evaluating two employees for possible promotions. She is interested in learning which employee has the most effective leadership skills. One of the employees is assigned to Team B, and the other is assigned to Team C. Which network structure should Shonda choose for these teams if she wishes to place the two employees in clear leadership positions on the teams?

A) All-channel B) Chain C) Wheel D) Mesh E) Concentric

67)

11

68) One of the major disadvantages of oral communication is that ________.

A) people intentionally change the message and meaning B) both people unintentionally and intentionally change the message and meaning C) people can ask for immediate feedback D) both people unintentionally change the message and meaning and people can ask for immediate feedback E) people unintentionally change the message and meaning

68)

69) As part of the annual performance evaluation process, The Burke Company has subordinates communicate their perceptions of their bosses. This is an example of ________ communication.

A) upward B) lateral C) informal D) downward E) directional

69)

70) Even when buying a low value, everyday item, Penelope's preference is always for a detailed examination of the pros and cons of each brand and a careful examination of objective facts like price and ingredients. This is an example of ________ processing.

A) controlled B) automatic C) personal D) hedonistic E) linear

70)

71) In a communication process, ________ is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our messages as originally intended.

A) editing B) noise C) feedback D) decoding E) encoding

71)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

72) Formal reports score high on channel richness.

72)

73) Lateral communication saves time and facilitates coordination.

73)

74) When we deliver a message, we also impart an unspoken message.

74)

75) Face-to-face conversation scores highest in channel richness.

75)

76) One of the problems in cross-cultural communication is the barrier caused by semantics.

76)

77) Nonverbal communication can affect the behavior of communication receivers.

77)

78) A primary means of conveying messages is oral communication.

78)

79) Nonverbal cues are less important in high-context cultures.

79)

80) Communication acts to manage member behavior.

80)

81) Communication means the transfer of meaning.

81)

82) The choice between modes of communication can greatly enhance or detract from the way the receiver reacts to the message.

82)

12

83) Telling the boss what the boss wants to hear is filtering information.

83)

84) More than half of the population suffers debilitating communication apprehension.

84)

85) The advantages of written communication are speed, feedback, and exchange.

85)

86) The ultimate downward communication is the performance review.

86)

87) The exchange given through oral communication has social, cultural, and emotional components.

87)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

88) How are formal communication channels different from informal communication channels?

89) When communicating with people from a different culture, what can you do to reduce misinterpretations?

90) What are the features of the all-channel small-group network structure?

91) What is communication apprehension?

92) Discuss the advantages of written communication.

93) How do body movements and intonation affect communication?

94) How does cultural context play a role in communication?

95) How do the small group networks compare on the criteria of speed, accuracy, and member satisfaction?

96) How do cultural barriers affect communication?

97) What are the functions of communication?

98) Let us say that you are the head of a team that is charged with writing a report that identifies a potential foreign market for your firm's entry. Explain the concept of controlled processing with respect to your task.

99) How does channel richness help explain channel selection among managers?

100) What is the role of upward communication in organizations?

13

Answer Key Testname: C11

1) E 2) B 3) A 4) A 5) D 6) A 7) D 8) E 9) A 10) D 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) E 15) C 16) D 17) E 18) E 19) B 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) E 26) D 27) B 28) A 29) E 30) E 31) E 32) C 33) C 34) C 35) D 36) C 37) A 38) C 39) E 40) A 41) C 42) C 43) D 44) D 45) C 46) C 47) D 48) B 49) B 50) A 14

Answer Key Testname: C11

51) E 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) A 57) C 58) A 59) C 60) D 61) C 62) D 63) D 64) B 65) D 66) D 67) C 68) B 69) A 70) A 71) C 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) Formal communication channels are established by an organization to transmit messages related to the professional activities of members. For example, a formal resignation letter conveys an employee's intentions to quit. In contrast, informal communication channels are those that are created spontaneously and that emerge as responses to individual choices. For example, when an employee dramatically shuts off her computer, packs her belongings, and storms out of the office, she is conveying in an informal way her intentions to quit.

89) Experts offer the following suggestions to reduce misinterpretations in communicating with people from a different culture. The first suggestion is to know yourself. Recognizing one's own cultural identity and biases is critical to understanding the viewpoints of other people. The second is to foster a climate of mutual respect, fairness, and democracy. The third suggestion is to state facts and not one's interpretation. Interpreting or evaluating what someone has said or done draws more on one's own culture and background than on the observed situation. The fourth suggestion is to consider the other person's viewpoint. Finally, it is important to proactively maintain the identity of the group. This is done by reminding members of one's group of their common goals, mutual respect, and need to adapt to individual communication preferences.

15

Answer Key Testname: C11

90) The all-channel network permits group members to actively communicate with each other. This structure is most often characterized by self-managed teams, in which group members are free to contribute and no one person takes on a leadership role. Many organizations today like to consider themselves all-channel, meaning that anyone can communicate with anyone (but sometimes they should not). The all-channel network is the best choice if the desired outcome is high member satisfaction.

91) Communication apprehension is the undue tension and anxiety in oral communication, written communication, or both that an estimated five to twenty percent of the population suffers from. People with communication apprehension may find it extremely difficult to talk with others face-to-face or become extremely anxious when they have to use the phone, relying on memos or e-mails when a phone call would be faster and more appropriate. The great concern here is evidence that high oral-communication apprehension may distort the communication demands of their jobs in order to minimize the need for communication.

92) Written communication includes letters, e-mail, instant messaging, organizational periodicals, and any other method that uses words or symbols. An important advantage of written communication is that it creates a digital or physical long-term record that can be used, for example, as evidence or precedent. Some specific forms of written communication, such as e-mail and instant messaging have the advantage of facilitating quick, fleeting information exchange.

93) Nonverbal communication includes body movements, the intonations or emphasis we give to words, facial expressions, and the physical distance between the sender and receiver.

One could argue that every body movement has meaning, and no movement is accidental (though some are unconscious). We smile to project trustworthiness, uncross our arms to appear approachable, and stand to signal authority. In short, we communicate through our body movements. Intonations can change the meaning of a message.

Along with facial expressions, intonations can show arrogance, aggressiveness, fear, shyness, and other emotions.

94) Cultures tend to differ in the degree to which context influences the meaning individuals take from communication. In high-context cultures such as China, Korea, Japan, and Vietnam, people rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues in communicating with others, and a person's official status, place in society, and reputation carry considerable weight. What is not said may be more significant than what is said. In contrast, people from Europe and North America reflect their low-context cultures. They rely essentially on spoken and written words to convey meaning; body language and formal titles are secondary. Contextual differences mean quite a lot in terms of communication. Communication in high-context cultures implies considerably more trust by both parties. What may appear to be casual and insignificant conversation, in fact reflects the desire to build a relationship and create trust.

Oral agreements imply strong commitments in high-context cultures. In low-context cultures, enforceable contracts tend to be in writing, precisely worded, and highly legalistic.

95) The three common formal small-group networks are chain, wheel, and all-channel. While the speed of communication is high in both wheel and all- channel, it is only moderate in chain. This is because the chain rigidly follows the formal chain of command. In terms of accuracy, both the chain and wheel score high, while all-channel is only moderate. This is likely because the all-channel network permits group members to actively communicate with each other. Finally, the wheel scores the lowest in terms of member satisfaction while the all-channel scores the highest, with the chain in the middle. The wheel's low score is because it relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for all group communication and is often characterized by a team with a strong leader.

96) Cross-cultural factors clearly create the potential for increased communication problems. Semantics can act as a communication barrier. Words mean different things to different people, particularly people from different national cultures. Some words do not translate between cultures. Barriers are also caused by word connotations. Words imply different things in different languages. In addition, barriers are caused by tone differences. In some cultures, language is formal, in others, it is informal. In some cultures, the tone changes depending on the context. People speak differently at home, in social situations, and at work. Finally, there are cultural differences in tolerance for conflict and methods for resolving conflict. People from individualistic cultures tend to be more comfortable with direct conflict and will make the source of their disagreements overt. Collectivists are more likely to acknowledge conflict only implicitly and avoid emotionally charged disputes.

16

Answer Key Testname: C11

97) The functions of communication are (1) management, (2) feedback, (3) emotional sharing, (4) persuasion, and (5) information exchange. Communication acts to manage member behavior in organizations such as formal hierarchies and guidelines. Communication can be used to convey feedback, such as by clarifying to employees what they must do, how well they are doing it, and how they can improve their performance. In addition, communication is a fundamental mechanism by which members show satisfaction and frustration. Communication, therefore, provides for the sharing of feelings to fulfill social needs. Communication can be used for persuasion, such as when a leader is trying to persuade a workgroup to commit to the organization's corporate social responsibility initiatives. Finally, communication provides the information individuals and groups need to make decisions.

98) Controlled processing is a detailed consideration of evidence and information relying on facts, figures, and logic. The foreign market entry report exemplifies controlled processing. Unlike automatic processing that is a relatively superficial consideration of evidence and information, here the team has to expend the energy in collecting and evaluating data, drawing conclusions from the data, and making a persuasive argument to select a particular country to get into.

99) Channels differ in their capacity to convey information. Some are rich in that they can (1) handle multiple cues simultaneously, (2) facilitate rapid feedback, and (3) be very personal. Others are lean, in that they score low on these factors. Channel richness is the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode.

Face-to-face conversation scores highest in channel richness because it transmits the most information per communication episode—multiple information cues (words, postures, etc.), immediate feedback (both verbal and nonverbal), and the personal touch of being present. In contrast, a formal report scores quite low on richness.

Depending on the intent of the communication, managers can choose the appropriate channel.

100) Communication can flow vertically or laterally, through formal small-group networks or the informal grapevine.

Vertical communication can be downward or upward. Upward communication flows to a higher level in the group or the organization. It is used to provide feedback to higher ups, inform them of progress towards goals, and relay current problems. Upward communication keeps managers aware of how employees feel about their jobs, co-workers, and the organization in general. Managers also rely on upward communication for ideas on how conditions can be improved.

17

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is a characteristic of an authentic leader?

A) One who serves the needs of self B) One who gives orders to followers C) One who reduces team potency D) One who is self-aware E) One who focuses on self-interest

1)

2) Leo supervises a global team of project members based in multiple countries. Maria is Brazilian, Jean-Paul is French, Amit is Egyptian, and Xiang is Chinese. Leo is American and is based in the United States. In the light on the findings of the GLOBE project, which team members can be expected to respond most favorably when Leo exhibits high levels of initiating structure?

A) Xiang and Amit B) Maria and Jean-Paul C) Jean-Paul and Xiang D) Amit and Maria E) Amit and Xiang

2)

3) Which of the following was the first comprehensive contingency model for leadership?

A) Fiedler contingency model B) Leader-Member Exchange C) The Ohio State Studies D) The Charisma Model E) Path-Goal Theory

3)

4) If you were using the Fiedler contingency model of leadership to establish a scenario in your company which gives managers maximum control, which of the following combinations of situational dimensions would you seek to achieve?

A) Broad employee responsibilities, low position power, and moderate leader-member relations B) High task structure, good leader-member relations, and strong position power C) Limited position power, good leader-member relations, and low task structure D) Less structured jobs, strong position power, and moderate leader-member relations E) Good leader-member relations, low position power, and unstructured jobs

4)

5) Sergio's restaurant was doing poorly. To remedy the situation, Sergio sought the opinions of others, admitted to them his own shortcomings, stuck to his mission of providing traditional Mexican rather than Tex-Mex type of food, and collaborated with his employees to develop a plan of action to make the restaurant profitable. In doing this, Sergio demonstrates ________ leadership.

A) charismatic B) authentic C) cognitive D) transactional E) emotional

5)

1

6) According to the Fiedler contingency model of leadership, task-oriented leaders perform best in situations of ________, while relationship-oriented leaders perform best in ________ situations.

A) high control; low and moderate control B) high and moderate control; low control C) high and low control; moderate control D) moderate and low control; high control E) moderate control; high and low control

6)

7) Which of the following would best serve as evidence to support the conclusion that an individual is an authentic leader?

A) The leader acts in the company's best interest as long as those interests don't conflict with his personal ambitions.

B) The leader inspires a great deal of trust in his or her followers.

C) The leader constantly questions his or her values.

D) In business exchanges, the leader puts the company's bottom line before his or her ideals.

E) The leader is cautious about information sharing and tends to provide updates only to top management.

7)

8) Zenith Technologies has a very flat organizational system with few managers. Instead, it has a rigid system of clear, formalized goals, clear procedures, and cohesive work groups. In this case, the various components of the organizational system are acting as ________ to formal leadership by replacing the support and ability offered by leaders.

A) substitutes B) attributes C) detriments D) traits E) supplements

8)

9) Leadership is best defined as ________.

A) the process of coordinating and staffing the organization and handling day-to-day problems B) the process of carrying out the vision and strategy provided by management C) the proper use of the influence gained exclusively as a result of one's organizational position D) the process of drawing up formal plans and monitoring their implementation E) the ability to influence a group toward the achievement of a vision or set of goals

9)

10) In the context of behavioral dimensions of leadership identified in the Ohio State Studies, initiating structure refers to the extent to which ________.

A) a person's job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings B) a leader is accepting of and respects individual differences among various team members C) a leader is likely to define and structure his or her role and those of employees in the search for goal attainment D) a leader initiates efforts to communicate personally with employees E) a leader engages in participative management

10)

2

11) According to the Leader-Member Exchange theory, followers with ingroup status experience all of the following except which?

A) Higher performance ratings B) Rise more quickly within the organization C) Higher levels of satisfaction with their superior D) Engagement in more citizenship behaviors E) Participate in more helping behaviors

11)

12) A senior level employee who sponsors and supports a less-experienced employee is a ________.

A) mentor B) protectorate C) guardian angel D) protégé E) colleague

12)

13) Historian Doris Kearns Goodwin identified Abraham Lincoln, Theodore Roosevelt, and Lyndon Johnson as leaders who personally appealed to Americans and inspired followers to make sacrifices to pursue goals for the country. This description suggests that the three past presidents are ________ leaders.

A) situational B) transactional C) cognitive D) contingent E) transformational

13)

14) The team agrees that a large component of the project will be carried out at the Chinese headquarters, with Xiang responsible for leading that support team. Based on what the GLOBE project concludes about Chinese culture, which of the following leader behaviors would be most effective?

A) Infrequent decision making B) Highly participatory decision making C) Moderately participatory decision making D) Autocratic decision making E) Decision making without initiating structure

14)

15) Kimberley, a manager at a large company, tends to assign group members to particular tasks, expects workers to maintain definite standards of performance, and emphasizes the meeting of deadlines. In the light of the Ohio State Studies, this indicates that Kimberley, as a leader, is ________.

A) low in task orientation B) employee oriented C) high in initiating structure D) relationship oriented E) high in consideration

15)

16) Which of the following styles of leadership focuses on contingent rewards?

A) Transformational B) Transactional C) Inspirational D) Charismatic E) Passionate

16)

3

17) Emotional intelligence (EI) is critical to effective leadership because one of its core components is ________.

A) optimism B) empathy C) introversion D) perfectionism E) conscientiousness

17)

18) Sharla, Atul, and Irving started working as managers at the Golden Hotel one year ago. Though they were all hired at the same time, Sharla is the best of the three on sensing others' needs, listening to what followers say, and reading the reactions of others. Sharla scores high on ________.

A) cognition B) charisma C) emotional intelligence D) intelligence E) task orientation

18)

19) Which theory of leadership differentiates leaders from nonleaders by focusing on personal qualities and characteristics?

A) Contingency theory B) Attributes theory C) LMX theory D) Trait theory E) Fiedler's model

19)

20) ________ leaders inspire followers to transcend their self-interests for the good of the organization and can have an extraordinary effect on their followers.

A) Task-oriented B) Transcendental C) Transformational D) Transactional E) Laissez-faire

20)

21) As a shift manager at Arnie's Bakery, Sharniece enjoys a high degree of confidence, trust, and respect from her subordinates. Per Fiedler's model, this relates to ________.

A) initiating structure B) leader-member exchange C) position power D) task structure E) leader-member relations

21)

22) While Carlos did not hold any title at the Big Sur Company, his wisdom and empathy for others made his peers look at him as a leader. Carlos is a ________ leader.

A) transactional B) managerial C) mentoring D) nonsanctioned E) transformational

22)

4

23) As a leader, Juan emphasizes meeting deadlines. Per the Ohio State Studies model of leadership, Juan is a leader high in ________.

A) emotional intelligence B) empathy C) consideration D) charisma E) initiating structure

23)

24) Which of the following statements regarding leadership is true?

A) Formal rights ensure good leadership.

B) All leaders are managers.

C) Nonsanctioned leadership is as important as formal influence.

D) All leaders are hierarchically superior to followers.

E) All managers are leaders.

24)

25) Which theory of leadership proposes that followers attribute heroic or extraordinary leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors?

A) Authentic leadership theory B) Charismatic leadership theory C) Transactional leadership theory D) Attributional leadership theory E) Transformational leadership theory

25)

26) The Jacoby Group built a huge business training people to be leaders. Which of the following theories of leadership is The Jacoby Group's business based on?

A) Trait B) Competitive C) Structural D) Cognitive E) Behavioral

26)

27) Which of the following theories provide a basis for selecting the right people for leadership?

A) Contingency theories B) LMX theory C) Behavioral theories D) Trait theories E) Fiedler model

27)

28) The president of a small Asian country was hailed as a visionary and a genius when the nation's economy burgeoned during his first term in office. However, when the currency and the stock markets crashed during his government's second term, he was criticized as arrogant, elitist, and shortsighted. This scenario reflects the ________ theory of leadership.

A) behavioral B) attribution C) substitutes D) traits E) LMX

28)

5

29) In leader-member exchange (LMX) theory, the ________ consists of followers not trusted by the leader and who get a disproportionately lower amount of the leader's attention.

A) control group B) focus group C) ingroup D) outgroup E) servant group

29)

30) Which of the following leadership models argues that the way the leader makes decisions is as important as what is decided?

A) Path-Goal Theory B) Cognition Model C) Situational Leadership Theory (SLT) D) Fiedler Contingency Model E) Leader-Participation Model (LPM)

30)

31) Fiedler's contingency leadership model assumes that ________.

A) all leaders can learn to adapt to different contingencies B) an individual's leadership style is essentially fixed C) there is no ideal way to match leadership styles with situations D) each person's style will change in accordance with the situation at hand E) an individual can use the LPC to change his/her style to a more productive style

31)

32) Within organizations, leaders are needed to ________ and managers are needed to ________.

A) inspire organizational members; oversee day-to-day operations B) oversee the manager; execute the leader's ideas C) challenge the status quo; create visions of the future D) formulate detailed plans; create efficient organizational structures E) Leaders and managers both oversee others and execute others' ideas.

32)

33) Which of the following statements accurately describes the attribution theory of leadership?

A) Good leaders attribute their successes to their team or group members.

B) Leadership qualities are attributions that are independent of performance.

C) Leadership is merely an attribution people make about other individuals.

D) Leadership is an attribute that individuals are born with.

E) The achievement of group goals is rarely attributed to good leadership.

33)

34) In leader-member exchange (LMX) theory, the trusted followers of a leader who get a disproportionate amount of the leader's attention is called the ________.

A) ingroup B) servant group C) control group D) focus group E) outgroup

34)

6

35) Research has shown which two skills can be helpful for leaders in controlling the effects of their Dark Side traits?

A) Openness to new experiences and emotional stability B) Self-regulation and narcissism C) Emotional stability and self-awareness D) Self-awareness and self-regulation E) Narcissism and openness to new experiences

35)

36) Aisha has just completed and scored the LPC questionnaire given to her during an evaluation exercise. She is surprised when she finds out that she described her least preferred co-worker in relatively positive terms because she recalls being particularly annoyed by this difficult co-worker several times in the past. Based on your understanding of Fiedler's model, you explain to Aisha that her LPC score makes sense within the model because ________.

A) Aisha is usually chosen for positions of high responsibility within your organization B) Aisha tends in general to focus on building good relationships with the other employees C) Aisha is usually much more focused on productivity than on developing relationships D) Aisha has a spotty work history and has tended to switch jobs every couple of years E) Aisha tends to become very dominating when given ambiguous tasks

36)

37) The most comprehensive behavioral theory of leadership is the ________ Studies.

A) Bentley College B) University of Michigan C) Oregon State D) Ohio State E) University of Florida

37)

38) Your company's HR director is a believer in trait theories of leadership. He believes that he can differentiate leaders from nonleaders by focusing on personal qualities and characteristics. The HR director plans to promote Chang, a highly extraverted manager with a great deal of ambition and energy to the position of VP, Manufacturing. He asks for your expertise in helping him to apply trait theory to leadership selection within your company. The director believes that because of his innate characteristics, Chang will be highly effective at helping the company achieve its production goals. You advise the director against basing his decision purely on traits because ________.

A) research has found that conscientiousness is a better predictor of effectiveness than extraversion B) studies have shown that traits are poor predictors of leadership effectiveness C) studies have found that the Big Five traits are difficult to identify in leaders D) research has identified emotional stability as the strongest predictor of leadership effectiveness E) research has shown that effective managers are often unlikely to become effective leaders

38)

39) Fiedler labels the degree of influence a leader has over variables such as hiring, firing, and discipline as ________.

A) leader-member relations B) position power C) leader-member orientation D) leader-member exchange E) task structure

39)

7

40) Which of the following types of leadership involves going beyond self-interest to focus on opportunities that help followers grow and develop?

A) Transactional B) Transformational C) Ethical D) Servant E) Relational

40)

41) Rev. Martin Luther King Jr., Mahatma Gandhi, and former president Barack Obama are often considered as examples of ________ leaders.

A) transactional B) nonsanctioned C) sanctioned D) charismatic E) transformational

41)

42) Which of the following types of leadership focuses on individualized consideration?

A) Institutionalized B) Transformational C) Transactional D) Corporate E) Laissez-faire

42)

43) In a watercooler discussion on leadership, DeSean indicated that he identifies leaders by their personal qualities and characteristics. In contrast, Aisha vehemently argued that leaders should be identified by what they do and how they do it. DeSean most likely subscribes to the ________ theory of leadership.

A) behavioral B) contingency C) trait D) situational E) organizational

43)

44) Research in leadership points out that transformational and ________ leadership are extremely similar in practice, to the point where many researchers consider them to be identical.

A) authentic B) contingent C) transactional D) cognitive E) situational

44)

45) In the context of behavioral dimensions of leadership identified in the Ohio State Studies, ________ is the extent to which a person's job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings.

A) task orientation B) consideration C) initiating structure D) position power E) production orientation

45)

8

46) If followers are ________ and ________, the leader needs to use a supportive and participative style.

A) able; willing B) unable; willing C) able; complacent D) able; unwilling E) unable; unwilling

46)

47) In leader-member exchange (LMX) theory, when leaders and followers interact with one another, research suggests that leaders and followers build ________ with one another.

A) social capital B) contempt C) animosity D) passivity E) ennui

47)

48) How do charismatic leaders influence followers?

A) They show their ability to leverage higher salaries even with mediocre performance.

B) They convince their followers to pursue a vision that can be ruinous.

C) They advise a larger-than-life attitude that does not act in the best interest of the organization.

D) They articulate an appealing vision.

E) They encourage those who follow them to be more creative.

48)

49) Navar is an emotionally intelligent, well-respected manager at a financial analytics firm. One day, Navar sensed something was wrong with one of his team members, Michael, and asked him what was wrong. Michael immediately started crying and telling Navar that his grandmother was sick and in the hospital. Being high in EI, which reaction is most likely for Navar?

A) Navar tells Michael to step outside to regain his composure.

B) Navar listens quietly to Michael but does not offer any type of advice or physical contact.

C) Navar starts crying along with Michael and gives him a hug.

D) Navar hurriedly gets Michael out of the room so he will not embarrass himself.

E) Navar tells Michael all about how when his own grandmother was sick.

49)

50) Individuals who are narcissistic are higher in some behaviors associated with ________.

A) transformational leadership B) authentic leadership C) servant leadership D) transactional leadership E) charismatic leadership

50)

51) If followers are ________ and ________, the leader does not need to do much.

A) unable; willing B) unable; unwilling C) able; complacent D) able; willing E) able; unwilling

51)

9

52) Within mentoring relationships, ________.

A) only the mentor benefits B) the protégé mainly benefits, but the mentor might also benefit C) only the protégé benefits D) both the protégé and the mentor benefit E) the mentor mainly benefits, but the protégé might also benefit

52)

53) ________ refers to a certain quality of an individual personality, by virtue of which the leader is set apart from ordinary people and treated as endowed with supernatural, superhuman, or at least specifically exceptional powers or qualities.

A) Management B) Autocratic power C) Executive power D) Charisma E) Leadership

53)

54) According to research, which of the Big Five personality traits is less important in effective leaders?

A) Agreeableness B) Extraversion C) Openness D) Emotional stability E) Conscientiousness

54)

55) Which of the following Big Five traits is the strongest predictor of leader emergence?

A) Extraversion B) Neuroticism C) Conscientiousness D) Agreeableness E) Openness

55)

56) Which of the following is strongly related to positive performance evaluations?

A) Empathy B) Initiating structure C) Consideration D) Task-orientation E) Structural orientation

56)

57) Ramon's leadership style features watching and searching for deviations from rules and standards and then taking corrective action. Ramon is a(n) ________ leader.

A) charismatic B) transactional C) transformational D) laissez-faire E) institutional

57)

58) Leadership research has sought to identify all but which of the following attributes of leaders?

A) Communication abilities B) Social attributes C) Personality D) Intellectual attributes E) Physical attributes

58)

10

59) In the questionnaire used in the Fiedler contingency model, respondents are asked to think of all the co-workers they ever had and describe the one they ________ with.

A) had the least empathy B) had the most empathy C) most enjoyed working D) most socialized E) least enjoyed working

59)

60) Nonsanctioned leadership refers to which of the following situations?

A) When one influences others outside of the formal organizational structures B) When one influences others in a manner which is approved by the subordinates C) When one influences others outside of their defined leadership role D) When subordinates supersede the directives of the leader E) When leaders and subordinates abandon all organizational structures

60)

61) Which of the following situational dimensions identified by Fiedler relates to the degree to which job assignments are procedurized, that is, structured or unstructured?

A) Leader-member relations B) Task structure C) Task orientation D) Productivity oriented E) Initiating structure

61)

62) Leaders who effectively display and manage emotions will ________.

A) use sympathy for those who fail to perform B) focus on their own self-interest C) keep the commitments they make D) not express genuine enthusiasm E) find it easier to influence the feelings of followers

62)

63) The Ohio State Studies narrowed the independent dimensions of leader behavior to two dimensions that substantially accounted for most of the leadership behavior described by employees: initiating structure and ________.

A) consideration B) constructing vision C) employee-orientation D) empathy E) charisma

63)

64) Leo supervises a global team of project members based in multiple countries. Maria is Brazilian, Jean-Paul is French, Amit is Egyptian, and Xiang is Chinese. Leo is American and is based in the United States. Which of the following team members would be least likely to respond favorably if Leo made project-related decisions independently, without consulting the team?

A) Amit B) Maria and Jean-Paul C) Maria D) Jean-Paul E) Xiang

64)

11

65) In terms of the full range of leadership model, which leader behavior is the least effective?

A) Laissez-faire B) Management by exception (active) C) Contingent reward D) Management by exception (passive) E) Individualized consideration

65)

66) Because ________ leadership is based on the value of serving the needs of others, research has focused on its outcomes for the well-being of followers.

A) situational B) contingent C) servant D) procedural E) occupational

66)

67) In his leadership role, Jack typically abdicates responsibility and avoids making decisions. Jack is likely to be a ________ leader.

A) charismatic B) cognitive C) transformational D) situational E) transactional

67)

68) Which of the following is not a key characteristic of a charismatic leader?

A) Unconventional behavior B) Vision and articulation C) Sensitivity to follower needs D) Willingness to take risks E) Focus on maintaining status quo

68)

69) In leader-member exchange (LMX) theory, followers who are ingratiating and self-promoting would fall into which group?

A) Outgroup B) Ingroup C) Focus group D) Control group E) Object group

69)

70) ________ is a psychological state that exists when you agree to make yourself vulnerable to another because you have positive expectations about how things are going to turn out.

A) Trust B) Empowerment C) Empathy D) Consideration E) Respect

70)

12

71) The primary benefit(s) of mentoring is/are ________.

A) all three monetary, performance, and psychological B) psychological C) monetary D) performance E) both performance and psychological

71)

72) Research on cultural preferences suggest that leaders high in ________ succeeded best in countries where cultural values did not favor unilateral decision making.

A) initiating structure B) consideration C) cognition D) empathy E) task orientation

72)

73) Which of the following statements accurately reflects the conclusions about the trait theories of leadership?

A) Traits do a good job of predicting the emergence of leaders.

B) Overall, traits are poor predictors of leadership.

C) Traits were better predictors of leadership 20 years ago than they are now.

D) Traits are especially useful for distinguishing between effective and ineffective leaders.

E) The Big Five traits are inadequate for predicting leadership.

73)

74) Research indicates that charismatic leadership strategies work as followers "________" the emotions and values their leader is conveying.

A) influence B) mimic C) manipulate D) discourage E) catch

74)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

75) In the Fiedler contingency model, the questionnaire used is called the most preferred coworker (MPC) questionnaire.

75)

76) The two dimensions used in the Ohio State Studies on leadership are initiating structure and consideration.

76)

77) Attribution theory suggests that what is important is focusing on actual accomplishments rather than projecting the appearance of being a leader.

77)

78) According to leader-member exchange (LMX) theory, leaders and followers of different genders tend to have closer (higher LMX) relationships than those of the same gender.

78)

79) Leadership is the ability to influence that arises outside the formal structures of the organization.

79)

80) Authentic leadership strongly predicts outcomes such as group performance and organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBs).

80)

13

81) Openness to experience is a less important trait to effective leadership.

81)

82) According to leader-member exchange (LMX) theory, the ingroup members get a disproportionate amount of the leader's attention.

82)

83) Research indicates that the Dark Triad personality traits are not all bad for leadership.

83)

84) Charismatic leadership theory is a leadership theory that states that followers make attributions of heroic or extraordinary leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors.

84)

85) According to the Ohio State Studies, initiating structure is the extent to which a person's work relationship are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings.

85)

86) One factor that decreases the effectiveness of charismatic leadership is stress.

86)

87) In Fiedler's contingency model, successful leadership depends on selecting the right leadership style contingent on the followers' readiness.

87)

88) Trait theories imply that people can be trained to be leaders.

88)

89) Empathetic leaders can sense others' needs, listen to what followers say (and do not say), and read the reactions of others.

89)

90) Much of an organization's success or failure is due to factors outside the influence of leadership.

90)

91) Path-goal theory combines elements of initiating structure and consideration with the expectancy theory of motivation.

91)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

92) What is servant leadership?

93) What are neutralizers? How are they different from substitutes?

94) How are transactional leaders different from transformational leaders?

95) What is the path-goal theory of leadership?

96) What cultural differences do we see with respect to the preference for initiating structure and consideration?

97) How does one become a charismatic leader?

98) How do the Dark Triad traits relate to leadership?

99) What are ingroups and outgroups in leader-member exchange (LMX)? How does leadership work according to this model?

14

100) Research has narrowed the thousands of leadership behaviors into two primary dimensions. Please list and describe these two behaviors.

15

Answer Key Testname: C12

1) D 2) C 3) A 4) B 5) B 6) C 7) B 8) A 9) E 10) C 11) B 12) A 13) E 14) C 15) C 16) B 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) E 22) D 23) E 24) C 25) B 26) E 27) D 28) B 29) D 30) E 31) B 32) A 33) C 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) D 38) B 39) B 40) D 41) D 42) B 43) C 44) A 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) E 16

Answer Key Testname: C12

51) D 52) D 53) D 54) C 55) A 56) B 57) B 58) A 59) E 60) A 61) B 62) E 63) A 64) C 65) A 66) C 67) E 68) E 69) B 70) A 71) B 72) B 73) A 74) E 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) Servant leadership is a leadership style marked by going beyond the leader's own self-interest and instead focusing on opportunities to help followers grow and develop. Characteristic behaviors of servant leadership include listening, empathizing, persuading, accepting stewardship, and actively developing followers' potential. Because servant leadership is based on the value of serving the needs of others, research has focused on its outcomes for the well-being of its followers, including followers' job attitudes, as well as their trust in leadership and LMX perceptions.

93) Neutralizers, such as indifference to rewards, make it impossible for leader behavior to make any difference to follower outcomes. On the other hand, experience and training are among the substitutes that can replace the need for a leader's support or ability to create structure.

17

Answer Key Testname: C12

94) Transactional leaders guide their followers toward established goals by clarifying role and task requirements, allocating rewards and punishment where needed, and (passively or actively) intervening when the situation calls for it. In contrast, transformational leaders inspire followers to transcend their self-interests for the good of the organization. Transactional leaders focus on contingent rewards, management by exception, and a laissez-faire attitude. Transformational leaders work through idealized influence, inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration.

95) The path-goal theory of leadership combines elements of initiating structure and consideration with the expectancy theory of motivation. The theory suggests that it is the leader's job to provide followers with information, support, or other resources necessary to achieve their goals, to ensure that the path to accomplishing these goals is understandable or clear, and to reduce any roadblocks that may be making goal accomplishment difficult.

96) Research suggests that there are international differences in the preference for initiating structure and consideration.

The study found that leaders high in consideration succeeded best in countries where cultural values did not favor unilateral decision making, such as Brazil. In contrast, the French have a more bureaucratic view of leaders and are less likely to expect them to be humane and considerate. A leader high in initiating structure (relatively task-oriented) will do best there and can make decisions in a relatively autocratic manner. A manager who scores high in consideration (people-oriented) may find that the style backfires in France. In other cultures, like China, both dimensions may be important.

97) Anyone can develop, within our own limitations, a more charismatic leadership style. If you stay active and central in your leadership roles, you will naturally communicate your vision for achieving goals to your followers, which increases the likelihood that you will be charismatic. To further develop an aura of charisma, use your passion as a catalyst for generating enthusiasm. Bring out the potential in followers by tapping into their emotions and forging a unifying bond among the team.

98) Research indicates that the Dark Triad traits are not all bad for leadership: normative (mid-range) scores on Dark Triad personality traits (even psychopathy) were optimal, and low (and high) scores were associated with ineffective leadership. Both this study and other international research indicate that building self-awareness and self-regulation skills may be helpful for leaders to control the effects of their Dark Triad traits.

99) Leader-member exchange (LMX) suggests leaders and followers have unique, one-on-one relationships that vary with each follower (e.g., some are higher quality than others). It also suggests that leaders establish a special relationship with a small group of their followers. These followers make up the ingroup they are trusted, get a disproportionate amount of the leader's attention, and are more likely to receive special privileges. Other followers fall into the outgroup. Leaders induce higher quality LMX perceptions by engaging in transformational leadership behaviors, ingratiating their followers, rewarding employees with whom they want a closer linkage, and punishing those with whom they do not.

100) The two behaviors are initiating structure and consideration. Initiating structure refers to the extent to which a leader is likely to define and construct their role as well as those of their employees. A leader who is high in initiating structure is very task-oriented and expects workers to maintain standards. Consideration refers to the extent to which a person's job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings. A leader with high consideration aids employees with personal problems, is friendly and approachable, treats all employees as equals, and expresses appreciation and support.

18

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Legitimate power is based on ________ in the organization.

A) structural position B) expert knowledge C) interpersonal trust D) the ability to provide rewards E) respect and admiration

1)

2) As the plant manager, DeSean has the power to assign to the less popular night shift those of his employees who do not meet the productivity mark. DeSean has ________ power.

A) referent B) expert C) cognitive D) subordinative E) coercive

2)

3) If your superior tells you that she will offer you a raise provided you perform additional work beyond the requirements of your job, he/she is exercising ________ power.

A) coercive B) legitimate C) personal D) reflective E) reward

3)

4) A sales manager says to her boss, "We failed to get the ad in the paper on time, but no one responds to those ads anyway." Which of the following impression management (IM) techniques does this statement refer to?

A) Excuses B) Favors C) Conformity D) Self-promotion E) Apologies

4)

5) Amit, Chang, and Eric work as software developers on a project team. Since Amit and Eric are both experts in the Python programming language (Chang is not proficient in it), their work is more coordinated than it is with Amit and Chang or with Eric and Chang. Per social network analysis, all three would be considered ________.

A) ties B) bonds C) nodes D) nests E) cliques

5)

6) Shonda comes to Rebecca, her department head with a request for funds for a project. She reminds Rebecca that per company policy, the department head should approve the funds. Shonda is using the tactic of ________.

A) ingratiation B) legitimacy C) coalition D) pressure E) consultation

6)

1

7) Vivian has not been handling one portion of her duties in a satisfactory manner. As a result, her manager resorts to invoking Vivian's goals of becoming a manager one day and says that Vivian's path to promotion is in doing all her duties well and that she would surely be on her way up the organization if she performs all aspects of her job. Which influence tactic is being used by Vivian's manager?

A) Rational persuasion B) Inspirational appeals C) Pressure D) Ingratiation E) Personal appeals

7)

8) The opposite of coercive power is ________ power.

A) reward B) legitimate C) expert D) charismatic E) referent

8)

9) Shonda can assign Oliver work activities that Oliver finds unpleasant. Shonda possesses ________ power over Oliver.

A) coercive B) legitimate C) reward D) referent E) expert

9)

10) Which of the following statements is true regarding power?

A) A is said to have power over B if B controls something that A desires.

B) The greater A's dependence on B, the greater A's power in the relationship.

C) A can have power over B only when A and B have similar goals.

D) A can have power over B only if A is B's leader.

E) If A has the capacity to influence the behavior of B, then A is said to have power over B.

10)

11) James and Juanita are both salespeople covering the challenging Midwestern market. They have found it difficult to meet their yearly sales quota. Their manager, Petros, decides to involve them in developing a plan to meet their sales quota. Petros is using the influence tactic of ________.

A) consultation B) inspirational appeal C) legitimacy D) rational persuasion E) exchange

11)

12) Which of the following statements is true regarding legitimate power?

A) Legitimate power is a type of personal power.

B) Celebrities who endorse products in commercials wield legitimate power over people.

C) Legitimate power is broader than the power to coerce and reward.

D) Legitimate power develops out of admiration of another and a desire to be like that person.

E) Legitimate power comes from an individual's unique characteristics.

12)

13) Exemplification is an example of a(n) ________ impression management (IM) technique.

A) defensive B) ingratiating C) self-focused D) cognitive E) assertive

13)

2

14) If an individual ________, then he is less likely to engage in illegitimate political behavior.

A) has an external locus of control B) has influential contacts outside the organization C) has invested a lot in the organization in terms of time and efforts D) possesses a scarce skill or knowledge E) does not expect any future benefits from the organization

14)

15) Which of the following statements is true about research on power and leadership?

A) Power requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led.

B) Leadership minimizes the importance of lateral relationships.

C) Leadership research often emphasizes style.

D) Leadership focuses more on the downward influence on followers.

E) Leadership minimizes the importance of upward relationships.

15)

16) At the organizational level, if Carla can give Chang a favorable sales territory, Carla has ________ power over Chang.

A) expert B) coercive C) reward D) referent E) legitimate

16)

17) Neha finds out that her salary is lower than her peers. She discusses this with her boss, showing him how her performance has increased company revenues. As a result, she gets a substantial raise.

Which of the following influence tactics did she use?

A) Rational persuasion B) Pressure C) Inspirational appeals D) Legitimacy E) Exchange

17)

18) Which of the following terms best represents a point of difference between power and leadership?

A) Control B) Potential C) Cognitive dissonance D) Negative affect E) Goal compatibility

18)

19) In which type of interview setting would manipulative behaviors like impression management be likely to be effective?

A) Impression management can be highly effective regardless of the interview setting.

B) A highly structured interview which featured several interviewers and the candidate C) A highly structured group interview which featured several interviewers and candidates D) A highly structured interview just between the interviewer and the candidate E) An unstructured interview just between the interviewer and the candidate

19)

20) The influence tactic of using flattery and creating goodwill before making a request is known as ________.

A) affective appeal B) motivational appeal C) consultation D) inspirational appeal E) ingratiation

20)

3

21) In organizational behavior (OB), ________ simply refers to the capacity, discretion, and means to enforce one's will over others.

A) realization B) dependence C) cognition D) power E) actualization

21)

22) Marilyn is the department head for a large call center and is responsible for conducting quarterly performance evaluations on her employees. While a good portion of the evaluation is based on areas such as friendliness, punctuality, and customer ratings, roughly half of the appraisal is based on call volume and the conversion of callers to customers. An employee's evaluations are used to determine quarterly raises. Algemar and Nick both work for Marilyn. Marilyn feels that she is a mentor for Nick while she feels that she simply inherited Algemar from another department; thus, Marilyn sometimes strikes from Nick's call records customers who are extremely difficult or perhaps too set against buying the product. For the last quarter, Marilyn awarded Nick a raise while she did not award one to Algemar. Marilyn's awarding Nick a raise based on his evaluations could best be called ________.

A) identity management B) unethical politicking C) self-serving D) politicking E) cognitive management

22)

23) In the restaurant industry, what percentage of female waitstaff reported having been sexually harassed by co-workers or customers?

A) 80 B) 70 C) 60 D) 50 E) 40

23)

24) Andre, who has never participated in athletics since middle school, is the general manager of a basketball team. He often finds himself fighting for players' attention because players seem to listen more to DeSean who had a long and illustrious professional career prior to his retirement and current position as advisor to the team. In this scenario, Andre has ________ power while DeSean has ________ power.

A) legitimate; expert B) referent; athletic C) charismatic; legitimate D) positional; referent E) positional; athletic

24)

25) Inga, a manager at Storks, Inc., told her boss, Juan, "You're absolutely right on your reorganization plan for the Western regional office. I couldn't agree with you more." What is the impression management (IM) technique that Inga used?

A) Self-promotion B) Flattery C) Rationalization D) Ingratiation E) Conformity

25)

4

26) Leadership requires ________.

A) a dependency of those being led on the leader B) congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led C) followers who share behavioral traits with their leaders D) a dependency of the leader on those being led E) focus on tactics for gaining compliance

26)

27) Your colleagues at work are constantly talking about the vice president in your region. He is perceived throughout the organization as a ruthless man who is not to be antagonized. It is necessary for you to bring him a report, and you are very nervous about having to deal with him.

The vice president's major base of power seems to be ________.

A) expert B) referent C) coercive D) reward E) personal

27)

28) Celebrities are paid millions of dollars to endorse products in commercials because the advertisers believe the celebrities have ________ power.

A) reward B) legitimate C) coercive D) referent E) expert

28)

29) The greater B's ________ A, the more power A has over B. A) importance to B) dependence on C) attachment to D) substitutability is for E) relationship to

29)

30) Which of the following types of power can be categorized as personal power?

A) Coercive B) Positional C) Referent D) Reward E) Legitimate

30)

31) People in an organization who have data or knowledge others need can make others dependent on them. ________ power comes also from withholding key information.

A) Expert B) Legitimate C) Reward D) Referent E) Coercive

31)

32) Which of the following is an example of a defensive impression management technique?

A) Exemplification B) Apologies C) Enhancement D) Flattery E) Self-promotion

32)

5

33) Juan scored all his points long after the basketball game was decided. He, however, claimed to his coach that he had played an integral part in his team's victory. The impression management technique that Juan used is called ________.

A) exemplification B) self-promotion C) buffering D) enhancement E) flattery

33)

34) Your immediate supervisor is a nice person. He helps you solve your problems and gives valuable advice. You admire your supervisor and aspire to become like him. The power that your supervisor possesses over you is known as ________ power.

A) coercive B) referent C) expert D) reward E) transactional

34)

35) Jerrod is relatively new to Xenon Corporation and wants to make sure that he makes a good impression on his supervisor. He tells his supervisor that he has two tickets to the theater for next Friday that he won't be able to use and that his supervisor can have them free of charge as a thank you for helping him (Jerrod) through his initial period at the company. Jerrod is engaging in which of the following impression management techniques as far as his supervisor is concerned?

A) Self-promotion B) Excuses C) Favors D) Apologizing E) Conformity

35)

36) Influence tactics are defined as ________.

A) approaches for reducing conflict B) strategies for gathering and maintaining support C) characteristics of organizational structure D) approaches for influencing goal setting E) techniques for translating power bases into specific action

36)

37) Steve Jobs, the former co-founder and chief executive officer (CEO) of Apple had power based on his personal traits. Jobs' source of power is called ________.

A) cognitive B) coercive C) expert D) societal E) referent

37)

38) ________ power is based on an individual's position in an organization.

A) Referent B) Knowledge C) Expert D) Cognitive E) Formal

38)

39) Which of the following is not one of the ways of construing politics?

A) Reactive B) Strategic C) Proactive D) Integrated

6

E) Reluctant

39)

40) You know that the vice-president has the authority to accept or reject your report. This is part of his ________ power.

A) expert B) personal C) reward D) legitimate E) coercive

40)

41) Which one of the following is not implied in the definition of power?

A) Influence B) Dependency C) Actualization D) Potential E) Control

41)

42) According to various studies around the world, higher levels of political skill are associated with higher levels of perceived ________.

A) resource scarcity B) social networking C) job performance D) counterproductive work behaviors E) citizenship behaviors

42)

43) Which of the following influence tactics involves using flattery, praise, or friendly behavior prior to making a request?

A) Personal appeals B) Exchange C) Consultation D) Pressure E) Ingratiation

43)

44) Which of the following influence tactics is considered a "harder" tactic that emphasizes formal power and incurs greater costs and risks?

A) Coalition B) Consultation C) Inspirational appeal D) Personal appeal E) Rational persuasion

44)

45) ________ does not require goal compatibility, just dependence.

A) Cognition B) Charisma C) Resolution D) Leadership E) Power

45)

46) Jerrod is relatively new to Xenon Corporation and wants to make sure that he makes a good impression on his co-workers and supervisor. He agrees with the supervisor's opinion most of the time and constantly compliments others about their good work. Jerrod is attempting to use ________.

A) defensive behavior B) illegitimate political behavior C) impression management D) expert power E) referral power

46)

7

47) People especially likely to comply with soft power tactics tend to ________.

A) be extrinsically motivated B) be more action oriented C) have greater desire for control D) have low self-esteem E) be more focused on getting along with others than with getting their own way

47)

48) Which of the following influence tactics can be used most effectively for exerting upward influence?

A) Rational persuasion B) Inspirational appeal C) Ingratiation D) Exchange E) Legitimacy

48)

49) Which of the following tactics is most effective if I want to influence performance at work?

A) Rational persuasion B) Ingratiation C) Coalitions D) Exchange E) Pressure

49)

50) Which of the following influence tactics is more effective when the audience is highly interested in the outcomes of a decision process?

A) Pressure B) Ingratiation C) Personal appeals D) Consultation E) Exchange

50)

51) Which of the following factors encourages politicking?

A) Role clarity B) Low pressures for performance C) Zero-sum reward allocation practices D) Increase in organizational resources E) Clear performance evaluation systems

51)

52) Most of us follow our doctor's advice because our doctor has ________ power.

A) reward B) expert C) coercive D) referent

E) legitimate

53) Employees exhibiting which of the following traits are more likely to engage in political behavior?

A) Lack of sensitivity to social cues B) Low self-monitoring C) Low need for power D) External locus of control E) Machiavellian personality

8

52)

53)

54) Which of the following questions can aid in determining if someone is engaged in unethical politicking?

A) What would be the point of politicking?

B) Would politicking be worth the risk to the person?

C) Both what would be the point of politicking and how are others being affected by this alleged politicking?

D) How are others being affected by this alleged politicking?

E) Both what would be the point of politicking and would politicking be worth the risk to the person?

54)

55) Evidence indicates people in different countries tend to prefer different influence tactics. Managers from the United States prefer ________.

A) inspirational appeals B) rational persuasion C) coalition D) ingratiation E) exchange

55)

56) Which of the following is most likely to help Jerrod earn higher performance evaluations?

A) Apologies B) Excuses C) Buffing D) Ingratiation E) Self-promotion

56)

57) Dependence increases when a resource you control is ________.

A) important B) nonsubstitutable C) important, scarce, and nonsubstitutable D) scarce E) both important and scarce

57)

58) Aisha told her boss, "I'm sorry I made a mistake on the report. Please forgive me." Aisha was using the impression management (IM) technique of ________.

A) ingratiation B) collaboration C) exemplification D) self-promotion E) apology

58)

59) A political map is useful for ________.

A) selecting which relationships can influence your career B) determining which policies should be in place C) determining which candidate to give a donation to D) selecting which candidate to support for office E) determining which rules should be challenged

59)

9

60) Power is a function of ________.

A) inheritance B) altruism C) goal congruency D) realization E) dependence

60)

61) Andy, who works for the Omega Corporation, sees a lot of political behavior at work. Andy views politics as a useful way of getting things done. Which of the following is the way Andy construes politics?

A) Cognitive B) Reactive C) Reluctant D) Integrated E) Strategic

61)

62) Which of the following is not considered to be an influence tactic?

A) Rational persuasion B) Coalition C) Substitution D) Ingratiation E) Consultation

62)

63) Which of the following is not an individual antecedent of political behavior in organizations?

A) Organizational investment B) Role ambiguity C) Internal locus of control D) Perceived job alternatives E) Expectations of success

63)

64) According to the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the definition of sexual harassment includes all of the following at work except which?

A) Requests for sexual favors B) Unwelcome sexual advances C) Verbal conduct of a sexual nature D) Physical conduct of a sexual nature E) Differential treatment based on gender

64)

65) John is good with numbers, but he wasn't sure what he wanted to study in college. During his senior year in high school he had a math teacher, Mr. Ahmed. John liked his teaching style and got interested in numbers. He also joined the Math Club to spend more time with Mr. Ahmed. As a result, John went on to study math and later engineering in college, and today tells his kids that he owes his career to Mr. Ahmed. Mr. Ahmed exhibited ________ power over John.

A) coercive B) positional C) legitimate D) referent E) reward

65)

66) As the chief executive officer (CEO) of the Randolph Company, Sergio has ________ power in the organization.

A) coercive B) referent C) charismatic D) expert E) legitimate

66)

10

67) While different bases of power are effective depending upon the perceptions and characteristics of the dependent, it does appear that ________ power can be an especially powerful motivator.

A) coercive B) legitimate C) positional D) reward E) referent

67)

68) When a former professional athlete tells you that he can teach you how to improve your game, his base of power is ________.

A) coercive B) positional C) referent D) authoritative E) expert

68)

69) Marilyn is the department head for a large call center and is responsible for conducting quarterly performance evaluations on her employees. While a good portion of the evaluation is based on areas such as friendliness, punctuality, and customer ratings, roughly half of the appraisal is based on call volume and the conversion of callers to customers. An employee's evaluations are used to determine quarterly raises. Algemar and Nick both work for Marilyn. Marilyn feels that she is a mentor for Nick while she feels that she simply inherited Algemar from another department; thus, Marilyn sometimes strikes from Nick's call records customers who are extremely difficult or perhaps too set against buying the product. For the last quarter, Marilyn awarded Nick a raise while she did not award one to Algemar. Nick's accepting the raise based on his performance evaluation could best be described as ________.

A) both unethical politicking and identity management B) both politicking and identity management C) unethical politicking D) identity management E) politicking

69)

70) When the influence tactic of ________ works, it's generally downward only.

A) coalition B) pressure C) legitimacy D) ingratiation E) exchange

70)

71) Which of the following is an example of the impression management (IM) technique of ingratiation?

A) Enhancement B) Favors C) Flattery D) Self-promotion E) Excuses

71)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

72) The greater B's dependence on A, the more power A has over B.

72)

73) The most common way to access one or more of the power bases is probably through legitimate power.

73)

74) Employees who possess an external locus of control are more likely to engage in political behavior.

74)

11

75) Physicians have expertise in diagnosing and treating illnesses and hence have expert power.

75)

76) Employees with a high Mach personality are more likely to engage in political behavior.

76)

77) Rational persuasion is one of the preferred lateral influence tactics.

77)

78) The opposite of coercive power is reward power.

78)

79) Preference for influence tactics are generally the same across cultures.

79)

80) Power leads people to place their own interests ahead of others' needs or goals.

80)

81) Dependence is a function of power.

81)

82) The more an organizational culture emphasizes the zero-sum approach to reward allocation, the less employees will be motivated to engage in politicking.

82)

83) Political behavior in organizations is within one's specified job requirements.

83)

84) Political behavior in organizations include whistleblowing and joining a coalition.

84)

85) Power does not require goal compatibility, just dependence.

85)

86) Dependence increases when a resource one controls is important, scarce, and nonsubstitutable.

86)

87) Inspirational appeals work best as a downward-influencing tactic with subordinates.

87)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

88) What is the general dependence postulate?

89) Amit, Chang, and Eric work as software developers on a project team. Since Amit and Eric are both experts in the Python programming language (Chang is not proficient in it), their work is more coordinated than it is with Amit and Chang or with Eric and Chang. Explain the relationship among the three in terms of social network analysis.

90) Why is coercive power considered the opposite of reward power?

91) How do conformity and self-promotion help in impression management (IM)?

92) How are power and dependence related?

93) Please discuss one way in which a company might implement a social network analysis within an organization.

94) What influence tactics are preferred by superiors attempting to influence subordinates?

95) Why are defensive behaviors a part of politicking?

96) What do we know about cultural preferences for influence tactics?

12

97) How is performance evaluation related to impression management (IM)?

98) Describe the various individual factors that are related to political behavior.

99) How does the zero-sum approach relate to political behavior?

100) In a meeting of the liberal arts faculty at State University (SU), the discussion turned to the power held by the university's information technology (IT) staff. One professor remarked that while the IT department was not even organizationally a part of the college of liberal arts, they seem to hold undue power over the college. How would you explain expert power to the liberal arts faculty at SU?

13

Answer Key Testname: C13

1) A 2) E 3) E 4) A 5) C 6) B 7) B 8) A 9) A 10) E 11) A 12) C 13) E 14) C 15) C 16) C 17) A 18) E 19) E 20) E 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) E 26) B 27) C 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) E 32) B 33) D 34) B 35) C 36) E 37) E 38) E 39) C 40) D 41) C 42) C 43) E 44) A 45) E 46) C 47) C 48) A 49) A 50) D 14

Answer Key Testname: C13

51) C 52) B 53) E 54) E 55) B 56) D 57) C 58) E 59) A 60) E 61) E 62) C 63) B 64) E 65) D 66) E 67) E 68) E 69) E 70) B 71) B 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) The general dependence postulate relates power to dependence. It states that: the greater B's dependence on A, the more power A has over B. When A possesses something that B requires and that A alone controls, it makes B dependent on A, and therefore leads to A having power over B. However, if what A controls is plentiful, possessing it will not increase A's power. Therefore, if B expands his/her options, the less power that A holds over B. 89) According to social network analysis, all three—Amit, Chang, and Eric—would be considered nodes. Within a social network, or connection between people who share professional interests, each individual is called a node. Also, here, both Amit and Eric share an interest in the Python programming language. This link between them is called a tie. If Amit and Eric communicate or exchange resources frequently, they would be said to have strong ties. A graphical illustration of the associations among Amit, Chang, and Eric can be captured in a sociogram.

15

Answer Key Testname: C13

90) Both coercive and reward powers are formal powers because they are based on an individual's position in an organization. The coercive power base depends on the target's (say, a subordinate) fear of negative results from failing to comply or acting in a way that would anger the power holder. In other words, coercive power produces negative results for the target. In contrast, the opposite is true of reward power. In reward power, people comply because it produces positive benefits. Someone who can distribute rewards that others view as valuable will have power over them.

91) The process by which individuals attempt to control the impression others form of them is called impression management (IM). The IM process can be conscious or unconscious and can be perceived as authentic or disingenuous.

Conformity and self-promotion are two of several IM techniques. Conformity is agreeing with someone else's opinion to gain his or her approval. It is a form of ingratiation. In self-promotion, you highlight your own qualities and downplay your defects. This way of calling attention to your achievements is a self-focused IM technique.

92) In organizational behavior, power is the capacity, discretion, and means to enforce one's will over others. The definition implies that someone can have power but not use it. A powerful person, thus, has discretion over when to exercise their power. Power is also a function of dependence. Dependence refers to the extent to which people depend or rely upon a powerful person. The more people rely or depend upon the powerful person (who controls something the others rely or want), the more powerful that person becomes. When people begin to have more alternatives and options, or begin to rely on themselves or different people, the less dependent they are on the powerful person, who then loses power.

93) While responses will vary, there should be some basis in one of the following foundations. Some organizations keep track of the flow of e-mail communications or document sharing across departments. These big-data tools are an easy way to gather objective information about how individuals exchange information. Other organizations look at data from human resources (HR) information systems, analyzing how supervisors and subordinates interact with one another. These data sources can produce sociograms showing how resources and power flow. Leaders can then identify powerful brokers who exert the strongest influence on many groups, and address these key individuals.

94) While there are several influence tactics, the effectiveness of specific tactics depends to some extent on the direction of influence. When superiors attempt to influence subordinates, the direction of influence is downward. In such situations, while rational persuasion, inspirational appeals, ingratiation, and legitimacy work and are preferred, tactics such as consultation and coalition building do not. Rational persuasion is a strong tactic for downward influence attempts. However, inspirational appeals work best as a downward-influencing tactic with subordinates. While ingratiation is most effective as a lateral influence, it can also be effective in downward influence. Finally, superiors can use legitimacy—their position in the organization—as an influence tactic.

95) Defensive behaviors are reactive and protective behaviors to avoid action, blame, or change. While such behaviors are a part of politicking, they are both destructive and negative. Instead of attempting to influence people in "soft" bond-affirming ways, defensive behaviors protect self-interests through aggressive or avoidant means, such as withholding ideas or contributions. In the short run, employees may find that defensiveness protects their self-interests, but in the long run it wears them down.

96) Influence tactics refer to the ways in which individuals translate power bases into specific action. Research indicates that the preference for influence tactics varies across cultures. Those from individualistic countries (Hofstede's dimension) tend to see power in personalized terms and as a legitimate means of advancing their personal ends, whereas those in collectivistic countries (Hofstede's dimension) see power in social terms and as a legitimate means of helping others. For example, managers in the United States seem to prefer rational appeal (an influence tactic), whereas Chinese managers may prefer coalition tactics.

97) The process by which individuals attempt to control the impression others form of them is called impression management. IM techniques include conformity (i.e., ingratiation), doing favors, making excuses, apologizing, self-promotion, enhancement, flattery, and exemplification. Research indicates that ingratiation is positively related to performance ratings, meaning that those who ingratiate with their supervisors get higher performance evaluations.

However, self-promotion appears to backfire. In general, those who self-promote may receive lower performance ratings, unless their political skill is able to translate IM into higher performance appraisals.

16

Answer Key Testname: C13

98) Both individual and organizational factors contribute to political behavior. At the individual level, researchers have identified certain personality traits, needs, and other factors likely to be related to political behavior. Employees who are high self-monitors, possess an internal locus of control, and have a high need for power are more likely to engage in political behavior. For example, because they believe they can control their environment, individuals with an internal locus of control are more prone to take a proactive stance and attempt to manipulate situations in their favor.

Also, an individual's investment in the organization and perceived alternatives influence the degree to which they will pursue illegitimate means of political action. Finally, some individuals engage in political behavior simply because they are better at it. Such individuals read interpersonal interactions well, fit their behavior to situational needs, and excel at networking. These people are often indirectly rewarded for their political efforts.

99) A number of organizational factors act as antecedents to political behavior. One factor is the reward allocation process.

The zero-sum approach is an approach to reward allocation that treats the reward "pie" as fixed, so any gain one person or group achieves comes at the expense of another person or group. This win-lose reward allocation approach is a motivation to engage in politicking. This is because such a practice encourages making others look bad and increasing the visibility of what you do.

100) There are two groups of power in organizations—formal power and personal power. Formal power is based on an individual's position in the organization. Since the IT staff is not a part of the college of liberal arts' hierarchy (although they are a part of the university's hierarchy), they cannot exercise their formal power over the college. However, they can exercise personal power, more specifically expert power. Expert power is based on influence wielded as a result of expertise, special skills, or knowledge. It is likely that the IT staff wield a lot of power over the faculty of the college of liberal arts at SU because of the faculty's dependence on computers for their work and their inability to fix things when their computers don't work. In short, the faculty is dependent on the IT staff's expertise. This dependence leads to power.

17

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following has the authority to dictate an agreement?

A) Mediator B) Moderator C) Conciliator D) Arbitrator E) Peacemaker

1)

2) Which of the following is the second step in the negotiation process?

A) Preparation and planning B) Bargaining and problem solving C) Definition of ground rules D) Clarification and justification E) Closure and implementation

2)

3) Which of the following conflict-handling intentions involves accepting a solution that provides incomplete satisfaction of both parties' concerns?

A) Competing B) Compromising C) Collaborating D) Accommodating E) Avoiding

3)

4) Emma is the labor union negotiator. Today, she is meeting with management to discuss the new five-year contract, including wages and benefits. This example of labor-management negotiations over wages exemplifies ________.

A) conciliation B) arbitration C) integrative bargaining D) mediation E) distributive bargaining

4)

5) Which of the following statements is true regarding integrative bargaining?

A) Integrative bargaining leaves one party a loser.

B) Integrative bargaining makes the first offer, and makes it an aggressive one.

C) Integrative bargaining focuses on long-term relationships.

D) Integrative bargaining involves low information sharing.

E) Integrative bargaining operates under zero-sum conditions.

5)

6) Negotiators with absolutely no alternative to a negotiated agreement sometimes ________.

A) adopt a "worst case scenario" mentality B) become hostile and end the negotiation C) seek out another party with whom to negotiate D) become hostile and agree to whatever is offered to them E) adopt a "go for broke" mentality

6)

1

7) In which stage of the conflict process does conflict become visible?

A) Intentions B) Personalization C) Incompatibility D) Behavior E) Outcomes

7)

8) You are a marketing director for a large food manufacturer. Lately, you have noticed that you are spending a great deal more time at work, sometimes 14 hours a day, because your best friend, who is head of product development, continues to ask you to serve on taste test panels for new products.

Which type(s) of conflict are you experiencing?

A) Process B) Both task and relationship C) Relationship D) Task, relationship, and process E) Task

8)

9) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the "closure and implementation" step?

A) Formalizing the agreement that has been worked out B) Determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement C) Justifying your original demands D) Determining time constraints, if any, applicable to negotiation E) Exchange of the initial proposals or demands

9)

10) The two general approaches to bargaining are known as ________ bargaining.

A) emotional and rational B) distributive and integrative C) formal and informal D) affective and reflective E) reflexive and restrictive

10)

11) Which of the following statements is a condition necessary for integrative bargaining to succeed in organizations?

A) Opposing parties must not trust each other.

B) Opposing parties must not be open to sharing information.

C) Opposing parties must not be guarded about their concerns.

D) Opposing parties must not want to maintain flexibility.

E) Opposing parties must not be sensitive to others' needs.

11)

12) Ming feels that her cubicle neighbor talks loudly on the phone, but in other ways she is a great neighbor. Ming gets annoyed every time her neighbor's phone rings, but she has decided it's simply not worth the trouble to talk to her neighbor. Ming's conflict-handling intention is called ________.

A) accommodating B) compromising C) avoiding D) competing E) collaborating

12)

2

13) A(n) ________ is a trusted third party who provides an informal communication link between the negotiator and the negotiation partner.

A) conciliator B) ombudsman C) arbitrator D) moderator E) mediator

13)

14) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the "preparation and planning" step?

A) Determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement B) Justifying your original demands C) Designing procedures for implementing the agreement that has been worked out D) Exchange of the initial proposals or demands E) Determining where the negotiation will take place

14)

15) Which of the following would be an example of a functional conflict within an organization?

A) Two co-workers who were married getting a divorce B) Two co-workers deciding on a movie to watch after work C) Two married co-workers deciding on a vacation destination D) Two co-workers trying to decide where to hold the staff retreat E) Two co-workers trying to decide where to eat lunch

15)

16) Which of the following conflict-handling intentions involves attempting to find a win-win solution?

A) Compromising B) Avoiding C) Collaborating D) Competing E) Accommodating

16)

17) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the "clarification and explaining" step?

A) Formalizing the agreement that has been worked out B) Determining time constraints, if any, applicable to negotiation C) Determining who will do the negotiation D) Justifying your original demands E) Determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement

17)

18) The terms negotiation and ________ are used interchangeably.

A) arbitration B) collaboration C) mediation D) bargaining E) accommodating

18)

3

19) A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the negotiating partner's interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this intention as ________.

A) accommodating B) competing C) compromising D) collaborating E) avoiding

19)

20) When employees working in the warehouse have a conflict over how the work should be done, the conflict is called ________ conflict.

A) process B) relationship C) dyadic D) intergroup E) task

20)

21) When a conflict occurs within a group or team, it is called a(n) ________ conflict.

A) complicating B) intragroup C) dyadic D) cognitive E) intergroup

21)

22) Which of the following conflict-handling intentions is mid-range on both assertiveness and cooperativeness?

A) Avoiding B) Accommodating C) Competing D) Compromising E) Collaborating

22)

23) Stage I of the conflict process deals with ________.

A) perception of the conflict B) the appearance of conditions that create conflict to arise C) personalization of the conflict D) the felt emotions about the conflict E) cognition related to the conflict

23)

24) All things being equal, ________ bargaining is preferable to distributive bargaining because the former builds long-term relationships.

A) transformational B) distributive C) integrative D) accommodative E) collaborative

24)

4

25) ________ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to "expand the pie."

A) Reflective B) Affective C) Integrative D) Conjunctive E) Distributive

25)

26) The distinguishing characteristic of the conflict-handling strategy of ________ is that each party intends to give up something.

A) collaborating B) compromising C) confronting D) competing E) avoiding

26)

27) Sergio, a manager, always displays anger when he negotiates with his team members. Which type of bargaining is Sergio employing to induce concessions from his team?

A) Distributive bargaining B) Individual bargaining C) Dysfunctional bargaining D) Integrative bargaining E) Collective bargaining

27)

28) The conflict-handling techniques are characterized by two dimensions, cooperativeness and assertiveness. Cooperativeness indicates the degree to which ________.

A) the parties are willing to involve third-party conflict resolution techniques B) one party attempts to satisfy the other party's concerns C) the parties attempt to find a win-win solution D) one party attempts to satisfy his or her own concerns E) one party attempts to suppress the conflict

28)

29) When conflict is personalized and individuals become emotionally involved, the conflict is at the ________ conflict level.

A) perceived B) dyadic C) felt D) tertiary E) cognitive

29)

30) The conflict-handling techniques are characterized by two dimensions, cooperativeness and assertiveness. Assertiveness indicates the degree to which ________.

A) the parties attempt to find a win-win solution B) one party attempts to satisfy the other party's concerns C) one party attempts to satisfy their own concerns D) one party attempts to suppress the conflict E) the parties are willing to involve third-party conflict resolution techniques

30)

31) DeSean and Molly, who both work in the order processing department at Acme Building Supplies, are involved in a conflict about handling a particular difficult customer. The type of conflict involving DeSean and Molly is called ________ conflict.

A) cognitive B) complicating C) titular D) dyadic E) intergroup

31)

5

32) When Juan supports someone else's opinion despite having reservations about it, his conflict handling strategy is called ________.

A) accommodating B) avoiding C) collaborating D) competing E) compromising

32)

33) Which of the following is a characteristic of integrative bargaining?

A) Opposed interests B) Positions as focus C) Win-win solution D) Short-term focus E) Low information sharing

33)

34) What is the relationship between tenure and conflict?

A) Tangential B) No relationship C) Curvilinear D) Direct E) Inverse

34)

35) When both parties are open to resolving their conflict, and the conflict intensity is not too high, which of the following is the most appropriate third party to use?

A) Mediator B) Conciliator C) Arbitrator D) Both mediator and arbitrator E) Both mediator and conciliator

35)

36) ________ is the third stage in the conflict process and it intervenes between people's perceptions and their overt behavior.

A) Attribution B) Behavioral manifestation C) Intention D) Cognition E) Potential for opposition

36)

37) In negotiation, the least the individual should accept is called the individual's ________.

A) BATNA B) bid price C) hidden value D) margin of error E) asking price

37)

6

38) ________ is defined as a process that begins when one party perceives another party has or is about to negatively affect something the first party cares about.

A) Conflict B) Assessment C) Collective bargaining D) Negotiation E) Problem solving

38)

39) Labor and management at DJ Trucking cannot agree upon a contract for the truck drivers. The drivers are threatening to strike, and management knows that such a strike would be very costly.

Each side contends that they are bargaining fairly, but no agreement seems to be possible. Both sides agree that they are competing over a fixed amount of resources. Each side feels that what one side wins, the other loses. Based on this information we can say that the two sides are engaged in ________.

A) integrative bargaining B) distributive bargaining C) arbitration D) conciliation E) mediation

39)

40) ________ conflict supports the goals of the group while ________ conflict hinders group performance.

A) Functional; interactionist B) Dysfunctional; functional C) Interactionist; dysfunctional D) Dysfunctional; interactionist E) Functional; dysfunctional

40)

41) Based on the dimensions of cooperativeness and assertiveness, the conflict-handling intentions are classified into five categories. Which of the following is not one of these five conflict-handling intentions?

A) Competing B) Accommodating C) Avoiding D) Collaborating E) Resisting

41)

42) You have decided to hold on to the position of "I can't go beyond this point on this issue" in a labor-management conflict. You are attempting to engage in ________.

A) distributive bargaining B) mediation C) integrative bargaining D) arbitration E) conciliation

42)

7

43) Conditions that can create conflicts can be classified into three categories. Which of the following is one of these three categories that includes variables such as emotions and values?

A) Process variables B) Personal variables C) Communication D) Structure E) Group interactions

43)

44) The conflict-handling intention of accommodating is ________.

A) unassertive and cooperative B) assertive and uncooperative C) reflective and assertive D) unassertive and uncooperative E) assertive and cooperative

44)

45) Which of the following is not a step in the negotiation process?

A) Preparation and planning B) Definition of ground rules C) Clarification and justification D) Bargaining and problem solving E) Process evaluation

45)

46) In case of distributive bargaining, the ________ point marks the lowest outcome that is acceptable –the point below which the party would break off negotiations rather than accept a less favorable settlement.

A) clarification B) focal C) tolerance D) resistance E) target

46)

47) When your work group disagrees, the disagreements usually concern how the group's work should be accomplished. The type of conflict experienced by your group is ________.

A) reactive conflict B) task conflict C) relationship conflict D) process conflict E) traditional conflict

47)

48) The conflict-handling intention of competing is ________.

A) affective and reflective B) unassertive and cooperative C) assertive and uncooperative D) assertive and cooperative E) unassertive and uncooperative

48)

8

49) ________ is an antidote for groupthink.

A) Politics B) Negotiation C) Conflict D) Distributive bargaining E) Integrative bargaining

49)

50) Which of the following statements is true regarding negotiation that takes place in a collectivist culture?

A) Competing tactics are the most preferred methods of conflict management in China.

B) Collectivists may be less interested in demonstrations of concern.

C) Collectivists may be less interested in working through third parties to resolve disputes.

D) Collectivists will be more likely to confront differences of opinion directly and openly.

E) Collectivists may be more interested in working through third parties to resolve disputes.

50)

51) What is the overall goal of conflict management?

A) Assessing the source of conflict B) Identifying conflict C) Resolving conflict D) Stimulating conflict E) Achieving the desired conflict level

51)

52) Which of the following outcomes is not a dysfunctional consequence of conflict?

A) Reduced group cohesiveness B) Destruction of the group C) Poor communication D) Dissolution of common ties E) Reassessment of group goals

52)

53) Which of the following is not a factor that influences how effectively individuals negotiate?

A) Mood/emotions B) Age C) Gender D) Culture E) Personality

53)

54) Which of the following statements is not true regarding distributive bargaining?

A) It involves high information sharing.

B) The goal is to get as much of the pie as possible.

C) It focuses on short-term relationships.

D) It attempts to create a win-lose solution.

E) It operates under zero-sum conditions.

54)

55) When Chang and Elisa were involved in a work conflict, Chang simply chose to ignore the conflict and kept away from Elisa. Chang is using the strategy of ________.

A) compromising B) avoiding C) competing D) accommodating E) confronting

55)

9

56) Lakeesha is negotiating for the labor union. Today, she is presenting the evidence and papers that demonstrate the average wages in the area, the cost of health care for the average worker, and a pie graph demonstrating how these costs affect the new salary request. Which phase of the negotiation process is Lakeesha currently in?

A) Closure and implementation B) Clarification and justification C) Bargaining and problem solving D) Preparation and planning E) Definition of ground rules

56)

57) Leah has found some ethical problems with the healthcare policy of her organization. She knows she is right in considering this as a vital issue to her organization's welfare. She finds that others are taking advantage of her noncompetitive behavior. Which conflict-handling strategy should Leah select in this situation?

A) Compromise B) Collaboration C) Competition D) Avoidance E) Accommodation

57)

58) In the case of distributive bargaining, the ________ point indicates what a person would like to achieve out of a negotiation.

A) clarification B) focus C) target D) resistance E) closure

58)

59) ________ in a negotiation process opens the door to many forms of integrative negotiation strategies that benefit both parties.

A) Secret information B) Trust C) Alliances D) Communication skills E) Knowledge

59)

60) Lupe has come to realize that conflict has both functional, as well as dysfunctional, outcomes. She has observed examples of both in her organization. Last month, Lupe's department experienced constructive conflict during a meeting. Which of the following is not an outcome of this functional conflict?

A) The quality of decisions is improved.

B) Tensions are released.

C) Groupthink is increased.

D) Creativity and innovation are stimulated.

E) Interest and curiosity are encouraged.

60)

10

61) ________ is an antidote for groupthink.

A) Inertia B) Confrontation C) Competition D) Conflict E) Collaboration

61)

62) ________ is one individual-difference variable that consistently seems to relate to negotiation outcomes.

A) Cognitive dissonance B) Introversion C) Diffidence D) Narcissism E) Self-efficacy

62)

63) At the Omega Corporation, a global virtual team engaged in product development had two people who continuously fought for control of the team. This distracted the team members from focusing on the task at hand. The conflict in the team is called ________ conflict.

A) rational B) dysfunctional C) promotional D) contingent E) functional

63)

64) During a negotiation, making an initial offer leads to the ________ bias.

A) attributional B) self-serving C) framing D) cognitive E) anchoring

64)

65) Ana does not agree with the standard operating procedures adapted for the new project. However, she discusses the items with the team and comes to know that she was in the minority. She has, therefore, decided to accept the new procedures to maintain smooth operations within the team.

This type of intention is called ________.

A) sacrificing B) competing C) compromising D) collaborating E) accommodating

65)

66) For successful cross-cultural negotiations, it is especially important that the negotiators be high in ________.

A) underestimation B) openness C) emotions D) individualism E) belligerence

66)

11

67) The ________ stage of the conflict process is important because it's where conflict issues tend to be defined.

A) reaction and transference B) potential opposition C) cognition and personalization D) behavior E) intuitions

67)

68) Which of the following terms best describes the process that occurs when two or more parties decide how to allocate scarce resources?

A) Conflict management B) Mediation C) Arbitration D) Unionization E) Negotiation

68)

69) The marketing team at an advertising agency recently had a conflict over content and goals of the work. What is this type of conflict called?

A) Dyadic B) Intergroup C) Process D) Relationship E) Task

69)

70) During which phase of the negotiation process do the parties exchange their initial proposals or demands?

A) Opening and initiating B) Clarification and justification C) Definition of ground rules D) Integration of preferences E) Bargaining and problem-solving

70)

71) At first, the disputing parties resist your offer to help create a win-win situation for both groups.

They are each highly focused on their demands in the negotiation, otherwise known as their ________.

A) distribution points B) settlement ranges C) resistance points D) target points E) focal points

71)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

72) Felt conflict is the awareness by one or more parties of the existence of conditions that create opportunities for conflicts to arise.

72)

73) The first stage of the conflict process is cognition and personalization.

73)

74) Studies demonstrate that relationship conflicts, at least in work settings, are almost always dysfunctional.

74)

12

75) Task conflict is about how the work gets done.

75)

76) The duration of relationship in distributive bargaining is long term.

76)

77) Age is one of the four factors that influences how effectively individuals negotiate.

77)

78) The phrase, "any gain I make is at your expense, and vice versa" is associated with distributive bargaining.

78)

79) The goal of integrative bargaining is to expand the pie so that both parties are satisfied.

79)

80) Arbitration is always voluntary.

80)

81) Communication can be a source of conflict in dyadic exchanges.

81)

82) Self-efficacy is one individual-difference variable that consistently seems to relate to negotiation outcomes.

82)

83) Conflict that hinders group performance is called dysfunctional conflict.

83)

84) Relationship conflicts are often about delegation and roles.

84)

85) Determining your and the other side's best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA) is part of the definition of the ground rules step in the negotiation process.

85)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

86) What is stage II of the conflict process and why is the stage important?

87) How do distributive and integrative bargaining differ in terms of goals and motivation?

88) Why is communication called an antecedent condition for conflict?

89) What is conflict management?

90) How does competing differ from collaborating as a conflict intention?

91) How is organizational structure related to conflict?

92) What do mediators do in negotiations?

93) What role do conciliators play in negotiations?

94) Why is reputation considered a social factor in negotiations?

95) Why do relationships matter in negotiations?

96) What is covered in the ground rules step in negotiations?

13

97) What is the difference between perceived conflict and felt conflict?

98) How do hardline and softline strategies impact distributive bargaining?

99) What is negotiation?

100) Discuss the effects of culture on effectiveness of negotiations.

14

Answer Key Testname: C14

1) D 2) C 3) B 4) E 5) C 6) E 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) C 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) B 27) A 28) B 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) A 33) C 34) E 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) E 41) E 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) E 46) D 47) D 48) C 49) C 50) E 15

Answer Key Testname: C14

51) E 52) E 53) B 54) A 55) B 56) B 57) C 58) C 59) B 60) C 61) D 62) E 63) B 64) E 65) E 66) B 67) C 68) E 69) E 70) C 71) D 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) Stage I of the conflict identifies antecedent conditions that pave the way for a conflict to occur. Stage II—cognition and personalization—is important because it is the stage where conflict issues tend to be defined, where the parties decide what the conflict is about. This is where the perceived conflict moves to the felt conflict stage.

87) The motivation in distributive bargaining is to divide up a fixed amount of resources a win-lose situation. On the other hand, the motivation in integrative bargaining is to create a win-win solution. The goal of distributive bargaining (for each party) is to get as much of the pie as possible. In contrast, the goal of integrative bargaining is to expand the pie so that both parties are satisfied.

88) Certain conditions do not always lead to conflict but are necessary for conflict to surface. One such antecedent condition is communication. Communication can be a source of conflict in group interactions and dyadic exchanges.

There are opposing forces that arise from semantic difficulties, misunderstandings, and "noise" in the communication channel. These factors, along with jargon and insufficient information, can be barriers to communication and potential antecedent conditions to conflict. Even the way communication can be framed can have an effect. Finally, the potential for conflict has also been found to increase with too little or too much communication. Communication is functional up to a point, after which it is possible to overcommunicate, increasing the potential for conflict.

16

Answer Key Testname: C14

89) Conflict management refers to the use of resolution and stimulation techniques to achieve the desired level of conflict.

In anticipating and managing conflict, organizations can target three specific domains: strategy (such as designing conflict management activities), function (such as job design to reduce conflict), and worker (such as improving employee perceptions of conflict).

90) Intentions are decisions to act in a particular way. Intentions intervene between people's perceptions and emotions and their overt behavior. In terms of conflict, when one person seeks to satisfy their own interests regardless of the impact on the other parties in the conflict, that person is competing. We are more apt to compete when resources are scarce, when we have competition-prone personalities, when we are close to satisfying our own interests, or when the culture or climate supports competition. In collaboration, parties intend to solve a problem by clarifying differences by accommodating various points of view. An attempt to find a win-win solution is an example of collaboration.

Collaboration is more likely if the party is seen as competent, rational, and open to collaborating.

91) The three general categories of conditions which may be the sources of conflict are communication, structure, and personal variables.

Structure includes variables such as size, degree of specialization in the tasks assigned to group members, jurisdictional clarity, member-goal compatibility, leadership styles, reward systems, and the degree of dependence between groups. The larger the group and the more specialized its activities, the greater the likelihood of intragroup conflict. Tenure and conflict are inversely related, in that the longer a person stays with an organization, the less likely intragroup conflict becomes. Therefore, the potential for intragroup conflict is greatest when group members are newer to the organization and when turnover is high. Also, intragroup conflict can self-perpetuate, actually imbuing meaning and identity to the groups experiencing conflict, such as the long-standing rivalry between the New York Yankees and the Boston Red Sox in professional baseball.

92) A mediator is a neutral third party who facilitates a negotiated solution by using reasoning and persuasion, suggesting alternatives, and the like. Mediators are widely used in labor-management negotiations and in civil court disputes and their overall effectiveness is impressive. Three factors affect the efficacy of mediation: the motivation of the conflicting parties to bargain and resolve their conflict, the intensity of the conflict (mediation works best under moderate levels of conflict), and perceptions of the mediator (whether seen as neutral and noncoercive).

93) A conciliator is a trusted third party who provides an informal communication link between the negotiators and the negotiation partner. Agreeable individuals with a concern for others tend to adopt the role of a conciliator, and they tend to be respected and admired by their peers as a result. In practice, conciliators typically act as more than mere communication conduits. They also engage in fact finding, interpret messages, and persuade disputants to develop agreements.

94) Most types of negotiations are not those that occur among parties that meet only once and in isolation from other individuals. Organizational negotiations are typically open-ended and public. Reputation is a social factor that plays a role in negotiations. When it comes to negotiations, having a reputation for being trustworthy matters. Trust in a negotiation process opens the door to many forms of integrative negotiation strategies that benefit both parties. The most effective way to build trust is to behave in an honest way across repeated interactions—in short, to build one's reputation.

95) Reputation and relationships are the two social factors in negotiations. Since most negotiations are not isolated incidents between parties, relationships matter. The social, interpersonal component of relationships with repeated negotiations means that individuals go beyond valuing what is simply good for themselves and instead start to think about what is best for the other party and the relationship as a whole.

96) Definition of ground rules is the second step in the negotiation process, right after the preparation and planning step.

Ground rules are set by both parties in the negotiation process. The ground rules should consist of questions such as: Who will do the negotiating? Where will it take place? What time constraints, if any, will apply? To what issues will negotiation be limited? Will a specific procedure be followed if an impasse is reached? During this phase of the negotiation process, the parties will exchange their initial proposals or demands.

17

Answer Key Testname: C14

97) Perceived conflict is awareness by one or more parties of the existence of conditions that create opportunities for conflicts to arise. However, just because a disagreement is a perceived conflict does not mean it is personalized. It is personalized at the felt conflict level, when individuals become emotionally involved, that they experience anxiety, tension, frustration, or hostility. By making sense of the preceding events, employees perceive conflict and then recognize that the other party violated norms or did something wrong. Following these processes of naming and blaming, employees naturally feel the negative emotions surrounding conflict.

98) Hardline strategies are situations where you minimize your concessions and make extreme offers. In softline strategies, you elicit concessions from the other party through your own concessions. The use of these strategies in distributive bargaining depends on the outcome sought. If it is important to preserve the relationship, softline strategies might be better. If a higher economic return is sought, then hardline strategies may be better.

99) Negotiation is a process in which two or more parties exchange goods or services and attempt to agree on the exchange rate for them. Negotiation permeates the interactions of almost everyone in groups and organizations. Labor bargains with management. Managers negotiate with employees, peers, and bosses. Salespeople negotiate with customers, as do purchasing agents with suppliers. Negotiations are not always one-off situations (such as an employee negotiating a job offer), rather they are often continuing occurrences.

100) Culture plays a role in the effectiveness of negotiations. In general, people negotiate more effectively within cultures than between them. A good strategy is to choose cross-cultural negotiators who are high on openness, and it helps to avoid factors, such as time pressure, that tend to inhibit learning about the other party. Also, because emotions are culturally sensitive, negotiators need to be especially aware of the emotional dynamics in cross-cultural negotiations.

Research suggests that the same language that leads to integrative agreements in Western cultures can backfire in others. Finally, some idiosyncratic rituals (such as handshakes in Western cultures) that differ across cultures can improve the success of integrative bargaining.

18

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Lotus Inc. is attempting to flatten its organizational hierarchy. It is encouraging the use of cross-hierarchical teams, participative decision-making practices, and the use of 360-degree performance appraisals. Based on this information we can say that Lotus Inc. is attempting to create a ________ organization.

A) virtual B) team C) highly departmentalized D) highly centralized E) highly formalized

1)

2) The question of "Why own when you can rent?" captures the essence of the ________ structure.

A) matrix B) team C) functional D) simple E) virtual

2)

3) Some firms downsize to direct all their efforts toward their core ________.

A) principles B) competencies C) employees D) managers E) policies

3)

4) Sergio works in new product development at Xenon Corp. As a marketing specialist, he reports both to Adam, his marketing manager, and to Ming, his product manager. The structural characteristic that is broken at product development at Xenon Corp. is called ________.

A) formalization B) decentralization C) line of command D) span of control E) unity of command

4)

5) The answer to the key question, "To whom do individuals and groups report?" is provided by ________.

A) formalization B) span of control C) centralization D) chain of command E) departmentalization

5)

6) Which of the following statements is true regarding work specialization?

A) Work specialization decreases the time spent in changing tasks.

B) Work specialization indicates to what degree there will be rules and formalization regulations to direct employees and managers.

C) Work specialization hinders efficient use of employee skills.

D) Work specialization provides an unending source of increased productivity.

E) Work specialization increases the cost of finding and training workers to do specific and repetitive tasks.

6)

1

7) While observing the departments in her division, Aisha notices that some managers with wide spans of control seem to perform more effectively than other managers with similarly sized spans of control. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding the high-performing managers?

A) The employees within their departments are highly skilled and very knowledgeable about their jobs.

B) The employees within their departments tend to compete to reach productivity goals, which boosts performance.

C) These managers are paid higher salaries than the low-performing managers.

D) The employees within their departments score high on agreeableness.

E) These managers have external locus of control.

7)

8) ________ occurs when individuals form relationships with people outside their formally assigned groups.

A) Formalization B) Bureaucratization C) Centralization D) Boundary spanning E) Decentralization

8)

9) You are the CEO of Apex Systems. You have decided to hire other organizations to perform many of the basic functions of your business. You have hired an accounting firm to keep your records, a recruiting firm to handle human resource functions, and a computer firm to handle all records. To keep costs down, you are looking for other areas in which to outsource operations. You have chosen to operate your business as a ________.

A) team organization B) matrix organization C) bureaucracy D) highly centralized organization E) virtual organization

9)

10) Which of the following statements is true regarding a centralized organization?

A) In a centralized organization, decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization.

B) A centralized organization is more flexible than a decentralized organization.

C) In a centralized organization, decision making is pushed down to the managers closest to the action.

D) A centralized organization is more responsive than a decentralized organization.

E) In a centralized organization, top managers are rarely involved in decision making.

10)

11) The ________ structure is flat, uses cross-functional and cross-hierarchical teams, and has low formalization.

A) bureaucratic B) mechanistic C) institutional D) organic E) functional

11)

2

12) A(n) ________ strategy emphasizes the introduction of major new products and services.

A) mechanistic B) imitation C) organic D) innovation E) cost-minimization

12)

13) Span of control is a key element of an organization's structure. Which of the following key questions is addressed by this element?

A) To what degree are activities subdivided into separate jobs?

B) To whom do individuals and groups report?

C) On what basis will jobs be grouped together?

D) How many individuals can a manager efficiently and effectively direct?

E) To what degree will there be rules and regulations to direct employees and managers?

13)

14) Within the circular structure, what is the correct order of people within the organization, starting from the center?

A) Managers, specialists, workers B) Workers, specialists, consultants, managers C) Workers, mangers, specialists, consultants D) Managers, consultants, specialists, workers E) Workers, specialists, managers

14)

15) A manufacturing manager organizes a plant into engineering, accounting, manufacturing, personnel, and supply specialists departments. This division of an organization into groups according to work functions is an example of ________.

A) social clustering B) functional departmentalization C) functional centralization D) organizational bureaucracy E) service departmentalization

15)

16) The right inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect orders to be obeyed is termed ________.

A) span of control B) authority C) chain of command D) leadership E) unity of command

16)

17) Which of the following dimensions of an environment describes the degree to which the environment can support growth?

A) Volatility B) Flexibility C) Capacity D) Complexity E) Sustainability

17)

3

18) In a team organization, how does management flatten the hierarchy and minimize status and rank?

A) By discouraging participative decision-making practices B) By dividing jobs into small, standardized tasks C) By removing vertical boundaries D) By eliminating cross-hierarchical teams E) By enforcing the chain of command

18)

19) Which of the following types of organizational designs combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product?

A) Bureaucracy B) Team structure C) Simple structure D) Matrix structure E) Virtual structure

19)

20) Which of the following statements is true regarding a bureaucracy?

A) Typically bureaucracies have wider spans of control.

B) Bureaucracies can get by with less talented middle- and lower-level managers.

C) Bureaucracy is an ideal organizational design for those organizations that operate under highly uncertain conditions.

D) Bureaucracies encourage employee empowerment.

E) Bureaucracies need innovative and experienced decision makers at all levels in the organization.

20)

21) Job candidates who prefer ________ are likely to seek out and take employment in mechanistic structures, and those who want ________ are more likely to end up in an organic structure.

A) centralization; decentralization B) job satisfaction; job security C) predictability; autonomy D) simple structure; matrix structure E) virtual organizations; team organizations

21)

22) The ________ type of structure has executives at the center, spreading their vision outward in rings grouped by functions (managers, then specialists, then workers).

A) matrix B) circular C) divisional D) virtual E) functional

22)

23) Institutional theory focuses on ________.

A) pressures that are not necessarily adaptive B) maintaining the culture of the organization C) elements which are not changeable D) changing the mid-level managers to protect the top-level leadership E) constant pursuit of corporate social responsibility

23)

24) Volatility refers to the degree of ________ within an environment.

A) flexibility B) sustainability C) adaptability D) complexity E) instability

24)

4

25) The principle of ________ helps preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority.

A) cross-functionality B) centralization C) unity of command D) span of control E) chain of command

25)

26) Lakeesha is the owner of a flower shop. She has five employees who all report directly to her, and she makes all the decisions regarding the type and quantity of flowers and looks after the shop's finances. Which type of organizational structure does Lakeesha have?

A) Bureaucracy B) Boundaryless structure C) Simple structure D) Matrix structure E) Virtual structure

26)

27) You are interested in explaining the different types of organizational designs to students of basic management. In so doing, you talk about a structure that has a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, little formalization, and authority centralized in a single person. You are probably talking about the ________.

A) bureaucracy B) matrix structure C) virtual organization D) team structure E) simple structure

27)

28) Organizations that operate with people from high power-distance cultures often find their employees are much more accepting of ________ structures than are employees from low power-distance countries.

A) flexible B) meritocratic C) mechanistic D) adhocratic E) organic

28)

29) Which of the following statements is true about span of control?

A) Large spans lead to lower employee performance B) There is an inverse relationship between span of control and employee satisfaction or performance.

C) No evidence supports a relationship between span of control and employee satisfaction or performance.

D) There is a positive relationship between span of control and employee performance.

E) Small spans lead to higher employee performance.

29)

30) Which of the following is typically a characteristic of the organic model of organization?

A) Clear chain of command B) Free flow of information C) Narrow spans of control D) Centralization E) High formalization

30)

5

31) Employee discretion is inversely related to ________.

A) complexity B) empowerment C) departmentalization D) specialization E) formalization

31)

32) Which of the following statements is true about the simple structure?

A) It is rigid.

B) It is very expensive to operate.

C) It becomes increasingly inadequate as an organization grows.

D) It is characterized by a high degree of departmentalization.

E) It is characterized by a narrow span of control.

32)

33) The core of HyperShield is a small group of executives whose job is to oversee directly any activities done in-house and to coordinate relationships with organizations that manufacture, distribute, and perform other crucial functions. What type of structure does HyperShield have?

A) Divisional B) Virtual C) Functional D) Team E) Matrix

33)

34) Some employees like to be left alone; others prefer the security of a boss who is always quickly available. From this, it is probably safe to say that no evidence supports a relationship between ________ and employee satisfaction or performance.

A) organic structures B) adhocracy C) span of control D) meritocracy E) cognitive dissonance

34)

35) Which of the following is not a negative impact of downsizing?

A) Employees may become more insecure about their jobs.

B) Employees may experience a greater amount of stress and strain.

C) The firm may be able to direct all its efforts toward its core competencies.

D) Employees may become more uncertain about their careers.

E) Employees may become less committed to the organization.

35)

36) The more the lower-level personnel provide input or are actually given the discretion to make decisions, the ________ within that organization.

A) higher is the degree of formalization B) higher is the degree of decentralization C) higher is the degree of departmentalization D) lower is the degree of work specialization E) lower is the level of empowerment

36)

37) A ________ organization is a small, core organization that outsources major business functions.

A) bureaucratic B) matrix C) virtual D) simple E) centralized

37)

6

38) DeSean, a trainee at a consulting firm is given a case study concerning a local manufacturing firm called Acme Products. In assessing Acme's organizational structure, DeSean notices that all of the company's decisions are pushed down to the managers closest to the action. The trainees most likely identify Acme as a(n) ________ organization.

A) highly centralized B) highly formalized C) informally structured D) highly departmentalized E) highly decentralized

38)

39) Which one of the following is not one of the primary ways to group jobs?

A) Skill B) Function C) Product D) Service

39)

E) Customer

40) The clerical and editorial employees in a publishing house need to be at their desks by 8:00 AM and follow a set of precise procedures dictated by management. The jobs of these clerical and editorial employees ________.

A) have a wide span of control B) score low on the degree of work specialization C) lack a unity of command D) score high on the degree of departmentalization E) score high on the degree of formalization

40)

41) Which of the following is another name for work specialization?

A) Hierarchy B) Chain of command C) Formalization D) Departmentalization E) Division of labor

41)

42) Startups in Silicon Valley typically employ a ________ structure.

A) matrix B) functional C) simple D) team

E) divisional

42)

43) ________ is a systematic effort to make an organization leaner by selling off business units, closing locations, or reducing staff.

A) Decentralizing B) Departmentalizing C) Removing boundaries D) Downsizing E) Formalizing

43)

44) Aeronautics Inc., a parts supplier, has departments for government aircraft and contracts, large commercial aircraft clients, and small personal aircraft clients. This is an example of ________ departmentalization.

A) customer B) service C) function D) geography E) product

44)

7

45) Aisha, a human resources (HR) executive is tasked with frequently coordinating with the company's information technology department (IT) in an effort to streamline the computerization of work at the company. Aisha is involved in ________.

A) centralizing B) organizing C) boundary spanning D) decentralizing E) formalizing

45)

46) You assign your students a project that involves developing a business plan for a retail chain. The retail chain will have 1000 employees and will serve customers both locally and internationally via a storefront and an Internet catalog. Which of the following organizational designs is least likely to be suitable for this retail store?

A) Virtual B) Team C) Bureaucracy D) Matrix E) Simple

46)

47) Locos Tacos has several regional managers for each region in the country. A typical regional manager at Locos Tacos oversees eight restaurants in his or her territory. The eight restaurants represent the regional manager's ________.

A) span of control B) boundary spanning limit C) organizational network D) unity of command E) work specialization

47)

48) Which of the following types of organization structures is best suited for coordination when the organization has a number of complex and interdependent activities?

A) Matrix structure B) Simple structure C) Divisional structure D) Centralized structure E) Bureaucracy

48)

49) Which of the following is a weakness of a bureaucracy?

A) Breaking the unity of command constraint B) An obsessive concern with following the rules C) Performing standardized activities inefficiently D) Maximizing duplication of people E) Decreasing economies of scale

49)

50) The senior management at the Randolph Group is concerned because the company takes so long to bring new products to the market. Which of the following approaches would you identify as the most likely solution to resolve this problem?

A) Increased formalization of policies and procedures B) Decentralization of the decision-making process C) Reducing the use of cross-functional work teams D) Reduced diversity within the company's work force E) Decreased work specialization

50)

8

51) A bureaucracy is characterized by all of the following except ________.

A) formalized rules and regulations B) highly routine operating tasks C) tasks that are grouped into functional departments D) high work specialization E) decentralized decision making

51)

52) Which of the following statements is true regarding a matrix structure?

A) It prevents power struggles.

B) It breaks the unity-of-command concept.

C) It reduces ambiguity about who reports to whom.

D) It cannot achieve economies of scale.

E) It enhances role clarity and avoids role conflict.

52)

53) ________ refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization.

A) Line of command B) Centralization C) Work specialization D) Departmentalization E) Formalization

53)

54) The unity-of-command principle states that ________.

A) an individual should be directly responsible to only one supervisor B) managers should limit their oversight to a maximum of 12 employees C) managers should provide direction to their employees in a unified fashion D) managers should oversee 1-4 employees on average E) employees should report directly to two supervisors to maintain task balance

54)

55) The answer to the key question, "To what degree are activities subdivided into specific jobs?" is provided by ________.

A) span of control B) chain of command C) departmentalization D) formalization E) work specialization

55)

56) The ________ model is generally synonymous with the bureaucracy.

A) organic B) matrix C) mechanistic D) circular E) virtual

56)

9

57) Consultants Exceptional (CE) has hired you to develop training materials for their consultants.

Your first assignment is to develop a training program that helps their consultants to analyze and understand the organizational structure of the company that they are assisting. You believe that in order to adequately evaluate and understand a client company, consultants need to understand the basic organizational structure of the company. Consultants are then able to recommend actions and changes based on the company's structure. One of the questions you tell the trainees to ask is, "To what degree are tasks subdivided into separate jobs?" This question addresses the issue of ________.

A) span of control B) chain of command C) matrix restructuring D) formalization E) work specialization

57)

58) Organizations following a(n) ________ strategy try to both minimize risk and maximize opportunity for profit, moving into new products or new markets only after innovators have proven their viability.

A) innovation B) cost-cutting C) imitation D) mechanistic E) organic

58)

59) Publishing representatives who call on college professors to inform them of their company's new publications have a great deal of freedom in their jobs. They have only a general sales pitch, which they tailor as needed. Based on this information, we can say that the job of these publishing representatives scores ________.

A) high on the degree of centralization B) high on the degree of departmentalization C) low on the degree of work specialization D) low on the degree of decentralization E) low on the degree of formalization

59)

60) The virtual structure is highly________.

A) decentralized B) centralized C) formalized D) bureaucratized E) departmentalized

60)

61) You describe to your students a new committee within the university that brings together specialists from all different departments to develop a new interdisciplinary program. The structure of the committee best meets the definition of the ________.

A) matrix structure B) simple structure C) virtual organization D) team organization E) bureaucracy

61)

10

62) The virtual structure is sometimes called the ________ structure.

A) matrix B) simple C) centralized D) network E) bureaucratic

62)

63) You are the head of training for a consulting organization, and as part of your job, you help new hires become effective consultants by training them to ask the right questions of their clients. One of the things you do in the training session is instruct the trainees to ask the client organization if they have clearly defined procedures covering most of the jobs in the organization and lots of rules and policies. In doing this, you want to help them understand the client organization's ________.

A) span of control B) degree of formalization C) degree of centralization D) degree of departmentalization E) chain of command

63)

64) Which of the following determinants of an organization's structure describes the way an organization transfers inputs into outputs?

A) Size B) Strategy C) Investment D) Environment E) Technology

64)

65) AgriProducers provides services related to the testing of soil and crops. It also provides advice to its customers for improving the productivity of the soil and the quality of the crops. It has customers all over the United States. The crops and soil are different in the various large areas of the nation, such as the West Coast and the Midwest. Which type of departmentalization would be best for AgriProducers?

A) Process B) Product C) Geographic D) Temporal E) Functional

65)

66) What key question does departmentalization address?

A) "On what basis will jobs be grouped together?"

B) "How many individuals can a manager efficiently and effectively direct?"

C) "To what degree are activities subdivided into separate jobs?"

D) "Where does decision-making authority lie?"

E) "Do individuals from different areas need to regularly interact?"

66)

11

67) Matthew is a new divisional manager. In reorganizing his division, he must make some decisions regarding the span of control for management within his division. The question of span of control determines ________.

A) the number of levels and managers an organization has B) how employees will be compensated C) how jobs will be grouped D) where decisions are made E) the employee grievance policy of the organization

67)

68) Which of the following is not one of the seven key elements of organizational structure?

A) Departmentalization B) Location of authority C) Span of control D) Chain of command E) Work specialization

68)

69) Some of the departments in Procter & Gamble are Tide, Pampers, Charmin, and Pringles. This is an example of departmentalization by ________.

A) process B) interest C) geography D) product E) function

69)

70) Any organization's environment has three dimensions. Identify these dimensions.

A) Replaceability, product-orientation, and stability B) Volatility, product-orientation, and adaptability C) Flexibility, employee-orientation, and capacity D) Complexity, volatility, and capacity E) Stability, adaptability, and employee-orientation

70)

71) A ________ allows management to make the most efficient use of its employees' skills and even successfully improve them through repetition.

A) wider span of control B) high degree of formalization C) high degree of work specialization D) low degree of centralization E) low degree of departmentalization

71)

72) Which of the following is not part of an organization's environment?

A) Customers B) Competitors C) Employees D) Public pressure groups E) Suppliers

72)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

73) One of the forms of the network organization is the franchise.

73)

74) The organic model is generally synonymous with the bureaucracy.

74)

12

75) Once jobs have been divided through work specialization, they must be grouped so common tasks can be coordinated and complexity can be reduced.

75)

76) Customization is the key aspect underlying all bureaucracies.

76)

77) A major weakness of a bureaucracy is its obsessive concern with following the rules.

77)

78) The team structure seeks to retain the chain of command.

78)

79) Chain of command indicates to whom individuals and groups report.

79)

80) Even in a growing organization, the simple structure facilitates quick decision making.

80)

81) One of the most popular ways to group activities is by the functions performed.

81)

82) The matrix structure combines functional and product departmentalization.

82)

83) The simple structure has a low degree of departmentalization.

83)

84) Departmentalization refers to the degree of subdivision of activities into separate jobs.

84)

85) The virtual structure is sometimes called the network structure.

85)

86) Logically, strategy should follow structure.

86)

87) Chain of command refers to the number of subordinates a manager can efficiently and effectively direct.

87)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

88) What effect does downsizing have on employee attitudes?

89) What are the advantages of functional departmentalization?

90) What is span of control? What trends do we see with respect to spans of control?

91) How does the simple structure fare on key structural dimensions?

92) How do institutions shape organizational structure?

93) What role does environment play in influencing organizational structure?

94) Describe the characteristics and advantages of the team structure.

95) What constraints does the simple structure pose as an organization grows in size?

96) What advantages do divisional structures offer?

13

97) Why is bureaucracy a dirty word in many people's minds? Does it have any advantages?

98) What is the relationship between the matrix structure and the unity of command principle?

99) What is organizational structure and what are its key elements?

100) What are the organizational behavior (OB) implications of centralization and decentralization?

14

Answer Key Testname: C15

1) B 2) E 3) B 4) E 5) D 6) A 7) A 8) D 9) E 10) A 11) D 12) D 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) C 18) C 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) E 25) C 26) C 27) E 28) C 29) C 30) B 31) E 32) C 33) B 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) E 39) A 40) E 41) E 42) C 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) E 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) B 15

Answer Key Testname: C15

51) E 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) E 56) C 57) E 58) C 59) E 60) B 61) A 62) D 63) B 64) E 65) C 66) A 67) A 68) B 69) D 70) D 71) C 72) C 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) Downsizing is a systematic effort to make an organization leaner by closing locations, reducing staff, de-layering (such as by narrowing the span of control by reducing the number of levels in a hierarchy), or selling off business units that do not add value. Downsizing does have an effect on employee attitudes. From a broad perspective, many have argued that the prominence of downsizing has led employees across the world to be insecure about their jobs and uncertain about their careers. Employees who remain often feel worried about future layoffs, may be less committed to the organization, and may experience a greater amount of stress and strain. Downsizing can also lead to more voluntary turnover, so vital human capital is lost.

89) The basis by which jobs are grouped is called departmentalization. One of the most popular ways to group activities is by the functions performed—functional departmentalization. Functional departmentalization allows efficiencies to be gained from putting specialists who focus on similar areas together. Furthermore, the functional structure allows specialists to become experts more easily than if they worked in diversified units. Employees can also be motivated by a clear career path to the top of the organization chart specific to their specialties.

16

Answer Key Testname: C15

90) The span of control is the number of subordinates a manager can efficiently and effectively direct. Narrow or small spans have their advocates. By keeping the span of control to five or six employees, a manager can maintain close control. They, however, add levels of management, make vertical communication more complex, and encourage tight supervision and discourage employee autonomy. The trend in recent years has been toward wider spans of control. To ensure no drop off in performance because of wider spans, organizations have been investing heavily in employee training.

91) The simple structure addresses various organizational structure elements as follows: it has a low degree of departmentalization (how people are grouped), wide spans of control (resulting in fewer layers and a flat structure), authority centralized in a single person (such as the owner or the founder), and little formalization (in terms of rules, policies, and standards).

92) In this context, institutions are cultural factors, especially those factors that might not lead to adaptive consequences, that lead many organizations to similar structures. In other words, institutional theory identifies some of the forces that lead many organizations to have similar structures. The most obvious institutional factors come from regulatory pressures. Sometimes simple inertia determines an organizational form—companies can be structured in a particular way just because that is the way things have always been done, or what others are doing.

93) An organization's environment includes outside institutions or forces that can affect its structure, such as suppliers, customers, competitors, and public pressure groups. Dynamic environments create significantly more uncertainty for managers than do static ones. To minimize uncertainty in key market arenas, managers may broaden their structure to sense and respond to threats. An organization's environment can be looked at along the dimensions of capacity, volatility, and complexity.

94) The team structure replaces departments with empowered teams, and that eliminates horizontal boundaries and external barriers between customers and suppliers. The major advantage of the team structure is that by removing vertical boundaries, management flattens the hierarchy and minimizes status and rank. The structure can also break down geographic barriers.

95) A major weakness of the simple structure is that it becomes increasingly inadequate as an organization grows. It other words, it doesn't scale well. This is because its low formalization and high centralization tend to create information overload at the top. Decision making typically becomes slower as the single executive tries to continue doing it all. If the structure is not changed (i.e., from the simple structure to something else) and made more elaborate, the firm loses momentum and can eventually fail.

96) The divisional structures (product, geographical, process, customer departmentalization) offer a number of benefits that functional structures do not. They facilitate coordination in units to achieve on-time completion, budget targets, and development and introduction of new products to market, while addressing the specific concerns of each unit.

They provide clear responsibility for all activities related to a product.

97) A bureaucracy is characterized by highly routine operating tasks achieved through specialization, very formalized rules and regulations, tasks grouped into functional departments, centralized authority, narrow spans of control, and decision making that follows the chain of command. Given that a bureaucracy is rule and hierarchy based, people typically don't have a positive view of it. To most people, a bureaucracy means delays. However, bureaucracies have several advantages. One is its ability to perform standardized activities in a highly efficient manner. Putting like specialties together in functional departments results in economies of scale, minimum duplication of personnel and equipment, and a common language that people can share. The second is that, in a bureaucracy, rules and regulations substitute for managerial discretion. Standardized operations and high formalization allow decision making to be centralized. There is little need for innovative and experienced decision makers below the level of senior executives.

This means the organization can avoid the cost of hiring several managers at the middle and lower levels.

98) The matrix structure combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product. This results in the creation of dual lines of authority. For example, in a matrix organization that combines functional and product departmentalization, a person working in marketing for product A would be answerable to two superiors—the functional head of marketing and the head of product A. This means the matrix structure breaks the unity of command principle. It is possible that confusion is created in matrix structures because of the lack of unity of command.

17

Answer Key Testname: C15

99) An organizational structure defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated. There are seven key elements that should be considered when designing an organization's structure. They are: work specialization, departmentalization, chain of command, span of control, centralization and decentralization, formalization, and boundary spanning.

100) A decentralized organization can act more quickly to solve problems, more people provide input into decisions, and employees are less likely to feel alienated from those who make decisions that affect their work lives. Centralized organizations are better for avoiding commission errors, while decentralized organizations are better for avoiding omission errors. Decentralization is often necessary for companies with offshore sites because localized decision making is needed to respond to each region's profit opportunities, client base, and specific laws, while centralized oversight is needed to hold regional managers accountable.

18

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Ming joined her new law firm expecting to participate in exciting environmental law cases, and cutting edge research. After one month at the firm she still hasn't been assigned a case and spends most of her time filing standardized appeals for title disputes with insurance companies. In which stage of the socialization process is Ming?

A) Prearrival B) Post-arrival C) Encounter D) Post-encounter E) Metamorphosis

1)

2) A positive organizational culture emphasizes all of the following except which?

A) Rewarding more than it punishes B) Encouraging vitality C) Building on employee strengths D) Encouraging growth E) Tailoring positions to encourage work life balance

2)

3) When you start to accept the differences between your expectations and the reality of the organization, you move into the ________ stage of socialization.

A) metamorphosis B) post-arrival C) prearrival D) acceptance E) post-encounter

3)

4) A(n) ________ organization is an organization that takes on a life of its own, apart from its founders or members and is valued for itself and not for the goods or services it produces.

A) virtual B) team C) matrix D) institutionalized E) centralized

4)

5) Culture is most likely to be a liability when the ________.

A) organization scores low on the degree of formalization B) organization is highly centralized C) organization's environment is undergoing rapid change D) employees of the organization are highly skilled E) organization's management is highly efficient

5)

1

6) You are new to an organization and do not really know what to expect about the socialization process. You are a recent MBA and have an undergraduate degree in computer science. Your new firm is a software development company with an emphasis in the healthcare industry. On the first day at work, when you begin to notice things that are not as per your expectation, you are in the ________ stage of socialization.

A) post-arrival B) prearrival C) encounter D) orientation E) metamorphosis

6)

7) Which of the following does not help build a positive organizational culture?

A) Focusing on punishment B) Encouraging vitality C) Encouraging growth D) Building on employees strengths E) Rewarding employees

7)

8) Which of the following statements is true regarding the functions of culture in an organization?

A) It reduces the stability of the social system.

B) It conveys a sense of identity for organization members.

C) It reduces distinctions between one organization and others.

D) It hinders the generation of commitment to something larger than individual self-interest.

E) It does not affect employees' attitudes and behavior.

8)

9) Which of the following statements is not true regarding subcultures?

A) If organizations were composed only of numerous subcultures, organizational culture as an independent variable would be significantly less powerful.

B) Subcultures typically exist within a department.

C) Subcultures include core values of the organization.

D) Subcultures influence members' behavior.

E) When we talk about an organization's culture, we are referring to its subculture.

9)

10) Which of the following is the last step in the socialization process?

A) Metamorphosis B) Onboarding C) Transition D) Encounter E) Prearrival

10)

11) Barbara is the lead editor for a small, city newspaper. One of her advertising sales representatives, Chang, is pulling in a lot of restaurant clients. Barbara realizes that Chang is quite knowledgeable about food and speaks quite elegantly while describing different dishes. She has offered Chang an opportunity to write a weekly restaurant review. Chang is very happy with his new job role. Which aspect of creating a positive organization is being utilized by Barbara?

A) Focusing on outcomes B) Building on organization strengths C) Encouraging intense unbridled competition D) Emphasizing individual growth E) Rewarding more than punishing

11)

2

12) When formal authority and control systems are reduced through decentralization, culture's ________ can point everyone in the same direction.

A) rules B) rigidity C) shared meaning D) policies E) procedures

12)

13) Which of the following is not true of U.S. managers and employees?

A) They endorse the supremacy of anonymous market forces as a moral obligation for business organizations.

B) They value profit maximization.

C) They see nepotism as highly unethical.

D) They see bribery as highly unethical.

E) They believe favoring personal contacts is ethical.

13)

14) Which of the following is not a major factor that signals a negative organizational culture?

A) Environmental stability B) Openness to diversity C) Toxicity and dysfunctions D) Institutionalization E) Barriers to change

14)

15) The most innovative companies are often characterized by all of the following except ________.

A) vision-driven B) collaborative C) openness D) entrenched cultures E) unconventional

15)

16) Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture according to the Organizational Culture Profile (OCP)?

A) Innovation B) Team orientation C) Outcome orientation D) Attention to detail E) Process orientation

16)

17) Lakeesha wants to create a sustainable employee recognition program for her office. In keeping with the concepts of sustainability, which of the following is most likely to be successful?

A) Having an employee appreciation lunch when budget permits B) Having an employee appreciation lunch the last Friday of the month C) Having a one-time "Employee of the Month" celebration D) Giving an extra week of vacation, when budget permits, to the "Employee of the Year" E) Awarding 100 dollars occasionally to the "Employee of the Month"

17)

3

18) Identify the correct order in the socialization process.

A) Prearrival, arrival, evaluation B) Prearrival, arrival, post-arrival C) Metamorphosis, preencounter, arrival D) Encounter, metamorphosis, post-encounter E) Prearrival, encounter, metamorphosis

18)

19) According to the competing values framework, which of the following cultures would be a culture based on change?

A) The Bureaucracy B) The Market C) The Hierarchy D) The Clan E) The Adhocracy

19)

20) Sergio has an employee who is amazing at clearly seeing rules and enforcing them. He has recently promoted her to the lead position in quality assurance. Which aspect of creating a positive organizational culture is Sergio utilizing?

A) Encouraging intense competition B) Emphasizing short-term gains C) Rewarding more than punishing D) Building on organization strengths E) Building on employee strengths

20)

21) Priya works for a corporation that recently fired three top managers who were caught using the company credit cards to lavishly furnish their offices and even purchase "office" furniture that was found in their personal homes. Which method of maintaining an ethical culture is Priya's company pursuing?

A) Providing protective mechanisms B) Serving as a visible role model C) Providing ethical training D) Communicating ethical expectations E) Visibly punishing unethical acts

21)

22) Which of the following is most likely to be the indicator of a strong organizational culture?

A) Widely shared values B) Employees' diverse views of organization's mission C) High employee turnover D) Presence of several subcultures E) Narrow span of control

22)

23) Which of the following is not an entry socialization option in the metamorphosis stage?

A) Individual versus collective B) Fixed versus variable C) Hierarchical versus mechanistic D) Serial versus random E) Formal versus informal

23)

4

24) The Hendricks Company has a culture based on achievement. The employees of the company value communication, competence, and competition. According to the competing values framework, the Hendricks Company has a(n) ________ culture.

A) meritocracy B) clan C) market D) adhocracy E) hierarchy

24)

25) Janice works for a pet store where everyone is committed to the happiness of the animals. Often employees, bosses, and hourly workers alike, come into the store "off the clock" and spend time training the animals. Everyone loves the store, the animals, and their jobs. This attitude of her co-workers inspires Janice to do her best. Based on this information, we can say that Janice is experiencing the effects of ________.

A) organizational climate B) high formalization C) high work specialization D) centralization E) high departmentalization

25)

26) An organizational culture most likely to shape high ethical standards among its members is one that ________.

A) sends a neutral message B) minimizes the importance of processes C) maximizes ethical ambiguities D) focuses only on outcomes E) provides protective mechanisms

26)

27) You are new to an organization and do not really know what to expect about the socialization process. You are a recent MBA and have an undergraduate degree in computer science. Your new firm is a software development company with an emphasis in the healthcare industry. Your hiring process includes campus interviews, a day-long trip for an interview at the company, an offer phone call and letter, and some promotional material sent via the mail. When you arrive for your first day at work, you spend half a day in an orientation session that is conducted by the human resources department, where you complete paperwork and receive a company handbook. Then you spend the rest of the day with your supervisor, who gives you a tour, introduces you to your co-workers, and explains your first project. After that, you begin working and getting to know the others in the company. You find that in most respects, your experience fits your expectations, but in some ways you are surprised by realities that you hadn't expected. None of these surprises is too difficult to accept, so you eventually begin to feel at home and happy with your new job. The information that you receive during the interviewing and hiring process is a part of the ________ stage of employee socialization.

A) metamorphosis B) preencounter C) encounter D) prearrival E) post-encounter

27)

5

28) Which of the following is not an example of stories?

A) How one of its most popular products was invented B) How the new standard operating procedures will be implemented C) How the founders started the company D) How the workforce grew from three to three hundred in one year E) How the company had to cut one thousand employees last year

28)

29) A popular catchphrase at the Indigo Group is to "catch employees doing something right." The company was known for celebrating such moments with an elaborate award ceremony with speeches and balloons. Which of the following ways to creating a positive organizational culture at the Indigo Group does this practice suggest?

A) Encouraging vitality B) Fostering fame C) Rewarding more than punishing D) Building on employee strengths E) Encouraging growth

29)

30) Alessio's boss doesn't care whether Alessio works at home, at the office, or from his beach house.

All he cares about is that the project is completed on time, under budget, and with exemplary quality. Which dimension of organizational culture, according to the Organizational Culture Profile (OCP), best describes this aspect of Alessio's job?

A) Outcome orientation B) Aggressiveness C) Risk taking D) Attention to detail E) Supportiveness

30)

31) Which of the following statements is true regarding effects of national culture on organizational culture and ethical behavior within an organization?

A) Generally, managers in the United States see bribery, nepotism, and favoring personal contacts as highly unethical.

B) As compared to managers in the United States, managers in developing economies are less likely to see ethical decisions as embedded in a social environment.

C) Organizations can safely ignore local culture while establishing its operation in another country.

D) Most managers in the United States do not view profit maximization as a moral obligation.

E) Organizational cultures rarely reflect national culture.

31)

32) To create a more ethical culture, management should do all of the following except ________.

A) communicate ethical expectations B) provide protective mechanisms C) serve as a visible role model D) encourage unbridled competition E) provide ethical training

32)

33) The ultimate source of an organization's culture is ________.

A) its founders B) the country in which the organization operates C) its top management D) the sociocultural backgrounds of its employees E) its environment

33)

6

34) A strong culture should reduce employee turnover because it results in ________.

A) narrow spans of control B) an outcome-oriented organization C) a highly centralized organization D) cohesiveness and organizational commitment E) a highly formalized organization

34)

35) Trends Inc. is an apparel company. To keep up with the latest changes in the fashion industry, the company has to come up with innovative designs and follow strict timelines. The culture of the company values aggressiveness, innovation, and risk taking. The members of the organization accept these cultural values. They know exactly what is expected of them and these expectations go a long way in shaping their behavior. In addition to this, the culture of the marketing department is outcome oriented, and the finance department emphasizes attention to detail. Aggressiveness, innovation, and risk taking are the ________ of the culture of Trends Inc. A) institutional traits B) significant traits C) unique values D) foundational values E) core values

35)

36) Which of the following statements distinguishes between organizational culture and job satisfaction?

A) Organizational culture measures how employees feel about an organization's expectations, whereas job satisfaction is concerned about how employees perceive the organization's culture.

B) Job satisfaction is descriptive, whereas organizational culture is evaluative.

C) Organizational culture is descriptive, whereas job satisfaction is evaluative.

D) Organizational culture is static, whereas job satisfaction is dynamic.

E) Job satisfaction is immeasurable, whereas organizational culture is measurable.

36)

37) Nunya is a computer software company that employs highly intelligent, but somewhat unusual people. Every Friday, free lollipops, toys, or other treats are given out to encourage employees to remember how creative they were when they were children. All the new members of the organization are told about the founders who were three young people who "got lucky" and sold a video game that they invented. The employees are allowed to dress informally and can set their own working hours. Informing employees about the founders is an example of which technique for transmitting culture?

A) Corporate chants B) Rituals C) Material symbols D) Language E) Stories

37)

38) Miguel is new at JPS Corp., but after a week he already knows that the founder of the corporation started the business in his garage with only $4,000 and one client. This information was most likely transmitted to Miguel by way of ________.

A) language B) material symbols C) rituals D) stories E) corporate chants

38)

7

39) If there is a basic conflict between the individual's expectations and the reality of working in an organization, the employee is most likely to be disillusioned and quit during the ________ stage of socialization.

A) metamorphosis B) encounter C) prearrival D) post-encounter E) post-arrival

39)

40) Which of the following statements is true regarding the establishment of organizational culture and its effects on the organization?

A) In a virtual organization, a strong culture can be established quickly and easily.

B) Culture acts as a control mechanism and guides the behavior of employees.

C) Today's trend toward decentralized organizations makes it easier to establish a strong culture.

D) Employees organized in teams always show greater allegiance to the values of the organization as a whole than to their team and its values.

E) Cultures reduce the stability of the social system.

40)

41) Which of the following is not one of the ways for U.S. employees to be more culturally sensitive?

A) To be aware of how one's actions are perceived by others B) To be less self-absorbed C) To be less loud D) To consider others' backgrounds and perspectives before speaking or acting E) To consider their emotions before speaking or acting

41)

42) The primary or dominant values that convey an organization's culture and are widely accepted throughout the organization are known as ________.

A) shared values B) institutional values C) foundational values D) core values E) unique values

42)

43) Organizational ________ refers to the shared perceptions organizational members have about their organization's policies, procedures, and practices.

A) culture B) climate C) hierarchy D) charter E) chart

43)

44) Your first day at work is part of the ________ stage of socialization.

A) prearrival B) post-encounter C) metamorphosis D) encounter E) orientation

44)

8

45) ________ are repetitive sequences of activities that express and reinforce the key values of the organization, which goals are most important, which people are important, and which are expendable.

A) Language B) Rituals C) Stories D) Corporate chants E) Material symbols

45)

46) Trends Inc. is an apparel company. To keep up with the latest changes in the fashion industry, the company has to come up with innovative designs and follow strict time lines. The culture of the company values aggressiveness, innovation, and risk taking. The members of the organization accept these cultural values. They know exactly what is expected of them and these expectations go a long way in shaping their behavior. In addition to this, the culture of the marketing department is outcome oriented, and the finance department emphasizes attention to detail. Based on the information in the example, we can say that Trends Inc. ________.

A) is a virtual organization B) is a matrix organization C) is a highly centralized organization D) is a highly formalized organization E) has a strong culture

46)

47) Cultures that tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems, situations, or experiences faced by groups of members in the same department or location are often called ________.

A) microcosms B) counter cultures C) divisional cultures D) subcultures E) micro-cultures

47)

48) Which of the following statements is true regarding an organization's culture?

A) A dominant culture expresses the core values shared by a majority of the organization's members.

B) Organizational culture is evaluative rather than descriptive.

C) Large organizations rarely have subcultures.

D) Subcultures and dominant cultures must not share any common values.

E) A strong culture increases employee turnover.

48)

49) Alcoa headquarters has few individual offices, even for senior executives. The space is essentially made up of cubicles, common areas, and meeting rooms. This is an example of transmitting culture through ________.

A) procedures B) material symbols C) language D) rituals E) stories

49)

9

50) ________ refers to practices that can be maintained over very long periods of time.

A) Sustainability B) Laws/codes C) Rules D) Erosion E) Corporate responsibility

50)

51) Which of the following is not a function of culture?

A) Culture defines "the rules of the game."

B) Culture enhances the stability of the social system.

C) Culture conveys a sense of identity for organization members.

D) Culture facilitates commitment to something larger than individual self-interest.

E) Culture helps members evaluate the organization.

51)

52) The process of socialization consists of three stages. Which of the following is the first stage?

A) Prearrival B) Metamorphosis C) Post-arrival D) Evaluation E) Encounter

52)

53) During the socialization process, to work out any problems discovered during the encounter stage, the new member changes or goes through the ________ stage.

A) metamorphosis B) evaluation C) post-encounter D) analysis E) post-arrival

53)

54) New employees are usually comfortable with their organizations by the end of the ________ stage of socialization.

A) encounter B) adaptation C) post-arrival D) metamorphosis E) establishment

54)

55) ________ is a process that helps new employees adapt to the prevailing organizational culture.

A) Satisficing B) Reciprocal interdependence C) Social loafing D) Socialization E) Formalization

55)

56) In recent years, ________ has become the primary concern in acquisitions and mergers.

A) employee diversity B) cultural compatibility C) product synergy D) financial advantage E) legal complication

56)

10

57) Which of the following is not a type of culture according to the competing values framework?

A) The market B) The clan C) The adhocracy D) The hierarchy E) The meritocracy

57)

58) The system of shared meaning that makes up organizational culture includes values, beliefs, ________, and assumptions that characterize the organization.

A) material symbols B) shared rewards C) policies D) goals E) tasks

58)

59) The selection process helps sustain the organization's culture by ________.

A) encouraging discussion about norms B) rewarding conformity of skills C) selecting employees who deserve to be promoted D) developing performance evaluation criteria E) hiring candidates who fit well within the organization

59)

60) Trends Inc. is an apparel company. To keep up with the latest changes in the fashion industry, the company has to come up with innovative designs and follow strict timelines. The culture of the company values aggressiveness, innovation, and risk taking. The members of the organization accept these cultural values. They know exactly what is expected of them and these expectations go a long way in shaping their behavior. In addition to this, the culture of the marketing department is outcome oriented, and the finance department emphasizes attention to detail. The organizational culture of Trends Inc. values aggressiveness, innovation, and risk taking. These characteristics express its ________.

A) reflective culture B) subculture C) autocratic culture D) dominant culture E) highly formalized culture

60)

61) Which of the following is one of the characteristics of a spiritual organization?

A) Promotion of organized religion B) Benevolence C) Promoting God D) Promotion of a strong religious foundation E) Promoting theology

61)

62) ________ develops over time as the shared concept of right and wrong behavior in the workplace.

A) Ethical culture B) Institutionalization C) Organizational climate D) Citizenship identity E) Organizational identity

62)

11

63) The key characteristic of the hierarchy organizational culture according to the competing values framework is ________.

A) aggressiveness B) stability C) human affiliation D) risk taking E) team orientation

63)

64) The ________ process helps candidates learn about the organization and if employees perceive a conflict between their values and those of the organization, they can remove themselves from the applicant pool.

A) selection B) institutionalization C) orientation D) training E) performance evaluation

64)

65) Organizational culture is considered one of the two crucial building blocks for organizational description. Which of the following is the other?

A) Top management team B) Organizational climate C) Organizational hierarchy D) Organizational mandate E) Organizational charter

65)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

66) The trend toward decentralized organizations prevalent today makes culture less important.

66)

67) Organizational cultures are neutral in their ethical orientation.

67)

68) Organizational culture transcends national boundaries.

68)

69) Workplace spirituality is about organized religious practices.

69)

70) Corporatization refers to the phenomenon of an organization being valued for itself and not for the goods or services it produces.

70)

71) Culture defines "the rules of the game."

71)

72) Rituals are also known as artifacts.

72)

73) Organizational culture refers to the shared perceptions organizational members have about their organization's policies, procedures, and practices.

73)

74) Dominant cultures tend to develop in large organizations in response to common problems or experiences a group of members face in the same department or location.

74)

75) Research suggests that rituals work because they inspire a sense of control in their participants and, as a result, reduce anxiety.

75)

12

76) Socialization can help alleviate the problem many employees report when their new jobs are different than they expected.

76)

77) To create a truly sustainable business, an organization must develop a long-term culture and put its values into practice through climate.

77)

78) Prearrival is one of the stages in the socialization process.

78)

79) Organizational culture shows how the employees like the essence of an organization.

79)

80) In the prearrival stage of the socialization process, new members confront the possibility that expectations about the job, boss, and organization in general may differ from reality.

80)

81) According to the Organizational Culture Inventory, aggressive-defensive cultures are competitive, perfectionist, and power-oriented.

81)

82) "The clan" is an organizational culture based on human affiliation.

82)

83) An adhocracy is an internally focused culture.

83)

84) Organizational culture usually grows organically over time.

84)

85) A positive culture should make no distinction between a job and a career.

85)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

86) What happens in the encounter stage of the socialization process?

87) What is organization culture? Why is it considered a descriptive term?

88) What are the four types of organizational cultures based on the competing values methodology?

89) What is workplace spirituality?

90) One of the main ways that culture is created and maintained within an organization is for the founder to only hire and keep employees who think and feel the same as he/she does. Discuss both the pros and cons of this idea and offer an opinion as to why this system can be effective.

91) What are the characteristics of a spiritual organization?

92) Describe the significance of selection in the context of maintaining the organizational culture.

93) How does organizational culture develop?

94) What do we mean by organizational climate? How is it different from organizational culture?

95) Describe the functions of organizational culture.

13

96) Why do subcultures develop in certain organizations?

97) Describe the various situations under which culture acts as a liability.

98) What are rituals? How is culture transmitted through rituals?

99) How does socialization help in keeping a culture alive?

100) Organizational culture is so powerful that it often transcends national boundaries. Does this mean that organizations should ignore national and local cultures?

14

Answer Key Testname: C16

1) C 2) E 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) C 7) A 8) B 9) E 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) E 14) B 15) D 16) E 17) B 18) E 19) E 20) E 21) E 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) A 26) E 27) D 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) A 32) D 33) A 34) D 35) E 36) C 37) E 38) D 39) B 40) B 41) E 42) D 43) B 44) D 45) B 46) E 47) D 48) A 49) B 50) A 15

Answer Key Testname: C16

51) E 52) A 53) A 54) D 55) D 56) B 57) E 58) A 59) E 60) D 61) B 62) A 63) B 64) A 65) B 66) FALSE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) Socialization is a process involving three stages: prearrival, encounter, and metamorphosis. The selection process can help inform prospective employees about the organization. Upon entry into the organization, the new member enters the encounter stage and confronts the possibility that expectations (about the job, co-workers, boss, and organization in general) may differ from reality. Learning, unlearning, and relationship building are key during this stage.

87) Organizational culture is a system of shared meaning that distinguishes the organization from other organizations.

This system is characterized by values, beliefs, and underlying assumptions that serve several purposes.

Organizational culture shows how employees perceive the essence of an organization, not whether they like them.

Hence, it is a descriptive term. It is not an evaluative term like job satisfaction.

88) Based on competing values, organizational cultures can be one of four kinds: the clan, the adhocracy, the market, and the hierarchy. The clan is a culture based on human affiliation. Here, employees value attachment, collaboration, trust, and support. The adhocracy is a culture based on change. In this type of culture, employees value growth, variety, attention to detail, stimulation, and autonomy. The market culture is based on achievement. Here, employees value communication, competence, and competition. Finally, the hierarchy is based on stability. In a hierarchy, employees value communication, formalization, and routine.

16

Answer Key Testname: C16

89) Workplace spirituality is not about organized religious practices. It is not about God or theology. Workplace spirituality recognizes that people have an inner life that nourishes and is nourished by meaningful work in the context of community. Organizations that support a spiritual culture recognize that people seek to find meaning and purpose in their work and desire to connect with other human beings as part of a community.

90) Responses will vary but should include statements such as shared vision, potential discrimination, lack of diversity, reduced conflict, and such.

91) Four cultural variables tend to be evident in spiritual organizations. The first is benevolence. Spiritual organizations value kindness toward others and the happiness of employees and other organizational stakeholders. Second, they have a strong sense of purpose. Spiritual organizations build their cultures around a meaningful purpose. Although profits may be important, they are not the primary value. Third, spiritual organizations are characterized by mutual trust, honesty, and openness. Finally, there is open-mindedness in a spiritual organization. They value flexible thinking and creativity among employees.

92) The explicit goal of the selection process is to identify and hire individuals with the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform successfully. The final decision, because it's significantly influenced by the decision maker's judgment of how well the candidates will fit into the organization, identifies people whose values are essentially consistent with at least a good portion of the organization's. Selection also provides information to applicants. Those who perceive a conflict between their values and those of the organization can remove themselves from the applicant pool. Selection thus becomes a two-way street, allowing employer or applicant to avoid a mismatch and sustaining an organization's culture by selecting out those who might attack or undermine its core values.

93) An organization's current customs, traditions, and general way of doing things are largely due to what it has done before and the degree of success it has had with those endeavors. The founders of an organization traditionally have a major impact on that organization's early culture. They have a vision of what the organization should be. The small size that typically characterizes new organizations further facilitates the founders' imposition of their vision on all organizational members. The process of culture-creation occurs in three ways. a) First, founders only hire and keep employees who think and feel the way they do. b) Second, they indoctrinate and socialize these employees to their way of thinking and feeling. c) And finally, the founders' own behavior acts as a role model that encourages employees to identify with them and thereby internalize their beliefs, values, and assumptions.

When the organization succeeds, the founders' vision becomes seen as a primary determinant of that success. At this point, the founders' entire personalities become embedded in the culture of the organization.

94) Organizational climate refers to the shared perceptions organizational members have about their organization's policies, procedures, and practices. Although it may appear difficult on the surface to distinguish organizational culture from climate, culture and climate are "two crucial building blocks for organizational description."

Organizational climate represents the more readily observable "behavioral evidence" for an organization's culture. It directly links what the organization values and believes with explicit practices, policies, and procedures.

95) Organizational culture performs a number of functions within an organization. First, it has a boundary-defining role.

That is, it creates distinctions between one organization and others. Second, it conveys a sense of identity for organization members. Third, culture facilitates the generation of commitment to something larger than one's individual self-interest. Fourth, it enhances social system stability. Culture is the social glue that helps hold the organization together by providing appropriate standards for what employees should say and do. Finally, culture serves as a sense-making and control mechanism that guides and shapes the attitudes and behavior of employees.

96) Organizational culture represents a perception that the organization's members hold in common. The dominant culture expresses the core values most members share and that gives the organization its distinct personality.

Subcultures tend to develop in large organizations in response to common problems or experiences a group of members face in the same department or location. Most large organizations have a dominant culture and numerous subcultures.

17

Answer Key Testname: C16

97) The various situations under which culture acts as a liability are: a) Institutionalization: When an organization undergoes institutionalization and becomes institutionalized–that is, it is valued for itself and not for the goods or services it produces–it takes on a life of its own, apart from its founders or members. It doesn't go out of business even if its original goals are no longer relevant. Acceptable modes of behavior become largely self-evident to members, and although this isn't entirely negative, it does mean behaviors and habits that should be questioned and analyzed become taken for granted, which can stifle innovation and make maintaining the organization's culture an end in itself. b) Barriers to change: Culture is a liability when the shared values are not in agreement with those that further the organization's effectiveness. This is most likely when an organization's environment is undergoing rapid change and its entrenched culture may no longer be appropriate. c) Barriers to diversity: By limiting the range of acceptable values and styles, strong cultures put considerable pressure on employees to conform. d) Barriers to acquisitions and mergers: Historically, when management looked at acquisition or merger decisions, the key factors were financial advantage and product synergy. In recent years, cultural compatibility has become the primary concern. e) Strengthening Dysfunctions: Coherence around negativity and dysfunctional management systems in a corporation can produce downward forces that are equally powerful. Negative attitudes in groups add to negative outcomes, suggesting a powerful influence of culture on individuals.

98) Culture is transmitted to employees in a number of forms, the most potent being stories, rituals, material symbols, and language.

Rituals are repetitive sequences of activities that express and reinforce the key values of the organization, what goals are most important, which people are important and which are expendable. Some companies have nontraditional rituals to help support the values of their cultures. Others use rituals to "convert" potential customers, clients, and investors. Rituals work in reinforcing values and placating supervisors, employees, and customers alike. This is because they inspire a sense of control in their participants and, as a result, reduce anxiety.

99) No matter how good a job the organization does in recruitment and selection, new employees need help adapting to the prevailing culture. This adaptation comes in the form of socialization. Socialization is a process that enables new employees to acquire the social knowledge and necessary skills in order to adapt to the organization's culture.

Socialization can help alleviate the problem many employees report when their new jobs are different than they expected.

100) While organizational culture is powerful enough to transcend national and local cultures, it does not mean that organizations should ignore them. Cultural sensitivity is vitally important, particularly for U.S. managers. Some ways in which U.S. employees can be culturally sensitive include being aware of one's actions and how they may be perceived by others and to consider others' backgrounds, perspectives, and emotions before speaking or acting. A second area that requires attention is in the management of ethical behavior where national culture can rub against corporate culture. U.S. managers and employees often endorse the supremacy of anonymous market forces as a moral obligation for business organizations. This worldview sees bribery, nepotism, and favoring personal contacts as highly unethical. They also value profit maximization, so any action that deviates from profit maximization may suggest inappropriate or corrupt behavior. In contrast, managers in developing economies are more likely to see ethical decisions as embedded in the social environment. That means doing special favors for family and friends is not only appropriate but possibly even an ethical responsibility. Managers in many nations also view capitalism skeptically and believe the interests of workers should be put on a par with the interests of shareholders, which may limit profit maximization.

18

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) In ________, we work to find stability by changing our behaviors and attitudes.

A) stressors B) homeostatic C) allostasis D) social support E) equilibrium

1)

2) If individuals resisting change are included in making change decisions in an attempt to gain their support, this approach is called ________.

A) communication B) coercion C) cooptation D) manipulation E) exploitation

2)

3) A(n) ________ resistance to change clouds the link between the change and the reaction to it and may surface weeks, months, or even years later.

A) explicit B) active C) deferred D) immediate E) overt

3)

4) Alex has a new idea for a way to cut costs in his department, but he is not willing to share his idea with his boss because the last department head that tried new cost cutting methods was recently fired because the new methods could not achieve expected results. Based on the example, how can Alex's company improve the culture to create innovation?

A) Encourage communication between various departments.

B) Reward both successes and failures.

C) Increase the resources in Alex's department.

D) Flatten the organizational structure.

E) Conduct team building activities.

4)

5) Idea champions display characteristics associated with ________ leadership.

A) autocratic B) narcissistic C) transactional D) laissez-faire E) transformational

5)

1

6) Josue is an accountant for a mid-sized accounting firm and there are four other people in his department with roughly the same job description. Despite all five of them working well together, accomplishing their goals, and on occasion socializing with one another after work, Josue feels a great amount of stress at his job that the other employees do not seem to experience. Of the five employees, Josue is the only homosexual. Which organizational factor seems to be most affecting Josue's stress?

A) Task demands B) Role demands C) Interpersonal demands D) Economic demands E) Family demands

6)

7) "Buying off" the leaders of a resistance group by giving them a key role and seeking their advice not to find a better solution but to get their endorsement is an example of ________.

A) coercion B) procedural fairness C) distributive bargaining D) cooptation E) operant conditioning

7)

8) Managers who think ________ and recognize the importance of balancing paradoxical factors are more effective, especially in generating ________ in those they are managing.

A) holistically; resistance behaviors B) atomistically; adaptive and creative behaviors C) atomistically; proactive behaviors D) holistically; proactive behaviors E) holistically; adaptive and creative behaviors

8)

9) Who built on Lewin's three-step model to create a more detailed approach for implementing change?

A) Lawrence Summers B) Henry Mintzberg C) John Kotter D) David McClelland E) Douglas Surber

9)

10) In the area of innovation, there are people with extremely high self-confidence, persistence, energy, and a tendency to take risks. They may display traits associated with transformational leadership.

People with these traits are called ________.

A) idea champions B) paradox busters C) idea disrupters D) slack dispersers E) action agents

10)

2

11) Rather than looking for problems, ________ seeks to identify the unique qualities and special strengths of an organization, which can then be built upon to improve performance.

A) action research B) process consultation C) appreciative inquiry D) team building E) social reinforcement

11)

12) You have threatened to eliminate positions and even to close down the company if your employees don't change their attitudes. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen is ________.

A) cooptation B) coercion C) participation D) negotiation E) communication

12)

13) Which of the following is not an example of a source of individual resistance?

A) Structural inertia B) Fear of the unknown C) Habit D) Security E) Selective information processing

13)

14) Which of the following are the three terms used in Kurt Lewin's change model?

A) Unfreezing, movement, and refreezing B) Status quo, unfreezing, refreezing C) Unfreezing, status quo, settlement D) Movement, status quo, refreezing E) Status quo, movement, settlement

14)

15) Higher-level managers will resist changes proposed by subordinates, especially if these leaders are focused on ________ performance.

A) individual B) immediate C) long-term D) goal statement E) proactive

15)

16) The application of direct threats or force upon resisters is called ________.

A) negotiation B) coercion C) arbitration D) manipulation E) cooptation

16)

3

17) Which of the following is not one of the four approaches to managing organizational change?

A) Organizational development B) Taylor's classic theory C) Kotter's eight-step plan D) Lewin's three-step model E) Action research

17)

18) Aisha is a successful nurse who is accustomed to working 50+ hours a week. Typically, she does this well and has managed to maintain a positive work life balance, despite the extended work hours. Two weeks ago, Aisha's son Carlos needed to have surgery which required him to need at-home medical care. Despite being a nurse, Aisha has been having trouble sleeping and has started to receive complaints about her performance at work. Which personal factor seems to be most affecting Aisha's stress?

A) Task demands B) Role demands C) Interpersonal demands D) Economic demands E) Family demands

18)

19) Which one of the following is not listed as a tactic for dealing with resistance to change?

A) Participation B) Communication C) Manipulation D) Acceleration E) Cooptation

19)

20) Which personality trait is most often associated with stress?

A) Conscientiousness B) Openness C) Agreeableness D) Extroversion E) Emotional stability

20)

21) All of the following strategies are organizational approaches to managing stress, except ________.

A) realistic goal-setting B) job placement C) employee selection D) time management E) employee sabbaticals

21)

22) Consumers now meet and share information in chat rooms and blogs. This is an example of changes in the ________.

A) competition B) social trends C) economy D) world politics E) nature of the workforce

22)

4

23) How does redesigning jobs help reduce stress?

A) It expands the number of tasks required for the job.

B) It gives individuals greater control over work activities and lessens dependence on others.

C) It avoids the need for employees to reframe stressful situations and use active coping strategies.

D) It seeks to buy off the leaders of a resistance group by giving them a key role.

E) It increases uncertainty by lessening role ambiguity and role conflict.

23)

24) Which of the following is not a step in the appreciative inquiry process?

A) Debriefing B) Design C) Dreaming D) Discovery E) Destiny

24)

25) Raul is stressed with the new corporate reorganization. He now reports to a foreign office that has usurped many of his responsibilities, including the contract labor for his projects, therefore he's working with less qualified and new contractors with whom he doesn't have a relationship.

However, the managers of the other departments find themselves in the same boat and every day they are able to laugh over lunch about their new managerial impotence. ________ is helping Raul handle his stress.

A) Time management B) Self-efficacy C) Social support D) Emotional contagion E) Cognitive dissonance

25)

26) Which of the following statements is true with respect to overcoming resistance to change?

A) Coaching and training programs to cope with change help employees embrace the status quo.

B) Manipulation refers to overt influence attempts.

C) When managers or employees have high emotional commitment to change, they resist it.

D) If changes are framed as threatening, people will comply.

E) It is difficult to resist a change decision in which we have participated.

26)

27) In which of the following steps of the appreciative inquiry technique do participants write action plans?

A) Collaboration B) Discovery C) Destiny D) Inferring E) Dreaming

27)

28) Darg's team just had a research breakthrough. They'll need several thousand dollars to complete the project. Darg has called a series of meetings in which he's promoting the significance of the new discovery, explaining the economic benefits that will result from the final project, and answering questions. Darg is a(n) ________ within his company.

A) arbitrator B) change agent C) manipulator D) idea champion E) stress creator

28)

5

29) Which of the following is the last step in the Kotter's eight-step plan for implementing change?

A) Form a coalition with enough power to lead the change.

B) Establish a sense of urgency by creating a compelling reason for why change is needed.

C) Consolidate improvements, reassess changes, and make necessary adjustments in the new programs.

D) Reinforce the changes by demonstrating the relationship between new behaviors and organizational success.

E) Communicate the vision throughout the organization.

29)

30) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effects of stress?

A) When challenge stress increases, those with high levels of organizational support have higher role-based performance.

B) Hindrance stress improves job performance in a supportive work environment.

C) Challenge stress reduces job performance in all work environments.

D) Employees who have a stronger affective commitment to their organization perform worse under stress as compared to those who have low levels of commitment.

E) Challenge stressors tend to produce more strain than hindrance stressors.

30)

31) Which of the following statements is true about innovation?

A) Interunit communication is low in innovative organizations.

B) Mechanistic structures positively influence innovation.

C) Organic structures negatively influence innovation.

D) Innovation is nurtured when there are scarce resources.

E) Contingent rewards positively influence innovation.

31)

32) The three main types of environmental uncertainty influencing employee stress levels are ________.

A) economic, social, and technological B) economic, political, and social C) economic, political, and technological D) social, political, and culture E) social, political, and technological

32)

33) The purpose of ________ is for an outside consultant to assist a client, usually a manager, through crafting "a relationship through a continuous effort of 'jointly deciphering what is going on' to make co-authored choices about how to go on."

A) sensitivity training B) process consultation C) survey feedback D) action research E) team building

33)

34) Lakeesha is an administrative assistant. While she is good at her job, she often feels copious amounts of stress because she is constantly interrupted in her work because her desk happens to be by the front entrance to the office. Which organizational factor seems to be most affecting Lakeesha's stress?

A) Task demands B) Role demands C) Interpersonal demands D) Economic demands E) Family demands

34)

6

35) Stress is associated with ________ and ________.

A) demands; resources B) support; commitment C) education; communication D) unfreezing; refreezing E) manipulation; cooptation

35)

36) Your company, Johnson Farm Products, has decided to expand its traditional business serving farm owners in order to include home gardeners in its customer base. This change is not met with enthusiasm by the sales personnel who have had good long-term relationships with area farmers.

You know that the change will be difficult if you cannot overcome the resistance of the sales personnel and obtain their cooperation. You have brought in the local extension agent to explain demographics and the changing nature of the area in which you live. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen is ________.

A) negotiation B) communication C) participation D) manipulation and cooptation E) coercion

36)

37) The Acme Manufacturing Company tried to buy off the maintenance workers group, who were key resistors to the change, by giving them a key role in the change process. The change resistance method used by the Acme Manufacturing Company is called ________.

A) counseling B) manipulation C) cooptation D) arbitration E) negotiation

37)

38) Passion for change among ________ is greatest when work roles and the social environment encourage them to put their creative identities forward.

A) entrepreneurs B) executives C) high-level managers D) front-line managers E) mid-level managers

38)

39) Which tactic to overcome resistance to change is a relatively inexpensive way to gain the support of adversaries, but may backfire if the targets become aware of the tactic?

A) Manipulation B) Coercion C) Negotiation D) Conciliation E) Arbitration

39)

7

40) The Acme Manufacturing Company tried to use the false truism of "this change is for the better" to overcome resistance to change. The change resistance method used by the Acme Manufacturing Company is called ________.

A) negotiation B) coercion C) cooptation D) manipulation E) arbitration

40)

41) ________ is a dynamic condition in which an individual is confronted with an opportunity, demand, or resource related to what the individual desires and for which the outcome is perceived to be both uncertain and important.

A) Stimulation B) Creativity C) Innovation D) Change E) Stress

41)

42) The management of a firm threatens to close a manufacturing plant whose employees are resisting an across-the-board pay cut. If the threat is untrue, the management is using ________.

A) coercion B) communication C) manipulation D) procedural fairness E) cooptation

42)

43) The Keyman Group hired the consulting firm of Planmark Consulting to identify what to improve and how. Which of the following organizational development (OD) techniques did the Keyman Group use?

A) Appreciative inquiry B) Action research C) Process consultation D) Intergroup development E) Social reinforcement

43)

44) It is easiest for management to deal with resistance when it is ________.

A) implicit B) passive C) deferred D) overt

44)

E) covert

45) Which of the following resistance to change is explicit?

A) Loss of motivation B) Strike threat C) Increased errors D) Absenteeism E) Loss of loyalty

45)

46) During the "design" step of appreciative inquiry, participants ________.

A) recount times they felt the organization worked best B) identify the organization's strengths C) write action plans and develop implementation strategies D) use information from the discovery phase to speculate on possible futures E) find a common vision of how the organization will look in the future

46)

8

47) John works as the financial director for a business college. In addition to overseeing all of the daily expenditures of the budget, John is responsible for organizing the overtime for teachers working off contract during the summer months. During April, John had a great deal of trouble sleeping and was at the office usually 10 hours a day. Which organizational factor seems to be most affecting John's stress?

A) Task demands B) Role demands C) Interpersonal demands D) Economic demands E) Family demands

47)

48) Each of the following is most likely to result in the changing nature of the workforce except ________.

A) changing tolerance levels B) demographic changes C) multicultural environment D) outsourcing E) immigration

48)

49) Team building may include "________" rooms.

A) confrontation B) manipulation C) pow wow D) escape E) intergroup

49)

50) Appreciative inquiry (AI) is an organizational development technique. Which of the following statements is true regarding appreciative inquiry?

A) It involves an outside consultant who helps the manager to analyze processes within his or her unit and identify what to improve and how.

B) It seeks to change groups' attitudes, stereotypes, and perceptions about each other.

C) It uses high-interaction group activities to increase trust and openness among team members, improve coordinative efforts, and increase team performance.

D) It tries to identify discrepancies among member perceptions and solve these differences.

E) It consists of four steps including discovery, dreaming, design, and destiny.

50)

51) Which of the following is not an example of an organizational source of resistance to change?

A) Limited focus of change B) Structural inertia C) Selective information processing D) Threat to established power relationships E) Group inertia

51)

52) Change that is intentional, proactive, and goal-oriented is called ________ change.

A) contingent B) organizational C) situational D) planned E) reactionary

52)

9

53) After restructuring, your division has had trouble filling the open positions with appropriate candidates. The selection processes used by human resources have not yet adjusted to the new criteria required for the restructured job positions. This problem is an example of which kind of resistance to change?

A) Threat to established power relationships B) Group inertia C) Structural inertia D) Limited focus of change E) Threat to expertise

53)

54) Which of the following statements is true regarding stress?

A) Training tends to decrease job stress.

B) Goal feedback tends to increase stress.

C) Employees with external locus of control tend to be less prone to stress.

D) Highly experienced employees tend to be more prone to stress.

E) Employees who are highly committed to their goals experience more stress.

54)

55) Which of the following is not a reason why organic structures promote innovation?

A) High formalization B) Low centralization C) High flexibility D) Low vertical differentiation E) Low cross-fertilization

55)

56) During the "dreaming" step of appreciative inquiry, participants ________.

A) write action plans and develop implementation strategies B) use information from the discovery phase to speculate on possible futures C) identify the organization's strengths D) recount times they felt the organization worked best E) find a common vision of how the organization will look in the future

56)

57) In overcoming resistance to change, when you combine manipulation and participation, you get ________.

A) communication B) cooptation C) coordination D) coercion E) negotiation

57)

58) Organizations must continually adjust product and marketing strategies to be sensitive to consumers' needs. One such consumer need is their expectation of personalized experiences. This is a response to changes in ________.

A) social trends B) economic shocks C) cultural trends D) demographic trends E) nature of the workforce

58)

10

59) Which of the following is not an individual approach to managing stress?

A) Relaxation techniques B) Physical exercise C) Goal setting D) Social support networks E) Time-management techniques

59)

60) Sensitivity training and survey feedback are techniques and interventions used in ________.

A) appreciative inquiry B) organizational development C) economic validation D) action research E) cognitive training

60)

61) What is the correct order within the action research process?

A) Diagnosis, analysis, feedback, action, and evaluation B) Feedback, action, evaluation, diagnosis, and analysis C) Analysis, feedback, action, evaluation, and diagnosis D) Evaluation, diagnosis, analysis, feedback, and action E) Action, evaluation, diagnosis, analysis, and feedback

61)

62) Selective information processing is a major force for resistance to change. It indicates that ________.

A) changes in organizational patterns may threaten the expertise of specialized groups so these groups tend to resist change B) limited changes in subsystems tend to be nullified by the larger system C) groups in the organization that control sizable resources often resist change D) individuals hear what they want to hear and they ignore information that challenges the world they've created E) even if individuals want to change their behavior, group norms may act as a constraint

62)

63) Which of the following resources should you seek when emotional demands are stressing you?

A) Social support B) Organizational support C) Computer support D) Cross-functional support E) Information support

63)

64) Your company, Johnson Farm Products, has decided to expand its traditional business serving farm owners in order to include home gardeners in its customer base. This change is not met with enthusiasm by the sales personnel who have had good long-term relationships with area farmers.

You know that the change will be difficult if you cannot overcome the resistance of the sales personnel and obtain their cooperation. You have decided to involve the sales personnel in planning for the change and in stocking appropriate new items to sell to gardeners. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen is ________.

A) communication B) coercion C) manipulation and cooptation D) negotiation E) participation

64)

11

65) Which of the following OD techniques involves changing groups' attitudes, stereotypes, and perceptions about each other?

A) Intergroup development B) Team building C) Survey feedback D) Process consultation E) Appreciative inquiry

65)

66) In John Kotter's eight-step plan for implementing change, the first step is to establish a sense of urgency by creating a compelling reason for why change is needed. Which of the following is the step that follows that?

A) Create a new vision to direct the change and strategies for achieving the vision.

B) Communicate the vision throughout the organization.

C) Form a coalition with enough power to lead the change.

D) Plan for, create, and reward short-term "wins" that move the organization toward the new vision.

E) Consolidate improvements, reassess changes, and make necessary adjustments in the new programs.

66)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

67) In Lewin's three-step model, driving forces hinder movement away from the equilibrium.

67)

68) Resistance to change typically surfaces in standardized ways.

68)

69) All change is reactionary.

69)

70) A theory in management says that there is a final optimal status for an organization.

70)

71) Action research provides a scientific methodology for managing planned change.

71)

72) Innovation is different from change.

72)

73) Individuals with an external locus of control tend to be more prone to stress.

73)

74) All innovations imply change, but not all changes are innovative.

74)

75) The first step in Lewin's three-step model is unfreezing the status quo.

75)

76) Challenge stressors keep you from reaching your goals.

76)

77) It is typical to resist a change decision in which we have participated.

77)

78) There is no evidence that indicates that stress improves job performance.

78)

79) Competition precipitates change.

79)

12

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

80) Why do we say that stressors are additive?

81) What are the criticisms of Kurt Lewin's three-step change model?

82) Why is it important to study stress at work?

83) Why is change a political activity?

84) What is planned change? What are its goals?

85) What is organizational development (OD)?

86) Describe the behavioral consequences of stress.

87) What do we mean by driving and restraining forces in Kurt Lewin's three-step change model?

88) What is allostasis?

89) How is managing paradox one of the ways to facilitate change?

90) Describe the physiological consequences of stress.

91) How does coercion act to counter resistance to change?

92) Describe the psychological consequences of stress.

93) Manipulation and cooptation are two tactics to help deal with resistance to change. How are they different?

94) Why is innovation considered a kind of change?

95) How does resistance to change surface?

96) How do habit and security act as sources of resistance to change?

97) What are sabbaticals and how do employee sabbaticals help in managing stress?

98) What role do social support networks play in managing stress?

99) How is stress associated with demands and resources?

100) How do task and role demands cause stress?

13

Answer Key Testname: C17

1) C 2) C 3) C 4) B 5) E 6) C 7) D 8) E 9) C 10) A 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) B 18) E 19) D 20) E 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) E 27) C 28) D 29) D 30) A 31) E 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) A 40) D 41) E 42) C 43) C 44) D 45) B 46) E 47) B 48) A 49) D 50) E 14

Answer Key Testname: C17

51) C 52) D 53) C 54) A 55) A 56) B 57) B 58) A 59) C 60) B 61) A 62) D 63) A 64) E 65) A 66) C 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) When we review stressors individually, it is easy to overlook that stress is an additive phenomenon, it builds up over time. Each new and persistent stressor adds to an individual's stress level. A single stressor may be relatively unimportant in and of itself, but if added to an already high level of stress, it can be too much. To appraise the total amount of stress an individual is under, we must sum up all the sources and severity levels of that person's stress.

81) There are three main criticisms of Kurt Lewin's three-step change model. The first is that, much like Maslow's hierarchy of needs to explain motivation, Lewin assumes that change happens sequentially, in order, always progressing. Second, the model implies a sense of perfect agency for managers; in other words, do change agents really know where they are, where the people in the organization are, and where they are going? Since organizations are so fluid, it is impossible to do this in real life. The final criticism is the use of the term "freezing." This is problematic to some. Time keeps moving, freezing may never happen, and new changes interrupt current changes dynamically.

82) Stress is a psychological process in which an individual is confronted with an opportunity, demand, or resource related to what the individual desires and for which the outcome is perceived to be both uncertain and important. Stress has an important role in the workplace. One compilation of statistics suggests that (1) 83 percent of workers in the United States are stressed, (2) stress results in $300 billion in losses annually, (3) it accounts for 60 to 80 percent of workplace accidents, (4) it causes one million people to miss work daily, and (5) 29 percent of workers have admitted to wanting to punch a co-worker because of stress. Work is a major source of stress in most people's lives, which makes it important to make it a focus of study.

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Answer Key Testname: C17

83) Because change invariably threatens the status quo, it inherently implies political activity. Politics suggests the impetus for change is more likely to come from outside change agents, employees new to the organization, or managers who are slightly removed from the main power structure. Managers who have spent a long time with an organization and achieved a senior position in the hierarchy are often major impediments to change. This explains why boards of directors that recognize the imperative for rapid and radical change frequently turn to outside candidates for new leadership.

84) Change is when things become different from the way they were. While oftentimes changes are unplanned and happen naturally (reactionary change), certain situations involve proactive, intentional, and goal-oriented efforts to realized change. This is called planned change. There are two goals of planned change. The first is that it seeks to improve the ability of the organization to adapt to changes in its environment. The second is that it seeks to change employee behavior.

85) Organizational development (OD) is a collection of planned change interventions, built on humanistic-democratic values, that seeks to improve organizational effectiveness and employee well-being. OD methods value human and organizational growth, collaborative and participative processes, and a spirit of inquiry. Examples of OD techniques include sensitivity training, survey feedback, process consultation, team building, intergroup development, and appreciative inquiry.

86) Research on behavior and stress has been conducted across several countries and over time, and the relationships appear relatively consistent. Behavior-related stress symptoms include reductions in productivity, increases in absence and turnover, as well as changes in eating habits, increased smoking or consumption of alcohol, rapid speech, fidgeting, and sleep disorders.

87) By definition, status quo is an equilibrium state. According to Kurt Lewin, to move from equilibrium to overcome the pressures of both individual resistance and group conformity unfreezing must happen in one of three ways. For one, the driving forces, which direct behavior away from the status quo, can be increased. For another, the restraining forces, which hinder movement away from equilibrium, can be decreased. A third alternative is to combine the first two approaches.

88) Allostasis refers to working to change behavior and attitudes to find stability. While early research on stress tended to emphasize a homeostatic, or balanced equilibrium perspective, it has now become clear that no single ideal state exists.

Instead, it is more accurate to talk about allostatic models, in which demands shift, resources shift, and systems of addressing imbalances shift. It all depends on the allostatic load, or the cumulative effect of stressors on us given the resources we draw upon.

89) The paradox theory states that the key paradox in management is that there is no final optimal status for an organization. In a paradox situation, we are required to balance tensions across various courses of action, which are caused by resource anxiety. There is a constant process of finding a balancing point, a dynamic equilibrium, among shifting priorities over time. There is some evidence that managers who think holistically and recognize the importance of balancing paradoxical factors are more effective, especially in generating adaptive and creative behaviors in those they are managing.

90) Most early concerns with stress were directed at physiological symptoms because most researchers were specialists in the health and medical sciences. Their work led to the conclusion that stress could create changes in metabolism, increase heart and breathing rates and blood pressure, bring on headaches, and induce heart attacks. Evidence now clearly suggests stress may have other harmful physiological effects including backaches, headaches, eye strain, sleep disturbances, dizziness, fatigue, loss of appetite, and gastrointestinal problems. Other research has found that stress, in general, impairs episodic memory (but enhances memory after a stressful event).

91) Coercion is the application of direct threats or force on dissenters. Examples include threatening employees with forced transfers, blocked promotions, negative performance evaluations, and poor letters of recommendation. Coercion is most effective when some force or pressure is enacted on at least some resisters—for instance, if an employee is publicly refused a transfer request, the threat of blocked promotions will become a real possibility in the minds of other employees.

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Answer Key Testname: C17

92) Job dissatisfaction is an obvious symptom of stress. But stress manifests itself in other psychological states for instance, tension, anxiety, irritability, boredom, and procrastination. One study that tracked physiological responses of employees over time found that stress due to high workloads was related to lower emotional well-being.

Jobs that make multiple and conflicting demands or that lack clarity about the incumbent's duties, authority, and responsibilities increase both strain and dissatisfaction. Similarly, the less control people have over the pace of their work, the greater their strain and dissatisfaction. Jobs that provide a low level of variety, significance, autonomy, feedback, and identity appear to create strain and reduce satisfaction and involvement in the job. Not everyone reacts to autonomy in the same way, however. For those with an external locus of control, increased job control increases the tendency to experience strain and exhaustion.

93) Manipulation refers to covert influence attempts. Twisting facts to make them more attractive, hiding behind false truisms, withholding information, and creating false rumors to get employees to accept change are all examples of manipulation. Like manipulation, cooptation is another technique of overcoming resistance to change. Cooptation combines manipulation and participation. It seeks to "buy off" the leaders of a resistance group by giving them a key role, seeking their advice not to find a better solution but to get their endorsement. Cooptation is a relatively inexpensive way to gain the support of adversaries, but it can backfire if the targets become aware they are being tricked or used.

94) Change refers to making things different. Innovation is a specialized kind of change. It is applied to initiating or improving a product, process, or service. This means that all innovations imply change, but not all changes introduce new ideas or lead to significant improvements. Innovations can range from incremental improvements to radical breakthroughs.

95) Change is when things become different from the way they were. Employees often see change as threatening. This resistance can come not just from lower levels of the organization, but also from higher levels. Resistance does not necessarily surface in standardized ways. It can be overt, implicit, immediate, or deferred. It is easiest for management to deal with overt and immediate resistance. The greater challenge is managing resistance that is implicit or deferred because these responses (such as loss of loyalty) are more subtle and more difficult to recognize for what they are.

96) Individual (those residing in human characteristics) sources are one of two categories (the other being organizational factors) that act as resistance to change. Habit and security are two individual factors impacting resistance to change.

To cope with life's complexities, we rely on habits or programmed responses. But when confronted with change, this tendency to respond in our accustomed ways becomes a source of resistance. Likewise, people with a high need for security are likely to resist change because it threatens their feelings of safety.

97) Sabbaticals are voluntary leaves of absences. Some employees need an occasional escape from the frenetic pace of their work. To address this, companies such as Goldman Sachs provide voluntary leaves ranging in length from a few weeks to several months. Employees can recharge themselves during these sabbaticals and help mitigate their stress.

98) Friends, family, or work colleagues can provide an outlet when stress levels become excessive. Expanding your social support network provides someone to hear your problems and offer a more objective perspective on a stressful situation than your own. However, in some cases, the opposite can happen. If you do not try to expand your network and instead ruminate with similarly stressed friends, you can get caught in a vicious cycle. That's why it is important to be proactive and try to address your stress head on.

99) Typically, stress is associated with demands and resources. Demands are responsibilities, pressures, obligations, and uncertainties individuals face in the workplace. Resources are things within an individual's control that they can use to resolve the demands. An example of how demands and resources relate to stress is the annual performance review that employees undergo. When you undergo your annual performance review at work, you feel stress because you confront opportunities and performance pressures. To the extent you can apply resources to the demands on you (such as preparing for the review or obtaining social support), you will feel less stress.

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Answer Key Testname: C17

100) Various organizational factors cause stress. Two such factors are task demands and role demands. Task demands relate to a person's job. They include the design of the job, the working conditions, and the physical work layout. The single factor most consistently related to stress in the workplace is the amount of work that needs to be done, followed closely by the presence of looming deadlines. Role demands relate to pressures placed on a person as a function of the role they play in the organization. Role conflicts create expectations that may be hard to reconcile or satisfy. Role overload occurs when the employee is expected to take on too much. Role ambiguity means role expectations are not clearly understood and the employee is not sure what to do.

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