Test Bank For Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People Second Edition by Jayne Price - Orla M

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

and Young People, 2e

Chapter 1: Involving children, young people and their families in care There are also 5 questions included in the further resources word document

1. Family-centred care has been described as an amorphous concept. In relation to familycentred care, this means it is a. Ill defined and therefore not well applied in practice b. Well established and embedded c. Clearly defined and widely applied d. What nurses aspire to do Ans: A

2. Great Ormond Street was opened in: a. 1930s b. 1900s c. 1890s d. 1850s

Ans: D

3. Paternalists can be viewed as a. Those who believe that children can make their own decisions b. Fathers who have the right to make decisions c. Not applicable to children as they are deemed not to have capacity d. Making choices on behalf of the child because they perceive that children are vulnerable and not capable of making autonomous rational decisions Ans: D 4. Which of the following best describes those whose view is that ‘the child can make informed decisions and can self-advocate’ a. Libertarians b. Paternalists c. Interventionists d. Pragmatists Ans: A

5. When describing family-centred care, which of the following concepts are most likely to be used in the description a. Delegation of roles b. Participation, involvement, negotiation, empowerment, partnership c. Open visiting and parents staying overnight d. Allowing parents to be involved in care Ans: B

6. Complete the sentence. Children should be involved in decisions about their care: a. Always, as all children have capacity to be involved in decisions about their care b. Never, they do not have capacity c. To the extent they wish to be dependent on their cognitive ability

d. Based on the nurse’s assessment of their ability to be involved Ans: C

7. Complete the sentence. Parents should be involved on decisions about their child’s care a. Always, it is an established and expected role b. Never, the nurse and other healthcare professionals are best placed to make decisions c. Depends on workload of the nurse d. To the extent they are willing and able Ans: D

8. In the context of family-centred care, family is considered to be: a. Usually just parents b. Usually all people in the child’s life c. Usually those with parental responsibility and others important to the child d. Usually anyone related to the child Ans: C

9. What is the nurse’s role in relation to child involvement in care and care decisions: a. To advocate for the child and family to ensure they have the opportunity to be involved in decision-making as they desire b. To coerce children and young people into being involved in decision-making c. To decide how much children can and should be involved d. Make sure parents decide the extent of child involvement Ans: A

10. The 1989, what UN Convention on the Rights of a child states in article 12? a. Children can refuse treatment if they are assessed as having capacity to consider the risks and benefits

b. The child who is capable of forming his or her own views has the right to express those views freely in all matters affecting the child: the views of the child being given due weight in accordance with age and maturity of the child c. A child with a disability has the right to live a full and decent life with dignity and, as far as possible, independence and to play an active part in the community d. The best interests of the child must be a top priority in all decisions and actions that affect children Ans: B

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 2: Effective communication with children and young people 1. Intrinsic factors important in the child’s development of language include: a. Mother to child attachment b. The social environment in which a child grows up c. Pre-programmed, biological influences d. Family communication patterns Ans: C

2. Which of the options below is particularly important when communicating with a child aged between 3 and 5 years? a. Spending time observing the child with their parents b. Using a soothing and calming tone c. Using simple, connected terms d. Using third-party stories Ans: C

3. Which of these is NOT one of the conflicting perspectives recognized by Lambert et al.

(2010) in relation to children’s roles in healthcare interactions? a. Child as family member versus child as independent entity b. Toddler versus adolescent c. Child as powerless versus empowered child d. Child as becoming versus child as being Ans: B 4. The term ‘passive bystander’ suggests that a child or young person is: a. Fully engaged in an interaction b. Not involved in an interaction at all c. Partly engaged in an interaction

d. Marginal to an interaction Ans: D 5. Which of the following best describes ‘associative play’? a. The child plays alone and maintains focus on their activity b. The child watches others at play, but does not join in c. The child is interested both in the people playing and in the activity they are doing, actively joining in with play d. The child is interested in the people playing, but not in coordinating their activities with other people Ans: D

Test banks for

Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 3: Assessment and management of pain in children and young people 1. Unrelieved pain in CYP has: a. No adverse effects b. Psychological adverse effects c. Physiological adverse effects

d. Psychological and physiological adverse effects Ans: D Unrelieved pain in CYP has causes physiological changes to heart rate, blood pressure, myocardial oxygen demands, metabolic changes and can affect behavioral responses to subsequent painful procedures and affect brain development in very premature neonates.

2. The Declaration of Montréal (IASP, 2015) indicates that: a. Transformational change in pain management has occurred b. Health professionals assess children’s pain appropriately c. Non-drug methods of pain relief are routinely used d. Pain is commonly under-recognized and undertreated Ans: D The Declaration of Montréal (IASP, 2015) identifies that pain in children and young people is commonly under-recognized and undertreated. This has led to calls for transformational change in all aspects of paediatric pain management to ensure pain is a key issue in healthcare.

3. In the correct order, the stages of pain management are: a. Assessment, selecting intervention, implementation, evaluation b. Implementation, assessment, planning, re-evaluation c. Planning, assessment, implementation, re-evaluation d. Re-evaluation, assessment, implementation, planning Ans: A In the correct order, the stages of pain management are: Assessment, selecting intervention, implementation, evaluation.

4. Self-report tools should normally be used with children who are: a. Severely cognitively impaired b. Less than 1 month old c. Verbal and old enough to understand simple instructions

d. Overtly distressed Ans: C Verbal children, old enough to understand simple instructions, are able to use self-report tools such as Wong and Baker FACES Pain Rating Scale (Wong & Baker 1988).

5. Behavioural indicators of pain include: a. Pyrexia, Increased clinging b. Reluctance to move, whimpering, sobbing c. Cool peripheries, irritability d. Hypotension, Unusual quietness, aggressiveness Ans: B Pyrexia, cool peripheries, and hypotension are NOT indicators of pain.

6. Multimodal analgesia means: a. Administering two or more analgesic drugs, targeting different parts of the pain pathway b. Giving a mixture of oral and IV analgesic drugs at the same time c. Administering two analgesics from the same family of drugs d. Giving one analgesic drug at a time Ans: A Multimodal analgesia is the use of pharmacological techniques in a complementary way, targeting different sections of the pain pathway; maximizing analgesic efficacy and minimizing doses required and therefore drug side-effects.

7. Which of the following is NOT a common side-effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs? a. Reduced platelet aggregation b. Respiratory depression c. Disrupted renal blood flow d. Gastric irritation Ans: B

Respiratory depression is a side effect of opioid analgesia.

8. Paracetamol uptake may be unpredictable if administered by which route? a. Intravenous b. Oral solution c. Rectal d. Oral tablet Ans: C Uptake of rectal paracetamol may be unpredictable and initial loading doses may be needed to achieve satisfactory analgesia.

9. The ability of the child to clear morphine may be affected by their: a. Increased skin surface area b. Immature renal function and reduced metabolism c. Immature ductus arteriosus d. Immature lungs Ans: B Immature renal function and reduced metabolism in neonates cause reduced clearance and increased half-life of morphine. They require lower doses compared with older children.

10. Which of the following is NOT a common side-effect of opioid drugs? a. Pyrexia b. Respiratory depression c. Nausea and vomiting d. Pruritus (itching) Ans: A Pyrexia is NOT a common side-effect of opioid drugs.

11. Which of the following is a ‘cognitive’ non-pharmacological pain management strategy? a. Restraint

b. Ignoring CYP exaggerated pain response c. Deep breathing d. Undertaking procedure with parent absent Ans: C There is evidence supporting the use of breathing interventions for reducing procedural pain during needle-related procedures. Common misconceptions about CYPs having painful procedures are beliefs that children often exaggerate their pain and that parents are often not helpful in supporting their child when they are in pain.

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 4: Medication: Management, administration and compliance 1. Jason is a 14-year-old boy who was diagnosed with diabetes 7 years ago. He has been admitted with high blood glucose levels (hyperglycaemia). What might be the cause of his hyperglycaemia? a. He went out with his mates without his insulin pen b. He has taken too much insulin c. He gave his insulin injection into his deltoid muscle d. He only took a small amount of insulin because he ate a small meal

Ans: A

2. Melissa has cerebral palsy and epilepsy following her premature birth at 26 weeks. She regularly takes diazepam, baclofen and vigabatrin. Melissa was admitted for an adductor tenotomy (muscle release of lower limb muscles). Post operatively she is likely to require: a. Analgesia b. Larger doses of her regular medication c. Her regular medications to be stopped d. Bronchodilators Ans: A

3. Your mentor has recently set up an infusion of vancomycin for a child you are caring for.

The child’s mother alerts you a few minutes later to say that her daughter appears to be developing a rash and is short of breath. What might be happening? a. The mother is worried that her daughter is developing asthma b. The nurse has given the wrong drug c. She is having a reaction to the drug d. The infusion has made her anxious Ans: C

4. A qualified nurse can give intravenous drugs under what circumstances? a. There are no doctors available b. The nurse has attended the training and has been assessed as competent by a qualified assessor c. The ward sister agrees d. A pharmacist has verified that she has an active PIN number from the NMC Ans: B

5. A 15-year-old girl is admitted having taken a paracetamol overdose. What drug would the nurse expect to use? a. Furosemide b. Ascorbic acid c. Amoxicillin d. Acetylcysteine Ans: D

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 5: Interprofessional working 1. What disciplines can you think of that Children’s Nurses may collaborate with?

Ans: Medical staff, other Nursing fields, allied health professionals, education, police, ambulance, social services, prison services, mental health services, third-sector agencies

2. Reflect on a time in practice when you have been part of an IPW team. Which competencies did you observe that worked well?

Ans: Teamwork, communication skills, interpersonal skills, understanding of roles

3.What problems does the video highlight around IPW?

Ans: Difference in approaches, lack of shared understanding, information sharing, up to date training, fear of malpractice, poor communication, mistrust

4. What are the benefits of IPW? Ans: Multi-agency working, joint training, liaison, joint supervision, joint review of cases.

Improved outcomes for children and young people and protection from harm. Improved teamwork, streamlined services, reduction in overlap of services, cost effectiveness.

5.Why are the first 1001 days critical in a child’s life? How can services work together to improve outcomes?

Ans: Time of rapid growth and brain development. Attachment crucial to promote social and emotional development into adulthood. Vulnerable to abuse and neglect. Exposure to stress/trauma will have a lasting effect. Holistic approach from all services is vital to ensure early intervention and access to services. Service should share data and promote a culture of joined up working.

6. How has this model benefited children and young people? https://www.england.nhs.uk/integratedcare/resources/case-studies/child-health-hubs-seepatients-closer-to-home-and-reduce-unnecessary-hospital-trips/ Ans: It has improved the way children’s care is commissioned and delivered. 30% of new patient hospital appointments were avoided and a further 42% changed from hospital to GP practice. 22% reduction in A&E attendances.

7. (case study George) What do you think the challenges will be for George once he starts school?

Ans: Separation from parent, communication, mobility and access, medication management, nutrition management and epilepsy management.

8. Which professionals do you think will be involved in George’s Child Plan?

Ans: Teachers, teaching assistants, physiotherapy, occupational therapy, speech therapist, community children’s nurse, health visitor, early years practitioner, nursery staff, community paediatrician, GP, school nurse 9. Looking back at the ‘My World Triangle’ (Figure 5.4) what do you think George needs from the people who look after him?

Ans: How I grow and develop – being healthy, learning and achieving, being able to communicate, enjoying family and friends.

My wider world – support, local groups and clubs, benefits in place What I need from people who look after me – keep him safe, be there for him, everyday care and play & fun

10. What examples of effective collaboration can you identify from the SEND case study?

Ans: Leadership, interpersonal skills, knowledge, respect, understanding of professional roles, joint goals, children and young people at centre of decisions

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 6: Organization and settings for care of children and young people 1. The partnership model was developed by: a. Smith and Coleman b. Casey c. Rope Logan and Tierney d. Carter Ans: B

2. An assessment tool can be used to: a. Reliably identify the severity of illness b. Hand over in a ward setting c. Identify risk d. Always a comprehensive holistic assessment Ans: C

3. Which of these aspects are key to an effective referral? a. Timeliness, necessity, destination, process b. Speed, necessity, destination, quality c. Speed, the MDT, destination, process d. Timeliness, the MDT, destination, families Ans: A

4. When should transition be planned? a. When the service age limit has been reached b. Depends on the condition c. From 16 d. Timing should be individualized to the child, family and condition Ans: D

5. Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of the use of technology in healthcare? a. Overreliance on monitoring b. Better communication between teams c. Easier access for children and families d. Care can be offered at home Ans: A

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 7: Community care and care in non-hospital settings for children and young people 1. Which of these is NOT one of the pathways for community nursing? a. Children with long-term conditions: diabetes, asthma and epilepsy b. Children with acute and short-term conditions c. Children who are thought to be at risk of not achieving their potential d. Children with life-limiting and life-threatening illness Ans: C

2. What does TAC stand for?

a. Team around the child b. Tailored around the child c. Together around the child d. Talking about the child Ans: A

3. Which of these is NOT a member of the multi-agency community health team? a. School teacher b. Speech and language c. Learning disability nurse d. Nurse specialists Ans: A

4. Which of these is NOT a type of screening in school nurse practice? a. Vision b. Hearing c. Height and weight d. Learning needs Ans: D

5. Which of these is NOT a category of abuse for child protection? a. Risk-taking behaviour b. Emotional c. Physical d. Neglect Ans: A

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

and Young People, 2e

Chapter 8: Law and policy for children and young people’s nursing 1. What is the Code? a. A set of rules to follow to prevent wrongdoing or mistakes by a nurse b. Professional guidance and directive on how registered nurses must protect those in their care and is a combination of ‘positive rules’ (binding) and ‘normative rules’ (what a person should do) c. Applicable to nurses, students and all who are involved in the delivery of care to ensure that children and young people are always given the highest standard of care d. Rules to follow which will mean that children and young people are safe and the nurse is protected from challenge by others regarding care Ans: B

2. What is the purpose of the Code? a. To protect the nurse and ensure the correct action is taken b. To always protect the public c. To safeguard the wishes of children and young people

d. To only prevent errors by acts or omissions Ans: B

3. What is required for NMC revalidation? a. Provide evidence of 350 hours of practice, evidence of 60 hours of CPD and have this confirmed by a manager. Payment of NMC fee annually. Revalidation every 3 years. b. 450 practice hours or 900 if revalidating as both a nurse and midwife, 35 hours CPD including 20 hours participatory learning, five pieces of practice-related feedback, five written reflective accounts and reflective discussion, health and character declaration, professional indemnity arrangements, confirmation. Revalidate every 3 years. c. Payment of the annual NMC retention fee to remain on the Register plus evidence of 400 hours of practice and a declaration of good health by the nurse. Confirmation of same.

Revalidation yearly. d. Payment of the annual NMC retention fee to remain on the Register plus evidence of 400 hours of practice and a declaration of good health by the nurse. Confirmation of same.

Revalidation yearly.

Ans: B

4. What is the Bolam Test? a. Applied by the nurse when not sure what action he/she should take in any given circumstance b. Not something that is relevant to nurses as it deals only with the actions of registered medical practitioners c. A test question in law which asks, ‘what would a reasonable registered nurse or registered practitioner do in the same circumstances?’ d. Not particularly relevant to the care of children and young people as the Bolam case involved adults only and the care of children and young people is different to that of adult patients Ans: C

5. What is safeguarding? a. Relevant to care of the elderly and learning-disabled patient only and it is the responsibility of the Trust to uphold b. Everyone’s responsibility – all agencies and organizations, including nurses, and is relevant to service users of all ages especially those who are infirm or vulnerable; this particularly includes children and young people c. An important aspect of community nursing care which is the concern of social workers and managers to uphold d. Is about ensuring that the person in your care is kept physically safe at all times and it is the responsibility of the key worker or manager to ensure that this happens e. An important construct of the social worker role Ans: B

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 9: Safeguarding children and young people 1. In some situations there may be a concern that a child or young person may be suffering, or at risk of suffering significant harm. However, you may be unsure whether what has given rise to your concern constitutes ‘a reasonable cause to believe’. In these situations, the concern must a. Be ignored as you have no evidence

b. Be left to someone more senior to deal with c. Be discussed in more detail with the family or child without any support d. Not be ignored and should be discussed with a lead safeguarding Ans: D

2. The four main categories of abuse are? a. Neglect, emotional, sexual and FGM b. Sexual, emotional, physical and FGM c. Sexual, physical, emotional and neglect d. Neglect, sexual, emotional and online Ans: C

3. MASH stands for a. Multi-agency safeguarding children’s hub b. Multiple safeguarding children’s hub c. Multi-agency safety children’s hub d. Multi-agency safeguarding children’s home Ans: A

4. CSE stands for a. Child sexual exploitation b. Child sexual experience c. Child serious exploitation d. Child sexual engagement Ans: A

5. Female genital mutilation leaves a female at risk of? a. Blood loss, vomiting and headaches b. Blood loss, infection, pain and urethra damage c. Blood loss, infection, pain and poverty

d. Pain, infection, vomiting and urethra damage Ans: B

Test banks for

Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 10: Genetics and epigenetics: Effects on children and young people 1. What does the term epigenetics refer to? a. The study of all of an individual’s genes b. The factors that influence the way genes are expressed in the cells of the body c. The autosomal pattern of inheritance d. A map of a person’s genes Ans: B

2. Which of the following is a genetic based change within DNA? a. Chromosomal or gene anomalies b. Ribosome abnormalities c. Cytoplasmic anomalies d. Abnormalities in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum Ans: A

3. In the family pedigree, identify the type of inheritance seen.

a. X-linked dominant b. Mitochondrial inheritance c. Autosomal dominant d. Autosomal recessive Ans: D

4. In the family pedigree, what is the genetic risk or probability of Emma and Dudu having a fifth child whose phenotype is affected by the Sickle Cell gene?

a. 1 in 4 or 25%, p = 0.25 b. 1 in 2 or 50%, p = 0.5

c. 6.25%, p = 0.0625 d. 100%, p = 1.0 Ans: A

5. What is the age of consent whereby a child can consent to genetic testing? a. 12 years b. 14 years c. 16 years d. 18 years Ans: D

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 11: Infant mental wellbeing and health or ‘how to grow a healthy adult’ 1. What is infant mental health (IMH)? a. A new area of psychiatry which looks at the infant and early years to prevent mental illness b. The young child’s capacity to experience, regulate and express emotions, form close and secure relationships, and explore the environment and learn, within the context of the caregiving environment including family, community and cultural expectations for young

children. Developing these capacities is synonymous with healthy social and emotional development c. It is important in developing countries and in underprivileged communities where the upbringing of children is in need of support and funding d. Not particularly important in the early years’ development of children Ans: B

2. What is the role of the placenta? a. To feed the baby in utero; it has no other function during pregnancy other than cultural significance in some parts of the world. b. The primary function of the placenta is to maintain an adequate supply of nutrients to the foetus. This is especially important for foetal brain development which undergoes rapid growth in the prenatal period c. The role of the placenta is important because it attaches the baby in the womb to the wall of the uterus, thus physically securing the pregnancy. This means the baby is safe from harm and receives all required nutrition from the mother d. The placenta is not particularly important in the development of infant mental health as the main function is to secure the infant during the pregnancy, provide a route for nutrition and does not have any significance for mental health of mother or child Ans: B

3. Why is neuron and neural tube development important? a. Neural tube development is not particularly significant in the emotional and mental wellbeing of infants and children as most of the positive or negative influences on life chances happen in the pre-school years only b. Neural tube development is very significant in emotional and mental wellbeing of infants and children. A 3-mm neural tube will grow into a whole brain containing 100 billion neurons and 100 trillion connections

c. Production of new neurons starts at 20 weeks gestation and stops after the infant is 3 months of age as they are no longer required. At this stage of 20 weeks the neural tube development is slow d. Production of new neurons starts at 5 weeks gestation and continues through to 18 months – after this age they are no longer required as they will now have sufficient neurons to continue with his or her neurological development Ans: B

4. What are attachment theories? a. Are not of much importance in considering infant mental health and wellbeing; they are concerned with physical bonding only b. About the bond between a mother and a baby and no one else c. Clear evidence exists that a baby’s social and emotional development is affected by the quality of the parental caregiver d. Are old publications with limited contemporary relevance to the infant as recent science indicates the infant is programmed to survive regardless of the quality of the physical bonding Ans: C

5. How would you classify IMH? a. A safeguarding issue b. A social issue c. An ethical issue d. All of these Ans: D

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

and Young People, 2e

Chapter 12: Factors influencing wellbeing and development in children and young people 1. The Assessment Framework (HMGov 2018) states when assessing family and environment, healthcare professionals should consider the following factors: a. Housing, family resources, family history, finances, boundaries, social relationships b. Housing, family resources, family history, employment, self-esteem c. Housing, family resources, family history, finances, social relationships d. Housing, family resources, family history, finances, employment, wider family, social resources e. None of these Ans: D

2. The Assessment Framework (HMGov 2018) states when assessing parenting capacity, healthcare professionals should consider the following factors: a. Basic care, ensuring safety, emotional warmth, family and social relationships b. Basic care, housing, family resources, emotional warmth, family history, stability

c. Basic care, ensuring safety, emotional warmth, stimulations, guidance and boundaries, stability d. Basic care, ensuring safety, education, employment, social resources e. None of these Ans: C

3. DH (2006) states that good parenting consists of a. Meeting basic needs b. Keeping children safe c. Demonstrating warmth and love d. Providing stimulation e. All of these Ans: E 4. Joslyn (2015) suggests that these are a ‘group of positive characteristics’ or a ‘level of competence gained’ that individuals display even if they have experienced negative situations earlier in their life. These attributes can be utilized even in times of great stress.

To develop resilience, a child needs to a. Be able to say no b. Have a sense of security and empathy c. Have parents who are sociable d. Feel they are better than others e. None of these Ans: B

5. A household is in relative poverty or has a relative low income if a. Their income is below 50% of the median household income b. Their income is below 60% of the median household income c. Their income is above 60% of the median household income d. A family needs to use a foodbank to adequately feed themselves

e. A family cannot afford to heat their home Ans: B

6. Children in poverty are more likely to a. Be born prematurely b. Have a low birth weight c. Have a long-standing illness d. Suffer with mental health problems e. All of these Ans: E

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 13: Universal screening and the role of the health visitor 1. What is a universalistic service? a. A service offered to all b. A service which is targeted

c. A needs led service d. A free service Ans: A

2. What is the formal title for a health visitor? a. A specialist public health nurse b. A special community nurse c. A specialist community public health nurse d. A community public health nurse Ans: C

3. What is the framework used in England to underpin universal screening by health visitors? a. The Health Promotion Programme b. The Child Health Surveillance Programme c. Healthy Child, Healthy Future d. The Healthy Child Programme Ans: D

4. When does the health visitor carry out a Family Health Needs Assessment? a. At the Birth Visit b. At every developmental check c. Sometime between the antenatal period and the birth visit and at every contact thereafter or when there is a change in family dynamics d. When the child goes to school Ans: C

5. Which of the following activities is an integral part of universal screening activities? a. Checking that the house is clean and tidy b. Health promotion c. Family planning

d. Checking that all utilities, e.g. gas and electric are connected Ans: B

6. How did Health Visiting Services adapt during the Covid 19 pandemic? (Write a short answer below.)

Ans: It is expected that the short answer will include that modes of contact such as telephone and video calling were used to deliver the health visiting services alongside the traditional home visiting model.

7. True or False? Unite/CPHVA is the leading professional body and union representing health visitors, school nurses and community nursery nurses.

Ans: True

8. Universal partnership plus is the fourth and highest level of health visiting support provided via the Healthy Child Programme. Describe what this is. (Write a short answer below.)

Ans: It is expected that the short answer will include: Ongoing support from the health visiting team and a range of local services to deal with more complex issues over a period of time. These include services from children’s centres, other community services including charities and, where appropriate, the Family Nurse Partnership. Social care services are also available, as are specialist support services for children with disabilities.

9. When is the Birth Visit carried out? a. As soon as possible after the baby is born b. Two days after the birth c. Five days after the birth d. 1014 days after the birth Ans: D

10. Which of the following is NOT an evidence-based developmental assessment tool? a. Denver Development Screening Test b. Ages and Stages Questionnaire (ASQ) c. Measure, Check, Talk (MCT) d. Schedule of Growing Skills (SOGS) Ans: C Measure, Check, Talk (MCT) is NOT an evidence-based developmental assessment tool.

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 14: Assessment and care of children and young people with acute needs 1. With reference to the traffic light system for identifying risk of serious illness in a child with a fever (NICE, 2019), which signs/symptoms would indicate high risk? a. Pallor reported by parent/carer. No smile b. Nasal flaring. Awakes only with prolonged stimulation c. Skin, lips or tongue appear pale, mottled, ashen or blue d. Normal colour. Responds normally to social cues Ans: C

2. Philip is 4 years old and has a 2-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. What signs would suggest that he is clinically dehydrated (NICE, 2009)? a. Warm extremities, decreased urine output, skin colour unchanged, sunken eyes b. Warm extremities, normal urine output, skin colour unchanged, eyes not sunken c. Decreased level of consciousness, cold extremities d. Normal skin turgor, moist mucous membranes Ans: A

3. Which is NOT a red flag for sepsis in a child? a. Raised respiratory rate for age b. Tachycardia c. Core temperature of 38°C d. Bradycardia Ans: C

4. In a child with a seizure, what drug and dosage would you give for a seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes? a. Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV or IO over 20 minutes. Max dose 2 g b. Phenobarbitone 20 mg/kg IV or IO over 5 minutes. Max dose 1 g c. Lorazepam IV/IO 0.1 mg/kg. Max dose 4 mg d. Buccal midazolam 0.5 mg/kg. Max dose 4 mg Ans: C

5. On the Glasgow Coma Scale which of the following options would give a total score of 8? a. Eyes open spontaneously. Orientated. Obeys commands b. Eyes open to sound. Confused. Localized response to pain c. Eyes do not open to verbal or painful stimuli. No response to verbal or physical stimuli d. Eyes open in response to pressure (pain) only. Incomprehensible sounds. Withdraws from pain

Ans: D

Test banks for

Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 15: Preparing children and young people for hospitalization 1. The final stage of unrelieved separation anxiety is: a. Anger b. Denial c. Protest d. Despair Ans: B

2. How could the behaviour of a child in this situation be described? a. Playful b. Naughty c. Hilarious d. Apathetic Ans: D

3. What factors about hospital care do children often find uncomfortable? a. The food b. The clowns c. The smell d. Disruption of their routine Ans: D

4. Right up to the 1970s: a. Parents’ visiting to children’s wards was restricted b. Children’s nurses were not allowed to speak to parents c. Parents were not allowed to go home d. Parents were held responsible for their child’s health problems Ans: A 5. In the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child, the term ‘promotion’ means: a. Offering children a better part-time job b. Advertising the benefits of childhood c. Aiming at improving children’s situation d. Identifying super-parents Ans: C

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

and Young People, 2e

Chapter 16: Care of children and young people in the peri- and postoperative recovery period 1. Most patients are able to undergo day case surgery unless there is a valid reason why an overnight stay would be required. Which of the following would be a valid reason? a. Difficult airway b. Extreme obesity c. Obstructive sleep apnoea d. All of these Ans: D

2. Good-quality pre-operative information provides opportunity for which of the following for the child and family? a. To provide education and establish a rapport b. To let them meet other patients c. To allow opportunity for them to play d. So they can meet the nurse who will be looking after them Ans: A

3. Play is an essential part of preparing the child for surgery. Which of the following does not provide additional challenges to preparation? a. If the child or young person has a chronic illness b. If the child or young person has a learning difficulty c. If the child or young person is young d. If the child or young person has any communication impairments Ans: C

4. When choosing a tool for assessing pain in children you must consider: a. Their age only b. Which the parents think you should use c. Cognitive development and understanding d. It doesn’t matter which tool is used Ans: C

5. When does a child become an adult? a. At the age of 16 years b. When their cognitive development is akin to that of an adult c. When they are able to consent to treatment d. At the age of 18 years Ans: D

6. A young person could give consent if they were considered what? a. Medically fit to do so b. If they have been considered Gillick competent c. They can’t as children and young people cannot give consent d. Only if the agree with their parents/guardians Ans: B

7. Observation frequency post-operatively can depend on the procedure and for complex procedures continuous monitoring should be in situ for 2 hours and if needed can be reduced. What would be considered to cause the procedure to be complex? a. Significant fluid loss b. Under 1 year of age c. Theatre time greater than 6 hours d. All of these Ans: D

8. Fasting for surgery follows the 2-4-6 rule, which is: a. 2 hours for food – 4 hours for infant, cow’s and breast milk – 6 hours for clear fluids b. 2 hours for clear fluids – 4 hours for breast milk – 6 hours for food and or infant and cow’s milk c. 2 hours for clear fluids – 4 hours for food – 6 hours for breast, infant and cow’s milk d. 2 hours for clear fluids – 4 hours for infant milk and cow’s milk and 6 hours for food Ans: B

9. When assessing or preparing the child or young person, which of the following would you need to undertake? a. Respirations b. Blood pressure c. Height and weight d. All of these Ans: D

10. When transferring to theatre, the patient can travel by a. Any means which is appropriate to them and reduces anxiety and is safe b. The agreed standard of transport method c. Must be carries by the parent d. Always on a trolley

Ans: A

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 17: Care of children and young people with respiratory problems 1. A silent chest is a. A sign that the chest is clear of infection b. A pre-terminal sign c. Seen only in young children d. A sign of improvement Ans: B

2. Approximately how many children in the UK are affected by asthma? a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 5 c. 1 in 11 d. 1 in 50 Ans: C

3. If two parents are both carriers for cystic fibrosis, what is the chance of their child being affected by the disease? a. 1 in 2 b. 1 in 3 c. 1 in 1 d. 1 in 4 Ans: D

4. Stridor is a. The drawing in of the rib cage on inspiration b. Crackling sounds heard on inspiration or expiration c. A low-pitched noise similar to snoring d. A high-pitched noise heard on inspiration Ans: D

5. Bronchiolitis is most commonly caused by which virus? a. Parainfluenza b. Haemophilus influenza c. Respiratory syncytial virus d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa Ans: C

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

and Young People, 2e

Chapter 18: Care of children and young people with cardiovascular problems Multiple choice questions 1. A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a. A hole in the wall separating the atria and the ventricles b. A hole in the wall separating the two ventricles c. A hole between the pulmonary vein and the pulmonary artery d. A hole between the ventricle and the pericardium Ans: B

2. Infective endocarditis is a. An infection of the endocardium and/or pericardium b. An infection of the valves, endocardium and/or great arteries (pulmonary artery and aorta) c. An infection of the vena cava and/or endocardium d. An infection of the heart lining and/or valves Ans: D

3. Supraventricular tachycardia originates in a. The atria b. The ventricles c. The bundle of His d. The Purkinje fibres Ans: A

4. Which of the following are common diagnostic tests in cardiology? a. Ultrasound scan, EEG and chest X-ray b. Barium enema and endoscopy c. Chest X-ray, echocardiogram and ECG d. MRI, CT scan and ECG Ans: C

5. Diuretic medication is used to a. Treat arrhythmias b. Treat infection c. Reduce clotting time d. Treat or prevent fluid retention Ans: D

Short answer questions 1. Starting with the right atrium, describe the normal flow of blood through the heart indicating where the blood is oxygenated and deoxygenated. (12 marks) Ans: Deoxygenated blood flows from the right atrium through the tricuspid valve and into the right ventricle, then through the pulmonary valve and into the pulmonary artery. From the pulmonary artery, the blood flows to the lungs where it is oxygenated and then flows through the pulmonary veins into the left atrium. From the left atrium, oxygenated blood flows through the mitral valve into the left ventricle and then through the aortic valve into the aorta, where it then travels through the body, returning to the heart via the superior

and inferior vena cava to return to the right atrium. (1 mark per correct answer in sequence to a maximum of 12 marks).

2. What is a cardiac arrythmia? (3 marks) Ans: A cardiac arrythmia means the heart is beating irregularly, or abnormally fast or abnormally slow.

3. Captopril and enalapril are two examples of ACE inhibitor medication. What does ACE stand for? (1 mark) Ans: Angiotensin-converting enzyme

4. Furosemide and spironolactone are used to treat or prevent fluid retention and heart failure in children with congenital heart disease. What type of medication is furosemide and spironolactone? (1 mark) Ans: They are both diuretics.

5. During the cardiac cycle, an impulse is initiated by the sino-atrial node which acts as the pacemaker. Explain where this impulse goes after it has been generated by the SA node.

(3 marks) Ans: The impulse travels from the SA node to the atrioventricular node (AV node), and then travels to the ventricles through the atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His) to the Purkinje fibres to cause contraction of the ventricles.

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

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Chapter 19: Care of children and young people with neurological problems 1. In patients with suspected raised ICP, the nursing care includes: a. Nursing them in the supine position with their legs elevated b. Nursing them in a 30 degree head up position c. Nursing them with the head in a midline in a 30 degree head up position d. Nursing them in the recovery position Ans: C

2. Which of the following is NOT thought to be an appropriate physical stimulus to assess a head injured child aged 7 years? a. Verbal stimulus b. Supraorbital pressure c. Applying pressure to nail bed d. Sternal rub Ans: D

3. Which type of scan would be most appropriate in the acute phase of head injury? a. MRI scan b. Ultrasound scan c. CT scan d. Skull X-ray Ans: C

4. According to the Munro-Kelly doctrine the components within the cranial vault are: a. Blood, cerebral spinal fluid and brain b. Bone, blood, cerebral spinal fluid and brain c. Meninges, blood, cerebral spinal fluid and brain d. Subarachnoid spaces, blood, cerebral spinal fluid and brain Ans: A

5. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Broca’s area is associated with the expressive aspect of speech b. Broca’s area is located in the left frontal lobe c. Broca’s area is located in the left temporal lobe d. Wernicke’s area is associated with speech and comprehension Ans: C

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

and Young People, 2e

Chapter 20: Care of children and young people with urinary and renal problems Multiple choice test yourself questions 1. What is the inner layer of the kidney called? a. Cortex b. Medulla c. Renal pelvis d. Minor calyx Ans: B

2. What is the functioning unit of the kidney called? a. Glomerulus b. Nephron c. Bowmans capsule d. Loop of Henle Ans: B

3. Where does filtration take place in the nephron? a. Distal convoluted tubule b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Bowmans capsule d. Loop of Henle Ans: C

4. Which one of these statements about anti-diuretic hormone is NOT true? a. Produced by the posterior lobe of the pituitary b. Increases permeability of the DCT and CD c. Increases reabsorption of water d. Increases urine output Ans: D

5. Aldosterone increases reabsorption of sodium, true or false?

Ans: True

6. The renin-angiotensin system causes: a. Vasodilation b. Vasoconstriction c. Increased urine output d. Decreased blood pressure Ans: B

7. The atrial-natriuretic peptide is produced by the: a. Kidney b. Heart c. Liver d. Pancreas Ans: B

8. Urine is moved down the ureters by peristalsis, true or false?

Ans: True

9. The muscle in the wall of the bladder is called: a. Detrusor b. Trigone c. Transitional d. Smooth Ans: A

10. There are valves at the vesico-ureteric junction, true or false?

Ans: True

11. Micturition is: a. The sensation of needing to pass urine b. Passing urine c. Leaking urine d. Not passing enough urine Ans: B

12. If you have cystitis, you have a urine infection, true or false?

Ans: False

13. Why is it important to weigh a CYP with a long-term renal condition? a. As an indication of fluid retention b. As an indication of dietary intake c. As an indication of disease progression d. All of these Ans: D

14. If a child has glucose in their urine, this could indicate: a. Hydronephrosis b. Haemolytic uraemic syndrome c. Diabetes mellitus d. Diabetes insipidus Ans: C

15. When caring for a CYP after surgery for a urinary condition, what should the nurse look out for? a. Decrease in urine output b. Bleeding c. Pyrexia d. All of these Ans: D

16. Why might CYP with a chronic renal condition become anaemic? a. Because the kidneys break down red blood cells b. Because they lack erythropoietin c. Because they have recurrent urine infections d. Because they have poor dietary intake Ans: B

17. Why might a CYP with a chronic renal condition develop hypertension? a. Because of the renin angiotensin system b. Because they are worried c. Because they become hypovolaemic d. Because they are in pain Ans: A

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

and Young People, 2e

Chapter 21: Care of children and young people with endocrine problems Test bank (10–20 questions) 1. What is the normal blood glucose level?

Ans: 4–7 mmol/L

2. What is hyperglycaemia?

Ans: >11.1 mmol/L

3. How and where does the pancreas fail to make insulin?

Ans: Due to autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the islets of Langerhans

4. What are the three classic signs of type 1 diabetes?

Ans: Polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss

5. Name three important members of the Diabetes multidisciplinary team

Ans: Consultant paediatrician, consultant paediatric endocrinologist, paediatric diabetes specialist nurse, paediatric dietician, clinical psychologist, social worker, adult diabetologist for joint adolescent/transition clinics, GP, school nurse, patient/parent support groups

6. What are the three periods of growth?

Ans: Infancy, childhood and puberty

7. What are the five categories for the causes of short stature? Give an example in each.

Non-pathological

Constitutional delay of growth and puberty Familial short stature Nutritional issues Emotional deprivation Intrauterine growth retardation

Intrauterine growth

Syndromes – including Russell Silver syndrome

retardation/restriction

Small for gestational age Non-syndromic

Systemic disorders

Cardiovascular disease Renal, including chronic renal failure Respiratory, including asthma and cystic fibrosis Gastrointestinal, including inflammatory bowel disease, Crohn’s, coeliac disease Neurological Psychosocial, including anorexia, child abuse and neglect

Endocrine causes

Growth hormone-related causes Growth hormone deficiency, isolated or combined with multiple pituitary hormone deficiency Growth hormone resistance Hypothyroidism Cushing’s syndrome

Exogenous steroid administration and glucocorticoid excess Chromosomal and genetic Turner syndrome causes

Noonan syndrome Down’s syndrome Skeletal dysplasia Prader-Willi syndrome

8. What is the most common reason why a child is short?

Ans: Growth hormone deficiency

9. How long would a child be on growth hormone treatment for?

Ans: Until they have stopped growing

10. What is a height velocity?

Ans: The speed in which a child is growing

11. What is the average height velocity for a child?

Ans: About 4–8 cm/year

12. What is the most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism?

Ans: Where the thyroid gland has not positioned itself where it should be from foetal development

13. Around what age is an infant tested for congenital hypothyroidism?

Ans: 5 days

14. How is congenital hypothyroidism treated?

Ans: With levothyroxine

15. What is the blood measuring in order to test for congenital hypothyroidism? What should the normal values be? Does a high or low level indicate congenital hypothyroidism?

Ans: The blood test is looking at TSH – thyroid stimulating hormone – levels.

Normal values should be between 0.27–4.20 mU/L A higher level would indicate hypothyroidism

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 22: Care of children and young people with immunological problems 1. What is innate immunity? a. Natural immune mechanisms, e.g. skin, initial response to infection b. Immunity from immunoglobulin infusions c. Immunity from vaccines d. Immunity from having an infection Ans: A

2. What is acquired immunity? a. The skin b. Regular antibiotics

c. Eating a healthy diet d. Immunity developed from disease, exposure or vaccines Ans: D

3. Which cells make immunoglobulin? a. Natural killer cells b. B lymphocytes c. Red blood cells d. Dentric cells Ans: B

4. Name a diagnosis related to the immune system? a. Severe combined immune deficiency b. Fractured femur c. Autism d. Haemophilia A Ans: A

5. In which way can human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) be transmitted when someone is not on effective treatment? a. From sharing drinks b. From kissing c. From Mum to baby during birthing and delivery d. Holding hands Ans: C

6. Without effective treatment HIV causes: a. Immune suppression due to reducing CD4 cells b. Respiratory compromise due to oedema c. Renal failure due to ongoing reflux

d. Liver failure because of HIV infection Ans: A

7. Primary immune deficiencies often: a. Have a genetic link b. Are acquired in adolescence c. Can be transmitted from other children at school d. Are linked to diet Ans: A

8. When caring for a child who requires an intravenous immunoglobulin infusion you must: a. Compete and record a spirometry test b. Take written consent from the child and parent or guardian c. Record and review baseline observations including blood pressure, temperature, heart rate and respiration rate before administration d. Ensure the child or young person has had a high protein meal before administration Ans: C

9. Along with intravenous what other common route is used to administer immunoglobulin? a. Intrathecal b. Topical c. Inhalation d. Subcutaneous Ans: D

10. Risk of anaphylaxis following administration of a vaccination is: a. One in ten b. One in a million c. One in a hundred d. One in a thousand

Ans: B

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 23: Care of children and young people with musculoskeletal problems 1. What are the main risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip in a newborn? a. Caesarean section b. Breech delivery and family history c. First born twins d. Another moulding deformity, e.g. plagiocephaly/clubfoot Ans: B

2. For how long should the child wear their abduction boots on a bar at night for when being treated for clubfoot? a. 3 months b. 2 years c. 4 years d. 6 weeks Ans: C

3. What is the main source of vitamin D? a. Oily fish b. Eggs c. Sunlight d. Vitamin D supplements Ans: C

4. A Salter Harris 2 fracture is through which part of the bone? a. The diaphysis of the bone b. The metaphysis and the physis c. The epiphysis and the physis d. The metaphysis and the epiphysis Ans: B

5. Amplified musculoskeletal pain is more commonly associated with a. Boys b. Girls c. Constricted mobility d. Hereditary Ans: B

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

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Chapter 24: Care of children and young people with haematological problems 1. What is the function of albumin? a. It contains haemoglobin which carries oxygen around the body b. It is a type of molecule that combines to form proteins c. It helps keep fluid from leaking out of your blood vessels into other tissues, and carries hormones, vitamins and enzymes throughout the body d. It is a protein that the immune system makes to fight germs, such as viruses and bacteria Ans: C

2. What is pancytopenia? a. A condition in which you lack enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to your body’s tissues b. Deficiency of all three cellular components of the blood (red cells, white cells and platelets) c. A condition that occurs when the platelet count in your blood is too low

d. An inherited bleeding disorder characterized by the deficiency of coagulation factor VIII or IX Ans: B 3. True or False  Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys white blood cells, which can lead to easy or excessive bruising and bleeding.

Ans: False It is a disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets, which can lead to easy or excessive bruising and bleeding.

4. Haemophilia, Thalassemia and sickle cell disease are: a. Usually diagnosed in adolescence b. Inherited conditions c. Treated with a bone marrow transplant d. Conditions that cause hair loss Ans: B 5. True or False  Haemoglobinopathies are a group of inherited genetic conditions caused by genetic changes in the structure and production of haemoglobin.

Ans: True

6. Without effective management sickle cell disease can lead to: a. Vitamin K deficiency b. Risk of infections, strokes, anaemia, organ damage c. An increase in platelet levels d. Increased risk of cancer Ans: B

7. Haemophilia A is caused by:

a. A mutation on the Factor IX gene on the X-chromosome b. A deficiency of von Willebrand factor c. A mutation on the Factor VIII gene on the X-chromosome d. A genetic change to alpha or beta globin chain Ans: C

8. What is required prior to a blood transfusion? a. Cross match, consent, check observations, administer any pre-meds required b. Check the patients Immunoglobulin levels c. Obtain saliva, urine and stool samples d. Obtain liver function tests, and urine and electrolytes Ans: A

9. Standard Red blood cell transfusions should be administered over: a. 30 minutes b. 56 hours c. 3060 minutes d. 24 hours Ans: D 10. True or False  Blood transfusion reactions always occur immediately after a transfusion.

Ans: False Blood transfusion reactions can only occur immediately, within 24 hours of a transfusion or more than 24 hours after a transfusion.

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

and Young People, 2e

Chapter 25: Care of children and young people with a thermal injury 1. What is the most common type of thermal injury in children? a. Flame b. Contact c. Scald d. Sun burn Ans: C

2. Burn size estimation in children is best calculated using what? a. Lund and Browder chart b. Laser doppler c. Parkland formula d. Patient body surface area Ans: A

3. How are deep dermal/full thickness burns generally managed?

a. Exposure b. Debridement and dressings c. Debridement and skin grafting d. All of these Ans: C

4. How are children with significant thermal injuries managed? a. Effective pain management b. Supplementary feeding c. Judicious fluid management d. All of these Ans: D

5. Rehabilitation after burn injury involves: a. A combination of splinting, stretching, passive and active exercises b. Sleep c. Splinting alone d. Bed rest Ans: A

Test banks for

Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 26: Care of children and young people with fluid and electrolyte imbalance Test bank (total of 25 marks) Multiple choice questions (1 mark per correct answer) 1. Fluid is routinely lost from the body through a. Passing urine, vomiting and crying b. Sleeping, sweating and running c. Breathing, talking and laughing d. Passing urine, sweating and breathing Ans: D

2. Which of the following is NOT an electrolyte? a. Sodium b. Iron c. Calcium d. Potassium Ans: B

3. Which of the following is a red flag symptom of clinical dehydration? a. Decreased urine output b. Mottled skin c. Cold extremities d. Altered responsiveness/irritability Ans: D

4. Where there are no signs of clinical dehydration, the NICE guidelines for Diarrhoea and Vomiting Caused by Gastroenteritis in Under 5’s: Diagnosis and Management (2009) recommend

a. Offering oral rehydration salts solution as supplemental fluid b. Withholding milk feeds c. Rehydrating with fruit juice and carbonated drinks d. Intravenous fluid therapy Ans: A

5. Hypernatremia is the medical term for a a. Low sodium level b. Low potassium level c. High sodium level d. High potassium level Ans: C

Short answer questions (marks vary according to each question) 1. What is homeostasis? (3 marks) Ans: Homeostasis is the maintenance of a relatively constant internal state of the body within a narrow range of variables, despite changes to the internal/external environment.

2. Holliday and Segar developed the fluid calculation formula for use in children. Complete the formula below for daily fluid allowance. (3 marks) ___ml per kg for the first 10 kg ___ml per kg for the second 10 kg ___ml per kg for subsequent kg Ans: 100 ml per kg for the first 10 kg 50 ml per kg for the second 10 kg 20 ml per kg for subsequent kg

3. Name the red flag symptoms of clinical dehydration. (6 marks) Ans: Appears to be unwell or deteriorating, altered responsiveness, sunken eyes, tachycardia, tachypnoea, reduced skin turgor

4. Broadly, what are the three causes of gastroenteritis? (3 marks) Ans: Bacterial, viral or parasitic infection

5. Name the organs/components of the renal system. (4 marks) Ans: Kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra

6. What is the name of the major functional unit of the kidney which forms urine? (1 mark) Ans: The nephron

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 27: Care of children and young people with gastrointestinal problems Test bank (total of 35 marks) Multiple choice questions – each correct answer is 1 mark.

1. What is the gastrointestinal tract? a. Everything from the mouth to the anus b. The stomach and large intestine only c. The large and small intestine only d. All internal organs

Ans: A

2. Which one of these is a disorder of the gastrointestinal tract? a. Coarctation of the aorta b. Bronchiolitis c. Intussusception d. Haemolytic uremic syndrome Ans: C

3. Gastroschisis is caused by a. Failure of midgut rotation by week 10 gestation b. Failure of the small intestine to return to the abdominal cavity by week 10 gestation, causing herniation into the umbilicus c. Incomplete closure of the abdominal wall following lateral folding of the embryo in week 4 gestation d. Incomplete separation of the foregut into separate trachea and oesophagus in week 4 gestation Ans: C

4. Which of the following is NOT an enteral feeding route? a. Nasogastric tube b. Gastrostomy c. Jejunostomy d. Colostomy Ans: D

5. Children with an ileostomy are at risk of a. Calcium depletion b. Sodium depletion c. Bicarbonate depletion

d. Potassium depletion Ans: B

Short answer questions (marks vary and are indicated next to each question) 1. Treatment for functional constipation in children is based on a three-pronged approach.

Name each of the stages (prongs). (3 marks) Ans: Disimpaction, parent and child education and maintenance therapy

2. You are caring for an 8-year-old child post appendectomy. What nursing care should you consider? (6 marks) Ans: Pain assessment and management, vital signs observations, management of fluid and electrolyte balance/management of IV infusion if nil by mouth, wound care, mobilization, reintroduction of diet and fluid

3. Briefly describe the passage of food through the gastrointestinal tract, starting from the moment food enters the mouth. (12 marks) Ans: From the mouth, food enters the oesophagus and then the stomach through the cardiac sphincter. Food, now digested into chyme, leaves the stomach through the pyloric sphincter and enters the duodenum, the jejunum and then the ileum. Chyme passes through the ileocaecal valve into the caecum and then enters the ascending colon. The chyme now becomes faeces and moves through the transverse colon, the descending colon and the sigmoid colon before entering the rectum. From the rectum, the faeces enters the anal canal and is expelled via the anus. (1 mark per correct answer in sequence to a maximum of 12 marks)

4. The foregut, midgut and hindgut are the three portions of the primitive gut which forms the digestive tract. In the table below, identify which portion develops into which organs. (3 marks) A=?

Lower section of duodenum, jejunum, ileum, caecum, appendix, ascending colon and two-thirds of the transverse colon

B=?

One-third of the transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, anal canal, epithelium of the bladder and most of the urethra

C=?

Pharynx, lower respiratory system, oesophagus, stomach, upper section of duodenum, liver, biliary ducts, gallbladder and pancreas

Ans: A = midgut; B = hindgut; C = foregut

5. Threadworms are common in children and transmission is particularly easy. Explain how transmission of threadworms can occur. (3 marks) Ans: Threadworms lay their eggs around the anus, which causes itching. When the child scratches, the eggs are transferred to the fingers and transmitted via hand-to-mouth contact.

6. Name the accessory digestive organs  the organs which are not part of the gastrointestinal tract, but contribute directly to the digestive process. (3 marks) Ans: Liver, gallbladder and pancreas

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 28: Discharge planning and transfer for children and young people Quiz – Test knowledge 1. What are the fundamental principles of discharge? a. Assessment, communication, knowledge sharing b. Assess, plan, implement and evaluate c. Situation, background, assessment, recommendation d. Communication, knowledge sharing, planning Ans: A

2. What is a simple discharge? a. Child discharged home the same day as admitted to hospital b. A child is discharged home with simple care needs c. No professionals need to be involved in discharge d. A child is discharged home with a chronic illness or exceptional needs Ans: B

3. What is a complex discharge? a. A child is discharged home with simple health needs b. A Large MDT meeting must take place before discharge takes place c. A child is discharged home with a chronic illness or has exceptional needs with parents providing 24-hour care d. Parents not happy to be discharged home from hospital Ans: C

4. Why is there an increase in inter-hospital transfers? a. Because of the needs to provide tertiary services regionally b. Because more children are becoming unwell c. Lack of beds

d. Lack of staff to look after patients Ans: A

Short answer questions 1. List the principles of discharge planning?

Ans: Discuss the difference between discharge and transfer.

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 29: Care of highly dependent and critically ill children and young people 1. These are the most essential bed-side equipment for all critical care admissions: a. Wall suction, fluids, EtCO2 monitor, Guedel airway, ambu-bag, face-mask b. ECG, yankuer suction, ambu-bag, suction catheter, Guedel airway c. Wall suction, yankuer suction, soft suction catheters, ambu-bag, Guedel airway, face-mask d. Yankuer suction, ambu-bag, nurse, drugs, wall suction, suction catheters Ans: C

2. In an airway emergency, DOPES stands for a. Displacement, obstruction, patient, ETT, stomach b. Displacement, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment, stomach

c. Displacement, obstruction, pale, ETT, stomach d. Drowsy, obstruction, pale, equipment, stomach Ans: B

3. Which of these assessments are non-invasive? a. GCS, behaviour, central venous pressure b. GCS, central venous pressure, pulse rate c. Capillary refill time, heart rate, central venous pressure d. Pulse rate, pulse volume, capillary refill time Ans: D

4. In the deteriorating child a flash capillary refill time shows: a. Low cardiac output and vasoconstriction b. High cardiac output and vasodilation c. High cardiac output and vasoconstriction d. Low cardiac output and vasodilation Ans: B

5. Cardiac output in the deteriorating child can be optimized with: a. Fluids only b. Drugs only c. Antibiotics d. Fluids and drugs Ans: D

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

and Young People, 2e

Chapter 30: Care of the neonate 1. Neonatology is care given to a baby when? a. In the first week of life b. In the first four weeks of life c. Immediately after birth d. In the first six weeks of life Ans: B

2. Care which provides babies who are most unwell or unstable and have the greatest needs in relation to staff skills and staff to patient ratios is known as: a. Intensive care b. High dependency c. Special care d. Transitional care Ans: A

3. The part of the brain that is responsible in regulating body temperature is: a. Midbrain

b. Pons c. Medulla oblongata d. Hypothalamus Ans: D

4. Transepidermal water loss may be decreased by: a. Use of a radiant warmer b. High ambient temperature c. Decreased humidity d. Use of a plastic film ‘blanket’ Ans: D

5. All of the following are signs of respiratory distress in the neonate except: a. Grunting b. Recession c. Nasal flaring d. Acrocyanosis Ans: D

6. All of the following are consequences of neonatal infection in the neonate except: a. Meningitis b. Septicaemia c. Periventricular haemorrhage d. Disseminated intravascular coagulation Ans: C

7. Gastric decompression in a baby with diaphragmatic hernia is performed to: a. Prepare the infant for surgery b. Prevent aspiration pneumonia c. Prepare the infant for enteral feeding

d. Prevent distension of the abdominal contents in the thoracic cavity of swallowed air and impacting further on lung function Ans: D

8. The most important clinical factor associated with retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is: a. Prematurity b. Hypoxia c. Blood transfusion d. Hyperoxia Ans: A

9. Lisa is visiting her 26-week preterm infant Kasia on the NICU today for the first time.

How can you provide her with a positive experience in the NICU environment? a. Focus only on the critical aspects of Kasia’s care b. Discuss Kasia’s care with her, conveying a positive and realistic attitude about Kasia’s condition c. Find a doctor to speak to her d. Leave Stefania to visit and provide her privacy Ans: B

10. Which one of the following factors is most likely to lead to inadequate motherinfant bonding? a. Postnatal depression b. Failure to attend antenatal classes c. Antenatal counselling after foetal abnormality diagnosed d. Elective caesarean section Ans: A

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

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Chapter 31: Care of children and young people with a malignant condition Testing knowledge 1. Childhood cancer treatment protocols are drawn together by the: a. GMC b. NMC c. RCN d. CCLG Ans: D

2. Thrombocytopenia refers to: a. Reduction of red blood cells b. Reduction of white blood cells c. Reduction of platelets d. Reduction of neutrophils Ans: C

3. Cytotoxic drugs cause side effects because: a. They affect all rapidly dividing cells b. They affect all body cells c. They are carcinogenic d. They kill only cancer cells Ans: A

4. Which of the following is NOT a long-term effect of chemotherapy: a. Infertility b. Nausea c. Growth retardation d. Secondary cancers Ans: B

5. The diagnosis of a stage 4 tumour indicates the growth (or tumour) a. Is localized b. Has some but minimal spread c. Is benign d. Has spread widely Ans: D

Short answer questions a. Consider the disease process, what would the common presentation features of leukaemia in childhood? b. List the common side effects of chemotherapy. c. What diagnostic tests are undertaken with a child who has a suspected cancer? Consider how the nurse would support the child and family? d. Discuss how you would manage and address the needs of 

3-year-old with a Hickman line



15-year-old boy with an implantable port

Answers to activities and short answer questions a. Presenting features of leukaemia Some symptoms may be vague, appear innocuous and be associated with less serious conditions.

Recurrent infections over a number of weeks – e.g. sore throat, coughs and colds.

Temperatures, due to infection. Bruising and bleeding, pallor and lethargy. Aches and pains and a reluctance to weight bear/walk. There may be abdominal swelling. There may be respiratory symptoms if the individual has a chest mass.

There may also be weight loss, and a general feeling by the parents that their child ‘is just not their usual self’.

b. Short-term side effects Bone marrow suppression therefore anaemia, thrombocytompenia and leucopenia.

Hair loss, mucositis. Nausea and vomiting, constipation/diarrhoea, taste changes. Skin sensitivity to sun. Organ toxicity e.g. kidney, liver, heart. Fatigue Certain drugs may have specific side effects e.g. haemorrhagic cystitis Long-term side effects Organ toxicity, on-going bone marrow suppression, growth limitation, sub fertility, secondary cancers

c. Diagnostic tests Depending on the site e.g. tumour or leukaemia Blood tests, X-ray, ultrasound, CT, MRI scan, bone scan, bone marrow aspiration, lumbar puncture, biopsy Acknowledge that every family is different and there is no right or wrong way of them dealing with this situation Explanations about tests and investigations and answering questions. Allow them time and opportunity to ask questions. Written information as well as verbal. Age-appropriate information for children – involve play workers, use pictures or toys to aid explanation.

Identify when families may be struggling and require additional support; ascertain the best way to provide this. Direct them to additional information resources e.g. CCLG website.

Accompany them to other departments as appropriate when having investigations, to provide support.

d. 3-year-old with Hickman line Utilize the play team, use models, pictures, dolls etc., maybe even introduce to another patient. Let the child play and handle a line, use age-appropriate language/discussion with them. Involve the family so they too are informed and can continue discussions as appropriate. Encourage questions, reiterate information and ascertain understanding.

OR Parent information of how to care for the line, flushing, dressing etc., involve CCNs as appropriate. Provide emergency care kit in case of problems but encourage family to contact unit if any problems. Encourage child to not play with it and keep it dry; possible use of a ‘wiggley’ bag (small bag that hangs round neck to sit the end of the line in) to help keep it safe and clean. Use toys and pictures to explain what it is and how it works.

15-year-old with implantable port Show him a port and needle and discuss position and how it works/is used, use pictures and maybe introduce to another patient who has one to ask questions. Encourage him to think how it might affect his day-to-day living.

OR Possible use of numbing cream prior to access. Explanations of how it works and what is involved when it needs accessing/de-accessing. Remind him to let staff know if any concerns, discomfort redness, swelling etc. Allow him some control over procedures e.g. counting 1, 2, 3 before access.

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

and Young People, 2e

Chapter 32: Care of children and young people with lifelimiting illness Test knowledge MCQ quiz 1. Name the first children’s hospice opened in the UK in the early 1980s. a. Henry’s House b. Deborah’s Hospice c. Hospice House for Children d. Helen House Ans: D

2. What is a life-limiting illness? a. A medical condition where affected children have complex needs b. A medical condition which limits the child’s abilities c. A medical condition which limits the child’s life expectancy to childhood so they are unlikely to reach adulthood d. An illness which makes a child very ill

Ans: C

3. Which of the options below best describes the professional team involved with caring for life-limited children and their families? a. Multi-professional, interagency teams working collaboratively b. Consultants and doctors c. Counsellors d. Play and music therapists Ans: A

4. Is safeguarding policy relevant to caring for a life-limited child? a. Safeguarding policy is rarely relevant for this group of children b. Safeguarding policy is less important because care for this group of children is always of a high standard c. Safeguarding policy is essential to all children in all care settings d. Life-limited children rarely experience abuse or neglect Ans: C

5. Is health promotion an important aspect of care in children’s hospices? a. Health promotion is part of the ethos of children’s hospices to support children and families’ wellbeing and holistic needs b. Children’s hospices only provide end- of-life care not health promotion c. Health promotion is relevant to children’s hospice care for families but not the children d. Children’s hospices only offer symptom management Ans: A 6. Agree Disagree challenge – Aim to test knowledge and generate debate (could be done on mentimeter) 

Palliative care and EOL care are the same thing



Care of children with life-limiting conditions requires a total active approach



Numbers of children requiring with a life-limiting condition are increasing in the UK



Hospices are where children go to die



Palliative care starts when curative treatment fails

Ans: 

Palliative care and EOL care are the same thing – False



Care of children with life-limiting conditions requires a total active approach – True



Numbers of children requiring with a life-limiting condition are increasing in the UK  True



Hospices are where children go to die  False



Palliative care starts when curative treatment fails  False

7. ‘Classify the condition’ Consider the classification of each of the conditions listed. Are they life-threatening or lifeLife-threatening Medulloblastoma Edwards syndrome Cystic fibrosis Cardiac disease Spinal muscular atrophy Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia limiting. Tick the correct column.

Life-limiting

Responses

Life-threatening

Medulloblastoma

Treatment available

Edwards syndrome

Life-limiting

No treatment currently available

Cystic fibrosis

Outcomes are improving and children are living into adulthood

Cardiac disease

Treatment available

Spinal muscular atrophy

No treatment currently available

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

Treatment available

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 33: Care of children and young people at the end of life Testing knowledge 1. A child nearing the end of life will be unlikely to present with which one of the following traits: a. Shallow breathing b. Bright eyes c. Weakness d. Mottled skin colour Ans: B

2. Which of the following is a problem-solving coping strategy? a. A parent sharing their fears with another parent on the ward b. A mum pouring out her worries to her community nurse about her child’s condition c. A dad going to a counsellor d. A dad organizing the furniture in the child’s bedroom to enable the hospital bed to fit when the child comes home to die Ans: D

3. Which is the most common symptom occurring in children at the end-of-life? a. Nausea b. Vomiting c. Pain d. Change of appearance Ans: C

4. Symptom management is usually given via which route if the child is unable to take it orally? a. Intra muscular

b. Sub buccal c. Sub cutaneous d. Intra nasal Ans: C

5. What observation listed below is NOT regularly used when assessing pain in a non-verbal child? a. Self-report tool b. Facial expression c. Mood d. Posture Ans: A

6. What are the advantages/disadvantages of EOL care/place of death being in the child’s own home?

Ans: Advantages: 

Provides a sense of security and normality. Child is cared for in a familiar environment. Surrounded by their family, their favourite possessions and even their pets.



Provides the opportunity for all family members to be present and assist with care



More privacy



May allow more opportunity to include important spiritual and cultural needs

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Parents feel they have more control in caring for their child

Disadvantages 

Can be very isolating



The physical and emotional burden of care

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Managing difficult symptoms can be challenging

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Don’t have immediate access to health professionals

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Can often be overwhelmed with attending to medical care and not enough time to be a parent

7. What is parallel planning in EOL care?

Ans: Advance plan discussions can begin early to help families to think about future decisions.

Often involves exploring what is important. These discussions don’t need to occur when the child is dying and can occur while child is still having medical treatment. For example when you think of the future what is most important, what are your hopes and what are your fears.

8. What is advance care planning in EOL care?

Ans: Advance care planning is ‘a process of discussions between families and health care providers about preferences for care, treatments and goals in the context of the child’s current and anticipated future health’ (Spicer et al. 2015). The aim is to explore the overall goal of medical care, and the interventions that should and should not be provided. This will guide current treatment, as well as future treatment in the event of a deterioration in the child’s condition. In most cases these are discussions that evolve and progress over time. It is very important to remember that advance care planning is a process and some parents may not wish to plan ahead of time, you can only offer the opportunity to discuss.

Reference Spicer, S., MacDonald, M.E., Davies, D., Vadeboncoeur, C. and Siden, H. (2015) ‘Introducing a lexicon of terms for paediatric palliative care’. Paediatric Child Health, 20: 155–6.

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

and Young People, 2e

Chapter 34: Care of children and young people with learning disabilities 1. Downs Syndrome most commonly results from: a. An extra chromosome attached to chromosome 23 b. A chromosome missing in pair 21 c. Chromosome 21 missing d. An extra chromosome attached to chromosome 21 Ans: D

2. Which of the following statements best describes children with an ASD? a. More boys than girls are diagnosed with autism b. Autism is a lifelong condition c. Children with autism have difficulties in social interaction and communication d. All children with autism need special education services Ans: A, B, C

3. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Having a learning disability can be used to describe children who have dyspraxia b. Having a learning disability can be used to describe children who have dyslexia c. Having a learning disability can be used to describe all children who have an autistic spectrum disorder d. Having a learning disability can be used to describe children who have Rett Syndrome Ans: D

4. Which of the following statements is true? a. A child’s EHCP aims to coordinate all service provision b. A child’s EHCP is designed to encourage the child and family to make use of what services are available c. A child’s EHCP should reflect the expressed wishes of the child and their family d. All of these Ans: D

5. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Cerebral palsy always results from a chromosomal mutation b. Cerebral palsy may result from perinatal stroke c. Cerebral palsy may result from meningitis during the brain’s early development d. Cerebral palsy may result from a baby being born very prematurely Ans: A

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

and Young People, 2e

Chapter 35: Care of children and young people with mental health issues Multiple choice questions 1. What percentage of children do not receive the appropriate intervention at a sufficiently early age? a. 20% b. 50% c. 70% d. 90% Ans: C

2. In any one year, what percentage of adolescents are likely to experience mental health problems? a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40%

Ans: B

3. By what percentage did the pandemic increase the prevalence of anxiety and depression in children and young people? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% Ans: B

4. What is the most common anxiety disorder experienced by children and young people? a. Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) b. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) c. Social anxiety/phobia d. Panic disorder Ans: C

5. What interpersonal skills are best implemented by children’s nurses to support a child or adolescent with mental health difficulties? a. Judgement and predetermination b. Familiarity and kindness c. Using several questionnaires to determine the mental health difficulties d. Active listening and respecting the child or young persons lived experience Ans: D

6. What age range does Gillick competency cover? a. Under 16 years of age b. 1316 years of age c. 1016 years of age d. Under 18 years of age

Ans: A

7. What was autistic spectrum disorder historically incorrectly categorized as? a. Childhood disability b. Anxiety disorder c. Childhood schizophrenia d. Selective mutism Ans: C

8. What are the indicated interventions for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? a. Parenting programmes and medication b. Rigid boundary setting and time out c. Habit reversal training d. Dialectical behavioural therapy (DBT) Ans: A

9. What is the most prevalent diagnostic criteria for someone experiencing Bulimia Nervosa? a. Weight loss b. Binging and purging c. Body checking d. Food restriction Ans: B

10. What treatment is indicated for children and young people who hear voices? a. Family therapy b. Dialectical behavioural therapy c. Parenting therapy d. Cognitive behavioural therapy Ans: D

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

and Young People, 2e

Chapter 36: Leadership and management in children and young people’s nursing 1. What is the main difference between leadership and management in healthcare? a. Leadership is about organizing and maintaining resources and information, while management is about inspiring and empowering people b. Leadership is a one-way process while management is a two-way dynamic process c. Leadership involves developing followers and being visionary, while management is about ensuring the healthcare system is running smoothly d. Managers always have recognized authority and responsibility for the direct work of others, while leaders do not Ans: C

2. What is the NHS Leadership Academy Healthcare Leadership Model? a. A model outlining the hierarchy of leadership roles in healthcare b. A model outlining the necessary behaviours for a positive and effective NHS leadership style c. A model outlining the required intelligence levels for healthcare leaders

d. A model outlining the qualifications and experience required for leadership roles in healthcare Ans: B

3. Which leadership style works collaboratively through consultation? a. Autocratic b. Democratic c. Laissez-faire d. Bureaucratic Ans: B

4. Which leadership style empowers followers and recognizes the importance of leaders also being followers? a. Autocratic b. Democratic c. Servant d. Bureaucratic Ans: C

5. What is the collective style of leadership and how does it differ from heroic styles? a. Collective leadership involves shared power and responsibility for leading the organization, while heroic styles rely on individual power and authority b. Collective leadership involves empowering individuals to lead and advocate for safe practice, while heroic styles focus on individual leadership c. Collective leadership involves delegating leadership based on knowledge, competence and motivation, while heroic styles are autocratic d. Collective leadership involves a non-directive approach to leadership, while heroic styles involve controlling and directive leadership Ans: A

6. What does the Care Quality Commission (2018) state about the role of leadership and management in determining care outcomes? a. Leadership and management have no significant influence on care outcomes b. Leadership and management have a positive influence on care outcomes but are not the most significant factor c. The Care Quality Commission has not made any statements about the role of leadership and management in determining care outcomes d. Leadership and management have a negative influence on care outcomes if ineffective Ans: D

7. What attributes are most important to children and young people’s perceptions of care quality according to Comparcini et al. (2018)? a. Evidence-based practice, safety and efficiency b. Kindness, honesty and empathy c. Accountability, transparency and collective responsibility d. Inclusivity, diversity and cultural competence Ans: B

8. What are some leadership and management styles that have been shown to be beneficial for positive care outcomes, according to research and practice? a. Authoritarian and bureaucratic b. Competitive and individualistic c. Laissez-faire and transactional d. Adaptive, transformational, servant, authentic and collective Ans: D

9. What is the importance of leading with compassion in healthcare leadership? a. It supports social justice and equity in healthcare b. It promotes competition among colleagues and teams c. It helps maintain professional boundaries with patients and families

d. It is not important for healthcare leadership Ans: A

10. What is the importance of self-compassion in nursing leadership? a. It allows nurses to be more assertive and dominant in their leadership style b. It enables nurses to prioritize the needs of the organization over their own needs c. It helps nurses to sustainably and authentically support others d. It encourages nurses to be emotionally detached from their patients Ans: C

11. What is emotional intelligence and how can it be enhanced in nursing? a. Emotional intelligence is the ability to perceive and manage others’ emotions, and it can be enhanced through the provision of regular rewards and recognition b. Emotional intelligence is the ability to perceive, understand, manage and influence emotion to guide individual thinking, feeling and behaviours. It can be enhanced through self-reflection and feedback, as well as caring communication skills development c. Emotional intelligence is the ability to identify and regulate one’s own emotions, and it can be enhanced through the provision of empathy and kindness to others d. Emotional intelligence is the ability to respond to challenges in a calm and rational way, and it can be enhanced through the provision of more training and education on technical skills Ans: B

12. What is the key to successful teamwork according to West et al. (2015)? a. Maintaining staff motivation b. Having a competent team leader c. Having a diverse group of individuals d. Understanding the requirements of the work, team and individuals Ans: D

13. What is the significance of having effective role models during the student and qualified nurse journey? a. They ensure that students and qualified nurses receive adequate training b. They help in the identification of senior positions within nursing c. They influence the organizational culture and promote interprofessional responsibility d. They improve the quality of healthcare systems Ans: C

14. What is the importance of inclusive teams in nursing? a. Inclusive teams are more efficient in completing tasks b. Inclusive teams help nurses in developing their leadership skills c. Inclusive teams create a psychologically safe environment for nurses d. Inclusive teams reduce the number of errors made by nurses Ans: C

15. What are the five conflict management styles cited by Barr and Dowding (2019) in the nursing literature? a. Competing, compromising, collaborating, avoiding and accommodating b. Resolving, deflecting, ignoring, conceding and avoiding c. Collaborating, accommodating, delegating, competing and ignoring d. Confronting, compromising, de-escalating, accommodating and avoiding Ans: A

16. What is the NHS England Change Model and why is it important for nurses to use when implementing change in healthcare services? a. A model developed to promote resistance to change in healthcare services b. A model designed to support nurses in avoiding change in healthcare services c. A systematic framework for nurses to use when planning and implementing change in healthcare services

d. A model that emphasizes the importance of individual values over collective values when implementing change in healthcare services Ans: C

17. What are some key strategies for engaging in and managing difficult conversations as a children and young people’s nurse, according to nursing literature? a. Being aggressive and confrontational, using personal attacks to assert your point b. Demonstrating kindness and respect, finding commonality, addressing the issue not the person, controlling emotions, being direct, factual, consistent and persistent, and following policy for escalation or intermediary support as required c. Avoiding the conversation altogether and hoping the issue resolves itself d. Using humour and sarcasm to lighten the mood and diffuse tension Ans: B

18. What is innovation in healthcare? a. The implementation of new technologies only b. The introduction of new services or systems for improvement c. The hiring of more staff for better patient care d. The maintenance of the status quo Ans: B

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children

and Young People, 2e

Chapter 37: Lifelong learning and continuing professional development for the children and young people’s nurse Short answer questions within chapter 

In a healthcare climate where there are shortages of nurses and employers are finding it difficult to retain the nurses that they have, what would motivate you to remain in an organization?



What would motivate you to undertake CPD as a nurse?



Can you think of an example of evidence-based practice that has changed since you started nursing? This does not need to be specialist research; it could be something quite straightforward such as the research behind the importance of hand washing but still makes a big difference to how we practice.



What? What did you study or, perhaps more accurately, what did you learn? What was the easiest thing about this learning experience or what did you enjoy the most during the time you were learning? Conversely, what was hardest or most challenging about the learning experience?



So what? How are you using what you learnt in your practice today?



What next? Have you shared the knowledge you learnt with anyone else – taught other students or perhaps the child or their family? How will you continue to develop and build on what you learnt?

MCQ 1. Which of the examples below can be used as evidence of CPD for NMC revalidation? a. Mandatory training b. Clinical supervision c. University modules or full courses d. Peer review of a journal article e. All of these Ans: E

2. Out of the examples in question 1 which could be seen by the NMC as participatory (P) and which are individual (I)? a. Mandatory training P b. Clinical supervision P c. University modules or full courses P d. Peer review of a journal article I Ans: P – a,b,c I-d

3. Which of the following are examples of learning styles? a. Active b. Reflective c. Sensing d. Intuitive e. Visual f. Verbal g. Sequential

h. Global i. All of these Ans: I

4. Why is CPD important in children’s nursing? a. To use the best evidence to inform our practice b. Ongoing CPD means that we are aware of the changing and dynamic nature of nursing children c. Both of these Ans: C

Test banks for Price et al.: Essentials of Nursing Children and Young People, 2e

Chapter 38: Decision-making and accountability in children and young people’s nursing 1. Arguably what are the spheres of accountability for the children’s nurse? a. Statute law, public law, tort law, employment law b. Statute law, tort law, criminal law, employment law c. Public law, criminal law, employment law, family law d. Public law, tort law, family law, education law

Ans: A

2. Which decision-making theory describes the process of pattern recognition? a. Clinical decision-making model b. Intuitive–humanistic model c. Ethical decision-making model d. Information processing model Ans: B

3. Who ultimately has the final decision when a collaborative healthcare decision cannot be made for a child or young person? a. Parents b. Child or young person c. Medical team d. Courts Ans: D

4. What are the stages nurses undertake when using the information processing model for decision making? a. Hypothesis generation, cue recognition, cue interpretation, hypothesis evaluation b. Cue recognition, hypothesis generation, cue interpretation, hypothesis evaluation c. Cue recognition, cue interpretation, hypothesis generation, hypothesis evaluation d. Hypothesis generation, cue recognition, hypothesis evaluation, cue recognition Ans: B

5. Which decision-making model identifies pattern recognition as an essential element of clinical decision-making? a. Information processing model b. Clinical decision-making model c. Intuitive–humanistic model

d. Answers b and c Ans: D