Test Bank for Essentials of Marketing Research, 6th Edition By Joseph Hair, David Ortinau and Dana E

TesT Bank For Essentials of Marketing Research, 6th Edition By Joseph Hair, David Ortinau and Dana E. Harrison Chapter 1-13

Answers are at the End of Each Chapter

Chapter 1

Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following is true of marketing research?

A) It draws heavily on the social sciences both for methods and theory.

B) It is exclusively used by large businesses.

C) It solely relies on quantitative techniques.

D) It solely relies on qualitative techniques.

E) It involves management of the activities in a supply chain to maximize product value.

2) Which of the following do companies rely on to manage consumers’ data such as interactions

throughout all touchpoints and purchase behavior?

A) data interpretation/information management systems B) facial recognition systems C) customer relationship management systems D) data warehouse management systems E) market intelligence systems

3) Test marketing ________.

A) identifies two or more segments within the market for a particular company's

products B) provides information for decisions on product improvements and new-product introductions C) includes choosing and evaluating locations, channels, and distribution partners D) focuses on database development through optical scanning at the point of purchase E) involves understanding how one's target consumers behave as shoppers, in different channels and formats, and leveraging this intelligence to the benefit of all stakeholders

4) Zephyr Corp. manufactures air purifiers. It comes up with an idea for a new range of air

purifiers called alpha purifiers. Before launching the range of purifiers, Zephyr lets some people try out the product and then collects feedback from them to identify any problems with it. Which of the following is best exemplified in this scenario?

A) curbstoning B) concept testing C) perceptual mapping D) behavioral targeting E) branded "black-box" methodology

5) Which of the following is a technique that is used to picture the relative position of products

on two or more product dimensions important to consumers' purchase decisions?

A) retailing wheel B) optical scanning C) store image studies D) perceptual mapping E) behavioral targeting

6) Apex Corp. asks its consumers to determine how they perceive the similarities and

dissimilarities among relevant product attributes for a group of competing brands. In this case, Apex Corp. is most likely using the technique of ________.

A) concept testing B) behavioral targeting C) perceptual mapping D) bivariate regression analysis E) analysis of variance (ANOVA)

7) A new supermarket, The Deluxe Mart, collates its sales data using scanners at the point of

purchase. It uses this data to identify the products to stock and the type of content and media to use to attract customers. In this scenario, The Deluxe Mart is most likely using A) perceptual mapping.

B) test marketing.

C) retailing research.

D) logistical assessment.

E) concept testing.

8) Sally browses through different articles featured on Pop.com. She notices ads for skirts that

she recently viewed on Trendz.com, an online apparel store, being displayed on Pop.com. In this scenario, Trendz.com is using the technique of ________.

A) perceptual mapping B) test marketing C) behavioral targeting D) theoretical sampling E) concept positioning

9) Marketing to consumers based on research of the entire process consumers go through when

making a purchase is termed A) shopper marketing.

B) behavioral targeting.

C) retailing research.

D) test marketing.

E) a benefit and lifestyle study.

10) The three most common research tasks in integrated marketing communications are

advertising effectiveness studies, sales tracking, and A) in-store traffic patterns.

B) attitudinal research.

C) location analysis.

D) trade area analysis.

E) store image studies.

11) Research shows that the typical Saturn dirt bike shopper is a middle-aged person with an

income of $75,000 per annum. This is an example of A) positioning research.

B) retailing research.

C) focus group research.

D) market segmentation research.

E) pricing strategy research.

12) In the context of marketing research, which of the following can highlight problems and

opportunities for marketers that are based on consumers' actual behavior?

A) deanonymizing data B) situation analysis C) curbstoning D) sugging E) ethnography

13) In the context of the types of marketing research firms, external research suppliers A) are chosen by companies to help gain greater flexibility.

B) perform very few aspects of marketing research.

C) are more subject to company politics and regulations than are internal suppliers.

D) are less objective than are internal suppliers.

E) provide specialized, highly tailored services for a few aspects of the research.

14) Services provided by standardized research firms that include data made or developed from a

common data pool or database are called ________ services.

A) debriefed B) syndicated business C) customized D) highly tailored E) branded "black-box"

15) Aura Inc. is a research firm that conducts store audits for a variety of retail stores. It follows

an established, common approach in research design so the results of a study conducted for one client can be compared to norms from studies done for other clients. In the context of the types of marketing research firms, Aura Inc. is a(n) ________.

A) customized research firm B) internal research provider C) standardized research firm D) specialty market research firm E) brokerage firm

16) The practice of data collection personnel filling out surveys for fake respondents is called

________.

A) sugging B) frugging C) curbstoning D) debriefing E) deanonymizing data

17) Which of the following illustrates the abuse of respondents in marketing research?

A) selling unnecessary or unwarranted research services B) not providing the promised incentive for completing interviews or questionnaires C) having friends and relatives fill out surveys D) not using the designated sample of respondents but rather anyone who is conveniently

available to complete a survey E) revealing one's clients to the respondents

18) The process of fully explaining to respondents any deception that was used during research is

known as ________.

A) the practice of sugging B) the practice of frugging C) rocking-chair interviewing D) subject debriefing E) deanonymizing data

19) Which of the following is always ethical in marketing research practices?

A) sugging B) frugging C) rocking-chair interviewing D) subject debriefing E) deanonymizing data

Frugging means

F) claiming that a survey is for research purposes and then asking for a sale or donation.

G) fully explaining to respondents any deception that was used during research.

H) having data collection personnel fill out surveys for fake respondents.

I) combining different publicly available information on the Internet to determine

consumers' identities.

J) conducting research below professional standards.

20) Which of the following is true of frugging?

A) It occurs when research firms do not fully disclose how the methodology works.

B) It creates a negative impact on the entire industry.

C) It must be conducted at the end of any study involving deception.

D) It occurs when anyone who is conveniently available completes a survey.

E) It occurs when different publicly available information is combined to determine

consumers' identities.

21) Which of the following is true of the guidelines developed by the Marketing Research

Association (MRA) for Internet marketing research issues?

A) They state that researchers must deanonymize data on the Internet by combining different publicly available records available at social networks.

B) They encourage the use of digital technologies such as GPS as they do not result in privacy-related issues.

C) They do not allow clickstream tracking.

D) They prohibit the use of cookies.

E) They state that researchers must discontinue follow-up e-mails if requested to by respondents.

22) Which of the following is an unethical practice of research users?

A) requesting detailed research proposals from research providers with the intention of

selecting a firm to conduct the research B) using the designated sample of respondents instead of using anyone who is available to complete a survey C) obtaining first drafts of questionnaires from research providers and using the information to perform the research project themselves D) prohibiting market researchers from deanonymizing data E) using clickstream tracking after removing any identifying information from the data file

23) Which of the following pertains to geofencing?

A) It applies only to small places such as a toy store.

B) It is particularly helpful with collecting data from older adults.

C) It is a fence that is placed around a location in a virtual world.

D) It uses location-based applications to collect data from customers.

E) It applies only to large places such as cities.

24) ________ uses data, statistics, mathematics, and technology to solve marketing business

problems while relying on enhanced computer processing power, knowledge of mathematical modeling, computer programming skills, and access to specialized software packages.

A) Behavioral targeting B) Perceptual mapping C) Marketing analytics D) Retailing research E) Shopper marketing

25) In addition to understanding the availability, collection, and management of data, marketers

also must program computer systems that store big data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

26) Marketing research methods are diverse, spanning a wide variety of qualitative and

quantitative techniques and borrowing from disciplines such as psychology, sociology, and anthropology. ⊚ true ⊚ false

27) Marketers are interested in consumer subcultures, as products are often used to enact and

support subculture participation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

28) The process of identifying people or markets a company wants to serve is called positioning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

29) In the field of marketing research, analytics exclusively uses qualitative techniques to

determine performance of a given program. ⊚ true ⊚ false

30) Creating customer profiles and understanding behavioral characteristics are major focuses of

any marketing research project. ⊚ true ⊚ false

31) The purpose of marketing theory is to generalize relationships between concepts in a way

that is applicable to a wide variety of business and often other settings. ⊚ true ⊚ false

32) The benefits of using internal marketing research providers include research method

consistency, shared information across the company, lower research costs, and ability to produce actionable research results. ⊚ true ⊚ false

33) Many companies use internal research suppliers because the suppliers can be more objective

and less subject to company politics and regulations than external suppliers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

34) As marketing research firms expand their geographic scope, many fundamental skill

requirements will change and negotiation skills will be replaced by statistical skills. ⊚ true ⊚ false

35) Individuals who are logical and perceptive about human emotions and like analysis of data

will find marketing research to be a rewarding career. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36) Research firms are required to maintain client confidentiality. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) If a client is unable to get sufficient insight into the strengths and weaknesses of a branded

testing method prior to purchase from a marketing research supplier, the client can choose another supplier. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) Subject debriefing means claiming that a survey is for research purposes and then asking for

a sale or donation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) Frugging leads to consumers turning down legitimate research inquiries because they do not

want to be solicited. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) While cookies are usually designed to maintain consumer privacy with respect to identity at

least, they still nevertheless collect and utilize consumer data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) The Marketing Research Association (MRA) guidelines prohibit clickstream tracking. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) Black-box methodologies offered by research firms provide detailed information about how a

methodology works and are not proprietary. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) The Statement of Ethics for the American Marketing Association applies to all marketing

functions, including research. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) One of the recent trends in the marketing research industry is movement away from a data

interpretation environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Define marketing research. Describe the advantages of marketing research.

46) How does marketing research impact pricing decisions?

47) Explain the different types of marketing research firms.

48) What are the key skills that recruiters look for in candidates for marketing researcher

positions?

49) What are some of the major emerging trends in the field of marketing research?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) A 2) C 3) B 4) B 5) D 6) C 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) D 12) E 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) B 18) D

19) D 20) A 21) B 22) E 23) C 24) D 25) C 26) FALSE 27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) FALSE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) Essay 47) Essay 48) Essay 49) Essay 50) Essay

Student name:__________ 50) _________ is information collected specifically for a current research problem or

opportunity.

A) Primary data B) Alternate data C) Secondary data D) Warehouse data E) Backup data

51) Gatekeeper technologies are used to_________.

A) prevent the introduction of new and creative marketing strategies B) help market researchers track the behavior of Internet users C) protect one's privacy against intrusive marketing practices D) allow marketers to use traditional methods for contacting people E) simplify the process of getting user information using telemarketing

52) Which of the following statements is true about the information research process?

A) It narrows the applicability of the research process in solving organizational problems

and creating opportunities.

B) A more appropriate name for the information research process is now the traditional marketing research process.

C) It is a systematic approach to collecting, analyzing, interpreting, and transforming data into decision-making information.

D) It is especially useful when costs outweigh the value of the research.

E) It serves as a written contract between the decision maker and the researcher.

53) Analysis of primary data, available through qualitative studies, requires the conversion

of_________ to_________.

A) secondary data; big data B) numerical data; textual data C) structured data; unstructured data D) big data; secondary data E) unstructured data; structured data

54) Which of the following is a characteristic of management decision-makers?

A) Their dominant concern is market performance.

B) They prefer abstractions over information that allows for certainty.

C) They tend to readily accept information when they are surprised.

D) Their dominant concern is to conduct continuous inquiries into market component

changes.

E) Their dominant concern is to ensure completeness by conducting prolonged investigations.

55) Marilynn Castillo is a marketing manager at Gordon Corp. She debates whether or not to

conduct a marketing research study before commercializing a product. After a brief analysis, she realizes that conducting the study will cost approximately $100,000. If she launches the product without conducting the study and the product fails, her firm could suffer a loss of $2 million. In this scenario, the study is a(n)_________.

A) assessment on time availability B) cost-benefit assessment C) assessment on research designs D) assessment on information availability E) market-sensitivity assessment

56) Felix Corp. is a cookware manufacturer. It conducts market testing for a new appliance. JK

Corp., Felix's competitor, reduces its prices during the market test to prevent Felix from collecting accurate information. In this scenario, JK Corp. is engaging in a practice called_________.

A) scaling B) pretesting C) clustering D) jamming E) positioning

57) _________ obtains information from people representative of those who will be questioned

in an actual survey.

A) Random-digit dialing B) Jamming C) Positioning D) Scaling E) Pretesting

58) In the context of collecting and preparing data, a difference between questioning approaches

and observation approaches is that questioning approaches_________.

A) need fewer researchers than observation approaches B) do not involve examining data for data-entry errors and inconsistencies C) do not allow researchers to collect information about factors such as motivation and past behavior D) enable researchers to collect a wider array of data E) focus on collecting data that does not need coding

59) The first task in the information research process is to_________.

A) specify research objectives and confirm the information value B) identify and clarify information needs C) determine measurement issues and scales D) develop the sampling plan and sample size E) determine the research design and data sources

60) Zephyr, a hotel chain, experiences a decline in its sales. It hires Symphony Inc., a marketing

research firm, to analyze the customer reviews and identify ways to improve sales. To familiarize itself with the overall complexity of the problem, the marketing research team from Symphony decides to gather and synthesize background information including events and factors that led to the current problem at Zephyr. In this scenario, Symphony Inc. is conducting a_________.

A) situation analysis B) symptomatic analysis C) variable analysis D) sampling analysis E) screening analysis

61) The iceberg principle in marketing research holds that_________.

A) marketing decision-makers are aware of only 10 percent of the true problem in

research B) marketing decision-makers usually have a general idea of why research is needed C) marketing decision-makers are unaware of the symptoms of a research problem D) invisible research problems should be omitted from the problem definition E) decisions based only on the symptoms of a research problem are usually correct

62) Information becomes_________ when someone, either the researcher or the decision maker,

interprets the data and attaches meaning.

A) redundant B) complex C) knowledge D) irrelevant E) literature

63) _________ specifies whether data should be collected about individuals, households,

organizations, departments, geographical areas, or some combination.

A) Situation analysis B) Cost-benefit analysis C) The unit of analysis D) Symptom analysis E) Integrated analysis

64) Kiara, a market researcher, wants to study the relationship between childhood obesity and

socioeconomic status. She has to decide whether to collect data on income from individuals or from a husband and wife representing the household. In this scenario, Kiara has to determine the_________.

A) unit of analysis B) sampling technique C) secondary sources of data D) type of research method E) method of literature review

65) While designing a study, a researcher wonders if she should ask the respondents their age and

gender. She is not sure if she will need that information later in the research process. She is trying to_________.

A) determine the correct unit of analysis for her study B) conduct a situation assessment for her study C) determine the relevant variables for her study D) identify the symptoms and underlying problems of her study E) confirm the information value

66) In a census, a researcher attempts to_________.

A) use the probability sampling technique B) define the known chance of selecting a subject C) use a small representative sample to generalize about a target population D) collect data from a small set of people from a target population E) question or observe all the members of a defined target population

67) Which of the following is true about research based on a sample?

A) It involves a small number of members of a target population from which a researcher

collects data.

B) It involves selecting each member of a target population for observation.

C) It is the best approach for small populations.

D) It eliminates the need to identify a target population.

E) It is more accurate than using a census as the sample size does not affect accuracy.

68) Which of the following generates insights that will help define problem situations

confronting a researcher?

A) exploratory research B) descriptive research C) causal research D) demographic research E) narrative research

69) Which of the following data collection techniques is used in exploratory research studies?

A) image assessment surveys B) customer satisfaction surveys C) narrative surveys D) cause-and-effect studies E) pilot studies

70) Predictive research is most useful in_________.

A) generating insights that help in defining a problem situation B) understanding consumer motivations and behavior that are not easy to access using

other research methods C) understanding which variables result in a change in the dependent variable D) analyzing historical data that has been previously collected for some research situation other than the current situation E) collecting quantitative data to answer research questions such as who, what, when, where, and how

71) Which of the following is true of a research proposal?

A) It communicates the framework of the proposed research to the participants.

B) It serves as a contract between the decision maker and their subordinates.

C) It provides a synopsis of the suggested research and methodology.

D) It is equivalent to the final research report.

E) It remains the same across different researchers managing the same problem.

72) In a research proposal, which of the following sections discusses the types of scales to be

used for data collection?

A) definition of the target population B) sample design C) data collection method D) specific research instruments E) definition of the sample size

73) Katie, a researcher, submits a document to Sayeed, the marketing manager of GK Corp. The

document serves as a written contract between Katie and Sayeed and lists the activities that will be undertaken by Katie to develop the needed information for the research, the research deliverables, how long it will take, and what it will cost. In this scenario, Katie has most likely submitted_________.

A) a methodology transcript B) a questionnaire design C) a research proposal D) a final research report E) a research design

74) Liam, a market researcher, is preparing a research proposal. He wants to mention that he will

use exploratory techniques and collect primary data for the study. In the context of the sections in a research proposal, Liam is most likely to include this information under_________.

A) definition of the target population B) specific research instruments C) purpose of the study D) type of the study E) profile of the company capabilities

75) Secondary data is information collected for a current research problem or opportunity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76) Advances in gatekeeper technologies are used to protect one's privacy against intrusive

marketing practices. ⊚ true ⊚ false

77) Caller ID and automated answering devices are gatekeeper technologies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78) Until decision-makers and marketing researchers become closer in their thinking, the initial

recognition of the existence of a business problem or opportunity should be the primary responsibility of a researcher. ⊚ true ⊚ false

79) A cost-benefit assessment examines if there is enough time to conduct the necessary research

before the final managerial decision must be made. ⊚ true ⊚ false

80) Accurately determining the cost of doing marketing research is easier than determining the

true value of the expected information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81) The scientific method involves research procedures that are logical, objective, systematic,

reliable, and valid. ⊚ true ⊚ false

82) In order to do a situation analysis, a marketing researcher must depend solely on the

information provided by a client. ⊚ true ⊚ false

83) Factors like demographics and brand attitudes are called units of analysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84) In the context of the research process, the variables that need to be studied are also known as

constructs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85) In the context of a SWOT analysis, the strengths and weaknesses focus on the external

factors of a business. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) In a census, a researcher attempts to question or observe a small sample representative of a

defined target population. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) In probability sampling, each member of a defined target population has a known chance of

being selected. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88) Probability sampling gives a researcher the opportunity to assess sampling error. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89) The steps in the information research process cannot be shifted or omitted. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90) Observational research can collect information about attitudes, intentions, motivations, and

past behavior, which are usually invisible in the questioning approach. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91) Procedures such as summary statistics and simple frequency distributions are used while

designing and pretesting a questionnaire. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92) In the research process, knowledge is created through engaged and cautious interpretation of

results. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) The last phase of the research process is reporting the research findings to management. ⊚ true ⊚ false

94) In the context of research designs, literature review is an example of descriptive research

methods. ⊚ true ⊚ false

95) Exploratory research collects quantitative data to answer research questions such as who,

what, when, where, and how. ⊚ true ⊚ false

96) Image assessment surveys are an example of predictive research designs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) Descriptive research is most appropriate when research objectives include the need to

understand which variables could impact a dependent variable. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98) A research proposal includes a brief profile of the researchers and their qualifications. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99) The research proposal is also called the final research report. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100)

Differentiate between primary and secondary data.

Secondary data is information previously collected for some other problem or issue. A byproduct of the technology advances is the ongoing collection of data that is placed in a data warehouse and is available as secondary data to help understand business problems and to improve decisions. In contrast, primary data is information collected specifically for a current research problem or opportunity. Many large businesses are linking purchase data collected in-store and online with customer profiles already in company databases, thus enhancing their ability to understand shopping behavior and better meet customer needs. But even medium-sized and small companies are building databases of customer information to serve current customers more effectively and to attract new customers.

List any four questions a decision maker must ask to determine the need for information research.

101)

To determine if research should be used to collect the needed information, the first question a decision maker must ask is "Can the problem and/or opportunity be solved using existing information and managerial judgment?" The focus is on deciding what type of information (secondary or primary) is required to answer the research question(s). With the assistance of the research expert, decision-makers face the next question: "Is adequate information available within the company's internal record systems to address the problem?" If the necessary marketing information is not available in the firm's internal record system, then a customized marketing research project to obtain the information should be considered. With input from the research expert, decision-makers must assess the time constraints associated with the problem/opportunity: "Is there enough time to conduct the necessary research before the final managerial decision must be made?" A cost-benefit assessment should be made of value of the research compared to the cost: "Do the benefits of having the additional information outweigh the costs of gathering the information?" This type of question remains a challenge for today's decision-makers.

102)

Discuss the iceberg principle.

The iceberg principle holds that decision-makers are aware of only 10 percent of the true problem. Frequently, the perceived problem is actually a symptom that is some type of measurable market performance factor, while 90 percent of the problem is not visible to decision-makers. For example, the problem may be defined as "loss of market share" when in fact the problem is ineffective advertising or a poorly trained sales force. The real problems are below the waterline of observation. If the submerged portions of the problem are omitted from the problem definition and later from the research design, then decisions based on the research may be incorrect. Referring to the iceberg principle helps researchers distinguish between the symptoms and the causes.

103)

Explain the process of collecting data using a census and a sample.

In collecting data, researchers can choose between collecting data from a census or a sample.

In a census, the researcher attempts to question or observe all the members of a defined target population. For small populations, a census may be the best approach. A second approach, used when the target population is large, involves selection of a sample from the defined target population. Researchers must use a representative sample of the population if they wish to generalize the findings. To achieve this objective, researchers develop a sampling plan as part of the overall research design. A sampling plan serves as the blueprint for defining the appropriate target population, identifying the possible respondents, establishing the procedures for selecting the sample, and determining the appropriate sample size.

104)

Discuss the importance of pretesting a questionnaire.

Designing good questionnaires is difficult. Researchers must select the correct type of questions, consider the sequence and format, and pretest the questionnaire. Pretesting obtains information from people representative of those who will be questioned in the actual survey.

In a pretest, respondents are asked to complete a questionnaire and comment on issues such as clarity of instructions and questions, sequence of the topics and questions, and anything that is potentially difficult or confusing.

105)

Compare descriptive and predictive research approaches.

Descriptive research involves collecting quantitative data to answer research questions.

Descriptive information provides answers to who, what, when, where, and how questions. In marketing, examples of descriptive information include consumer attitudes, intentions, preferences, purchase behaviors, evaluations of current marketing mix strategies, and demographics. Descriptive studies may provide information about competitors, target markets, and environmental factors. On the other hand, predictive research collects data that enables decision-makers to investigate non-experimental relationships between two or more variables. Predictive research is most appropriate when the research objectives include the need to understand which variables could impact a dependent variable. Understanding predictive relationships among market performance factors enables the decision-maker to make certain statements about the relationships between the variables. They provide an opportunity to assess relationships among market factors.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 1) A 2) C 3) C 4) E 5) A 6) B 7) D 8) E 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) A 13) C 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) E 18) A 19) A 20) E 21) C 22) C 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) FALSE 27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) FALSE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) FALSE 34) FALSE 35) TRUE 36) FALSE 37) FALSE

38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) Essay 52) Essay 53) Essay 54) Essay 55) Essay 56) Essay

Student name:__________ _________ are collected by outside organizations such as federal and state governments, trade associations, nonprofit organizations, marketing research services, or academic researchers.

A) Internal primary data B) Internal secondary data C) External secondary data D) External primary data E) Internal tertiary data

106)

_________ is a comprehensive examination of available secondary information that is related to a research topic.

A) A literature review B) A conjoint analysis C) A situation analysis D) Concept testing E) Cluster sampling

107)

108)

Evaluating secondary data based on the purpose criterion involves_________.

A) ensuring the accuracy of the secondary data B) ensuring the data are consistent with the research objectives at hand C) seeking multiple sources of the same data to assure consistency D) finding flaws in the methodological procedures used in collecting the data E) determining the underlying motivation or hidden agenda, if any, of the organization that collected the secondary data

While evaluating secondary data based on the accuracy criterion, researchers must_________.

A) seek out multiple sources to check the consistency of the data B) evaluate the data collection method C) evaluate whether or not the data are out of date D) carefully evaluate the data on how they relate to the current research objective E) determine the hidden agenda of the company that collected the secondary data

109)

110)

Which of the following statements is true of internal secondary data?

A) It is expensive to access the sources of internal secondary data.

B) Internal secondary data cannot be used by decision-makers in planning new-product introductions.

C) They can be easily obtained from scholarly and government sources.

D) Internal sources of secondary data are accessed only after obtaining useful information from external sources of secondary data.

E) Internal secondary data are the most readily available.

111)

_________ are sources of internal secondary data.

A) U.S. government documents B) Articles on Lexus/Nexus C) Marketing blogs D) Sales invoices E) Newspaper websites

112)

_________ are sources of external secondary data.

A) Customer letters B) U.S. census reports C) Accounts receivable reports D) Warranty cards E) Sales invoices

The major reason for using U.S. government documents as secondary data sources is that they_________.

A) are easily available in all marketing blogs B) provide predefined categories of variables that always meet user requirements C) are detailed, complete, and consistent D) provide the most up-to-date information E) are available for a wide range of topics

113)

The North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes are designed to_________.

A) index major market research reports for a variety of private institutions B) index online publications available up to the current month and year C) provide the statistical foundation for the information available on the U.S. population D) provide a detailed profile of economic activity within a given geographic area E) promote uniformity in data reporting by government sources and private businesses

114)

_________ data are market research data that are collected, packaged, and sold to many different firms.

A) Syndicated B) Noncommercial C) Open-source D) Government E) Standardized

115)

_________ consist of large samples of households that have agreed to provide detailed data for an extended period of time.

A) Netnographers B) Consumer panels C) Focus groups D) Ethnographers E) Mystery shoppers

116)

In the context of research data, which of the following statements is true about store audits?

A) They provide information on the effectiveness of in-store promotions.

B) They include data that is approximate and not precise.

C) They are done without a prior notice to the retailer.

D) They operate as a source of primary data.

E) They primarily measure media consumption habits among consumers.

117)

118)

A_________ is an observable item that is used as a measure on a questionnaire.

A) variable B) construct C) quota D) hypothesis E) parameter

Zhu is conducting a research to examine the impact of alcohol consumption on athletic performance. The data from the study concludes that athletic performance decreases as the level of alcohol in the body increases. Which of the following statements best describes the research results?

A) Alcohol consumption and athletic performance have a positive relationship.

B) Alcohol consumption and athletic performance have a negative relationship.

C) Alcohol consumption and athletic performance are not correlated.

D) Alcohol consumption and athletic performance have a logarithmic relationship.

E) Alcohol consumption and athletic performance have a nonlinear relationship.

119)

In the context of developing a conceptual model for research, constructs are always measured by one or more_________.

A) quota sheets B) consumer panels C) indicator variables D) focus groups E) convenience samples

120)

121)

Which of the following statements is true about the elements of a conceptual model?

A) The independent variables are on the left-hand side of the model.

B) The dependent variables are on the left-hand side of the model.

C) The construct is placed in the center of the model.

D) The hypothesis is placed on the left-hand side of the model.

E) The constructs in the model do not follow a particular sequence.

122)

A conceptual model becomes a theoretical model when A) a full-scale study is likely to cost more than an exploratory study.

B) a literature review and the available secondary data are inadequate to suggest strong candidates for explaining dependent variables of interest.

C) a literature review or exploratory research is sufficient to support the model's pictured relationships between variables.

D) the dependent variables identified in the model are constructs.

E) the independent variables identified in the model are constructs.

In the context of developing a conceptual model for research, a(n)_________ is the construct researchers are seeking to explain.

A) dependent variable B) independent variable C) positive relationship D) negative relationship E) null hypothesis

123)

124)

The conceptualization of a model means developing a A) research concept before developing a literature review.

B) conceptual model of the geographic area from which the sample will be drawn.

C) text-based model to do statistical testing of hypothesized relationships.

D) conceptual model of a new product before it is tested in a lab setting.

E) model that shows variables and hypothesized relationships between variables.

A_________ is an empirically testable though yet unproven statement developed in order to explain phenomena.

A) construct B) law C) sample statistic D) fact E) hypothesis

125)

A(n)_________ hypothesis is a statistical hypothesis that is tested for possible rejection under the assumption that it is true.

A) marginal B) test C) null D) theoretical E) alternative

126)

127)

_________ are possible answers to a specific applied research problem.

A) Predictive hypotheses B) Null hypotheses C) Descriptive hypotheses D) Alternative hypotheses E) Rejection hypotheses

128)

A(n)_________ hypothesis states that there is a relationship between two variables.

A) null B) test C) alternative D) default E) limited

129)

A parameter is defined as the_________.

A) true value of a null hypothesis B) true value of a variable C) estimate of an alternative hypothesis D) estimate of a sample statistic E) estimated value of a construct

130)

_________ is the value of a variable that is estimated from a sample.

A) A sample statistic B) A parameter statistic C) An alternative statistic D) A sample parameter E) An alternative parameter

Internal secondary data are collected by an individual company for accounting purposes or marketing activity reports. ⊚ true ⊚ false

131)

Secondary research approaches are increasingly used to examine marketing problems because of the relative speed and cost-effectiveness of obtaining the data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

132)

A literature review reveals the existence of useful information that addresses the issue of interest in a research study. ⊚ true ⊚ false

133)

Literature reviews can be helpful in identifying appropriate sampling approaches that have been successful in researching similar topics. ⊚ true ⊚ false

134)

The logical starting point in searching for secondary data is to look for data in government documents and websites. ⊚ true ⊚ false

135)

136)

Scholarly sources are used to obtain external secondary data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

The ideas expressed in popular sources often involve secondhand reporting of information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

137)

A four-digit industry group code within each two-digit industry classification code assigned by the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) represents specific industry groups. ⊚ true ⊚ false

138)

Bookmarking tools for scholarly sources show how many times a study is referenced by another document on the web and lists that number in the search results. ⊚ true ⊚ false

139)

In any secondary data search, an initial step is to use the numeric listings of the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

140)

141)

Before using census data, researchers need to consider the timeliness of the data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

142)

Syndicated data are the data available for free on various blogs and websites. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Consumer panels, store audits, and optical-scanner technology help in collecting syndicated data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

143)

The cost of collecting data using consumer panels is higher than the cost of using primary data collection methods. ⊚ true ⊚ false

144)

There are two types of panel-based data sources: those reflecting actual purchases of products and services and those reflecting media habits. ⊚ true ⊚ false

145)

146)

Media panels and consumer panels are similar in procedure, composition, and design. ⊚ true ⊚ false

147)

Many of the biases of consumer panels are also found in store audits. ⊚ true ⊚ false

The end result of conceptualization is a visual display of hypothesized relationships using a box and arrows diagram. ⊚ true ⊚ false

148)

A construct is an unobservable, abstract concept that is measured indirectly by a group of related variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false

149)

When modeling predictive relationships, variables or constructs in relationships can only be dependent variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false

150)

Hypotheses provide the basis for the relationships between constructs pictured in conceptual models. ⊚ true ⊚ false

151)

If it is hypothesized that service provider competence and empathy lead to higher perceptions of service quality, then service quality is the dependent variable in this relationship. ⊚ true ⊚ false

152)

A positive relationship is an association between two variables in which they increase or decrease together. ⊚ true ⊚ false

153)

154)

A sample statistic is an estimate of the population parameter. ⊚ true ⊚ false

155)

Failure to reject a null hypothesis means that the null hypothesis is definitely true. ⊚ true ⊚ false

156)

Explain the objectives of doing a literature review.

A literature review is a comprehensive examination of available secondary information related to a research topic. It provides background and contextual information for the current study, clarifies thinking about the research problem and questions that are the focus of the study, reveals whether information already exists that addresses the issue of interest, helps to define important constructs of interest to the study, and suggests sampling and other methodological approaches that have been successful in researching similar topics. A literature review can also suggest research hypotheses to investigate. Importantly, literature reviews can identify scales to measure variables and research methodologies that have been used successfully to study similar topics.

157)

Explain the importance of internal secondary data.

A company's own internal information is the logical starting point in searching for secondary data. Many organizations fail to realize the wealth of information their own records contain.

Additionally, internal data are the most readily available and can be accessed at little or no cost at all. Internal data sources can be highly effective in helping decision-makers plan new product introductions or new distribution outlets. A lot of internal company information is available for marketing research activities. If maintained and categorized properly, internal data can be used to analyze product performance, customer satisfaction, distribution effectiveness, and segmentation strategies. These forms of internal data are also useful for planning new product introductions, product deletions, promotional strategies, competitive intelligence, and customer service tactics.

158)

In what ways do media panels differ from consumer panels?

Media panels and consumer panels are similar in procedure, composition, and design. They differ only in that media panels primarily measure media consumption habits as opposed to product or brand consumption. As with consumer panels, numerous media panels exist.

159)

How is a construct different from a variable? Give two examples of each.

A variable is an observable item that is used as a measure on a questionnaire. Variables have concrete properties and are measured directly. Examples of variables include gender, marital status, company name, number of employees, how frequently a particular brand is purchased, and so on. In contrast, a construct is an unobservable, abstract concept that is measured indirectly by a group of related variables. Some examples of commonly measured constructs in marketing include service quality, value, customer satisfaction, and brand attitude.

Constructs that represent characteristics of respondents may also be measured, for example, innovativeness, opinion leadership, and deal proneness. Researchers often use the words "variable" and "construct" interchangeably, but constructs are always measured by one or more indicator variables.

160)

Briefly explain the process of conceptualization.

Researchers follow the process of conceptualization to communicate relationships and variables more effectively. Conceptualization involves identifying the variables for a research; specifying hypotheses and relationships; and preparing a diagram (conceptual model) that visually represents the relationships to be studied. The end result of conceptualization is a visual display of the hypothesized relationships using a box and arrows diagram. This diagram is called a conceptual model.

161)

Explain the differences between a null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis.

In hypothesis development, a null hypothesis states that there is no relationship between the variables. The null hypothesis is the one that is always tested by statisticians and market researchers. Another hypothesis, called an alternative hypothesis, states that there is a relationship between two variables. If the null hypothesis is accepted, one can conclude that the variables are not related. If the null hypothesis is rejected, one finds support for the alternative hypothesis, that the two variables are related.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) E 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) E 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) E 20) E 21) C 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) TRUE 27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) TRUE 30) FALSE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) TRUE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE

38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) Essay 52) Essay 53) Essay 54) Essay 55) Essay 56) Essay

Student name:__________ 162)

The objective of descriptive research is to A) test cause-and-effect relationships between specifically defined marketing variables.

B) explicitly define the research question and variables.

C) collect information that provides answers to research questions.

D) choose the type of individuals who will best represent the target population of interest.

E) ascertain how much detail of a behavior needs to be recorded.

163)

Which of the following is true of quantitative research?

A) It enables researchers and clients to get closer to their customers and potential customers than does qualitative research.

B) It uses formal questions and predetermined response options in questionnaires administered to large numbers of respondents.

C) It is most often used with exploratory research designs.

D) It is superior for studying topics that involve complex psychological motivations not easily reduced to survey formats and quantitative analyses.

E) It usually involves collecting detailed data from relatively small samples by asking questions or observing behavior.

164)

Quantitative research is most likely to be used when the main goal of the study is to A) identify new ideas and thoughts for a product.

B) uncover unanticipated findings and reactions.

C) understand hidden underlying psychological processes.

D) validate relationships and test hypotheses.

E) understand research participants rather than to fit their answers into predetermined categories.

Fabricio is conducting a study to gain insights into teen consumer culture. The research involves the analysis of product reviews on an e-commerce website and interviews with semistructured questions. The sample size of the research is 10. On completion of the research, Fabricio plans to apply the findings to the targeted audience, the teens. Which of the following is true about the study?

A) The semistructured format of the questions increases the duration of the study regardless of the sample size.

B) The semistructured format of the questions and the small sample size enable the researchers to generalize qualitative data to the population.

C) The techniques used by Fabricio do not yield data that are rich in quality.

D) The semistructured format of the questions and the small sample size limit the researcher’s ability to generalize qualitative data to the population.

E) The techniques used by Fabricio are not suitable for measuring teen consumer culture.

165)

Allen is conducting a qualitative research. Which of the following is most likely to be the objective of his research?

A) to probe into subconscious consumer motivations B) to make accurate predictions about relationships between market forces and purchase behavior C) to validate the relationship between advertising expenses and sales volume D) to make generalizable observations about a target population's buying behavior E) to test a hypothesis linking coupon value to brand preference

166)

_________ research involves the collection of data in the form of text or images using open-ended questions, observation, or “found” data.

A) Correlational B) Quantitative C) Experimental D) Qualitative E) Long-term

167)

168)

Which of the following is an advantage of qualitative research?

A) It allows researchers to make accurate predictions about relationships between market factors and behaviors.

B) It is considered by most practitioners as being more reliable than quantitative research.

C) It often provides preliminary insights useful in developing ideas about how variables are related.

D) It eliminates the need for well-trained investigators and interviewers.

E) It allows for generalizability of research findings, unlike quantitative research.

169)

Who among the following is most likely to be conducting qualitative research?

A) Ricardo, who is performing a multiple regression analysis B) Zainab, who is developing questionnaires C) Phillip, who is conducting a census D) Mariam, who is conducting surveys E) Katie, who is conducting focus group interviews

170)

An in-depth interview A) involves extended contact with a natural setting, but without participation by a researcher.

B) involves asking a respondent a set of semistructured, probing questions in a face-toface setting.

C) has a high likelihood of participants responding in a socially desirable manner.

D) is a formalized process of bringing a small group together for discussion on a particular topic.

E) involves cross-talk that increase participation in a focus group.

171)

In the context of focus groups, journaling tools make it possible for A) interviewers to observe participants without interacting with them.

B) interviewers to encourage groupthink among participants.

C) participants to rely on their memories to respond to questions after a relevant event occurs.

D) participants to avoid answering probing questions.

E) participants to provide real-time feedback.

172)

Identify the first phase in the process of developing a focus group interview.

A) conducting content analysis B) conducting the focus group discussions C) analyzing and reporting the results D) asking questions, including follow-up probing E) planning the focus group study

173)

In the planning phase of a focus group interview,_________.

A) the appropriate participants are selected and recruited B) a moderator's guide is prepared to ensure that the actual focus group session is productive C) the researcher debriefs all the key players involved to compare notes D) the first topic area is introduced to the participants using a moderator's guide E) moderators give participants exercises to help stimulate conversation

174)

Purposive sampling means A) selecting sample members to study because they possess attributes important to understanding a research topic.

B) selecting sample members so that groups can be compared.

C) selecting sample members based on earlier interviews.

D) selecting particular types of participants so that cross-talk is minimized during discussions related to a research topic.

E) selecting sample participants who can generate spontaneous discussion on a research topic.

The process of selecting sample members so that groups can be compared is known as_________.

A) stratified purposive sampling B) simple random sampling C) convenience sampling D) accidental sampling E) opportunity sampling

175)

In the context of focus group discussions, which of the following statements is true of a moderator's guide?

A) It should be developed and used only for online focus group sessions and not face-toface sessions.

B) It avoids using probes or follow-up questions to ensure that the focus group session is productive.

C) It is a detailed outline of the topics and questions that will be used to generate spontaneous interactive dialogue among group participants.

D) It includes asking questions at a standard level of generality to help the moderator elicit quantifiable answers.

E) It involves asking questions at levels that are dictated by the size of the group rather than the research problem itself.

176)

The interactive procedure in which a researcher and a moderator discuss the subjects' responses to the topics that outlined a focus group session is called A) content analysis.

B) sentiment analysis.

C) groupthink.

D) debriefing analysis.

E) technology-mediated observation.

177)

178)

Content analysis is A) an interviewer's ability to articulate questions in a direct and clear manner.

B) the process of collecting both attitudinal and behavioral data from a subject that spans all time frames.

C) a detailed outline of the topics, questions, and subquestions used by a moderator to lead a focus group session.

D) an interactive procedure in which a researcher and moderator discuss the subjects' responses to the topics that outlined a focus group session.

E) the systematic procedure of taking individual responses and grouping them into larger theme categories or patterns.

179)

Private communities are purposed communities A) developed primarily for marketing.

B) developed primarily for research.

C) developed primarily for producing new ideas.

D) developed primarily for advertising.

E) developed primarily for consumer industry.

In the context of data collection methods, which of the following statements is true of projective techniques?

A) They are used to monitor and analyze social media sources to provide research insights.

B) They involve recording human behavior in natural settings.

C) They rule out subjectivity.

D) They use indirect questioning methods.

E) They are primarily used in quantitative research.

180)

In the context of qualitative data collection methods,_________ is a projective technique in which the subject is presented with a list of words or short phrases, one at a time, and is asked to respond with the first thought [word] that comes to mind.

A) word association test B) word memory test C) Zaltman Metaphor Elicitation Technique (ZMET) D) sentence completion test E) in-depth interview (IDI)

181)

Which of the following characteristics of observation describes the degree to which a researcher or trained observer actually observes a behavior or an event as it occurs?

A) awareness B) structure C) directness D) observing mechanism E) reference

182)

The difference between social media monitoring and private communities is that in social media research,_________.

A) the sample of people interacting about a product is a self-selected sample that is representative of consumer reactions in the target market B) the data already exists and is not created by interaction with researchers C) the primary purpose is research D) most companies outsource community development to a provider because of the startup costs involved E) researchers cannot observe people interacting with each other unprompted by the potential bias of interviewers and questions

183)

The application of technological tools to identify, extract, and quantify subject information in textual data is called A) sentiment analysis.

B) generalizability.

C) theoretical sampling.

D) netnography.

E) content analysis.

184)

185)

Sentiment analysis is not a perfect science and is still limited because A) it requires deep engagement with one or more social media communities.

B) it relies largely on human intervention.

C) most social media monitoring tools seek to seamlessly mix sentiment and qualitative analyses.

D) a large amount of data is currently unclassifiable or incorrectly classified using AI tools.

E) researchers prefer to collect data from higher-traffic forums.

_________ is an observational online marketing research technique that requires deep engagement with online communities.

A) Sugging B) Debriefing analysis C) Randomization D) Netnography E) Frugging

186)

While conducting a descriptive research study quantitative research always precedes qualitative research. ⊚ true ⊚ false

187)

When compared with qualitative research methods, quantitative research methods, in general, can be completed relatively quickly. ⊚ true ⊚ false

188)

The richness of qualitative data can often supplement the facts gathered through other primary data collection techniques. ⊚ true ⊚ false

189)

In-depth interviewing increases the likelihood of participants responding in a socially desirable manner. ⊚ true ⊚ false

190)

Most experts agree that the optimal number of participants in face-to-face focus group interviews should range from 20 to 30 people. ⊚ true ⊚ false

191)

Online focus groups can be conducted relatively quickly because of the ease of participation and because the focus group transcript is produced automatically during the group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

192)

A moderator's guide should include follow-up questions to help the moderator elicit more information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

193)

Content analysis is used by qualitative researchers to create meaningful findings from focus group discussions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

194)

The major advantage of focus groups is that the reliability of the data collected is high, unlike other qualitative methods. ⊚ true ⊚ false

195)

Groupthink is most likely to occur when participants do not have a previously wellformed opinion on issues discussed in a group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

196)

Rather than focusing on one or a few cases in-depth, case study research involves studying many cases superficially. ⊚ true ⊚ false

197)

198)

The major advantage of projective techniques is the simplicity of interpretation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

199)

Sentence completion test is a projective technique used to collect only quantitative data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

The nonparticipant observation method cannot be used to obtain information on attitudes, preferences, beliefs, emotions, and similar information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

200)

People participating in scanner-based panels have to present a unique bar-coded card at the checkout register. ⊚ true ⊚ false

201)

Using PathTracker, a system that consists of RFID tags affixed to shopping carts, researchers can match purchase records with path data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

202)

A major disadvantage of observation methods is that data collection takes more time and is more expensive than through other types of procedures. ⊚ true ⊚ false

203)

Unstructured data is data that does not have a predefined structure such as text, images, or sensor data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

204)

An advantage of social media monitoring is individuals who may not fill out surveys or agree to focus groups might nevertheless share their experiences with online social networks. ⊚ true ⊚ false

205)

Advancements in text analysis have allowed marketers to rely more on unstructured data in the development of more effective marketing strategies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

206)

207)

What are the main goals of quantitative research?

The main goals of quantitative research are to obtain information to (1) make accurate predictions about relationships between market factors and behaviors, (2) gain meaningful insights into those relationships, (3) validate relationships, and (4) test hypotheses.

Quantitative researchers are well trained in construct development, scale measurement, questionnaire design, sampling, and statistical data analysis. Increasingly, marketing researchers are learning to turn qualitative textual, biometric, and facial expression data on the Internet into quantitative analytical measures. Quantitative researchers also must be able to translate numerical data into meaningful narrative information, ultimately telling a compelling story that is supported by data. Finally, quantitative methods are often statistically projectible to the target population of interest.

What are some of the advantages of conducting online (instead of in-person, face-to-face) focus groups?

208)

Online focus groups are especially appropriate for web-based advertising of products and services because they can be tested in their natural environment. Online focus groups can be conducted relatively quickly because of the ease of participation and because the focus group transcript is produced automatically during a group. Using online focus groups, one can reach low-incidence populations and draw samples that are geographically diverse. Also, one can use software to slow down the responses of more dominant participants. Finally, responses often are more candid because there is less social pressure when participants are not face to face.

209)

Explain word association tests and sentence completion tests.

In word association tests, a respondent is read a word or a preselected set of words, one at a time, and asked to respond with the first thing that comes to mind regarding that word.

Researchers study the responses to word association tests to map the underlying meaning of the product or brand to consumers.

In sentence completion tests, participants are presented with sentences and asked to complete them in their own words. When successful, sentence completion tests reveal hidden aspects about individuals' thoughts and feelings toward the object(s) studied. From the data collected, researchers interpret the completed sentences to identify meaningful themes or concepts.

210)

Discuss the unique characteristics of observation methods.

Observation can be described in terms of four characteristics: directness, awareness, structure, and type of observing mechanism. Directness refers to the degree to which a researcher or trained observer actually observes a behavior or event as it occurs. Observation can be either direct or indirect. Awareness refers to the degree to which individuals consciously know their behavior is being observed and recorded. Observation can either be disguised or undisguised. Structure refers to the degree to which the behavior, activities, or events to be observed are known to the researcher before doing the observations. Observation can be either structured or unstructured. The observing mechanism refers to how the behavior, activities, or events are observed and recorded. Alternatives include trained human observers and technological devices.

211)

Describe the process of selecting an observation method.

The first step in selecting an observation method is to understand the information requirements and consider how the information will be used later. Without this understanding, selecting the observation method is significantly more difficult. First, researchers must answer the following questions: 1. What types of behavior are relevant to the research problem?

2. How much detail of the behavior needs to be recorded?

3. What is the most appropriate setting (natural or artificial) to observe the behavior?

4. Is a setting available to observe the behaviors or events?

5. To what extent are the behaviors or events repetitious and frequently exhibited?

6. What degree of directness and structure is needed to observe the behaviors or events?

7. How aware should the subjects be that their behaviors are being observed?

8. Which observation method is most appropriate: in-person or technology-mediated?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 1) C 2) B 3) D 4) D 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) E 9) B 10) E 11) E 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) C 16) D 17) E 18) B 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) D 25) D 26) FALSE 27) FALSE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) FALSE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) TRUE 36) FALSE 37) FALSE

38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) Essay 47) Essay 48) Essay 49) Essay 50) Essay

Student name:__________ 212)

Which of the following is true about quantitative survey research designs?

A) They have high response rates.

B) Concepts and relationships that are not directly measurable cannot be studied using quantitative research designs.

C) It is easy to collect in-depth data using quantitative research designs.

D) They facilitate advanced statistical analysis.

E) They cannot produce precise estimates to identify small differences.

Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with quantitative survey research designs?

A) Concepts and relationships that are not directly measurable cannot be studied using quantitative survey designs.

B) It is difficult to attain in-depth data with quantitative survey designs.

C) They cannot identify small differences.

D) Producing precise estimates can be a problem.

E) They do not facilitate advanced statistical analysis.

213)

214)

Which of the following is true about sampling errors?

A) They are caused by the size of the sample and the method of sampling used.

B) They can be reduced by decreasing the sample size.

C) They cannot be measured statistically.

D) They are the differences between the sample sizes and the numbers of sampling methods.

E) They occur when the findings based on the sample and the true values for a population overlap.

215)

Which of the following is true about nonsampling errors?

A) They are not controllable.

B) They can be directly measured.

C) They can be minimized by increasing the sample size.

D) They occur as a result of the difference between the findings based on the sample and the true values for a population.

E) They cannot be statistically measured.

_________ converts quantitative values into graphical formats so data can be presented visually, efficiently and communicated effectively.

A) Interpretation tool B) Data research C) Modern visualization D) Survey research E) Data visualization

216)

217)

Which of the following is an advantage of person-administered survey methods?

A) They eliminate the possibility of an interviewer–respondent interaction error.

B) They ensure that there are no recording errors.

C) The overall cost of data collection using an interviewer is lower than other data collection methods.

D) Interviewers can help ensure respondents are screened to represent the target population.

E) In-home and in-office interviews are less time-consuming.

218)

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the mall-intercept interview method?

A) It is more expensive than the in-home interview method.

B) It is more time-consuming than the in-home interview method.

C) Mall patrons are not likely to be representative of the target population.

D) It is relatively less convenient for a researcher when compared with the in-home interview method.

E) The mall-intercept interview method requires researchers to spend a lot of time in securing a person's agreement to participate in the interview.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of telephone interviews when compared with face-to-face survey methods?

A) They make the supervision of interviewers more difficult.

B) They tend to be longer than face-to-face survey methods.

C) They have high interview refusal rates.

D) They are more expensive than face-to-face survey methods.

E) They can only be conducted in a central location.

219)

220)

Computer-assisted telephone interviewing (CATI) refers to interviews in which A) the interviewer reads the questions from a computer screen to a respondent and enters the respondent's answers directly into the computer program.

B) the interviewer calls up respondents, sends them an electronic survey, and assists them in completing the survey on their computer.

C) pen drives are sent to respondents through mail, after which the respondents complete the survey on their own personal computers and return the pen drives to the researcher through mail.

D) a computer is used to dial and send a survey to potential respondents through fax.

E) respondents are asked questions through mail.

221)

Which of the following is an advantage of conducting a mobile phone survey?

A) It allows researchers to use the auto dialing feature.

B) It is suitable for research that involves long and/or complex questions and responses.

C) It provides relatively large sample sizes.

D) It is most suitable for research involving long and/or complex questions and responses.

E) It enables consumers to fill out surveys close to the moments of shopping, decisionmaking and consuming.

222)

Which of the following is an advantage of self-administered surveys?

A) They allow researchers to obtain additional in-depth data.

B) They eliminate interviewer–respondent bias.

C) They eliminate potential response errors.

D) They result in high survey response rates.

E) They are quicker in obtaining data than other data collection methods.

223)

Which of the following statements is true of mail panel surveys?

A) They usually result in low response rates.

B) They can be used for longitudinal research.

C) The panel cannot be tested prior to a survey.

D) They ensure that participants are representative of the target population at large.

E) They are person-administered surveys.

224)

In the context of a drop-off survey, which of the following is true?

A) It is a face-to-face personal interview that takes place in a shopping mall.

B) It is a face-to-face structured question-and-answer exchange conducted in a respondent's home or at times in an office environment.

C) In this survey, a representative of the researcher hand-delivers survey forms to selected respondents.

D) FCC regulations prevent the use of drop-off surveys.

E) In this survey, the researcher arranges a computer-assisted telephone interview with the respondents.

225)

Which of the following is a disadvantage of online surveys?

A) They result in high nonresponse bias.

B) They result in high cost per completed interview.

C) They involve slow data acquisition.

D) They avoid the use of visual stimuli.

E) They require coding.

Assume that respondents aged 70 or older are only one-third as likely to be in an Internet sample as their actual incidence in the population. Using the propensity scoring method, their responses would be A) excluded from the sample to avoid any potential bias.

B) included as is (only once) to keep the data truly representative.

C) counted three times in the sample.

D) included selectively (about one-third of the time) in the sample.

E) included alternatively.

226)

227)

Data generalizability is the A) extent to which the data are an accurate portrait of a defined target population.

B) degree to which a specific question or an investigated issue leads a respondent to give a socially expected response.

C) level of preparation required to create an appropriate environment for a respondent.

D) degree to which respondents share certain similarities.

E) percentage of the general population that is the subject of a market research survey.

228)

Data precision is the A) degree to which a specific question or an investigated issue leads a respondent to give a socially expected response.

B) level of preparation required to create an appropriate environment for a respondent.

C) degree to which respondents share certain similarities.

D) percentage of the general population that is the subject of a market research survey.

E) degree of accuracy of a response in relation to some other possible answer.

_________ designs use statistical methods such as multiple regression and structural equation modeling (SEM) to investigate non-experimental relationships between independent and dependent variables.

A) Causal research B) Visualization research C) Survey research D) Descriptive research E) Predictive research

229)

Jenna participates in a face-to-face interview which is part of a research study on sexually transmitted diseases. When the interviewer asks Jenna if they have had any extramarital relationship in the last three years, Jenna lies to the interviewer saying they have not had any such relationship. In the context of survey research methods, which of the following characteristics is best exemplified in this scenario?

A) knowledge level B) diversity C) topic sensitivity D) incidence rate E) ability to participate

230)

231)

Incidence rate is the A) degree to which a specific question or an investigated issue leads a respondent to give a socially expected response.

B) level of preparation required to create an appropriate environment for a respondent.

C) degree to which respondents share certain similarities.

D) percentage of the general population that is the subject of a market research.

E) degree of accuracy of a response in relation to some other possible answer.

232)

Unlike descriptive research, causal research requires researchers to A) establish a negative relationship between two dependent variables.

B) collect data using surveys.

C) establish a positive relationship between two independent variables.

D) collect data using experimental designs.

E) frame broad research questions.

233)

Which of the following is true of independent variables?

A) Their values are directly manipulated by a researcher.

B) Their values remain constant throughout an experiment.

C) They are also called criterion variables.

D) Their values change only with changes in the values of dependent variables.

E) They do not affect the outcome of an experiment.

In the context of experimental research,_________ refers to the extent to which a research design accurately identifies causal relationships.

A) incidence rate B) data generalizability C) external reliability D) topic sensitivity E) internal validity

234)

Yuri is conducting research to test the impact packaging design has on the sales of a product. During the research, Yuri notices that apart from packaging design the sales also varied drastically when the price of the product changed. The price of the product in this context can be considered a(n) A) independent variable.

B) control variable.

C) dependent variable.

D) extraneous variable.

E) field variable.

235)

Neptune Inc., a cosmetics company, has come up with a new body wash. The marketing department of Neptune conducts market research to determine an appropriate price for the product. The representatives of the company go to various malls and sell the product at different prices. The sales volume for each price is measured, and they are compared to determine the optimal price. This method of collecting information is an example of A) laboratory experimentation.

B) a drop-off survey.

C) test marketing.

D) a mail panel survey.

E) a wireless phone survey.

236)

If the research objective is to determine whether differences exist between groups, it is advisable to use descriptive research designs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

237)

238)

Sampling error can be reduced by decreasing sample size. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Nonresponse error is a systematic bias that occurs when the final sample differs from the planned sample. ⊚ true ⊚ false

239)

When respondents give wrong answers due to impaired memory, it leads to a nonresponse error. ⊚ true ⊚ false

240)

An in-home interview is a face-to-face structured question-and-answer exchange conducted in a respondent's home. ⊚ true ⊚ false

241)

242)

Person-administered surveys are less expensive than telephone-administered surveys. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Telephone interviews facilitate interviews with respondents across a wide geographic area. ⊚ true ⊚ false

243)

244)

Telephone surveys are not limited by national borders. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Mobile phone surveys are declining in use due to the low percentage of mobile phone usage. ⊚ true ⊚ false

245)

Mobile phone surveys are most suitable for research that involves long and/or complex questions and responses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

246)

Online surveys can eliminate the effects of question order on responses because of their ability to randomize the order of questions within a group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

247)

In the context of selecting the appropriate survey method, budget determinations are frequently much more arbitrary than researchers would prefer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

248)

Long time frames give researchers the luxury of selecting the method that will produce the highest quality data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

249)

A respondent’s level of knowledge does not play a role in whether or not they agree to participate in a research study. ⊚ true ⊚ false

250)

Predictive research designs use experimental methods to identify the relationship between the independent and dependent variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false

251)

In lab experiments, researchers use a natural setting that is similar to the context of the study. ⊚ true ⊚ false

252)

Questions examining causal relationships between variables are framed with the focus being on the specific impact one variable causes on another variable. ⊚ true ⊚ false

253)

Experimental research is primarily a hypothesis-testing method that examines hypotheses about relationships between independent and dependent variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false

254)

255)

Field experiments are less expensive to conduct than laboratory experiments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Test marketing estimate the variables in the marketing mix and calculate the sales potential of a service or a product. ⊚ true ⊚ false

256)

257)

Discuss the types of errors in surveys.

258)

Discuss the drawbacks of mobile phone surveys.

259)

Discuss some of the major advantages of online surveys.

Define independent variables, dependent variables, control variables, and extraneous variables.

260)

261)

What are the main objectives of test marketing?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 1) D 2) B 3) A 4) E 5) E 6) D 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) E 11) B 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) E 18) E 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) E 24) D 25) C 26) TRUE 27) FALSE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) TRUE 31) FALSE 32) TRUE 33) FALSE 34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE

38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) Essay 47) Essay 48) Essay 49) Essay 50) Essay

Student name:__________ 262)

Sampling units refer to A) the target population elements available for selection during a sampling process.

B) an identifiable group of elements of interest to a researcher and pertinent to the information problem.

C) a complete set of elements identified for investigation.

D) a list of all population elements from which a sample is drawn.

E) the number of units accidentally left out of a sampling frame.

Spectrum Inc., an automobile manufacturer, is interested in measuring the customer satisfaction of car owners. It decides to collect data from new purchasers of Spectrum cars. In this scenario, the new purchasers of Spectrum cars represent_________.

A) sampling units B) estimated sample variance C) sampling distribution D) estimated sample deviation E) constructs

263)

Jamie Nelson works for a telephone company. She is interested in determining the satisfaction of customers with the service provided by the company (for landline customers only). She decides to collect data from eligible customers listed in the company's existing customer directory. In this scenario, the customer directory serves as a(n)_________.

A) sampling plan B) element chart C) sampling frame D) quota E) census

264)

The difference between probability sampling and nonprobability sampling is that in nonprobability sampling,_________.

A) each sampling unit in a defined target population has a known probability of being selected for the sample B) observed differences in sample findings can be partially attributed to the existence of sampling errors C) the results can be generalized to a target population within a specified margin of error D) the researcher is able to judge the reliability and validity of data collected by calculating the probability E) sampling error is not known

265)

_________ sampling is a probability sampling procedure in which every sampling unit has a known and equal chance of being selected.

A) Judgment B) Quota C) Cluster D) Simple random E) Convenience

266)

267)

Which of the following is a probability sampling method?

A) convenience sampling B) cluster sampling C) snowball sampling D) quota sampling E) judgment sampling

268)

Which of the following is true of simple random sampling?

A) It produces unbiased estimates of a target population's characteristics.

B) It eliminates the need to identify all sampling units.

C) Compared with systematic random sampling, it is less costly because it can be done relatively quickly.

D) It requires that a defined target population be ordered in some way, usually in the form of a customer list, taxpayer roll, or membership roster.

E) Unlike systematic random sampling, it does not require the sampling units to be given any special code prior to drawing a sample.

Li is calculating the size of the sample required to study a small population. Li notices that the size of the sample from calculations is larger than five percent of the population. In this case, Li should multiply the calculated sample size with the_________.

A) mean B) correction factor C) standard deviation D) calibration factor E) variance

269)

In a systematic sampling study, if the sampling frame has 2,000 names and the desired sample size is 50, then the skip interval should be A) 25.

B) 0.03.

C) 50.

D) 40.

E) 15.

270)

In optimal allocation sampling, the necessary sample size of each stratum is determined based A) on the relative size of the stratum as well as the variability within the stratum.

B) solely on the stratum's size relative to a defined target population.

C) solely on the stratum's relative importance to a study.

D) on the number of homogeneous strata identified in a defined target population.

E) on the number of heterogeneous strata identified in a defined target population.

271)

Before polling the students of the Scion School of Business, a researcher divides all the current students into groups based on their class standing, such as freshmen, sophomores, and so on. Then, she randomly draws a sample of 50 students from each of these groups to create a representative sample of the entire student body in the school. Which of the following sampling methods is the researcher practicing?

A) simple random sampling B) systematic random sampling C) stratified random sampling D) referral sampling E) snowball sampling

272)

The difference between stratified random sampling and cluster sampling is that in cluster sampling A) a researcher must be able to secure a complete listing of the potential sampling units that make up a defined target population.

B) a large number of respondents are interviewed in a relatively short time.

C) the representativeness of a sample cannot be measured because sampling error estimates cannot be calculated.

D) the sampling units are divided into mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive subpopulations.

E) a target population is separated into different groups.

273)

_________ is a form of cluster sampling in which the clusters are formed by geographic designations.

A) Convenience sampling B) Judgment sampling C) Area sampling D) Snowball sampling E) Purposive sampling

274)

275)

Which of the following is true of convenience sampling?

A) It is a nonprobability sampling method.

B) It is a time-consuming process if there is a large number of respondents.

C) It is commonly used in the later stages of research.

D) It allows researchers to measure the representativeness of a sample.

E) It allows researchers to generalize the data collected to a defined target population.

A college professor wants to know if university students in the Unites States will find the new textbook that they have authored to be interesting and useful. The professor chooses all marketing majors at the school they teach as their sample. The professor believes that this group of students will be representative of the university student population in the United States. In this scenario, the professor is most likely using A) census sampling.

B) area sampling.

C) judgment sampling.

D) multisource sampling.

E) cluster sampling.

276)

Sarah, a researcher, does not have the resources or time to use a probability sampling method. However, she wants to make sure that all ethnicities are fairly represented in her sample. In this scenario, Sarah is most likely to use_________.

A) simple random sampling B) quota sampling C) stratified sampling D) cluster sampling E) optimal allocation sampling

277)

Which method of sampling relies on the assumption that rare groups of people tend to form their own unique social circles?

A) judgment sampling B) quota sampling C) cluster sampling D) snowball sampling E) convenience sampling

278)

In the context of the factors that play an important role in determining sample sizes with probability designs,_________ is the acceptable amount of error in a sample estimate.

A) variance B) validity C) precision D) the incidence rate E) reliability

279)

Which of the following statements is true of the factors that play an important role in determining sample sizes with probability designs?

A) The more precise the required sample results, the larger the sample size needed.

B) The smaller the desired error, the smaller the sample size needed.

C) The higher the variability in the data being estimated, the smaller the sample size needed.

D) The higher the level of confidence desired, the smaller the sample size needed.

E) The variability in the data being estimated is unrelated to the sample size.

280)

If the estimated population standard deviation based on previous studies is 20 percent, the acceptable error is ±5 percent, and the z-value for a 95 percent level of confidence is 1.96, the needed sample size is approximately A) 48.

B) 210.

C) 61.

D) 153.

E) 196.

281)

If the estimated population proportion is 30 percent based on previous studies, the acceptable error is ±5 percent, and the z-value for a 95 percent level of confidence is 1.96, the needed sample size is approximately A) 323.

B) 187.

C) 36.

D) 212.

E) 554.

282)

If the estimate of expected population proportion having a desired characteristic based on intuition is 60 percent, the acceptable error is ±5 percent, and the z-value for a 95 percent level of confidence is 1.96, the needed sample size is approximately A) 187.

B) 369.

C) 295.

D) 196.

E) 950.

283)

_________ is the blueprint or framework needed to ensure that the data collected are representative of the defined target population.

A) Data management B) Operating plan C) Probability sampling D) Sampling plan E) Cluster plan

284)

285)

Which of the following statements is true of the sample size for nonprobability samples?

A) The sample size formula must be adjusted for confidence level before it can be used for nonprobability samples.

B) The sample size formula must be adjusted for error tolerance before it can be used for nonprobability samples.

C) The sample size formula must be adjusted for population variance before it can be used for nonprobability samples.

D) Determining the sample size for nonprobability samples requires the researcher to make statistical inferences about the true population parameters.

E) Determining the sample size for nonprobability samples is usually a subjective, intuitive judgment made by the researcher.

286)

In which stage of the sampling plan will random-digit dialing probably be considered?

A) selecting the data collection method B) defining the target population C) selecting the appropriate sampling method D) creating an operating plan for selecting sampling units E) identifying the sampling frame needed

287)

Compared to sampling, it is less time-consuming and less expensive to conduct a census. ⊚ true ⊚ false

A population is an identifiable group of elements of interest to a researcher and pertinent to the information problem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

288)

289)

Customer lists from credit card companies are a common source of sampling frames. ⊚ true ⊚ false

The central limit theorem (CLT) states that sampling distribution derived from a simple random sample will be approximately normally distributed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

290)

A benefit associated with detecting sampling error is that it can be determined before a sample is drawn and data collection is completed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

291)

Sampling errors usually are related to the accuracy of data, whereas nonsampling errors relate to the representativeness of a sample to a defined target population. ⊚ true ⊚ false

292)

When executed properly, systematic random sampling creates a sample of objects or prospective respondents that is very similar in quality to a sample drawn using simple random sampling. ⊚ true ⊚ false

293)

The skip interval in systematic random sampling is computed by multiplying the number of potential sampling units on a list by the desired sample size. ⊚ true ⊚ false

294)

Multisource sampling is used when a single source generates a large or low-incidence sample. ⊚ true ⊚ false

295)

The primary difficulty encountered with stratified sampling is determining the basis for stratifying. ⊚ true ⊚ false

296)

297)

Area sampling is an example of a nonprobability sampling method. ⊚ true ⊚ false

In the context of nonprobability sampling methods, judgment sampling is also known as purposive sampling. ⊚ true ⊚ false

298)

Since quota sampling is a nonprobability sampling method, the representativeness of the sample can be measured accurately. ⊚ true ⊚ false

299)

Referral sampling involves identifying a set of respondents who can help a researcher identify additional people to include in a study. ⊚ true ⊚ false

300)

301)

Snowball sampling prohibits the introduction of bias in a study. ⊚ true ⊚ false

In the context of the factors that play an important role in determining sample sizes with probability designs, the higher the level of confidence desired, the smaller the sample size needed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

302)

Substantial amount of currently available secondary data requires sampling procedures to ensure the accuracy of research results. ⊚ true ⊚ false

303)

The first step in designing a sampling plan when secondary data is used is to check if the original primary data was collected in a manner consistent with recommended social sciences standards. ⊚ true ⊚ false

304)

In any sampling plan, the first task of a researcher is to choose a method of data collection. ⊚ true ⊚ false

305)

While identifying the sampling frame, the researcher chooses between probability and nonprobability methods. ⊚ true ⊚ false

306)

List some of the steps researchers can take once they understand the basics of the central limit theorem.

307)

308)

Distinguish between sampling error and nonsampling error.

309)

List the advantages and disadvantages of simple random sampling.

310)

Briefly discuss optimal allocation sampling and multisource sampling.

311)

List the steps to be followed in developing a sampling plan.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 1) A 2) A 3) C 4) E 5) D 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) E 25) E 26) FALSE 27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) TRUE 30) FALSE 31) FALSE 32) TRUE 33) FALSE 34) FALSE 35) TRUE 36) FALSE 37) TRUE

38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) Essay 47) Essay 48) Essay 49) Essay 50) Essay

Student name:__________ 312)

Which of the following is true of measurement?

A) As part of the measurement process, researchers assign labels to phenomena they measure but do not assign numbers to them.

B) As part of the measurement process, researchers assign numbers to phenomena they measure but do not label them.

C) The goal of the construct development process is to precisely measure each construct.

D) It is the process of developing methods to systematically characterize or quantify information about persons, events, ideas, or objects of interest.

E) The process of measurement begins with scale measurement followed by construct development.

A_________ is a hypothetical variable made up of a set of component responses or behaviors that are thought to be related.

A) scale point B) construct C) relationship D) statistical parameter E) non-bipolar descriptor

313)

_________ is in a predefined data structure that can be understood and counted by computer programs, and is searchable.

A) Data construct B) Relational database C) Domain observable D) Unstructured database E) Business data

314)

_________ is the process of assigning descriptors to represent the range of possible responses to a question about a particular object or construct.

A) Scale measurement B) Situation analysis C) Purposive sampling D) Debriefing analysis E) Propensity scoring

315)

316)

Which of the following is true of state-of-being information?

A) It represents physical, demographic, or socioeconomic characteristics of individuals, objects, or organizations.

B) It cannot be verified through external sources.

C) It is most often identified as qualitative data that does not have values associated with it.

D) It represents the current observable actions or recorded past actions of individuals or organizations.

E) It represents the respondents’ emotional feelings about an object.

_________ are the set of identifiable and measurable components associated with the service quality construct.

A) Construct variables B) Domain observables C) Multidimensional constructs D) Structured observables E) Unidimensional constructs

317)

A researcher designs his questionnaire in such a way that respondents can communicate the intensity with which they like or dislike a product by circling an appropriate number from the response options that go from 1 to 7 (where 1 is for "strongly disagree" and 7 is for "strongly agree"). These numbers (1 to 7) are commonly referred to as A) construct points.

B) scale portions.

C) scale points.

D) construct ordinals.

E) scale ratios.

318)

A professor wants to determine the male–female ratio in his college. He designs a questionnaire in which the respondent only needs to choose between two choices, male and female. The scale used by the professor is an example of the_________ scale.

A) ordinal B) nominal C) ratio D) interval E) Likert

319)

320)

Which of the following is true of an ordinal scale?

A) It is the most basic and least powerful scale design.

B) It allows researchers to make absolute comparisons between responses.

C) It allows responses to be rank-ordered in a hierarchical pattern.

D) It is less powerful than a nominal scale.

E) It can measure absolute differences between scale points.

321)

Which of the following statements is true about interval scales?

A) They can measure absolute differences between scale points.

B) The standard deviation cannot be calculated for interval scales.

C) They are the highest level scale.

D) They cannot compare the relative level of measured objects.

E) They are less powerful than nominal scales.

322)

Which of the following statements is true about ratio scales?

A) They cannot measure quantitative data.

B) They cannot be used to determine the absolute difference between each scale point.

C) They are the most basic and least powerful scale design.

D) They are less powerful than nominal scales.

E) They enable researchers to make absolute comparisons between responses.

323)

The_________ represents the distance between the largest and smallest response.

A) mean B) standard deviation C) range D) median E) frequency distribution

If there is significant variation among subjects regarding their attitudes toward a given brand, then this variance will be reflected most clearly in which of the following measures?

A) the mean B) the median C) the mode D) the standard deviation E) the frequency distribution

324)

Which of the following types of scales asks the respondent to state his or her agreement or disagreement with a series of statements about a specific brand in terms of a 5-point scale ranging from "strongly agree" to "strongly disagree"?

A) a Likert scale B) a semantic differential scale C) a paired-comparison scale D) a constant sum scale E) a numerical scale

325)

326)

Which of the following is true about a semantic differential scale?

A) It cannot be used to compare different brand profiles.

B) It cannot capture a person's attitudes or feelings about a given object.

C) Only the endpoints of the scale are labeled.

D) It is not possible to calculate the mean for each attribute.

E) It is a non-bipolar scale format.

A researcher working at Arcade Inc. is interested in finding out people's perception of Arcade's prices and quality relative to those of its top market rival. Given this objective, which of the following would prove to be most efficient?

A) a graphic rating scale B) a single-item scale C) a comparative rating scale D) a nominal scale E) a Likert scale

327)

328)

Which of the following statements is true about graphic rating scales?

A) They fall under the comparative rating scale category.

B) They are recommended for use only with adults.

C) They cannot be used to collect emotional data.

D) They never include any narrative descriptors.

E) They use a scaling descriptor format that presents a respondent with a continuous line as the set of possible responses to a question.

Which of the following types of scales typically requires the respondent to allocate a given number of points, usually 100, among each separate attribute or feature relative to all the other listed ones?

A) nominal scales B) rank-order scales C) constant-sum scales D) graphic rating scales E) behavioral intention scales

329)

330)

Which of the following is most likely an example of a double-barreled question?

A) Most dentists believe that everyone should brush their teeth three times a day. Do you agree?

B) To what extent do you agree that all customers should research before buying?

C) How pleased are you with your salary and work environment?

D) In the past year, how many times have you been to a music concert?

E) Do you think this criminal should be punished?

A(n)_________ includes two or more different attributes or issues in the same question, but responses allow respondents to comment on only a single issue.

A) double negative question B) ambiguous question C) double-barreled question D) leading question E) complex question

331)

332)

Which of the following statements is true of leading questions?

A) They introduce bias and often influence the way a respondent answers a question.

B) They include two or more different attributes or issues in the same question, but responses allow respondents to comment on only a single issue.

C) They involve situations where the question contains two negative thoughts in the same question.

D) They involve situations in which the question is worded in a way the respondent is not sure how they are supposed to respond.

E) They involve a situation in which possible responses can be interpreted in a number of ways.

333)

Which of the following is an example of a leading question?

A) Is there a possibility that you would create something every week for the next couple of years?

B) Are you more or less likely to not forget to undo the damages caused by your inactions?

C) Are you happy with your life?

D) Do you think that plants are affected by solar flares?

E) Do you agree with nutritionists when they say that breakfast is the most important meal of the day?

A(n)_________ is a situation where the question/setup suggests a socially desirable answer or involves an emotionally charged issue.

A) ambiguous question B) loaded question C) double-barreled question D) complex question E) double negative question

334)

_________ involve a situation in which possible responses can be interpreted a number of different ways.

A) Ambiguous questions B) Loaded questions C) Complex questions D) Double-negative questions E) Double-barreled questions

335)

336)

Which of the following statements is true of double negative questions?

A) They create cognitive confusion and respondents find it difficult to understand the question and therefore respond incorrectly.

B) They involve situations in which the questions/setups suggest a socially desirable answer or involves an emotionally charged issue.

C) They introduce bias and influence the way a respondent answers a question.

D) They include two or more different attributes or issues in the same question, but responses allow respondents to comment on only a single issue.

E) They involve scale responses that are mutually exclusive.

The goal of the construct development process is to precisely identify and define what is to be measured. ⊚ true ⊚ false

337)

338)

Data available in a relational database is unstructured. ⊚ true ⊚ false

An object’s feature is considered an abstract construct if it can be directly measured using physical characteristics. ⊚ true ⊚ false

339)

340)

State-of-mind information can be easily verified with the help of external sources. ⊚ true ⊚ false

A nominal scale enables respondents to express relative magnitude between the answers to a question and responses can be rank-ordered in a hierarchical pattern. ⊚ true ⊚ false

341)

342)

Ordinal scales can be used to determine the absolute difference between rankings. ⊚ true ⊚ false

The idea behind the test-retest approach to measuring the reliability of scales is that if random variations are present, they will be revealed by variations in the scores between the two sampled measurements. ⊚ true ⊚ false

343)

Internal consistency is the degree to which the individual questions of a construct are correlated. ⊚ true ⊚ false

344)

345)

The more scale points, the less the discriminatory power of a scale. ⊚ true ⊚ false

346)

Measures of central tendency describe how data are dispersed around a central value. ⊚ true ⊚ false

347)

Likert scales cannot measure attitudes and behavior. ⊚ true ⊚ false

348)

In most cases, semantic differential scales use either 5 or 7 scale points. ⊚ true ⊚ false

In the context of evaluating measurement scales, content validity is assessed after the data are collected. ⊚ true ⊚ false

349)

The objective of behavioral intention scales is to assess the likelihood that people will behave in some way regarding a product or service. ⊚ true ⊚ false

350)

The individual scale items that are part of a construct, object, or phenomenon are highly correlated in a formative scale. ⊚ true ⊚ false

351)

A comparative rating scale is used when the objective is to have a respondent express his or her attitudes, behavior, or intentions about a specific object. ⊚ true ⊚ false

352)

353)

Only ordinal data can be obtained using rank-order scales. ⊚ true ⊚ false

354)

Constant-sum scales should preferably use more than seven attributes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Internal consistency reliability values for single-item or two-item scales cannot be accurately determined and should not be reported as representing the scale's internal consistency. ⊚ true ⊚ false

355)

The number of dimensions of a construct influences the decision to use a single-item versus a multiple-item scale. ⊚ true ⊚ false

356)

357)

Discuss the difference between a concrete variable and an abstract construct.

A researcher wants to measure the temperature (in degree Fahrenheit) inside a grocery store at which the customers feel most comfortable. Suggest a scale that the researcher can use. Why is it not possible to use the ratio scale in this case?

358)

359)

What are the requirements of designing measurement scales?

What are the two factors that play a significant role in the process of deciding to use a single-item versus a multiple-item scale?

360)

Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 1) D 2) B 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) B 7) C 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) E 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) C 17) E 18) C 19) C 20) C 21) A 22) E 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) TRUE 27) FALSE 28) FALSE 29) FALSE 30) FALSE 31) FALSE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) FALSE 37) TRUE

38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) Essay 47) Essay 48) Essay 49) Essay

Student name:__________ 361)

Which of the following statements is true of pilot studies?

A) They often serve as a guide for conducting larger main studies.

B) They are most commonly associated with causal experimental research designs only.

C) They are small-scale investigations restricted to 10 to 30 subjects.

D) They are primarily used to design pretests.

E) They are studies that require a minimum of 1,000 respondents.

A_________ is a descriptive research activity representing a small-scale investigation of 10 to 30 subjects that are representative of the main study's defined target population but focus on a specific subcomponent of the main study.

A) median B) pilot study C) mode D) pilot test E) pretest

362)

Aubrey is conducting a research study for a marketing firm. After examining the requirements to achieve the research objectives, she determines that to get the required information, she cannot use the observation method. Instead, she decides to conduct a mail survey. Which step of the questionnaire design process is Aubrey most likely in?

A) confirming the research objectives B) developing questions and scaling C) determining the layout and evaluating the questionnaire D) pretesting, revising, and finalizing the questionnaire E) selecting the appropriate data collection method

363)

364)

Which of the following statements is true of unstructured questions?

A) They are ambiguous questions that contain at least two negatives.

B) They are often skipped by respondents unless the questions are interesting.

C) They are loaded questions that suggest a socially desirable answer or involve an emotionally charged issue.

D) They are questions with a predetermined list of responses available to aid or limit respondents' answers.

E) They include two or more different attributes or issues but allow respondents to comment on only a single issue.

365)

_________ are open-ended questions that enable respondents to reply in their own words.

A) Double-negative questions B) Loaded questions C) Double-barreled questions D) Unstructured questions E) Leading questions

366)

Which of the following is true of structured questions?

A) They are very difficult to code.

B) They are used less often in quantitative surveys than are unstructured questions.

C) They are easier for respondents to answer than are unstructured questions.

D) They are often skipped by respondents.

E) They are open-ended questions that enable respondents to reply in their own words.

On a survey, a student comes across a question that asks "To what extent did you find marketing and accounting courses useful?" This question is (most closely) an example of a(n) A) incomprehensible question.

B) unanswerable question.

C) leading question.

D) loaded question.

E) double-barreled question.

367)

368)

Which of the following statements is true of the skip questions used in a questionnaire?

A) They are used to screen the respondents of surveys.

B) They are difficult to code because of their closed-ended nature.

C) They appear at the beginning of the questionnaire to encourage respondents to complete the questionnaire.

D) They help ensure that only specifically qualified respondents answer certain items in the questionnaire.

E) They are difficult to use in online surveys.

While filling out a survey, a respondent comes across a statement that reads "This survey is almost complete. There are only a few questions left." This statement is an example of a(n) A) introductory statement.

B) concluding statement.

C) transition phrase.

D) layout phrase.

E) skip phrase.

369)

370)

Which of the following is true of questions that include sensitive information topics?

A) They should never be included in a survey.

B) They should be placed in the beginning of the research questions section.

C) Responses to such questions should be kept confidential.

D) Responses to such questions are highly accurate.

E) They prevent unqualified respondents from being included in the study.

371)

In questionnaires, screening questions are used to A) prevent unqualified respondents from being included in the study.

B) provide respondents with an overview of the research.

C) arrange the sequence of questions from general to more specific based on research objectives.

D) identify difficult and sensitive questions and place them toward the end of each section.

E) eliminate or at least minimize response order bias.

372)

Which of the following is true of respondents' behavior while answering questionnaires?

A) Respondents generally answer the demographic questions early in the survey while they are still "fresh."

B) Respondents prefer questionnaires with questions that flow from demographic data to more general information.

C) With numeric alternatives, respondents tend to select central values.

D) Answers that appear at the beginning or the end of a list are rarely selected by respondents.

E) Respondents typically end answering a questionnaire with a thank-you statement.

373)

With online surveys, response order bias is not a problem because A) the sequence of presentation of questions can be randomized.

B) they are likely to incorporate skip questions.

C) they are not introduced by cover letters.

D) they do not have any quotas associated with them.

E) the introductory section is likely to contain screeners.

_________ is present in survey responses when the answers given by respondents to the independent and dependent variable questions are highly correlated.

A) Response order bias B) Random error variance C) A research question section D) A comparative rating scale E) Common methods variance

374)

375)

Which of the following statements is true of questionnaires?

A) Questions are asked in a natural specific-to-general order to reduce the potential for sequence bias.

B) Any sensitive questions are placed later in the questionnaire before the respondent becomes engaged in the process of answering questions.

C) A well-prepared questionnaire consists of leading and double-barreled questions.

D) The value of a well-constructed questionnaire is difficult to estimate.

E) In good questionnaire design, questions flow from demographic data to more general information.

_________ questions are used to evaluate respondent level of engagement and response honesty.

A) Unanswerable B) Skip C) Double-barreled D) Loaded E) Attention check

376)

In the context of conducting online surveys, a problem in calculating response rates online is the A) close interaction of researchers with data collection vendors to identify and target participation from specific groups.

B) inadequate number of individuals in organized panels of respondents.

C) possibility of recruitment of participants outside the official online data collection vendor.

D) ban on the use of radio buttons, pull-down menus for responses, and visuals.

E) application of graphics and animation.

377)

378)

Which of the following is true of a pretest?

A) The pretest form serves as a blueprint for training people on how to execute the interviewing process in a standardized fashion.

B) The final version of a questionnaire is evaluated using a pretest.

C) The number of respondents for a pretest is most often between 500 and 700 individuals.

D) A pretest is prepared when the order of the questions, or of the closed-end responses to a particular question, influences the answer given.

E) For pretests, the survey questionnaire is given to a large group of respondents.

379)

Which of the following is true of the introductory section of a questionnaire?

A) It helps in ensuring adequate participation of subgroups in the sample.

B) It has a standard format/layout for all kinds of research designs.

C) It serves as a blueprint for training people on the interviewing process.

D) It includes all the research questions of the study.

E) It gives the respondent an overview of the research.

380)

Which of the following statements is true of the role of cover letters?

A) They are used by interviewers in qualitative research studies.

B) They are designed to enhance respondents' willingness to complete surveys.

C) They are used to exclude respondents that are representative of the defined target population of a study.

D) They are used for training interviewers to correctly select prospective respondents.

E) They serve as a blueprint for training people to complete the interviewing process in a consistent fashion.

381)

Equipment and facility requirements are typically mentioned in the A) supervisor instruction form.

B) respondent instruction form.

C) cover letter.

D) screening form.

E) quota sheet.

A researcher is conducting a study on people travelling to foreign countries. While selecting potential candidates for the study, the researcher asks a candidate if he has traveled to foreign countries. The candidate replies that he has not traveled to foreign countries. Based on this response, the researcher decides to exclude the candidate from his study. In this scenario the researcher has used a(n)_________ to exclude the candidate.

A) rating card B) screening question C) interviewer instruction D) quota sheet E) supervisor instruction

382)

Susan meets the necessary requirements for inclusion in a survey. Yet, she is not included in the survey. Which of the following mechanisms might have been used by the interviewer to exclude Susan from the sample?

A) rating cards B) call record sheets C) interviewer instructions D) quotas E) supervisor instructions

383)

384)

Which of the following statements is true of the role of quotas in surveys?

A) They are used to evaluate the efficiency of interviewers.

B) They are used to increase the response rates for self-administered questionnaires.

C) They are used as blueprints for training people to complete the interviewing process in a consistent fashion.

D) They are used to ensure that data are collected from the correct respondents.

E) They are primarily used to train interviewers to correctly select a prospective respondent for inclusion in a study.

385)

Call records are used to A) gather basic information about an interviewer's performance efficiency.

B) ensure that data are collected from the correct respondents by limiting respondents to a predefined quota.

C) ensure the respondents included in a study are representative of the defined target population.

D) obtain respondents' cooperation and willingness to participate in a research project.

E) create double-barreled questions that can be used in an unstructured way.

The first step in the process of designing a questionnaire is to select the appropriate data collection method. ⊚ true ⊚ false

386)

Before beginning the process of designing a questionnaire, the researcher must obtain initial client approval. ⊚ true ⊚ false

387)

In quantitative surveys, unstructured questions are used much more often than structured questions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

388)

389)

Questions related to income are considered sensitive in nature. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Asking questions in a natural general-to-specific order reduces the potential for sequence bias. ⊚ true ⊚ false

390)

Respondents who are inconsistent in their responses to trap questions should be given a second chance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

391)

Questionnaires should always begin with difficult questions for the respondents to answer them accurately. ⊚ true ⊚ false

392)

393)

It is difficult to use screening questions in computer-assisted surveys. ⊚ true ⊚ false

For online questionnaires, the length of answer in open-ended questions is unaffected by the size of the response box. ⊚ true ⊚ false

394)

While designing a questionnaire, one should avoid asking questions using a different measurement format in the same section of the questionnaire. ⊚ true ⊚ false

395)

Straight liners are respondents that move through a questionnaire and mark all, or most, responses the same. ⊚ true ⊚ false

396)

If pretesting reveals that a respondent has skipped several questions or has circled the same answer for all questions within a group, it is a sign of possible boredom or tiring on the part of the respondent. ⊚ true ⊚ false

397)

Response order bias occurs when the order of the questions, or of the closed-end responses to a particular question, influences the answer given. ⊚ true ⊚ false

398)

399)

A cover letter is typically used with self-administered questionnaires. ⊚ true ⊚ false

400)

Self-administered surveys have very high response rates. ⊚ true ⊚ false

An Institutional Review Board (IRB) is responsible for reviewing and approving, prior to initiation, all research projects that involve the use of human participants as the source of data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

401)

A supervisor instruction form serves as a blueprint for training people to complete the interviewing process in a consistent fashion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

402)

403)

The number of interviewers required for a study is typically mentioned in the cover letter. ⊚ true ⊚ false

404)

Quotas are used to estimate the efficiency of interviewing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Information gathered from contact records includes length of time of the interview, completions by quota categories, number of terminated interviews, reasons for termination, and so on. ⊚ true ⊚ false

405)

406)

Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of unstructured questions.

407)

In what ways can a researcher end up framing bad questions?

408)

What are the two functions performed by a transition phrase in a survey?

409)

Describe the response order bias and the common methods variance.

410)

Describe the purpose of pretesting a survey.

Discuss the role of an Institutional Review Board in research projects that use human subjects as sources of data.

411)

Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 1) A 2) E 3) E 4) B 5) D 6) C 7) E 8) D 9) C 10) C 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) E 15) D 16) E 17) C 18) B 19) E 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) FALSE 27) FALSE 28) FALSE 29) TRUE 30) TRUE 31) FALSE 32) FALSE 33) FALSE 34) FALSE 35) TRUE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE

38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) Essay 47) Essay 48) Essay 49) Essay 50) Essay 51) Essay

Student name:__________ Qualitative research is often superior to quantitative research when the purpose of a research project is to A) analyze numerical data to arrive at a conclusion.

B) determine the magnitude of a response.

C) calculate the mode of a set of numerical data.

D) better understand a psychoanalytical phenomenon.

E) calculate the distance between the smallest and largest values in a set of responses.

412)

413)

Quantitative analysis is different from qualitative analysis in that quantitative analysis A) is largely inductive.

B) mainly deals with textual data.

C) is guided entirely by the researchers.

D) employs member checking.

E) tends to be ongoing and iterative.

414)

Which of the following is true about qualitative analysis?

A) The data used in qualitative analysis is numerical in nature.

B) It mainly quantifies the magnitude of variables.

C) Qualitative analysis is typically guided entirely by the researcher.

D) Qualitative analysis employs member checking.

E) It is not inductive.

415)

The difference between quantitative and qualitative analyses is that A) the data used in qualitative analyses is numerical in nature.

B) qualitative analysis quantifies the magnitude of variables.

C) quantitative analysis tends to be ongoing and iterative.

D) quantitative analysis employs member checking.

E) qualitative data analysis is largely inductive.

Grace, an ethnographer, observes the traditional way of serving dinner in a Chinese household and makes a note of it in her journal. She then asks the head of the family to read her description and verify if it is accurate. In doing this, Grace is involved in A) member checking.

B) test marketing.

C) data categorization.

D) memo check-back.

E) integration.

416)

A researcher reads transcripts from a study and categorizes the data. The researcher then arranges similar topics together. This process is referred to as A) data reduction.

B) member checking.

C) peer reviewing.

D) verification of data.

E) sugging.

417)

418)

Which of the following is the first step in the data reduction process?

A) categorization B) comparison C) integration D) iteration E) memoing

The process of developing and refining theory and constructs by analyzing the differences and similarities in passages, themes, or types of participants is called A) categorization.

B) iteration.

C) comparison.

D) integration.

E) triangulation.

419)

In the context of qualitative data analysis, a document that lists the different themes or categories for a particular study is called a A) vision statement.

B) multiple-item sheet.

C) code sheet.

D) debriefing sheet.

E) memo.

420)

_________ is the process through which researchers build theory that is grounded, or based on the data collected.

A) Member checking B) Peer reviewing C) Verification D) Triangulation E) Integration

421)

In a(n)_________ relationship, a variable can both cause and be caused by the same variable.

A) triangular B) emic C) negative D) iterative E) recursive

422)

423)

Which of the following best illustrates a recursive relationship?

A) Job satisfaction increases job performance, which in turn increases leadership opportunities within a company.

B) Job satisfaction decreases job performance, which in turn decreases leadership opportunities within a company.

C) Job satisfaction increases job performance and thus compensation earned on the job, which in turn increases job satisfaction.

D) Advertising leads to sales growth, which leads to greater market power.

E) Advertising leads to sales growth and thus greater market power, which in turn results in higher consumer satisfaction.

424)

Selective coding is best defined as the process of A) moving the focus from the development of theory to the identification of themes and categories.

B) converting open-ended questions into closed-ended questions.

C) converting textual data into numerical data.

D) building a storyline around one core category or theme.

E) researchers writing down their observations after each interview or site visit.

In the context of data reduction, the_________ process primarily involves working through the data several times in order to modify early ideas.

A) iteration B) triangulation C) comparison D) categorization E) selective coding

425)

426)

Which of the following is true of memoing?

A) It involves writing down thoughts as soon as possible after each interview, focus group, or site visit.

B) It helps identify the most prevalent theme that emerges from the data collected.

C) It involves building a storyline around one core category or theme.

D) It is the process through which researchers build a theory based on the data collected.

E) It requires that research inquiry be addressed from multiple perspectives.

427)

Which of the following is true about negative case analysis?

A) It helps to establish boundaries and conditions for the theories developed by qualitative researchers.

B) It mainly involves the determination of the mean in numerical data.

C) Negative case analysis is restricted to the data reduction stage of qualitative analyses.

D) It primarily calculates the range of any given quantitative data.

E) Negative case analysis is restricted to the memoing stage of qualitative analyses.

_________ is an attribute of qualitative research that affirms that key members within a culture or subculture agree with the findings of a research report.

A) Iteration B) Triangulation C) Cross-researcher reliability D) Emic validity E) Tabulation

428)

In order to establish the emic validity of his or her research findings, a researcher must primarily show that A) similar results have been reported by others working independently on the problem.

B) similar results can be obtained if the study were to be repeated.

C) key members of the group included in the study agree with the findings of the study.

D) the findings of the study can be generalized.

E) the research methodology of the study complies with the necessary research standards.

429)

Lisa conducts a qualitative study of people's shopping behavior online. She compares her results to that of similar studies and finds a similarity in the coding of data. On the basis of the given information, we can say that Lisa's study A) has emic validity.

B) has cross-researcher reliability.

C) is not generalizable.

D) is quantifiable.

E) is not credible.

430)

431)

Credibility is best defined as the A) degree to which a specific investigated issue leads the respondent to give a socially expected response.

B) level of preparation required to create an appropriate environment for the respondents participating in research.

C) degree of rigor, believability, and trustworthiness established by qualitative research.

D) degree to which research data is qualitative or quantitative in nature.

E) degree to which the results of research are socially acceptable.

432)

In the context of qualitative research, triangulation requires that A) textual data be converted to numerical data.

B) a single data set be used for the entire study.

C) the analysis of data begin after the complete collection of data.

D) research inquiry be addressed from multiple perspectives.

E) data collection occur during a single time period.

433)

Peer review is a process in which a research analysis is reviewed by A) the key informants who are being studied.

B) external qualitative methodology and topic area experts.

C) policy makers who will use the study's findings to make decisions.

D) managers who commission the study.

E) the study participants who received the placebo.

When writing a research report, which of the following sections typically includes the literature review?

A) introduction B) analysis of the data/findings C) conclusions and recommendations D) description of research methods E) research objectives

434)

Which of the following is generally included in the methodology section of a qualitative report?

A) secondary data used to contextualize research findings B) quotes from research participants C) objectives of the research D) procedures used to select informants E) translations of research findings into actionable marketing implications

435)

Which of the following statements about verbatims is true, in the context of research reports?

A) One can use verbatims in the textual report but not in live presentations.

B) Researchers should select verbatims that are more memorable rather than revealing of patterns in their data.

C) Verbatims are quotes from fellow researchers who are not directly involved in the study.

D) Verbatims can be used to underscore important points.

E) Verbatims are quotes from the researcher who conducts a particular study.

436)

When they are well chosen, verbatims are a particularly powerful way to underscore important points because they A) encourage the use of tabulation in qualitative research.

B) express consumer viewpoints in their own voice.

C) eliminate the need for member checking in qualitative analysis.

D) place portions of transcripts into similar groups based on their content.

E) convert qualitative data into quantitative data.

437)

438)

_________ are quotes from research participants that are used in research reports.

A) Verbatims B) Codes C) Memos D) Iterations E) Triangulations

When the objective of a study is to quantify the magnitude of variables and relationships, one should prefer qualitative over quantitative research. ⊚ true ⊚ false

439)

440)

Qualitative data analysis is largely inductive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

The categorization and coding of data is part of the theory development process in qualitative data analysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

441)

442)

The first step in data reduction is comparison. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Part of data reduction involves a researcher assigning a code to a particular section in a transcript. ⊚ true ⊚ false

443)

In qualitative research, the member-checking process eliminates the need for comparison of constructs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

444)

445)

Selective coding typically occurs in the early stages of data reduction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Iteration is the process through which researchers build theory that is grounded, or based on the data collected. ⊚ true ⊚ false

446)

In data reduction, the iterative process may uncover issues that the already collected data do not address. ⊚ true ⊚ false

447)

The general stance of qualitative researchers should be skepticism toward the ideas and theory they have created based on the data they have collected. ⊚ true ⊚ false

448)

449)

In qualitative data analysis, visual displays are used to summarize data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

In qualitative research, cross-researcher validity means that the analysis presented in the report resonates with people inside the studied culture. ⊚ true ⊚ false

450)

451)

Member checking best establishes cross-researcher reliability. ⊚ true ⊚ false

452)

Triangulation requires that research inquiry be addressed from multiple perspectives. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Credibility is increased when key informants and other practicing qualitative researchers are asked to review the analyses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

453)

The incorporation of member checking and peer review in research is reported in the methodology section of the research report. ⊚ true ⊚ false

454)

The introductory portion of research reports should present the research problem, objectives of the research, and the methodology used. ⊚ true ⊚ false

455)

While reporting the findings in a research report, one should start out with specific topics and then proceed to the more general ones. ⊚ true ⊚ false

456)

The last part of a qualitative research report is a section on conclusions and recommendations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

457)

Unlike quantitative research, knowledge of the market and the client's business is not necessary in translating qualitative research findings into managerial implications. ⊚ true ⊚ false

458)

459)

Is qualitative analysis inductive? Explain.

460)

Discuss how the process of tabulation might keep researchers honest.

461)

Explain the concepts of reliability and validity in qualitative research.

462)

Discuss the process of triangulation.

Why is it important to explain the objectives and procedures of a research project both to current and future decision-makers in a company?

463)

Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 1) D 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) E 11) E 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) D 25) D 26) B 27) A 28) FALSE 29) FALSE 30) TRUE 31) FALSE 32) TRUE 33) FALSE 34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE

38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) Essay 49) Essay 50) Essay 51) Essay 52) Essay

Student name:__________ 464)

Which of the following is the last step in the data preparation process?

A) data validation B) data editing C) data coding D) data entry E) data tabulation

465)

Which of the following is the first step in the data preparation process?

A) data validation B) data coding C) data editing D) data entry E) data tabulation

In marketing research, interviewers submitting false data for surveys are referred to as_________.

A) coding B) curbstoning C) nominalizing D) screening E) memoing

466)

467)

Which of the following is an example of curbstoning?

A) respondents improperly filling out the questionnaire B) an interviewer filling out surveys themselves without interviewing respondents C) an interviewer contacting respondents by phone and then recording their observations D) an interviewer interviewing respondents and recording their observations E) respondents being unreachable

Zara participated in a telephone survey. A day later, Zara received a call again in which they were asked if the interviewer sounded negative during the survey. Which of the following areas covered by data validation is illustrated in this scenario?

A) fraud B) screening C) procedure D) completeness E) courtesy

468)

The process where raw data are checked for mistakes made by either the interviewer or the respondent is known as_________.

A) screening B) data validation C) editing D) coding E) data tabulation

469)

470)

Which of the following is true of data editing?

A) Before being validated, data must be edited for mistakes.

B) Editing determines whether a survey's interviews or observations were conducted correctly and are free of fraud or bias.

C) Editing involves checking data for mistakes made by the interviewer but not by the respondent.

D) In order to speed through the data collection process, an interviewer may edit the data collection process.

E) As part of the editing process, the researcher ensures that all respondents were asked the proper questions.

When analyzing responses to survey questions, a researcher decides to assign a value of 1 if the respondent is male and a value of 2 if the respondent is female. By assigning numbers to different genders, the researcher is engaged in the process of A) coding.

B) editing.

C) validation.

D) data summarization.

E) data tabulation.

471)

_________ is the process of grouping and assigning values to various responses from a survey instrument.

A) Coding B) Editing C) Memoing D) Curbstoning E) Screening

472)

473)

The first step in developing codes for the anticipated responses to open-ended questions

is A) B) C) D) E)

consolidating the responses. generating a list of potential responses. assigning a numerical value as a code. assigning a value to each response. assigning coded values to missing data.

474)

Which of the following is true of coding the responses to survey questions?

A) The process of coding begins by assigning numerical values to general categorical variables.

B) For open-ended questions, a coding process should be prepared before collecting data.

C) The second phase of the process of developing codes is the consolidation of responses.

D) Coding increases the difficulty of subsequent analysis of the data collected.

E) Researchers should avoid assigning a coded value to missing data.

475)

When a questionnaire involves a structured open-ended question as part of a survey, the A) coding task for multiple responses becomes more time-consuming.

B) answers must be coded into broad categories.

C) data validation step must be skipped.

D) respondents take less time to complete the survey.

E) coding process needs to be prepared before data collection.

In the context of coding the responses to survey questions, researchers can never analyze the actual answers of respondents in more detail if the A) answers were initially coded into broad categories.

B) omitted questions were also coded.

C) survey was conducted online.

D) codes were prepared after data collection for open-ended questions.

E) responses were edited by the researchers.

476)

477)

The best way to handle coding of omitted responses is to A) determine whether the software used for data entry performs "error edit routines" that identify the wrong type of data.

B) substitute the missing values with the median of the variable.

C) leave the data space blank for missing data without any numerical value.

D) substitute the missing values with the mean of the variable.

E) check how the data analysis software treats missing data.

The fourth step in the process of coding the responses to survey questions involves assigning a coded value to each response. Which of the following statements is true of this step?

A) It follows the data entry phase of data preparation.

B) It is the step where omissions are either coded or left out.

C) It is automated and is the easiest phase of the entire process.

D) It is almost always necessary to avoid problems in the data entry phase.

E) It precedes the data validation phase of data preparation.

478)

Which of the following processes can researchers use to ensure high-quality, accurate research results?

A) Research Data Quality Assurance Process B) HyperQual C) Research Data Quality Validation Process D) QUALOG E) Data Visualization Process

479)

Maurice is conducting a study on customer satisfaction for a firm. The study includes a survey that asks respondents to rate the firm on a scale of 1 to 10 across 20 different criteria.

During the coding process, Maurice notices that some respondents have provided the same value for each of the criteria. These respondents are most likely to be considered A) outliers.

B) curbstoners.

C) straight-liners.

D) sort cases.

E) engaging presenters.

480)

Missing data that gives an indication of some type of underlying questionnaire design issue is characterized as A) missing completely at random.

B) primary data.

C) missing at random.

D) secondary data.

E) missing not at random.

481)

482)

The first step in error detection is to A) reject an error value when it is very large or very small for a particular scaled item on a questionnaire.

B) determine whether the software used for data entry performs "error edit routines" that identify the wrong type of data.

C) categorize the number of errors in two or more questions, thus showing the relationship between those two variables.

D) determine the amount of nonresponse to individual questions.

E) identify the number of respondents who did not answer various questions on a questionnaire.

483)

A missing data situation is created when A) a respondent purposely does not answer a question.

B) open-ended questions are coded by researchers.

C) a survey is conducted online.

D) member checking is employed.

E) an interviewer engages in memoing.

The simple process of counting the number of observations (cases) that are classified into certain categories is known as_________.

A) tabulation B) editing C) screening D) validation E) data entry

484)

485)

Calculate the mode of the following raw responses: 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6, 7, and 8.

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8

486)

Calculate the range of the following raw responses: 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6, 7, and 8.

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8

Which of the following measures requires that the responses be first arranged in a hierarchical pattern?

A) average B) mean C) median D) mode E) standard deviation

487)

Which of the following measures is an indicator of how similar or dissimilar the numbers are in a set of responses?

A) average B) mean C) median D) mode E) standard deviation

488)

With traditional data collection methods, the data preparation process starts before the interviews, questionnaires, or observation forms have been completed and returned to the field supervisor or researcher. ⊚ true ⊚ false

489)

Some data collection methods require activities in all stages, while other methods involve only limited data preparation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

490)

491)

Data is validated using the curbstoning process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

When information is obtained from internal data warehouses, it must be checked for availability, consistency, correct format, and so on. ⊚ true ⊚ false

492)

In the process of editing the responses to open-ended questions, researchers typically fill out the incomplete answers based on their best judgment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

493)

Codes must be assigned to facilitate quantitative data analysis only after responses are reviewed and themes and common words and patterns are identified. ⊚ true ⊚ false

494)

The objective of the coding process is to increase the number of individual responses to a larger set of specific, yet related categories of answers that can be assigned numerical codes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

495)

In the context of the process of coding the responses to survey questions, developing consolidated categories is a subjective decision that should be made only by an experienced research analyst with input from the project's sponsor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

496)

If an optical scanning approach is used to enter data, assigning a coded value to each response is absolutely necessary to avoid problems in the data entry phase. ⊚ true ⊚ false

497)

498)

Scanning technology cannot be used to enter data into an electronic file. ⊚ true ⊚ false

While answering questions on an online self-reporting survey that includes screening questions, the sequence of answering questions is critical in the editing process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

499)

500)

Secondary data is chosen using scientific sampling methods. ⊚ true ⊚ false

501)

Review of printed representation of entered data can help in error detection. ⊚ true ⊚ false

An outlier is an observation (or recorded response) that is an extreme or atypical distance outside the normal range of other data values. ⊚ true ⊚ false

502)

The most recommended approach to dealing with missing data is to use the mean of the entire sample that answered the question as a replacement value. ⊚ true ⊚ false

503)

A one-way frequency table shows the number of respondents who answered each possible response to a question given the available alternatives. ⊚ true ⊚ false

504)

Cross-tabulation is the most effective way to categorize single variables existing in a study. ⊚ true ⊚ false

505)

In order to establish valid percentages in a one-way frequency table, missing responses must be removed from the calculation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

506)

Percentage distribution can be calculated by converting a frequency distribution into percentages. ⊚ true ⊚ false

507)

In order to determine the mode of a set of responses, one has to find the number with the lowest frequency. ⊚ true ⊚ false

508)

509)

Describe the process of data validation.

Describe the use of respondent callbacks as a means for data validation in marketing research.

510)

511)

What are the several ways of dealing with missing data?

512)

What is the difference between a one-way tabulation and a cross-tabulation?

513)

Discuss the advantages of one-way tabulations.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 1) E 2) A 3) B 4) B 5) E 6) C 7) E 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) A 13) A 14) E 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) E 19) B 20) A 21) A 22) C 23) C 24) C 25) E 26) FALSE 27) TRUE 28) FALSE 29) TRUE 30) FALSE 31) TRUE 32) FALSE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE

38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) Essay 47) Essay 48) Essay 49) Essay 50) Essay

Student name:__________ 514)

The mean is best defined as the A) value that appears in a distribution most often.

B) distance between the smallest and largest values in a set of responses.

C) arithmetic average of a sample.

D) middle value of a rank-ordered distribution.

E) most common value in the set of responses to a question.

515)

Which of the following is true of the mean?

A) It is a qualitative measure.

B) It is greatly affected by the addition and deletion of data.

C) It is the distance between the smallest and largest values in a set of responses.

D) It can be distorted if extreme values are included in the distribution.

E) It is the value that appears in a distribution most often.

516)

Which of the following is true of the median?

A) It cannot be determined for data that are skewed to either the right or the left.

B) It is the distance between the smallest and largest values in a set of responses.

C) It is the value that appears in a distribution most often.

D) If the number of data observations is even, the median is generally considered to be the average of the first and last values.

E) It is especially useful as a measure of central tendency for ordinal data.

Which of the following is the measure of central tendency that appears most often in a distribution of values?

A) mean B) standard deviation C) mode D) range E) median

517)

The_________ is the middle value of a distribution when the distribution is ordered in either an ascending or a descending sequence.

A) mean B) median C) mode D) average E) variance

518)

519)

Which of the following is true of the mode?

A) It is especially useful as a measure for data that have been somehow grouped into categories.

B) It is the distance between the smallest and largest values in a set of responses.

C) It is the arithmetic average of a sample.

D) It is the middle value of a rank-ordered distribution.

E) It is unaffected by data values being added or deleted.

520)

Which of the following measures of central tendency is best for nominal data?

A) mean B) median C) mode D) standard deviation E) variance

521)

Which of the following statements is true of the range?

A) It is a measure of central tendency.

B) It is the distance between the smallest and largest values in a set of responses.

C) It describes the average distance of distribution values from the mean.

D) It is the value that appears in a distribution most often.

E) It is the average squared deviation about the mean of a distribution of values.

522)

Which of the following is true of the range?

A) It describes the average distance of the distribution values from the mean.

B) It identifies the endpoints of a distribution of values.

C) It is a very robust measure of central tendency.

D) It is the average squared deviation about the mean of a distribution of values.

E) It reveals information about the center of a distribution of values.

A researcher is told that the average age of respondents in a survey is 49 years. The researcher is interested in finding out if most respondents are close to the average age. The measure that would most accurately answer this question is the A) mean.

B) median.

C) mode.

D) range.

E) standard deviation.

523)

524)

The_________ describes the average distance of distribution values from the mean.

A) standard deviation B) arithmetic average C) mean D) mode E) median

Assume that the mean of a symmetrical distribution is 10 and the standard deviation is 2.

If we subtract each value in the distribution from the mean and add them up, the result would be close to_________.

A) 100 B) 2 C) 50 D) 0 E) 200

525)

526)

Variance is A) the average squared deviation about the mean of a distribution of values.

B) an empirically testable statement that is an unproven supposition developed in order to explain certain phenomena.

C) a statement that asserts the status quo; that is, any change from what has been thought to be true is due to random sampling.

D) a statement that is the opposite of the null hypothesis.

E) the error made by rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true.

527)

Which of the following statements is true of hypotheses?

A) They can be derived from the current business situation but not from previous research theory.

B) They are used to validate data in the data preparation process.

C) They are used to convert measures of dispersion into measures of central tendency.

D) They are developed prior to data collection.

E) They are proven suppositions that explain facts or phenomena.

528)

Researchers must use parametric statistics when A) a normal distribution can be assumed.

B) data are measured using an ordinal scale.

C) data are measured using a nominal scale.

D) qualitative analysis needs to be conducted.

E) manual data entry is not possible.

529)

Which of the following statements about the Chi-square analysis is true?

A) Chi-square analysis compares the observed frequencies of responses with the expected frequencies.

B) When the differences between observed and expected frequencies are large, one must accept the null hypothesis.

C) The larger the Chi-square, the less likely it is that the two variables that are measured are related.

D) The expected frequencies in Chi-square cannot be calculated theoretically.

E) Categorical data from questions about sex, education, or other nominal variables cannot be tested with this statistic.

530)

Which of the following is true of sample statistics?

A) They are expensive as the sample size is large.

B) They help in asserting the status quo.

C) They include measures obtained directly from the sample.

D) They include variables of the entire population.

E) They cannot provide insights into the population’s parameters.

531)

Which of the following statements is true about the t-test?

A) The t-test provides a mathematical way of determining if the difference between two sample means has occurred by chance.

B) The larger the value of the standard error of the difference between two means, the higher the value of t.

C) The t-test cannot be used when the population standard deviation is unknown.

D) In order to conduct a t-test, the sample size should be larger than 30.

E) The t-test cannot be used for interval or ratio data.

532)

Researchers use analysis of variance to determine the A) average distance of distribution values from the mean.

B) distance between the smallest and largest values in a set of responses.

C) statistical difference between three or more means.

D) average value within a distribution.

E) value that appears in a distribution most often.

A(n)_________ is used to statistically evaluate the differences between the group means in ANOVA. A) F-test B) Chi-square test C) pre-hoc test D) t-test E) follow-up test

533)

Kamaru is conducting a study that requires the analysis of several independent variables simultaneously. While analyzing the data, Kamaru notices that the group means of the dependent variables have been affected by the multiple independent variables in the ANOVA. Kamaru’s findings best illustrate_________.

A) perceptual mapping B) individual effect C) regression analysis D) interaction effect E) f-testing

534)

If the between-group variance is 3 and the within-group variance is 2, then the F-ratio is_________.

A) 1 B) 0.67 C) 5 D) 1.5 E) 0.06

535)

536)

Which of the following statements about the Scheffé test is correct?

A) If the difference between each pair of means falls inside the range of the confidence interval, then the null hypothesis is rejected.

B) If the difference between each pair of means falls outside the range of the confidence interval, it can be concluded that the pairs of means are statistically similar.

C) It is equivalent to simultaneous two-tailed hypothesis tests.

D) The confidence intervals tend to be narrower in this method than in other methods.

E) The test identifies differences between all pairs of means at high confidence interval ranges but not at low confidence interval ranges.

537)

Which of the following is true about n-way analysis of variance (n-way ANOVA)?

A) The use of multiple independent factors in n-way ANOVA reduces the possibility of an interaction effect.

B) It cannot analyze more than one independent variable at a particular time.

C) It is mathematically less complex than one-way ANOVA. D) The bigger the F-ratio, the smaller the difference among the means of the various groups assessed by n-way ANOVA. E) It is a type of ANOVA that can analyze several independent variables at the same time.

Which of the following tests flags the means that are statistically different from each other?

A) a Chi-square test B) a pre-hoc test C) a t-test D) an F-test E) a follow-up test

538)

539)

Perceptual mapping is a process that is used to A) create a three-dimensional representation of the responses of the participants in a study.

B) create a three-dimensional representation of the perceptions of researchers.

C) create a one-dimensional representation of the responses of the participants in a study.

D) develop maps that show the perceptions of respondents in a study.

E) develop maps that show the null hypothesis related to a study.

Terenco Inc. wants to rank the popularity of the top car manufacturers in the country. In order to do this, Terenco presents a list of top car manufacturers to a test group and asks the participants to rank them based on the dimensions of reliability and luxury. Terenco then plots the opinions of the respondents on a two-dimensional graph. In this scenario, Terenco is engaging in_________.

A) perceptual mapping B) f-testing C) analysis of variance D) Chi-square analysis E) regression analysis

540)

541)

Measures of central tendency locate the center of a distribution of values. ⊚ true ⊚ false

One advantage of using charts to show data is that they always lead users to appropriate conclusions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

542)

For interval or ratio data, the mean is appropriate, except when there are extreme values within the interval or ratio data, which are referred to as outliers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

543)

If the estimated standard deviation is large, the responses in a distribution of numbers are close to the mean of the distribution. ⊚ true ⊚ false

544)

A cross-tabulation is a frequency distribution of responses on two or more sets of variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false

545)

The purpose of inferential statistics is to make a determination about a population on the basis of a sample from that population. ⊚ true ⊚ false

546)

Generally, actual population parameters are unknown since the cost to perform a true census of almost any population is prohibitive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

547)

Univariate statistics use several variables at a time to generalize about a population from a sample. ⊚ true ⊚ false

548)

Univariate statistical tests are most appropriate for testing hypotheses that compare the characteristics of two groups. ⊚ true ⊚ false

549)

550)

Cross-tabulation is one of the most complex methods for describing sets of relationships. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Researchers can use the Chi-square test to determine whether responses observed in a survey follow the expected pattern. ⊚ true ⊚ false

551)

Chi-square analysis enables researchers to test for statistical significance between the frequency distributions of two or more nominally scaled variables in a cross-tabulation table to determine if there is any association between the variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false

552)

553)

Chi-square analysis is used to test hypotheses using interval data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

554)

In independent samples, the questions are independent, but the respondents are the same. ⊚ true ⊚ false

555)

The bivariate t-test does not require interval or ratio data like the univariate t-test. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Nonparametric statistics are appropriate when the data are measured using an interval or ratio scale and the sample size is large. ⊚ true ⊚ false

556)

In the context of the F-test, the smaller the difference in the variance between groups, the larger the F-ratio. ⊚ true ⊚ false

557)

The Scheffé follow-up test identifies differences between all pairs of means at high and low confidence interval ranges. ⊚ true ⊚ false

558)

Perceptual maps are visual representations of respondents' perceptions of a company, product, service, brand, or any other object in three dimensions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

559)

A perceptual map typically has a vertical and a horizontal axis that are labeled with descriptive adjectives. ⊚ true ⊚ false

560)

561)

Compare the measures of central tendency.

562)

How are sample statistics different from population parameters?

563)

Discuss the features of Chi-square analysis.

564)

When would you use ANOVA instead of a Chi-square test?

565)

What is perceptual mapping?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 1) C 2) D 3) E 4) C 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) B 10) E 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) D 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) C 20) A 21) D 22) D 23) C 24) E 25) E 26) D 27) A 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) TRUE 31) FALSE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) TRUE 35) FALSE 36) FALSE 37) FALSE

38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) Essay 49) Essay 50) Essay 51) Essay 52) Essay

Student name:__________ 566)

If a consistent and systematic relationship is not present between two variables, then A) a strong association is evident.

B) there is a moderate relationship.

C) an invisible relationship exists.

D) there is no relationship.

E) there is a weak association.

A_________ relationship is one between two variables whereby the strength and/or direction of their relationship changes over the range of both variables.

A) linear B) curvilinear C) constant D) proportional E) collinear

567)

568)

Which of the following is true of relationships between variables?

A) A linear relationship is much simpler to work with than a curvilinear relationship.

B) Relationships between variables lack direction.

C) A negative relationship exists between two variables if low levels of one variable are associated with low levels of another.

D) The larger the size of the correlation coefficient between two variables, the weaker the association between them.

E) In a linear relationship between two variables, the strength and the direction of the relationship change over the range of both variables.

569)

Which of the following is the formula for a straight line?

A) B) C) D) E)

In a certain town, when the number of automobiles owned went up, the number of automobile repair and service centers also went up consistently. This illustrates the concept of_________.

A) coalescence B) cogitation C) covariation D) coexistence E) convergence

570)

A researcher plots a scatter diagram of two variables. The dots on the plot are scattered in the center forming a circular shape. This indicates that the relationship (covariation) between the two variables is A) linear and positive.

B) linear and negative.

C) circular and positive.

D) circular and negative.

E) very close to zero.

571)

Yair is analyzing the relationship between the sales levels and profits. The data gathered

by Yair on these two components gives a correlation coefficient of 0.88. This indicates that the relationship between the two components is most likely to be_________.

A) very strong B) strong C) moderate D) weak E) very weak

572)

573)

Which of the following statements is true of correlation analysis?

A) The null hypothesis for the Pearson correlation coefficient states that there is always a strong association between two variables.

B) The Pearson correlation coefficient measures the degree of linear association that ranges from 1.0 to 10.0.

C) The larger the correlation coefficient, the weaker the association between two variables.

D) The null hypothesis for the Pearson correlation coefficient states that the correlation coefficient is zero.

E) The Pearson correlation coefficient measures the degree of linear association between three variables.

574)

In calculating the Pearson correlation coefficient, we assume that A) when the correlation coefficient is weak, there is a consistent, systematic relationship between the two variables of interest.

B) the relationship we are trying to measure is curvilinear.

C) the variables we want to analyze have a binomially distributed population.

D) the variables have been measured using interval- or ratio-scaled measures.

E) when the correlation coefficient is strong and significant, the two variables of interest are associated in a curvilinear fashion.

The Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient differs from the Pearson correlation coefficient in that the Spearman rank-order correlation A) primarily establishes a weak association between variables, whereas the Pearson correlation coefficient establishes a strong association between variables.

B) is used when variables have been measured using ordinal scales, whereas the Pearson correlation coefficient is used when variables have been measured using ratio scales.

C) assumes that variables have a normally distributed population, whereas the Pearson correlation coefficient assumes that variables have a uniform distribution.

D) is used for linear relationships, whereas the Pearson correlation coefficient is used for curvilinear relationships.

E) is a qualitative measure of the degree of variation, whereas the Pearson correlation coefficient is a quantitative measure of the degree of variation.

575)

576)

The coefficient of determination A) describes the variation in the dependent variable caused by the control variable.

B) tells you the percentage of the total variation in the independent variable caused by the dependent variable.

C) ranges from -1.0 to +1.0.

D) ranges from .00 to 1.0.

E) ranges from .00 to +0.5

If the coefficient of correlation between two variables is -0.6, the coefficient of determination will be A) -0.6.

B) 0.4.

C) 0.36.

D) -0.36.

E) 0.6.

577)

_________ is a statistical technique that uses information about the relationship between an independent or predictor variable and a dependent variable to make predictions.

A) The non-parametric hypothesis coefficient B) Covariation C) Beta coefficient analysis D) Bivariate regression analysis E) Multiple regression analysis

578)

_________ is an indicator of the importance of an independent variable in predicting a dependent variable.

A) Regression coefficient B) Pearson correlation coefficient C) Spearman rank order correlation coefficient D) Coefficient of determination E) Least squares procedure

579)

In the context of the least squares procedure, any data point that does not fall on the regression line is the result of A) specific variance.

B) nonresidual variance.

C) unexplained variance.

D) the sum of the squared errors.

E) multicollinearity.

580)

581)

Which of the following is true of the fundamentals of regression analysis?

A) A fundamental basis of regression analysis is the assumption of a circular relationship between the independent and dependent variables.

B) Regression analysis involves an estimation procedure called ordinary least squares that guarantees the line it estimates will be the best-fitting line.

C) The differences between actual and predicted values of the dependent variable are known as regression coefficients and are represented by b.

D) The regression coefficient is calculated by squaring the errors of each dependent variable.

E) Any point that falls on the line of a regression analysis is the result of unexplained variance.

The statistical procedure that results in equation parameters (a and b) that produce predictions with the lowest sum of squared differences between actual and predicted is called A) SPSS. B) unexplained variance.

C) ordinary least squares.

D) the slope.

E) the regression coefficient.

582)

If a researcher is interested in measuring the effect of many independent variables on a dependent variable, they should use A) the Pearson correlation coefficient.

B) the Spearman correlation coefficient.

C) bivariate regression analysis.

D) multiple regression analysis.

E) simple regression.

583)

584)

Which of the following is true of a beta coefficient?

A) It ranges from 1.00 to 3.00 and is a positive correlation coefficient.

B) It is an estimated correlation coefficient.

C) It is an F-ratio that has been recalculated to have a mean of 1 and a standard deviation of 0.

D) A positive beta indicates that as the size of an independent variable decreases, the size of the dependent variable increases.

E) It shows the change in the dependent variable for each unit change in the independent variable.

585)

Which of the following statements is true of model F statistics?

A) A larger F statistic indicates that the regression model has more explained variance than error variance.

B) An F statistic shows the change in the dependent variable for each unit change in the independent variable.

C) An analysis of linear relationships between a dependent variable and multiple independent variables requires that F statistics be smaller than beta coefficients.

D) Bivariate regression becomes multiple regression analysis when F statistics are used.

E) Standardization using the beta coefficient augments the effects of using different scales of measurement.

The pattern of covariation around the regression line that is not constant around the regression line and varies in some way when the values change from small to medium and large is known as_________.

A) multiple regression B) homoskedasticity C) heteroskedasticity D) normal distribution E) constant association

586)

_________ refers to the pattern of covariation that is constant around the regression line, whether the values are small, medium, or large.

A) Linearity B) Curvilinearity C) Multicollinearity D) Heteroskedasticity E) Homoskedasticity

587)

588)

Multicollinearity is a(n) A) statistical procedure that estimates regression equation coefficients that produce the lowest sum of squared differences between the actual and predicted values of a dependent variable.

B) statistical technique that analyzes the linear relationship between a dependent variable and multiple independent variables by estimating coefficients for the equation for a straight line.

C) estimated regression coefficient that has been recalculated to have a mean of zero and a standard deviation of 1.

D) statistic that compares the amount of variation in the dependent measure "explained" or associated with the independent variables to the "unexplained" or error variance.

E) situation in which several independent variables are highly correlated with each other.

589)

In a regression model, if independent variables exhibit multicollinearity, then A) the strength of association of variables changes according to the beta coefficient.

B) determining the best-fitting line requires maximization of the vertical distances of all the points from the line.

C) standardization augments the effects of using different scales of measurement.

D) computing factor scores is the least effective approach to regression analysis.

E) the estimation of separate regression coefficients for the correlated variables becomes difficult.

Which of the following is an advantage of the partial least squares method of structural equation modeling?

A) Solutions are possible with the simplest models, which are based on a few questions.

B) The method is parametric, so it can be applied to data that is not normally distributed.

C) The measurement requirements are very rigid and are designed to work exclusively with nominal data.

D) Only one type of analysis is possible.

E) Solutions can be obtained with both small and large samples.

590)

_________ is a statistical method that is an extension of multiple regression and helps researchers determine whether there are meaningful relationships between the variables shown in the structural model.

A) Partial least squares B) Confirmatory composite analysis C) Covariation D) Analysis of variance E) The Pearson correlation

591)

592)

Which of the following is true of a structural model?

A) It determines the best-fitting line by minimizing the vertical distances of all the points from the regression line.

B) It analyzes the linear relationship between two variables by estimating coefficients for an equation for a straight line.

C) It is an indicator of the importance of an independent variable in predicting a dependent variable.

D) It indicates that the shape of the distribution of a variable is equal both above and below the mean.

E) It is a visual representation of the relationships between the variables of interest.

To measure whether a relationship exists between two variables, we rely on the concept of statistical significance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

593)

The strength of association between two variables is determined by the size of the correlation coefficient. ⊚ true ⊚ false

594)

When two variables have a curvilinear relationship, the formula that best describes the linkage is very simple. ⊚ true ⊚ false

595)

596)

Covariation refers to the degree of association between two variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false

A scatter plot wherein the dots form an ellipse indicates a positive relationship between variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false

597)

598)

A scatter diagram is used to visually describe the covariation between two variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Use of the Pearson correlation coefficient assumes that the variables of interest have a normally distributed population. ⊚ true ⊚ false

599)

The smaller the size of the coefficient of determination, the stronger the linear relationship between the two variables being examined. ⊚ true ⊚ false

600)

The way in which the statistical significance of regression coefficients is examined differs in bivariate and multiple regression analysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

601)

A model F statistic can help researchers determine whether or not to reject the null hypothesis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

602)

A normal curve is a curve that indicates the shape of the distribution of a variable is equal both above and below the mean. ⊚ true ⊚ false

603)

The use of a simple regression model assumes that the error terms associated with making predictions are not independently distributed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

604)

Regression analysis assumes there is a straight-line relationship between the independent and dependent variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false

605)

The least squares procedure determines the best-fitting line by maximizing the vertical distances of all the data points from the line. ⊚ true ⊚ false

606)

In a regression analysis, the horizontal distance between the estimated regression line and the actual data points is called the unexplained variance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

607)

608)

In multiple regression, the value of a beta coefficient can never be greater than 1. ⊚ true ⊚ false

A problem area for marketing researchers in multiple regression is when the independent variables are highly correlated with each other. ⊚ true ⊚ false

609)

When the correlations between independent variables in multiple regression are high enough to cause a problem, one approach to deal with it is to create summated scales consisting of the independent variables that are highly correlated. ⊚ true ⊚ false

610)

The maximum number of questions that can be used to measure a composite variable is three. ⊚ true ⊚ false

611)

Confirmatory composite analysis involves determining how well a model predicts the dependent variable(s). ⊚ true ⊚ false

612)

Differentiate between the Pearson correlation coefficient and the coefficient of determination.

613)

What are the several assumptions made while calculating the Pearson correlation coefficient?

614)

615)

Discuss multiple regression analysis.

616)

Discuss the concept of multicollinearity.

617)

What are the advantages of using PLS path models in structural modeling?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 1) D 2) B 3) A 4) B 5) C 6) E 7) A 8) D 9) D 10) B 11) D 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) E 20) A 21) C 22) E 23) E 24) E 25) E 26) A 27) E 28) TRUE 29) TRUE 30) FALSE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) TRUE 35) FALSE 36) FALSE 37) TRUE

38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) TRUE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) Essay 49) Essay 50) Essay 51) Essay 52) Essay

Student name:__________ 618)

Which of the following statements best describes the credibility of a research report?

A) It refers to the quality of the report that is related to its accuracy, believability, and professional organization.

B) It refers to the quality of the report based on the number of sources considered in determining the sample size.

C) It illustrates the major points of the report in a manner that is complete so as to provide a true representation of the entire document.

D) It is a measure of how data are dispersed in the report.

E) It refers to the extent to which the data in the report can produce the same measurement results in repeated trials.

_________ is defined as the quality of a research report that is based on clear and logical thinking, precise expression, and accurate presentation.

A) Objectivity B) Subjectivity C) Generalizability D) Believability E) Desirability

619)

620)

Which of the following is true about establishing credibility of a report?

A) Only the key concepts of the report need to be accurate.

B) The accuracy, believability, and professional organization dimensions of the report are treated separately.

C) Grammatical errors do not affect the credibility of the report.

D) The report must reflect the technical sophistication and preferences of the reader.

E) Organization of the report does not play a role in establishing credibility.

In a research report, the action statements that will help solve the problem at hand through the creation of a competitive advantage is most likely to be included in the_________.

A) research methods B) data analysis and findings C) appendixes D) recommendations E) limitations

621)

622)

Which of the following is included in the title page of a report?

A) the questionnaire B) the total estimated budget of the report C) statistical calculations D) a detailed sampling map E) the date the report is submitted

Which of the following sections in a report highlights each topical area, the subdivisions within each area, and corresponding page numbers?

A) table of contents B) title page C) executive summary D) introduction E) appendix

623)

624)

Which of the following is true of the executive summary in a research report?

A) It contains complex, detailed, or technical information not necessary for the formal report.

B) It presents the major points of the report and should actually be written last.

C) It contains background information necessary for a complete understanding of the report.

D) It includes the questionnaire or data collection instrument used for the research project, interviewer forms, and detailed sampling maps.

E) It must contain the name, position, employing organization, address, and telephone number of the person submitting the report.

Janice is waiting for a research report to prepare for a meeting. They receive the report just 10 minutes before the meeting. They want to know about the research objectives, research method, key findings, and suggested future actions. Given the short time frame, Janice has time to read only one section of the report. In this scenario, which of the following sections of the report is Janice most likely to read?

A) introduction B) appendix C) executive summary D) data analysis E) conclusions and recommendations

625)

In the context of the format of a research report, a researcher is most likely to include relevant background information, definition of terms, and the study's scope and emphasis in the_________.

A) limitations section B) introduction C) methods-and-procedures section D) table of contents E) appendixes

626)

627)

Which of the following is true of the introduction in a research report?

A) It lists specific research objectives and questions the study was designed to answer.

B) It focuses on specific marketing tactics or strategies a client can use to gain a competitive advantage.

C) It summarizes the findings of research.

D) It indicates the subject of the report and the name of the recipient, along with his or her position and organization.

E) It lists the topics of the report in sequential order.

628)

The objective of the methods-and-procedures section in a research report is to A) give background information for a complete understanding of the report.

B) list specific research objectives and questions the study was designed to answer.

C) convey why the research was undertaken and to summarize the key findings.

D) communicate how the research was conducted.

E) give a brief statement of conclusions and recommendations.

Mia is preparing a research report. When including the data analysis and findings of the study in the body of the report, she should A) refrain from using graphs, tables, and figures.

B) use technical language to explain the study's findings.

C) communicate how the research was conducted in detail.

D) claim that the results are obvious or self-evident E) explain the information in a straightforward fashion.

629)

Jane, a researcher, wants to include some detailed and complex technical information about the research technique used for the data analysis in her report. In this scenario, Jane is most likely to include this information in the A) limitations section.

B) appendix section.

C) recommendations section.

D) methods-and-procedures section.

E) conclusions section.

630)

631)

Which of the following statements is true of the limitations of research projects?

A) Certain research studies are flawless and have no limitations.

B) Treatment of limitations normally excludes a discussion of results.

C) Treatment of limitations normally excludes a discussion of accuracy.

D) Researchers should make their clients aware of the limitations of their projects.

E) Researchers should refrain from openly addressing any limitations in their projects.

Which of the following sections of a report contains information on the course of action used to collect primary data and the sample and sampling processes used for a study?

A) introduction B) research methods and procedures C) limitations D) executive summary E) data analysis and findings

632)

Which of the following sections of a marketing research report explains weaknesses in research methodology that might affect confidence in research conclusions?

A) limitations B) executive summary C) conclusions and recommendations D) data analysis and findings E) appendixes

633)

Abdul is analyzing the results of an ANOVA analysis. Upon finishing the analysis, Abdul plans to summarize and present it in their research report. Under which of the following sections should Abdul include the analysis?

A) data analysis and findings B) executive summary C) conclusions and recommendations D) research analysis E) methods-and-procedures

634)

Peter wants to clearly portray the relative proportion of response to a question in their research report. In this scenario, Peter is most likely to use a(n)_________.

A) bubble chart B) area chart C) pie chart D) line chart E) scatter chart

635)

Which of the following instructions should be kept in mind when reporting the means of thematically related variables?

A) Means and standard deviations should generally display one digit past the decimal.

B) While preparing a table, percentages should generally display one digit past the decimal point.

C) When a researcher reports the means of thematically related variables, the items in the table should be ordered from the lowest to the highest average.

D) While preparing a table, the maximum value should not be indicated as readers will not be able to easily compare the mean.

E) The means of several thematically related variables can be reported in the same chart or table using a pie chart.

636)

637)

Identify a true statement about reporting the means of thematically related variables.

A) Researchers can report the means of several thematically related variables using a pie chart.

B) Researchers prefer charts when they feel the entire question needs to be portrayed in order to fully understand the findings.

C) While preparing a table, percentages should generally display one digit past the decimal point.

D) In tables, the means should have no decimals past the decimal point.

E) Sorting responses from the highest to the lowest mean values facilitates reader understanding.

When a market researcher has reported data, statistics, and information that are not consistent with a study's objectives, which of the following problem areas has the researcher fallen victim to?

A) lack of data interpretation B) unnecessary use of multivariate statistics C) lack of relevance D) too much emphasis on too few statistics E) lack of generalizability

638)

Which of the following is true of the critical nature of presentation of marketing research results?

A) The presentation itself is not as important as the results of the research.

B) All conclusions or recommendations included in the presentation should be based on a few statistically significant questions.

C) Sophisticated multivariate statistical techniques should be used in the presentation of the results to impress clients.

D) The report or presentation of marketing research results is viewed only by those who worked on the research.

E) The content and presentation form of the research study are closely intertwined.

639)

Which of the following guidelines should be followed for preparing good oral presentations?

A) Always be formal in oral communication.

B) Include flamboyant graphics in visual presentations to enhance oral presentations.

C) Have a well-organized and inspiring dialogue prepared.

D) If no questions or comments are being posed within the first five minutes of a presentation, end the session.

E) Avoid the use of visual components in oral presentations.

640)

Which of the following guidelines should be followed for preparing a good visual presentation?

A) Avoid identifying the marketing research firm in a visual presentation.

B) Use flamboyant graphics in the presentation to impress clients.

C) Avoid developing the slides in a sequence as they may fail to engage the audience.

D) Begin the presentation with recommendations and research implications as they pertain to the study at hand.

E) Begin with a slide showing the title of the presentation and the individual(s) doing the presentation.

641)

642)

Clients are seldom knowledgeable about sampling methods and statistics. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Writing a summary of the findings is the final step in both qualitative and quantitative reports. ⊚ true ⊚ false

643)

Researchers should strive to communicate findings and key points using graphics and should avoid the use of text to explain the findings in graphs and tables in their reports. ⊚ true ⊚ false

644)

645)

Research reports can be used for comparison purposes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

646)

In a research report, an appendix lists all the topics of the report in sequential order. ⊚ true ⊚ false

647)

In a research report, a hypothesis is usually stated formally in the introduction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

The information pertaining to the sample and sampling processes is provided in the data analysis and findings section of a research report. ⊚ true ⊚ false

648)

649)

An appendix is also referred to as a technical appendix. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Recommendations are descriptive statements generalizing the results, not necessarily the numbers generated by statistical analysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

650)

651)

Recommendations are generated by critical thinking. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Common items contained in the appendix of a research report include the name, position, employing organization, address, telephone number of the person submitting the report, and the date the report is submitted. ⊚ true ⊚ false

652)

Information in the appendix of a research report is cited in the report to guide a reader to further technical or statistical detail. ⊚ true ⊚ false

653)

654)

Reporting limitations often diminishes the credibility of a marketing research report. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Tables are particularly good at portraying the relative proportion of response to a question. ⊚ true ⊚ false

655)

One of the simplest ways to present regression findings in a research report is to create a diagram in Word or in PowerPoint that displays the predictor and the outcome variables with arrows showing the relationships between the variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false

656)

Researchers should avoid using statistical methods unless they are essential to derive meaning from the data collected. ⊚ true ⊚ false

657)

The primary goal of visual presentation is to combine complex research-oriented information into an informative, engaging, and conclusive discussion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

658)

A report or presentation of marketing research is often the only part of a marketing research project that will be seen by those commissioning the report. ⊚ true ⊚ false

659)

The visual presentation is a separate but equally important component of a marketing research report. ⊚ true ⊚ false

660)

661)

What are the objectives of a professional marketing research report?

662)

Discuss the elements common to all marketing research reports.

What are the issues addressed in the methods-and-procedures section of a marketing research report?

663)

664)

Mention five problem areas that may arise when writing a marketing research report.

665)

Explain the importance of presentations in marketing research.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 13 1) A 2) D 3) D 4) D 5) E 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) D 12) E 13) B 14) D 15) B 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) E 21) C 22) E 23) C 24) E 25) TRUE 26) FALSE 27) FALSE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) FALSE 31) FALSE 32) TRUE 33) FALSE 34) TRUE 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE

38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) Essay 45) Essay 46) Essay 47) Essay 48) Essay